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DIAGNOSTIC RADIOLOGY

1. Causes of brocholithiasis include all the following EXCEPT:


a. tuberculosis
b. hyperparathyroidism
c. actinomycosis
d. histoplasmosis
e. coccidiomycosis

2. Causes of air space disease include all the following EXCEPT:


a. sarcoidosis
b. lung contusion
c. infarction
d. lymphoma
e. small cell carcinoma

3. Air brochogram occurs in all the following EXCEPT:


a. sarcoidosis
b. alveolar cell carcinoma
c. infarct
d. brocho pulmonary aspergillosis
e. brocho pulmonary dysplasia

4. CT angiogram sign is seen in all the following EXCEPT:


a. lymphoma
b. lipoid pneumonia
c. bronchoalveolar carcinoma
d. pulmonary edema
e. adenocarcinoma

5. Signs of developing bronchopleural fistula in a post pneumonectomy


patient include all the following EXCEPT:
a. mediastinal shift to same side
b. decreasing fluid
c. increasing air
d. contralateral aspiration pneumonia
e. sudden appearance of air fluid level within pleura
6. Common tumors producing lymphangitis carcinomatosa include all the
following EXCEPT:
a. prostate
b. pancreas
c. kidneys
d. colon
e. lung

7. Diffuse pulmonary hemorrhage is associated with all the following


EXCEPT:
a. glomerulonephritis
b. anemia
c. SLE
d. ARDS
e. legionella pneumonia

8. Thickened septa on high resolution CT scan is seen in all the following


EXCEPT:
a. left ventricular failure
b. sarcoidosis
c. lymphangitis carcinomatosa
d. alveolar proteinosis
e. scleroderma

9. Wegener’s granulomatosis is associated with all the following


EXCEPT:
a. glomerulonephritis
b. raynaud’s phenomena
c. leucopenia
d. nasal septal destruction
e. cavitating nodules

10. Drugs causing pulmonary fibrosis include all the following EXCEPT:
a. methotrexate
b. bleomycine
c. vincristine
d. cyclophosphamide
e. nitrofurantoin
11. Narrowing of trachea occurs in all the following EXCEPT:
a. tuberculosis
b. sarcoidosis
c. scleroderma
d. double aorta
e. goiter

12. Thymic hyperplasias are seen in all the following EXCEPT:


a. Hashimoto’s disease
b. Addison’s disease
c. Cushing’s disease
d. myasthenia gravis
e. acromegally

13. Differential diagnosis for mass in the right cardiophrenic angle


includes all the following EXCEPT:
a. pericardial fat pad
b. pericardial defect
c. pleuro pericardial
d. bochdalek’s hernia
e. morgagni’s hernia

14. In bronchoalveolar carcinoma, all the following are true EXCEPT:


a. coughing of mucin is a clinical feature
b. most common lung tumor to cavitate
c. prognosis is worse with extensive consolidation
d. prognosis is worse when bilateral
e. pre existing scar is a risk factor

15. in lung carcinoid tumor, all the following are true EXCEPT:
a. calcification is seen in 45%
b. lymphadenopathy
c. distal metastasis in 5%
d. hyper vascular metastases
e. high malignant potential
16. One of the following indicate active tuberculous lesion in plain chest
x-ray:
a. well defined small nodule
b. thin walled cavity
c. thick cavity with surrounding inflammation
d. linear shadows
e. calcification

17. One of the following is typical feature of mycoplasma pneumonia:


a. bilateral pleural effusions
b. bilateral perihilar distribution
c. bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy
d. confluent nodular opacities
e. linear atelectasis

18. Plain chest X-ray signs of aortic rupture include all the following
EXCEPT:
a. left apical cap
b. filling in of aorto pulmonary window
c. tracheal deviation to the left side
d. widening of right para tracheal stripe
e. depression of left main stem bronchus

19. in congenital lobar emphysema, all the following are true EXCEPT:
a. most common in the right lower lobe
b. delayed clearing of fluid is seen in neonates
c. cyanosis is present in neonatal period
d. congenital heart disease is associated in 15%
e. air trapping is present

20. All the following are common sites of drainage of the anomalous
pulmonary veins EXCEPT:
a.ifradiaphramatic IVC
b. portal vein
c. hepatic vein
d. SVC
e. bronchial artery
21. Causes of pericardial calcification include all the following EXCEPT:
a. renal failure
b. asbestosis
c. viral pericarditis
d. chest trauma
e. myxedema

22. Myocardial calcification is seen in all the following EXCEPT:


a. myocarditis
b. ventricular aneurysm
c. myocardial infarct
d. renal failure
e. asbestosis

23. In subclavian steal syndrome, all the following are true EXCEPT:
a. more common in males
b. more common in the left side
c. 80% have involvement of other arteries
d. there is reversal of flow in the contralateral vertebral artery
e. commonly seen in the sixth and seventh decades

24. Causes of pericardial thickening in CT include all the following


EXCEPT:
a. rheumatoid arthritis
b. rheumatic fever
c. sarcoidosis
d. radiation
e. hypothyroidism

25. in aortic dissection, all the following are true EXCEPT:


a. esophageal ultrasound is contra indicated in acute settings
b. pregnancy is a risk factor
c. displaced intimal calcification is a feature
d. type A has worse prognosis than type B
e. left pleural effusion is commonly seen
26. The following are associations of Chiari II malformation EXCEPT:
a. corpus callosal dysgenesis
b. klippel feil anomaly
c. absent septum pellucidum
d. lumbar myelominengocele
e. hydrocephalus

27. The following are associations of Dandy walker malformation


EXCEPT:
a. cleft palate
b. klippel feil anomalies
c. basal cell nevus syndrome
d. poly dactyly
e. corpus callosal lipoma

28. Diagnostic criteria for neurofibromatosis II include all the following


EXCEPT:
a. schwannoma
b. glioma
c. cataract
d. meningioma
e. hydrocephalus

29. in Sturge Weber syndrome, all the following are true EXCEPT:
a. pia matter angioma Is the pathological abnormality
b. port wine stain is seen from birth
c. the affected side can be enlarged
d. autosomal dominant
e. low signal changes are seen in the cortical matter

30. Associations of Von Hippel Lindau disease include all the following
EXCEPT:
a. renal carcinoma
b. renal cysts
c. meningioma
d. cerebral aneurysm
e. retinal angiomas
31. In band heterotopia, all the following are true EXCEPT:
a. it is unilateral
b. frontal lobe is the most common location of partial band heterotopia
c. it is iso intense to gray matter in all MRI sequences
d. neurological examination is normal
e. females are commonly affected

32. In cortical contusion, all the following are true EXCEPT:


a. most common primary interfacial contusion in trauma
b. most common in frontal lobe
c. frequently seen underneath extradural hematoma
d. often bilateral
e. hydrocephalus is a complication

33. The following situations produce false negative CT scan in subdural


hemorrhage EXCEPT:
a. low platelets
b. low hemoglobin
c. narrow window setting
d. associated fracture
e. beam hardening artifacts

34. The following are predisposing factors for chronic subdural


hemorrhage EXCEPT:
a. ventricular shunt
b. trauma
c. epilepsy
d. alcoholism
e. liver disease

35. Differential diagnosis of petrous apex lesions include all the


following EXCEPT:
a. cholesterol granuloma
b. cholesteatoma
c. seventh nerve neuroma
d. metastases
e. chordoma
36. Enhancement of basal cisterns is a feature of all the following
EXCEPT:
a. cryptococcsis
b. tuberculosis
c. leukemia
d. torulosis
e. encephalitis

37. All the following are causes of multifocal enhancing lesions in brain
EXCEPT:
a. multiple infarctions
b. multiple sclerosis
c. AVMs
d. adrenoleukodystrophy
e. metastases

38. Erosion of odontoid process is a feature of all the following


EXCEPT:
a. down’s syndrome
b. hurler’s syndrome
c. psoriasis
d. SLE
e. ankylosing spondylitis

39. Common causes of cranial nerve enhancement include all the


following EXCEPT:
a. leukemia
b. sarcoidosis
c. viral infections
d. schwannomas
e. menengiomas

40. MRI features of tuberculoma include all the following EXCEPT:


a. hypointense in T1
b. hypointense core in T2
c. walls thinner than pyogenic abscess
d. edema more marked than in pyogenic abscess
e. ring enhancement is seen in nearly all lesions
41. all the following vaccines are recognized cause of ADEM EXCEPT:
a. chickenpox
b. diphtheria
c. hepatitis
d. typhoid
e. tetanus

42. Causes of multiple brain infarctions include all the following


EXCEPT:
a. cortical venous thrombosis
b. emboli
c. vasculitis
d. meningitis
e. herpes

43. In dural sinus thrombosis, all are true EXCEPT:


a. high density of thrombosed sinuses in CT scan
b. the thrombosed sinuses become isodense in few days
c. contrast scan will show empty delta sign
d. the sinus walls are supplied by separate vascular branches from the
meningeal veins
e. empty delta sign is seen only in superior sagittal sinus

44. The following are considered as high risk factors in AVM EXCEPT:
a. pseudo aneurysm in feeding artery
b. supratentorial location
c. paucity of venous drainage
d. periventricular location
e. small size

45. All the following can cause hemorrhagic brain metastases EXCEPT:
a. renal carcinoma
b. thyroid carcinoma
c. lung cancer
d. colon cancer
e. choriocarcinoma
46. In mammography, all the followings patterns of calcification are
definitely benign EXCEPT:
a. egg shell calcification
b. floating calcification
c. micro calcification of one size
d. pop corn calcification
e. single calcification more than 2mms

47. Mammographic features of neoplasm include all the following


EXCEPT:
a. mass appearing larger than it feels
b. radiating spicules
c. localized increase in density
d. lucent halo
e. punctuate calcification

48. in ductal ectasia, all the following are true EXCEPT:


a. commonly associated with retroareolar mass
b. increased risk of malignancy
c. commonly causes a retracted nipple
d. causes ring calcification
e. causes skin thickening

49. Edematous breast is seen in mammography in all the following


EXCEPT:
a. radiotherapy
b. abscess
c. mastitis carcinomatosa
d. wide local excision
e. gynaecomastia

50. Breast lesions common in pregnancy include all the following


EXCEPT:
a. fat necrosis
b. papilloma
c. galactocele
d. fibrocystic disease
e. fibro adenoma
51. One statement is false regarding Renal Doppler examination
a. Peak systolic velocity of 150 cms/sec in the main renal artery
b. Acceleration time of 150 msec in arcuate arteries
c. Resistive index (RI) of 0.66 in arcuate arteries
d. Pulsicity index (PI) of 1.20 in arcuate arteries
e. Renal Aortic Ratio (RAR) of 3

52. One statement is false regarding ultrasonography and tendonitis


a. In acute tendonitis increased thickness of the tendon is noted
b. In acute tendonitis the margins of the tendon are often ill defined
c. . In acute tendonitis diffuse increase in echogenicity of the tendon due to edema
usually noted
d. In acute tendonitis increase in vascularity on color flow Doppler is noted
e. Calcifications noted in chronic tendonitis

53. One statement is false regarding sonographic findings in iternal carotid artery
occlusion
a. Damped low resistance waveform within ipsilateral common carotid artery
b. Intrnalization of ipsilateral external carotid artery waveform
c. Reversal of flow within segment of internal carotid artery or common carotid artery
proximal to the occluded segment
d. Absence of flow within the internal carotid artery
e. the contralateral common carotid artery demonstrate higher velocities than the
ipsilateral common carotid artery.

54. One of these correlations is false


a. Triphasic waveform noted normally in the popliteal artery
b. Monophasic waveform noted normally in the vertebral artery
c. Monophasic high velocity turbulent continuous flow noted in arteriovenous fistula
d. Tardus parvus flow noted in the arteries proximal to high grade stenosis
e. To-and-fro flow noted in the neck of false anurysm

55. One of these is not sonographic finding in chronic DVT


a. Thickened irregular vein walls
b. Echogenic web like filling defects in lumen of the veins
c.Distension of the lumen of the vein
d.Presence of reflux within the deep vein
e.Presence of collateral venous channals
56. One of these statements is true regarding the main hepatic veins in veino-occlusive
disease of the liver (VOD)
a. Patent and dilated
b. Patent and smoothly narrowed
c. Show hepatopedal flow
d. Dilated and contain thrombosis
e. Small fibrotic and show no flow

57. Echogenic liver metastasis is noted in all the following malignancies, except
a. Islet cell carcinoma
b. Carcinoid
c. Renal cell carcinoma
d. Choriocarcinoma
e. Lymphoma

58. Regarding Mirizzi syndrome, one is true


a. Is caused by cholangiocarcinoma
b. Is caused by common bile duct stone
c. The common bile duct and the common hepatic duct are dilated
d. The common bile duct is normal, while the common hepatic duct is dilated
e. The intrahepatic bile ducts, the common hepatic duct, and the common bile duct are
dilated

59. One of these is false regarding ultrasonography of acute appendicitis


a. The appendix appears a blind ended tube
b. The appendix arises from the base of the cecum
c. The appendix is aperistaltic
d. The diameter of the appendix must exceed 10 mms
e. Presence of appendicolith is diagnostic of appendicitis in children

60. Diffuse urinary bladder wall thickening occurs in all of the following conditions,
except
a. Amyloidosis
b. Endometriosis
c. Schistosomiasis
d. Tuberculosis
e. Transitional cell carcinoma
61-Regarding lymphomas all are true except;

a. Mesenteric nodes are commonly involved in Hodgkin's lymphoma


b. Nodal extension is contiguous in HL
c. Extranodal disease is common in NHL
d. Testicular lymphoma is the most common testicular tumor in people aged over 60
years
e.Kidneys are common extranodal sites for lymphomatous involvement

62-Regarding tuberculosis all are true except;

a. Radiographic evidence of hilar lymphadenopathy is more common in adults than in


children
b. Cavitation is hallmark of post-primary TB
c. In TB meningitis, abnormal meningeal enhancement is more often seen in the basal
cisterns
d. In spinal TB, calcification of abscess is characteristic
e. Calcification is seen more than 50% of renal TB

63-Regarding hypothalamic lesions all are true except;

a. Craniopharyngioma are typically predominantly cystic in children


b. Hypothalamic germinomas typically involve base of the infundibular stalk
c. Hypothalamic hamartomas usually show no change in size on long term follow-up
d. Hypothalamic-chiasmatic gliomas are strongly associated with NF-1
e. Dynamic MRI is helpful in differentiating LCH from germinoma

6 4-Regarding central neurocytom all are false except;


a.CN are typically located within the fourt ventricle
b.Light microscopic appearance is similar to meningioma.
c.Most of the CNs present 20-40 years of age
d.The attachment to the lateral wall of the lateral ventricle is charactersitic for CN
e.Intratumoral calcification is rare

65-Regarding imaging of melanoma all are true except;


a. Majority of the melanoma metastasis to brain are hyperdense on unenhanced CT scan
b .Melanoma metastasis in brain usually show high signal on both T1 and T2
c. Most of the intraocular melanomas are primary.
d. Lung metastasis is relatively common
e. Most of the bone metastasis are osteolytic
66-Regarding toxoplasma encephalitis in HIV/AIDS all are false except;

a.Toxoplasma encephalitis is more common than HIV encephalitis


b.Toxoplasma is the most common opportunistic neuroinfection in AIDS
c.Toxoplasma encephalitis preodominantly involves periventricular white matter
d. On enhanced CT scan, the lesions are usually non-enhancing
e.On an unenhanced CT scan, the lesions are usually hypodense

67- In evaluation of hypoxic ischaemic brain injury all are false except;
a. Diffusion weighted images are more sensitive than MR spectroscopy in acute setting
b. Most of the germinal matrix haemorrhage occur within 24 hours of birth
c. Cerberal cortex is more often involved in hypoxic injuries than deep grey structures in
neonates and pre-term babies
d. Normal appearance on diffusion weighted images by the end of first week of hypoxic
insult indicates reversal of hypoxic insults
e. Germinal matrix haemorrhage extending into ventricles is graded as IV

68- Regarding sickle cell disease all are false except;


a. The most common cause of death is stroke
b. Intracranial anuesysms associated with sickle cell disease are usually single
c. Moya moya is characterictic of sickle cell disease
d. "hair-on-end"appearance on the skull radiograph is characteristic feature of sickle cell
disease
e. The most common cause of osteomyelitis is salmonella

69-Regarding limbic encephalitis (LE) all are true except;

a. Usually presents with long term memory impairment


b. MRI typically shows high signal on T2 and FLAIR in the limbic region
c. The most common underlying malignancy is small cell lung cancer (SCLC)
d. PET is useful in diagnosing underlying occult malignancy
e. Although LE can be idiopathic, underlying malignancy should be searched

70. The intracranial tumor most likely to be encountered in a middle-aged man with
the acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) one is correct :
A. Glioblastoma multiforme.
B. Ependymoma.
C. Meningioma.
D. Oligodendroglioma.
E. Lymphoma.
71-Regarding jejunum, all are false except;
a. Ileal valvulae conniventes are more numerous than Jejunal ones
. b.Jejunal valvulae conniventes are 1 mm thick
. c.Jejunal valvulae conniventes are characteristically spiral shaped
. d.Low density barium is widely used as oral contrast for the CT evaluation of
the.jejunum in the UK
. e.Jejunum accounts for 40% of small bowel

72.Regarding small bowel malignant lesions all are true except;

. a.Nearly 70% of the small bowel symptomatic lesions are malignant


. b.Adenocarcinomas are most commonly seen in the duodenum.
. c.Most of the carinoids airse from the distal ileum
. d.Carcinoids typically show avid contrast enhancement, desmoplastic reaction and
calcification
. d.Kaposi's sarcomas are typically seen as submucosal lesions in the jejunum or ileum

73.Regarding small bowel tumours all are false except;

. a.Most of the bowel tumours arise from the small bowel


. b.Small bowel tumours are most common in the duodenum
. c.Gastrointestinal stromal tumours (GIST) have a strong association with Garner's
syndrome
. d.Most of the small bowel lipomas are found in the duodenum
. e.Most of the symtomatic small bowel tumours are benign

74.Regarding pancreatic adenocarcinoma all are false except;


a.Cigarette smoking is thought to be a significant risk factor
b.Whipple's procedure, a radical surgery for pancreatic carcinoma, carries a risk of
mortality of 20%
c.Overall 5 year survival rate is 20%
d. In approximately 20%, the carcinoma arises from the head
e.Carinomas arising from the head carry worse prognosis than those arising from the
body or tail

75-Regarding resectability of pancreatic adenocarcinoma all are true except;

aTumour size more than 3cm is likely to be unresectable


b.Peripancreatic lymphadenoapthy is absolute contraindication for surgery
c.The tumour is likely to be irresectible if the contiguity between tumour and major
vessel is more than 50%
d.Vascular occlusion makes the tumour irresectable
e.Invasion of splenic vessels is not absolute contraindication for surgery
76.Regarding hepatic infections all are false except;

a.Entameoba histolytica is the most common cause in the UK


b.Ascending cholangitis is the most common cause of pyogenic infection
' c.Wheel spoke sign' seen on ultrasound is highly suggestive of amoebic liver abscess
d.Imaging guided aspiration is contraindicated in hydatid cysts
e.Is not known complication of hepatic chemoembolization

77-Regarding splenic injury all are true except;

a.Spleen is the most commonly injured abdominal organ in blunt trauma


b.20%of rib fractures are associated with splenic injuries
c.40%of splenic injuries are associated with rib fractures
d.Splenic lacerations are seen as an area of low attenuation on contrast enhanced CT
scan
e.Most of the splenic injuries are managed surgically

78. Patients who have survived a subarachnoid hemorrhage from a ruptured


intracranial aneurysm are at risk for:
A. Rehemorrhage.
B. Cerebral artery vasospasm.
C. Ischemic stroke.
D. Hydrocephalus.
E. All of the above

79-Regarding gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD) all are true except;

. a.Incomplete moles are more likely to undergo malignant change than the complete
moles
. b.GTD is almost always completely curable with preservation of fertility
. c.Lymphnode involvement is a rare feature of choriocarcinoma
. d.GTD usually shows low resistance blood flow
. e.It is rare to have other metastasis in the absence of lung metastasis

80. One of the following statements is true of pulmonary embolism?


A. Most cases occur postoperatively.
B. In the majority of patients pulmonary emboli are ultimately lysed in situ without the
administration of pharmacologic agents.
C. The preferred therapy for most patients is thrombolytic agents.
D. It is generally safe to give thrombolytic agents as early as 48 hours postoperatively.
E. Patients develop thromboembolism have no underlying
condition
81. Which of the following can cause a radioactive pulmonary perfusion scan to
demonstrate an appearance similar to that of acute pulmonary embolism?
A. Atelectasis.
B. Pneumonitis.
C. Pleural fluid.
D. Emphysematous bullae.
E . All of the above

82-Regarding blunt injury of the kidney all are false except;

a.Nearly 50% of renal injuries are treated surgically


b.Presence of hematuria is an idication of serious renal injury
c.Absence of hematuria excludes renal injury
d.Cortical rim sign on CT scan suggests devascularization
e.Hypertension is not a known late complication of renal trauma

83-Regarding epidermoid cysts of the testis all are false except;

a.Epidermoid cysts are one of the common cysts of the testis


b.Epidermoid cysts are commonly associated infertility
c.Epidermoid cysts are commonly multiple
d.The ultrasonic appearances are characteristic for epidermoid cysts
e.On Gd administration, epidermoid cysts usually enhance

84-Regarding Angiomyolipomas (AML) all are false except;

a.AMLs associated with tuberous sclerosis are more common than sporadic ones
b. Males are more commonly affected than female in both sporadic type and in those
with tuberous sclerosis
c.AMLs are associated with neurofibromatosis
d.The most common complication is malignant transformation
e.AMLs are not suitable for embolization
85-Regarding endometrial carcinoma all are true except;

a. MRI is more accurate than endovaginal ultrasound in the diagnosis of myometrial


invasion.
b.Zonal uterine anatomy is best seen on the T1WI
c.Endometrial carcinoma is typically of low signal on the T2WI
d.Endometrial carcinoma is of high signal compared to cervical stroma on the T2WI
e.Lung is the most common site of distant metastasis

86. Which of the following statements regarding the pathology of esophageal


carcinoma is/are correct?
A. Worldwide, adenocarcinoma is the most common esophageal malignancy.
B. Squamous cell carcinoma is most common in the distal esophagus, whereas
adenocarcinoma predominates in the middle third.
C. Patients with Barrett's metaplasia are 40 times more likely than the general population
to develop adenocarcinoma.
D. Metastases from esophageal carcinoma are characteristically localized to regional
mediastinal lymph nodes adjacent to the tumor.
E. Achalasia, radiation esophagitis, caustic esophageal stricture, Barrett's mucosa, and
Plummer-Vinson syndrome are all premalignant esophageal lesions that predispose to the
development of squamous cell carcinoma.

87-Regarding stress fractures all are false except;

. a. Plain radiographs eventually pick up to 90% of stress fractures


. b. Bone scintigraphy is sensitive and specific method of diagnosing stress fractures
. c. CT is more sensitive than bone scintigraphy is the early diagnosis of stress fracture
. d. T1WI are most sensitive sequences in the diagnosis of early stress injury
. e. Fracture line in stress fracture is typically oriented perpendicular to the cortex

88-Regarding sickle cell disease all are false except;

. a.Mandible is usually spared from marrow expansion


. b.On MR, irregular peripheral marrow enhancement around a nonenhancing center is
more suggestive of osteomyelitis than infarction
. c.Extramedullary haemopoitic tissue is shown as low signal on T1WI and high signal on
T2WI
. d.Hand-foot syndrome commonly affects 10-20 years
. e.Sickle cell dactylitis is usually secondary to salmonella species
89-The following are true regarding Marfan's syndrome all are true except;
. a.It is autosomal reccesive
. b.The most common cause of death is secondary to cardiovascular complications
. c.Pectus excavatum is commonly seen in Marfan's syndrome
. d.Dural ectasia can be seen on the plain radiographs as widening of the interpedicular
distance
. e.Spontaneous pneumothorax is usually secondary to bullae

.90. Regarding meniscal injuries of the knee all are false except

a.Posterior horn of the medial meniscus is the most commonly injured meniscus
b.On MRI, the high signal within the menisci has to extend into both parts of articular
surfaces to call it a tear
c.Bucket-handle tear is a type of radial tear
d.Bucket-handle tear is more common in the lateral meniscus
e.Meniscal cysts are most commonly associated with longitudinal tears

91-Regarding traumtic diaphragmatic rupture (TDI) all are false except

a.TDIs most commonly occur after penetrating trauma


b right diaphragm is more commonly ruptured than the right
c. About 50% of TDI are diagnosed acutely
d.The most commonly herniated organ is spleen
'e. Dependent viscera sign' is a very sensitive CT sign in the diagnosis of TDI

92-Regarding posterolateral corner injuries of the knee all are true except;

a. Posterolateral corner injuries are less common than medial knee injuries
b. Arcuate fracture is a strong indicator of posterior cruciate ligament tear
c,Segond fracture is a strong indicator of posterior cruciate ligament tear
d.Popliteus myotendinous injury is usually associated with other posterolateral corner
injuries
e.Lateral collateral ligament injury is a part of posterolateral corner injuries

93-Regarding the benign bone tumours of the ribs all are true except;

Fibrous dysplasia is the most common benging tumours of the ribs.a


b. Fibdrous dysplasias (FD) are usually seen in the posterior or lateral aspects of the ribs.
MRI is very sensitive in diagnosing the non-calcified cartilage of enchondroma .c
d.In osteochondromas (OC), cartilage cap of less than 2 cm in adult is highly suspicious
for malignant transformation.
e. Aneurysmal bone cysts (ABC) are commonly seen in the anterior aspect of the ribs
94. A 50-year-old patient develops sudden left lower chest pain and epigastric pain
after vomiting. The patient showsdiaphoresis, breath sounds are decreased on the
left, and there is abdominal guarding. The most appropriate diagnostic test is:
A. Aortography.
B. Esophagoscopy.
C. Electrocardiogram.
D. Film of the chest.
E. White blood count.

95-Regarding thalassaemia all are false except

Skeletal changes are unusual after 6 months of age.a


'Hair-on-end' skull appearance is characteristic for thalassaemia. b
Ethoid air cells are usually absent.c
Earliest changes are seen in thespine bones.d
e.MRI is sensitive in the early diagnosis of chelator toxicity in the skeleton

96-In evaluation of hypoxic ischaemic brain injury all are false except
. a.Diffusion weighted images are more sensitive than MR spectroscopy in acute setting
. b.Most of the germinal matrix haemorrhage occur within 24 hours of birth
. c.Cerberal cortex is more often involved in hypoxic injuries than deep grey structures in
neonates and pre-term babies
. d.Normal appearance on diffusion weighted images by the end of first week of hypoxic
insult indicates reversal of hypoxic insults
. e.Germinal matrix haemorrhage extending into ventricles is graded as IV

97-Regarding CNS complications in paediatric oncology patients all are true except;

.a. Intratumoral hemorrhage is most often seen with osteosarcoma metastases


. b.Children with Wilm's tumour are at high risk of reversible posterior encephalopathy.
. c.L-Asparginase, which is used in treating ALL, is associated with sinus venous
thrombosis.
. d.Aspergillus is the most common lethal fungal infection.
. e. Aspergillus show enhancement, because of lack if inflammatory response
98-Regarding fibrosing mediastinitis all are true except

a. Commonly produces compression of the mediastinal structures


b. Associated pleural or pulmonary changes are common
c. Associated with histoplasmosis
d. Diffuse type is more common than focal type
e. Focal type commonly calcifies

99. All the following conditions can be evaluated by magnetic resonance imaging
(MRI) except?
A. Stroke is suspected in a patient with a cardiac valve.
B. Computed tomography (CT) shows a skull base tumor.
C A coma patient with CT-demonstrated subarachnoid hemorrhage and an aneurysmal
clip.
D. A patient with intractable complex partial seizure.
E. A lung cancer patient whose plain film of the lumbar spine shows a compression
fracture of the L2 vertebral body.

100. All of the following statements about neuroradiologic imaging modalities are
correct except?
A. Diffusion-weighted MRI can differentiate tumor from edema and identify the
nonenhancing part of the tumor.
B. For evaluating the stenosis of the carotid bifurcation, MR angiography (MRA) is the
most accurate imaging modality.
C. Myelography is still useful in detecting some diffuse spinal disease such as
cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) seeding.
D. For evaluating the bony detail of patients with facial trauma, CT is a better imaging
modality than MRI.
E. Decreased amount of N-acetyl aspartate (NAA) and increased amount of lactate can
be shown in the MR spectroscopy (MRS) of a patient with acute stroke.
Answers
1 b 11 c 21 e 31 a 41 c
2 e 12 a 22 e 32 c 42 e
3 d 13 b 23 d 33 d 43 e
4 e 14 b 24 e 34 e 44 b
5 a 15 e 25 a 35 c 45 d
6 c 16 c 26 b 36 e 46 c
7 b 17 d 27 c 37 d 47 d
8 d 18 c 28 e 38 b 48 b
9 c 19 a 29 d 29 a 49 e
10 c 20 d 30 d 40 a 50 a

51 b 61 A 71 E 81 E 91 E
52 c 62 A 72 C 82 D 92 C
53 a 63 E 73 B 83 D 93 E
54 d 64 C 74 A 84 C 94 D
55 c 65 B 75 B 85 B 95 E
56 b 66 B 76 B 86 C 96 B
57 e 67 B 77 E 87 E 97 E
58 d 68 E 78 E 88 B 98 D
59 d 69 A 79 A 89 A 99 C
60 e 70 E 80 B 90 A 100 B