FIITJEE KVPY MOCK TEST-1 CLASS 11 A LOT

Date: 30 July 2018 Time: 3:00 Hours

Max. Marks: 100

STREAM - SA
INSTRUCTIONS
1. All questions are compulsory.
2. The Test Booklet consists of 80 questions.
3. There are Two parts in the question paper. The distribution of marks subjectwise in each part is as under for
each correct response.
MARKING SCHEME :
PART-A : SECTION-I
MATHEMATICS
Question No. 1 to 15 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
PHYSICS
Question No. 16 to 30 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
CHEMISTRY
Question No. 31 to 45 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
BIOLOGY
Question No. 46 to 60 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
PART-B :
MATHEMATICS-SECTION -II
Question No. 61 to 65 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.

PHYSICS-SECTION-III
Question No. 66 to 70 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.

CHEMISTRY-SECTION-IV
Question No. 71 to 75 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.

BIOLOGY-SECTION-V
Question No. 76 to 80 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.

4. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in Instructions No. 3 for correct response of each
question.
for Part-A 0.25 marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question and for Part-B 0.50
marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No
deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the Answer sheet.

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 Section 1 - PartA- MATHEMATICS

1. A quadrilateral has distinct integer side lengths. If the second-largest side has length 10,
then the maximum possible length of the largest side is
(A) 25 (B) 26 (C) 27 (D) 28

2.

3. Let S be the set of all ordered pairs (x, y) of positive integers satisfying the condition
x2 – y2 = 12345678. Then
(A) S is an infinite set (B) S is the empty set
(C) S has exactly one element (D) S is a finite set and has at least two elements.

4. Let A1A2A3....A9 be a nine-sided regular polygon with side length 2 units. The difference
between the lengths of the diagonals A1A5 and A2A4 equals

5.

6.

7. Let AB be a line segment of length 2. Construct a semicircle S with AB as diameter. Let C be

the midpoint of the arc AB. Construct another semicircle T external to the triangle ABC with
chord AC as diameter. The area of the region inside the semicircle T but outside S is

8. Let r(x) be the remainder when the polynomial x135 + x125 – x115 + x5 + 1 is divided by x3 – x.
Then
(A) r(x) is the zero polynomial (B) r(x) is a nonzero constant
(C) degree of r(x) is one (D) degree of r(x) is two

9. Let A, G and H be the arithmetic mean, geometric mean and harmonic mean, respectively of
two distinct positive real numbers. If  is the smallest of the two roots of the equation
A(G – H)x2 + G (H – A) x + H(A –G) = 0, then
(A) –2 <  < –1 (B) 0 <  < 1 (C) –1 <  < 0 (D) 1 <  < 2

10. The sum of all non-integer roots of the equation x5 – 6x4 + 11x3 – 5x2 – 3x + 2 = 0 is
(A) 6 (B) –11 (C) –5 (D) 3
11. Suppose BC is a given line segment in the plane and T is a scalene triangle. The number of
points A in the plane such that the triangle with vertices A,B,C (in some order) is similar to
triangle T is
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 12 (D) 24

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12. 1
The number of positive integers n in the set {2,3,....,200} such that has a terminating
n
decimal expansion is
(A) 16 (B) 18 (C) 40 (D) 100

13. If a,b,c are real numbers such that a + b + c = 0 and a2 + b2 + c2 = 1, then

(3a + 5b – 8c)2 + (–8a + 3b + 5c)2 + (5a – 8b + 3c)2 is equal to
(A) 49 (B) 98 (C) 147 (D) 294

14. Let ABC be a triangle and M be a point on side AC closer to vertex C than A. Let N be a
point on side AB such that MN is parallel to BC and let P be a point on side BC such that MP
5
is parallel to AB. If the area of the quadrilateral BNMP is equal to th of the area of
18
triangle ABC, then the ratio AM/MC equals.
18 15
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) (D)
5 2
15. Let S be the set of all ordered pairs (x,y) of positive integers, with HCF (x,y) = 16 and LCM
(x,y) = 48000. The number of elements in S is
(A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 16 (D) 32

Section I - PartA-Physics
16. Two cars S1 and S2 are moving in coplanar concentric circular tracks in the opposite sense
with the periods of revolution 3 min and 24 min, respectively. At time t = 0, the cars are
farthest apart. Then, the two cars will be
(A) closest to each other at t = 12 min and farthest at t = 18 min.
(B) closest to each other at t = 3 min and farthest at t = 24 min
(C) closest to each other at t = 6 min and farthest at t = 12 min
(D) closest to each other at t = 12 min and farthest at t = 24 min

17. A student performs an experiment to determine the acceleration due to gravity g. The
student throws a steel ball up with initial velocity u and measures the height h travelled by it
at different times t. The graph the student should plot on a graph paper to readily obtain the
value of g is

18. A person goes from point P to point Q covering 1/3 of the distance with speed 10km/hr, the next
1/3 of the distance at 20 km/hr and the last 1/3 of the distance at 60 km/hr. The average speed of
the person is
(A) 30 km/hr (B) 24 km/hr (C) 18 km/hr (D) 12 km/hr

19. A particle starts moving along a line from zero initial velocity and comes to rest after moving
distance d. During its motion it had a constant acceleration f over 2/3 of the distance, and
covered the rest of the distance with constant retardation. The time taken to cover the distance is

20. A person walks 25.0º north of east for 3.18 km. How far would she have to walk due north and
then due east to arrive at the same location?
(A) towards north 2.88 km and towards east 1.34 km
(B) towards north 2.11 km and towards east 2.11 km
(C) towards north 1.25 km and towards east 1.93 km
(D) towards north 1.34 km and towards east 2.88 km

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21. A car goes around uniform circular track of radius R at a uniform speed v once in every T
seconds. The magnitude of the centripetal acceleration is a c. If the car now goes uniformly
around a larger circular track of radius 2R and experiences a centripetal acceleration of
magnitude 8ac, then its time period is
(A) 2T (B) 3T (C) T/2 (D) 3/2 T

22. A stone thrown down with a seed u takes a time t1 to reach the ground , while another stone,
thrown upwards from the same point with the same speed, takes time t 2. The maximum height
the second stone reaches from the ground is
2
(A) ½ gt1 t2 (B) g/8 (t1 + t2)2 (C) g/8 (t1 – t2)2 (D) ½ gt 2

23. An object at rest at the origin begins to move in the +x direction with a uniform acceleration of 1
m/s2 for 4s and then it continues moving with a uniform velocity of 4 m/s in the same direction.
The x-t graph for object's motion will be –

24. A parachutist with total weight 75 kg drops vertically onto a sandy ground with a speed
of 2 ms–1 and comes to a halt over a distance of 0.25 m. The average force from the ground on
her is close to -
(A) 600 N (B) 1200 N (C) 1350 N (D) 1950 N

25. In the following displacement (x) vs time (t) graph at which among the P, Q and R is the object's
speed increasing ?

(A) R only (B) P only (C) Q and R only (D) P, Q, R

26. A box when dropped from a certain height reaches the ground with a speed ν. When it slides
from rest from the same height down a rough inclined plane inclined at an angle 45° to the
horizontal, it reaches the ground with a speed ν/3. The coefficient of sliding friction between the
box and the plane is (acceleration due to gravity is 10 ms –2)

27. The accompanying graph of position x versus time t represents the motion of a particle. If p and q
are both positive constants, the expression that best describes the acceleration a of the particle is

(A) a = -p - qt (B) a = - p + qt (C) a = p + qt (D) a = p - qt

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28. Two stones of mass m1 and m2 (such that m1 > m2) are dropped Dt time apart from the same
height towards the ground. At a later time t the difference in their speed is DV and their mutual
separation is DS .While both stones are in flight
(A) DV decreases with time and DS increases with time
(B) Both DV and DS increase with time
(C) DV remains constant with time and DS decreases with time
(D) DV remains constant with time and DS increases with time

29. A boat crossing a river moves with a velocity v relative to still water. The river is flowing with a
velocity v/2 with respect to the bank. The angle with respect to the flow direction with which the
boat should move to minimize the drift is–
(A) 30º (B) 60º (C) 150º (D) 120º
30. A girl holds a book of mass m against a vertical wall with a horizontal force F using her finger so
that the book does not move. The frictional force on the book by the wall is –
(A) F and along the finger but pointing towards the girl
(B) μF upwards where μ is the coefficient of static friction
(C) mg and upwards
(D) Equal and opposite to the resultant of F and mg

Section I - PartA-CHEMISTRY

31. The maximum number of electrons that can be filled in the shell with the principal quantum
number n = 4 is
(A) 64 (B) 26 (C) 18 (D) 32

32. C60 emerging from a source at a speed (v) has a de Broglie wavelength of 11.0 Å. The
value of v (in m s–1) is closest to
[Planck’s constant h = 6.626 × 10–34 J s]
(A) 0.5 (B) 2.5 (C) 5.0 (D) 30

33. The lattice energies of NaCl, NaF, KCl and RbCl follow the order
(A) KCl < RbCl < NaCl < NaF (B) NaF < NaCl < KCl < RbCl
(C) RbCl < KCl < NaCl < NaF (D) NaCl < RbCl < NaF < KCl

34. The oxidation states of P atom in POCl3, H2PO3 and H4P2O6, respectively, are
(A) +5, +4, +4 (B) +5, +5, +4 (C) +4, +4, +5 (D) +3, +4, +5

35. A solution (5 mL) of an acid X is completely neutralized by y mL of 1M NaOH. The

same volume (y ML) of 1M NaOH is required to neutralize 10 mL of 0.6 M of H2SO4
completely. The normality (N) of the acid X is
(A) 1.2 (B) 2.4 (C) 4.8 (D) 0.6

36. 1.25 g of a metal (M) reacts with oxygen completely to produce 1.68 g of metal oxide.
The empirical formula of the metal oxide is
[molar mass of M and O are 69.7 g mol–1 and 16.0 g mol–1, respectively]
(A) M2O (B) M2O3 (C) MO2 (D) M3O4
37. The first ionisation energy of Na, B, N and O atoms follows the order
(A) B < Na < O < N (B) Na < B < O < N
(C) Na < O < B < N (D) O < Na < N < B

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38. The metal ion with total number of electrons same as S2– is
(A) Na+ (B) Ca2+ (C) Mg2+ (D) Sr2+

39. X g of Ca [atomic mass = 40] dissolves completely in concentrated HCl solution to produce
5.04 L of H2 gas at STP. The value of X is closest to
(A) 4.5 (B) 8.1 (C) 9.0 (D) 16.2

40. A 20 g object is moving with velocity 100 ms–1. The de Broglie wavelength (in m) of the
object is
[Planck’s constant h = 6.626 ×10–34 J s]
(A) 3.313 × 10–34 (B) 6.626 × 10–34
–31
(C) 3.313 × 10 (D) 6.626 × 10–31

41. The maximum number of electrons that can be filled in the shell with the principal quantum
number n = 3 is
(A) 18 (B) 9 (C) 8 (D) 2

42. The atomic radii of Li, F, Na and Si follow the order.

(A) Si > Li > Na > F (B) Li > F > Si > Na
(C) Na > Si > F > Li (D) Na > Li > Si > F

43. Mendeleev’s periodic law states that the properties of elements are periodic function of their
(A) reactivity of elements (B) atomic size
(C) atomic mass (D) electronic configuration

44. Maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in the subshell with azimuthal
quantum number I = 4, is
(A) 10 (B) 8
(C) 16 (D) 18
45. If Avogadro’s number is A0, the number of sulphur atoms present in 200 mL is 1 N H2SO4 is
(A) A0/5 (B) A0/2
(C) A0/10 (D) A0

Section I - PartA-Biology

46. Of the following products, which is produced by both anaerobic respiration and aerobic
respiration in humans?
I Pyruvate
II ATP
III Lactate
(A) I only (B) I and II only
(C) I, II and III (D) II and III only

47. Which organ secretes enzymes that are active at low PH?
(A) Mouth (B) Pancreas
(C) Stomach (D) Liver

48. Which of the following in an ex situ method of conservation.

(A) Agroforestry (B) Sanctuary
(C) Cryopreservation (D) Biosphere reserve

49. What is the major difference between Bacteria & Virus.

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 (A) Viruses are precursors to Bacteria.
(B) Viruses use host machinery to reproduce unlike Bacteria.
(C) Viruses lack protein that are present in Bacteria.
(D) Viruses have protein whereas Bacteria do not.

50. Consider the following food chain in the same lake:

Aquatic plant � small fish � Big fish � Birds
Which of the above organisms is likely to show minimum amount of pesticide concentration
in them after considerable time?
(A) Aquatic plants (B) Small fish
(C) Big fish (D) Birds

51. A human T Lymphocyte in the mitotic metaphase stage will contain how many DNA
molecules?
(A) 23 (B) 46
(C) 184 (D) 92

52. Given below are few forces of evolution. Which of the following would be the best
combination of primary sources of evolution?
(A) Variation and Mutation (B) Mutation and Isolation
(C) Variation and Migration (D) Migration and random genetic drift

53. Restriction Eudonucleases are enzymes that are used by biotechnologists to

(A) Join fragments of DNA (B) Cut DNA at specific base Sequences
(C) digest DNA from the 3’ end (D) digest DNA from the 5’ end

54. In Biotechnology application, a selectable maker is incorporated in a plasmid

(A) to increase its copy number
(B) to increase the transformation efficiency
(C) to eliminate the non transformants
(D) to increase the expression of the gene of interest

55. Melting temperature for double attended molecules are converted into single stranded
molecules. Which one of the following DNA will have the highest melting temperature?
(A) DNA with 15% Guanine (B) DNA with 30% cytosine
(C) DNA with 40% Thymine (D) DNA with 50% Adenine

56. Leydig cells synthesize

(A) Insulin (B) Growth hormone
(C) Testosterone (D) Estrogen

57. Match the type of cells given in column I with organisms given in column II. Choose the
appropriate combination from the options below:
Column I Column II
(P) Flame cells (i) sponges
(Q) Collar cells (ii) Hydra
(R) Stinging Cells (iii) Plauaria
(A) P-iii Q-i R-ii (B) P-iii Q-ii R-i
(C) P-i Q-ii R-iii (D) P-ii Q-iii R-i

58. Gaseous Exchange of Oxygen and CO2 between alveolar air and capillaries take place by:
(A) Active Transport (B) Diffusion
(C) Carrier – Mediated transport (D) Imbibition

59. A chromosome having a terminal centromere is called

(A) metacentric (B) Telocentric

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 (C) Sub metacentric (D) acrocentric
60. Which one of the following statements about Mycoplasma is wrong?
(A) They cause disease in plants (B) They are also called PPLO
(C) They are pleomorphic (D) They are sensitive to penicillin

Section II – Part B- MATHEMATICS

61. Let S be the circle in xy-plane which touches the x-axis at point A, the y-axis at point B and
the unit circle x2 + y2 = 1 at point C externally. If O denotes the origin, then the angle OCA
equals

62. Let ABCD be a square and E be a point outside ABCD such that E, A, C are
collinear in that order. Suppose EB = ED = 130 and the areas of triangle EAB and
square ABCD are equal. Then the area of square ABCD is
(A) 8 (B) 10 (C) 120 (D) 125

63. Let ABCD be a trapezium with parallel sides AB and CD such that the circle S with AB as
its diameter touches CD. Further, the circle S passes through the midpoints of the diagonals
AC and BD of the trapezium. The smallest angle of the trapezium is
p p p p
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 4 5 6

64. Suppose we have two circles of radius 2 each in the plane such that the distance between
their centres is 2 3 . The area of the region common to both circles lies between
(A) 0.5 and 0.6 (B) 0.65 and 0.7 (C) 0.7 and 0.75 (D) 0.8 and 0.9

65. Let C1, C2 be two circles touching each other externally at the point A and let AB
be the diameter of circle C1. Draw a secant BA3 to circle C2, intersecting circle C1
at a point A1( �A), and circle C2 at points A2 and A3 . If BA1 = 2, BA2 = 3 and
BA3 = 4, then the radii of circles C1 and C2 are respectively

Section III – Part B-Physics

66. Two skaters P and Q are skating towards each other. Skater P throws a ball towards Q every
5 s such that it always leaves her hand with speed 2 ms -1 with respect to the ground.
Consider two cases:
(I) P runs with speed 1 ms -1 towards Q while Q remains stationary.
(II) Q runs with speed 1 ms -1 towards P while P remains stationary.
Note that irrespective of speed of P, ball always leaves P’s hand with speed 2 ms -1 with
respect to the ground. Ignore gravity Balls will be received by Q.
(A) one every 2.5 s in case (1) and one every 3.3 s in case (II)
(B) one every 2 s in case (1) and one every 4 s in case (II)
(C) one every 3.3 s in case (1) and one every 2.5 s in case (II)
(D) one every 2.5 s in case (1) and one every 2.5 s in case (II)

67. A block of mass m is sliding down an inclined plane with constant speed. At a certain

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 instant t0, its height above the ground is h. The coefficient of kinetic friction between the
block and the plane is μ. If the block reaches the ground at a later instant tg, then the energy
dissipated by friction in the time interval (tg – t0) is–

(A) μmgh (B) μmgh/sin θ (C) mgh (D) μmgh/cos θ

68. A body of 0.5 kg moves along the positive x-axis under the influence of a varying force F
(in Newtons) as shown below.

If the speed of the object at x = 4m in 3.16 ms–1 then its speed at x = 8m is

(A) 3.16 ms–1 (B) 9.3 ms–1 (C) 8 ms–1 (D) 6.8 ms–1
69. The rear wheels of a car are turning at an angular speed of 60 rad/s. The brakes are applied
for 5s, causing a uniform angular retardation of 8 rads -2 . The number of revolutions turned
by the rear wheels during the braking period is about
(A) 48 (B) 96 (C) 32 (D) 12

70. A small disc A is placed on an inclined plane forming an angle  with the horizontal and is
imparted an initial velocity v0. Find how the velocity of the disc depends on the angle f if
p
the friction coefficient K = tan  and at the initial movement f0 = .
2

v0 v0 v0 v0
(A) v = (B) v = (C) v = (D) v =
1 + cos f 1 - cos f cos f cosec f

Section IV -Part-B chemistry

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71. Among the following molecules, the one with the largest bond angle at the central
atom is
(A) ClF3 (B) POCl3 (C) BCl3 (D) SO3
72. The photoelectric behaviour of K, Li, Mg and Ag metals is shown in the plot below.
If light of wavelength 400 nm is incident on each of these metals, which of them will
emit photoelectrons?
[Planck’s constant h = 6.626 × 10–34 J s; velocity of light c = 3 × 108 m s–1; 1 eV =
1.6 × 10–19 J]

(A) K (B) K and Li

(C) K, Li and Mg (D) K, Li, Mg and Ag

73. When 262 g of xenon (atomic mass = 131) reacted completely with 152 g of fluoride
(atomic mass = 19), a mixture of XeF2 and XeF6 was produced. The molar ration
XeF2 : XeF6 is
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 1 : 4 (C) 1 : 1 (D) 1 : 3

74. Complete reaction of 2.0 g of calcium (at wt. = 40) with excess HCl produces 1.125
L of H2 gas. Complete reaction of the same quantity of another metal ‘‘M’’ with
excess HCl produces 1.85 L of H2 gas under identical conditions. The equivalent
weight of ‘‘M’’ is closest to :
(A) 23 (B) 9 (C) 7 (D) 12

75. The amount of metallic Zn (Atomic weight = 65.4) required to react with aqueous sodium
hydroxide to produce 1 g of H2, is
(A) 32.7 g (B) 98.1 g (C) 65.4 g (D) 16.3 g

Section V - PartB-Biology

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76. A few rabbits are introduced in an un-inhabited island with plenty of food. If these
rabbits breed in the absence of any disease, natural calamity and predation, which one
of the following graphs best represents their population growth :

77. If a double stranded DNA has 15% cytosine, what is the % of adenine in the DNA?
(A) 15% (B) 70%
(C) 35% (D) 30%

78. In photosynthesis, oxygen is produced in

(A) Light Reaction (B) Dark Reaction
(C) Both Light and Dark Reaction (D) none of these

79. A couple has two sons and two daughters. Only one son is colour blind and the rest of
the siblings are normal. Assuming colour blindness is sex-linked, which ONE of the
following would be the phenotype of the parents ?
(A) Mother would be colour blind, father would be normal.
(B) Father would be colour blind, mother would be normal.
(C) Both the parents would be normal.
(D) Both the parents would be colour blind.

80. A researcher treats cells with a chemical that blocks DNA synthesis. This treatment
would arrest the cells in which phase of the cell cycle?
(A) G1 phase (B) S phase
(C) Metaphase (D) Anaphase

ANSWERS-KVPY MOCK TEST -1 CLASS 11

PART A
1. B 2. B 3. B 4. D 5. D

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6. D 7. B 8. C 9. B 10. D
11. C 12. B 13. C 14. A 15. B
16. D 17. D 18. C 19. C 20. D
21. C 22. C 23. B 24. C 25. A
26. A 27. D 28. D 29. D 30. C
31. D 32. A 33. C 34. A 35. B
36. B 37. B 38. B 39. C 40. A
41. A 42. D 43. C 44. D 45. C
46. B 47. C 48. C 49. B 50. A
51. D 52. A 53. B 54. C 55. B
56. C 57. A 58. B 59. B 60. D

PART B
61. A 62. B 63. D 64. C 65. A
66. A 67. C 68. D 69. C 70. B
71. A 72. B 73. C 74. D 75. A
76. A 77. C 78. A 79. C 80. A

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