Documenti di Didattica
Documenti di Professioni
Documenti di Cultura
___________________
END TERM EXAMINATION, APRIL-2018
B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-II
Law of Contract-II
Max. Marks: 60 Time Allowed: 3:00 Hrs.
Note: Answer five questions including Question No. 1 which is compulsory. The mark carried by each question is
indicated at the end of the question.
1. Explain the following (each explanation should be in approximately 100 words) (Marks 210=20)
a. Constructive delivery
b. Revocation of continuing guarantee
c. Imputed notice
d. Goodwill of firm
e. Duties of bailor
f. Particular lien
g. Contingent dissolution of firm
h. Mutual agency
i. Pretended agent
j. Ostensible authority of agent
PTO
5. Answer the following:
a. Explain the doctrine of ‘caveat emptor’. What are various exceptions to this doctrine? Discuss.
b. B asked S a chemist for hot water bottle. S sold him an American rubber bottle. When wife of B was
using the bottle, it burst and injured her. Discuss the liability of seller under the Sale of Goods Act.
(Marks 5+5=10)
6. Answer the following:
a. What do you mean by ‘dissolution of a firm’? Describe the circumstances in which a partnership firm
may be dissolved by the court.
b. Discuss the liability of a firm which is not registered. (Marks 5+5=10)
*******
I.D. No.___________________
END TERM EXAMINATION, APRIL-2018
B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-IV
Labour Laws-I
Max. Marks: 60 Time Allowed: 3:00 Hrs.
Note: Answer five questions including Question No. 1 which is compulsory. The mark carried by each question is
indicated at the end of the question.
1. Answer the following (each answer should be in approximately 100 words) (Marks 210=20)
a. Mention any two conditions for good industrial relation.
b. What do you mean by ‘Industrial Dispute’?
c. What are the primary causes of industrial dispute?
d. What do you mean by ‘adjudication’?
e. What are the grounds for cancellation or withdrawal of a certificate of registered trade union?
f. What do you mean by ‘Model Standing Order’?
g. Define the term ‘Award’ under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.
h. What are the qualifications of members of registered Trade Union?
i. Can individual dispute become an industrial dispute?
j. Define the term ‘retrenchment’ under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.
2. “The Supreme Court has played significant role in the evolution of industrial jurisprudence during the last sixty
seven years. It has not only made a distinct contribution to the law relating to industrial relations, social
security and minimum, standards of employment but has innovated new methods and devised new strategies
for providing access to justice to weaker sections of society.” In the light of given statement explain the role of
Supreme Court in the evolution of industrial jurisprudence and achieving the objective of Social Justice in India with the
help of case laws. (Marks 10)
3. Examine whether the following activities fall within the definition of ‘industry’ under section 2(j) of the Industrial
Disputes Act, 1947:
a. School and Colleges run by Charitable Institutions.
b. A hospital runs by the ministry of Health, Government of India for treatment of patients and conduct of research in
medical sciences.
c. A firm of solicitors advising people on legal matters having clerks, typists, peon and Chowkidars on its payrolls.
d. A domestic services (Marks 2.5×4=10)
4. Define the term “Trade Union’ and discuss the procedure for registration of Trade Union under the Trade Union Act,
1926. Is registration of a Trade Union is compulsory? What are the consequences of registration? Discuss the
privileges and immunities of a registered trade union. (Marks 10)
5. “Strike is a weapon the hands of the employees to press their demands, so is lockout in the hands of employer to deal
with strikes”. Discuss the above statement in the light of provisions contained in the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.
(Marks 10)
6. Define ‘Employer’. State the provisions relating to application of model standing order in every industrial establishment
and date of operation of standing under the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946. (Marks 10)
1. Answer the following (each answer should be in approximately 100 words) (Marks 210=20)
a) What is post-decisional hearing?
b) Explain the term Droit Administratiff.
c) Discuss the maxim “Delegatus Non Potest Delegare”.
d) What is doctrine of legitimate expectation?
e) What do you mean by substantive ultravires?
f) What is conditional legislation?
g) Explain the maxim “Nemo Debetesse Judex In Propria Causa”.
h) What is speaking order?
i) Discuss the tortious liability of the administration.
j) Discuss the meaning of “information” under the Right to Information Act, 2005.
2. “Administrative law is basically the law relating to control of Governmental Powers”. In the light of this
statement discuss the meaning, nature and scope of Administrative Law. (Marks 10)
3. (a) Explain the concept of Rule of Law propounded by A.V. Dicey. Do you think that the concept of Rule of
Law has been incorporated under the Constitution of India? Critically examine.
(b) Discuss judicial control over delegated legislation. (Marks 7+3=10)
4. (a) “The doctrine of separation of powers as propounded by Montesquieu is not feasible in its strict sense
for the Governance of any democratic country”. In the light of this statement critically evaluate the
relevancy of the doctrine of separation of powers.
6. Explain the procedure to get information under the Right to Information Act, 2005. What kinds of
information are exempted from disclosure? Discuss in detail. (Marks 10)
*******
I.D. No.___________________
END TERM EXAMINATION, APRIL-2018
B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-VIII & X
CG- Fundamental Rights & Its Enforcement (Hons. - I)
Max. Marks: 60 Time Allowed: 3:00 Hrs.
Note: Answer five questions including Question No. 1 which is compulsory. The number of marks carried by each
question is indicated at the end of the question.
1. Answer the following (each answer should be in approximately 100 words) (Marks 210=20)
a) Doctrine of waiver
b) Doctrine of implied fundamental right
c) Objectives of fundamental rights
d) Locus standi
e) Right to reply
f) Meaning of law under Article 13
g) Doctrine of eclipse
h) Reasonable classification and class legislation
i) Protection against bonded labour
j) Ex-post-facto laws
2. The interpretation of the term ‘other authorities’ in Article 12 has caused a good deal of difficulty for
enforcement of fundamental rights and the judicial opinion has undergone changes over time. In this context
discuss the ambit and scope of the meaning of ‘other authorities’ under Article 12. (Marks 10)
3. Discuss with the help of decided cases that the most fascinating aspect of Article 14 which courts in India
have developed over time is that Article 14 embodies a guarantee against arbitrariness. (Marks 10)
4. Answer the following:
a) Give the justifications for the permissible departure of state under Article 15(3) from the rigours
imposed on state under Article 15(1) on the principle that Constitution insists on equality of status and it
negates gender bias.
b) Delhi University reserved 70% seats for admission to the post graduate courses in Dermatology for
Delhi University graduates. A medical student from Madras University was seeking admission to post
graduate degree course in Delhi University as his father has been transferred to Delhi. He qualified the
entrance examination but he was denied admission because of the rule of reserving 70% seats at the PG
level to the Delhi University graduates. He challenged the validity of the rule. Decide and also refer to
relevant case law. (Marks 4+6)
5. Discuss the grounds on which the state can impose the reasonable restrictions on the freedom of speech and
expression guaranteed under Article 19(1) (a). (Marks 10)
6. Discuss the ‘procedure established by law’ under Article 21 shall mean the procedure which is just, fair and
reasonable by distinguishing the approach of the Apex Indian Court in the cases of A.K.Gopalan v. State of
Madras, AIR 1950 SC 27 and Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India, AIR 1978 SC 597. (Marks 10)
7. Discuss the following:- (Marks 5+5)
a) Meaning and extent of religious freedom under Article 25.
b) Excess of jurisdiction as the ground for writ jurisdiction.
*******
I.D. No.___________________
END TERM EXAMINATION, APRIL-2018
B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-VIII &X
IPR- Geographical Indications (Hons. - I)
Max. Marks: 60 Time Allowed: 3:00 Hrs.
Note: Answer five questions including Question No. 1 which is compulsory. The number of marks carried by each
question is indicated at the end of the question.
1. Answer the following (each answer should be in approximately 100 words): (Marks 2×10=20)
a) What is ‘protected geographical indication’?
b) What do you mean by falsifying and falsely applying geographical indication?
c) Differentiate between traditional knowledge and geographical indications.
d) What are the differences between geographical indication and an appellation of origin?
e) What are the grounds for opposition of registration of geographical indications?
f) Who can be registered as an ‘Authorized User’ and how?
g) What do you mean by ‘false geographical indication’?
h) What do you mean by ‘applying of geographical indication’?
i) Where a suit can be instituted for infringement and what acts not amounts to an offence?
j) Can a Trade Mark is registered as a Geographical Indication?
2. Discuss the contemporary challenges and opportunities for protection Geographical Indications in India. Also
discuss different modes of protection of Geographical Indications in our country. Is it helps for the
preservation of traditional knowledge? (Marks 10)
3. Which international convention has been the basis of the protection of geographical indications? Discuss the
various global efforts made for the protection of geographical indications? (Marks 10)
4. Define the term ‘Geographical Indication’. What are the essential ingredients of a geographical indication for
registration under the Geographical Indication of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999? Explain the
law relating to procedure for registration of Geographical Indication, with a specific on prohibition of
registration of certain Geographical Indications. (Marks 10)
5. Who can be a registered proprietor? What functions does a geographical indication perform? What rights
available to the registered proprietor of geographical indication? Also discuss the various remedies available
for violation of rights in unregistered geographical indications. (Marks 10)
2. The UNCITRAL model law on electronic commerce applies to any kind of information in form of a data
message used in context of commercial activities. In this reference, what do you understand by data message and
retention of data messages? What is the admissibility and evidential weight of data messages in any legal
proceeding? (Marks 10)
3. The Brussels Convention for the Unification of Certain Rules of Law Relating to Bills of Lading (also known as
'Hague rules') appeared as the first set of rules creating a uniform international carrier liability regime,
standardizing the right and liability of the parties. - Discuss. Also write down the provision related to duties of a
carrier under Hague- Visby rules. (Marks 10)
4. The Incoterms are a set of International rules that provide an interpretation for the most used commercial terms
in foreign trade operations. The aim of Incoterms is standardization and interpretation of contractual trade terms.
In this context discuss the concept, definition and justification for the Incoterm. Give your opinion on changes
made in the edition 2010 and point out their impact on both local and international trade. (Marks 10)
5. The Warsaw Convention 1929 provides a comprehensive framework of a unified liability regime applicable to
claims arising out of international air transport, irrespective of the domicile of the parties, the place of loss or
injury, or the venue of the trial. In this context discuss
a. The Air carrier’s liability for loss damages or delay.
b. Consignor’s right of disposal. (Marks 5+5)
6. Answer the following:
a. What do you understand by party autonomy principal under CISG, 1980?
b. What do you mean by formation of contract? On March 1 Buyer mails a letter to Seller enclosing a purchase
order form for specified equipment manufactured by Seller. The letter makes specific reference to the price
listed in Seller's catalog. Is Buyer's communication an "offer? (Marks 5+5)
7. Write short note on any two of the following-
a. Marine Insurance
b. International commercial arbitration
c. UNIDROIT principles. (Marks 5+5)
*******
I.D. No.___________________
1. Answer the following (each answer should be in approximately 100 words): (Marks 2×10=20)
a. What is socio-economic offence?
b. Role of mens rea in determining liability of Socio-Economic offenders.
c. What constitute Immoral Trafficking?
d. Objectives of Detention in Corrective Institutions.
e. Need of Food Safety for all.
f. What do you mean by Civil Rights?
g. Stigma of Corruption in the Country.
h. What is the problem of Honor killing?
i. Problem of Acid Attack and its victims.
j. Deterrent effect of punishment for Socio-Economic offenders.
2. (a) How does a socio-economic offence affect the health individuals and the economy of a country? Critically
examine the nature of socio-economic offences and its increasing problem in the country.
(b) “As there is advancement in the sphere of science and technology, it resulted into the emergence of a new
category of offences, which posed difficulty of enforcement of the laws.” Critically examine.
(Marks 5+5=10)
3. (a) What is Dowry? Why taking and giving of dowry both are punishable under the Dowry Prohibition Act,
1961? What is the amount of punishment for taking and giving of dowry?
(b) A list of presents given at the time of the marriage to the bride was maintained by her parents including a
brief description of each present; the approximate value of the present; the name of the person who has given the
present; and relationship with persons giving the present. After preparing such list, parents of bride asked to
bridegroom to put his signature over the list, but he denied and said it is not required to put signature under the
law. What is the course of law over such issue? (Marks 5+5=10)
4. (a) Define trafficking. What are the essentials of offence of trafficking? Whether trafficking and prostitution are
similar to each other?
(b) A girl was found guilty of an offence of prostitution and character, state of health and mental condition of the
offender compelled to authority that she should be subject to detention and court ordered for her detention for 2
years in corrective institution. She challenged her detention on the ground of violation of right to life. You have
to decide whether such detention was valid or not? (Marks 5+5=10)
5. What are the objectives of the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006? What are the principles to be followed to
achieve those objectives? Critically examine the functions of Food Authority for manufacture, processing,
distribution, sale and import of food. (Marks 10)
PTO
6. Define Untouchability. What kind of practices of untouchability enforced against any person is considered as
social disability? If one individual is compelled to do any scavenging or sweeping or to remove any carcass or to
flay any to animal or to remove the umbilical cord or to do any other similar job shall be subject to
untouchability. Examine. (Marks 10)
7. What is Black Marketing and Hoarding of Essential Commodities? Do you agree that these activities only
provides the benefit to the participant but the whole society suffers a lot and also it has an adverse effect on the
economy of the country? Explain. (Marks 10)
*******
I.D. No.___________________
1. Explain the following (each explanation should be in approximately 100 words): (Marks 2×10=20)
2. Differentiate between the Residential status of domestic corporate and Foreign corporate?
(Marks 10)
3. Explain the concept of Income with reference to the relevant Case Laws?
(Marks 10)
4. The Tax need to payable on the assumed total income from the various sources includes Salary, Business,
Profession, Rent etc. Describe the relevant Tax as per the Income Tax Act, 1961?
(Marks 10)
5. While calculating the Tax liability the SEZ’s are comes under the location of business. Explain the concept
of SEZ’s with reference to the Tax Liability?
(Marks 10)
6. Explain the history of law relating regime of Corporate Tax in India?
(Marks 10)
7. In the recent days the concept of business restructuring has grown importance in the field of corporate Law?
Explain the concept of Amalgamation with reference to the Tax Implication prescribed under the Income
Tax Act?
(Marks 10)
*******
I.D. No.___________________
END TERM EXAMINATION, APRIL -2018
B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-II
Political Science (Major): Political Thought
Max. Marks: 60 Time Allowed: 3:00 Hrs.
Note: Answer five questions including Question No. 1 which is compulsory. The number of marks carried by each
question is indicated at the end of the question.
1. Explain the following (each explanation should be in approximately 100 words) (Marks 210=20)
a. Plato’s Theory of Justice
b. Machiavelli on Human Nature
c. Hobbes on Social contract
d. Rousseau on General Will
e. Bentham on Utilitarianism
f. Gandhi on Trusteeship
g. Nehru on Democratic Socialism
h. Ambedkar on Annihilation of the Caste System
i. Locke on Liberalism
j. Mahatma Gandhi on Sarvodaya
2. Critically examine the Platonic theory of Ideal State. Compare it with the modern state. (Marks 10)
3. Analyze the Aristotelian concept of Revolution. How it is different from modern revolution?
(Marks 10)
5. John Lock was the apologist of the Glorious Revolution of 1688. Do you agree with this statement?
Explain (Marks 10)
*******
I.D. No.___________________
END TERM EXAMINATION, APRIL-2018
B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-IV
Transfer of Property Act
Max. Marks: 60 Time Allowed: 3:00 Hrs.
Note: Answer five questions including Question No. 1 which is compulsory. The number of marks carried by each
question is indicated at the end of the question.
1. Answer the following (each answer should be in approximately 100 words) (Marks 210=20)
a. What are the essentials of a ‘valid attestation’?
b. Are the following transactions ‘transfer’ within the meaning of Section 5 of the Transfer of Property
Act, 1882:
(i) Partition
(ii) Surrender
c. What do you mean by legal incidents of property?
d. Explain the law relating to ‘Marshalling’ and ‘Contribution’ under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882.
e. Define and distinguish between mortgage by conditional sale and English mortgage.
f. A purchased a property in the name of his wife B. B’s name was entered in the revenue records and
she used to deal with the property. After A’s death B mortgaged the property to C who took it in good
faith believing that B had authority to make the transfer. Can the above mortgage be avoided?
g. What do you mean by fraudulent transfer?
h. A, B, and C a minor owned a property in equal shares. A and B sold the whole property to D as if they
were entitled to it to the exclusion of C. When C grew up he refused to acknowledge the transfer.
Subsequently C died and the property went to A and B. Decide the rights of D in relation to C’s share.
i. What do you mean by ‘feeding grant by estoppel’?
j. What is right of redemption?
2. Discuss the rule against perpetuity. Is there any exception to the Rule? Does the Mohammedan Law
favour perpetuity? (Marks 10)
3. What is ‘vested interest’? How does it differ from a ‘contingent interest’? When does a contingent interest
become a vested interest? Explain. (Marks 10)
a) Discuss whether arbitration clause must follow the destiny of the contract to which they belong or can they
have an independent life.
b) Discuss whether the following is a valid arbitration agreement: “The parties would endeavor to resolve the
matter by Swiss arbitration, failing which the English Courts will have jurisdiction”.
c) When does an arbitration commence?
d) Discuss the effect of default of claimant and default of respondent under section 25 of the Arbitration and
Conciliation Act, 1996.
e) “Filing of an application under section 34 the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 does not amount to
automatic stay on enforcement of an award”. Discuss.
f) Is the tribunal bound to decide the dispute according to the contract between the parties or is it obliged to take
into account the contract between the parties while deciding the dispute? Quote the relevant section of the
Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996.
g) Discuss briefly the broad heads of the fifth schedule of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996.
h) Discuss the provisions on confidentiality during the conciliation proceeding.
i) Identify the provisions of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 which allow judicial intervention in
arbitral process.
j) Discuss section 37 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996.
PTO
4. “If a dispute involved non-signatories or included subject matter which was not strictly within the arbitration
agreement, the matter cannot be referred to arbitration”. Discuss the correctness of the above in the context of
section 8 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996. (Marks 10)
1. Explain the following (each explanation should be in approximately 100 words) (Marks 210=20)
a. Whether radio and television are under purview of defamation law in India? Justify
b. Discuss Press Council of India
c. Commercial advertisements are not entitled to enjoy the fundamental right under Art. 19(1)(a).
Comment
d. Discuss Right to criticize in India.
e. Define License Secrecy
f. Write a descriptive note on theories related with media
g. Is autonomous corporation necessary for regulation of radio? justify
h. Discuss origin of privacy
i. Write an explanatory note on Judicial Recognition of Right to Information
j. What is the composition of Central Information Commission?
2. In India, Parliament and State Legislatures could not claim such rights as United Kingdom Parliament had
since they neither historically nor constitutionally enjoyed powers of court of record. Examine the
legislative privileges of Parliament with the help of constitutional provisions and judicial decisions.
(Marks 10)
3. Discuss the followings:
a. Write a descriptive note on Law and Ethics related with Advertisement
b. Right to privacy is not a specific fundamental right but has nevertheless gained constitutional
recognition? Discuss. (Marks5+5)
4. Freedom to air one’s view is the lifeline of any democratic institution and any attempt to stifle or
suffocate or gag this right would sound a death knell to democracy and would help in autocracy or
dictatorship. In the light of above said statement, discuss the freedom of press under Indian Constitution
with the help of judicial decisions. (Marks 10)
5. The role of private and competitive media has become so important for the check and balances system of
modern democracy that they have come to be called “the fourth pillar” along with the executive,
legislature and the courts. Critically examine the abovesaid statement and illustrate the demerits of private
and competitive media with suitable examples. (Marks 10)
6. Broadcast frequencies are public property; neither the government nor any private entity could claim
ownership over it. Discuss the abovesaid statement with the help of constitutional provisions and judicial
decisions. (Marks 10)
7. The judgments of the court are public documents and can be commented upon, analysed and criticized but
in dignified manner without attributing motives. In the light of abovesaid statement, discuss contempt of
court in relation to reporting of judicial proceeding by media. (Marks 10)
*******
I.D. No.___________________
1. Explain the following (each explanation should be in approximately 100 words): (Marks 2×10=20)
a. Right of women to adopt a child.
b. Victimization of Women.
c. Marital Rape.
d. What kinds of Measures required to be taken to eliminate discrimination against women in all matters
relating to marriage and family relations under CEDAW 1979?
e. Special Status of Women under Indian Constitution.
f. Constitutionality of adultery under Section 497 of Indian Penal Code.
g. Woman's right to terminate pregnancy under the Medical Termination of Pregnancy, Act.
h. An overview of the provisions of The Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017.
i. Need of Social Transformation in order to protect right of women in India.
j. Prevention of Immoral Trafficking and Forced Prostitution.
2. “All live-in- relationships are not relationships in the nature of marriage”. In the light of the statement of Justice
K.S. Radhakrishnan in Indira Sharma vs. V K V Sharma, Discuss the Right of women and the status of Children
born out of such relationship and highlight the conflicting interests of those with legally wedded wife and
legitimate children. (Marks 10)
3. Various sections of society have raised their own concerns and objections towards the Sexual Harassment of
Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal ) Act, 2013. Discuss the mechanism in order to protect
women from sexual Harassment under the Act and critically examine the effeteness of the Act. (Marks 10)
4. The legal feminists claim that the modern jurisprudence is “masculine”. Discuss the dichotomy between Biological
Sex and Gender with special reference to radical feminism. (Marks 10)
5. Discuss the role of National Women Commission in order to monitor all matters relating to the constitutional and
legal safeguards provides for women in India. (Marks 10)
6. Write short notes on the following:- (Marks 5+5)
a. Discuss the additional grounds of divorce available only to wife under Section 13(2) of the Hindu Marriage
Act, 1955.
b. “Devaluation of interest in coparcenary property has always been pointed out as source of discrimination
between male and female heirs. Amendment in Hindu Succession Act in 2005 has been passed with objective
to abolish the discrimination male and female heirs” Critically examine above statement.
*******
I.D. No.___________________
END TERM EXAMINATION, APRIL-2018
B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-VIII &X
Law of Insurance (Opt.- I)
Max. Marks: 60 Time Allowed: 3:00 Hrs.
Note: Answer five questions including Question No. 1 which is compulsory. The number of marks carried by each
question is indicated at the end of the question.
1. Answer the following (each answer should be in approximately 100 words): (Marks 2×10=20)
a. What is a “contingent contract”? Examine whether all insurance contracts are contingent contract.
e. What is “reinsurance”?
2. From privatization to nationalization and again from nationalization to privatization, in this way the
insurance business in India has traveled a long path. In this journey, the insurance law has not only
promoted and regulated insurance business but also ensured an orderly growth of insurance business in
India. Elucidate. (Marks 10)
3. “The concealment of a material fact though you thought it material or not avoids the policy”. In the light
of the above statement examine the doctrine of utmost good faith. (Marks 10)
4. Define “insurable interest”. Discuss the application of insurable interest in life insurance. (Marks 10)
5. Discuss the law relating to “implied warranties” and “assignment of marine policy”. (Marks 10)
6. The doctrines of subrogation and contribution are corollary to the principle of indemnity”. Elucidate.
(Marks 10)
7. Critically examine the powers and functions of the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority
(Marks 10)
*******
I.D. No.___________________
2. What do you mean by Goods and Services Tax? Discuss its main features. (Marks 10)
4. Describe the procedure of registration and circumstances of cancellation of the registration under GSTA.
(Marks 10)
5. Discuss the provisions relating to appeal under GSTA. (Marks 10)
6. Elaborate various types of custom duties after implementation of GST in India. (Marks 10)
7. Discuss the power of search and seizure of customs officers under the Custom Act, 1961. (Marks 10)
*******
I.D. No.___________________
END TERM EXAMINATION, APRIL-2018
B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-II
Family Law – I
Max. Marks: 60 Time Allowed: 3:00 Hrs.
Note: Answer five questions including Question No. 1 which is compulsory. The number of marks carried by each
question is indicated at the end of the question.
1. Explain the following (each explanation should be in approximately 100 words) (Marks 210=20)
a) Sunnat as a source of Muslim Law
b) Breakdown theory of Divorce
c) Relative Incapacity
d) Customary forms of marriages
e) Distinguish between Talaq Ahasan and Talaq Hasan
f) Concept of Domicile under Hindu Law
g) Concept of al-khalwal-al-sahiha
h) Shrutis as a source of Hindu Law
i) Concept of mehr-i-misl
j) Concept of De-jure guardian
3. What is Iddat period? Is a Muslim woman entitled to maintenance after the expiry of Iddat period? Explain in light of
Apex Court judgments in this regard. (Marks 10)
PTO
4. What are considered as voidable marriages under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955? Explain the grounds on which
marriage becomes Voidable. Support your answer with the help of relevant judicial pronouncements in this regard.
(Marks 10)
b) Reshma meets Amir while she is on a pilgrimage. They immediately decided to get married and while in
pilgrimage, they contracted a marriage by Nikah format in presence of their respective families. What is the status
of such marriage and what are the rights and obligations the parties to such a marriage? (Marks 5+5=10)
6. “Under most of the personal laws in India, desertion is recognized as a ground for divorce and judicial separation”.
Explain desertion as a ground of divorce under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 in light of important judicial
pronouncements? (Marks 10)
7. Identify the name and the category of Talaq in the statements provided below. Explain whether such Talaq can be
revoked or not:- (Marks 2×5=10)
a) A Muslim woman dissolves marriage on the ground that her husband has alleged her to be in an adulterous
relationship.
b) A Muslim woman dissolves the marriage on payment of Rs.50, 000 to the husband as consideration.
c) A Muslim husband says to his wife ‘I swear by God that I shall not approach you’.
d) A Muslim woman dissolves the marriage on the ground that her husband has disrespected her by comparing with
his foster mother.
e) A Muslim woman dissolves her marriage whose marriage was solemnized before attaining the age of 15 years.
*******
I.D. No.___________________
END TERM EXAMINATION, APRIL-2018
B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-IV
Public International Law
Max. Marks: 60 Time Allowed: 3:00 Hrs.
Note: Answer five questions including Question No. 1 which is compulsory. The number of marks carried by each
question is indicated at the end of the question.
1. Explain the following (each explanation should be in approximately 100 words) (Marks 210=20)
a) ‘Jack’ was extradited from Britain to the United States on the ground for murdering a fellow servant on an
American Ship. But later on in the United States, ‘Jack’ was tried not for murder but for causing grievous
hurt to a man named ‘Joe’. Discuss the validity of the trial in the light of relevant principle.
b) Pacta tertiis nec nocent nec prosunt
c) The output of Reparation for Injuries Suffered in the Service of the United Nations case (1949) with regard to
subjects of International Law.
d) Doctrine of Fundamental rights under International Law
e) Distinguish between the Transformation Theory and Incorporation Theory.
f) The Stimson doctrine
g) Evidentiary theory of State Recognition
h) The Concept of Neutralized State under International Law.
i) Tobar Doctrine
j) Principle of jus sanguinis
2. “The nature of territorial sovereignty in relation to criminal acts was observed in the Lotus case where the
French steamer, the Lotus, was involved in a collision on the high seas with the Boz-Kourt, a Turkish collier.
Boz-Kourt sank and eight sailors and passengers died as a result. When the French officer was charged with
manslaughter and France protested strongly against this action, alleging that Turkey did not have the
jurisdiction to try the offence. The matter came before the Permanent Court of International Justice, where the
Court rejected the French claim that the flag state had exclusive jurisdiction over the ship on the high seas,
saying that no rule to that effect had emerged in international law, and stated that the damage to the Turkish
vessel was equivalent to affecting Turkish territory so as to enable that country to exercise jurisdiction on the
objective territorial principle, unrestricted by any rule of international law prohibiting this.”
The abovementioned case demonstrates the complex nature of State’s Criminal Jurisdiction and its implications.
In the light of abovementioned paragraph discuss the state jurisdiction and prevalent principles of state criminal
jurisdiction. (Marks 10)
3. Discuss in detail the procedure adopted in India for the implementation of Treaties and Customary International
Law. Wherever it is required, also discuss the relevant provisions of the Constitution of India and important case
laws. (Marks 10)
4. (a) J. Sztucki discussed in “Jus Cogens and the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties, New York, 1974” as:
“The concept of jus cogens is based upon an acceptance of fundamental and superior values within the system
and in some respects is akin to the notion of public order or public policy in domestic legal orders.”
Critically analyze the abovementioned observation in the light of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties
1969. (Marks 05)
(b) Discuss the concept of “reservation” provided under Article 2(1) (d) of the Vienna Convention on the Law
of Treaties, 1969.Also discuss the fraud as a ground for invalidity of a treaty. (Marks 05)
PTO
5. Discuss the concept of State Territory with the help of Judge Huber’s opinion in the Island of Palmas case
(1928). Also discuss in detail the various modes of acquisition of the territory. (Marks 10)
6. (a) How is nationality different from citizenship? Also discuss the various reasons responsible for loss of
nationality. (Marks 05)
(b) State ‘A’ was taken over and assimilated by state ‘B’. Pursuant to this event the status of state ‘A’ was
entirely changed. Discuss the nature of the said event in the light of international law on state succession.
(Marks 05)
7. (a) Discuss the concept of Retorsion under International Law. How are Reprisals distinguishable from acts of
Retorsion, which are in themselves lawful acts? (Marks 05)
(b) Why are Individuals considered as a subject of International Law? Explain with the views of Hans Kelsen,
Westlake and Starke. Also give the justification for such an inclusion. (Marks 05)
*******
I.D. No.___________________
END TERM EXAMINATION, APRIL-2018
B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-VI
Intellectual Property Rights
Max. Marks: 60 Time Allowed: 3:00 Hrs.
Note: Answer five questions including Question No. 1 which is compulsory. The number of marks carried by each question is
indicated at the end of the question.
1. Explain the following (each explanation should be in approximately 100 words) (Marks 210=20)
2. (a) What do you meant by Assignment of Copyright? What is the Mode of Assignment under the Copyright Act,
1957? What are the differences between assignment and licence of copyright? (Marks 5)
(b) Mr. X is a play writer and producer of a number of popular plays including a play called Kanoon. He tried to
consider the possibility of making film based on the said play and narrated the play to Mr. Y. Further, Mr. Y
without informing Mr. X made a movie called Mohra which was alleged to be based on the said play of Mr. X.
Mr. X argues that the film Mohra is an infringement of his copyright in the play Kanoon. Decide the matter in
the light of relevant provisions of the Copyright Act, 1957 and case laws. (Marks 5)
3. (a) What do you mean by Originality? What are the various practices adopted worldwide to ascertain the
originality of work? Critically examine the Indian practice to ascertain originality and refer to relevant provisions
of the Copyright Act, 1957 and case laws. (Marks 5)
(b) “The author’s moral rights are independent of author’s copyright. The moral rights remain with the author
even after the assignment/ licence of copyright and the protection lasts during the whole of copyright term.”
Elucidate the above sentence in the light of relevant provisions of the Copyright Act, 1957 and case laws.
(Marks 5)
PTO
4. (a) What do you mean by infringement of patents? What are various kinds of infringement of patents and how it
is to be determined? Discuss and refer relevant provisions and case laws. (Marks 5)
(b) A contracting state of the Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property, 1883 doesn’t grant same
protection to the nationals of non-contracting state though they are having domiciled in the contracting state.
Whether members of non-contracting states having domicile in contracting state are entitled to get same
protection? Elucidate the situation with help of relevant provisions. (Marks 5)
5. What is Compulsory Licence? In what circumstances a compulsory licence may be granted under the Indian
Patents Act, 1970. Critically examine the grant of compulsory licence in Bayer Corporation v. Natco Pharma
Limited (2012) and its implications. (Marks 10)
6. What kind of marks may be registered as Trade Mark? Whether a smell may be a trade mark? What are the
relative grounds for refusal of registration of trademarks under the Trade Marks Act, 1999? Discuss.
(Marks 10)
7. If there is a clear link between the product and its original place of origin/production, then what form of
intellectual property is relevant for protection of such linkage? In order to function as a Geographical
Indications, whether a sign must always identify a product as originating in a given place? Comment.
(Marks 10)
*******
I.D. No.___________________
END TERM EXAMINATION, APRIL-2018
B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-VIII & X
C.G. - Fundamental Rights & Its Enforcement (Hons.- II)
Max. Marks: 60 Time Allowed: 3:00 Hrs.
Note: Answer five questions including Question No. 1 which is compulsory. The number of marks carried by each
question is indicated at the end of the question.
1. Explain the following (each explanation should be in approximately 100 words) (Marks 210=20)
2. This is very difficult and delicate task for the courts in present days of development of the country into a
social welfare state to strike a proper balance between individual liberty and social control in making the
interpretation of fundamental rights. In this context discuss the approach of the courts which is constantly
shifting in favour of the individual in the area of non-economic matters like freedom of speech and right to
life and in favour of social control in the area of economic matters. (Marks 10)
3. What do you mean by the term ‘State’ under Article 12 of the Indian Constitution? How far do you think
that following institutions/bodies can be brought within the meaning of the expression ‘other authorities’
under Article 12:
a) Institute of Constitutional and Parliamentary Studies (ICPS).
b) National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)
c) Allahabad University Students Union.
d) Aligarh Muslim University. (Marks 4+1.5×4=10)
4. “Right to life means something more than mere animal existence.” Discuss with reference to case law. Is
there any difference between the expression ‘right to life’ and ‘personal liberty? Explain critically.
(Marks 10)
PTO
5. With reference to recent judicial decisions discuss the scope and ambit of the freedom guaranteed to
electronic media and social media under Article 19(1) (a) of Indian Constitution. (Marks 10)
1. Explain the following (each explanation should be in approximately 100 words): (Marks 2×10=20)
a) Meaning of Indian company
b) Foreign Company
c) Closely held company
d) Receipt of income
e) Domestic company
f) Resulting company
g) Amalgamating and Amalgamated company
h) Methods of granting reliefs under Avoidance of Double Taxation Agreements
i) Book Profit
j) When Minimum Alternate Tax provision is not applicable to a Foreign Company?
2. Explain the circumstances when an income is deemed to accrue or arise in India (Marks 10)
7. State the provisions of the Income Tax Act relating to transfer of assets between holding and subsidiary
companies. (Marks 10)
*******
I.D. No.___________________
1. Answer the following (each answer should be in approximately 100 words): (Marks 2×10=20)
a. What are the Stages of Commission of Crime?
b. Strict Liability under Criminal Law.
c. Definition of Human Rights.
d. Provisions for Free Legal Aid under Indian Constitution.
e. Causes and Problem of Juvenile Delinquency.
f. Child in Conflict with Laws.
g. Various forms of Punishment under Criminal Law.
h. Who is a victim of Crime?
i. Role of Police in Criminal Justice System.
j. How does criminal justice system work?
2. (a) Why individuals should be held criminally responsible for the intent to commit a crime, even if the
crime is not actually committed? Does a separate offense of conspiracy is useful to supplement the generally
restrictive law of attempts? Explain.
(b) The defendant Mr. A, in order to frighten Mrs. B, her rival for the affections of Mr. X, put burning
newspaper through the letterbox of Mrs. B's house and caused the death of two of her children. The
defendant claimed that she had not meant to kill but had foreseen death or grievous bodily harm as a highly
probable result of her actions. Whether defendant was guilty of offence she committed? (Marks 5+5)
3. (a) What are the legal rights of Prisoners under Indian Criminal Justice System? Whether those rights are
human rights in nature?
(b) Mr. A is an accused of murder of Mr. B and under criminal law it is the duty of the prosecution to prove
the guilty of accused person. Even after making rigorous efforts prosecution fails to prove guilty of Mr. A.
Further, he was compelled by the prosecution to produce evidences against himself before court of law.
Under such compulsion Mr. A produced evidences against himself and was punished for murder of Mr. B.
Further, Mr. A challenged the validity his punishment on the ground of one of the fundamental canons of
criminal jurisprudence, which is rights against self-incrimination. Examine the validity of punishment to Mr. A.
(Marks 5+5)
PTO
4. (a) Who is child in need of care and protection under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children)
Act, 2015? Explain.
(b) What are the fundamental principles to be observed by the Central Government, the State Governments,
the Board, and other agencies, while implementing the provisions of the Juvenile Justice (Care and
Protection of Children) Act, 2015? Explain. (Marks 5+5)
5. What is punishment? What are various theories of punishment? Explain. Whether deterrent theory of
punishment has relevance in the present context as the rate of various crimes are increasing? Comment.
(Marks 10)
6. Define Victimology. Discuss in detail various schemes of compensation to the victims under criminal
Justice system of India. Does this scheme serve any social purpose? Comment. (Marks 10)
7. “Country’s capacity to develop, maintain and manage a viable, safe, secure and humane prison system is an
integral part of sustainable, nationally-owned peace-building efforts and an important building block for
preventing relapse into conflict. Prison authorities are often overwhelmed with various challenges.” In the
light of above statement examine whether these challenges may be reduced by focusing more over
correction institutions in the country. Critically examine the role of correction institutions and challenges
before it. (Marks 10)
*******
I.D. No.___________________
END TERM EXAMINATION, APRIL-2018
B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-VIII & X
IPR- Geographical Indications ( Hons. - II)
Max. Marks: 60 Time Allowed: 3:00 Hrs.
Note: Answer five questions including Question No. 1 which is compulsory. The number of marks carried by each
question is indicated at the end of the question.
1. Answer the following (each answer should be in approximately 100 words): (Marks 2×10=20)
a) What is the ambit of goods under the Geographical Indications Act 1999?
b) How collective marks help in protection of geographical indications?
c) Differentiate between an indication of source and appellation of origin.
d) Which Indications are prohibited from registration under the Geographical Indications Act 1999?
e) Define a Protected Designation of Origin with help of Illustration.
f) What is the test for determining gendercide of geographical indication?
g) Explain the concept of unfair competition regarding indications as provided under Paris Convention.
h) What are the rights conferred by registration of geographical indication to an authorized user?
i) Discuss the procedure for renewal and restoration of a geographical indication.
j) Who can be a registered proprietor of a geographical indication?
2. Miss Malini is an authorised user of the Geographical Indication “Kanchipuram Sarees” which is registered in India.
Miss Malini had mortgaged her rights to exclusive use of the tag “Kanchipuram saree” to M/s Fake GI Entity for 10
years in 2010. After Miss Malini’s death in 2015, her daughter Hema Malini started using the tag for sale of original
“Kanchipuram sarees” in India. M/s Fake GI Entity sued Hema Malini for infringement of its rights as authorized
users which it has gained through the Mortgage Deed executed in 2010.
In light of the above problem, with the help of relevant concepts under the Geographical Indications Act 1999 and
provisions herein, analyze the validity of the mortgage executed between Miss Malini and M/s Fake GI Entity. Finally
decide the case accordingly. (Marks 10)
3. “India being a nation rich in traditional knowledge and cultural heritage has successfully adopted geographical
indications as an Intellectual Property tool for protection of the same”.
Do you agree with the statement? State reasons with the help of appropriate provisions of the Geographical
Indications Act 1999 (Marks 10)
4. Sataki is a Non-governmental organization which uses the indication “Mewar’s Talwar” with logo of two swords
crossing each other and in italics “Registered GI” written along with the indication and the logo. However, no such
geographical indication is yet registered in India. In light of the above facts, discuss who can file a complaint against
Sataki and which provisions of the Geographical Indications Act 1999 will be drawn in the present case.
(Marks 10)
PTO
5. Write short note on “Falsifying and Falsely applying a geographical Indication”. Also state the penalties for falsely
representing a geographical indication to be registered as under the Geographical Indications Act 1999.
(Marks 10)
6. Whether the registration of an indication as a geographical indication will pre-empt the rights of holder of registered
identical trademarks which are registered prior to the registration of the geographical indication? Discuss with help of
provisions of the Geographical Indications Act 1999. (Marks 10)
a. EXW
b. CFR
c. CIP
d. Electronic Fund Transfer (EFT)
e. Hard ship and Force Majure
f. Party Autonomy in International Contract
g. Exclusion under CISG
h. Different letters of credit
i. Gap filling under CISG
j. Combined Single Limit (CSL)
2. If ‘A’ buys goods from ‘B’ for the purpose of resale and ‘B’ fails to deliver, it is clear that ‘A’ has been
deprived of the value of the goods contracted to be delivered to him and that this is a loss following
naturally from the breach. But how is such value to be competed? Is it the price ‘A’ agreed to pay (in which
case his damage will be nominal)? Or the price at which he contracted to resell? Or is it the extra price at
which he contracted to resell? Or is it the extra price (if any) A has to pay to obtain substitute goods?
a. On the basis of given facts determine the cardinal rules involved with help of relevant case laws.
b. Remedies available under International Commercial Law for Breach of Contract. (Marks 6+4 =10)
3. The Scope of the Vienna Convention on International Sales of Goods. Is hardship an exception to
performance of contracts? Explain with relevant references and laws under International Commercial Law.
(Marks 10)
4. Do the UNIDROIT Principles of International Commercial Contracts form a new lex mercatoria?
(Marks 10)
5. Discuss the nature, scope and evolution of Marine Insurance. (Marks 10)
6. Discuss the salient features of the United Nations Conventions on the use of Electronic Communications in
Electronic Contracts. (Marks 10)
1. Answer the following (each answer should be in approximately 100 words) (Marks 210=20)
a) Why does the author call the Dillingham couple Magi?
b) Who was the true romantic in the story ‘The Nightingale and the Rose’? Why?
c) Describe the concluding part of the story ‘The Country of the Blind’.
d) What happens to the slave at the end in the poem “A Slave’s Dream”?
e) ‘They also serve who only stand and wait.’ How?
f) What are the two functions of education according to Palkhiwala?
g) According to Justice M. Hidayatullah, what are the two aspects of study of Law?
h) In the story “The Bet”, why does the lawyer (prisoner) run away from the solitary confinement of the
banker?
i) Why was the verger dismissed from his job and how did he respond to it?
j) “‘Please’ and ‘Thank you’ are the small change with which we pay our way as social beings. They are
the little courtesies by which we keep the machine of life oiled and running sweetly.” Explain.
a)
Helen being chosen found life flat and dull
And later had much trouble from a fool,
While that great Queen, that rose out of the spray,
Being fatherless could have her way
Yet chose a bandy-leggèd smith for man.
It’s certain that fine women eat
A crazy salad with their meat
Whereby the Horn of Plenty is undone.
b)
If you can make one heap of all your winnings
And risk it on one turn of pitch-and-toss,
And lose, and start again at your beginnings
And never breathe a word about your loss;
If you can force your heart and nerve and sinew
To serve your turn long after they are gone,
And so hold on when there is nothing in you
Except the Will which says to them: ‘Hold on!’
PTO
3. Justify the title of the story “God sees the truth, but waits”. (Marks 10)
4. Write a critical appreciation of the poem “Death, be not proud” (Marks 10)
5. How does Joseph Addison characterize Sir Roger in his essay ‘Sir Roger at Home’? (Marks 10)
6. Describe the stages a man goes through in his life as stated in his drama ‘As You Like It’. (Marks 10)
7. Critically comment on the speech ‘The Pleasure of Books’ by William Lyon Phelps. (Marks 10)
*******
I.D. No.___________________
END TERM EXAMINATION, APRIL-2018
B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-IV
Political Science (Major): Major Political Systems in the World
Max. Marks: 60 Time Allowed: 3:00 Hrs.
Note: Answer five questions including Question No. 1 which is compulsory. The number of marks carried by each
question is indicated at the end of the question.
1. Answer the following (each answer should be in approximately 100 words) (Marks 210=20)
a. What is Common Law?
b. Describe the composition of the Supreme Court of the United Kingdom.
c. What is Suspensory Veto which is used by the American President?
d. What is Two-Party System?
e. What do you understand by the Swiss Federal Assembly?
f. What is federalism?
g. What do you understand by the ‘Renunciation of War’ in Japan?
h. Describe the election of the Prime Minister of Japan.
i. What is the method of ‘Kangaroo Closure’ in England?
j. What is the difference between Democracy and Republic??
2. “Theoretically, the British monarch still enjoys a large amount of powers and prerogatives. However, in
practice he has come to be virtually a shadow of his former self. He is now a nominal ruler”. In the light of
this statement, point out the role and position of the Monarch in British Political system. (Marks 10)
3. It is said that the “US senate is the strongest second chamber in the world” justify the statement and state the
factors that have been responsible for its strong position. (Marks 10)
4. Discuss the organization and jurisdiction of American Federal Courts. (Marks 10)
5. Critically examine the features of the Federal Constitution of the Swiss Confederation of 1999. (Marks 10)
6. How a Bill can become an Act? Analyse the various stages in the process of Law-Making by The National
Diet of Japan in the light of committees of the house. (Marks 10)
*******
I.D. No.___________________
END TERM EXAMINATION, APRIL-2018
B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-VI
Political Science (Major): Public Policy Process
Max. Marks: 60 Time Allowed: 3:00 Hrs.
Note: Answer five questions including Question No. 1 which is compulsory.The number of marks carried by each question is
indicated at the end of the question.
1. Answer the following (each answer should be in approximately 100 words) (Marks 210=20)
a) What do you mean by the expression “Public Policy is a Key instrument of Governance”?
b) What is a Policy Subsystem and how is it different from Policy Universe?
c) What is the ‘Stages Model’ of Public Policy Process?
d) The problem of ‘free-rider’ is associated with which of the interest groups and how?
e) What is a Policy Think-Tank and how it is different from a Research Organization?
f) What is POSDCORB view of Organization?
g) What is Abraham Maslow’s Need Hierarchy Theory of Motivation?
h) What is rational legal authority and how is it different from traditional and charismatic authority?
i) What is the difference between Policy Analysis and Policy Evaluation?
j) What is Ex-Ante Evaluation?
2. Define Public Policy and discuss various approaches to studying public policy citing appropriate examples
from Indian context? (Marks 10)
3. “Legislature does not play a very important role in policy formulation. In fact, in many political systems, its
potential in policy formulation is hardly realized.” In the light of the given statement, discuss the role that
legislature plays in policy formulation in different political systems. (Marks 10)
4. “The unofficial actors play critical roles in the policy process without any explicit legal authority to do so.
In fact, their role in the policy process has grown and evolved with the growth and evolution of the
democratic system of governance around the world.” Substantiate the statement by discussing the significant
roles played by political parties in influencing the public polices in India. (Marks 10)
5. “While some policy analysts regard individual and collective actors as important players in the policy
process, others maintain that what these actors seek and do depends on the political, economic, and social
structures that surround them.” In the light of the above statement, discuss the role played by international
institutional structures/systems in influencing the public policies of national sovereign states. (Marks 10)
6. “Effective policy making is a learning process which involves finding out from experience what works and
what does not and making sure that others can learn from it too...” Critically examine the statement
outlining the importance of policy evaluation in the policy process. (Marks 10)
7. Write short notes on any two of the following:- (Marks 5×2=10)
a. Scientific Theory of Management
b. ‘Top Down’ and ‘Bottom Up’ Approach to Policy Implementation
c. Dynamics of Policy Implementation
*******
I.D. No.___________________
END TERM EXAMINATION, APRIL-2018
B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-II
Sociology (Minor): Sociological Thought
Max. Marks: 60 Time Allowed: 3:00 Hrs.
Note: Answer five questions including Question No. 1 which is compulsory.The number of marks carried by
each question is indicated at the end of the question.
1. Explain the following (each explanation should be in approximately 100 words)(Marks 210=20)
a) Life World
b) Cultural Capital
c) Westernisation
d) Law of Three Stages
e) Historical Materialism
f) Communicative Action
g) Jural Postulates
h) Simulation Society
i) Post Modernism
j) Interest Theory
2. “Any kind of knowledge reaches the positive stage early in proportion to its generality, simplicity and
independence of other departments.” Illustrate this statement with relevant theoretical approach.
(Marks 10)
3. “Social world is by no means homogenous but exhibits a multiform structure. Each of its spheres or
regions is both a way of understanding the subjective experiences of others.” discuss the
phenomenology of social world as explained by Alfred Schutz. How the Phenomenology of
Socialworld combined Weber’s sociology with Husserl’s phenomenologicalmethod? (Marks 10)
4. Durkheim realized that only if members of a society were anchored to common sets of symbolic
representations, to common assumptions about the world around them, could moral unity be assured.
Without them, any society, whether primitive or modern, was bound to degenerate and decay.
Elucidate the quote with right theoretical Orientation and describe various types of ‘Suicides’
discussed by Durkheim with relevant examples. (Marks 10)
5. “Law itself is more than a body of rules. It is the knowledge and experience with which the juristic
process is carried on. It not only includes rules, principles, concepts, and standards but also doctrines
and modes of professional thought, skill, and art.” Discuss Roscoe Pound’s theory of sociological
jurisprudence. (Marks 10)
PTO
6. Amidst the ruins of many social theories Jurgan Habermas tried to bridge the vast void between
theory and practice, transcendentalism and functionalism, and moral-ethical and scientific–technical
realms. Describe the theoretical relevance and basic postulates of critical theory. (Marks 10)
7. The manner in which British transferred political power to Indians enabled caste to assume political
functions. The provisions of constitutional safeguard to Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe’s have
given a new lease to life of caste. Discuss caste from perspective of M.N Srinivas. (Marks 10)
*******
I.D. No.___________________
END TERM EXAMINATION, APRIL-2018
B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-IV
Environmental Law
Max. Marks: 60 Time Allowed: 3:00 Hrs.
Note: Answer five questions including Question No. 1 which is compulsory.The number of marks carried by
each question is indicated at the end of the question.
1. Answer the following (each answer should be in approximately 100 words)(Marks 210=20)
4. Explain the Absolute Liability Principle and compare it with the Strict Liability Principle. Write three
important judgments of the Supreme Court of India on application of the Absolute Liability Principle.
(Marks 10)
5. Write three important Judgment of the Supreme Court of India on Environmental Impact Assessment
law. (Marks 10)
*******
I.D. No.___________________
END TERM EXAMINATION, APRIL-2018
B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-VI
Jurisprudence-II
Max. Marks: 60 Time Allowed: 3:00 Hrs.
Note: Answer five questions including Question No. 1 which is compulsory. The number of marks carried by each
question is indicated at the end of the question.
1. Explain the following (each explanation should be in approximately 100 words)(Marks 210=20)
a) Artificial person
b) Material sources of law
c) Animal’s right
d) Declaratory precedent
e) Obiter dictum
f) Local custom
g) Absolute and limited ownership
h) Jus in rem and jus in personam
i) Proprietaryrights
j) Mischief rule of interpretation
2. “The notion that nothing is property which cannot be earmarked and recovered in detenu or trover, may
be true in an early stage of society when property is in its simplest form and the remedies for the
violation of it are also simple, but it is not true in a more civilized state when the relations of life and the
interests arising therefrom are complicated.”
In the light of the above statement discuss the origin and development of the concept of property. Also
explain its changing dimensions in the modern era. (Marks 10)
3. “The liability of a person consists in those things which he must do or suffer. It is the ultimatum of the
law and has its source in the supreme will of the State. A person has a choice in fulfilling his duty and his
liability arises independently in his choice. It cannot be evaded at all. Liability arises from a wrong or the
breach of a duty.”
In the light of the above statement explain the concept of liability and also discuss the various types of
liability. (Marks 10)
4. “Of course, punishment has no purpose except that it works out a larger purpose of criminal law itself.
Perhaps it may be said that whatever purpose is served by punishment is a purpose of criminal law, for
example, the compelling of persons to cease or refrain from committing crime, by forcing or persuading
them to conform to the established rules of conduct designed for the protection of government, of life, of
property and of other rights, privileges and immunities guaranteed by law.”
In the light of this statement give a jurisprudential account of the concept and purpose of punishment.
Also explain in brief the different theories of punishment drawing attention to their merits and demerits.
(Marks 10)
PTO
5. “While the different theories of corporate personality contain elements of truth, no theory can, by itself,
adequately interpret the phenomenon of juristic personality. The reason is that corporate personality is a
technical legal device, applied for a multitude of very diverse aggregations, institutions and transactions
which have no common political or social denominator, for a particular type of juristic personality. None
of them foresaw the extent to which the device of incorporation would be used in modern business.”
In the light of the above statement critically examine the various theories of corporate personality. Also
highlight their merits and demerits. (Marks 10)
6. “The essence of a legal right seems to be not legally guaranteed power by itself nor legally protected
interest by itself, but the legally guaranteed power to realize an interest.” In the light of given statement
explain the concept of Right. Also examine the various theories of ‘Right’ and discuss which theory is
more applicable in the contemporary times.
(Marks 10)
*******
I.D. No.___________________
END TERM EXAMINATION, APRIL-2018
B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-VIII
Land Laws
Max. Marks: 60 Time Allowed: 3:00 Hrs.
Note: Answer five questions including Question No. 1 which is compulsory.The number of marks carried by each
question is indicated at the end of the question.
1. Answer the following (each answer should be in approximately 100 words) (Marks 210=20)
2. Discuss the provisions relating to appeals under the Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code, 1959. Under what
conditions no appeal shall lie against an order of the revenue court? Discuss the limitation of appeal
under the code? (Marks 10)
3. Explain the Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code provisions with respect to variation of land revenue
according to the purpose and with reference to the use of land and categorization for that specific
purpose? (Marks 10)
4. Explain the Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code provisions in respect of the procedure for reinstatement and
restoration of possession to a Bhumiswami, occupancy tenant and government lessee improperly
dispossessed. (Marks 10)
5. Discuss thePowers, Functions and procedure of different rent control authorities prescribed under the
Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act, 2011. (Marks 10)
6. “Determination of social impact assessment and public purpose is necessary before the acquisition of the
land”. Discuss it with the help of relevant provisions of the Act of 2013. (Marks 10)
7. “Passing of Rehabilitation and Resettlement award is an important requirement for the benefit of the
affected families.” Examine the relevant provisions and procedural requirement of the award.
(Marks 10)
*******
I.D. No.___________________
1. Answer the following (each answer should be in approximately 100 words): (Marks 2×10=20)
a. Discuss the evolution of broadcasting regulation in India
b. Discuss the effect theory related to media
c. Public Order as reasonable restriction on Art. 19(1)(a)
d. Discuss ethics related with advertisement.
e. Define License Secrecy
f. Discuss the law relating to Parliamentary proceedings
g. Write an explanatory note on right to receive information
h. Censorship of Media
i. Discuss the role of Press Council of India
j. Discuss the importance of media
2. Those who advertise for commercial gain are not entitled to enjoyment of the fundamental right to free speech
under art 19(1)(a) has no justification. Discuss the development of law of commercial speech with the help of
statutory provisions and leading case laws. (Marks 10)
4. Freedom to air one’s view is the lifeline of any democratic institution and any attempt to stifle or
suffocate or gag this right would sound a death knell to democracy and would help in autocracy or
dictatorship. In the light of abovesaid statement, discuss the freedom of press under Indian Constitution
with the help of judicial decisions. (Marks 10)
5. The law of defamation is a culmination of a conflict between society and individual. It seeks to attain a balance
between right to freedom of speech and expression of media and right of the individual to preserve his honour and
reputation. Explain the law of defamation in common law with exceptions. (Marks 10)
6. Broadcast frequencies are public property; neither the government nor any private entity could claim
ownership over it. Discuss the above said statement with the help of constitutional provisions and judicial
decisions. (Marks 10)
2. With reference to relevant case law discuss the essential elements of offence of dowry death under Section
304-B of Indian Penal Code 1860. Also discuss the punishment prescribed for this offence.(Marks 10)
*******
I.D. No.___________________
END TERM EXAMINATION, APRIL-2018
B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-X
Law of Insurance (Optional-II)
Max. Marks: 60 Time Allowed: 3:00 Hrs.
Note: Answer five questions including Question No. 1 which is compulsory.The number of marks carried by each
question is indicated at the end of the question.
1. Answer the following (each answer should be in approximately 100 words): (Marks 2×10=20)
2. (a) “X” owes “Y” Rs.10,00,000/- insures “X’s” life for a like amount. “X” repays the debt to “Y”. “X” then dies.
Can “Y” claim the amount of policy? Justify.
(Marks 04)
(b) What do you understand by the Principle of Indemnity? Whether the contract of life insurance is a contract of
indemnity? If so, give the instances with relevant legal provisions and case laws.(Marks 06)
3. “Insurance is a co-operative device to spread the loss caused by a particular risk over a number of persons who are
exposed to it and who agree to ensure themselves against that risk. Risk is uncertainty of a financial loss.”
In the light of the above statement, explain the concept, nature and functions of Insurance. (Marks 10)
4. What do you understand by “Insurable Interest” in connection with Life, Fire and Marine Insurance? When must it
subsist in the case of Fire, Marine and Life Insurance? Enumerate the different kinds of insurable interest
recognized by law with the help of relevant legal provisions and case laws. (Marks 10)
5. What are the essential elements of Marine Insurance Contract? Explain the Implied Warranties in Marine
Insurance Contract with relevant provisions and case laws.
(Marks 10)
6. Explain the role and functions of the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA) and also discuss
how far it is successfulin growth and development of Insurance business in India.Give Instances.(Marks 10)
*******
I.D. No.___________________
1. Answer the following (each answer should be in approximately 100 words): (Marks 2×10=20)
a. Distinguish between related person and distinct person.
b. Government activities are subject to GST. Explain.
c. What is meant by “naturally bundled.”
d. Enlist the activities which shall be neither treated as supply of goods nor supply of services under
GST.
e. What is short landing? Explain the provision relating to penalty for short landing under Customs.
f. Zero rated supplies and exempted supplies are different. Elucidate the statement.
g. Explain the term “Proper Officer”.
h. Who is a casual taxable person under GST
i. Who can be appointed as authorized person / representative for appearance?
j. Protective duty under Customs.
2. A registered person availing Composition Scheme during the course of a financial year crosses the
threshold limit of turnover allowed for the composition scheme. Will he be allowed to pay tax under
composition scheme for the remainder period till the end of the financial year? Elucidate the statement
in light of the composition scheme under GST regime. (Marks 10)
3. Critically examine the freedom of trade and commerce enshrined under Constitution of India in light of
the suitable case law. (Marks 10)
7. The taxable event under GST is supply. The time of supply fixes the point when the liability to charge
GST arises. Elucidate the statement under GST regime. (Marks 10)
*******
I.D. No.___________________
END TERM EXAMINATION, APRIL-2018
B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-II
Economics (Minor): Indian Economy
Max. Marks: 60 Time Allowed: 3:00 Hrs.
Note: Answer five questions including Question No. 1 which is compulsory. The number of marks carried by each
question is indicated at the end of the question.
1. Answer the following (each answer should be in approximately 100 words) (Marks 210=20)
a) What are the functions of RBI?
b) State four factors affecting the cropping pattern in India.
c) What is the importance of agricultural credit in agricultural economy in India?
d) Explain the term ‘Density of Population’.
e) Mention the causes of industrial sickness.
f) State the features of Industrial Policy 1991.
g) Explain any four methods of redemption of Public Debt.
h) What do you understand by Current A/C and Capital A/C in Balance of Payments?
i) Differentiate between tax-revenues and non-tax revenues of the Government.
j) What are different forms of organizations used for Public Sector enterprises?
3. Explain how capital market stimulates industrial growth and economic growth of an economy. (Marks 10)
4. ‘The small scale sector constitutes a very important segment of Indian economy.’ Discuss. (Marks 10)
5. India has experienced a striking increase in public expenditure over recent years.’ Do you agree? Give
reasons for your answer. (Marks 10)
6. While explaining how economic growth is linked with poverty reduction, discuss the current anti-poverty
strategy of Government of India for the promotion of economic growth. (Marks 10)
*******
I.D. No.___________________
END TERM EXAMINATION, APRIL-2018
B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-IV
Constitutional Governance – II
Max. Marks: 60 Time Allowed: 3:00 Hrs.
Note: Answer five questions including Question No. 1 which is compulsory.The number of marks carried by each
question is indicated at the end of the question.
1. Answer the following (each answer should be in approximately 100 words) (Marks 210=20)
a. Electoral college for the election of President and Vice President of India.
b. Prime Minister and his cabinet
c. Duty of Union to protect the states
d. Money bill and Finance bill
e. Existing laws
f. Federation and Confederation
g. Freedom of arrest as a parliamentary privilege
h. Doctrine of colorable legislation
i. Power of President to decide the age of judges of High Courts
j. President’s Act
2. What are the qualifications and disqualifications of the members of parliament? Give the detailed account of
provisions as to the disqualification on the ground of defection. (Marks 10)
4. What is the scheme of distribution of legislative powers between Union and states? Also discuss the powers of Union
legislature to make the laws as the matters enumerated in state list. (Marks 10)
*******
I.D. No.___________________
END TERM EXAMINATION, APRIL-2018
B.A.LL.B. (HONS.)
SEMESTER-VI
Corporate Law-II
Max. Marks: 60 Time Allowed: 3:00 Hrs.
Note: Answer five questions including Question No. 1 which is compulsory. The number of marks carried by each question is
indicated at the end of the question.
1. Answer the following (each answer should be in approximately 100 words) (Marks 210=20)
a. Additional Director
b. Distinguish between windup and dissolution
c. Distinguish between director and manager
d. Principle of Non-Interference
e. Modes of winding up
f. Class action suit
g. Principles of corporate governance
h. Minority rights
i. Protection against mismanagement
j. Corporate abuse and role of central government
4. Explain the need of Corporate Governance and its relevance in the present day. How far you agree that
Companies Act, 2013 contain important provisions to improve the quality of corporate governance in India.
(Marks 10)
5. Answer the following: (Marks 7+3)
a. What is winding up? When can a company be wound-up by the Tribunal? Who are the persons entitled
to present petition for such winding-up and when?
b. A and B formed a private limited company in which they were the only directors and shareholders
having equal voting rights. Differences arose between them. They were not even on speaking term. One
of them shareholders filed a winding –up petition. Will he succeed in getting a winding –up order?
6. Explain the powers of company liquidator under the Companies Act? (Marks 10)
2. What do you understand by pleading? Write down the main provision of Code of Civil Procedure regarding
the filling of plaint and written statement? (Marks 10)
3. Draft a bail application on behalf of an accused who is wanted in a non bailable offence. (Marks 10)
4. Janardhana, S/o. Krishnaiah residing at D.No. 249, Netaji Road, Tirupati, borrowed Rs. 25,000 agreeing to
pay 24% on 26th Feb, 2016 from G. Srinivasa Yadav, S/o. Ramaiah at D.No. 247, Netaji Road and executed
a promissory note. The promissory note was scribed by K. Venkatasubbaiah a document writer in Tirupati
and attested by a K. Damodhar Reddy and M. Subramanyam Naidu. G. Srinivasa Yadav made demands for
the Repayment of the loan and also caused a lawyers notice dated 04.01.2018 to be send to Janardhana.
Janardhana who received the notice on 27.01.2018 neither paid the amount nor did he respond to the notice.
On 20th March, 2018. G.Srinivasa Yadav filed a suit for the recovery of the debt. In the light of given facts
Draft a plaint. (Marks 10)
5. What do you mean by appeal? Draft an application for an appeal against the seven years of sentence order
of a Session Court. (Marks 10)
6. Aman s/o Amartya residing in Allahabad is interested to lease his five hectare non-agricultural land situated
in Lucknow to a company of bottling plant for ten year. Company has agreed to pay at the rate of 3 lakh per
annum for the property. Draft the deed. (Marks 10)
7. What is the difference between sale and gift? A wants to make gift of his shop in favour of his friend B.
Draft a gift deed (Marks 10)
*******
I.D. No.___________________
1. Answer the following (each answer should be in approximately 100 words): (Marks 2×10=20)
a) Can a Bangladeshi law graduate be enrolled as an advocate before Calcutta State Bar Council under
Advocates Act, 1961?
b) What are prescribed dresses of advocates and under which law it has been prescribed?
c) What are the various privileges and restrictions attached with Senior Advocates?
d) Up to what extent truth may be accepted as defense in contempt cases?
e) Whether Supreme Court of India can give higher punishment than prescribed under Contempt of
Courts Act, 1971?
f) Is it correct to say that legal profession is a highly dignified profession?
g) Whether convening a press conference on the issue of appointment of judges by an advocate of
Supreme Court is contempt of court?
h) What remedies are available to an advocate in case of non-payment of his fees?
i) Whether services provided by advocates may also comes under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986?
j) What are the conditions of enrollment of an advocate under the Advocates Act, 1961?
2. Elucidate the constitution, powers and functions of Bar Council of India under the Advocates Act, 1961.
(Marks 10)
3. What do you mean by Bar-Bench Relationship? How it is necessary for smooth functioning of
administration of justice. Explain. (Marks 10)
4. Discuss the law points on following conducts of Mr. Ramchandra Sahi, an Advocate of District Court of
Durg: - ( Marks 2.5×4=10)
a. Where he celebrated his election of member of State Bar Council in presence of number of judges and
advocates.
b. Where he appears before a court in which his son-in-law was a judge.
c. Where he was dancing in a marriage party under influence of Vodka and video of the same was
uploaded by his wife on Face book.
d. Where he committed the murder of opponent advocate while presentation of a case.
PTO
5. With the help of relevant rules of Bar Council of India, 1975 and decided case laws, discuss the different
duties of advocates towards Court? (Marks 10)
6. Discuss and critically examine the development of legal profession in India. What are the main changes
brought by the Advocates Act, 1961 in this development? Discuss. (Marks 10)
7. Write Short notes on any Two of the followings: (Marks 5×2=10)
a. Strike by lawyers.
b. Rights to practice and limitation of rights.
c. Concept of Multi-Disciplinary Practice of law and its application in India.
*******