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GS SCORE 11
IAS Prelims - 2019

Polity
(Executive + Legislature + Judiciary)

Time Allowed: 2 Hrs. Maximum Marks: 200

RE
Roll No.:

INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS
TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO,
GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2.
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Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number carefully and
without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/
discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
SC
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write
anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. While writing name and Roll No. on the top of the OMR Sheet in appropriate boxes use “ONLY BLACK
BALL POINT PEN”.
5. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will
select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than
one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE
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response for each item.

6. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate OMR Answer Sheet provided.
7. All items carry equal marks. (2 marks each)
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away
with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE
QUESTION PAPERS.
(a) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong
answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be
deducted as penalty.
(b) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the
given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(c) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that
question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

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1. Which among the following are the
judicial powers of the Parliament?
1. It makes laws to regulate the elections
to the offices of President and Vice-
President.
2. It can impeach the President for the
violation of the Constitution.
3. It can remove the Vice-President from his
office.
4. It can recommend the removal of judges
(including Chief Justice) of the Supreme
Court and the High courts.
5. It can punish its members or outsiders
for the breach of its privileges or its
contempt.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
O 3. Motion of Thanks Simple Majority.
2. Consider the following statements with
reference to system of representation
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in the Parliament.
1. Constitution has adopted the system of
proportional representation in the case
of Lok Sabha but not in the case of Rajya
Sabha.
2. There is system of territorial representation
for the election of members to the Lok
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Sabha.
3. The system of proportional representation
does not secure due representation to
minorities.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
3. Consider the following statements
with reference to the Special Majority
provision of the Parliament.
1. Special majority constitute a majority that
is, more than 50% of the total membership
of the House and a majority of two-thirds
of the members present and voting.
2
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2. The expression ‘total membership’ means
the total number of members comprising
the House excluding the vacancies or
absentees.
3. The special majority is required in Rajya
Sabha for the removal of Vice-president.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
4. Which of the following pairs related
to different types of Majority are
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correctly matched?
Motions Type of Majority
1. Removal of the Special Majority.
Vice-President
2. Removal of Speaker Effective Majority.
4. Removal of Special Majority.
Comptroller and
Auditor General
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
5. Under the Indian Constitutional
Scheme how the independence of
Comptroller and Auditor General is
secured?
1. He is barred from holding any government
office after completion of tenure.
2. His salary except that of the staff is
charged on the Public Fund of India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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6. Consider the following statements 9. Consider the following statements

with reference to the Duration of about Public Interest Litigation (PIL):
Rajya Sabha: 1. Under PIL, litigations are taken from
1. The Rajya Sabha is a continuing chamber. those parties that are affected directly
or indirectly however, not on suo-moto
2. The Constitution has fixed the term of basis.
office of Members of the Rajya Sabha for
six years. 2. Landlord–tenant matters can be settled
through PIL.
3. In the first batch of Rajya Sabha, President
was empowered to decide as to who 3. To avoid misuse of the PIL, Court should
should retire. be fully satisfied that substantial public
interest is involved before entertaining
Which of the above statements is/are the petition.
incorrect?
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 and 2 Only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 Only
(c) 3 only
(c) 3 Only

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(d) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

7. Consider the following statements

10. Consider the following statement with
with respect to the Collective
respect to the Money Bill:
Responsibility:
1. It deals with money matters like imposition
1. The ministers are collectively responsible

Lok Sabha in particular.

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to the Parliament in general and to the

2. Under this if Censure Motion is passed

of taxes, governmental expenditure and
borrowings, etc.
2. The President has authority to give final
decision whether bill is money bill or not.
in Lok Sabha all the ministers have to
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resign. 3. It can be introduced in both the houses
but Rajya Sabha cannot amend it.
Which of the above statements is/are
4. A money bill can be a government bill
incorrect?
only.
(a) 1 only
Which of the above statements are correct?
(b) 2 only
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
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(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 4 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
8. Which of the following statements
about judiciary is/are correct?
11. Consider the following persons.
1. Every law passed by the Parliament needs
approval of the Supreme Court. 1. Follower of untouchability
2. Judiciary can strike down its own 2. Holder of office of profit under the state
judgment if it goes against the spirit of government.
the Constitution. 3. Having vested interest in government
3. Any citizen can approach the court if his contracts.
her rights are violated. 4. Having age 25 years above.
Select the correct answer using the code given Which of the qualifications given above are
below: not valid for member of legislative assembly?
(a) 1 only (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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12. Which of the following pairs of
parliamentary terminologies are
correctly matched?
1. Expunction: Deletion of words from the
proceedings or records of Rajya Sabha for
being defamatory or indecent by an order
of the Chairman.
2. Adjournment sine die: Termination of the
sitting of the House which meets again at
the time appointed for the next sitting.
3. Casting Vote: The vote casted by the
Chairman in the case of an equality of
votes on a matter.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
15. Consider the following statements
with respect to the Speaker Pro-Tem:
1. The Speaker of last Lok Sabha appoints
a member of newly elected Lok Sabha as
the Speaker Pro Tem.
2. The Speaker Pro Tem has all the powers
of the Speaker.
3. He administers oath to the new ministers

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only.
(b) 1 and 3 only
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(c) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 only

13. Consider the following statements (c) 2 and 3 only

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with respect to the oath of Secrecy in (d) 1, 2 and 3
Indian Parliamentary system:
1. The oath of Secrecy should be taken by all 16. Consider the following cases.
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the elected MPs 1. Appointment of the Prime Minister when
2. The ministers are constitutionally obliged no single party attains majority after
to take the oath of secrecy after entering elections to the Lok Sabha.
their office.
2. Exercising the pocket veto.
3. The oath of secrecy to the ministers is
3. Sending the bill for the reconsideration of
administered by the President.
Council of Ministers.
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Which of the above statements is/are

incorrect?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) None
14. Consider the following statements
with respect to the financial powers
and functions of the President:
1. Money bills can be introduced in
the Parliament only with his prior
recommendations.
2. He causes to be laid before the Parliament
the Annual Financial Statement.
3. He can make advances out of the
consolidated fund of India to meet any
unforeseen expenditure.
In which of the above cases President is
not bound by the advice of the Council of
Ministers?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
17. Consider the following statements
related to CAG:
1. President of India prescribes the duties,
exercise and power of CAG.
2. CAG compiles the accounts of the Union.
3. Except Contingency Fund of India, CAG
audits and reports on all expenditure from
the accounts including Public accounts of
the Union and of the states.

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Which of the above statements is/are Which of the above given statements is/are
incorrect? correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

18. Which of the following are the
accountability checks on executive?
1. Vote on Budget by the Lok Sabha.
2. Economy Cut and Token Cut.
3. Close scrutiny by Departmental Standing
Committees.
4. Post Budget auditing by the Comptroller
21. Which of the following statements
correctly describes the equality of
power and status of the Rajya Sabha
to that of the Lok Sabha?
1. Introduction and passage of all types of
financial bills involving expenditure from
the Consolidated Fund of India.
2. Approval of ordinances issued by the

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and Auditor General of India. President.
Select the correct answer using code given 3. Approval of proclamation of all three
below. types of emergencies by the President.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only 4. A resolution for the discontinuance of the
national emergency.
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
Which of the above given statements are
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
O correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
19. Which among the following given
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provisions requires Special Majority (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
of Parliament and Consent of States? (d) 3 and 4 only
1. Power of Parliament to amend the
Constitution and its procedure. 22. Consider the following statements
2. Extent of the executive power of the Union with respect to the Presidential
and the states. Electoral College:
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3. Election of the President and its manner. 1. The President is elected by an Electoral
College consisting of elected Members
4. Representation of states in Parliament.
of Parliament and Members of State
Select the correct answer using the code given Legislative Assemblies.
below: 2. Nominated Members of both Houses
(a) 1 and 2 only of the Parliament and Members of State
Legislative Councils also take part in
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only election.
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only 3. The election is held by means of single
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 transferable vote, system of proportional
representation.

20. Consider the following statements with 4. The voting is done by open ballot to
reduce cross voting.
respect to the Substitute Motions:
Which of the above statements are correct?
1. These are motions which, though
independent in form, are moved in the (a) 1 and 4 only
course of debate on another question (b) 2 and 3 only
and seek to supersede that question.
(c) 1 and 3 only
2. Amendments to substitute motions are
not permissible. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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23. Consider the following statements with
respect to the Council of Minister:
1. Minister of State are never given
independent charge of ministry and
always remain attached to the Cabinet
Ministers.
2. Cabinet Minister are collectively
responsible to Lok Sabha and has to
resign collectively if No Confidence
Motion passed, not complete Council of
Ministers.
3. Council of Ministers are headed by the
Prime Minister.
26. Consider the following statements
related to CAG:
1. Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(CAG) controls financial system of the
country.
2. Finance Minister represents Office of the
Comptroller and Auditor General in the
Parliament.
3. The accounts of the Union and the
States shall be kept in form as President
prescribes on advice of CAG.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

(b) 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only

RE
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3
27. Consider the following statements
related to the State Legislature:
24. Which of the following are the
1. Legislative Council of State is appointed
qualifications for Election as
for five years.
President?
O 2. Total number of members in the Legislative
1. He should be qualified for election as a Council must not exceed fifty percent of
member of the Parliament. legislative assembly.
2. He should not hold any office of profit. 3. Any citizen of India above age 25 can
SC
3. He should have completed 30 years of become member of Legislative Assembly.
age.
Which of the above statements is/are
Select the correct answer using the code given incorrect?
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
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(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
28. With reference to the Governor
25. Consider the following statements in State, consider the following
about the Parliament of India: statements:
1. Rajya Sabha represents People of India as 1. Governor can be removed from his office
a whole. according to the procedure mentioned in
2. Lok Sabha represents States and the Article 153.
Union Territories. 2. Governor can hold office beyond the term
3. President remains member of both the of five years.
Houses of Parliament, until he resigns. 3. Governor does not possess any diplomatic
Which of the above statements is/are power.
incorrect? Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only

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29. Consider the following statements
with reference to the Prime Minister
of India:
1. It is the Council of Minister but not Prime
Minister mentioned anywhere in the
Constitution.
2. President must act in accordance with the
advice tendered by the Prime Minister
always.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
32. Consider the following statements
with reference to the functioning of
the Indian Parliament:
1. Language of transaction in Parliament is
English only.
2. Only Ministers can speak in his/her mother
tongue in the Parliament.
3. Attorney General can speak in the Joint
Sitting of the Parliament.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 3 only

RE
30. With reference to All India Judicial 33. Consider the following statements
Services (AIJS), consider the following with reference to Attorney General of
statements: India:
1. AIJS has been added in the Indian 1. He remains the Member of Parliament
Constitution on the recommendation of
O even after the dissolution of Cabinet.
Swaran Singh Committee. 2. For the post of Attorney General, Prime
2. AIJS may help in creating more accountable Minister appoints a person who is
and equitable judiciary. qualified to become the Judge of the
Supreme Court.
Which of the above statements is/are
SC
3. In accordance with Article 76, he must
incorrect? perform duties assigned to him by the
(a) 1 only Lok Sabha.
(b) 2 only Which of the above statements is/are
incorrect?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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(b) 2 and 3 only

31. With reference to the Upper House (c) 1 and 3 only
of Indian Parliament, which of the (d) 1, 2 and 3
following statements is/are correct?
1. Only two Union territories of Delhi and 34. Consider the following statements
Puducherry have representation in Rajya with respect to the composition of the
Sabha. Lok Sabha:
2. In Upper House maximum seats are 1. All the listed Electorals can vote in Lok
occupied by representatives of the states. Sabha elections.
3. Allocation of seats to the states in Upper 2. Lok Sabha has 552 members at present.
House is on the basis of population. 3. 61st Constitutional Amendment Act has
Select the correct answer using the code given fixed voting age as 18 years.
below: Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

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35. Consider the following statements:
1. Prime Minister is the Leader of the Lok
Sabha always.
2. Vice President is the Chairman of the
Rajya Sabha.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
36. With reference to the appointment of
the Council of Minister, which of the
following statement is correct?
(a) Prime Minister has discretion to choose
his cabinet.
(b) President has discretion to choose
anybody as Prime Minister and Member
of Council of Ministers.
O
(c) President has discretion to choose Kitchen
Cabinet.
(d) Prime Minister can choose his ministers
among either house of Parliament only.
SC
37. Consider the following pairs with
respect to Sessions of the Parliament:
Session Description
1. Prorogation It terminates the work in Union List and concurrent list.
sitting for specified time.
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2. Adjournment It terminates the session of throughout or in part of the economic
the House
3. Dissolution It ends the very life of the Which of the above statements is/are correct?
existing House
Which of the above pairs is/are incorrectly
matched?
(a) 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
38. Consider the following statements
related to the Presidential Election:
1. All disputes related to Presidential election
in India are settled finally by the Election
Commission of India.
2. President in India is elected for five years
and maximum two terms.
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3. With amendment in Representation of
Peoples Act 2016, PIO (Person of India
Origin) is now qualified for post of Indian
President.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) None
39. Consider the following provisions for
Bills mentioned in the Constitution:
1. If an Ordinary Bill is defeated in the
Lok Sabha, it may lead to resignation of
RE
government if introduced by a Minister.
2. If Money Bill is defeated in Rajya Sabha,
Government must resign with immediate
effect.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
40. Consider the following statements:
1. The Indian Parliament is competent to
make laws on matters enumerated in the
2. Laws made by Parliament may extend
territory of India only.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
41. Consider the following statements
with respect to the removal of
President of India:
1. President can be removed for violation of
Constitution only.
2. Violation of Constitution is defined in
Article 61.
3. I mpeachment process must be initiated in
Lok Sabha only.
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Which of the above statements is/are 45. With reference to the Chief Minister
incorrect? in State, consider the following
(a) 1 and 2 only statements:
(b) 2 only 1. He is de jure executive of the State.

(c) 2 and 3 only 2. No specific procedure is mentioned in

constitution for his appointment.
(d) 1 and 3 only
3. He takes oath of office and secrecy from
Judge of High court.
42. Consider the following statements
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
with respect to the Writ jurisdiction of
the Supreme Court and High Court: (a) 2 only
1. Supreme Court can issue writs to enforce (b) 1 and 2 only
both fundamental rights and legal rights. (c) 3 only
2. The High Court can issue writs throughout
(d) 1 and 3 only
the territory of India like Supreme Court.

RE
3. High Court can refuse to exercise its writ
46. Consider the following statements:
jurisdiction.
1. Union executive consists of President,
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Prime minister and Council of Ministers
(a) 1 and 2 only only.
(b) 3 only 2. Any person who qualifies conditions
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
O under Article 66 can contest election of
President.
3. Electoral College for purpose of
Presidential election includes elected
SC
43. With reference to the functions of the members of Pondicherry also.
Prime Minister, which of the following Which of the above statements is/are
statements is correct? incorrect?
(a) The salaries and allowances of Ministers (a) 1 and 2 only
are decided by him.
(b) 2 and 3 only
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(b) He advices the President to dismiss the

(c) 1 and 3 only
minister in case of difference of opinion.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) He advices President for appointment of
Speaker.
47. Which of the following statement is
(d) He allocates fund to each Ministry.
correct regarding the appointment of
the District Judge?
44. For implementation of decisions
made at the International conference (a) District judge is appointed by Governor
of the state in consultation with the
or associations, Parliament can make
President.
law:
(b) District judge is appointed by the High
(a) With necessary ratification of minimum
Court in consultation with the Governor.
fifty percent of States.
(c) District Judge is appointed by the State
(b) Without consent of any State.
Governor on the advice of Chief Justice of
(c) With necessary consent of all the States the concerned High Court.
and Union Territories.
(d) District Judge is appointed by the Chief
(d) With necessary guidance of United Justice of the High Court in consultation
Nations. with the President.

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48. Minister of Parliaments (MPs) may
move a motion for which of the
following reasons?
1. Discussing important issues such as
inflation, drought, and corruption.
2. Adjournment of business in a House
in order to express displeasure over a
government policy.
3. Expressing no confidence in the
government leading to its resignation.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
49. Which of the following statements
is/are correct regarding Attorney
General of India?
1. He is a government servant who gives
O
advice to the Government upon legal
matter which is referred to him by the
President.
2. He should not defend accused person in
SC
criminal prosecution without permission
of the GOI.
3. He appear on behalf of the Government
of India in all cases in the Supreme Court
in which the Government of India is
concerned.
Select the correct answer using the code given
GS
below:
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
50. Which of the following statements
is/are correct regarding Lame-duck
session?
1. It is conducted after election of new
members but before they are installed.
2. It refers to a session in which members
participated for last time because of
failure in re-election to Lok Sabha.
3. Lame-duck session requires minimum
number of members whose presence is
essential to transact the business of the
House.
10
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Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
51. Which of the following pardoning
powers of the President is/are correctly
matched?
1. Pardon - It removes both the sentence and
the conviction and completely absolves
the convict from all sentences.
2. Commutation - It denotes the substitution
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of one form of punishment with a lighter
form but not in case of court martial.
3. Respite - It implies a stay of the execution
of sentence for a temporary period.
4. Reprieve - It denotes awarding a lesser
sentence in place of one originally
awarded due to some special factor.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
52. The original jurisdiction of the
Supreme Court does not cover which
of the following matters?
1. Disputes arising between the Government
of India and one or more States.
2. Inter-state water disputes.
3. Enforcement of fundamental rights.
4. Adjustment of certain expenses and
pensions between the centre and states.
5. Ordinary dispute of commercial nature
between the centre & the states.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2, 4 and 5 only
(c) 2, 3 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
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53. Which of the following officials are
appointed as well as removed by the
Governor?
1. Advocate General of the state.
2. State Election Commissioner.
3. Members of the State Public Service
Commission.
4. Members of the State Human Rights
Commission.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
54. Which of the following statements
are correct regarding enactment of
the Budget?
1. Parliament can reduce or increase tax but
cannot abolish it.
for the preparation of the budget.
O
2. The Department of revenue is responsible
3. Passing of an appropriation bill completes
the process of enactment of the budget.
SC
4. The term ‘budget’ used in the Constitution
has been dealt with in Article 112 of the
Constitution.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
GS
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) None
55. A person cannot be a member of both
houses of parliament at the same
time. Thus, which of the following
provisions is/are correct regarding
vacation of seats?
1. If sitting member of one house is elected
to the other house, his seat in the first
house becomes vacant.
2. If person is elected to both the houses of
parliament and in default of intimation his
seat in Rajya Sabha becomes vacant.
3. If a person is elected to seat of parliament
and state legislature at the same time
then his seat in state legislature becomes
vacant.
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4. If a person is elected to both the Houses
of a State Legislature, he has to consult
Speaker for the procedure of vacation of
seat.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
56. Which of the following pairs are
correctly matched?
Articles Provisions
1. Article 74 There shall be Council of
RE
Ministers headed by P.M.
2. Article 75 Council of Ministers shall
be collectively responsible
to L.S
3. Article 77 Conduct of Business of
GOI (Government of India)
4. Article 78
Duty of the Prime Minister
with respect to President.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
57. Which of the following statements is/
are correct regarding Zero hour and
calling attention motion?
1. Zero hour is an informal device available
to members of parliament to raise matter
without any prior notice whereas calling
attention motion used to call the attention
of minister to a matter of urgent public
importance.
2. Unlike calling attention motion, zero hour
is mentioned in the rule of procedure.
3. Both are the Indian innovations in the
field of parliamentary procedures.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
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58. Consider the following statements Select the correct answer using the code given
related to the Acts made by below:
Parliament: (a) 1 and 3 only
1. President may repeal or amend any act (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
of Parliament in relation to Andaman and
Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep. (c) 1 and 4 only
2. The Governor is empowered to direct that (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
an act of Parliament does not apply to a
scheduled area in the state.
61. Which of the following roles is/are
3. The laws of the Parliament are not assigned to Vice President as Chairman
applicable to the Indian citizens and their
property in any part of the world as it of the Rajya Sabha?
lacks sovereignty. 1. He is the final authority on the
interpretation of the Constitution and the
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Rules of Procedure for all house-related
(a) 1 and 2 only matters.
(b) 3 only 2. He determines whether a Rajya Sabha

RE
(c) 1 only member stands to be disqualified on
grounds of defection.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
3. He acts as guardian of parliamentary
privileges and his consent is required to
59. Which of the following is correct raise a question of breach of privilege.
regarding the duties and functions of
Select the incorrect answer using the codes
CAG as laid down by the Parliament
O given below:
and the Constitution?
(a) 1 and 3 only
1. He audits balance sheets and other
subsidiary accounts kept by any department (b) 1 only
SC
of central and state government.
(c) 1, 2 and 3
2. He can audit the accounts of Panchayati
Raj Institutions and Urban Local Bodies (d) None
but with the permission of the State
government. 62. Which of the following is/are the
3. He ascertains and certifies the net functions of the union executives?
proceeds of any tax or duty.
1. The initiation of legislation.
GS

4. He audits and reports on the trade

2. The promotion and implementation of
and manufacture by government
departments. welfare issues of economy and social
issues.
Select the correct answer using the code given
3. It can make laws on subjects that fall
below:
within the State List.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code given
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only below:
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
60. Supreme Court’s jurisdiction and
powers can be enlarged by which of (d) 1, 2 and 3
the following?
1. Parliament 63. Which of the following bills has/have
2. State legislature been passed as Money Bill in India?
3. President 1. Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial
and Other Subsidies, Benefits and
4. Special agreement of Centre and States. Services) Bill.

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2. Compensatory Afforestation Fund Bill, 2015.
3. President’s (Emoluments and) Pension Act.
4. Goods and Service Tax Act.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only the Chair which is considered breach of
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
64. Which of the following statements is/
are correct regarding the process of
election of the President of India?
1. The process of election of the President is
of Indian origin and no other constitution
contains a similar procedure.
2. Solving all the doubts and disputes
in connection with the election of the
President is exclusive jurisdiction of the
Supreme Court.
Select the correct answer using the code given
O 67. Which of the following Bills require
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
SC
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
65. Which of the following statements are
correct regarding the Supreme Court
and High Court?
GS
1. Number of judges in the Supreme Court
can be increased by the parliament
whereas number of judges in the High
Court can be increased by the President.
2. Impeachment process of judge of the
Supreme Court and High court is same.
3. Salaries, allowances, pensions and leaves
of the judges of the Supreme Court
and high court are determined by the
Parliament.
4. Salaries, allowances, pensions of the
judges of both are charged on the
Consolidated Fund of India.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
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66. Which of the following parliamentary
terms is/are correctly described?
1. Whip - The office of whip is mentioned
neither in the constitution of India nor in
the rules of House nor in the parliamentary
statue.
2. Crossing the floor - Passing between
the member addressing the House and
Parliamentary etiquette.
3. Subordinate Legislation - Rules framed by
the Executive in pursuance of the power
conferred on it by the Constitution
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(a) 1 only
RE
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
the prior recommendation of the
President for introduction in the
Parliament?
1. Bills related to making changes in areas of
existing states.
2. Bills related to abolition of any tax in
which states are interested.
3. A bill which would involve expenditure
from Consolidated Fund of India.
4. State bills imposing restrictions upon the
freedom of trade.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
68. Which of the following statements are
correct regarding Contingency Fund
of India?
1. It aims to facilitate meeting of urgent
unforeseen expenditure by the
government without authorization from
parliament.
2. Amount from Consolidated Fund of India
is used to recoup the Contingency Fund
of India.
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3. The fund is held by the finance secretary
on behalf of President of India.
4. Like public account of India, it is also
operated by executive action.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
69. Which of the following statements
is/are incorrect regarding the
parliamentary proceedings?
1. Cut motion is a power given to the
members of the Parliament to oppose a
demand in the Financial Bill.
2. The provision of joint sitting is applicable
to ordinary bills only and not to money
bills or constitutional bills.
3. In the absence of speaker and deputy
speaker, chairman of Rajya Sabha presides
O
over a joint sitting of two Houses.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
SC
(a) 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
70. Which of the following statements are
GS
correct regarding executive powers of
the President?
1. All executive actions of the Government
of India are formally taken in his name.
2. He can make rules for more convenient
transaction of business of Union
government.
3. He can preside over an inter-state council
to promote centre-state and inter-state
cooperation.
4. He can make regulations for peace,
progress and good governance of the
Daman and Diu.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
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71. Which of the following statements
are correct regarding consultative
committee?
1. It provides a forum for informal discussion
between the ministers and the members of
the parliament on policies and programs
of the government and manner of their
implementation.
2. These committees are constituted by the
Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs.
3. These committees shall stand dissolved
upon dissolution of every Lok Sabha and
shall be reconstituted upon constitution
of each Lok Sabha.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
RE
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
72. Which of the following statements are
correct regarding Lok Adalats?
1. It is presided over by a sitting or retired
judicial officer as the Chairman.
2. Its decision is binding on parties to
the dispute and its order is capable of
execution through legal process.
3. It deals in matters related to both civil and
criminal cases.
4. If the case is already filed in the regular
court, the fee paid will be refunded if the
dispute is settled at Lok Adalats.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
73. Which of the following statements is/
are correct regarding post of Leader
of Opposition?
1. Post of Leader of Opposition is given to
Opposition party having not less than
one-tenth seats of the total strength of
the House
2. Original constitution provided statutory
recognition to the leader of opposition.
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3. He is entitled to salary, allowances and 76. Consider the following statements

other facilities equivalent to that of a about powers of the President of
cabinet minister. India:
Select the correct answer using the code given 1. He appoints Attorney General of India
below: and Comptroller & Auditor General of
India who hold office during the pleasure
(a) 1 and 3 only of the President.
(b) 2 and 3 only 2. He can address Parliament at the
(c) 3 only commencement of the first session after
each general election and first session of
(d) 1, 2 and 3 each financial year.
3. He constitutes a Finance Commission
74. Which of the following statements are after every five years to recommend the
correct regarding ordinance making distribution of revenues between the
centre and states.
power of the President?
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1. President can make ordinance without

RE
the instruction from Council of Ministers (a) 1 and 3 only
headed by PM. (b) 1 and 2 only
2. Ordinance making power of the President (c) 3 only
to legislate is a parallel power of
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
legislation. O
3. The maximum life of an ordinance can be
77. Consider the following statements
six months only.
with respect to responsibilities of
Select the correct answer using the code given Governor of Arunachal Pradesh under
below: Article 371-H:
SC
(a) 1 and 2 only 1. Governor exercises his individual
judgment which is independent of Council
(b) 2 and 3 only
of Ministers.
(c) 1, 2 and 3 2. This special responsibility of Governor
(d) None ceases when the President so directs.
3. Governor should establish a Regional
GS

Council for the Tuensang district and make

75. Consider the following statements
about Ad hoc judge:
1. He is appointed by the Chief Justice of
India when there is a lack of quorum of
the permanent judges to hold or continue
any session of the Supreme Court.
2. He can do so only with the previous
consent of the President.
3. He shall have all the jurisdiction, powers
and privileges of a Judge of the Supreme
Court.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
rules for the compositions and service
conditions of the member of council.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
78. Consider the following statements
with respect to Territorial Extent of
Central and State Legislation:
1. The Parliament can make laws for the
whole or any part of the territory of
India.
2. A state legislature can make laws for the
whole or any part of the state.

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3. The Parliament can also make extra-
territorial legislation.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
79. Which of the following statements is/
are correct regarding language of the
judiciary and texts of Laws?
1. Hindi translation of acts, ordinances and
bye laws published under the authority
of the President are deemed to be
authoritative text.
2. President can authorize the use of Hindi
for the judgment, decrees and orders
passed by the high court of the state.
3. Supreme Court hears only those who
O
petition or appeal in either Hindi or
English.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
SC
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only House and can take part in its proceedings,
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
GS
80. Consider the following statements
regarding the State’s consent with
respect to bills;
1. There is six months’ time limit for the
states to give consent in those provisions
of the Constitution which are related to
federal structure of polity.
2. Bills related to the formation of new state
or changes in the existing states of union
of India have no time limit for consent of
states.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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81. Which of the following statements
related to the provisions mentioned
in the Constitution is/are correct?
1. All doubts and disputes in connection
with election of the Vice-President are
inquired into and decided by the Election
Commission whose decision is final.
2. The Prime Minister shall be appointed by
the President and the other ministers shall
be appointed by the Prime Minister.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
RE
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
82. Consider the following statements
related to the Vice President:
1. The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha can
be removed from his office only if he is
removed from the office of the Vice-
President.
2. The Vice President at the time of his
removal can be present and speak in the
without voting.
3. The Vice-President cannot preside over a
sitting of the Rajya Sabha as its Chairman,
when a resolution for his removal is under
consideration.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
83. Which of the following dispute fall
under the Original Jurisdiction of
Supreme Court?
1. Ordinary dispute of Commercial nature
between the Centre and the States.
2. Inter-state water disputes.
3. Recovery of damages by a State against
the Centre.
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Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(a) 2 only behalf of citizens. Citizens’ ability to
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) None
84. In context of the power provided by
the Constitution to the Parliament to
reorganize the states, consider the
following statements:
1. In case of Union Territory reorganization,
reference need to be made to concerned
legislature to ascertain its views.
86. In a representative democracy,
elected representatives make laws on
participate in the legislative process is
fundamental to democracy. Consider
the following statements in this
context:
1. Legislation may be initiated by stakeholders
or from within the government.
2. Public participation regarding draft Bills is
statutorily mandated in India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only

RE
2. Views of the concerned state legislature/ (c) Both 1 and 2
UT are binding on the President.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Such laws does not require a special
majority but can be passed by a simple
majority. 87. Which of the following statements
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
O about financial powers and functions
of the President are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
1. He can make advances out of the
(b) 2 and 3 only Consolidated Fund of India to meet any
SC
(c) 3 only unforeseen expenditure.

(d) 1, 2 and 3 2. No demand for a grant can be made

except on his recommendation.

85. Regarding the Office of the President 3. Money bills can be introduced in
the Parliament only with his prior
of India which of the following
recommendation.
statements is/are correct?
GS

Select the correct answer using the codes

1. His electoral college consist of all members
given below:
of both the Houses of Parliament, elected
members of Legislative Assembly of (a) 1 and 2 only
States and UT.
(b) 2 and 3 only
2. He should be qualified for election as a
(c) 1 and 3 only
member of the Lok Sabha only.
3. His oath of office is administered by the (d) 1, 2 and 3
Vice-President of India.
4. He can resign from office by addressing 88. Consider the following statements
the resignation letter to the Chief Justice about the features of Cabinet
of India. Committees:
Select the correct answer using the code given 1. They are constitutional in nature.
below: 2. They not only include the Ministers in
(a) 1 and 2 only charge of subjects covered by them but
also include other senior Ministers.
(b) 1 and 3 only
3. They not only sort out issues and
(c) 2 only
formulate proposals for the consideration
(d) None of the Cabinet, but also take decisions.

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Which of the above statements is/are correct? 91. The role of CAG is to uphold the
(a) 1 and 2 only Constitution of India and the laws of
Parliament in the field of financial
(b) 2 and 3 only
administration. Which of the
(c) 1 and 3 only following statements in this context
(d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct?
1. The CAG has more freedom with regard
89. The Supreme Court has examined the to audit of expenditure than with regard
pardoning power of the President to audit of receipts, stores and stock.

under different cases and laid down
various principles. Which of the
following statements in this context
are correct?
1. The petitioner for mercy has no right to
2. In addition to this legal and regulatory
audit, the CAG cannot conduct the
propriety audit.
3. The CAG has no control over the issue of
money from the Consolidated Fund of
India.

RE
an oral hearing by the President.
Select the correct answer using the code given
2. The power is to be exercised by the below:
President on the advice of the Union (a) 1 and 2 only
Cabinet.
(b) 2 and 3 only
3. The President is not bound to give reasons
for his order.
O (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
SC
92. Consider the following statements
(a) 1 and 2 only
in context with the adjournment
(b) 2 and 3 only motion:
(c) 1 and 3 only 1. It should raise a matter of urgent public
importance.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. This can be admitted both in Lok Sabha
GS

as well as Rajya Sabha.

90. Consider the following statements
about powers and functions of Prime
Minister:
1. He can ask a minister to resign or advise
the President to dismiss him in case of
difference of opinion.
2. He can recommend dissolution of the Lok
Sabha to the President at any time.
3. He is the crisis manager-in-chief at the
political level during emergencies.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only ministers who are in charge of separate
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
93. Consider the following statements
related to the classification of Council
of Ministers:
1. The Cabinet is a smaller body which
consists of a few important senior
departments.
2. A Deputy Minister is the junior member
to Cabinet Minister and look after their
work in their absence.

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3. Minister of State has an independent
charge of the ministry and is a part of the
Cabinet.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
94. Consider the following statements
related to the concept of collective
responsibility of the Council of
Minister:
1. The Council of Minister is collectively
responsible to the Parliament.
2. A vote of no-confidence against any
minister in Rajya Sabha automatically
leads to the resignation of the entire
council.
O
3. A minister is not expected to speak out
publicly against a policy decision of the
Cabinet.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
SC
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only of Minister who has lost confidence of the
(d) 2 and 3 only
GS
95. Consider the following statements
related to the Attorney General of
India:
1. He is the Indian government’s chief legal
advisor, and is primary lawyer in the
Supreme Court of India.
2. He has the right to participate in the
proceedings of the Parliament.
3. The Attorney General is to be consulted
in legal matters of real importance and
only after the Ministry of Law has been
consulted for it.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only beginning and 40 days after the end of
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
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96. Consider the following statements:
1. A person who is not a member of either
House of the Parliament can be appointed
a member of the Council of Minister.
2. A minister who is not a member of either
House of the Parliament can continue to
do so for 1 year.
3. A minister who is a member of one House
of Parliament has the right to speak and
to take part in the proceedings of the
other House also.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
RE
(d) 1 and 3 only
97. When Lok Sabha passes no confidence
motion against the Council of Minister,
then which of the following conditions
take place?
1. The ministers who are from Lok Sabha
have to resign.
2. Prime Minister has to resign.
3. The ministers from Rajya Sabha have to
resign.
4. The President may not oblige the Council
Lok Sabha.
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
98. The individual privileges enjoyed
by the Members of the Parliament
include:
1. Absolute freedom of speech.
2. They are exempted from jury service.
3. They cannot be arrested during the session
of the Parliament and 40 days before the
the session.
4. The privilege of not being arrested is also
available in case of preventive detention
cases.
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Which of the above stated privileges are
correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
99. The question of disqualification of the
Members of the Parliament, according
to Representation of Peoples Act 1951,
has to be decided by:
(a) Election Commission, in consultation with
the Speaker and Chairman of the House.
(b) Speaker and Chairman of the House,
100. Consider the following statements
related to the Rajya Sabha:
1. The representatives of states in the Rajya
Sabha are elected by the elected members
of state legislative assemblies.
2. Seats are allocated to the states on the
basis of population of the state.
3. A member of the Rajya Sabha must be a
domicile of the state from which he/she
is elected.
4. Union Territories have no representation
in Rajya Sabha.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

RE
in consultation with the Election (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
Commission.
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) The President, in consultation with the
Election Commission. (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Supreme Court (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
O ***********
SC
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GS SCORE 11
IAS Prelims - 2019

POLITY
(EXECUTIVE + LEGISLATURE + JUDICIARY)

RE
Answer Key
Q. 1 (d) Q. 26 (c) Q. 51 (a) Q. 76 (c)
Q. 2 (b) Q. 27 (a) Q. 52 (b) Q. 77 (a)
Q. 3 (a) Q. 28 (c) O Q. 53 (a) Q. 78 (d)
Q. 4 (b) Q. 29 (d) Q. 54 (d) Q. 79 (a)
Q. 5 (a) Q. 30 (d) Q. 55 (a) Q. 80 (d)
Q. 6 (d) Q. 31 (d) Q. 56 (d) Q. 81 (d)
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Q. 7 (b) Q. 32 (d) Q. 57 (c) Q. 82 (c)
Q. 8 (c) Q. 33 (d) Q. 58 (a) Q. 83 (d)
Q. 9 (c) Q. 34 (c) Q. 59 (d) Q. 84 (c)
Q. 10 (b) Q. 35 (b) Q. 60 (c) Q. 85 (c)
Q. 11 (a) Q. 36 (a) Q. 61 (d) Q. 86 (a)
Q. 12 (b) Q. 37 (b) Q. 62 (a) Q. 87 (b)
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Q. 13 (b) Q. 38 (d) Q. 63 (b) Q. 88 (b)

Q. 14 (a) Q. 39 (a) Q. 64 (c) Q. 89 (d)
Q. 15 (b) Q. 40 (a) Q. 65 (a) Q. 90 (d)
Q. 16 (d) Q. 41 (c) Q. 66 (d) Q. 91 (c)
Q. 17 (d) Q. 42 (b) Q. 67 (d) Q. 92 (a)
Q. 18 (d) Q. 43 (b) Q. 68 (b) Q. 93 (a)
Q. 19 (d) Q. 44 (b) Q. 69 (a) Q. 94 (c)
Q. 20 (b) Q. 45 (a) Q. 70 (a) Q. 95 (d)
Q. 21 (b) Q. 46 (a) Q. 71 (d) Q. 96 (d)
Q. 22 (c) Q. 47 (c) Q. 72 (d) Q. 97 (d)
Q. 23 (b) Q. 48 (d) Q. 73 (a) Q. 98 (a)
Q. 24 (a) Q. 49 (a) Q. 74 (d) Q. 99 (c)
Q. 25 (d) Q. 50 (a) Q. 75 (d) Q. 100 (b)

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1. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
Powers of the Parliament:
! Statement 2, 3, 4 and 5 are correct:
Following are the judicial powers of
Parliament.
 It can impeach the President for
the violation of the Constitution.
However, the Constitution does not
define the meaning of the phrase
‘violation of the Constitution’. The
impeachment resolution must be
passed by a majority of two-thirds
of the total membership in both the
houses separately. The impeachment
is a quasi-judicial procedure in the
Parliament.
 It can remove the Vice-President from
his office. A formal impeachment
is not required for his removal. He
can be removed by a resolution of the
Rajya Sabha passed by an absolute
majority (i.e. , a majority of the total
members of the House) and agreed to
O characterizes electoral systems by which
by the Lok Sabha.
 It can recommend the removal of
judges (including chief justice) of
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the Supreme Court and the high
courts, chief election commissioner,
comptroller and auditor general to the
president.
 It can punish its members or outsiders
for the breach of its privileges or its
contempt.
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 Statement 1 is incorrect: Power to
make laws to regulate the elections
to the offices of President and Vice-
President, is electoral power and
function of the Parliament.
2. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
System of Representation in the
Parliament:
In Indian parliamentary system there are
two types of election systems, the system of
proportional representation by means of the
single transferable vote and the First past the
post system.
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution
has adopted the system of proportional
representation in the case of Rajya
Sabha, though it has not preferred the
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same system in the case of Lok Sabha.
The system of proportional representation
by means of the single transferable vote
used in the elections of President, Vice
President, Members of Rajya Sabha and
the members of state legislative council.
 Statement 2 is correct: In Lok Sabha
elections, one member from each territory
get elected through the First past the
post system. The candidate who wins
maximum number of votes get elected.
 A first-past-the-post (FPTP) voting method
is one in which voters indicate on a ballot
the candidate of their choice, and the
candidate who receives the most votes
wins. This is described as winner takes
all. First-past-the-post voting is a plurality
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voting method.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: It is the first-
past-the-post (FPTP) voting method which
does not secure the due representation
to minorities.
 The Proportional representation system
divisions in an electorate are reflected
proportionately in the elected body. If
n% of the electorate supports a particular
political party, then roughly n% of seats
will be won by that party.
 The essence of such systems is that all
votes contribute to the result and not just
a plurality, or a bare majority, of them.
So it provides the due representation to
minorities.
3. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
Different types of majority:
 Statement 1 is correct: Special majority
is the majority that is, more than 50 per
cent of the total membership of each
House and a majority of not less than
two-thirds of the members present and
voting in each House.
 The provisions which can be amended by
this majority are:
 Fundamental Rights;
 Directive Principles of State Policy; and
 All other provisions which are not
covered under the Simple majority and
special majority but with the consent
of half of all the state legislatures.
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 Statement 2 is incorrect: The expression
‘total membership’ means the total
number of members comprising the
House irrespective of the fact whether
there are vacancies or absentees.
 Effective Majority of the house means
more than 50% of the effective strength
of the house. This implies that out of
the total strength, we do not take into
account members who are absent or
those seats which are vacant. When Indian
Constitution mentions “all the then
members”, then it refers to the effective
majority. The following are removed using
effective majority.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: Removal of
Vice-president in Rajya Sabha.
 Removal of Speaker and Deputy
Speaker of Lok Sabha and State
Legislative Assembly.
4. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
Types of Majority:
O by the Parliament. His salary is equal to
! Pair 1 is incorrectly matched:
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 Vice-President may be removed from
his office by a resolution of Rajya
Sabha passed by a majority of all the
then members of the Rajya Sabha
and agreed to Lok Sabha. This is an
example of effective majority in
Rajya Sabha.
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! Pairs 2, 3 and 4 are correctly
matched:
 Lok Sabha Speaker can be removed by
a resolution passed by a majority of all
the members of the Lok Sabha. Such
a resolution can be moved only after
giving 14 days’ advance notice.
 Motion of Thanks: The first session
after each general election and the first
session of every fiscal year is addressed
by the president. In this address, the
President outlines the policies and
programmes of the government in the
preceding year and ensuing year. At the
end of the discussion, the motion is put
to vote. This motion must be passed
in the House. Otherwise, it amounts
to the defeat of the government. It is
passed by simple majority.
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 CAG can also be removed by the President
on the same grounds and in the same
manner as a judge of the Supreme
Court. Means he can be removed by the
President on the basis of a resolution
passed to that effect by both the Houses
of Parliament with special majority, either
on the ground of proved misbehaviour
or incapacity.
5. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
CAG:
The Constitution has made the following
provisions to safeguard and ensure the
independence of CAG:
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 Statement 1 is correct: He is not eligible
for further office, either under the
Government of India or of any state, after
he ceases to hold his office.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: His salary and
other service conditions are determined
that of a judge of the Supreme Court. The
administrative expenses of the office of
the CAG, including all salaries, allowances
and pensions of persons serving in that
office are charged upon the Consolidated
Fund of India.
Other Provisions:
 He is provided with the security of tenure.
He can be removed by the President
only in accordance with the procedure
mentioned in the Constitution. Thus, he
does not hold his office till the pleasure
of the President, though he is appointed
by him.
 Neither his salary nor his rights in
respect of leave of absence, pension or
age of retirement can be altered to his
disadvantage after his ap7pointment.
 The conditions of service of persons
serving in the Indian Audit and Accounts
Department and the administrative
powers of the CAG are prescribed by
the President after consultation with the
CAG.
 No minister can represent the CAG
in Parliament (both Houses) and no
minister can be called upon to take any
responsibility for any actions done by
him.
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6. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
Rajya Sabha:
 Statement 1 is correct: The Rajya Sabha
(first constituted in 1952) is a continuing
chamber, means it is a permanent body and
not subject to dissolution. However, one-
third of its members retire every second
year. Their seats are filled up by fresh
elections and presidential nominations at
the beginning of every third year.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The
Constitution has not fixed the term of
office of members of the Rajya Sabha and
left it to the Parliament. Accordingly, the
Parliament in the Representation of the
People Act (1951) provided that the term
of office of a member of the Rajya Sabha
shall be six years.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: The act also
empowered the President of India to
curtail the term of members chosen in the
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first Rajya Sabha. In the first batch, the
retirement of one-third members were
decided by lottery system.
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 approach to the court of law if her/his
7. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
Collective Responsibility:
 Statement 1 is correct: The fundamental
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principle underlying the working of
parliamentary system of government is
the principle of collective responsibility.
Article 75 clearly states that the council
of ministers is collectively responsible
to the Lok Sabha. This means that all the
ministers own joint responsibility to the
Lok Sabha for all their acts of omission
and commission. They work as a team
and swim or sink together.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: When the Lok
Sabha passes a no-confidence motion
against the council of ministers, all the
ministers have to resign including those
ministers who are from the Rajya Sabha.
 Censure Motion: It can be moved
against an individual minister or a
group of ministers or the entire council
of ministers. It is moved for censuring
the council of ministers for specific
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policies and actions. If it is passed in the
Lok Sabha, the council of ministers need
not resign from the office
8. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
Judiciary:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Every law
passed by the Parliament has no need
to approve by judiciary. Law making is a
power of legislative. If there is violation
of fundamental rights of citizens then
judiciary can interfere in legislative power.
Ex: Supreme Court strike down NJAC act.
 Statement 2 is correct: It has power to
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review its own judgement or order. Thus,
it is not bound by its previous decision
and can depart from it in the interest
of justice or community welfare. So the
Supreme Court is a self-correcting agency.
For example, in the Kesavananda Bharati
case (1973), the Supreme Court departed
from its previous judgment in the Golak
Nath case (1967).
 Statement 3 is correct: Any citizen can
rights are violated.
9. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
Public Interest Litigation (PIL):
 The introduction of PIL in India was
facilitated by the relaxation of the
traditional rule of ‘locus standi’.
According to this rule, only that person
whose rights are infringed alone can move
the court for the remedies, whereas, the
PIL is an exception to this traditional rule.
In PIL, any member of the public having
‘sufficient interest’ can approach the court
for enforcing the rights of other persons
and redressal of a common grievance.
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The judiciary,
including Supreme Court, entertained
litigation from those parties that were
affected directly or indirectly by it. It
means that even people, who are not
directly involved in the case, may bring to
the notice of the Court matters of public
interest. Courts can also take Suo Motu
cognizance of the matter.
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 The cases falling under the following
categories will not be entertained as PIL:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Landlord–
tenant matters
 Service matter and those pertaining to
pension and gratuity
 Complaints against Central/ State
Government departments and Local
Bodies.
 Admission to medical and other
educational institution
 Petitions for early hearing of
cases pending in High Courts and
Subordinate Courts
Supreme Court laid down the following

guidelines for checking the misuse of the
PIL:
 The court must encourage genuine
and bona fide PIL and effectively
discourage and curb the PIL field for
extraneous considerations.
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 Instead of every individual Judge
devising his own procedure for dealing
with PIL, it would be appropriate for
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each High Court to properly formulate
rules for encouraging the genuine PIL
filed and discouraging PIL filed with
oblique motives.
 The Court should prima facie verify
the credentials of the petitioner before
entertaining the PIL.
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 The Court shall be prima facie satisfied
regarding the correctness of the
contents of petition before entertaining
the PIL.
 Statement 3 is correct: The Court
should be fully satisfied that
substantial public interest is involved
before entertaining the petition.
 The Court should ensure that the
petition which involves larger public
interest, gravity and urgency must be
given priority over other petitions.
 The Court before entertaining the
PIL must ensure that the PIL is aimed
at redressal of genuine public harm
and public injury. The Court should
also ensure that there is no personal
gain, private motive or oblique motive
behind filing PIL.
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 The Court should also ensure that
the petition filed by busybodies for
extraneous and ulterior motives must
be discouraged by imposing exemplary
costs or adopting similar novel
methods to curb frivolous petitions
and the petitions filed for extraneous
considerations.
10. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
Money Bill:
 Statement 1 is correct: Article 110 of
the Constitution deals with the definition
of money bills. It states that a bill is
deemed to be a money bill if it contains
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‘only’ provisions dealing with all or any of
the following matters:
 The imposition, abolition, remission,
alteration or regulation of any tax;
 The regulation of the borrowing of
money by the Union government;
 The custody of the Consolidated Fund
of India or the contingency fund of
India, the payment of moneys into or
the withdrawal of money from any
such fund;
 The appropriation of money out of the
Consolidated Fund of India;
 Declaration of any expenditure
charged on the Consolidated Fund of
India or increasing the amount of any
such expenditure;
 The receipt of money on account of
the Consolidated Fund of India or the
public account of India or the custody
or issue of such money, or the audit
of the accounts of the Union or of a
state; or
 Any matter incidental to any of the
matters specified above.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: If any question
arises whether a bill is a money bill or
not, the decision of the Speaker of the
Lok Sabha is final. His decision in this
regard cannot be questioned in any court
of law or in the either House of Parliament
or even the president. When a money
bill is transmitted to the Rajya Sabha for
recommendation and presented to the
president for assent, the Speaker endorses
it as a money bill.
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 Statement 3 is incorrect: A money bill
can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha
and that too on the recommendation of
the President. After a money bill is passed
by the Lok Sabha, it is transmitted to the
Rajya Sabha for its consideration. The
Rajya Sabha has restricted powers with
regard to a money bill. It cannot reject
or amend a money bill. It can only make
the recommendations. It must return
the bill to the Lok Sabha within 14 days,
wither with or without recommendations.
The Lok Sabha can either accept or reject
all or any of the recommendations of the
Rajya Sabha.
 Statement 4 is correct: Every such bill is
considered to be a government bill and
can be introduced only by a minister.
11. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
Grounds of disqualification for being a
member of the legislative assembly or
O such as untouchability, dowry and
legislative council of a state:
Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
Under the Constitution, a person shall
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be disqualified for being chosen as and
for being a member of the legislative
assembly or legislative council of a state:
 If he holds any office of profit under
the Union or state government
(except that of a minister or any other
office exempted by state legislature),
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 if he is of unsound mind and stands so
declared by a court,
 if he is an undischarged insolvent,
 if he is not a citizen of India or has
voluntarily acquired the citizenship
of a foreign state or is under any
acknowledgement of allegiance to a
foreign state, and
 if he is so disqualified under any law
made by Parliament.
 Accordingly, the Parliament has prescribed
a number of additional disqualifications
in the Representation of People Act
(1951). These are similar to those for
Parliament. These are mentioned here:
 He must not have been found guilty
of certain election offences or corrupt
practices in the elections.
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 He must not have been convicted for
any offence resulting in imprisonment
for two or more years. But, the detention
of a person under a preventive
detention law is not a disqualification.
 He must not have failed to lodge an
account of his election expenses within
the time.
 He must not have any interest in
government contracts, works or
services.
 He must not be a director or managing
agent nor hold an office of profit in a
corporation in which the government
has at least 25 per cent share.
 He must not have been dismissed from
government service for corruption or
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disloyalty to the state.
 He must not have been convicted for
promoting enmity between different
groups or for the offence of bribery.
 He must not have been punished for
preaching and practicing social crimes
sati.
 On the question whether a member has
become subject to any of the above
disqualifications, the governor’s decision
is final. However, he should obtain the
opinion of the Election Commission and
act accordingly.
 Statement 4 is incorrect: He must be not
less than 30 years of age in the case
of the legislative council and not less
than 25 years of age in the case of the
legislative assembly.
12. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
Important Parliamentary terms:
Pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched.
 Expunction: Deletion of words, phrases
or expressions from the proceedings
or records of Rajya Sabha by an order
of the Chairman for being defamatory
or indecent or unparliamentary or
undignified.
 Casting Vote: The vote casted by the
Chairman, or a Member acting as such
in the House and by the Chairman or a
Member acting as such in a Committee,
in the case of an equality of votes on a
matter.
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 Pair 2 is incorrect: Adjournment sine
die: Termination of a sitting of the House
without any definite date being fixed for
the next sitting.
 Draw of lot: A method applied to
determine the relative precedence of
private members Bills and Resolutions,
notices of questions, half-an-hour
discussions or any other notice given by
more than one member simultaneously
for being taken up on the same day.
 Naming a Member: The drawing of
attention of the House by the Chairman to
the conduct of a member who disregards
the authority of the Chair or abuses the
Rules of the House by persistently and
willfully obstructing the business thereof,
with a view to action being taken to
suspend him from the service of the House
for a period not exceeding the remainder
of the session.
13. Correct Option: (b)
O Financial Powers of the President:
Explanation:
Form of Oath of Secrecy:
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 “I, A.B.C, swear in the name of god
of solemnly affirm that I will not
directly or indirectly communicate or
reveal to any person or persons any
matter which shall be brought under
my consideration or shall become
known to me as a Minister for the
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State of … except as may be required
for the due discharge of my duties
as such Minister.”
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The oath
of Secrecy in Indian Parliamentary
system is administered only to the
Ministers and not to the elected
MPs.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The
ministers are constitutionally obliged
to take the oath of secrecy before
entering their office. They cannot
hold the office without taking oath
of Secrecy.
 Statement 3 is correct: The ministers
operate on the principle of secrecy
of procedure and cannot divulge
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information about their proceedings,
policies and decisions. They take the
oath of secrecy before entering their
office. The oath of secrecy to the
ministers is administered by the
President.
 In his oath of secrecy, the Prime
Minister/Minister swears that
he will not directly or indirectly
communicate or reveal to any
person(s) any matter that is brought
under his consideration or becomes
known to him as a Union Minister
except as may be required for the
due discharge of his duties as such
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minister.
14. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
The financial powers and functions of the
President are:
 Statement 1 is correct: Money bills can
be introduced in the Parliament only with
his prior recommendation.
 Statement 2 is correct: He causes to be laid
before the Parliament the annual financial
statement (ie, the Union Budget).
 No demand for a grant can be made
except on his recommendation.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: He can make
advances out of the Contingency
fund of India to meet any unforeseen
expenditure.
 He constitutes a finance commission
after every five years to recommend the
distribution of revenues between the
Centre and the states.
15. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
Speaker Pro-Tem:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: As provided by
the Constitution, the Speaker of the last
Lok Sabha vacates his office immediately
before the first meeting of the newly-
elected Lok Sabha. Therefore, the
President appoints a member of the Lok
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Sabha as the Speaker Pro Tem. Usually,
the senior most member is selected for
this. The President himself administers
oath to the Speaker Pro Tem.
 Statement 2 is correct: The Speaker Pro
Tem has all the powers of the Speaker.
He presides over the first sitting of the
newly-elected Lok Sabha.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: His main
duty is to administer oath to the new
members. He also enables the House to
elect the new Speaker.
 When the new Speaker is elected by the
House, the office of the Speaker Pro Tem
ceases to exist. Hence, this office is a
temporary office, existing for a few days.
16. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
President and Council of Ministers.
 As per Article 74 President is bound by the
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advice of the council of ministers headed
by the Prime Minister. Though he has no
constitutional discretion, he has some
situational discretion. In other words, the
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President can act on his discretion (that is,
without the advice of the ministers) under
the following situations:
 Statement 1 is correct: Appointment
of Prime Minister when no party has
a clear majority in the Lok Sabha or
when the Prime Minister in office
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dies suddenly and there is no obvious
successor.
 Dismissal of the council of ministers
when it cannot prove the confidence
in the Lok Sabha.
 Dissolution of the Lok Sabha if the
council of ministers has lost its
majority.
 Statement 3 is correct: After the 44th
Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978
the President may return a matter once
for reconsideration of his ministers, but
the reconsidered advice shall be binding.
 Statement 2 is correct: Pocket Veto: In
this veto President neither ratifies nor
rejects nor returns the bill, but simply keeps
the bill pending for an indefinite period.
This power of the President not to take
any action (either positive or negative) on
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the bill is known as the pocket veto. The
President can exercise this veto power as
the Constitution does not prescribe any
time-limit within which he has to take the
decision with respect to a bill presented
to him for his assent.
17. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
Comptroller and Auditor General of
India:
The Constitution of India (Article 148)
provides for an independent office of the
Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(CAG). He is the head of the Indian Audit and
Accounts Department. He is the guardian
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of the public purse and controls the entire
financial system of the country at both the
level of the Centre and the state.
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The
Constitution (Article 149) authorises
the Parliament to prescribe the duties
and powers of the CAG in relation to
the accounts of the Union and of the
states and of any other authority or body.
Accordingly, the Parliament enacted the
CAG’s (Duties, Powers and Conditions of
Service) act, 1971. This Act was amended
in 1976 to separate accounts from audit
in the Central government.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: He compiles
and maintains the accounts of state
governments. In 1976, he was relieved
of his responsibilities with regard to the
compilation and maintenance of accounts
of the Central Government due to the
separation of accounts from audit, that is,
departmentalisation of accounts.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: He audits all
expenditure from the Contingency Fund
of India and the Public Account of India
as well as the contingency fund of each
state and the public account of each
state.
 The duties and functions of the CAG as
laid down by the Parliament and the
Constitution are:
 He audits the accounts related to all
expenditure from the Consolidated
Fund of India, consolidated fund of
each state and consolidated fund of
each union territory having a Legislative
Assembly.
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 He audits all expenditure from the
Contingency Fund of India and the
Public Account of India as well as the
contingency fund of each state and
the public account of each state.
 He audits all trading, manufacturing,
profit and loss accounts, balance
sheets and other subsidiary accounts
kept by any department of the Central
Government and state governments.
 He audits the receipts and expenditure
of the Centre and each state to satisfy
him-self that the rules and procedures
in that behalf are designed to secure
an effective check on the assessment,
collection and proper allocation of
revenue.
 He audits the receipts and expenditure
of the following:
 All bodies and authorities
substantially financed from the
Central or state revenues;
 Government companies; and
 Other corporations and bodies,
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when so required by related laws.
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 He audits all transactions of the Central
and state governments related to debt,
sinking funds, deposits, advances,
suspense accounts and remittance
business. He also audits receipts, stock
accounts and others, with approval of
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the President, or when required by the
President.
 He audits the accounts of any other
authority when requested by the
President or Governor. For example,
the audit of local bodies.
 He advises the President with regard
to prescription of the form in which the
accounts of the Centre and the states
shall be kept (Article 150).
 He submits his audit reports relating to
the accounts of the Centre to President,
who shall, in turn, place them before
both the Houses of Parliament (Article
151).
 He submits his audit reports relating
to the accounts of a state to governor,
who shall, in turn, place them before
the state legislature (Article 151).
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 He ascertains and certifies the net
proceeds of any tax or duty (Article
279). His certificate is final. The ‘net
proceeds’ means the proceeds of a tax
or a duty minus the cost of collection.
 He acts as a guide, friend and
philosopher of the Public Accounts
Committee of the Parliament.
 He compiles and maintains the
accounts of state governments. In 1976,
he was relieved of his responsibilities
with regard to the compilation and
maintenance of accounts of the
Central Government due to the
separation of accounts from audit, that
is, departmentalisation of accounts.
RE
18. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
Accountability checks on executive:
Accountability is enforced through the
following mechanisms:
Statement 1 is correct: Vote on Budget
by the Lok Sabha. After the presentation
of budget in Lok Sabha it must be passed
by the simple majority.
 Statement 2 is correct: During Voting on
demands for grants stage, the members
of Parliament can discuss the details of
the budget. They can also move motions
to reduce any demand for grant. Such
motions are called as ‘cut motion’, which
are of three kinds: Policy Cut, Economy
Cut and Token Cut.
 Statement 3 is correct: Close scrutiny by
Departmental Standing Committees: They
are responsible for the administration and
scrutiny of budgetary proposals and Bills
of Ministries/Departments.
 Statement 4 is correct: CAG audits
the accounts related to all expenditure
from the Consolidated Fund of India,
consolidated fund of each state and
consolidated fund of each union territory
having a Legislative Assembly.
Through Public Accounts Committee,
Estimates Committee, Committee on
Public Undertakings: These three Financial
Committees keep an un-remitting vigil over
Government spending and performance
and bring to light inefficiencies, waste
and indiscretion in the implementation
of programmes and policies approved by
Parliament.
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19. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
Amendment to the Constitution:
Those provisions of the Constitution which are
related to the federal structure of the polity
can be amended by a special majority of the
Parliament and also with the consent of half of
the state legislatures by a simple majority.
The following provisions can be amended
in this way:
 Statement 3 is correct: Election of the
President and its manner.
 Statement 2 is correct: Extent of the
executive power of the Union and the
states.
 Supreme Court and high courts.
 Distribution of legislative powers between
the Union and the states.
 Any of the lists in the Seventh Schedule.
 Statement 1 is correct: Power of
O
Parliament to amend the Constitution and
its procedure (Article 368 itself).
 Statement 4 is correct: Representation
of states in Parliament.
SC
20. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
Substitute Motion:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Motions moved
GS
in substitution of the original motion
for taking into consideration a policy
or situation or statement or any other
matter are called substitute motions. Such
motions, though drafted in such a way as
to be capable of expressing an opinion
by themselves are not, strictly speaking,
substantive motions in as much as they
depend upon the original motion.
 After the original motion being be taken
into consideration has been placed
before the House and the mover of the
motion has concluded the speech, the
House proceeds to discuss the matter.
No further question is put thereon on
conclusion of the debate. However, before
the discussion commences, a member
can move a substitute motion which,
while conforming to the subject matter of
the original motion, is so drawn up as to
express an opinion of the House.
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 The substitute motion, being in the nature
of an amendment to the original motion,
is also placed before the House and is
discussed along with the original motion.
 Statement 2 is correct: Amendments to
substitute motions are not permissible.
 At the end of the debate, the substitute
motion only is put to the vote of the
House.
21. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
Equality of Power and Status between Lok
Sabha & Rajya Sabha:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Money Bill can
RE
be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.
 Statement 4 is incorrect: A resolution
for the discontinuance of the national
emergency can be passed only by the
Lok Sabha and not by the Rajya Sabha.
In the following matters, the powers and

status of the Rajya Sabha are equal to that
of the Lok Sabha:
 Introduction and passage of ordinary
bills.
 Introduction and passage of
Constitutional amendment bills.
 Introduction and passage of financial
bills involving expenditure from the
Consolidated Fund of India.
 Election and impeachment of the
President.
 Election and removal of the Vice-
President. However, Rajya Sabha
alone can initiate the removal of the
vice-president. He is removed by a
resolution passed by the Rajya Sabha
by a special majority and agreed to by
the Lok Sabha by a simple majority.
 Making recommendation to the
President for the removal of Chief
Justice and judges of Supreme Court
and High Courts, Chief Election
Commissioner and Comptroller and
Auditor General.
 Statement 2 is correct: Approval of
ordinances issued by the President.
 Statement 3 is correct: Approval of
proclamation of all three types of
emergencies by the President.
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 Selection of ministers including the
Prime Minister. Under the Constitution,
the ministers including the Prime
Minister can be members of either
House. However, irrespective of their
membership, they are responsible only
to the Lok Sabha.
 Consideration of the reports of the
constitutional bodies like Finance
Commission, Union Public Service
Commission, comptroller and auditor
general, etc.
 Enlargement of the jurisdiction of the
Supreme Court and the Union Public
Service Commission.
22. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
Presidential Electoral College:
 Statement 4 is incorrect: The voting is
done by secret ballot.

O
Statement 1 is correct: The President is
elected by an Electoral College consisting
of the elected members of both Houses
SC
of Parliament i.e. Lok Sabha and Rajya
Sabha and of the State Legislative
Assemblies (Vidhan Sabhas).
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Thus, the
nominated members of both of Houses
of Parliament, the nominated members
of the state legislative assemblies, the
GS
members (both elected and nominated) of
the state legislative councils (in case of the
bicameral legislature) and the nominated
members of the Legislative Assemblies of
Delhi and Puducherry do not participate
in the election of the President.
 Where an assembly is dissolved, the
members cease to be qualified to vote
in Presidential election, even if fresh
elections to the dissolved assembly are
not held before the Presidential election.
 The Constitution provides that there shall
be uniformity in the scale of representation
of different states as well as parity between
the states as a whole and the Union at the
election of the President.
 Statement 3 is correct: The election is
held by means of single transferable vote
system of proportional representation.
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23. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
Council of Minister:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The ministers
of state can either be given independent
charge of ministries/departments or
can be attached to cabinet ministers.
In case of attachment, they may either
be given the charge of departments of
the ministries headed by the cabinet
ministers or allotted specific items of
work related to the ministries headed by
cabinet ministers. In both the cases, they
work under the supervision and guidance
as well as under the overall charge and
responsibility of the cabinet ministers.
RE
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Collective
Responsibility means that all the
ministers own joint responsibility to the
Lok Sabha for all their acts of omission
and commission. They work as a team
and swim or sink together. When the
Lok Sabha passes a no-confidence motion
against the council of ministers, all the
ministers have to resign including those
ministers who are from the Rajya Sabha.
Alternatively, the council of ministers can
advise the president to dissolve the Lok
Sabha on the ground that the House does
not represent the views of the electorate
faithfully and call for fresh elections. The
President may not oblige the council of
ministers that has lost the confidence of
the Lok Sabha.
 Statement 3 is correct: Council of
minister is headed by Prime Minister.
24. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
Qualifications for Election of President:
A person to be eligible for election as President
should fulfil the following qualifications:
 He should be a citizen of India.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: He should have
completed 35 years of age.
 Statement 1 is incorrect: He should be
qualified for election as a member of the
Lok Sabha.
 Statement 2 is correct: He should not
hold any office of profit under the Union
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government or any state government or
any local authority or any other public
authority. A sitting President or Vice-
President of the Union, the Governor of
any state and a minister of the Union
or any state is not deemed to hold any
office of profit and hence qualified as a
presidential candidate.
25. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
Parliament of India:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Lok Sabha
represents People of India as a whole.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Rajya Sabha
represents States and the Union
Territories.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: The President
of India is not a member of either House
of Parliament and does not sit in the
Parliament to attend its meetings,
but he is an integral part of the
O President about prescription of the form
Parliament.
 Under the Constitution, the Parliament
of India consists of three parts viz, the
SC
President, the Council of States and the
House of the People. In 1954, the Hindi
names ‘Rajya Sabha’ and ‘Lok Sabha’ were
adopted by the Council of States and the
House of People respectively.
 The Rajya Sabha is the Upper House
GS
(Second Chamber or House of Elders)
which represents the states and union
territories of the Indian Union and the Lok
Sabha is the Lower House (First Chamber
or Popular House) which represents the
people of India as a whole.
 Though the President of India is not a
member of either House of Parliament and
does not sit in the Parliament to attend
its meetings, he is an integral part of the
Parliament. This is because a bill passed
by both the Houses of Parliament cannot
become law without the President’s assent.
He also performs certain functions relating
to the proceedings of the Parliament, for
example, he summons and pro-rogues
both the Houses, dissolves the Lok
Sabha, addresses both the Houses, issues
ordinances when they are not in session,
and so on.
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26. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(CAG):
 Statement 2 is incorrect: No minister
can represent the CAG in Parliament
(both Houses) and no minister can be
called upon to take any responsibility for
any actions done by him.
 The Constitution of India (Article 148)
provides for an independent office of the
Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(CAG). He is the head of the Indian Audit
and Accounts Department.
 Statement 1 is correct: CAG is the
guardian of the public purse and controls
RE
the entire financial system of the
country at both the levels, the Centre
and the state. His duty is to uphold the
Constitution of India and laws of Parliament
in the field of financial administration.
 Statement 3 is correct: He advises the
in which the accounts of the Centre and
the states shall be kept (Article 150).
President prescribes format of accounts
to keep.
 Some of the duties and functions of the
CAG as laid down by the Parliament and
the Constitution are:
 He audits the accounts related to all
expenditure from the Consolidated
Fund of India, Consolidated Fund of
each state and Consolidated fund of
each union territory having a Legislative
Assembly.
 He audits all expenditure from the
Contingency Fund of India and the
Public Account of India as well as the
Contingency fund of each state and
the public account of each state.
 He audits all trading, manufacturing,
profit and loss accounts, balance
sheets and other subsidiary accounts
kept by any department of the Central
Government and state governments.
 He audits the receipts and expenditure
of the Centre and each state to satisfy
himself that the rules and procedures
in that behalf are designed to secure
an effective check on the assessment,
collection and proper allocation of
revenue.
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27. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
State legislative council:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Legislative
assembly of State is appointed for five
years and not the legislative council.
Like the Rajya Sabha, the legislative
council is a continuing chamber, that is,
it is a permanent body and is not subject
to dissolution.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: According
to Article 171 (1) the total number of
members in the Legislative Council of
a State shall not exceed one-third of
the total number of members in the
Legislative Assembly of that State and
not the fifty percent.
 The members of the legislative council
are indirectly elected. The maximum
strength of the council is fixed at one-
third of the total strength of the assembly
and the minimum strength is fixed at
O
40. It means that the size of the council
depends on the size of the assembly of
SC
the concerned state. This is done to ensure
the predominance of the directly elected
House (assembly) in the legislative affairs
of the state.
 Though the Constitution has fixed the
maximum and the minimum limits, the
actual strength of a Council is fixed by
GS
Parliament.
 Like the Rajya Sabha, the legislative
council is a continuing chamber, that is, it
is a permanent body and is not subject to
dissolution. But, one-third of its members
retire on the expiration of every second
year. So, a member continues as such for
six years.
 The vacant seats are filled up by fresh
elections and nominations (by governor)
at the beginning of every third year. The
retiring members are also eligible for re-
election and re-nomination any number
of times.
 The Constitution lays down the following
qualifications for a person to be chosen a
member of the state legislature:
 He must be a citizen of India.
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 He must make and subscribe to an
oath or affirmation before the person
authorised by the Election Commission
for this purpose. In his oath or
affirmation, he swears: To bear true
faith and allegiance to the Constitution
of India and to uphold the sovereignty
and integrity of India.
 Statement 3 is correct: He must be
not less than 30 years of age in the
case of the legislative council and not
less than 25 years of age in the case
of the legislative assembly.
28. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
RE
Governor’s office:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution
does not lay down any grounds upon
which a Governor may be removed by
the President.
 A governor holds office for a term of five
years from the date on which he enters
upon his office. This term of five years is
subject to the pleasure of the President.
 He can resign at any time by addressing
a resignation letter to the President. The
governor has no security of tenure and no
fixed term of office. He may be removed
by the President at any time.
The Constitution does not lay down any

grounds upon which a governor may be
removed by the President. The President
may transfer a Governor appointed to one
state to another state for the rest of the
term. Further, a Governor whose term has
expired may be reappointed in the same
state or any other state.
 Statement 2 is correct: A governor can
hold office beyond his term of five
years until his successor assumes charge.
The underlying idea is that there must be
governor in the state and there cannot be
an interregnum.
 Statement 3 is correct: A governor
possesses executive, legislative, financial
and judicial power more or less analogous
to the President of India. However, he has
no diplomatic, military or emergency
powers like the President.
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29. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
Prime Minister of India:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 74
(2) says that: There shall be a Council
of Ministers with the Prime Minister at
the head to aid and advise the President
who shall, in the exercise of his functions,
act in accordance with such advice.
(Provided that the President may require
the Council of Ministers to reconsider
such advice, either generally or otherwise,
and the President shall act in accordance
with the advice tendered after such
reconsideration).
 Statement 2 is incorrect: President
must act in accordance with the advice
tendered by the Prime Minister but not
always. Though the President has no
constitutional discretion, he has some
situational discretion. In other words, the
President can act on his discretion (that is,
without the advice of the ministers) under
the following situations:
O ease pendency.
 Appointment of Prime Minister when
no party has a clear majority in the Lok
Sabha or when the Prime Minister in
SC
office dies suddenly and there is no
obvious successor.
 Dismissal of the council of ministers
when it cannot prove the confidence
of the Lok Sabha.
 Dissolution of the Lok Sabha if the
GS
council of ministers has lost its
majority.
30. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
All India Judicial Services
 The proposal for an All-India Judicial
Service (AIJS) in lines of All-India Services
was proposed as early as 1950. The
idea was first mooted by the Law
Commission in the 1950s to have an
All-India Judicial Services.
 Statement 1 is correct: The Constitution
of India was amended in 1977 to provide
for an All-India Judicial Services under
Article 312 on recommendation of
Swaran Singh Committee.
 Article 312 in The Constitution Of India
1949
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 The All India Judicial Service referred
to in clause (1) shall not include any
post inferior to that of a district judge
as defined in article 236.
 The law providing for the creation of
the all India judicial service aforesaid
may contain such provisions for the
amendment of Chapter VI of Part VI
as may be necessary for giving effect
to the provisions of that law and no
such law shall be deemed to be an
amendment of this Constitution for
the purposes of article 368
 Advantages of AIJS:
 Statement 2 is correct: Creating
an All India Judicial Service would
RE
make judiciary more accountable,
professional and equitable.
 Given the strength of the judiciary in
subordinate courts is over a fifth short
of the total number of the sanctioned
posts, such a move is likely to help
 Only the judges of proven competence
will preside over the benches and it
will minimize the scope of aberraƟon,
arbitrariness and nepoƟsm in judiciary.
31. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
Upper House of Indian Parliament
 Statement 2 is correct: Upper house, i.e.
Rajya Sabha has 245 members. Of these,
229 members represent the states, 4
members represent the union territories
and 12 members are nominated by the
President.
 The Fourth Schedule of the Constitution
deals with the allocation of seats in the
Rajya Sabha to the states and union
territories.
 Statement 3 is correct: The representatives
of states in the Rajya Sabha are elected
by the elected members of state
legislative assemblies. The election is
held in accordance with the system of
proportional representation by means
of the single transferable vote. The seats
are allotted to the states in the Rajya
Sabha on the basis of population.
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 The representatives of each union territory
in the Rajya Sabha are indirectly elected by
members of an electoral college specially
constituted for the purpose.
 Statement 1 is correct: Out of the seven
union territories, only two (Delhi and
Puducherry) have representation in
Rajya Sabha. The populations of other
five union territories are too small to have
any representative in the Rajya Sabha.
 Nominated Members: The president
nominates 12 members to the Rajya
Sabha from people who have special
knowledge or practical experience in art,
literature, science and social service.
RE
32. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
Functioning of the Indian Parliament:
 Statement 1 and 2 are incorrect:
The Constitution has declared Hindi
and English to be the languages for
However, the presiding officer can
permit a member to address the House
O
transacting business in the Parliament.
in his mother-tongue.
SC
 In both the Houses, arrangements are
made for simultaneous translation.
Though English was to be discontinued
as a floor language after the expiration
of fifteen years from the commencement
of the Constitution (that is, in 1965), the
GS
Official Languages Act (1963) allowed
English to be continued along with
Hindi.
 Statement 3 is correct: In addition to
the members of a House, every minister
and the attorney general of India have
the right to speak and take part in the
proceedings of either House, any joint
sitting of both the Houses and any
34. Correct Option: (c)
committee of Parliament of which he
is a member, without being entitled to
vote.
33. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
Attorney General of India:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The Attorney
General (AG) is appointed by the
President. He must be a person who is
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qualified to be appointed a judge of the
Supreme Court. In other words, he must
be a citizen of India and he must have
been a judge of some high court for
five years or an advocate of some high
court for ten years or an eminent jurist,
in the opinion of the President.
 The term of office of the AG is not fixed
by the Constitution. The Constitution
does not contain the procedure and
grounds for his removal. He holds office
during the pleasure of the president. This
means that he may be removed by the
president at any time. He may also quit
his office by submitting his resignation
to the president. Conventionally, he
resigns when the government (council of
ministers) resigns or is replaced, as he is
appointed on its advice.
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Attorney general
is not a member of Parliament. He
resigns when the government (council
of ministers) resigns or is replaced, as
he is appointed on its advice.
 As the chief law officer of the
Government of India, the duties of the
AG include the following:
 To give advice to the Government of
India upon such legal matters, which
are referred to him by the president.
 To perform such other duties of a legal
character that are assigned to him by
the president.
 To discharge the functions conferred
on him by the Constitution or any
other law.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: In accordance
with Article 76, he must perform duties
assigned to him by the President.
Explanation:
Lok Sabha:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The maximum
strength of the Lok Sabha is fixed at
552. Out of this, 530 members are to
be the representatives of the states, 20
members are to be the representatives of
the union territories and 2 members are
to be nominated by the president from
the Anglo-Indian community. At present,
the Lok Sabha has 545 members.
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 The representatives of states in the Lok
Sabha are directly elected by the people
from the territorial constituencies in
the states. The election is based on the
principle of universal adult franchise.
36. Correct Option: (a)
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Every Indian
citizen who is above 18 years who has
been listed in electoral list and who is
not disqualified under the provisions of
the Constitution or any law is eligible
to vote at election.
 Statement 3 is correct: The voting age
was reduced from 21 to 18 years by the
61st Constitutional Amendment Act,
1988.
 The Parliament has enacted the Union
RE
Territories (Direct Election to the House
of the People) Act, 1965, by which the
members of Lok Sabha from the union
territories are also chosen by direct
election.
35. Correct Option: (b)
O with the conventions of the parliamentary
Explanation:
Leader of the House:
SC
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Under the
Rules of Lok Sabha, the ‘Leader of the
House’ means the Prime Minister, if
he is a member of the Lok Sabha, or a
minister who is a member of the Lok
Sabha and is nominated by the Prime
Minister to function as the Leader of
GS
the House.
 There is also a ‘Leader of the House’ in the
Rajya Sabha. He is a minister and a member
of the Rajya Sabha and is nominated by
the prime minister to function as such.
 The leader of the house in either House
is an important functionary and exercises
direct influence on the conduct of business.
He can also nominate a deputy leader of
the House. The same functionary in USA
is known as the ‘majority leader’.
Chairman of Rajya Sabha:
 Statement 2 is correct: The presiding
officer of the Rajya Sabha is known as
the Chairman. The Vice-President of
India is the ex-officio Chairman of the
Rajya Sabha.
 During any period when the Vice-
President acts as President or discharges
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the functions of the President, he does
not perform the duties of the office of the
Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
Explanation:
Council of Ministers:
 Option (a) is correct: The Prime Minister
is appointed by the President, while the
other ministers are appointed by the
President on the advice of the Prime
Minister. This means that the President
can appoint only those persons as
ministers who are recommended by the
Prime minister.
 A minister who is a member of one House
of Parliament has the right to speak and
to take part in the proceedings of the
other House also, but he can vote only in
the House of which he is a member.
Option (b) is incorrect: In accordance

system of government, the President
must appoint the leader of the majority
party in the Lok Sabha as the Prime
Minister.
 Article 75. (1) The Prime Minister shall
be appointed by the President and the
other Ministers shall be appointed by
the President on the advice of the Prime
Minister (Cabinet).
 Option (c) is incorrect: Prime minister
chooses his kitchen cabinet, and not
the President. The cabinet, a small body
consisting of the Prime Minister as its
head and some 15 to 20 most important
ministers, is the highest decision-making
body in the formal sense. However, a still
smaller body called the ‘Inner Cabinet’
or ‘Kitchen Cabinet’ has become the
real centre of power. This informal body
consists of the Prime Minister and two to
four influential colleagues in whom he has
faith and with whom he can discuss every
problem. It advises the prime minister
on important political and administrative
issues and assists him in making crucial
decisions. It is composed of not only
cabinet ministers but also outsiders like
friends and family members of the Prime
Minister.
 Option (d) is incorrect: Prime minister
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can choose any body as minister but
in 6 months he/she must become
member of either house of Parliament.
The members of Parliament, either Lok
Sabha or Rajya Sabha, are appointed as
ministers. A person who is not a member
of either House of Parliament can also
be appointed as a minister. But, within
six months, he must become a member
(either by election or by nomination) of
either House of Parliament, otherwise, he
ceases to be a minister.
37. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
Parliament Sessions:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Adjournment:
A session of Parliament consists of many
meetings. Each meeting of a day consists
of two sittings, that is, a morning sitting
from 11 am to 1 pm and post-lunch sitting
from 2 pm to 6 pm. A sitting of Parliament
O qualifications:
can be terminated by adjournment or
adjournment sine die or prorogation or
dissolution (in the case of the Lok Sabha).
An adjournment suspends the work in a
SC
sitting for a specified time, which may
be hours, days or weeks.
 Adjournment Sine Die: It means
terminating a sitting of Parliament
for indefinite period. In other words,
when the House is adjourned without
naming a day for reassembly, it is called
GS
adjournment sine die. The power of
adjournment as well as adjournment sine
die lies with the presiding officer of the
House. He can also call a sitting of the
House before the date or time to which
it has been adjourned or at any time after
the House has been adjourned sine die.
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Prorogation:
The presiding officer (Speaker or
Chairman) declares the House adjourned
sine die, when the business of a session
is completed. Within the next few days,
the President issues a notification for
prorogation of the session. However, the
President can also prorogue the House
while in session.
 Statement 3 is correct: Dissolution:
Rajya Sabha, being a permanent House,
is not subject to dissolution. Only the Lok
Sabha is subject to dissolution. Unlike a
prorogation, dissolution ends the very
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life of the existing House, and a new
House is constituted after general
elections are held.
38. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
President Election:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: All doubts and
disputes in connection with election
of the President are inquired into and
decided by the Supreme Court whose
decision is final. The election of a person
as President cannot be challenged on
the ground that the Electoral College
was incomplete (i.e. existence of any
vacancy among the members of Electoral
RE
College).
 Qualifications for Election as President:
A person to be eligible for election as
President should fulfil the following
 Statement 3 is incorrect: He should be
a citizen of India. No such amendment
has taken place in 2016.
 He should have completed 35 years
of age.
 He should be qualified for election
as a member of the Lok Sabha.
 He should not hold any office of profit
under the Union government or any
state government or any local authority
or any other public authority.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Term of
President’s Office: The President holds
office for a term of five years from the
date on which he enters upon his office.
However, he can resign from his office at
any time by addressing the resignation
letter to the Vice-President. Further, he
can also be removed from the office
before completion of his term by the
process of impeachment. However he
can be reappointed any number of
times.
 The President can hold office beyond
his term of five years until his successor
assumes charge. He is also eligible for re-
election to that office. He may be elected
for any number of terms. However, in USA,
a person cannot be elected to the office
of the President more than twice.
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39. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
Bills in Parliament:
Ordinary Bills:
 Ordinary bills are concerned with any
matter other than Financial Bills, money
Bills and Constitutional Amendment
Bills.
 Such Bills can be introduced in either
House of Indian Parliament (Lok
Sabha or Rajya Sabha) without the
recommendations of President of India.
These bills are passed by Simple Majority
in both Houses.
 Statement 1 is correct: If Ordinary Bill is
defeated in the Lok Sabha; it may lead to
resignation of government if introduced
by a Minister.
Money Bills:
These are defined in Article 110. These

O
Bills deal with the taxes, borrowings,
consolidated and contingency funds,
audit and accounting, etc.
SC
 Article 109 of Indian Constitution gives
special procedure regarding Money Bills.
 A money Bill can originate only in Lok
Sabha after the recommendations of the
President. Through the Bill is sent to Rajya
Sabha also but even Rajya Sabha rejects/
returns the Bill (within days necessarily),
GS
the Bill is deemed to be passed.
 The Appropriation Bill and Annual
Financial Bill (Budget) are Money Bills.
 Money bill can only be introduced in Lok
Sabha by Minister. Rajya Sabha has limited
powers with respect to the Money Bills. It
cannot reject or amend the bill, it can only
recommend the amendments. A money
bill must be returned to the Lok Sabha
within 14 days, or the bill is deemed to
have passed in both houses in the form
it was originally passed by the Lok Sabha.
Rajya Sabha can only suggest changes
without right to vote.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: If Money Bill
is defeated in Lok Sabha, Government
must resign with immediate effect.
40. Correct Option: (a)
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Explanation:
Territorial Extent of Central and State
Legislation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Parliament
can made law for whole or any part of
country not economic territory.
 The Constitution defines the territorial
limits of the legislative powers vested in
the Centre and the states in the following
way:
 The Parliament can make laws for the
whole or any part of the territory of
India. The territory of India includes the
states, the union territories, and any
other area for the time being included
in the territory of India.
RE
 A state legislature can make laws for
the whole or any part of the state.
The laws made by a state legislature
are not applicable outside the state,
except when there is a sufficient nexus
between the state and the object.
 The Parliament alone can make ‘extra-
territorial legislation’. Thus, the laws of
the Parliament are also applicable to
the Indian citizens and their property
in any part of the world.
Distribution of Legislative Subjects:
 The Constitution provides for a three-
fold distribution of legislative subjects
between the Centre and the states, viz.,
List-I (the Union List), List-II (the State List)
and List-III (the Concurrent List) in the
Seventh Schedule.
 The Parliament has exclusive powers
to make laws with respect to any of the
matters enumerated in the Union List.
 The state legislature has “in normal
circumstances” exclusive powers to make
laws with respect to any of the matters
enumerated in the State List.
 Statement 1 is correct: Both, the
Parliament and state legislature can
make laws with respect to any of the
matters enumerated in the Concurrent
List.
 The power to make laws with respect to
residuary subjects (i.e., the matters which
are not enumerated in any of the three
lists) is vested in the Parliament. This
residuary power of legislation includes
the power to levy residuary taxes.
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41. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
Impeachment of President:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 61 (1)
When a President is to be impeached for
violation of the Constitution, the charge
shall be preferred by either House of
Parliament. Nowhere in the constitution,
had the violation of constitution
defined.
 Statement 1 is correct: The President
can be removed from office by a process
of impeachment for ‘violation of the
Constitution’. However, the Constitution
does not define the meaning of the phrase
‘violation of the Constitution’.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: The
impeachment charges can be initiated
by either House of Parliament. These
charges should be signed by one-fourth
members of the House (that framed the
charges), and a 14 days’ notice should be

given to the President.
After the impeachment resolution is
O writs against a person residing or against
passed by a majority of two-thirds of
SC
the total membership of that House, it
is sent to the other House, which should
investigate the charges.
 The President has the right to appear and
to be represented at such investigation. If
the other House also sustains the charges
and passes the impeachment resolution
GS
by a majority of two-thirds of the total
membership, then the President stands
removed from his office from the date on
which the resolution is so passed.
 Thus, an impeachment is a quasi-judicial
procedure in the Parliament. In this
context, two things should be noted:
 The nominated members of either
House of Parliament can participate
in the impeachment of the President
though they do not participate in his
election;
 The elected members of the legislative
assemblies of states and the Union
Territories of Delhi and Puducherry do
not participate in the impeachment of
the President though they participate
in his election.
 No President has so far been impeached.
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42. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
Writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and
High Court:
The writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
differs from that of a high court in three
respects:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The Supreme
Court can issue writs only for the
enforcement of fundamental rights
whereas a high court can issue writs
not only for the enforcement of
Fundamental Rights but also for any
other purpose. The expression ‘for any
other purpose’ refers to the enforcement
of an ordinary legal right. Thus, the writ
RE
jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, in this
respect, is narrower than that of high
court.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The Supreme
Court can issue writs against a person or
government throughout the territory
of India whereas a high court can issue
a government or authority located
within its territorial jurisdiction only
or outside its territorial jurisdiction
only if the cause of action arises within
its territorial jurisdiction. Thus, the
territorial jurisdiction of the Supreme
Court for the purpose of issuing writs is
wider than that of a high court.
 Statement 3 is correct: A remedy under
Article 32 is in itself a Fundamental Right
and hence, the Supreme Court may not
refuse to exercise its writ jurisdiction. On
the other hand, a remedy under Article
226 is discretionary and hence, a high
court may refuse to exercise its writ
jurisdiction. Article 32 does not merely
confer power on the Supreme Court as
Article 226 does on a high court to issue
writs for the enforcement of fundamental
rights or other rights as part of its general
jurisdiction. The Supreme Court is thus
constituted as a defender and guarantor
of the fundamental rights.
43. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
Functions of the Prime Minister:
 Option (a) is incorrect: Article 75(6): The
salaries and allowances of Ministers
shall be such as Parliament may from
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time to time by law determine and,
until Parliament so determines, shall be as
specified in the Second Schedule.
 Option (c) is incorrect: The Speaker is
elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst
its members; President has no role to
play.
 Option (d) is incorrect: Funds are
granted by Parliament to each ministry,
Prime Minster do not play major role in
this context.
 The Prime Minister enjoys the following
powers as head of the Union Council of
Ministers:
 He recommends persons who can
be appointed as ministers by the
President. The President can appoint
only those persons as ministers who
are recommended by the Prime
Minister.
 He allocates and reshuffles various
portfolios among the ministers.
 Option (b) is correct: He can ask
a minister to resign or advise the
O Parliament can make laws on any matter
President to dismiss him in case of
difference of opinion.
 He presides over the meeting of
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council of ministers and influences its
decisions.
 He guides, directs, controls, and
coordinates the activities of all the
ministers.
 He can bring about the collapse of the council
GS
of ministers by resign in from office.
44. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
Legislative powers of the Parliament:
 The distribution of legislative powers
between the Centre and the states is
to be maintained in normal times. But,
in abnormal times, the distribution is
either modified or suspended. In other
words, the Constitution empowers the
Parliament to make laws on any matter
enumerated in the State List Without
consent of any State under the following
five extraordinary circumstances:
 When Rajya Sabha Passes a Resolution:
If the Rajya Sabha declares that it is
necessary in the national interest that
Parliament should make laws on a matter
in the State List, then the Parliament
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becomes competent to make laws on that
matter.
 During a National Emergency: The
Parliament acquires the power to legislate
with respect to matters in the State
List, while a proclamation of national
emergency is in operation.
 When States Make a Request: When the
legislatures of two or more states pass
resolutions requesting the Parliament to
enact laws on a matter in the State List,
then the Parliament can make laws for
regulating that matter. A law so enacted
applies only to those states which have
passed the resolutions. However, any
other state may adopt it afterwards by
passing a resolution to that effect in its
RE
legislature. Such a law can be amended
or repealed only by the Parliament and
not by the legislatures of the concerned
states.
 Option (b) is correct: To Implement
International Agreements: The
in the State List for implementing the
international treaties, agreements or
conventions. This provision enables the
Central government to fulfil its international
obligations and commitments.
 During President’s Rule: When the
President’s rule is imposed in a state, the
Parliament becomes empowered to make
laws with respect to any matter in the
State List in relation to that state.
45. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
Chief Minister in State:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: In the scheme
of Parliamentary system of government
provided by the Constitution, the governor
is the nominal executive authority (de
jure executive) and the Chief Minister is
the real executive authority (de facto
executive). In other words, the governor
is the head of the state while the Chief
Minister is the head of the government.
Thus, the position of the Chief Minister at
the state level is analogous to the position
of prime minister at the Centre.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: Before the Chief
Minister enters his office, the Governor
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administers to him the oaths of office
and secrecy. In his oath of secrecy, the
Chief Minister swears that he will not
directly or indirectly communicate or
reveal to any person(s) any matter that
is brought under his consideration or
becomes known to him as a state minister
except as may be required for the due
discharge of his duties as such minister.
 Statement 2 is correct: The Constitution
does not contain any specific procedure
for the selection and appointment of
the Chief Minister. Article 164 only says
that the Chief Minister shall be appointed
by the governor.
However, this does not imply that the
RE

governor is free to appoint any one as
the Chief Minister. In accordance with the
convections of the Parliamentary system of
government, the governor has to appoint
the leader of the majority party in the state
legislative assembly as the Chief Minister.
in the assembly, then the governor may
O
But, when no party has a clear majority
exercise his personal discretion in the
47. Correct Option: (c)
selection and appointment of the Chief
SC
Minister.
 In such a situation, the governor usually
appoints the leader of the largest party
or coalition in the assembly as the Chief
Minister and ask him to seek a vote of
confidence in the House within a month.
GS
46. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
President of India:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Union executive
consist of President, Vice-president,
Prime minister and council of Ministers
and Attorney General of India.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Qualification
for election of President is given in
Article 58 and Qualification for election
of vice-President is given in Article 66.
 Articles 52 to 78 in Part V of the Constitution
deal with the Union executive.
 The President is the head of the Indian
State. He is the first citizen of India and
acts as the symbol of unity, integrity and
solidarity of the nation.
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 The President is elected not directly by
the people but by members of electoral
college consisting of:
 The elected members of both the
Houses of Parliament.
 The elected members of the legislative
assemblies of the states.
 Statement 3 is correct: The elected
members of the legislative assemblies
of the Union Territories of Delhi and
Puducherry.
 Thus, the nominated members of both
of Houses of Parliament, the nominated
members of the state legislative
assemblies, the members (both elected
and nominated) of the state legislative
councils (in case of the bicameral
legislature) and the nominated members
of the Legislative Assemblies of Delhi
and Puducherry do not participate in the
election of the President.
Explanation:
Appointment of District Judges
 Option ( c) is correct: The appointment,
posting and promotion of district judges
in a state are made by the governor of
the state in consultation with the Cheif
Justice of the high court.
 A person to be appointed as district
judge should have the following
qualifications:
 He should not already be in the
service of the Central or the state
government.
 He should have been an advocate or
a pleader for seven years at bar.
 He should be recommended by
the Chief Justice of high court for
appointment.
 District judges are also appointed by
way of elevation of judges from courts
subordinate to district courts provided
they fulfill the minimum years of
service.
 The district judge is the highest judicial
authority in the district. He possesses
original and appellate jurisdiction in
both civil as well as criminal matters.
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48. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
Motion
 MPs may raise issues of public
importance in Parliament, and examine
the government’s response to problems
being faced by citizens through:
 a debate, which entails a reply by the
concerned minister, or
 a motion which entails a vote.
 Using these methods, MPs may discuss
important matters, policies, and topical
issues.
 Statement 1 is correct: Discussing
important issues (such as inflation,
drought, and corruption),
 Statement 2 is correct: Adjournment
of business in a House in order to
express displeasure over a government
policy,
O
 Statement 3 is correct: Expressing no
confidence in the government leading
to its resignation.
SC
49. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
Attorney General of India:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The Attorney
General is not a full-time counsel for
the Government. He does not fall in the
GS
category of government servants.
 As the chief law officer of the
Government of India, the duties of the
AG include the following:
 To give advice to the Government of
India upon such legal matters, which
are referred to him by the president.
 To perform such other duties of a legal
character that are assigned to him by
the president.
 To discharge the functions conferred
on him by the Constitution or any
other law.
 The President has assigned the following
duties to the Attorney General of
India:
 Statement 3 is correct: To appear on
behalf of the Government of India in
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all cases in the Supreme Court in which
the Government of India is concerned.
 To represent the Government of India
in any reference made by the president
to the Supreme Court under Article
143 of the Constitution.
 To appear (when required by the
Government of India) in any high court
in any case in which the Government
of India is concerned.
 Following limitations are placed on the
Attorney General in order to avoid any
complication and conflict of duty:
 He should not advise or hold a brief
against the Government of India.
RE
 He should not advise or hold a brief
in cases in which he is called upon to
advise or appear for the Government
of India.
 Statement 2 is correct: He should not
defend accused persons in criminal
prosecutions without the permission
of the Government of India.
 He should not accept appointment
as a director in any company or
corporation without the permission
of the Government of India. However,
the Attorney General is not a full-time
counsel for the Government. He does
not fall in the category of government
servants. Further, he is not debarred
from private legal practice.
50. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
Lame-duck session:
 Statement 1 is correct: It is conducted
after election of new members but
before they are installed.
 Statement 2 is correct: It refers to the
last session of the existing Lok Sabha,
after a new Lok Sabha has been elected.
Those members of the existing Lok Sabha
who could not get re-elected to the new
Lok Sabha are called lame-ducks.
 Lame-duck session do not usually occur
in countries under a parliamentary form
of government, whether the Westminster
system or the other modules.
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 Statement 3 is incorrect: Lame-duck
session does not require minimum
number of members to transact the
business of the House.
51. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
Pardoning Power of the President:
 The President shall have the power to
grant pardons, reprieves, respites or
remission of punishment or to suspend
remit or commute the sentence of any
persons convicted of any offence.
 In all cases where the punishment or
sentence is by a court martial.
 In all cases where the punishment or
sentence is for an offence against any
law relating to a matter to which the
executive power of the Union extends.
 In all cases where the sentence is a
sentence of death. O covenant, engagement, or other similar
 The pardoning power of the President
includes the following:
 Statement 1 is correct: Pardon: It
SC
removes both the sentence and the
conviction and completely absolves
the convict from all sentences,
punishments and disqualifications.
 Statement 2 is incorrect:
Commutation: It denotes the
substitution of one form of punishment
GS
with a lighter form and also applicable
in case of court martial.
 Remission: It implies reducing the
period of sentence without changing
its character. For example, a sentence
of rigorous imprisonment for two
years may be remitted to rigorous
imprisonment for one year.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: Respite: It
denotes awarding a lesser sentence in
place of one originally awarded due to
some special fact, such as the physical
disability of a convict or the pregnancy
of a woman offender.
 Statement 4 is incorrect: Reprieve:
It implies a stay of the execution of
a sentence (especially that of death)
for a temporary period. Its purpose is
to enable the convict to have time to
seek pardon or commutation from the
President.
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52. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
Original jurisdiction of the Supreme
Court:
 With regard to the exclusive original
jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, it is
mandatory
 the dispute must involve a question
(whether of law or fact) on which the
existence or extent of a legal right
depends. Thus, the questions of
political nature are excluded from it.
 any suit brought before the Supreme
Court by a private citizen against the
Centre or a state cannot be entertained
RE
under this.
 Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
does not extend to the following:
 A dispute arising out of any pre-
Constitution treaty, agreement,
instrument.
 A dispute arising out of any treaty,
agreement, etc., which specifically
provides that the said jurisdiction does
not extent to such a dispute.
 Statement 2 is correct: Inter-state
water disputes.
 Matters referred to the Finance
Commission.
 Statement 4 is correct: Adjustment
of certain expenses and pensions
between the Centre and the states.
 Statement 5 is correct: Ordinary
dispute of Commercial nature between
the Centre and the states.
 Recovery of damages by a state against
the Centre.
 Statement 1 is incorrect: In federal
disputes, the Supreme Court has exclusive
original jurisdiction. Exclusive means, no
other court can decide such disputes and
original means, the power to hear such
disputes in the first instance, not by way
of appeal.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: The Supreme
Court is empowered to issue writs
including habeas corpus, mandamus,
prohibition, quo-Warranto and certiorari
for the enforcement of the fundamental
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rights of an aggrieved citizen. In this
regard, the Supreme Court has original
jurisdiction in the sense that an aggrieved
citizen can directly go to the Supreme
Court, not necessarily by way of appeal.
However, the writ jurisdiction of the
Supreme Court is not exclusive. The high
courts are also empowered to issue writs
for the enforcement of the Fundamental
Rights.
53. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
The Advocate General:
 Statement 1 is correct: The advocate
general is appointed by the governor.
He must be a person who is qualified to
be appointed a judge of a high court.
The term of office of the advocate general
is not fixed by the Constitution. Further,
the Constitution does not contain the
procedure and grounds for his removal.
O
He holds office during the pleasure of
the governor. This means that he may be
removed by the governor at any time. He
may also quit his office by submitting
SC
his resignation to the governor.
Conventionally, he resigns when the
government (council of ministers)
resigns or is replaced, as he is appointed
on its advice.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Although
the Members of the State Election
GS
Commission are appointed by the
governor, they can be removed only
by the President (and not by the
governor).
 Statement 3 is incorrect: Although the
chairman and members of a SPSC are
appointed by the governor, they can be
removed only by the President (and not
by the governor).
 Statement 4 is incorrect: Although
the chairperson and members of a
State Human Rights Commission are
appointed by the governor, they can
be removed only by the President (and
not by the governor).The President can
remove them on the same grounds and
in the same manner as he can remove the
chairperson or a member of the National
Human Rights Commission.
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54. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
Budget:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Parliament can
reduce or abolish tax but cannot increase
it.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The Department
of economic affairs is responsible for the
preparation of the budget.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: Passing of a
Finance bill completes the process of
enactment of the budget. The Finance
Bill is introduced to give effect to the
financial proposals of the Government of
RE
India for the following year. It is subjected
to all the conditions applicable to a
Money Bill. Unlike the Appropriation Bill,
the amendments (seeking to reject or
reduce a tax) can be moved in the case of
finance bill. According to the Provisional
Collection of Taxes Act of 1931, the
Finance Bill must be enacted (i.e., passed
by the Parliament and assented to by the
president) within 75 days. The Finance
Act legalizes the income side of the
budget and completes the process of the
enactment of the budget.
 Statement 4 is incorrect: The
Constitution refers to the budget as the
‘annual financial statement’. In other
words, the term ‘budget’ has nowhere
been used in the Constitution. It is the
popular name for the ‘annual financial
statement’ that has been dealt with in
Article 112 of the Constitution.
55. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
A person cannot be a member of both
houses of parliament at the same time.
 Statement 1 is correct: If sitting member
of one house is elected to the other
house, his seat in the first house becomes
vacant.
 If a person is elected to two seats in
a house, he should excuse his option
for one, otherwise both seats becomes
vacant.
 Statement 2 is correct: If person is
elected to both the houses of parliament
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and in default of intimation his seat in
Rajya Sabha becomes vacant.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: A person cannot
be a member of both the Parliament and
the state legislature at the same time. If a
person is so elected, his seat in Parliament
becomes vacant if he does not resign his
seat in the state legislature within 14
days.
 Statement 4 is incorrect: A person
cannot be a member of both Houses
of the Legislature of a State. If they are
elected to both the Houses, they should
immediately consult the Secretaries of
the Houses in order to ascertain how they
should vacate their seat in one House or
the other. They will have to resign their
seat in one of the Houses according to
the provisions made in this behalf under
Article 190(1) of the Constitution.
56. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
Articles of the Indian Constitution:

O
Statement 1 is correct: Article 74: There
shall be a council of ministers with the
Prime Minister at the head to aid and
SC
advise the President who shall, in the
exercise of his functions, act in accordance
with such advice. However, the President
may require the council of ministers to
reconsider such advice and the President
shall act in accordance with the advice
tendered after such reconsideration.
GS
 (Statement 2 is correct): Article 75:
 The Prime Minister shall be appointed
by the President and the other ministers
shall be appointed by the president on
the advice of the Prime Minister;
 The ministers shall hold office during
the pleasure of the president; and
 The council of ministers shall be
collectively responsible to the House
of the People.
 Statement 3 is correct: Article 77:
Conduct of Business of the Government
of India.
 All executive action of the Government
of India shall be expressed to be taken
in the name of the President.
 Orders and other instruments made
and executed in the name of the
President shall be authenticated in such
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manner as may be specified in rules
to be made by the President. Further,
the validity of an order or instrument
which is so authenticated shall not be
called in question on the ground that
it is not an order or instrument made
or executed by the President.
 The President shall make rules for the
more convenient transaction of the
business of the Government of India,
and for the allocation among Ministers
of the said business.
 Statement 4 is correct: Article 78: It
shall be the duty of the Prime Minister:
 To communicate to the President all
decisions of the council of ministers
RE
relating to the administration of the
affairs of the Union and proposals for
legislation;
 To furnish such information relating to
the administration of the affairs of the
Union and proposals for legislation as
the President may call for; and
 If the President so requires, to submit
for the consideration of the council
of ministers any matter on which a
decision has been taken by a minister
but which has not been considered by
the council.
57. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
Zero hour and calling attention motion:
 Statement 1 is correct: Zero hour is an
informal device available to Members of
Parliament to raise matter without any
prior notice whereas calling attention
motion used to call the attention of
minister to a matter of urgent public
importance.
 Zero hour:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Unlike the
question hour, the zero hour is not
mentioned in the Rules of Procedure.
Thus it is an informal device available
to the members of the Parliament to
raise matters without any prior notice.
Calling attention motion is mentioned
in the rule of procedure, not Zero
Hour.
 The zero hour starts immediately
after the question hour and lasts
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until the agenda for the day (, i.e.,
regular business of the House) is
taken up. In other words, the time
gap between the question hour and
the agenda is known as zero hour.
It is an Indian innovation in the field
of parliamentary procedures and has
been existence since 1962.
 Calling Attention Motion:
 It is introduced in the Parliament
by a member to call the attention
of a minister to a matter of urgent
public importance, and to seek an
authoritative statement from him
on that matter.
 Statement 3 is correct: Like the zero
hour, it is also an Indian innovation in
the parliamentary procedure and has
been in existence since 1954. However,
unlike the zero hour, it is mentioned
in the Rules of Procedure.
58. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
O 
The laws of Parliament are not applicable
in the following areas:
SC
 Statement 1 is correct: The President
can make regulations for the peace,
progress and good government of the
four Union Territories-the Andaman
and Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Dadra
and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu. A
regulation so made has the same force and
effect as an act of Parliament. It may also
GS
repeal or amend any act of Parliament
in relation to these union territories.
 Statement 2 is correct: The governor
is empowered to direct that an act
of Parliament does not apply to a
scheduled area in the state or apply
with specified modifications and
exceptions.
 The Governor of Assam may likewise direct
that an act of Parliament does not apply to
a tribal area (autonomous district) in the
state or apply with specified modifications
and exceptions. The President enjoys the
same power with respect to tribal areas
(autonomous districts) in Meghalaya,
Tripura and Mizoram.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: The Parliament
alone can make ‘extra-territorial
legislation’. Thus, the laws of the
Parliament are also applicable to the
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Indian citizens and their property in any
part of the world.
59. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
The duties and functions of the CAG:
 He audits the accounts related to all
expenditure from the Consolidated Fund
of India, consolidated fund of each state
and consolidated fund of each union
territory having a Legislative Assembly.
 He audits all expenditure from the
Contingency Fund of India and the Public
Account of India as well as the contingency
fund of each state and the public account
of each state.
RE
 Statement 4 is correct: He audits
all trading, manufacturing, profit and
loss accounts, balance sheets and
other subsidiary accounts kept by any
department of the Central Government
and state governments.
He audits the receipts and expenditure of
the Centre and each state to satisfy himself
that the rules and procedures in that
behalf are designed to secure an effective
check on the assessment, collection and
proper allocation of revenue.
 Statement 1 is correct: He audits
the receipts and expenditure of the
following:
 All bodies and authorities substantially
financed from the Central or state
revenues.
 Government companies.
 Other corporations and bodies, when
so required by related laws.
 He audits all transactions of the Central
and state governments related to debt,
sinking funds, deposits, advances,
suspense accounts and remittance
business. He also audits receipts, stock
accounts and others, with approval of
the President, or when required by the
President.
 He audits the accounts of any other
authority when requested by the President
or Governor. For example, the audit of
local bodies.
 He advises the President with regard to
prescription of the form in which the
accounts of the Centre and the states
shall be kept (Article 150).
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 He submits his audit reports relating to
the accounts of the Centre to President,
who shall, in turn, place them before both
the Houses of Parliament (Article 151).
 He submits his audit reports relating to
the accounts of a state to governor, who
shall, in turn, place them before the state
legislature (Article 151).
 Statement 3 is correct: He ascertains
and certifies the net proceeds of any tax
or duty (Article 279). His certificate is final.
The ‘net proceeds’ means the proceeds
of a tax or a duty minus the cost of
collection.
 He acts as a guide, friend and philosopher
of the Public Accounts Committee of the
Parliament.
 He compiles and maintains the accounts
of state governments. In 1976, he was
relieved of his responsibilities with regard
to the compilation and maintenance of
accounts of the Central Government due O
to the separation of accounts from audit,
that is, departmentalization of accounts.
 Statement 2 is correct: He audit the
accounts of Panchayati Raj Institutions
SC
and Urban Local Bodies but with the
permission of the State government.
60. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
Enlargement of the jurisdiction of the
GS
Supreme Court:
 Statement 1 is correct: The Supreme
Court shall have such further jurisdiction
and powers with respect to any of the
matters in the Union List as Parliament
may by law confer.
Statement 4 is correct: The Supreme

Court shall have such further jurisdiction,
and powers with respect to any matter
as the Government of India and the
Government of any State may by
special agreement confer, if Parliament
by law provides for the exercise of such
jurisdiction and powers by the Supreme
Court.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: State legislature
does not have any powers in the
Enlargement of the jurisdiction of the
Supreme Court.
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 Statement 3 is incorrect: President does
not have any powers in the Enlargement
of the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
61. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
Chairman of the Rajya Sabha:
 Statement 1 is correct: As Chairman of
Rajya Sabha, the Vice President is the
final authority on the interpretation of the
Constitution and the Rules of Procedure
for all house-related matters.
 Statement 2 is correct: His rulings
constitute binding precedent. He also
determines whether a Rajya Sabha member
stands to be disqualified on grounds of
RE
defection. Such powers make him an
important stakeholder in the functioning
of our parliamentary democracy.
 The Vice President is also vested with
powers to improve the functioning of the
Upper House.
 There have been several instances where
the current Vice President has used his
powers to address issues ranging from
improving the productivity of question
hour, reducing prolonged disruptions,
maintaining decorum in the House, to
facilitating discussion on issues of national
importance.
 Statement 3 is correct: The Chairman
is the guardian of these privileges and
can also issue warrants to execute the
orders of the House, where necessary.
The Chairman’s consent is required to
raise a question of breach of privilege.
He also has the discretion whether to
refer it to the Privileges Committee,
and whether to accept the committee’s
recommendations.
62. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
Functions of the Union Executives:
 Formulation of policy as well as carrying it
into execution.
 Statement 1 is correct: The initiation of
legislation.
 The maintenance of order.
 Statement 2 is correct: The promotion
and implementation of welfare issues
of economy and social issues.
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 The direction of foreign policy.
 Carrying or supervising of the general
administration of the state.
 It includes political and diplomatic
activities, the recognition of a “Ruler” for
the purposes of article 366(22).
 Statement 3 is incorrect: The state
legislature has “in normal circumstances”
exclusive powers to make laws with
respect to any of the matters enumerated
in the State List.
63. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
Money Bill:
 A Bill is said to be a Money Bill if it only
contains provisions related to taxation,
borrowing of money by the government,
expenditure from or receipt to the
Consolidated Fund of India. Bills that only
contain provisions that are incidental to
O
these matters would also be regarded as
Money Bills.
 A Money Bill may only be introduced
SC
in Lok Sabha, on the recommendation
of the President. It must be passed in
Lok Sabha by a simple majority of all
members present and voting. Following
this, it may be sent to the Rajya Sabha
for its recommendations, which Lok
Sabha may reject if it chooses to. If such
recommendations are not given within
GS
14 days, it will deemed to be passed by
Parliament.
 Statement 1 is correct: The Aadhaar
(Targeted Delivery of Financial and other
Subsidies, benefits and services) Act,
2016 is a money bill of the Parliament
of India. It aims to provide legal backing
to the Aadhaar unique identification
number project. It was passed on 11
March 2016 by the Lok Sabha.
Finance Bill:
 A Bill that contains some provisions
related to taxation and expenditure, and
additionally contains provisions related
to any other matter is called a Financial
Bill. Therefore, if a Bill merely involves
expenditure by the government, and
addresses other issues, it will be a financial
bill.
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 A Financial Bill may only be introduced in
Lok Sabha, on the recommendation of the
President. The Bill must be passed by both
Houses of Parliament, after the President
has recommended that it be taken up for
consideration.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Compensatory
Afforestation Fund Bill, 2015 - Financial
Bill.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: President’s
(Emoluments and) Pension Act - Financial
Bill.
 Statement 4 is incorrect: GST -
Constitutional Amendment Bill.
64. Correct Option: (c)
RE
Explanation:
Election of the President:
 Statement 1 is correct: The process
of election of the President of India
is original and no other Constitution
contains a similar procedure.
 The question was considerably debated
in the Constituent Assembly. It was
argued by many members that the
Electoral College consisting of the elected
members of Central Legislature as well as
those of the Legislative Assemblies of the
States was not sufficiently representative
of Peoples’ will.
 Some members, therefore, favoured
the system of direct election by the
people instead of an indirect round-
about method, because such a system
would be most democratic and it would
make the President a direct choice of the
nation. This was, however, not accepted.
The main reasons which influenced the
deliberations of the Constituent Assembly
for determining indirect Presidential
election are:
 In a country following the Cabinet
system of Government, the office of
titular Chief Executive is a technical
one, to the extent that its duties are
largely prescribed by other authorities
(usually by the Legislature), which
requires specific competence for
the performance of its duties from
the incumbent. Very few voters can
be competent to judge wisely of the
technical abilities of the candidates
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for any particular office of this type,
having specific, limited and defined
functions.
 If the direct election of the President
were adopted, the Presidential
candidate who has to carry on an
election campaign from one corner of
the country to another will certainly
be put up by some party or the other,
which may cause political excitement
and generate party feelings. Thus the
man elected to the Presidential office
through this means will never be able
to forget his party affiliations.
 As India is almost a sub-continent with
crores of enfranchised citizens, it would
be impossible to provide an electoral
RE
machinery for the purpose of smooth
66. Correct Option: (d)
and successful Presidential election.
 A directly elected Chief Executive may
not be content with his position of a
mere constitutional head and can claim
to derive his authority directly from the
O floor: Passing between the member
people. So, if he wanted to assume real
power, it would lead to a constitutional
deadlock and an inevitable clash with
the Cabinet or real executive. This
SC
would definitely produce a confusion
of responsibility.
 Statement 2 is correct: All doubts and
disputes in connection with election
of the President are inquired into and
decided by the Supreme Court whose
decision is final.
GS
 The election of a person as President
cannot be challenged on the ground
that the Electoral College was incomplete
(i.e., existence of any vacancy among the
members of electoral college).
 If the election of a person as President
is declared void by the Supreme Court,
acts done by him before the date of such
declaration of the Supreme Court are not
invalidated (i.e., they continue to remain
in force).
65. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
Supreme Court and High Court:
 Statement 4 is incorrect: Salaries and
allowances of the judges of the high court
are charged on the Consolidated Fund
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of state and pension is charged on the
Consolidated fund of India.
 Statement 1 is correct: Number of
judges in the Supreme Court can be
increased by the parliament whereas
number of judges in the High Court can
be increased by the President.
 Statement 2 is correct: Impeachment
process of judge of the Supreme Court
and High court is same.
 Statement 3 is correct Salaries, allowances,
pensions and leaves of the judges of
the Supreme Court and high court are
determined by the Parliament.
Explanation:
Parliamentary terms:
 Statement 2 is correct: Crossing the
addressing the House and the Chair which
is considered breach of Parliamentary
etiquette.
Statement 3 is correct: Subordinate

Legislation: Rules, regulations, orders,
schemes, bye-laws, etc. having the force
of law, framed by the Executive or other
subordinate authority in pursuance
of the power conferred on it by the
Constitution or delegated to it by an Act
of Parliament.
 Statement 1 is correct: Whips: The office
of ‘whip’ is mentioned neither in the
Constitution of India nor in the Rules
of the House nor in a Parliamentary
Statute. It is based on the conventions
of the parliamentary government. Every
political party, whether ruling or Opposition
has its own whip in the Parliament. He is
appointed by the political party to serve
as an assistant floor leader. He is charged
with the responsibility of ensuring the
attendance of his party members in large
numbers and securing their support in
favour of or against a particular issue. He
regulates and monitors their behaviour
in the Parliament. The members are
supposed to follow the directives given
by the whip. Otherwise, disciplinary action
can be taken.
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67. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
Prior recommendation of the President
is required in the following bills to be
introduced in the parliament:
 Statement 1 is correct: Bills related
to making changes in areas of existing
states.
 Statement 2 is correct: Bills related to
abolition of any tax in which states are
interested.
 Statement 3 is correct: A bill which would
involve expenditure from Consolidated
fund of India even though it may not be
a money bill.
 Statement 4 is correct: State bills
imposing restrictions upon the freedom
of trade.
68. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
O
Contingency fund of India:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: It aims to
facilitate meeting of urgent unforeseen
SC
expenditure by the government, pending
authorization from Parliament.
 The Constitution authorized the Parliament
to establish a ‘Contingency Fund of India’,
into which amounts determined by law
are paid from time to time. Accordingly,
the Parliament enacted the contingency
GS
fund of India Act in 1950.
 This fund is placed at the disposal of the
president, and he can make advances
out of it to meet unforeseen expenditure
pending its authorization by the
Parliament.
 Statement 2 is correct: Parliamentary
approval for such unforeseen expenditure
is obtained ex-post-facto and an
equivalent amount is drawn from
consolidated fund of India to recoup the
Contingency fund of India after such an
ex-post-facto approval.
 Statement 3 is correct: The fund is held
by the finance secretary on behalf of
the President.
 Statement 4 is correct: Like the public
account of India, it is also operated by
executive action.
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69. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
Parliamentary Proceedings:
 Statement 3 is incorrect: In the absence
of speaker and deputy speaker, deputy
chairman of Rajya Sabha presides over a
joint sitting of two Houses.
 Joint sitting is an extraordinary machinery
provided by the Constitution to resolve a
deadlock between the two Houses over
the passage of a bill.
 A deadlock is deemed to have taken place
under any one of the following three
situations after a bill has been passed by
one House and transmitted to the other
RE
House:
 If the bill is rejected by the other
House.
 If the Houses have finally disagreed as
to the amendments to be made in the
bill.
 If more than six months have elapsed
from the date of the receipt of the bill
by the other House without the bill
being passed by it.
 Statement 2 is correct: In the above three
situations, the President can summon
both the Houses to meet in a joint sitting
for the purpose of deliberating and voting
on the bill. It must be noted here that the
provision of joint sitting is applicable
to ordinary bills or financial bills only
and not to money bills or Constitutional
amendment bills.
 In the case of a money bill, the Lok
Sabha has overriding powers, while a
Constitutional amendment bill must be
passed by each House separately.
 Statement 1 is correct: Cut motion:
It is a power given to the members of
the Lok Sabha to oppose a demand
in the Financial Bill discussed by the
government. A motion may be moved to
reduce the amount of a demand in any of
the following ways:
 Policy Cut Motion: It represents the
disapproval of the policy underlying
the demand. It states that the amount
of the demand be reduced to Re 1.
The members can also advocate an
alternative policy.
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 Economy Cut Motion: It represents the
economy that can be affected in the
proposed expenditure. It states that
the amount of the demand be reduced
by a specified amount (which may be
either a lump sum reduction in the
demand or omission or reduction of
an item in the demand).
 Token Cut Motion: It ventilates a specific
grievance that is within the sphere of
responsibility of the Government of
India. It states that the amount of the
demand be reduced by Rs 100.
70. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
Executive powers and functions of the
President:
 Statement 3 is incorrect: He can appoint
an inter-state council to promote Centre–
state and inter- state cooperation which is
presided by Prime Minister.
O area and has powers with respect to
 Statement 4 is incorrect: To make
regulations for peace, progress and good
governance of the Daman and Diu, is a
legislative power of President.
SC
 The executive powers and functions of
the President are as follows:
 Statement 1 is correct: All executive
actions of the Government of India are
formally taken in his name.
 He can make rules specifying the
GS
manner in which the orders and other
instruments made and executed in his
name shall be authenticated.
 Statement 2 is correct: He can make
rules for more convenient transaction
of business of the Union government,
and for allocation of the said business
among the ministers.
 He appoints the prime minister and
the other ministers. They hold office
during his pleasure.
 He appoints the attorney general of
India and determines his remuneration.
The attorney general holds office
during the pleasure of the President.
 He appoints the comptroller and
auditor general of India, the chief
election commissioner and other
election commissioners, the chairman
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and members of the Union Public
Service Commission, the governors of
states, the chairman and members of
finance commission, and so on.
 He can seek any information relating
to the administration of affairs of the
Union, and proposals for legislation
from the prime minister.
 He can require the Prime Minister to
submit, for consideration of the council
of ministers, any matter on which a
decision has been taken by a minister
but, which has not been considered by
the council.
 He can appoint a commission to
investigate into the conditions of SCs,
RE
STs and other backward classes.
 He directly administers the union
territories through administrators
appointed by him.
 He can declare any area as scheduled
the administration of scheduled areas
and tribal areas.
71. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
Consultative Committees:
 Consultative committees are attached
to various ministries / departments of
the Central Government. They consist
of members of both the Houses of
Parliament. The Minister / Minister of
State in charge of the Ministry concerned
acts as the chairman of the consultative
committee of that ministry.
 Statement 1 is correct: These
committees provide a forum for informal
discussions between the ministers and
the members of Parliament on policies
and programmes of the government and
the manner of their implementation.
 Statement 2 is correct: These committees
are constituted by the Ministry of
Parliamentary Affairs.
 The guidelines regarding the
composition, functions and procedures
of these committees are formulated by
this Ministry. The Ministry also makes
arrangements for holding their meetings
both during the session and the inter-
session period of Parliament.
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 The membership of these committees
is voluntary and is left to the choice of
the members and the leaders of their
parties. The maximum membership of a
committee is 30 and the minimum is 10.
 Statement 3 is correct: These committees
are normally constituted after the new
Lok Sabha is constituted, after General
Elections for the Lok Sabha. In other
words, these committees shall stand
dissolved upon dissolution of every Lok
Sabha and shall be reconstituted upon
constitution of each Lok Sabha.
 Separate Informal Consultative
Committees of the members of Parliament
are also constituted for all the Railway
Zones. Members of Parliament belonging
to the area falling under a particular
Railway Zone are nominated on the
Informal Consultative Committee of that
Railway Zone.
 Unlike the Consultative Committees
attached to various ministries /
departments, the meetings of the
O of a cabinet minister.
Informal Consultative Committees are to
be arranged during the session periods
only.
SC
72. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
Lok Adalat:
 Statement 1 is correct: It is presided over
by a sitting or retired judicial officer as
GS
the chairman
 Statement 2 is correct: Its decision is
binding on parties to the dispute and
its order is capable of execution through
legal process.
 Statement 3 is correct: It deals in matters
related to both civil and criminal cases.
 Statement 4 is correct: There is no court
fee. If the case is already filed in the regular
court, the fee paid will be refunded if the
dispute is settled at the Lok Adalat.
 Lok Adalats (people’s courts) settle dispute
through conciliation and compromise.
 The main thrust of Lok Adalats is on
compromise. When no compromise is
reached, the matter goes back to the
court. While conducting the proceedings;
Lok Adalat acts as a conciliator and not as
an arbitrator.
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73. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
Leader of the Opposition:
 Statement 1 is correct: In each House
of Parliament, there is the ‘Leader of the
Opposition’. The leader of the largest
opposition party having not less than
one-tenth seats of the total strength of
the House is recognized as the leader of
the Opposition in that House.
 Statement 2 is incorrect and 3 is correct:
In a parliamentary system of government,
the leader of the opposition has a
significant role to play. His main functions
are to provide a constructive criticism of the
policies of the government and to provide
RE
an alternative government. Therefore, the
leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha
and the Rajya Sabha were accorded
statutory recognition in 1977. They are
also entitled to the salary, allowances
and other facilities equivalent to that
 It was in 1969 that an official leader of
the opposition was recognised for the
first time. The same functionary in USA is
known as the ‘minority leader’.
 The British political system has a unique
institution called the ‘Shadow Cabinet’.
It is formed by the Opposition party to
balance the ruling cabinet and to prepare
its members for future ministerial offices.
In this shadow cabinet, almost every

member in the ruling cabinet is
‘shadowed’ by a corresponding member
in the opposition cabinet. This shadow
cabinet serves as the ‘alternate cabinet’
if there is change of government. That is
why Ivor Jennings described the leader
of Opposition as the ‘alternative Prime
Minister’. He enjoys the status of a minister
and is paid by the government.
74. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
Ordinance-Making Power of the
President:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: President’s
power of ordinance-making is not
a discretionary power, and he can
promulgate or withdraw an ordinance only
on the advice of the council of ministers
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headed by the Prime Minister.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: He can
promulgate an ordinance only when
both the Houses of Parliament are not
in session or when either of the two
Houses of Parliament is not in session. An
ordinance can also be issued when only
one House is in session because a law can
be passed by both the Houses and not
by one House alone. An ordinance made
when both the Houses are in session is
void. Thus, the power of the President to
legislate by ordinance is not a parallel
power of legislation.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: the maximum
life of an ordinance can be six months
and six weeks.
 Article 123 of the Constitution empowers
the President to promulgate ordinances
during the recess of Parliament.
 These ordinances have the same force
and effect as an act of Parliament, but
are in the nature of temporary laws.
O an ad hoc judge of the Supreme Court
 The ordinance-making power is the most
important legislative power of the
President. It has been vested in him to
deal with unforeseen or urgent matters.
SC
But, the exercises of this power is subject
to the following limitations:
 He can make an ordinance only when
he is satisfied that the circumstances
exist that render it necessary for him to
take immediate action.
 His ordinance-making power is
GS
coextensive as regards all matters
except duration, with the law-making
powers of the Parliament. This has two
implications:
 An ordinance can be issued only
on those subjects on which the
Parliament can make laws.
 An ordinance is subject to the same
constitutional limitation as an act
of Parliament. Hence, an ordinance
cannot abridge or take away any of
the fundamental rights.
 Every ordinance issued by the President
during the recess of parliament must
be laid before both the Houses of
Parliament when it reassembles. If the
ordinance is approved by both the
Houses, it becomes an act. If Parliament
takes no action at all, the ordinance
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ceases to operate on the expiry of
six weeks from the reassembly of
Parliament.
 An ordinance like any other legislation,
can be retrospective, that is, it may
come into force from a back date.
It may modify or repeal any act of
Parliament or another ordinance. It can
alter or amend a tax law also. However,
it cannot be issued to amend the
Constitution.
75. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
Ad hoc Judge:
RE
 Statement 1 is correct: When there is a
lack of quorum of the permanent judges
to hold or continue any session of the
Supreme Court, the Chief Justice of India
can appoint a judge of a High Court as
for a temporary period.
 Statement 2 is correct: He can do so only
after consultation with the Chief Justice of
the High Court concerned and with the
previous consent of the President.
 Statement 3 is correct: The judge
so appointed should be qualified for
appointment as a judge of the Supreme
Court. It is the duty of the judge so
appointed to attend the sittings of the
Supreme Court, in priority to other duties
of his office. While so attending, he
enjoys all the jurisdiction, powers and
privileges (and discharges the duties)
of a judge of the Supreme Court.
76. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
Finance Commission:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: President
appoints Attorney General of India
who holds office during the pleasure
of President. However, Comptroller
& Auditor General of India though
appointed by the President does not
hold the office during the pleasure of
President. He can be removed by the
President on same grounds and in the
same manner as a judge of the Supreme
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Court. In other words, he can be removed
by the president on the basis of a resolution
passed to that effect by both the Houses
of Parliament with special majority either
on the ground of proved misbehaviour or
incapacity.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: President can
address Parliament at the commencement
of the first session after each general
election and first session of each year.
 Statement 3 is correct: Article 280 of
the Constitution of India provides for a
Finance Commission as a quasi-judicial
body. It is constituted by the President
of India every fifth year or at such earlier
time as he considers necessary.
 The Finance Commission is required to
make recommendations to the President
of India on the following matters:
 The distribution of the net proceeds of
taxes to be shared between the Centre
and the states, and the allocation
O
between the states of the respective
shares of such proceeds.
 The principles that should govern
the grants-in-aid to the states by the
SC
Centre (i.e., out of the consolidated
fund of India).
 The measures needed to augment
the consolidated fund of a state to
supplement the resources of the
panchayats and the municipalities
in the state on the basis of the
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recommendations made by the state
finance commission.
 Any other matter referred to it by the
president in the interests of sound
finance.
77. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
Special Provisions for Arunanchal Pradesh
Governor:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: In discharge
of his responsibilities Governor does
not exercises his individual judgment
independent of Council of Ministers.
 Statement 2 is correct: This special
responsibility of Governor Cease when
the President so directs.
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 Statement 3 is incorrect: Governor
should establish a Regional Council for the
Tuensang district and make rules for the
compositions, qualifications and service
conditions of the member of council.
This provision accounts for the state
of Nagaland and not for Arunachal
Pradesh.
 Under Article 371-H, the Constitution
made the special provision for Arunachal
Pradesh, by assigning Governor of
Arunachal Pradesh special responsibilities
for law and order in the state. The
Arunachal Pradesh Legislative Assembly
is to consist of not less than 30 members.
78. Correct Option: (d)
RE
Explanation:
Territorial Extent of Central and State
Legislation
The Constitution defines the territorial limits
of the legislative powers vested in the Centre
and the states in the following way:
 Statement 1 is correct: The Parliament
can make laws for the whole or any part
of the territory of India. The territory
of India includes the states, the union
territories, and any other area for the time
being included in the territory of India.
 Statement 2 is correct: A state legislature
can make laws for the whole or any part
of the state. The laws made by a state
legislature are not applicable outside the
state, except when there is a sufficient
nexus between the state and the object.
 Statement 3 is correct: The Parliament
alone can make ‘extra-territorial
legislation’. Thus, the laws of the
Parliament are also applicable to the
Indian citizens and their property in any
part of the world.
 The Constitution places certain restrictions
on the plenary territorial jurisdiction of
the Parliament. In other words, the laws
of Parliament are not applicable in the
following areas:
 The President can make regulations
for the peace, progress and good
government of the four Union
Territories—the Andaman and Nicobar
Islands, Lakshadweep, Dadra and
Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu. A
regulation so made has the same force
and effect as an act of Parliament. It
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may also repeal or amend any act of
Parliament in relation to these union
territories.
 The governor is empowered to direct
that an act of Parliament does not
apply to a scheduled area in the state
or apply with specified modifications
and exceptions.
 The Governor of Assam may likewise
direct that an act of Parliament
does not apply to a tribal area
(autonomous district) in the state or
apply with specified modifications and
exceptions. The President enjoys the
same power with respect to tribal areas
(autonomous districts) in Meghalaya,
Tripura and Mizoram.
79. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
Language of the Judiciary and Texts of
Laws: O a state, with the previous consent of
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Governor can
authorize the use of Hindi or any other
official language of the state for the
judgment, decrees and orders passed by
SC
the high court of the state.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: The Parliament
has not made any provision for the use of
Hindi in the Supreme Court. Hence, the
Supreme Court hears only those who
petition or appeal in English.
 The Constitutional provisions dealing with
GS
the language of the courts and legislation
are as follows:
 Until Parliament provides otherwise,
the following are to be in the English
language only:
 All proceedings in the Supreme Court
and in every high court.
 The authoritative texts of all bills, acts,
ordinances, orders, rules, regulations
and bye-laws at the Central and state
levels.
 However, the governor of a state, with
the previous consent of the president,
can authorise the use of Hindi or any
other official language of the state, in
the proceedings in the high court of
the state, but not with respect to the
judgements, decrees and orders passed
by it. In other words, the judgements,
decrees and orders of the high court
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must continue to be in English only
(until Parliament otherwise provides).
 Similarly, a state legislature can
prescribe the use of any language (other
than English) with respect to bills, acts,
ordinances, orders, rules, regulations
or bye-laws, but a translation of the
same in the English language is to be
published.
 Statement 1 is correct: The Official
Language Act of 1963 lays down that
Hindi translation of acts, ordinances,
orders, regulations and bye-laws
published under the authority of
the president are deemed to be
authoritative texts.
 Every bill introduced in the Parliament
RE
is to be accompanied by a Hindi
translation. Similarly, there is to be
a Hindi translation of state acts or
ordinances in certain cases.
 The act also enables the governor of
the President, to authorize the use of
Hindi or any other official language of
the state for judgements, decrees and
orders passed by the high court of the
state but they should be accompanied
by an English translation. For example,
Hindi is used in Uttar Pradesh, Madhya
Pradesh, Bihar and Rajasthan for this
purpose.
 The Parliament has not made any
provision for the use of Hindi in
the Supreme Court. Hence, the
Supreme Court hears only those
who petition or appeal in English. In
1971, a petitioner insisted on arguing
in Hindi a habeas corpus petition in
the Supreme Court. But, the Court
cancelled his petition on the ground
that the language of the Court was
English and allowing Hindi would be
unconstitutional.
80. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
State’s consent with respect to Bills:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: There is no time
limit for the states for their approval in
those provisions of the Constitution which
are related to federal structure of polity.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: But there is
six months’ time limit is given for the
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states approval in the Bills related to
the formation of new state or changes
in the existing states of union of India.
 Those provisions of the Constitution
which are related to the federal
structure of the polity can be amended
by a special majority of the Parliament
and also with the consent of half of the
state legislatures by a simple majority.
 If one or some or all the remaining states
take no action on the bill, it does not
matter; the moment half of the states give
their consent, the formality is completed.
There is no time limit within which the
states should give their consent to the
bill.
Article 3 authorizes the Parliament to:

 Form a new state by separation of
territory from any state or by uniting
two or more states or parts of states
or by uniting any territory to a part of
any state.
 Increase the area of any state.
O 
 Diminish the area of any state.
 Alter the boundaries of any state.
SC
 Alter the name of any state.
 Article 3 lays down two conditions in
this regard: one, a bill contemplating
the above changes can be introduced
in the Parliament only with the prior
recommendation of the President;
and two, before recommending the bill,
GS
the President has to refer the same
to the state legistature concerned for
expressing its views within a specified
period.
 The power of Parliament to form new
states includes the power to form a new
state or union territory by uniting a part
of any state or union territory to any other
state or union territory.
 The President (or Parliament) is not
bound by the views of the state
legislature and may either accept or
reject them, even if the views are received
in time.
 It is not necessary to make a fresh
reference to the state legislature every
time an amendment to the bill is moved
and accepted in Parliament.
 In case of a union territory, no reference
need be made to the concerned
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legislature to ascertain its views and
the Parliament can itself take any
action as it deems fit.
81. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
Provisions mentioned in the
Constitution:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: All doubts and
disputes in connection with election of
the Vice-President are inquired into and
decided by the Supreme Court whose
decision is final. The election of a person
as Vice-President cannot be challenged
on the ground that the electoral college
was incomplete (i.e., existence of any
vacancy among the members of Electoral
RE
College). If the election of a person as Vice-
President is declared void by the Supreme
Court, acts done by him before the date
of such declaration of the Supreme Court
are not invalidated (i.e., they continue to
remain in force).
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution
does not contain any specific procedure
for the selection and appointment
of the Prime Minister. Article 75 says
only that the Prime Minister shall be
appointed by the president. Prime
minister recommends persons who
can be appointed as ministers by the
president. The President can appoint
only those persons as ministers who are
recommended by the Prime Minister.
82. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
Chairman of Rajya Sabha:
 The presiding officer of the Rajya
Sabha is known as the Chairman. The
vice-president of India is the ex-officio
Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. During any
period when the Vice-President acts as
President or discharges the functions of
the President, he does not perform the
duties of the office of the Chairman of
Rajya Sabha.
 Statement 1 is correct: The Chairman of
the Rajya Sabha can be removed from
his office only if he is removed from the
office of the Vice-President.
 As a presiding officer, the powers and
functions of the Chairman in the Rajya
Sabha are similar to those of the Speaker
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in the Lok Sabha. However, the Speaker
has two special powers which are not
enjoyed by the Chairman:
 The Speaker decides whether a bill is a
money bill or not and his decision on
this question is final.
 The Speaker presides over a joint
sitting of two Houses of Parliament.
 Unlike the Speaker (who is a member
of the House), the Chairman is not
a member of the House. But like the
Speaker, the Chairman also cannot vote
in the first instance. He too can cast a vote
in the case of an equality of votes.
 Statement 3 is correct: The Vice-
President cannot preside over a sitting
of the Rajya Sabha as its Chairman
when a resolution for his removal is
under consideration.
 Statement 2 is correct: However, he can
be present and speak in the House and
can take part in its proceedings, without
O  A dispute arising out of any pre-
voting, even at such a time (while the
Speaker can vote in the first instance
when a resolution for his removal is under
consideration of the Lok Sabha).
SC
 As in case of the Speaker, the salaries
and allowances of the Chairman are
also fixed by the Parliament. They
are charged on the Consolidated Fund
of India and thus are not subject to the
annual vote of Parliament.
 During any period when the Vice-
GS
President acts as President or discharges
the functions of the President, he is not
entitled to any salary or allowance payable
to the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. But
he is paid the salary and allowance of the
President during such a time.
83. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
Original Jurisdiction of Supreme Court:
 As a federal court, the Supreme Court
decides the disputes between different
units of the Indian Federation. More
elaborately, any dispute between:
 The Centre and one or more states; or
 The Centre and any state or states on
one side and one or more states on
the other; or
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 Between two or more states.
 In the above federal disputes, the Supreme
Court has exclusive original jurisdiction.
Exclusive means, no other court can
decide such disputes and original means,
the power to hear such disputes in the
first instance, not by way of appeal.
 With regard to the exclusive original
jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, two
points should be noted. One, the dispute
must involve a question (whether of law or
fact) on which the existence or extent of
a legal right depends. Thus, the questions
of political nature are excluded from it.
Two, any suit brought before the Supreme
Court by a private citizen against the
RE
Centre or a state cannot be entertained
under this.
 Further, this jurisdiction of the Supreme
Court does not extend to the following:
Constitution treaty, agreement,
covenant, engagement, sanad or other
similar instrument.
 A dispute arising out of any treaty,
agreement, etc., which specifically
provides that the said jurisdiction does
not extent to such a dispute.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Inter-state
water disputes.
 Matters referred to the Finance
Commission.
 Adjustment of certain expenses and
pensions between the Centre and the
states.
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Ordinary
dispute of commercial nature between
the Centre and the states.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: Recovery
of damages by a state against the
Centre.
84. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
Reorganization of the states:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: In case of a
union territory, no reference need be
made to the concerned legislature to
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ascertain its views and the Parliament
can itself take any action as it deems fit.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The President
(or Parliament) is not bound by the views
of the state legislature and may either
accept or reject them, even if the views
are received in time.
 Article 3 authorizes the Parliament to:
 form a new state by separation of
territory from any state or by uniting
two or more states or parts of states
or by uniting any territory to a part of
any state,
 increase the area of any state,
 diminish the area of any state,
 alter the boundaries of any state, and
 alter the name of any state.
 However, Article 3 lays down two
conditions in this regard:
 a bill contemplating the above changes
can be introduced in the Parliament
only with the prior recommendation
O members (both elected and nominated)
of the President; and
 before recommending the bill, the
President has to refer the same to
SC
the state legislature concerned for
expressing its views within a specified
period.
 Statement 3 is correct: Such laws do not
require a special majority but can be
passed by a simple majority.
GS
 Further, the power of Parliament to form
new states includes the power to form a
new state or union territory by uniting a
part of any state or union territory to any
other state or union territory.
 Further, it is not necessary to make a fresh
reference to the state legislature every
time an amendment to the bill is moved
and accepted in Parliament
 It is thus clear that the Constitution
authorizes the Parliament to form new
states or alter the areas, boundaries or
names of the existing states without their
consent.
 In other words, the Parliament can redraw
the political map of India according to its
will.
 Hence, the territorial integrity or continued
existence of any state is not guaranteed
by the Constitution. Therefore, India is
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rightly described as ‘an indestructible
union of destructible states’
85. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
Office of the President of India:
 The President is elected not directly by the
people but by the members of electoral
college consisting of:
 The elected members of both the
Houses of Parliament.
 The elected members of the legislative
assemblies of the states.
 The elected members of the legislative
RE
assemblies of the Union Territories of
Delhi and Puducherry.
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Thus, the
nominated members of both of Houses
of Parliament, the nominated members
of the state legislative assemblies, the
of the state legislative councils (in case
of the bicameral legislature) and the
nominated members of the Legislative
Assemblies of Delhi and Puducherry
do not participate in the election of the
President.
 Before entering upon his office, the
President has to make and subscribe to
an oath or affirmation. In his oath, the
President swears:
 To faithfully execute the office.
 To preserve, protect and defend the
Constitution and the law.
 To devote himself to the service and
well-being of the people of India.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: The oath of
office to the President is administered
by the Chief Justice of India and in his
absence, the seniormost judge of the
Supreme Court available. Any other person
acting as President or discharging the
functions of the President also undertakes
the similar oath or affirmation.
 Statement 4 is incorrect: The President
holds office for a term of five years from
the date on which he enters upon his
office. However, he can resign from his
office at any time by addressing the
resignation letter to the Vice-President.
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Further, he can also be removed from the
office before completion of his term by
the process of impeachment.
 A person to be eligible for election as
President should fulfill the following
qualifications:
 He should be a citizen of India.
 He should have completed 35 years of
age.
88. Correct Option: (b)
 Statement 2 is correct: He should be
qualified for election as a member of
the Lok Sabha.
 He should not hold any office of profit
under the Union government or any
state government or any local authority
or any other public authority.
RE
86. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
Representative Democracy:
 Statement 1 is correct: Legislation may
O problems. They are disbanded after their
be initiated by stakeholders or from within
the government.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Public
participation regarding draft Bills
SC
is not statutorily mandated. The
government has taken steps to increase
public engagement. In some cases the
government has invited stakeholders to
consultations on proposed Bills.
 For instance the Department of
Information Technology had invited
GS
experts for consultations on the draft
Electronic Service Delivery Bill, 2011. The
Ministry of Finance had held regional
consultations over the draft direct tax
code.
87. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
Financial Powers of the president:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: He can make
advances out of the Contingency
fund of India to meet any unforeseen
expenditure.
 Statement 3 is correct: Money bills can
be introduced in the Parliament only with
his prior recommendation.
 He causes to be laid before the Parliament
the annual financial statement. (i.e, the
Union Budget).
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 Statement 2 is correct: No demand
for a grant can be made except on his
recommendation.
 He constitutes a finance commission
after every five years to recommend the
distribution of revenues between the
Centre and the states.
Explanation:
Features of Cabinet Committees:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: They are
extra-constitutional in emergence. In
other words, they are not mentioned in
the Constitution. However, the Rules of
Business provide for their establishment.
 They are of two types—standing and ad
hoc. The former are of a permanent nature
while the latter are of a temporary nature.
The ad hoc committees are constituted
from time to time to deal with special
task is completed.
 They are set up by the Prime Minister
according to the exigencies of the time
and requirements of the situation.
Hence, their number, nomenclature, and
composition varies from time to time.
 Their membership varies from three to
eight. They usually include only Cabinet
Ministers. However, the non-cabinet
Ministers are not debarred from their
membership.
 Statement 2 is correct: They not only
include the Ministers in charge of
subjects covered by them but also include
other senior Ministers.
 They are mostly headed by the Prime
Minister. Sometimes other Cabinet
Ministers, particularly the Home Minister
or the Finance Minister, also acts as their
Chairman. But, in case the Prime Minister
is a member of a committee, he invariably
presides over it.
 Statement 3 is correct: They not only sort
out issues and formulate proposals for
the consideration of the Cabinet, but also
take decisions. However, the Cabinet can
review their decisions.
 They are an organizational device to
reduce the enormous workload of the
Cabinet. They also facilitate in-depth
examination of policy issues and effective
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coordination. They are based on the
principles of division of labour and
effective delegation.
89. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
Pardoning Power of the Parliament:
 The Supreme Court examined the
pardoning power of the President under
different cases and laid down the following
principles:
 Statement 1 is correct: The petitioner
for mercy has no right to an oral
hearing by the President.
 The President can examine the evidence
afresh and take a view different from
the view taken by the court.
 Statement 2 is correct: The power is
to be exercised by the President on
the advice of the union cabinet.
O 
 Statement 3 is correct: The President
is not bound to give reasons for his
order.
SC
 The President can afford relief not only
from a sentence that he regards as
unduly harsh but also from an evident
mistake.
 There is no need for the Supreme Court
to lay down specific guidelines for the
exercise of power by the President.
GS
 The exercise of power by the President
is not subject to judicial review except
where the presidential decision
is arbitrary, irrational, malafide or
discriminatory.
 Where the earlier petition for mercy
has been rejected by the President,
stay cannot be obtained by filing
another petition.
90. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
Powers of Prime Minister:
 In Relation to Council of Ministers:
The Prime Minister enjoys the following
powers as head of the Union council of
ministers:
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 He recommends persons who can
be appointed as ministers by the
President. The President can appoint
only those persons as ministers who
are recommended by the Prime
Minister.
 He allocates and reshuffles various
portfolios among the ministers.
 Statement 1 is correct: He can ask
a minister to resign or advise the
President to dismiss him in case of
difference of opinion.
 He presides over the meeting of
council of ministers and influences its
decisions.
 He guides, directs, controls, and
RE
coordinates the activities of all the
ministers.
 He can bring about the collapse of the
co-uncil of ministers by resigning from
office.
In Relation to Parliament: The Prime
Minister is the leader of the Lower House.
In this capacity, he enjoys the following
powers:
 He advises the President with regard
to summoning and proroguing of the
sessions of the Parliament.
 Statement 2 is correct: He can
recommend dissolution of the Lok
Sabha to President at any time.
 He announces government policies on
the floor of the House.
 Other Powers & Functions: In addition
to the above-mentioned three major
roles, the Prime Minister has various other
roles. These are:
 He is the chairman of the Planning
Commission (now NITI Aayog),
National Development Council,
National Integration Council, Inter-
State Council and National Water
Resources Council.
 He plays a significant role in shaping
the foreign policy of the country.
 He is the chief spokesman of the Union
government.
 Statement 3 is correct: He is the crisis
manager-in-chief at the political
level during emergencies.
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 As a leader of the nation, he meets
various sections of people in different
states and receives memoranda from
them regarding their problems, and so
on.
 He is leader of the party in power.
 He is political head of the services.
91. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
Comptroller & Auditor General (CAG):
 The CAG is an agent of the Parliament
and conducts audit of expenditure on
behalf of the Parliament. Therefore, he is
responsible only to the Parliament.
 The role of CAG is to uphold the
Constitution of India and the laws
of Parliament in the field of financial
administration. The accountability of the
executive (i.e., council of ministers) to
the Parliament in the sphere of financial
administration is secured through audit

reports of the CAG.
Statement 1 is correct: The CAG has
O public exchequer only with the approval
more freedom with regard to audit of
expenditure than with regard to audit
SC
of receipts, stores and stock. “Whereas
in relation to expenditure he decides the
scope of audit and frames his own audit
codes and manuals, he has to proceed with
the approval of the executive government
in relation to rules for the conduct of the
other audits.”
GS
 The CAG has ‘to ascertain whether money
shown in the accounts as having been
disbursed was legally available for and
applicable to the service or the purpose to
which they have been applied or charged
and whether the expenditure conforms to
the authority that governs it’.
 In addition to this legal and regulatory
audit, the CAG can also conduct the
propriety audit, that is, he can look into
the ‘wisdom, faithfulness and economy’
of government expenditure and comment
on the wastefulness and extravagance of
such expenditure.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: In addition to
the legal and regulatory audit, the CAG
can also conduct the propriety audit,
that is, he can look into the ‘wisdom,
faithfulness and economy’ of government
expenditure and comment on the
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wastefulness and extravagance of such
expenditure. However, unlike the legal
and regulatory audit, which is obligatory
on the part of the CAG, the propriety
audit is discretionary.
 The Constitution of India visualizes the
CAG to be Comptroller as well as Auditor
General. However, in practice, the CAG is
fulfilling the role of an Auditor-General
only and not that of a Comptroller.
 Statement 3 is correct: In other words,
‘the CAG has no control over the issue
of money from the Consolidated Fund
and many departments are authorized to
draw money by issuing cheques without
specific authority from the CAG, who is
concerned only at the audit stage when
RE
the expenditure has already taken place’.
 In this respect, the CAG of India differs
totally from the CAG of Britain who has
powers of both Comptroller as well as
Auditor General. In other words, in Britain,
the executive can draw money from the
of the CAG.
92. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
Adjournment Motion:
 Statement 1 is correct: It is introduced
in the Parliament to draw attention of the
House to a definite matter of urgent
public importance, and needs the
support of 50 members to be admitted.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: It involves
an element of censure against the
government and hence Rajya Sabha
is not permitted to make use of this
device.
 As it interrupts the normal business of the
House, it is regarded as an extraordinary
device.
 The discussion on an adjournment motion
should last for not less than two hours
and thirty minutes.
 The right to move a motion for an
adjournment of the business of the House
is subject to the following restrictions:
 It should raise a matter which is
definite, factual, urgent and of public
importance.
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 It should not cover more than one
matter.
 It should be restricted to a specific
matter of recent occurrence and should
not be framed in general terms.
 It should not raise a question of
privilege.
 It should not revive discussion on a
matter that has been discussed in the
same session.
 It should not deal with any matter that
is under adjudication by court.
 It should not raise any question that
can be raised on a distinct motion.
93. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
Composition of the Council of Ministers:
 The council of ministers consists of three
categories of ministers, namely, cabinet
ministers, ministers of state, and deputy
O
ministers. The difference between them
lies in their respective ranks, emoluments,
and political importance. At the top
of all these ministers stands the Prime
SC
Minister—the supreme governing
authority of the country.
 Statement 1 is correct: The Cabinet is a
smaller body which consists of a few
important senior ministers. The cabinet
ministers head the important ministries
of the Central government like home,
GS
defence, finance, external affairs and so
forth. They are members of the cabinet,
attend its meetings and play an important
role in deciding policies. Thus, their
responsibilities extend over the entire
gamut of Central government.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The Deputy
Ministers act as assistants to their
chiefs and look after their work in their
absence. The number of ministers may
vary according to the volume and variety
of work of the Central government.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: A Minister of
State is a junior minister in the Council
of Ministers in the Federal or Central
Government who may assist a Cabinet
Minister or have independent charge of
a ministry. In case of independent charge,
they perform the same functions and
exercise the same powers in relation to
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their ministries/departments as cabinet
ministers do. However, they are not
members of the cabinet and do not
attend the cabinet meetings unless
specially invited when something related
to their ministries/departments are
considered by the cabinet.
 The ministers of state can either be
given independent charge of ministries/
departments or can be attached to
cabinet ministers. In case of attachment,
they may either be given the charge of
departments of the ministries headed by
the cabinet ministers or allotted specific
items of work related to the ministries
headed by cabinet ministers. In both the
cases, they work under the supervision
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and guidance as well as under the overall
charge and responsibility of the cabinet
ministers.
 It must also be mentioned here that
there is one more category of ministers,
called parliamentary secretaries. They are
the members of the last category of the
council of ministers (which is also known
as the ‘ministry’). They have no department
under their control. They are attached to
the senior ministers and assist them in the
discharge of their parliamentary duties.
However, since 1967, no parliamentary
secretaries have been appointed except
during the first phase of Rajiv Gandhi
Government.
 At times, the council of ministers may
also include a deputy prime minister. The
deputy prime ministers are appointed
mostly for political reasons.
94. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
Collective Responsibility of the Council of
Minister:
 The fundamental principle underlying
the working of parliamentary system of
government is the principle of collective
responsibility. Article 75 clearly states
that the council of ministers is collectively
responsible to the Lok Sabha. This
means that all the ministers own joint
responsibility to the Lok Sabha for all
their acts of omission and commission.
They work as a team and swim or sink
together.
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 When the Lok Sabha passes a no-
confidence motion against the council of
ministers, all the ministers have to resign
including those ministers who are from
the Rajya Sabha. Alternatively, the council
of ministers can advise the president to
dissolve the Lok Sabha on the ground
that the House does not represent the
views of the electorate faithfully and call
for fresh elections. The President may not
oblige the council of ministers that has
lost the confidence of the Lok Sabha.
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The Council of
Ministers is collectively responsible to
the Lok Sabha only.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: A vote of no-
confidence against any minister can be
held only in Lok Sabha.
 Statement 3 is correct: The principle of
collective responsibility also means that
the Cabinet decisions bind all cabinet
ministers (and other ministers) even if
they differed in the cabinet meeting. It
O be consulted only in legal matters
is the duty of every minister to stand by
cabinet decisions and support them both
within and outside the Parliament.
If any minister disagrees with a cabinet
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decision and is not prepared to defend
it, he must resign. Several ministers
have resigned in the past owing to their
differences with the cabinet. For example,
Dr BR Ambedkar resigned because of his
differences with his colleagues on the
Hindu Code Bill in 1953. C D Deshmukh
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resigned due to his differences on the
policy of reorganisation of states. Arif
Mohammed resigned due to his opposition
to the Muslim Women (Protection of
Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986.
95. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
Attorney General of India:
 Statement 1 is correct: The Attorney
General of India is the Indian
government’s chief legal advisor, and is
primary lawyer in the Supreme Court
of India. He can be said to be the lawyer
from government’s side.
 He is appointed by the President
of India under Article 76(1) of
the Constitution and holds office during
the pleasure of the President.
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 The Attorney General is necessary for
giving advice to the Government of
India in legal matters referred to him. He
also performs other legal duties assigned
to him by the President.
 Statement 2 is correct: The Attorney
General has the right of audience in
all Courts in India as well as the right
to participate in the proceedings of
the Parliament, though not to vote.
 The Attorney General appears on behalf
of Government of India in all cases
(including suits, appeals and other
proceedings) in the Supreme Court in
which Government of India is concerned.
He also represents the Government
of India in any reference made by the
President to the Supreme Court under
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Article 143 of the Constitution.
 Statement 3 is correct: The Attorney
General is assisted by a Solicitor
General and four additional Solicitors
General. The Attorney General is to
of real importance and only after
the Ministry of Law has been consulted.
All references to the Attorney General
are made by the Law Ministry.
96. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
Appointment of Ministers:
 The Prime Minister is appointed by the
President, while the other ministers are
appointed by the President on the advice
of the Prime Minister.
 This means that the President can appoint
only those persons as ministers who are
recommended by the Prime minister.
Usually, the members of Parliament, either
Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha, are appointed
as ministers.
 Statement 1 is correct: A person who
is not a member of either House of
Parliament can also be appointed as a
minister.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: But, within
six months, he must become a member
(either by election or by nomination) of
either House of Parliament, otherwise, he
ceases to be a minister.
 Statement 3 is correct: A minister who
is a member of one House of Parliament
has the right to speak and to take part
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in the proceedings of the other House
also, but he can vote only in the House of
which he is a member.
97. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
No-Confidence Motion:
 Article 75 of the Constitution says that the
council of ministers shall be collectively
responsible to the Lok Sabha. It means
that the ministry stays in office so long as
it enjoys confidence of the majority of the
members of the Lok Sabha. In other words,
the Lok Sabha can remove the ministry
from office by passing a no-confidence
motion. The motion needs the support of
50 members to be admitted.
 It need not state the reasons for its
adoption in the Lok Sabha.
 It is moved for ascertaining the confidence
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of Lok Sabha in the council of ministers.
 Statement 2 is correct: If it is passed in
the Lok Sabha, the council of ministers
headed by Prime Minister must resign
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from office.
 Statement 1 and 3 are correct: When
the Lok Sabha passes a no-confidence
motion against the council of ministers, all
the ministers have to resign including
those ministers who are from the Rajya
Sabha.
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 Statement 4 is correct: The council of
ministers can advise the President to
dissolve the Lok Sabha on the ground that
the House does not represent the views of
the electorate faithfully and call for fresh
elections. The President may not oblige
the council of ministers that has lost
the confidence of the Lok Sabha.
98. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
Individual Privileges enjoyed by the
Members of the Parliament:
 Parliamentary privilege refers to rights
and immunities enjoyed by Parliament as
an institution and MPs in their individual
capacity, without which they cannot
44
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discharge their functions as entrusted
upon them by the Constitution.
 Statement 1 is incorrect: They have
freedom of speech in Parliament. No
member is liable to any proceedings in any
court for anything said or any vote given
by him in Parliament or its committees.
This freedom is subject to the provisions
of the Constitution and to the rules
and standing orders regulating the
procedure of Parliament.
 Statement 2 is correct: They are
exempted from jury service. They can
refuse to give evidence and appear as a
witness in a case pending in a court when
Parliament is in session.
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 Statement 3 is correct: They cannot be
arrested during the session of Parliament
and 40 days before the beginning and
40 days after the end of a session.
 Statement 4 is incorrect: The privilege
of not being arrested is available only in
civil cases and not in criminal cases or
preventive detention cases.
99. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
Representation of Peoples Act 1951:
 The Representation of People Act, 1951 is
an act of Parliament of India to provide
for the conduct of elections of the Houses
of Parliament, the qualifications and
disqualifications for membership of those
Houses, the corrupt practices and other
offences at or in connection with such
elections and the decision of doubts and
disputes arising out of or in connection
with such elections.
 Option (c) is correct: The Parliament
has laid down the disqualification in
Representation of Peoples Act 1951. In
such cases President’s decision is final.
However, he should obtain the opinion
of the Election Commission and act
accordingly.
 In case of disqualification on grounds of
defection, the matter will be decided by
speaker or chairman or Rajya Sabha as
the case may be.
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100. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
Rajya Sabha:
 Statement 3 is incorrect: A Constitution
Bench of the Supreme Court in 2006
upheld the Constitutional validity of an
amendment to the Representation of
the People Act 1951, dispensing with
the domicile requirement for getting
elected to the Rajya Sabha.
 Statement 1 is correct: The representatives
of states in the Rajya Sabha are elected
by the elected members of state
legislative assemblies. The election is
held in accordance with the system of
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proportional representation by means of
the single transferable vote.
 Statement 2 is correct: The seats are
allotted to the states in the Rajya Sabha
on the basis of population. Hence, the
number of representatives varies from
state to state. For example, Uttar Pradesh
has 31 members while Tripura has 1
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member only. However, in USA, all states
**********
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are given equal representation in the
Senate irrespective of their population.
USA has 50 states and the Senate has 100
members—2 from each state.
 Statement 4 is incorrect: The
representatives of each union territory in
the Rajya Sabha are indirectly elected by
members of an electroral college specially
constituted for the purpose. Out of the
seven union territories, only two (Delhi
and Puducherry) have representation
in Rajya Sabha. The populations of other
five union territories are too small to have
any representative in the Rajya Sabha.
 The President nominates 12 members
to the Rajya Sabha from people who
have special knowledge or practical
experience in art, literature, science and
social service.
 The rationale behind this principle of
nomination is to provide eminent persons
a place in the Rajya Sabha without going
through the process of election. It should
be noted here that the American Senate
has no nominated members.
45