IMMUNOLOGY-SEROLOGY & BLOOD BANKING a.

Type O

1. He was said to have been given the world’s first blood b. Type A
transfusion by his Jewish physician Giacomo di San Genesio, c. Type B
who had him drink the blood of three 10-year-old boys.
d. Type AB
a. Pope Innocent VII
5. Bombay phenotype antibodies include:
b. Pope Pius I
a. Anti-A
c. Pope Gregory III
b. Anti-B
d. Pope Boniface IV
c. Anti-H
2. The number of H antigen structures currently identified
d. All of the choices
are:
6. What type of blood should be given in an emergency
a. Two
transfusion when there is no time to type the recipient’s
b. Four sample?
c. Six a. O Rh-negative, whole blood
d. Eight b. O Rh-positive, whole blood
3. Greatest amount of H antigen: c. O Rh-negative, pRBCs
a. A1 d. O Rh-positive, pRBCs
b. O 7. This blood group is an anthropological marker in Asian
c. AB ancestry:

d. B a. Diego

4. Identify the blood type based on the following reactions: b. Cartwright

c. Colton
FORWARD GROUPING REVERSE GROUPING d. Gerbich
Anti-A Anti-B A cells B cells 8. The activity of this antibody is enhanced in an acidic
O 4+ 3+ O environment.

a. Anti-S
 b. Anti-U a. Decreased sample volume

c. Anti-N b. Improved productivity

c. Enhanced sensitivity
d. Anti-M
d. Standardization
9. Shelf-life of packed red blood cells obtained through
14. Agglutination reaction: “Several large clumps with clear
open system with ACD anticoagulant:
background”
a. 21 days
a. 4+
b. 35 days b. 3+
c. 42 days c. 2+
d. None of the choices d. 1+

10. Indication for transfusion of neocytes: 15. This type of autologous donation occurs when blood is
collected from the patient before the start of surgery. The
a. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura
patient’s blood volume is returned to normal with fluids, and
b. Hemolytic transfusion reaction
autologous blood may be returned to the patient after the
c. Thalassemia
surgery is complete.
d. Hydrops fetalis
a. Preoperative

11. Citrate in ACD functions as: b. Normovolemic hemodilution

c. Intraoperative salvage
a. Anticoagulant
d. Postoperative salvage
b. ATP source
16. The anticoagulant preferred in direct antiglobulin testing
c. RBC membrane stabilizer
is:
d. Caramelization inhibitor
12. The most common cause of transfusion-related sepsis a. EDTA

is: b. Heparin
c. Citrate
a. Whole blood
d. Oxalate
b. Packed red blood cells
17. A donor was deferred by the physician due to the
c. Leukocyte concentrates
presence of bluish purple areas under the skin of the donor.
d. Platelets concentrates
This is typical of:
13. Major advantage of gel technology:
 a. Syphilis 22. Percentage of B cells present in the circulation
b. Herpes simplex a. 2-5%
c. Candidiasis b. 5-10%
d. Kaposi’s sarcoma c. 10-15%
18. A febrile transfusion reaction is defined as a rise in body d. 75-85%
temperature of ___ occurring in association with the transfusion 23. C3b
of blood or components and without any other explanation.
a. Anaphylatoxin
a. 1oC or more b. Opsonin
b. 1oF or more c. Chemotaxin
c. 3oC or more d. Cytokine
d. 3oF or more 24. What is the most common complement component
19. The most severe form of HDN is associated with: deficiency?
a. Anti-A a. C1
b. Anti-B b. C2
c. Anti-K c. C3
d. Anti-D d. C4
20. This is a diagnostic prenatal test in which a sample of 25. Which of the following is the most common congenital
the baby’s blood is removed from the umbilical cord for testing: immonudeficiency?
a. Cordocentesis a. Severe combined immonudeficiency
b. PUBS b. Selective IgA deficiency
c. Both c. X-linked agammaglobulinemia
d. None of the above d. Common variable immunodeficiency
26. Which disease might be indicated by antibodies to
21. Year of discovery of the T cell receptor gene: smooth muscle?
a. 1964 a. Chronic active hepatitis
b. 1974 b. Primary biliary cirrhosis
c. 1984 c. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
d. 1994 d. Myasthenia gravis
27. The most common fungal infection for AIDS patients is b. Molecular
caused by: c. Enzymatic

a. Candida albicans d. Biologic

b. Cryptococcus neoformans 32. Hives and itching are under what type of
c. Blastomyces dermatitidis hypersensitivity?
d. Cryptosporidium parvum a. Type I
28. This dengue antigen has been detected in the serum of b. Type II
dengue virus infected patients as early as 1-day post onset of c. Type III
symptoms (DPO), and up to 18 DPO. d. Type IV

a. NS1 33. Gamma counter uses these substances as labels:

b. C a. Isotopes
c. E b. Fluorochromes
d. prM c. Enzymes
29. These are expressed in the developing fetus and in d. Immune complexes
rapidly dividing tissue, such as that associated with tumors, but 34. Treponema pallidum immobilization (TPI) test: 10%
that are absent in normal adult tissue: treponemes are immobilized. Interpret the result.
a. Oncogenes a. Positive
b. Sarcoma b. Negative
c. Oncofetal antigens c. Doubtful
d. Tumor specific antigen d. Indeterminate
30. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a/an ___ assay. 35. When reading for a slide agglutination for Salmonella,
a. Chemical macroscopic agglutination is graded as 25%. Interpret.
b. Molecular a. Non-reactive
c. Enzymatic b. Negative
d. Biologic c. Positive
31. Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism (RFLP) is d. 1+
a/an ___ assay. 36. Other name for “HCV RNA”:
a. Chemical a. Viral clade
 b. Surface antigen
c. Viral load
d. Core antigen
37. Not included as a Hepatitis B serologic marker:
a. HBcAg
b. HBeAg
c. Anti-HBeAg
d. Anti-HBcAg
38. Autoimmune diseases are mostly associated with which
class of HLA?
a. Class I
b. Class II
c. Class III
d. Class IV
39. Which of the following activates both T and B cells?
a. Pokeweed mitogen
b. Lipopolysaccharide
c. Concanavalin A
d. Phytohemagglutinin
40. It is used as the receptor for the sheep red blood cells
(sRBC) for e-rosette assay:
a. CD2
b. CD4
c. CD8
d. CD12