Random set theory

Theorem 1. Recursion theorem

For each set A, a ∈ A and F : A → A there exists unique function h
such that
h:ω→A
h(0) = a
h(n+ ) = F (h(n))
Proof. We start by defining a acceptable function.

v : ω → A is acceptable iff
1. 0 ∈ dom(v) =⇒ v(0) = a
2. n ∈ ω, n+ ∈ dom(v) =⇒ v(n+ ) = F (v(n))
We call a set of acceptable function K and define
[
h := K

We claim that h is a function we are looking for.

We need to prove four things
1. h is a function.
Let S be a set of natural numbers at which there is no more than
one candidate for h(n).
S := {n ∈ ω : ∃! y ∈ A : hn, yi ∈ h}
We will show that dom(S) = ω by showing that dom(S) is induc-
tive.
If h−1 (0) = y1 , y2 it implies there exists two function v, v 0 such
that
v(0) = y1 ∧ v 0 (0) = y2
but then y1 = a = y2 .
That means 0 ∈ dom(S). We proceed by induction:
Suppose h−1 (n+ ) = {y1 , y2 }, again we have v, v 0 and
y1 = v(n+ ) = F (v(n)) = F (v 0 (n)) = v 0 (n+ ) = y2
We conclude that h is a function.

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 2. h is acceptable.
Clearly h(0) = 0 since {h0, ai} is acceptable function.
Lets assume n+ ∈ dom(h). Then there must be some acceptable
v such that
v(n+ ) = F (v(n))
then {hn, v(n)i} ∈ h and h is acceptable.
3. dom(h) = ω.
We will show that dom(h) = ω by showing that h is inductive.
Clearly 0 ∈ dom(h) since {h0, ai} is an acceptable function.

Suppose k ∈ dom(h).
If k + ∈ dom(h) we are done, otherwise consider

v = h ∪ {hk + , F (h(k))i}

Since h is acceptable, v also is, but then v ⊆ h which implies

v = h.
4. h is unique.
Uniqueness follows by simple induction.
Suppose there are two function h, g fitting the definition. Proceed
by induction:
h(0) = g(0)
and inductive step:

h(n+ ) = F (h(n)) = F (g(n)) = g(n+ )

Theorem 2. Any Peano system hN, S, ei is isomorphic to hω,+ , ∅i.

That is, there exists bijection h : ω → N such that

h(0) = e
h(n+ ) = S(h(n))

Proof. Such function exists (and is unique) by recursion theorem.

We only need to show that h is bijection.
To show range(h) = S we use Peano induction postulate.
We only need to show h(x) = h(y) =⇒ x = y
Let
T := {n ∈ ω : ∀ m ∈ ω : h(m) = h(n) =⇒ m = n}
We will show that T is inductive.
We know h(0) = e, so we have to show that 6 ∃ m : h(m+ ) = e.
We have
h(m+ ) = S(h(m))

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but ∀ x ∈ N : S(x) 6= e.
Now we need to show

n ∈ T =⇒ n+ ∈ T

So suppose n ∈ T .
Let h(n+ ) = h(m0 ) since m0 6= 0 we can rewrite as h(n+ ) = h(m+ ).
Then
S(h(n)) = h(n+ ) = h(m+ ) = S(h(m))
That leaves h(n) = h(m), which, by inductive hypothesis gives n =
m.