A.
The AFP operating through the area
CRIMINOLOGIST LICENSURE EXAMINATION
=============================
===========
FINAL COACHING
LAW ENFORCEMENT
ADMINISTRATION
1. It refers to the field of management which
involves planning, and controlling the efforts of
a group of individuals toward achieving a
common goal with maximum dispatch and
minimum use of administrative resources.
A. Administation
B. Personnel Management
C. Organization
D. Police Organization
 Organization-a group of persons working
together for a common goal or objectives a
form of human association for the
attainment of a goal or objective.
 Police Organization- a group of trained
personnel in the field of public safety
administration engaged in the achievement
of goals and objectives.
 Administration- an organizational process
concerned with the implementation of
objectives and plans and internal operating
efficiency.
 Police Administration- the process
involved in ensuring strict compliance,
proper obedience of laws and related
statutes focuses on the policing process.
2. The national headquarters of the PNP is
located in Quezon City. It was named after the
1st Filipino Chief of the Philippine Constabulary.
A. Antonio Torres
B. Cesar Nazareno
C. Rafael Crame
D. Lamberto Javalera
 PDG Cesar Nazareno- the first chief of
the Philippine National Police
 Col Antonio Torres- the first Filipino chief
of police of the Manila Police Department in
1935
 Col Lamberto Javalera- the first chief of
police of the Manila Police Department after
the Philippine Independence from the
United States of America in 1946
3. Eugene Sakuragi joined the PNP in 1996. She
was 29 years old then. What year can
Eugene retire if he wants to avail the
mandatory retirement?
A. 2017 C. 2032
B. 2031 D. 2023
 Compulsory – upon reaching the age
FIFTY-SIX (56), the age of retirement
 Optional – upon completion of TWENTY
(20) YEARS of active service
4. The Role of the PNP on matters involving the
suppression of insurgency and serious treats to
national security?
commander is the one primarily responsible
on matters involving insurgency and other
serious treats to national security.
B. The PNP is relieved of the primary role
towards insurgency and other serious treats
to national security.
C. The PNP shall provide assistance to the AFP
in insurgency-affected areas.
D. All of these
5. The procedure which is intended to be used
in situations of all kinds and outlined as guide
and by men in the field operations relative to
reporting, dispatching, raids, arrest and
investigation refers to:
A. Field Procedure
B. Standard Operating Procedure
C. Problem oriented plan
D. Headquarters procedure
 Headquarters Procedures - include the
procedures to be followed in the
headquarters, usually reflected in the duty
manual
 Standard Operating Procedures (SOP) -
procedures intended for specific operations
to ensure uniformity of action
6. The term of office of the Chief PNP shall be for
a period ______?
A. Not exceeding four (5) years.
B. Not exceeding five (3) years.
C. Not exceeding six (4) years.
D. Not exceeding three (6) years.
 Attrition by Attainment of Maximum
Tenure
Those who have reached the prescribed
maximum tenure corresponding to their position
shall be retired from the service
 Chief 4 years
 Deputy Chief 4 years
 Director of Staff Services 4
years
 Regional Directors 6 years
 Provincial/District Directors 9 years
 Other positions higher than
Provincial Director 6 years
7. The law that empowered the police
commission to conduct entrance and
promotional examination for police members
refers to:
A. RA 6040 C. RA 5487
B. RA 157 D. PD 765
 R.A. 157- created the National Bureau of
Investigation, enacted June 19, 1947 and
later reorganized by R.A. 2678
 PD 765- otherwise known as the Integration
Act of 1975, enacted on August 8, 1975;
established the Integrated National Police
(INP)
 R.A. 5487 – Private Security Agency Law 12. He is known as the father of modern
policing system?
8. The theory of police service which states
those police officers are servants of the people A. August Vollmer C. Oliver Cromwell
or the community refers to: B. Robert Peel D. Cesare
A. Old Lombroso
B. Home rule  August Vollmer - recognized as the Father
C. Modern of Modern Law Enforcement
D. Continental  Oliver Cromwell- first commissioner of
Scotland Yard
 Continental - policemen are regarded as  Cesare Lombroso – Father of Modern
servants of the higher authorities Criminology.
o It exist in France, Italy and Spain-
countries with a decentralized form of 13. When responding to call for police
government assistance due to planted or found explosives,
 Old Concept - measurement of police what immediate actions should the patrol officer
competence is the increasing number of will do?
arrests.
 Modern Concept - police efficiency is A. Scrutinize the item if it is an explosive or
measured by the decreasing number of not.
crimes B. Dispose the item immediately to avoid
further injury to happen.
9. Dr. XYY is a Doctor of Philosophy; he opted to C. Never attempt to handle, call for
join the Philippine National Police. What would Explosive Ordinance Disposal Team.
be his initial rank upon entry? D. Call to the Tactical Operation Center for
A. Senior Inspector C. Inspector proper procedure to be followed, after
investigating the item.
B. Chief Inspector D. NONE
14. Captain Matako is a commissioned officer of
 Inspector Rank: Dentists, optometrists, the Armed Forces of the Philippines. What is his
nurses, engineers, graduates of forensic equivalent rank in the PNP?
sciences, graduates of the PNPA and
A. Inspector C. Senior
licensed criminologists
Inspector
 Senior Inspector Rank: Chaplains, B. Chief Inspector D. Superintendent
members of the bar and doctors of medicine
 Inspector – Captain
10. The following are functions in a police
 Chief Inspector – Major
organization, EXCEPT:
 Superintendent – Lieutenant Colonel
A. primary functions
15. How many Deputy Director General ranks
B. administrative functions
are there in the PNP?
C. secondary functions
A. 1 C. 3
D. auxiliary functions
B. 2 D. 4
 Primary or Line Functions- functions that
Deputy Director General ranks
carry out the major purposes of the
organization, Patrolling, traffic duties, and  DDG for Administration (2nd in Command)
crime investigation  DDG for Operation (3rd in Command)
 Staff/Administrative Functions- designed  Chief of the Directorial Staff (4th in
to support the line functions and assist in Command)
the performance of the line functions
examples of the staff functions of the police 16. The highest rank in the BJMP is __________.
are Planning, research, budgeting and legal
advice A. Four star general C. Director
 Auxiliary Functions- functions involving B. Chief Superintendent D. Director General
the logistical operations of the organization
examples are communication, maintenance,  Chief- highest position in the PNP, with the
records management, supplies and rank of DIRECTOR GENERAL
equipment management.
17. What is the minimum police-to-population
11. If the external patting of the suspect’s ratio?
clothing fails to disclose evidence of a weapon
the next procedure of the Patrol officer is: A. 1:000 C. 1:1500
B. 1:500 D. 1:7
A. Conduct a complete search.
B. The Patrol officer shall arrest the suspect. Sec. 27 of R.A. 6975 provides (police-to-
C. No further search may be made. population ratio)

D. Turnover the suspect to the immediate o 1:500 – nationwide average

supervisor.
18. What kind of force is needed during armed
confrontation?

FINAL COACHING Law Enforcement Administration NMK12 Page

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 A. Reasonable force C. Logical Force e. Visual indications suggesting that the suspect
B. Rational Force D. Evenhanded is carrying a pyrotechnics.
Force A. b, c, d, C. a, c, d
B. b, e, a, d D. a, b, c, d,
19. The largest organic unit within a large e
department.
A. Bureau C. Section 25. The provincial governor shall choose the
B. Division D. Unit provincial director from a list of _____ eligible’s
recommended by the PNP regional director:
 Division- The primary subdivision of a A. six C. five
bureau. B. Three D. four
 Section- Functional units within a particular
division. This is necessary for specialization.  MAYOR – Shall choose from the (5) FIVE
 Units- Functional group within a section eligible’s recommended by the PD.
where further specialization is needed.
26. The deployment of officers in a given
20. The word “police” was derived from the community, area or locality to prevent and deter
Greek word _______, which means government criminal activity and to provide day-to-day
of the city. services to the community.
A. politia C. politeia A. Patrol C. Beat Patrol
B. polis D. Policy B. Line Patrol D. Area Patrol

 Polis – Greek word which means “City-
State”.
 Politia – Roman word which means
“condition of the state or the Government”.
21. It is defined as the determination in advance
of how the objectives of the organization will be
attained.
A. planning C.
Advancement
B. police planning D. Development
 Police Planning - it is an attempt by police
administration to allocate anticipated
resources to meet anticipated service
demands.
22. It is the premier educational institution for
the training, human resource development and
continuing education of all personnel of the PNP,
BFP, and BJMP.
A. PPSC C. RTS
B. PNPA D. NPC
PNPA- created pursuant to Section 13 of PD
1184, premier educational institution for future
officers of the tri-bureaus.
23. It is the central receiving entity for any
citizen’s complaint against the police officers.
A. IAS C. PNP
B. PLEB D. NAPOLCOM
 NAPOLCOM - shall exercise administrative
control and operational supervision over the
PNP
 IAS - investigate complaints and gather
evidence in support of an open
investigation; conduct summary hearings on
PNP members facing administrative charges;
24. The following are the grounds for Patrol
officers to execute spot checks.
a. Questionable presence of the individual in the
area;
b. The suspect is a long time enemy of your
superior;
c. The individual flees at the sight of a police
officer;
d. The Patrol officer has knowledge of the
suspect’s prior criminal record; and
27. The head of the IAS shall have a designation
of ____________?
A. Director General C. Solicitor
General
B. Inspector General D. IAS General
28. As per the requirement of R.A. 6975, there
should be how many PLEB for every 500 police
personnel?
A. one (1) C. more than one
B. at least one D. less than one
 there shall be at least one (1) PLEB for
every five hundred (500) city or municipal
police personnel
29. If you are the patrolman on beat, what
would be the immediate things to do when
accident occur?
A. Cordon the area
B. Go away and call your superior
C. Bring the victim to the nearest
hospital
D. Chase the criminal and Arrest him
30. The following are the upgraded general
qualifications for appointment in the Philippine
National Police.
a. Applicant must weigh more or less than five
(5) kilos;
b. Applicant shall not be below twenty (20) or
over thirty five (35) years of age;
c. Applicant must be person of good moral
character;
d. Applicant must not have been dishonorably
discharged from military services or civilian
position in the government; and
e. Applicant must be eligible.
A. e, c, d, b C. a, c, d, e
B. b, c, e D. c, d, e
31. All of the following are members of the
People’s Law Enforcement Board, EXCEPT:
A. Three (3) members chosen by the Peace
and Order Council from among the
respected members of the community
B. A bar member chosen by the
Integrated Bar of the Philippines
 C. Any barangay captain of the 38. SPO1 Last and SPO2 First report to the same
city/municipality concerned chosen by the supervisor. This is the principle of __________:
association of barangay captains
D. Any member of the Sangguniang A. delegation of authority
Panglunsod B. span of control
C. unity of command
32. Two or more persons forming an D. chain of command
organization must identify first the reason for
establishing such organization. They must  Delegation of Authority- conferring of
identify the organization’s _________: certain specified authority by a superior to a
A. strategy C. Goal subordinate
B. Tactic D. objective  Chain of Command- the arrangement of
officers from top to bottom on the basis of
 Strategy – is a broad design, method; a rank or position and authority
major plan of action that needs a large  Span of Control- the maximum number of
amount of resources to attain a major goal subordinates that a superior can effectively
or objectives. supervise
 Goal- General Statement of intention  Command Responsibility- dictates that
normally with time perspective. It is immediate commanders shall be responsible
achievable end state that can be measured for the effective supervision and control of
and observed. their personnel and unit
 Tactic – it is a specific design, method or
course of action to attain a particular 39. Who has the authority to promote Insp Jhack
objective in consonance with strategy. T. Khole?
A. President C. Chief,
33. To improve delegation, the following must PNP
be done, EXCEPT: B.CA D. Regional
A. establish objectives and standards Director
B. count the number of supervisors
C. require completed work Promoting Authorities:
D. define authority and responsibility
Grade/Rank Promoting
34. The number of subordinates that can be Authorities
supervised directly by one person tends to:
A. Increase as the physical distance between  Director General President
supervisor and subordinate as well as  Sr. Supt. to Deputy Dir. Gen. President
between individual subordinate increases  Insp. To Supt. Chief, PNP
B. Decrease with an increase in the  PO1 to SPOIV RD/Chief, PNP
knowledge and experience of the
subordinate 40. In police parlance, “S.O.P.” stands for?
C. Increase as the level of supervision
progresses for the first line A. Standard operation procedures
supervisory level to the management B. Special operation procedures
level C. Standard operating procedures
D. All of the above D. Special operating procedures

41. The following are the characteristics of a

35. This means controlling the direction and flow
good plan, EXCEPT:
of decisions through unity of command from top
A. flexibility C. specific
to bottom of organization:
B. clear D. expensive
A. Audit C. Coordination
B. Monitoring D. Authority
42. If the annual quota for the year 2013 is
1200. How many of the annual quota is
36. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
allocated for women?
A. Performance evaluation measures
A. 10% C. 120
credibility of the police
B. 100 D. 200
B. Performance evaluation is not a basis for
salary increases or promotion
 The PNP shall reserve TEN PERCENT (10%)
C. Performance evaluation is done once a
of its annual recruitment, training and
year among police personnel
education quota for women
D. Performance evaluation is
implemented to determine the 43. Waivers for initial appointment in the PNP
quality of work performance of may be waived in the following order:
personnel
A. age, height, weight & education
37. The NAPOLCOM is an attached agency to B. age, weight, height & education
the DILG for _______: C. height, education, weight & age
D. in any order
A. Administrative control
B. Administration and control
C. Operational supervision  Applicants who possess the least
D. Policy and program coordination disqualification shall take precedence over
those who possess more disqualification;

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 The requirement shall be waived in the
following order: Age, Height, Weight and
Education. (AHWE)
44. It is the downsizing of PNP personnel on the
basis provided by law.
A. attrition C.
Specialization
B. promotion D. retirement
 Specialization- the assignment of
particular personnel to particular tasks
which are highly technical and require
special skills and training
 Retirement - The separation of the police
personnel from the service by reason of
reaching the age of retirement provided by
law, or upon completion of certain number
of years in active service.
 Promotion - It is a upgrading of ranks
and/or advancement to a position of
leadership
45. The age requirement for new PNP applicants
must not be less than twenty-one (21) years of
age. The Maximum age requirement for PNP
applicants using the lateral entry program is
____.
A. 35 years old C. 25 years old
B. 30 years old D. 31 years old
46. A Field training Program for all PNP
uniformed members is required for permanency
of their appointment. Who among the following
is exempted to undergo the Field Training
Program and issued a permanent appointment?
A. Pastor Jayson Lopez, who is appointed Sr.
Inspector via Lateral entry.
B. Atty. Rose Camia, who is appointed Sr.
Inspector via Lateral entry.
C. Ryan, A PNPA graduate who is
appointed Inspector after graduation.
D. Bruno Sikatuna a Licensed Criminologist
and First Place in the Examination.
 Field Training Program. – All uniformed
members of the PNP shall undergo a Field
Training Program for twelve (12) months
involving actual experience and assignment
in patrol, traffic, and investigation as a
requirement for permanency of their
appointment.
47. Planning as a management function is to be
done in the various levels of PNP organization.
Broad policy based from laws directives, policies
and needs in general is the responsibility of:
A. Directorate for Plans
B. President of the Philippines
C. Chief, PNP
D. Dep. Dir. For Administration
48. What is the rank equivalent of PNP Deputy
Director General in the Armed Forces of the
Philippines?
A. Lt. General C. Major General
B. Brigade General D. General
 Chief Superintendent – Brigade General
 Director – Major General
 Director General - General
49. The Philippine National Police will recruit 300
new policemen on March 2012 to fill up its
quota. Who among the following applicants is
qualified to apply?
A. Khyle who was born on April 24, 1978
B. Tom who was born on November 22, 1980
C. Vince who was born on March 17, 1993
D. Migz who was born on August 10,
1991
 For a new applicant, must not be less than
twenty-one (21) nor more than thirty (30)
years of age
50. Inspector Bruno joined the Philippine
National Police on October 5, 1988.
Nevertheless, he want to pursue his career as
embalmer, he decided to file an optional
retirement so that he could enjoy benefits of the
gratifying PNP which he served with extreme
commitment and loyalty. When does Bruno can
retire?
A. October 5, 1998 C. October 6, 1999
B. September 5, 2010 D. September
5, 2008
51. Which of the following administrative
penalties is immediately executory?
A. Dismissal C. Forfeiture
of pay
B. Suspension D. Death penalty
52. What is the Appropriate Training Course is
needed to be promoted to SPOIV?
A. Officers Candidate Course
B. Senior Leadership Course
C. Junior Leadership Course
D. Public Safety Basic Recruit Course
 SLC- SPOII to SPOIII
 JLC – POIII to SPOI
 PSBRC – POI to POII
53. The head of the National Capital Regional
Police Office shall assume the position of NCR
director with the rank of:
A. Chief Superintendent C. Director
B. Superintendent D.
C/Inspector
 Regional Director -with the rank of Chief
Superintendent
 Provincial Director -with the rank of
Senior Superintendent
 NCR District Director -with the rank of
Chief Superintendent
 Chief of Police – with the rank of Chief
Inspector
54. Under the waiver program, who among the
following PNP applicants is the least priority for
appointment?
A. Jude who just earned 72 units in
college
B. Renz who is under height
C. Justine who is underweight
D. Philip who is overage
55. Republic Act 6975 is otherwise known
as____________.
A. Department of Interior and Local
Government Act of 1990
B. Department of the Interior and Local
Government Act of 1990
C. Department of Interior and the Local
Government Act of 1990
D. Department of the Interior and the Local
Government Act of 1990
56. The following are the component agencies
that compose the Philippine National Police
(Sec. 23, RA 6975).
a. NARCOM civilian personnel;
b. Coast Guards;
c. Philippine Constabulary;
d. Philippine Air Force Security Command; and
e. National Action Committee on Anti-
Hijacking.
A. a, c, d, e C. b, a, e, c
B. e, b, a, d D. a, b, c, d, e
57. SPO4 Nonito Pacquiao receives 27, 690.00
base pay since he was promoted. After five
years from promotion, what would be his
monthly base pay after adding his longevity
pay?
A. 32, 690.00 C. 37,
690.00
B. 30, 459.00 D. 31,
549.00
58. Decisions rendered by the national IAS shall
be appealed to the__________:
A. Regional Appellate Board
B. National Appellate Board
C. People’s Law Enforcement Board
D. National Police Commission
 National Appellate Board - shall decide
cases on appeal from decisions rendered by
the PNP Chief and the IAS.
 Regional Appellate Board - shall decide
cases on appeal from decisions rendered by
the RD, PD, COP, the city or municipal
mayor and the PLEB except decision on
suspension.
NOTE:
 The PLEB decision of the suspension is
final and cannot be appealed.
 The decision of dismissal by either PLEB or
Regional Director is final and executory but
subject to appeal to RAB.
 Decision of Chief of Police is appealable
within 10 days to Provincial Director, upon
receipt of decision.
 Decision of Provincial Director is appealable
within 10 days to Regional Director, upon
receipt of decision.
 Decision of Regional Director is appealable
within 10 days to Chief, PNP upon receipt of
decision.
 The decisions of COP, PD, and RD are from
those cases concerning internal discipline.
 Cases involving internal discipline filed
with the Chief, PNP originally, the
decision is appealable to NAB which
decision is Final.
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 Motion for Reconsideration is only allowed
ONCE.
59. Who shall administer the entrance and
promotional examinations for police officers on
the basis of the standards set by the
Commission as amended by RA 8551?
A. PLEB C. CSC
B.PRC D. NAPOLCOM
 Police Entrance Examination – taken by
applicants of the PNP
 Police Promotional Examinations – taken
by in-service police officers as part of the
mandatory requirements for promotion
NOTE: Police officers, who are Licensed
Criminologists, no longer need to take the
Police Promotional Examinations as part of the
requirements for promotion. As PRC Board
Passers, they have already complied with the
eligibility requirement.
60. SPOIV Rudolf Tocsin is set to be promoted, if
he is promoted who has the appointing
authority?
A. Regional Director or office of the PNP for
the national headquarters personnel
attested by the Civil Service Commission.
B. Chief PNP, recommended by
immediate superiors and attested
by the Civil Service Commission.
C. President, upon recommendation of Chief
PNP, endorsed by the Civil Service and
subject to confirmation by the
Commission of Appointment.
D. President from among the senior officers
down to the rank of Chief
Superintendent, subject to the
confirmation of the Commission on
Appointment.
Appointment of uniformed PNP personnel
 PO1 TO SPO4 – appointed by the Regional
Director for regional personnel or by the
Chief, PNP for the national headquarters
 INSP. TO SUPT. – appointed by the Chief,
PNP
 SR. SUPT TO DDG – appointed by the
President upon recommendation of the
Chief, PNP, subject to confirmation by the
Commission on Appointments
 DIRECTOR GENERAL – appointed by the
President from among the senior officers
down to the rank of C/Supt, subject to the
confirmation of the Commission on
Appointments
61. It is known as the Professionalization act of
1966.
A. R.A. 4864 C. Act 255
B. Act 175 D. Act 183
 Act No 175 - entitled “An Act Providing for
the Organization and Government of an
Insular Constabulary”, enacted on July 18,
1901
 Act No. 183 - created the Manila Police
Department, enacted on July 31, 1901
Page
 Act No 255 - The act that renamed the
Insular Constabulary into Philippine
Constabulary, enacted on October 3, 1901
62.________ is given to any PNP member who
has exhibited act of conspicuous and gallantry
at the risk of his life above and beyond the call
of duty.
A. Promotion by virtue of Position
B. Meritorious Promotion
C. Regular Promotion
D. On-the-Spot Promotion
 Regular – promotion granted to police
officers meeting the mandatory
requirements for promotion
 Promotion by virtue of Position- any PNP
personnel designated to any key position
whose rank is lower than what is required for
such position shall, after 6 months
occupying the same, be entitled to rank
adjustment corresponding to position.
63. PNP members under the waiver program but
is dismissed for failure to comply with the
requirements can re-apply to the PNP?
A. Maybe Yes C. Maybe No
B. Absolutely Yes D.
Absolutely No
 PNP members under the waiver program but
is dismissed for failure to comply with the
requirements can RE-APPLY provided he now
have the minimum requirements.
64. The reason why police officer appears in
court as a witness has to be in complete uniform
is to show his respect to the court and to his:
A. Position/Rank C. Superior
B. Profession D.
Comrades
65. One having supervisory responsibilities over
officers to the lower rank, whether temporary or
permanent.
A. None C. Superior
officer
B. Ranking officer D. Sworn officer
 Sworn Officer- The term referring to
personnel of the police department who has
taken oath of office and possesses the
power to arrest.
 Ranking Officer-Refers to the officers
having the highest rank or grade according
to their date of appointment to that grade
66. Law that created the Manila Police
Department, enacted on July 31.
A. RA 4864 C. ACT 183
B. ACT 255 D. ACT 175
 RA 4864- otherwise known as the Police
Professionalization Act of 1966, enacted
on September 8, 1966; created the Police
Commission (POLCOM); later POLCOM was
renamed in Act No 255 - The act that
renamed the Insular Constabulary into
Philippine Constabulary, enacted on
October 3, 1901 to National Police
Commission (NAPOLCOM)
 Act No 175 - entitled “An Act Providing
for the Organization and Government of
an Insular Constabulary”, enacted on
July 18, 1901
67. The performance evaluation system is
conducted:
A. thrice a year C. Every 6
months
B. Every 2 years D. Quarterly
 January to June Evaluation Report to be
submitted 1st week of July
 June to December Evaluation Report to be
submitted 1st week of January of the
succeeding year.
68. A PNP member who acquired permanent
physical disability in the performance of his duty
and unable to further perform his duty shall be
entitled to a lifetime pension equivalent to:
A. 50% of his last salary
B. 70% of his last salary
C. 60% of his last salary
D. 80% of his last salary
Retirement due To Permanent Physical
Disability
PNP uniformed personnel who are
permanently and totally disabled as a result of
injuries suffered or sickness contracted in the
performance of his duty shall be entitled to ONE
YEAR’S SALARY and to a LIFETIME PENSION
equivalent to EIGHTY PERCENT (80%) of his
last salary, in addition to other benefits.
Should such PNP personnel die within
FIVE (5) YEARS from his retirement due to
physical disability, his legal spouse or legitimate
children shall be entitled to receive the pension
for the remainder of the five year-period.
69. How many successive annual rating
periods before a police officer may be
separated due to inefficiency or poor
performance?
A. 2 C. 4
B.3 D. 1
Attrition by other Means
Those who have at least five (5) years of
active service shall be separated based on any
of the following:
 inefficiency based on poor performance
during the last two (2) successive
annual rating periods;
 inefficiency based on poor performance
for three (3) cumulative annual rating
periods;
 physical and/or mental incapacity to
perform police functions and duties; or
 failure to pass the required entrance
examinations twice and/or finish the
required career courses except for
justifiable reasons
70. Female detainees shall not be transported in
handcuffs but only with necessary restraint and
proper escort, preferably aided by a police
woman. The statement is-
A. Partially True C. Wholly True
B. Partially False D. Wholly False
71. In this theory, management assumes
employees may be ambitious and self-
motivated and exercise self-control. It is
believed that employees enjoy their mental and
physical work duties.
A. Hawthorne Effect C. XYY Theory
B. X theory D. Y theory
 Hawthorne effect is a form of reactivity
whereby subjects improve or modify an
aspect of their behavior being
experimentally measured simply in
response to the fact that they are being
studied, not in response to any particular
experimental manipulation.
 X theory - management assumes
employees are inherently lazy and will
avoid work if they can and that they
inherently dislike work.
72. The theory X and Y is a human motivation
created and developed by?
A. Giuseppe “Joe” Petrosino
B. John Edgar Hoover
C. Henry A. Landsberger
D. Douglas McGregor
 Giuseppe “Joe” Petrosino - New York City
Police officer, who pioneer fighting
Organized Crime.
 Henry A. Landsberger – coined the word
Hawthorne Effect
 John Edgar Hoover - first Director of the
Federal Bureau of Investigation; he was
instrumental in founding the FBI in 1935.
73. What is the Appropriate Training Course is
needed to be promoted to Senior
Superintendent.
A. Officers Senior Executive Course
B. Officers Advance Course
C. Officers Basic Course
D. Bachelor of Science in Public Safety
 MNSA/Allied MA Degree – Chief
Superintendent - up.
 OAC – Chief Inspector
 OBC – Senior Inspector
 BSPS - Inspector
74. Who among the following have summary
dismissal powers?
A. Chief, PNP C. RD
B. NAPOLCOM D. All of these
The NAPOLCOM, PNP Chief and Regional
Directors have summary dismissal powers in
any of the following cases:
 when the charge is serious and the
evidence of guilt is strong
 when the respondent is a recidivist or
has been repeatedly charged and there
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are reasonable grounds to believe that
he is guilty of the charges; and
 when the respondent is guilty of a
serious offense involving conduct
unbecoming of a police officer
75. If the offense is punishable for a period of
not exceeding 30 days but not less than 16
days, the citizen’s complaint against erring PNP
member shall be filed at the
A. Office of the chief of police
B. PLEB
C. Mayor’s Office
D. any of them
 Chief of Police - for a period not exceeding
FIFTEEN (15) DAYS
 PLEB - for a period exceeding THIRTY (30)
DAYS, or by DISMISSAL
76. Monthly retirement benefits or pay shall be
___ of the base pay and longevity pay of the
retired grade in case of 20 years active service
A. 50% C. 10%
B. 2.5% D. 55%
 Monthly retirement pay shall be FIFTY
PERCENT (50%) of the base pay in case of
twenty years of active service, increasing by
TWO AND ONE-HALF PERCENT (2.5%)
for every year of active service rendered
beyond twenty years.
77. This type of plan is intended for specific
purpose such as drug crackdown, crime
prevention program, or neighborhood clean-up
campaign. It concludes when the objective is
accomplished or the problem is solved
A. Strategic plan
B. Time Specific plan
C. Functional Plan
D. time bound operational plan
 Functional Plan- includes the framework
for the operation of the major functional unit
in the organization Such as patrol and
investigation.
 Strategic Plan - It relates to plans which
are strategic or long range in application, it
determine the organization’s original goals
and strategy.
78. This type of plan is intended to guide PNP
members on routine and field operations and
some special operations
A. Extra Departmental plan
B. Tactical Plan
C. Operational Plan
D. policy or procedural plan
 Extra-Departmental Plans - which require
actions or assistance from persons or
agencies outside of the department
 Operational Plan - often called work plan;
the work program of the field units
 Tactical Plans - concern methods of action
to be taken at a designated location and
under specific circumstances
79. What kind of appointment when the
applicant is under the waiver program due to
Page
weight requirements pending satisfaction of the
requirement waived.
A. Permanent C. Probationary
B. Temporary D. Special
 Permanent – when an applicant possesses
the upgraded general qualifications for
appointment in the PNP
 Probationary- All PNP members upon entry
level, before appointed to permanent status
shall undergo a mandatory 1 Year
probationary period.
80. The institution of a criminal action or
complaint against a police officer is
A. A ground for dismissal
B. Not qualified for promotion
C. Automatically dismiss
D. Not a bar to promotion
 Pursuant to RA 9708, “…In addition, the
institution of a criminal action or complaint
against a police officer shall not be a bar to
promotion
81. Refers to the utilization/use of units or
elements of the PNP for the purpose of
protection of lives and properties, enforcement
of laws, maintenance of peace and order,
prevention of crimes, arrest of criminals and
bringing the offenders to justice
A. Deployment C. Reinforcement
B. Reintegration D.
Employment
 Deployment- shall mean the orderly and
organized physical movement of elements
or units of the PNP within the province, city
or municipality for purposes of employment
82. What is the first step in making a plan?
A. Frame of reference
B. Analyzing the Facts
C. Collecting all pertinent data
D. Selling the plan
83. It identify the role of police in the
community and future condition in state
A. Visionary Plans
B. Strategic Plans
C. Synoptic Planning
D. Incremental Planning
 STRATEGIC PLANS – are designed to meet
the long-range, overall goals of the
organization.
 SYNOPTIC PLANNING (Rational
comprehensive approach) – is the dominant
tradition in planning. It is also the point of
departure for most other planning
approaches. It is base on “pure” or
“objective” rationality and attempts to
assure optimal achievement of desired goals
from a given situation. It relies heavily on
the problem identification and analysis
phase of planning process.
 INCREMENTAL PLANNING – this approach
disfavors the exclusive use of planners who
have not direct interest in the problems at
hand and favors a sort of decentralized
political bargaining that involves interested
parties.
84. The organizational structure of the PNP is
__________.
A. Line C. Staff
B. Functional D. Line and
staff
 Line – oldest and simplest kind; few
departments
 Functional – according to functions of the
organization
85. It is the process of developing methods or
procedure or an arrangement of parts intended
to facilitate the accomplishment of a definite
objective.
A. Management C. Functioning
B. Budgeting D. Planning
86. Refers to any offense committed by a
member of the PNP involving and affecting
order and discipline within the police
organization.
A. Breech of Internal Discipline
B. Citizens Complaint
C. Minor Offense
D. Any of these
 Minor Offense -shall refer to an act or
omission not involving moral turpitude but
affecting the internal discipline of the PNP
 Citizen’s Complaints- pertains to any
complaint initiated by a private citizen or his
duly authorized representative on account of
an injury, damage or disturbance sustained
due to an irregular or illegal act committed
by a member of the PNP.
87. Which of the following is NOT a function of
police personnel unit?
A. Preparing policy statements and standard
operating Procedures relating to all areas
of the administration of human resources
B. Serves as an adviser to the chief and other
line officials regarding personnel matters
C. Conducts exits interviews with resigning
officers to identify, and subsequently
correct, unsatisfactory working conditions
D. Establish a criteria for promotion to
the exclusive ranks
88. It refers to the process of screening out or
eliminating undesirable applicants that do not
meet the organization’s selection criteria
A. Promotion C. Recruitment
B. Transfer D. Selection
 Recruitment – it is the process of
attracting candidates who have the
maximum qualifications to be eligible for the
selection procedure.
89. It is recognized as the best method of filing
A. Pigeon Hole
B. Retrieval operation
C. Records Management
D. Chain of custody
90. It is considered to be the heart of any
identification system; it provides positive
identification of the criminal
A. Arrest and booking report
B. Miscellaneous Records 98. Imports an act of cruelty, severity, unlawful
C. Identification records exaction, domination, or excessive use of
D. Fingerprint Records authority:
A. Misconduct C. Dishonesty
91. The payment of Missing Uniformed B. Incompetency D. Oppression
Personnel’s monthly salary and allowances for
the heirs is for a maximum of how many  Misconduct generally mans wrongful,
months? improper, or unlawful conduct, motivated by
A. 1 year C. 2 months premeditated, obstinate or intentional
B. 30 Days D. 12 months purpose. It usually refers to transgressions
or some established and definite rule of
 Absence Without Official Leave (AWOL) action
- Failure to report for duty without official  Incompetency — is the manifest lack of
notice for a period of THIRTY (30) DAYS adequate ability and fitness for the
satisfactory performance, of police duties.
92. In Supervisory Training, a minimum of _____  Dishonesty — is the concealment or
number of hours of classroom training should be distortion of the truth in a matter or act
required for newly promoted supervisory relevant to one’s office, or connected with
personnel the performance of his duties.
A. 72 hours C. 80
hours 99. The operational support unit of the PNP shall
B. 75 hours D. 85 function as a mobile strike force or reaction unit
hours to augment police forces for civil disturbance
93. It should be proactive, people oriented, control, counter-insurgency, hostage taking,
based on individual need, and delivered in such rescue operations and other special operations:
a way as to motivate the experienced officer to A. NARCOM C. SAF
a higher degree of B. SWAT D. SOCO
professionalism/professionalization
A. Recruit Training 100. The primary objective of Philippine National
B. Specialized training Police:
C. In Service A. Law Enforcement C. Peace
D. Field Training and Order
B. Protect and Serve D. Crime
94. When an officer reaches the time-in-grade Prevention
possessing the entire mandatory and other
consideration in promotion, is what kind of 101. As a General Rule, High powered firearms
promotion? are not allowed to possess except when there is
A. Promotion by Virtue of Position an upsurge of lawlessness and criminality as
B. Regular Promotion determined by proper authority, but shall not
C. Meritorious Promotion exceed ______ of the total number of security
D. Promotion guards.
A. 50% C. 20%
95. It involves assistance and action by non B. 30% D. 10%
police agencies such as Local Safety Council for
Traffic Division, DSWD for Child/Juvenile 102. The vault door should be made of steel at
Delinquency, or Disaster Preparedness plans least __________ in thickness?
and Civil defense plans A. 7 inches C. 9 inches
A. Management Plans B. 6 inches D. 20 feet
B. Procedural plan or more
C. Tactical Plans
D. Extra departmental plan Specifications of Vault

 Doors should be 6 inches thick made of

96. Refers to the distinctive physical device of
steel
metal and ribbon, which constitute the tangible
 Walls, ceilings and floor should be 12
evidence of an award:
inches thick
A. Medal C. Awards
 Floor should be elevated by 4 inches
B. Decorations D. Ribbons
 Not more than 5,000 cubic feet in size
 Award — anything tangible granted to an  Vault door must be fire-resistive up to 4 to
individual in recognition of acts of gallantry 6 hours
or heroism, meritorious service or skill and
103. An act or condition, which results in a
proficiency.
situation conducive to a breach of the protection
 Decoration — a piece of metal/material
system, or that, could result to loss.
representing an award.
A. Hazards C. Human Hazards
97. For every _______ letters of commendation, a B. Natural Hazards D. Security
medalya ng papuri may be awarded to nay PNP Hazards
member: Kinds of Security Hazard
A. Six C. Four
 Human Hazard – is the act or condition
B. Five D. Three
affecting the safe operation of the facility
caused by human action.

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  Natural Hazard – is the act or situation
caused by natural phenomenon, like
floods, typhoons, earthquakes, etc.
104. An inquiry into the character, reputation,
discretion, integrity, morals and loyalty of an
individual in order to determines person
suitability for appointment or access to
classified matter.
A. Local Agency check
B. Background Investigation
C. National Agency Check
D. Personnel Security Investigation
 National Agency Check- It consists of LAC
supplemented by investigation of the
records and files of the following agencies:
PNP, ISAFP, NBI, CSC, Bureau of Immigration
and Deportation and other agency.
 Local Agency Check- Refers to the
investigation of the records and files of
agency in the area of principal residence of
the individual being investigated like Mayor,
Police, Fiscal, Judge.
 Background Investigation – a check made
on an individual usually seeking employment
through subjects records in the police files,
educational institutions, place of residence,
and former employers.
105. The importance of the firm or installation
with reference to the national economy security.
A. Relative vulnerability C. Relative
program
B. Relative criticality D. Relative
security
 Relative Vulnerability – is the
susceptibility of the plant or establishment
to damage, loss or disruption of operation
due to various hazards.
106. Private security agencies have to be
registered with the:
A. SEC C. DTI
B. PADPAO D. PNP, SAGSD
 Trade name of the Security Agencies must
be registered at the Department of Trade
and Industry
107. To deny outsiders from visual access in a
certain facility what must be constructed.
A. Full view fence C. Solid fence
B. Chain link fence D. Multiple fences
 Full View Fence- This is a kind of fence
that provides visual access through the
fence.
108. A private security Guard who is escorting a
big amount of money or cash outside his area of
jurisdiction shall be issued with a-
A. Firearms C. Duty Detail
Order
B. Mission Order D. None of These
109. What is the duration of the Basic Security
Guard Course?
A. 150 Hours C. 48 Hours
B. 72 Hours D. 300
Hours
Classification and Duration Period of
training
 Basic Security Guard Course (Pre-Licensing
Training Course)- 150 Hours
 Re-Training Course- 48 Hours
 Security Officers Training Course- 300
Hours
 Basic Supervisory Course- 48 Hours
 Security Supervisor Development Course
 Other Specialized Training Course
110. All EXCEPT one are the line leadership
staff:
A. Detachment Commander
B. Chief Inspector
C. Post-in-Charge
D. Security Supervisor 1
Line Leadership Staff
 Security Supervisor 3- Detachment
Commander- the field or area commander
of the agency.
 Security Supervisor 2- Chief Inspector-
responsible for inspecting the entire area
coverage by the detachment.
 Security Supervisor 1- Inspector-
responsible for the area assigned by the
chief inspector or the detachment
commander.
111. Barbed wire fences standard wire is
twisted, double strand, 12 gauge wire with 4
point barbs spaces in an equal part. Barbed wire
fencing should not be less than ___ high
excluding the top guard.
A. 8 feet C. 9 feet
B. 7 feet D. 6 feet
Barbed Wire Fences (Semi-Permanent)
Specifications
 Standard barbed wire is twisted double
strand, 12 gauge wires, with 4 point barb
spaced on equal distant part.
 Barbed wire fencing should not be less than
7 feet high, excluding the top guard.
 Barbed wire fencing must be firmly affixed to
post not more than 6 feet apart.
 The distance between strands will not
exceed 6 inches and at least one wire will be
interlock vertical and midway between
posts.
112. Who exercises the power to remove, for
cause, license issued to security guards.
A. Any of these
B. Secretary, DILG
C. Chairman, NAPOLOCOM
D. C/PNP
113. What type of alarm is best suited for doors
and windows?
A. Photoelectric C. Audio detection
B. Metallic foil D. Vibration
Detection
 Photoelectric or Electric Eye Device - A
light beam connected by a wire to control
 station and when an intruder crosses the
beam he breaks the contact with the
photoelectric coil which thus activates the
alarm.
 Audio Detection Device - It is a
supersensitive microphone speaker sensor
that is installed in walls, ceilings, and floors
of the protected area, Any sound caused by
attempted forced entry is detected by file
censor.
 Vibration detection device - Any
vibration caused by attempted force entry is
detected by the sensor.
114. Is the process of conducting physical
examination to determine compliance with
establishment security policies and procedures?
A. Security Education C. Security
Inspection
B. Security Planning D. Security Survey
Security Planning- Is a corporate and
executive responsibility. It involves knowing the
objectives of the security and the means and
the method to reach those objectives or goal
must then evolve.
 Security Survey- Is the process of
conducting an exhaustive physical
examination and thorough inspection of all
operation system and procedures of a
facility
 Security Education - The basic goal is to
acquaint all the employees the justification
behind the security measures and to insure
cooperation at all times.
115. What is the last phase of Security
Education?
A. Initial Interview C.
Conference
B. Dissemination D. Security
promotion
Phases of Security Education
 Initial Interview
 Training Conference
 Refresher Conference
 Security Reminders
 Security Promotion
 Special Interview
 Debriefing
116. A mechanical, electrical, hydraulic or
electronic device designed to prevent entry into
a building, room container, or hiding place, and
to prevent the removal of items without the
consent of the owner
A. Padlocks C. Code Operated
B. Locks D. Combination
Locks
 Padlock- A portable and detachable lock
having or sliding hasp which passes through
a staple ring or the like and is then made
fast or secured.
 Code-Operated Locks - They are open by
pressing a series of numbered buttons in the
proper sequence.
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 Combination Locks - A lock that requires
manipulation of dials according to a
predetermined combination code of
numbers or letters
117. A type of protective alarm system where
the protective alarm located outside the
installation.
A. Local Alarm system C. Central
Station System
B. Auxiliary System D. Proprietary
 Local Alarm by chance System - This is a
local alarm in which a siren or bell is
sounded with no predicable Response.
 Auxiliary System - In this system
installation circuits are led into local police
or fire department by lease telephone line
 Proprietary System - It is the same as the
central station system except that it is
owned by, operated and located in the
facility
118. In which the badge or pass coded for
authorization to enter specific areas issued to
an employees who keeps it in the possession
until his authorization is change or until he
terminates.
A. Single Pass C. Pass exchange
system
B. Visitors pass system D. Multiple Pass
System
 Pass Exchange System- Which he
exchange one-color coded pass at the
entrance to the controlled area is issued to
an employee who keeps it in his possession
until his authorization or until he terminates.
 Multiple Pass System- Multiple copies of
passes are issued to an individual with the
same photograph. The individual exchange
his badge for another color or markings at
the entrance. Once inside, if he needs to
enter a restricted area, he exchanges it for
another color acceptable in that area.
119. It is placed on the floor in such a position
that tellers may activate the alarm by placing
the front of their foot to engage the activation
bar
A. Bill traps C. Knee or Thigh Buttons
B. Foot Rail Activator D. Double Squeeze
Button
 Bill Traps - It is also known as Currency
Activation, when currency is removed from
the devices, the alarm is activated.
 Knee or Thigh Buttons - It is installed
inside the deck or teller station so they can
be activated by knee or thigh pressure.
 Double Squeeze Button - It requires
pressure on both side of the device and
therefore the probability of accidental alarm
is reduced.
120. These are wide beam units, used to extend
the illumination in long, horizontal strips to
protect the approaches to the perimeter barrier;
it projected a narrow, horizontal and from 15 to
30 degrees in the vertical plane
A. Fresnel Lights C.
Floodlights
Page
 B. Street Lights D. Search lights 127. Vaults are storage devices which are
usually designed to be at least _______fire
 Floodlights - projects light in a resistant.
concentrated beam. Best used in A. 3 hours C. 6 hours
boundaries, building or fences. Otherwise B. 24 hours D. 12 hours
known as reflectorized or spotlight.
 Searchlights - highly focused incandescent 128. A lock which is commonly installed in safe
lamps used in pinpointing potential deposit boxes and is deemed pick proof since it
 Street Lights - produced diffused light is operated by utilizing combinations by means
rather than direction beam. of a dial.
A. None C. Card Operated
121. The following Firearms are allowed to be Locks
issued to a private security guard under normal B. Combination lock D. Disc Tumbler
condition: locks
I. Cal .50;
II. Cal .45;  Card-Operated Locks - Coded card
III. Cal .38; notched, embossed or containing an
IV. Magnum .22; and embedded pattern of copper flocks.
V. 12 Gauge Shotgun.  Disc Tumbler Locks - Also known as wafer
tumbler type, has flat metal tumblers with
A. II, III, IV C. III, IV, V open center fitted into lock case, commonly
B. II, III, IV, V D. I, II, III, used for Automobile Industry which affords
IV, V delay up to 7 to 10 minutes.

122. What is the required capital investment for 129. The maximum number of firearms allowed
organization of private security agency? to possess by a PSA should not exceed by___
A. P 500,000 C. P 1,000,000 units.
B. P 100,000 D. P 50,000 A. 30 C. 500
B. 70 D. 1000
New applicants to operate shall be required to
obtain a minimum capitalization of ONE Use of Firearms
MILLION (P1, 000, 000.00) pesos with a
minimum bank deposit of FIVE  Number of firearms shall not exceed one
HUNDRED THOUSAND (P500, 000.00) (1) for every two (2) Security Guard. (1:2)
pesos in order to start its business  For Temporary licensed, one hundred (100)
operations. guards, an initial of at least 30 licensed
123. One who steals with preconceived plans firearms.
and takes away any or all types of items or  For regular licensed two hundred guards
supplies for economic gain? (200), at least 70 pieces of licensed
A. Normal Pilferer C. Casual Pilferer firearms.
B. Regular Pilferer D. Systematic
pilferer 130. What type of gaseous discharge lamp
emits a blue- green color?
 Casual Pilferer – one who steals due to his
inability to resist the unexpected opportunity A. Sodium vapor lamp
and has little fear of detection. B. Mercury vapor lamp
C. Gaseous-Discharge Lamp
124. The metallic container used for securing D. Quartz lamp
documents or small items in an office or  Sodium Vapor Lamp- Type of Gaseous
installation refers to: Discharge lamp that emit Yellow Light.
A. Safe C. File room  Quarts Lamp- These lamps emits very
B. Vault D. None of these bright white light and instant on almost
as rapidly as the incandescent lamp.
125. Chain link fences must be constructed  Gaseous-Discharge Lamp- it is very
in______ material excluding the top guard? economical to use but for industrial
A. Seven feet C. Four feet security it is not acceptable due to long
B. Six feet D. Five feet time of lighting. It requires 2 to 5
minutes to light.
Chain Link Fences (Permanent Structure)  Incandescent Lamps- These are
Specifications common light bulbs that are found in
every home. They have the advantage of
 Must be constructed in 7 feet material providing instant illumination
excluding the top guard
 Must be of 9 gauge or heavier 131. What type of security deals with the
 Mesh opening must not be larger than 2 industrial plants and business enterprises where
inches personnel, processes, properties and operations
are safeguarded?
126. The following things are used as barrier, A. Personal security C. Operational
which serves as a deterrent to the possible security
intruder in an Industrial Complex, EXCEPT: B. industrial security D. bank
A. Human C. Doors security
B. Fences D. NONE
  Personal Security- Involves the
protection of top-ranking officials of the
government, visiting persons of
illustrious standing and foreign
dignitaries. Also called VIP security.
 Operational Security- This involves the
protection of processes, formulas, and
patents, industrial and manufacturing
activities from espionage, infiltration,
loss, compromise or photocopying.
 School Security- Security involving not
only facilities but also the students or
pupils.
132. The following are principles of Physical
Security, EXCEPT:
A. There is impenetrable Barrier.
B. Surreptitiously and non-surreptitiously
entry.
C. Defense is depth - barrier after barrier.
D. Intelligence requires continuous
security measures.
133. For a Security agency, how much is the
registration fee for each security guard?
A. 2,000.00 Php C. 20.00 Php
B. 50.00 Php D. 100.oo
Php
Payment of fees and licenses
 For Agency
 The sum of two thousand pesos (P
2,000.00) as national license fee
payable to the National Treasurer.
 The sum of twenty pesos (P 20.00) as
payment for registration fee for each
security guard employed.
 For Individual
 One hundred pesos (P 100.00) per year
for Security Consultant,Security Officer
and Private Detectives
 Fifty (P 50.00) pesos per year for
Security Guard payable at the Chief
Finance Office, HQ PNP.
134. Security Clearance is a certification by a
responsible authority that the person described
is cleared to access and classify matters at
appropriate levels. Interim clearance will remain
valid for a period of____ from the date of
issuance.
A. 1 year C. 4 years
B. 2 years D. 5 years
 Final Clearance- Effectivity Five Years
135. The term used in England for lock pickers,
safecrackers and penetrators of restricted areas
or room.
A. Peterman C. Pick Lockers
B. Thug D. Peterpan
136. The tenure of a security guard is:
A. Six Months
B. Co-terminus with the service contract
C. Two years
D. Contractual
137. Which among the following is not an
advantage of a full-view fence, except:
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A. It allows visual access to the installation
which aids the intruder in planning
B. It allows the intruder to become familiar
with the movements of persons in the
installation.
C. It creates shadows which could
prevent concealment of the intruder.
D. None of these
138. Every registered PSA are mandatory to
give surety bond which shall answer for any
valid and legal claims against such agency filed
by aggrieved party. How much is the Surety
bond of PSA with 500-799 guards.
A. 50, 000 C. 150, 000
B. 100, 000 D. 200, 000
 Surety Bond
o Agency with 1-199 guards – P 50,000.00
o Agency with 200-499 guards –
P100,000.00
o Agency with 500-799 guards –
P150,000.00
o Agency with 800-1000 guards –
P200,000.00
This bond shall answer for any valid and legal
claims against such agency filed by aggrieved
party.
139. What type of investigation involves all
aspect and details about the circumstances of a
person?
A. partial background investigation
B. personnel security investigation
C. complete background investigation
D. national agency check
 Partial Background Investigation -
investigation of the background of the
individual but limited only to some of the
circumstances of his personal life.
140. The exposure and the teaching of
employees on security and its relevance to their
work is:
A. Security Inspection C. Security
Education
B. Security Orientation D. Security
Survey
141. It is under physical security which provides
sufficient illumination to areas during hours of
darkness.
A. Protective Lighting C. Standby
Lighting
B. Emergency Lighting D. Moveable
Lighting
 Standby Lighting- This system is similar to
continuous lighting but it is turn on manually
or by special device or other automatic
means.
 Moveable Lighting- This consist of
stationary or portable, manually operated
searchlights. The searchlights may be
lighted continuously during the hours of
darkness nor only as needed, it is just a
Page
 supplementary to other protective or
security Lighting.
 Emergency Lighting- This standby lighting
may be utilized in the event of electric
failure, either due to local equipment or
commercial failure. 149. The extension period for a license to
 Stationary Luminary- This is a common operate issued upon a PSA that lacks the
type consisting of series of fixed luminous required minimum number of guards is:
flood a given area continuously with overlap A. 1 month C. 6
months
142. In order to be qualified as a Security B. 2 years D. 1 year
Consultant, you must have ____ year/s
experience in the operation and management of 150. Which of the following types of lock is
security business. generally used in car doors?
A. At least 5 years C. At least 10 A. Warded lock C. Lever lock
years B. Disc tumbler lock D. Combination
B. At least 1 year D. At least 3 years lock

143. What is the ratio of the security guard to 151. Which among the following aspects of
their licensed firearm is needed after operating Security is the weakest of them all?
for six months. A. Physical security
A. 1:3 C. 1:2 B. Personnel security
B. 1:5 D. 1:1 C. Personal Security
D. Document and information security
144. What type of gaseous discharge lamp is
useful in areas where insects predominate? 152. “There is no impenetrable barrier”. The
statement is-
A. Mercury vapor lamp A. Partially Correct C. Partially
B. Sodium vapor Lamp Wrong
C. Quartz lamp B. Absolutely Correct D. Absolutely
D. Gaseous Discharge Lamp Wrong

 Amber color does not attract insects at 153. It refers to any structure or physical device
night. capable of restriction, deterring or delaying
illegal access to an installation.
145. What is an act governing the organization A. Animal Barrier C. Perimeter Barrier
and management of private security agency, B. Barrier D. Energy
company guard force and government Barrier
security forces?
A. RA 8574 C. RA 4587  Perimeter Barrier- A medium or structure
B. RA 5478 D. RA 5487 which defines the physical limits of an
installation or area to restrict or impeded
146. Wire fencing can be barbed wire, chain link access thereto
or concertina. Chain link are for ______.  Animal Barrier – Animals are used in
partially providing a guarding system like
A. Solid structure dogs and geese.
B. Permanent structure  Energy Barrier – It is the employment of
C. Least permanent structure mechanical, electrical, electronic energy
D. Semi- permanent structure imposes a deterrent to entry by the potential
intruder.
 Barbed Wire Fences (Semi-Permanent)
 Concertina Wire Fences (Least 154. It is normally provided at main perimeter
Permanent) entrances to secure areas located out of doors,
and manned by guards on a full time basis.
147. It is more comprehensive investigation A. Guard Control Stations C. Tower
than the NAC & LAC since it includes thorough B. Tower Guard D. Control Stations
and complete investigation of all or some of the
circumstances or aspects of a person’s life is  Tower/Guard Tower – house-like
conducted? structures above the perimeter barriers.
It gives a psychological effect to
A. Personnel Security Investigation violators.
B. Background Investigation
155. Any officer or enlisted man of the AFP or
C. Partial Background Investigation uniform member of the PNP honorably
D. Complete Background Investigation discharged/separated or retired from the service
are exempted from the requirements of a
148. The unobstructed area maintained on both private detective. The statement is-
sides of a perimeter barrier on the exterior and A. False C. Absolutely
interior parallel area to afford better observation True
of the installation refers to: B. Partially True D. Maybe False
A. Clear zone C .Complimentary
zone 156. The following are the areas to be lighted:
B. Open zone D. Free zone a. Parking Areas;
 b. Thoroughfare; 162. The removal of the security classification
c. Pedestrian Gates; from the classified matter.
d. Vehicular Gates; and A. Segregation C. Declassify
e. Susceptible Areas. B. Reclassify D. Exclusion

A. a, c, e C. a, b, c, d
B. a, c, d, e D. a, b, c,
d, e 163. The form of security that employs
cryptography to protect information refers to:
157. An additional overhead of barbed wire A. Document and information security
placed on vertical perimeter fences fencing
upwards and outward with a 45* angle with B. Operational security
three to four strands of barbed wires spread 6” C. Communication security
apart. D. Industrial security
A. Top guard C. Fence Top
B. Barbed Wire D. None of these 164. The following are exempted from Pre-
licensing training.
158. When are security guards deputized by the 1. Holder of a Degree of Bachelor of Laws
PNP Chief or local mayor to have police 2. Holder of Degree of Bachelor of Science
authority within their assigned area of in Criminology;
responsibility? 3. Graduate of CI Course offered by NBI or
any PNP training school;
A. When there is an employee’s strike 4. Veterans and retired military/police
B. When the company is in retrenchment personnel; and
C. During times of emergency 5. Honorably discharged military/police
D. When there is a crime committed inside the personnel.
establishment
A. 1, 2, 3, and 5 C. 1, 3, and 5
159. It refers to records that are irreplaceable; B. 1, 2, 3, and 4 D. 1, 2, 3, 4
reproduction of this record does not have the and 5
same value as the original.
165. The minimum age requirement for Security
A. Vital Documents Manager or Operator of a security agency is:
B. Important Documents A. 18 yrs. Old C. 25 yrs. Old
C. Useful Documents B. 50 yrs. Old D. 35 yrs. Old
D. Non- Essential Documents
 18 years Old- minimum age
Types of Documents qualification for SG.
 50 years Old – Maximum age
 Class II – Important Documents- This qualification for SG.
includes records, the reproduction of which
will close considerable expense and labor, or 166. The following are the categories of
considerable delay. automatic alarm system, EXCEPT:
 Class III – Useful Document- This include A. Photoelectric C. Electric Eye
records whose loss might cause Device
inconvenience but could b readily replaced B. Audio detection D. Bill Traps
and which would not in the meantime
present an insurmountable obstacle 167. Which of the following is NOT a false key?
 Class IV – Non-essential Documents- A. picklock or similar tool .
These records are daily files, routine in B. A duplicate key of the owner.
nature even if lost or destroyed, will not C. A genuine key stolen from the owner.
affect operation or administration. This class D. Any key other than those intended by
represents the bulk of the records which the owner.
should not be attempted to protect. 168. The Normal weight of a safe is at least:
A. 500 lbs. C. 750 lbs.
160. It is the importance of firm with reference B. 1000 lbs. D. 600
to the national economy and security. lbs.

A. Relative Operation 169. The minimum number of guards required

B. Relative Security for a company security force is:
C. Relative Vulnerability A. 1000 C. 30
D. Relative Criticality of Operation B. 100 D. 200

161. A new Private security agency that has  For PSAs – a minimum of two hundred
been issued a temporary license to operate is (200) and maximum of one thousand
good for how many years? (1,000).
A. One C. Two
B. Three D. Four 170. It refers to a system use in big installation
whereby keys can open a group of locks.
 PSAs with 200-1000 guards – a regular A. Key Control C. Master Keying
license to operate good for two (2) years B. Change Key D. Grand Master
Key

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 Key control- is the management of keys in
a plant or business organization to prevent
unauthorized individual access to the keys.
 Change key - A key to single lock within a
master keyed system.
 Sub-Master Key - A key that will open all
the locks within a particular area or
grouping in a given facility.
 Master Key - A special key capable of
opening a series of locks.
 Grand Master Key - A key that will open
everything involving two or more master key
groups.
171. PADPAO stands for:
A. Philippine Association of Detective and
Protective Agency Operators, Inc.
B. Philippine Alliance of Detective and Protective
Agency Operators, Inc.
C. Philippine Association of Detective and
Protector Agency Operators, Inc.
D. Philippine Agencies of Detective and
Protective Associations Operators, Inc.
Types of Security Guard
 Private Security- A security guard hired by
client belonging to private security agency.
 Government Security- A security guard
recruited and employed by the government
179. What type of controlled area requires
highest degree of security?
A. Limited C. Restricted
B. Special D. Exclusive
 Restricted Area - It refers to an area in
which personnel or vehicles are controlled
for reasons of security.
 Limited Area - It is a restricted area in
which lesser degree of control is required
than in an exclusion area but which the
security interest would be compromised by
uncontrolled movement.

172. It refers to a protection against any type of 180. File room is a cubicle in a building
crime to safeguard life and assets by various constructed a little lighter than a vault but
methods and device. bigger size. One of the specifications of file
A. Physical Security C. Perimeter room should be ___feet high.
Security A. 12 C. 36
B. Operational Security D. Security B. 24 D. 48

173. All EXCEPT one are the qualifications of a Specifications of File Room
security officer.
 Should be 12 feet high
A. Has graduated from a Security Officer  Interior cubage should not be more than
Training Course. 10,000 cubic feet
B. Holder of Masters Degree.  Water-tight door, fire-proof for 1 hour
C. Retired personnel of the PNP or AFP.
181. Concertina wire should be ______ feet long
D. Physically or mentally fit.
and 3 feet diameter.
A. 20 feet C. 40 feet
174. These provides access within the perimeter B. 30 feet D. 50 feet
barrier and should be locked and guarded.
182. What type of security lighting is focused to
A. Gates and Doors the intruder while the guard remains in the
B. Side-Walk Elevator comparative darkness?
C. Utilities Opening A. Controlled lighting C. Fresnel light
D. Clear Zones B. Emergency lighting D. Glare-
projection
175. A fact finding probe to determine a plant
adequacy and deficiency in all aspects of  Controlled Lighting Type- The lighting
security, with the corresponding is focused on the pile of items, rather
recommendation is: than the back ground.
A. security inspection C. security
education 183. What is the system of natural or man-
B. security training D. security survey made barriers placed between the potential
intruder and the object, person and matter
176. What unit of PNP handles the processing being protected?
and issuances of license for private security
personnel? A. Communication security
A. PNP SOSIA C. PNP FED B. Document security
B. PADPAO D. PNP SAGSD C. Physical security
D. Barrier
177. What is the most common type of human
184. The following are the purposes of Security
hazard?
Survey, EXCEPT:
A. Sabotage C. Pilferage
A. To ascertain the present economic
B. Theft D. Subversion
status
B. To determine the protection needed
178. What is the security force maintained and
C. To make recommendations to improve the
operated by any private company/ corporation
overall security
for its own security requirements?
D. None of these
A. GSU C. CSF
B. PSA D. PD
185. License to Operate (LTO) is a License 190. A heavily constructed fire and burglar
Certificate document which is issued by resistance container usually a part of the
____________ authorizing a person to engage in building structure use to keep, and protect cash,
employing security guard or detective, or a documents and valuables materials.
juridical person to establish, engage, direct, A. Vault C. Safe
manage or operate a private detective agency. B. File Room D. None of
A. Secretary of DILG these
B. Chief, PNP
C. Security and Exchange Commission
D. President

186. One of the specifications of a barbed wire 191. Juan Esperanza is a security guard, after
fence is that the distances between strands will his Tour of Duty, what shall he do with his
not exceed _______and at least one wire will be Firearm?
interlock vertical and midway between posts.
A. 3 inches C. 6 A. Return the Firearm for safekeeping in the
inches company’s Vault.
B. 4 inches D. 7 inches B. Turnover to the next security guard
on duty.
187. Clear Zone of _______ must be established C. Bring home the firearms for easy
between the perimeter barrier and structure responses.
within the protected areas. D. Deposit the Firearm inside the drawer of
A. 20 feet or more C. 40 feet or the guards table.
more
B. 30 feet or more D. 50 feet 192. Any physical structure whether natural or
or more man-made capable of restricting, deterring or
delaying illegal or unauthorized access.
20 feet or more between the perimeter barrier A. Perimeter Fences C. Wire Fences
and exterior structure. (Outside) B. Moveable Barrier D. Barrier

188. Which among the following statements is 193. A company owned protective alarm with
FALSE? unit in a nearest police station of fire
department.
A. Protective Lighting diminish A. Proprietary Alarm C. Auxiliary
visibility so that intruders can be Alarm
seen, identified or apprehend. B. Central Alarm D. Security Alarm
B. Protective Lighting makes easier for
guards to identify employees during 194. It is Lighting equipment which produced
night time. diffused light rather than direction beam. They
C. Protective Lighting gives Psychological are widely used in parking areas
fear, which serves as a deterrent. A. Street Lights C. Search Lights
D. Protective Lighting can reduce the B. Flood Lights D. Fresnel Lights
number of stationary guards.
195. PSAs with cancelled/revoked licenses shall
189. The highest rank in security agency cease to operate, and with ____ days after
organizational structure: having been duly notified of such cease
operation order, shall immediately deposit all its
A. Security Executive Director firearms with the FEO.
B. Chief Security Director A. 7 days C. 21 days
C. Security Staff Director B. 3 days D. 30 days

D. Security Staff Director 196. It is a test for safe’ to determine if the

Security Management Staff
 Security Director (SD)-Agency
Manager/Chief Security officer-
responsible for the entire operation and
administration/management of the security
agency
 Security Executive Director (SED) -
Assistant agency manager/Assistant
chief security officer- automatically the
security executive director, assists the
agency security director and takes
operational and administrative management
when the manager is absent.
 Security Staff Director (SSD) - Staff
director for operation and
administration- He is also responsible for
the conduct of investigation and training.
sudden rise in temperature will not cause the
safe to rupture. If the safe can withstand 2000
0
F for 30 minutes without cracking or opening
then it has passed the test.
A. Fire Endurance Test
B. Fire and Impact Test
C. Burning Test
D. Explain Hazard Test
Test for Fire Resistance
 Fire Endurance Test- A safe should not
have any one time a temperature 350 0F.
 Fire and Impact Test- Its objective is to
determine the strength of a safe to resist
the collapse of a building during fire.
197. Services of any security personnel shall be
terminated on the following grounds:

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 1. Expiration of contract;  Target Oriented Patrol - It is patrol
2. Revocation of license to exercise strategy which is directed towards
profession; specific persons or places.
3. Conviction of crime involving moral
turpitude; 203. Barangay Tanod is included in what
4. Loss of trust and confidence; and component of Integrated Patrol System?
5. Physical and mental disability.
A. Fixed Component
A. 1, 2, 4, and 5 C. 1, 3, 4, and 5 B. Auxiliary Component
B. 1, 2, 3, and 4 D. 1, 2, 3, 4, and C. Secondary Component
5 D. Patrol Component

 Fixed Components - include the

198. For every security guard the basic load of different police station headquarters,
their Firearm is- PCP, police visibility points, and traffic
A. 50 rounds C. 30 rounds post.
B. 25 rounds D. Unlimited  Patrol Components - include the air
patrols; the line beat patrols, mobile
 50 rounds- basic load of a firearm patrols and detective repressive
patrols.
199. The following are the specifications of a  Auxiliary Components - include the
Vault: security guards deployed in area, the
I. Walls, ceilings and floor should be 12 inches traffic enforcer, barangay tanods,
thick; volunteers and NGO’s.
II. Not more than 5,000 cubic feet in size;
III. Doors should be 1 1/2 inches thick made of 204. Report prepared by the patrol officer upon
steel; and reaching the end of the line beat, and before
IV. Floor should be elevated by 4 inches. returning to the point of origin.
A. Daily Patrol Report C. Situation
A. I, III, IV C. I, II, III Report
B. I, II, IV D. I, II, III, B. Investigation Report D. Incident Report
IV
Daily Patrol Report – after the Tour of Duty
200. Practical Test or exercise of a plan or any
activities to test its validity. 205. The ideal police response time is:
A. Practice C. Dry run A. 3 minutes C. 5 minutes
B. Rehearsal D. Trial B. 7 minutes D. 10
minutes
201. A fixed point or location to which an officer
is assigned for duty: 206. Persons, Place, thing, situation or condition
A. Post C. Beat possessing a high potential for criminal attack
B. Area D. Route or for the creation of problem necessitating a
demand for immediate police service:
 Route - the length of street or streets, A. Hazard C. Opportunity
designated for patrol purposes also B. Perception of Hazard D. Police Hazard
referred to as line beat.
 Beat - an area designed for patrol  Hazard – it refers to any person, place,
purposes, whether foot or motorized. thing, situation, or condition which, if
 Sector - an area containing two or more allowed to exist may induce an accident or
beats, routes or posts. cause the commission of a crime.
 District - a geographical subdivision of a
city for patrol purposes, usually with its 207. The most expensive patrol method and
own station. gives the greatest opportunity to develop
 Area - A section or territorial division of sources of information is:
a large city. A. Foot Patrol C. Marine Patrol
B. Mobile Patrol D. Helicopter Patrol
202. The patrol strategy which employs bait or
distracter to in order to catch criminals is known 208. Walking closed to the building at night is a
as: tactic in patrol which makes the policemen less
A. High visibility patrol visible during the night. The primary purpose is:
C. Target Oriented patrol
B. Low visibility patrol A. To surprise criminals in the act of
D. Decoy patrol committing a crime
B. To have sufficient cover
 Low Visibility - This patrol tactic is C. To attract less attention
designed to increase the number of D. D, For safety of the Patrol officer
apprehension of law violator to engage in
certain types of crimes 209. The following are included in the cause and
 High Visibility – Marked police Car and effect of team policing.
Poilce inj Uniform. Primary objective is
Crime Prevention. a. Reduce public fear on crime;
b. lessen the crime rate;
c. Facilitate career development;
d. Diminish police morale; and
e. Improve police community relation.
A. a, b, e C. a, b, d, e
B. a, c, d, e D. a, b, c, e
210. This patrol tactic differs from traditional
patrol methods in that patrol methods; patrol
officers perform specific predetermined
preventive functions on a planned systematic
basis:
A. Target Oriented Patrol
B. High-Visibility Patrol
C. Low-Visibility Patrol
D. Directed deterrent Patrol
211. Small alleys like those in the squatter’s
area can be best penetrated by the police
through.
A. Foot patrol C. Bicycle patrol
B. Mobile patrol D. Helicopter
patrol
212. Integrated patrol system is the total
system used to accomplish the police visibility
program of the PNP. The Police officers in Police
Community Precincts render 24 hours duty with
prescribed divisions of:
A. 2 shifts C. 4 shifts
B. 3 shifts D. every other
day shift.
213. The objective of this Patrol is to reduce or
totally prevent the desire of human being to
commit crime.
A. Preventive C. Proactive
B. Reactive D. High Visibility
 Proactive Patrol- Deployment of Patrol
personnel in their respective Area of
Responsibility with definite objectives.
 Reactive Patrol- An old concept in
patrolling wherein officers and units drive
around their area of responsibility waiting
for something to happen or waiting for a
call that they will respond.
214. Bicycle patrol has the combined advantage
of ________________ since they can be operated
very quietly and without attracting attention.
A. Mobility and wide area coverage.
B. Reduced speed and greater area
covered.
C. Shorter travel time and faster response.
D. Mobility and stealth
215. What is the most excellent method of
Patrol in San Juanico Bridge?
A. Foot Patrol C. K-9 Patrol
B. Automobile Patrol D. Bicycle Patrol
216. When was the first automobile patrol
initiated in the Philippines and the First Chief of
the Mobile patrol bureau of Manila Police
Department was Isaias Alma Jose?
A. May 7, 1954 C. May 17, 1954
B. May 14, 1957 D. March 10, 1917
217. As a Patrol officer, when checking
suspicious persons, places, buildings/
establishments and vehicles especially during
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night-time, be prepared to use your service
firearm and Flashlight should be-
A. Nearby the body, to have an easy
searching of a possible target.
B. Tightly away from the body to avoid
making you a possible target.
C. Close at hand to your firearm to threaten
possible adversary.
D. None of these
218. What is your priority as a Patrol officer
when responding to Calls for Police Assistance?
A. Arrest criminals C. Securing
the area
B. Aiding the injured D. Extort Money
219. The following are the duties of Patrol
Supervisors:
Make a patrol plan;
Designate and select the members of the
patrol team/s;
Inspect the members of the patrol on the
completeness;
Render hourly report of location and
situation; and
Resolve conflicts/differences between
neighbours.
A. II, III, IV, V C. II, III, IV
B. I, II, III, IV D. I, II, III, IV,
220. As a rule, moving vehicle shall not be fired
upon, except when its occupants pose imminent
danger of causing death or injury to the police
officer or any other person, and that the use of
firearm does not create a danger to the public
and outweighs the likely benefits of its non-use.
In firing upon a moving vehicle, the following
parameters should be considered EXCEPT:
A. Accessibility or the proximity of the fleeing
suspect/s with the police officer and other
persons.
B. The capability of the fleeing suspect/s to
harm in certainty the police officer or other
persons
C. The intent of the fleeing suspect/s to harm
the police officer or other p
D. The kind of vehicle of the fleeing
suspect/s to avoid traffic accident.
221. When Patrol officer visually observe a
weapon during pat-down search, a more secure
search position may be:
A. Standing position
B. Lying Face down Position
C. Hands placed against a stationary object,
and feet spread apart.
D. All of these
222. All except one are the types of specialized
patrol method:
A. Marine Patrol C. Air Patrol
B. Canine Patrol D. Foot Patrol
Page
 223. A uniformed patrol officers work in
generally judged by his-
i. Knowledge of all problems in the community
ii. Residents developed good public relations
iii. Ability
iv. His capability to solve crimes that happened
in his area
224. Can the Patrol officers disperse unlawful
assemblies?
A. True C. False
B. Absolutely Yes D.
Absolutely No
225. In Police Radio System, What frequency is
needed in the police department?
A. 300, 000 KM per Seconds
B. 30 – 300 MHz
C. Above 30 MHz
D. NONE
 Radio waves- The radio or electromagnetic
waves travel as fast as the speed of light at
186, 000 miles per second or 300, 000
kilometers per second.
 30 – 300 MHz – intended for short
distances transmission.
226. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about
patrol?
A. It is the backbone of the police department
B. It is the essence of police operation
C. It is the nucleus of the police department
D. It is the single largest unit in the police
department that can be eliminated
227. It is usually used for traffic, surveillance,
parades and special events.
A. Random Foot Patrol C. Fixed Foot
Patrol
B. Moving Foot Patrol D. Line Beat Patrol
 Moving Foot Patrol – It is used when then
there is considerable foot movement such
as business and shopping center, family
dwellings and the like.
o Line beat patrol – it is used in
securing certain portion of the road.
o Random foot Patrol – It is used in
checking residential buildings, business
establishments, dark alley, and parking
lots.
228. The following are patrol activities, except:
A. Arrest of alleged criminals
B. Responding to emergency calls
C. Inspection services
D. Preparation of investigation reports
229. This type of patrol maintains better
personal contact with the members of the
community ideal in gaining the trust and
confidence of the people to the police:
A. Horse Patrol C. Bicycle Patrol
B. Automobile Patrol D. Foot Patrol
 Automobile Patrol - It separates public
from the Police.
230. The patrol pattern which is usually done at
the last hour of duty to ascertain that nothing
happened in the area of responsibility of the
patrol officer is:
A. Clockwise pattern
B. Zigzag pattern
C. Counter clockwise pattern
D. Crisscross pattern
 Clockwise Patrol Pattern -
Rectangular/square size of beat; done in the
start of 8 hours tour of duty.
 Zigzag/Free Wheeling Patrol Pattern -
Done by patrolling the streets within the
perimeter of the beat not at random but with
definite target location where he knows his
presence is necessary.
 Straightway and Criss-Cross Patrol
Pattern - Hazard oriented patrol; Easiest to
observe the movement of the patrol officer.
 Cloverleaf Pattern - A highway
intersection designed to route traffic without
interference, by means of a system of
curving ramps from one level to another, in
the form of a Four (4) leaf clover
231. The following are the advantages of Foot
Patrol. EXCEPT:
A. It involves larger number of personnel
B. It develops greater contact with the public
C. It insures familiarization of area
D. It promotes easier detection of crime
232. Dogs are of great assistance in search and
rescue as well as in smelling out drugs and
bombs. What do you call the large dog with
drooping ears and sagging jaws and keenest
smell among all dogs, formerly used for tracking
purposes?
A. German shepherd C.
Bloodhounds
B. Doberman pinscher D. WOLVES
 German Shepherd- the most frequently
used and high scoring dog for police work
 WOLVES (Wireless Operational Link and
Video Exploration System) – It is the
system of attaching miniature camera and
transmitter to a search dog which makes
the dogs the eyes and ears of his handler.
233. The best method of patrol to be done in
sector is:
A. Foot C. Automobile
B. Bicycle D. Helicopter
234. A supervisor’s span of control is usually
computed in terms of number of:
A. Superiors to whom he reports
B. Superiors from whom he takes orders
C. Subordinates directly reporting to
him
D. Any of these
235. Frequent beat changes prevent a police
officer from becoming _______ with people,
hazards, and facilities on his beat.
A. Well Acquainted C. Sluggish
B. Energetic D. Unfamiliar
236. The patrol pattern to be followed after the
clockwise and before the counter-clockwise?
 A. Straightway C. Crisscross
B. Sector D. Zigzag 243. They are considered as the first to utilize
dogs for patrolling:
237. The two-man patrol became_________ due A. Egyptians C. English
to increase attack of police officer by militant, B. Chinese D. American
dangerous section to be patrolled and many
riots demonstration in the street. 244. Psychology of Omniprescense
A. Unnecessary C. Necessary means______.
B. Voluntary D. Redundant A. Low Visibility C. High
Visibility
B . Reactive D. Proactive

245. X wanted to commit suicide by jumping in

238. A police strategy which aims to directly
involve members of the community in the
maintenance of peace and order by police
officers.
A. Integrated Police System
C. Detective Beat System
B. Comparative Police System
D. Community Oriented Policing
System
Integrated Patrol System
 Considered as the best way of immersing
policemen in various activities of a
particular area and to demonstrate to
the populace the commitment of the
Police to serve and protect the
community.
 It is response to the requirement of
Police Visibility.
Detective Beat System - enhancing the
efficiency and effectiveness of the PNP’s
investigation capability
a 13th floor building. Which of the following
should be the first thing to do by the Patrol
officer who first arrived at the scene?
A. Urge no to jump
B. Call nearest relative
C. Clear the area
D. Report immediately to Station
46. What is the most realistic advantage of the
motorcycle patrol over the other patrol
methods?
A. Low cost C. Visibility
B. Speed D. Security
247. 1st Statement- The objectives of Patrol
officers are different from ordinary Police
Officer.
2nd Statement- Patrol is the ears and eyes of
Police Organization.
3rd Statement- Patrol plays a major role in
determining the quality of justice to be served in
a community.
4th Statement- All police function had been
vested to the patrol division.

239. Which among the following routine patrol
duties, is the least likely to become completely
a function of automobile patrol is the checking
of-
A. Security of business establishment.
B. Street light outrages.
C. Roadway defects and damaged traffic signs.
D. Illegal posting of signs and other
advertisement.
240. It is the most disadvantage of fixed post for
patrolmen in areas where police hazards are
serious is that, it usually-
A. Encourages laxness on the part of
Patrolman.
B. Lays the patrolman open to unwarranted
charges.
C. Wasteful of manpower.D. Keeps the
patrolman out of sight or hearing when quick
mobilization is needed.
241. Patrol weaken the potential offenders belief
in the-
A. Opportunity for graft.
B. Existence of an opportunity to
effectively violate the law.
C. Effectiveness of Police Administration.
D. Police bureau’s willingness to use specialized
squads.
242. Team Policing is said to be originated
in________:
A. Aberdeen, Scotland C. Lyons, France
B. Vienna, Austria D. London, England
A. The 1st and 4th statements are correct
B. The 2nd and 3rd statements are correct
C. The 1st and 3rd statements are incorrect.
D. All statements are correct
248. The basic purpose of patrol is most
effectively implemented by police activity
which-
A. Provides for many types of specialized patrol,
with less emphasis on routine.
B. Minimize the prospective lawbreaker
aspiration to commit crime.C. Influences
favorable individual and group attitudes in
routine daily associations with the
police.
D. Intensifies the potential offender’s
expectation of apprehension.
249. What is the new concept, police strategy
which integrates the police and community
interests into a working relationship so as to
produce the desired organizational objectives of
peacemaking?
A. Preventive patrol C. Community
Relation
B. Directed Patrol D. Team policing
250. What is the appropriate patrol method that
is most ideally suited to evacuation and search-
and-rescue operations?
A. Motorcycle C. Automobile
B. Helicopter D. Horse

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 Automobile – To carry an Extra equipment
by the Patrol Officers
251. If the external patting of the suspect’s
clothing fails to disclose evidence of a weapon
the next procedure of the Patrol officer is:
A. Conduct a complete search.
B. The Patrol officer shall arrest the suspect.
C. No further search may be made.
D. Turnover the suspect to the immediate
supervisor.
252. During Civil Disturbances, what may be
utilized when demonstrators become unruly and
aggressive forcing troops to fall back to their
secondary positions?
A. Tear Gas C. Water Cannon
B. Truncheon D. Shield
 Tear gas - may be utilized to break up
formations or groupings of
demonstrations who continue to be
aggressive and refused to disperse
despite earlier efforts.
253. The factors to be considered in
determining the number of patrol officers to be
deployed in an area are the following:
a. Size of the area;
b. Topography;
c. Crime rate and;
d. Possible problems to be encountered.
A. a, c, d C. a, b, d
B. b, c, d D. a, b, c, d
B. III, IV, I D. I, II, III, IV
258. The Purpose of conducting de-briefing after
patrol is-
A. To integrate the police and the community
interest into a working relationship.B. To remind
the patrol on the strict observance of the PNP
Operational Procedures.
C. To assess its conduct and make
necessary corrective measures on defects
noted.
D. All of the Above
259. The members of the Patrol teams shall
form and assemble at the police unit
headquarters at least _______ before the start of
their shift for accounting-
A. 10 minutes C. 1 hour
B. 30 minutes D. 15
minutes
260. The police must make an effort to ascertain
and amaze upon the law abiding citizens and
would be criminals alike that the police are
always existing to respond to any situation at a
moment’s notice and he will just around the
corner at all times. This statement refers to:
A. Police Omnipresence
B. Police Patrol
C. Police Discretion
D. Integrated Patrol

261. A patrol beat refers to a:

254. The patrol strategy which is best on
populous areas such as markets, malls, and A. Number of crimes to be solved
ports is: B. Location of police headquarters
A. Blending patrol C. Reactive C. Number of residence to be protected
patrol D. Geographical area to be protected
B. Decoy patrol D. Plainclothes
patrol 262. Team members of the decoy may dress
themselves in a manner designed to help them
255. Going left while patrolling upon reaching blend the neighborhood where they are
every intersection until reaching the point of deployed.
origin is following what pattern? A. Absolutely False C. Absolutely
A. Clockwise C. Zigzag True
B. Counter clockwise D. Crisscross B. Absolutely Yes D. Absolutely No

256. All but one are the advantages of Bicycle 263. “Personality clash is reduced”, it is the
Patrol: advantage of:
A. Can report regularly to the command
center. A. One Man Patrol Car
B. Can operate quietly and without B. Two Man Patrol Car
attracting attention. C. Foot Patrol
C. C. It is inexpensive to operate . D. Canine Patrol

D. It can cover areas that are not accessible 264. The least desirable of all police shifts due
by patrol cars. to lack of activities:
A. Afternoon Shift C. Morning Shift
257. The following are advantages of the use of B. Night Shift D. None of these
Radio in Police Work:
265. Time between the call of the Police to
I. Simple Installation Process; arrival at the scene of an incident:
II. Cost of transceivers has relatively gone down; A. Response Time C. Call Time
III. The ease in the use of radio equipments; B. Duration Time D. Critical Time
IV. Availability of safeguards in the transmission
of classified operational information.  Response time - It refers to the running
time of the dispatched patrol car from his
A. I, II, III C. II, III, IV
 position where the assignment was received to ascertain that nothing happened in the area
and the arrival at the scene. of responsibility of the patrol?
A. Straight C. Crisscross
266. The percentage of police officers assigned B. Clockwise D. Counter
in patrol is: clockwise
A. 20% C. 40%
B. 25% D. 50% 271. It is a “frisk” or external feeling of the outer
garments of an individual for weapons only.
 Criminal Investigation – 15% A. Frisking C. Search
 Traffic Function – 10% B. Spot Check D. Pat-down
 Vice and Juvenile Related Functions – Search
10%
 Administrative Function – 10%  Spot Check/Accosting - is the brief
 Auxilliary Functions – 5% stopping of an individual, whether on foot or
in a vehicle, based on reasonable
267. Refers to the actual stopping or accosting suspicion/probable cause, for the purpose of
of armed and dangerous person or persons, determining the individual’s identity and
aboard a vehicle or on foot, including the power resolving the officer’s suspicion concerning
to use all necessary and legal means to criminal activity.
accomplish such end.
272. It is one by patrolling the streets within the
A. Dragnet Operation perimeter of the beat not at random but with
B. Hasty Checkpoint definite target location where he knows his
C. High-Risk Arrest presence is necessary.
A. Target Oriented C. Zigzag
D. High Risk Stop B. Clockwise D. Criss-Cross
 Dragnet Operation - is a police
operation purposely to seal-off the 273. Foot patrol is the oldest form of patrol; the
probable exit points of fleeing suspects following are the advantages of Foot patrol,
from the crime scene to prevent their EXCEPT:
escape. A. Easy to supervise and fix responsibility for
 High Risk Arrest - is the actual action taken.
restraint of armed persons following a B. It enables patrol officers to cover a
high-risk stop. considerable area
 Hasty Checkpoint - is an immediate C. Inspire more Public confidence.
response to block the escape of lawless D. The officer can actually get to know the
elements from a crime scene, and is also physical layout of his beat better.
established when nearby checkpoints are
ignored or during hot pursuit operations. 274. The word Patrol was derived from the
French word ________which means to go through
268. Which among the following activities paddles.
during post-patrol or post-deployment phase is A. Patroulier C. Patroul
not included? B. Politeia D. Politia
A. Formation & Accounting
275. The concept of Unity of command is:
B. Inspection & recall of Equipment
A. No one should have more than one
C. Debriefing/Report Submission
boss.
D. Briefing
B. Arrangement of officers from top to bottom.
269. It refers to a computer that is installed C. Number of subordinates that a Superior can
inside a patrol car which allows patrol officer to effectively supervise.
have an access from the Headquarters files and D. Conferring certain tasks, duties, and
other Law Enforcement Agencies which are used responsibilities to subordinates.
in order to expedite their operation.
276. Which among the following Patrol Method
A. Mobile Data Terminal is appropriate when responding to quick
emergency call?
B. Vehicle-Mounted TV A. Motorcycle Patrol C.
C. High Intensity Emergency Lighting Plan Automobile Patrol
D. CCTV B. Air Patrol D. Foot Patrol

 Vehicle-Mounted TV – It refers to a Video 277. The following are the advantages of

Camera which is attached and installed in a Regular post.
patrol car with a high-resolution and wide
I. Patrol officer becomes thoroughly
angle lens.
familiar with the various post
 High Intensity Emergency Lighting
conditions;
Plan – It refers to a heavy duty light that
II. Patrol officer takes more pride and
can provide two (2) million candle power of
interest in improving the conditions on
light.
his post resulting in better public
270. The first organized patrol for policing relations and cooperation from the
purposes was formed in London. This patrol residents;
pattern is usually done at the last hour of duty

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 III. Favoritism will be lessened because of B. Ten thousand times D. Ten
transitory assignments; and million times
IV. The patrol officer moral is enhanced,
since a steady post is an indication of 285. Transfer of knowledge from one person to
public acceptance of his work. another through common medium and channel.
A. Information C.
A. I, II and III C. I, II, and IV Communication
B. II, III, and IV D. I, II, III, and B. Police Communication D. Radio
IV
286. Refers to a location where the search,
278. Detective Beat System is one of the which is duly authorized by the PNP, is
concrete responses of the PNP in reinventing the conducted to deter/prevent the commission of
field of investigation. Who is the NCRPO Chief crimes, enforce the law, and for other legitimate
who introduces this DBS? purposes.
A. Dir. AlmaJose C. Dir. Romeo A. Hot Pursuit C. Public Place
Pena B. Police Checkpoint D. Pre-Determined
B. Dir. Sonny Razon D. Dir. Rene Area
Sarmiento
 Hot Pursuit (Cross Jurisdictional
 Dir. Almajose – First Chief of Mobile Pursuit) - (also termed in the US as fresh
Patrol in Manila. pursuit) immediate, recent chase or follow-
up without material interval for the purpose
279. The type of Patrol which requires special of taking into custody any person wanted
skills and training: by virtue of a warrant, or one suspected to
A. TV C. Air have committed a recent offense while
B. Automobile D. Foot fleeing from one police jurisdictional
boundary.
280. Traditional foot patrolling in the Philippines  Pre-Determined Area - is the specific or
was initiated on: projected spot where the armed and
A. August 10, 1917 C. August 7, dangerous person or persons would pass or
1901 likely to pass and so tactically located as to
B. November 22, 1901 D. March 17, gain calculated advantage against said
1901 person or persons.

287. The advisable cruising speed in automobile

281. In police communication, 10-74 means: patrol ranges from:
A. Negative C. Need A. 20-25 mph C. 60-80 kph
Assistance B. 20-25 kph D. 50 kph
B. Caution D. Unable to copy

Some APCO TEN SIGNALS

288. It is the primary objective of police patrol
 10 – 0 Caution operations:
 10 – 1 Unable to copy/Change Location
 10 – 50 Accident A. Crime Prevention
 10 – 70 Fire Alarm B. Preservation of Peace and Order
 10 – 78 Need Assistance C. Law enforcement
 10 – 90 Bank Alarm D. All of these

282. This patrol tactic would result to  Preservation of peace and order - It
improvement of police omnipresence: is the fundamental obligation of the
Police and it is the most important
A. Target Oriented Patrol function performed by the patrol service
B. High-Visibility Patrol 289. Doubling the level of routine patrol is a
C. Low-Visibility Patrol patrol strategy called:
D. Directed deterrent Patrol A. Reactive Patrol C. Directed Patrol
B. Preventive Patrol D.
283. Police Community Precincts are Proactive Patrol
mandatorily led by an officer with the rank of
_______ with a minimum of 30 personnel 290. If a patrol officer needs to respond to a
including the commander divided into 3 shifts. crime incident faster but undetected, then the
best patrol method that he should employ is:
A. Sr. Inspector or Superintendent
A. Bicycle patrol C. Automobile
B. Supt. To Sr. Supt.
patrol
C. Sr. Supt. To C/Supt.
B. Motorcycle patrol D. Foot patrol
D. C/Insp. To Supt.

284. The smelling sense of dog is up to how 291. In the anatomy of crime, this refers to the
many times more sensitive than human’s sense act of a person that enables another to victimize
of smell? him:
A. One thousand times C. One hundred A. Instrumentality C.
times Opportunity
B. Motive D. Capability
 Motive - It is the basis why the people will
commit crime or it is what induces the
people to act.
 Instrumentality - it is the means used in
executing the crime
292. The factors to be considered in
determining the number of patrol officers to be
deployed in an area are the following, except:
A. Size of the area
B. Topography
C. Possible problems to be encountered
D. Neither of them
293. The patrol strategy which brings the police
and the people together in a cooperative
manner in order to prevent crime:
A. Integrated Patrol C. Team policing
B. Reactive patrol D. Proactive patrol
294. The theory in patrol which states that
police officers should conduct overt police
operations in order to discourage people from
committing crime refers to:
A. Theory of police omnipresence
B. Low police visibility theory
C. Low profile theory
D. Maximum deterrence theory
295. The principle of patrol force organization
which states that patrol officers should be under
the command of only one man refers to:
A. Span of control
B. Unity of command
C. Chain of command
D. Command responsibility
Organization Principles
 Span of Control - refers to the number
of officers or subordinates that a
Superior supervises without regard to the
effectiveness or efficiency of the
supervision.
 Delegation of Authority - is the
assignment of tasks, duties, and
responsibilities to subordinates while at
the same time giving them the power or
right to control, command, make
decisions, or otherwise act in performing
the delegated responsibilities.
 Chain of Command - the arrangement
of officers from top to bottom on the
basis of rank or position and authority
 Command Responsibility - dictates
that immediate commanders shall be
responsible for the effective supervision
and control of their personnel and unit.
296. The elimination of the opportunity of
people to commit crime as a result of patrol.
A. Crime prevention
B. Crime intervention
C. Crime suppression
D. Crime deterrence
297. What type of Patrol method is appropriate
when mobility is needed in small alleys?
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A. Motorcycle Patrol C. CCTV
B. Automobile Patrol D. Foot Patrol
Motorcycle Patrol – mobility in wider area
298. Under the Integrated Patrol System, the
primary objective of patrol activity is:
A. To prevent commission of crime.
B. Integrate the police and the
community
C. Constant and Alert Patrolling.
D. Visibility and Omniprescence.
299. The following are benevolent services
performed by the Patrol officers:
I. Preventing the actual commission of crimes.
II. Rendering first aid for accident victims;
III. Mediate in family quarrels; and
IV. Give relief assistance to disaster victims;
A. I, II, III C. II, III, IV
B. III, IV, I D. I, II, III, IV
300. All but one are the dogs best suited for
police work except:
A. Askals C. Chihuahua
B. Rottweiler D. All of these
301. What law provides for the creation of the
National Intelligence Coordinating Agency?
A. EO 389 C. EO 1012
B. EO 1040 D. EO 246
 EO 389- ordered that the Philippine
Constabulary be one of the four services of
the Armed Forces of the Philippines, enacted
on December 23, 1940
 EO 1012- transferred to the city and
municipal government the operational
supervision and direction over all INP units
assigned within their locality; issued on July
10, 1985
 EO 1040- transferred the administrative
control and supervision of the INP from the
Ministry of National Defense to the National
Police Commission
302. A person who breaks intercepted codes.
A. Crypto Analyst C. Cryptographer
B. Cryptography D. Code breaker
 Cryptography- It is defined as an art
and science of codes and ciphers.
 Cryptographer- It refers to a person
who is highly skilled in converting
message from clear to unintelligible
forms by use of codes and cipher.
303. Agent who is a member of paramilitary
group organized to harass the enemy in a hot
war situation.
A. Guerilla C.
Propagandist
B. Provocateur D. Strong Arm
Kinds of Action Agent
 Espionage Agent- Agent who
clandestinely procure or collect
information.
 Propagandist- Agents who molds the
attitudes, opinions, and actions of an
individual group or nation.
Page
  Saboteur- Agents who undertakes
positive actions against an unfriendly
power, resulting in the loss of use
temporarily or permanently of an article or
others.
 Strong Arm- Agent who is made to
provide special protection during
dangerous phase of clandestine
operations.
 Provocateur- Agent who induces an
opponent to act to his own detriment
304. It is a type of Cover which alters the
background that will correspond to the
operation.
A. Multiple C. Natural
B. Artificial D. Unusual
 Multiple- Includes different cover
 Natural- Actual or True Background.
305. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
i. Intelligence Officer can submit his
information report any time since it is to
processes.
ii. All intelligence information’s are collected by
clandestine method.
iii. Counter Intelligence is not much needed in a
medium size police station.
iv. Patrol Officers can help collect
intelligence information by initiating
good public relations.
306. Wire tapping operations in our country is
strictly prohibited but it can be done at the
commander’s discretion since it tends to collect
intelligence information.
A. Partly True C. Partly False
B. Wholly True D. Wholly False
307. If information comes with a low reliability
and doubtful accuracy, will this information be
discarded or refused acceptance?
A. Maybe Yes C. Yes
B. No D. Maybe No
308. In selection and recruitment of informers
the best factor to be considered is:
A. Age C. Access
B. Educational AttainmentD. Body built
309. It is otherwise known as the “Anti-
Wiretapping Act” which prohibits wiretapping in
our country.
A. RA 1700 C. RA 4200
B. RA 7610
D. CA 616
 RA 1700 – Ant-Subversion Act
 CA 616 - Act to punish espionage and
other Offenses against National Security
 RA 7610 - Special Protection of Children
Against Abuse, Exploitation and
Discrimination Act
310. Security Clearance is a certification by a
responsible authority that the person described
is cleared to access and classify matters at
appropriate levels. Interim clearance will remain
valid for a period of____ from the date of
issuance.
A. 1 year C. 5 years
B. 2 years D. 4 years
 Final Clearance – 5 years
311. How will you evaluate the intelligence
report of Agent Buanko with an evaluation
rating of D2?
A. Completely reliable source – doubtfully true
information
B. Unreliable source – probably true information
C. Fairly reliable source – possibly true
information
D. Not Usually reliable source – probably
true information
312. It is a process or method of obtaining
information from a captured enemy who is
reluctant to divulge information.
A. Wiretapping C. Bugging
B. Elicitation D. Tactical
Interrogation
 Elicitation - The process of extracting
information from a person believes to be in
possession of vital information without his
knowledge or suspicion.
 Bugging - The use of an equipment or tool
to listen and record discreetly conversations
of other people.
 Wiretapping - A method of collecting
information thru interception of telephone
conversation.
313. The term of office of the members of the
PLEB is _______
A. 6 years
B. 3 years
C. 6 years without re-appointment
D. None of the above
314. He directs the organization in conducting
the clandestine activity.
A. Target C. Sponsor
B. Agent D. Support Agent
 Target- Person, place or things against
which the clandestine activity is to be
conducted.
 Agent- It refers to a person who conducts
the clandestine Operations to include
Principal Agents, Action Agents, and Support
Agents.
315. It refers to an associate of the subject who
follows him to detect surveillance.
A. Convoy C. Decoy
B. Subjct D.
Surveillant
 Decoy- A person or object used by the
subject in attempt to elude Surveillant
 Surveillant – is the plainclothes
investigator assigned to make the
observation.
 Subject – is who or what is observed. It can
be a person, place, property, and vehicle,
group of people, organization or object.
316. It is a type of Agent used in collecting
information who leaks false information to the
enemy.
A. Double Agent C. Expendable
Agent
 B. Agent of Influence D. Penetration
Agent
Types of Agent used in collecting of
Information
 Agent of Influence- Agent who uses
authority to gain information
 Agent in Place- Agent who has been
recruited within a highly sensitive target
 Penetration Agent- Agent who have
reached to the enemy, gather
information and able to get back without
being caught.
 Double Agent- An enemy agent, who
has been taken into custody, turned
around and sent back where he came
from as an agent of his captors.
317. It is one of the Functional Classification of
Police Intelligence which refers to the
knowledge essential to the prevention of crimes
and the investigation, arrest, and prosecution of
criminal offenders.
A. Internal Security Intelligence
B. Public Safety Intelligence
C. Intelligence
D. Preventive Intelligence
 Internal Security Intelligence (INSINT) –
refers to the knowledge essential to the
maintenance of peace and order.
 Public Safety Intelligence (PUSINT) –
refers to the knowledge essential to ensure
the protection of lives and properties
318. Intelligence is the end product resulting
from the collection, evaluation, analysis,
integration, and interpretation of all available
information. What is considered as the core of
intelligence operations?
A. Dissemination C. Analysis
B. Mission D. Planning
319. He is regarded as the "Father of Organized
Military Espionage".
A. Alexander the Great
B. Frederick the Great
C. Karl Schulmeister
D. Arthur Wellesley
 Sir Arthur Wellesly- Regarded as the
"Greatest Military Spymaster at All
Time".
 Karl Schulmeister- famous as
"Napoleon's Eye". He was credited for
establishing counter intelligence
conducted against spies.
 Alexander the great - He was able to
identify those disloyal ones by ordering
the communication letters opened and
was successful in curtailing the decline of
esprit de corps and morale of his men.
320. There are four categories of classified
matters; top secret, secret, confidential, and
restricted. To distinguish one against the other,
their folder consists of different colors. What will
be the color of the document which requires the
highest degree of protection?
A. Red C. Black
B. Blue D. Green
 Secret (RED)
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 Confidential (BLUE)
 Restricted (BLACK)
321. What verse of the Holy Bible that includes
the biblical indication of the beginning of
Intelligence?
A. Number 13:17 C. Number
3:17
B. Number 17:13 D. Number
17:3
322. A certain locality is identified to be a major
source of illicit drugs, to resolve this issue
intelligence officer was deployed to live in the
area for a considerable amount of time to find
out the authenticity of such reports.
A. Social assignments
B. Work assignments
C. Organizational assignments
D. Residential assignments
 Work Assignment – getting employed
where the investigator can observe the
activities of the subject at his place of work.
 Social Assignments – Frequent places of
entertainment and amusement habitually
being visited by the subject.
 Personal Contact Assignment – the
investigator required to develop the
friendship and trust of the subject.
 Multiple Assignment – The investigator is
tasked to cover two (2) or more of the above
specific assignments simultaneously, it can
produce extensive information with
minimum expenses but more prone to
compromise.
323. It is a type of intelligence activity which
deals with defending the organization against its
criminal enemies?
A. Line Intelligence C. Counter-
Intelligence
B. Strategic Intelligence D. Tactical
Intelligence
 Line or Tactical Intelligence – it is the
intelligence information which directly
contributes to the accomplishment of
specific objectives and immediate in
nature.
 Strategic Intelligence - This is
intelligence information which is not
immediate operational but rather long
range.
324. What is the evaluation of an intelligence
report which is “usually from a reliable source
and improbable information”?
A. C-5 C. B-5
B. B-3 D. C-3
Page
 EVALUATION GUIDE FOR COLLECTED A. Stake out C. Rough
INFORMATION Shadowing
Accuracy of B. Shadowing D. surveillance
Reliability of Information Source of the Information
Informati CODE: CPPDIT  Surveillance – is the covert, discreet
on observation of people and places for the
CODE: CUFNUR purpose of obtaining information
concerning the identities or activities of
A – Completely Reliable 1 – Confirmed By T – Direct Observation by a subjects.
Other Sources commander or Unit  Moving Surveillance or Shadowing
or tailing – simply the act of following a
B – Usually Reliable 2 – Probably True U – Report by a penetration or person.
resident agent  Rough Shadowing – employed without
special precautions, the subject maybe
C - Fairly Reliable 3 – Possibly True V – Report by an AFP trooper or aware of the surveillance; employed
PNP personnel in operation also when the subject is a material
witness and must be protected from
D – Not Usually Reliable 4 – Doubtfully True W – Interrogation of a captured harm or other undesirable influences.
enemy or agent
330. In the Intelligence function, the black list
E – Unreliable 5 – Improbable X – Observation by a government includes ________ forces.
or civilian employee or official
A. Unwanted C. Friendly
B. Neutral D.
F – Reliability Cannot Be 6 – Truth Cannot Be Y – Observation by a member of Unfriendly
Judged Judged populace
331. They are responsible for foreign
Z - Documentary
intelligence of United Kingdom and it is also
referred as Box 850 because of its old post
office box number.
REMINDER: You should LEARN BY
A. Security Service (MI-5)
HEART this Evaluation Guide
B. Secret Intelligence Service (MI-6)
C. Government Communication
325. It is a form of investigation in which the
Headquarters
operative assumes a cover in order to obtain
D. Defense Intelligence Staff
information
A. Overt operation C. Undercover
UK Intelligence Agency
assignment
B. Covert operation D. clandestine
•Security Service (MI-5 or Military
operation
Intelligence Section 5) – Internal Counter-
Intelligence and Security agency also
326. What is evaluation of the intelligence
responsible for internal Security of United
report gathered by Agent Fukymo Mikuto which
Kingdom.
is “Fairly Reliable and doubtfully true
• Government Communications
information?
Headquarters (GCHQ) - responsible for
A. D C. C-4
providing signals intelligence (SIGINT) and
B. C-5 D. D-5
information assurance to the UK government
and armed forces.
327. The following must be observed during
•Defense Intelligence Staff (DIS) - is a
surveillance:
collector of intelligence through its Intelligence
a. Meet the subject eye to eye;
Collection Group (ICG)
b. Avoid contact on the subject;
c. Recognize fellow agent;
332. Known as the Prussia's "King of
d. If burnt out, drop subject and;
Sleuthhounds" as minister of police he studied
e. Adapt inconspicuous clothing.
the use of propaganda and censorship as well as
A. a, c, d C. b, d, e utilizing statistical intelligence accounting.
B. b, c, d, e D. a, b, c, e A. Napoleon Bonaparte C. Wilhem
Steiber
328. In surveillance, the following are done to B. AKBAR D. Delilah
alter the appearance of the surveillance vehicle,
EXCEPT:  Napoleon Bonaparte- "One Spy in the
A. Changing license plates of surveillance right place is worth 20,000 men in the
vehicle field". He organized two Bureau of Interest.
B. Putting on and removing hats, coats  Akbar- The "Great Mogul" and wise
and sunglasses master of Hindustan employed more than
C. Change of seating arrangement within the 4,000 agents for the sole purpose of
surveillance vehicle bringing him the truth that his throne might
D. Keep the cars behind the subject car. rest upon it.
 Delilah- A biblical personality who was able
329. A _______ is usually for the purpose of to gain information by using her beauty and
waiting for the anticipated arrival of the suspect charm.
who is either wanted for investigation or who is
333. If the information or documents are
expected to commit a crime at a certain
procured openly without regard as to whether
location.
the subject of the investigation becomes
knowledgeable of the purpose or purposes for
which it is being regarded.
A. Overt Operation C. Surveillance
B. Covert Operation D. Analysis
 Covert Operation – Information are
procured clandestinely
334. Investigation of the records and files of
agencies in the area and residence of the
individual being investigated.
A. CBI C. NAC
B. PBI D. LAC
 National Agency Check- It consists of LAC
supplemented by investigation of the
records and files of the following agencies:
PNP, ISAFP, NBI, CSC, Bureau of
Immigration and Deportation and other
agency.
 Background Investigation – a check made
on an individual usually seeking employment
through subjects records in the police files,
educational institutions, place of residence,
and former employers.
 Complete Background Investigation- it
is a type of BI which is more comprehensive,
that consist of detailed information
regarding the subject.
335. The end product resulting from the
collection, evaluation, analysis, integration, and
interpretation of all available information
regarding the activities of criminals and other
law violators for the purpose of affecting their
arrest, obtaining evidence, and forestalling plan
to commit crimes.
A. Police Intelligence
B. National Intelligence
C. Miltary Intelligence
D. Departmental Intelligence
 National Intelligence- integrated product
of intelligence developed by all government
departments concerning the broad aspect of
national policy and national security.
 Department of Intelligence – the
intelligence required by department or
agencies of the government to execute its
mission and discharge its responsibilities.
 Military Intelligence – refers to the
knowledge by the military institution
essential in the preparation and execution of
military plans, policies and programs.
336. It is considered as the most secured
method of disseminating the information to the
user of classified matters is by means of:
A. Debriefing C. Conference
B. Cryptographic method D. Seminar
337. It refers to the combination of all analyzed
data to form a logical picture or theory.
A. Integration C. Evaluation
B. Recording D. Interpretation
 Recording – is the reduction of
information into writing or some other
form of graphical representation and the
arranging of this information into groups
related items.
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 Evaluation – is the determination of the
pertinence of the information to the
operation, reliability of the source of or
agency and the accuracy of the
information.
 Analysis- This is the stage in which the
collected information is subjected to
review in order to satisfy significant facts
and derive conclusion there from.
 Interpretation- Process of determining
the significance of new information in the
possible alternatives.
338. It refers to the person who conducts the
clandestine Operation.
A. Agent C. Support Agent
B. Action Agent D. Principal
Agent
 Principal Agent- Leader or
management Agent in clandestine
operation usually undertaken by the case
officer.
 Support Agent- Agent who is engaged
in activities which supports the
clandestine operations and or the action
agent in his operations
339. It is claimed that 99% of information is
obtained from conspicuous sources and 1% of
information is obtained from clandestine
sources. Clandestine means.
A. Observable C. Overt
B. Visible
D. Covert
340. An E-3 intelligence report means:
A. The information comes from
completely reliable sources and Improbable
true.
B. The information comes from
Unreliable sources and probably true.
C. The information comes from Fairly
Reliable sources and doubtfully true.
D. The information comes from
Unreliable sources and possibly true.
341. The following are methods of Surveillance
Detection, EXCEPT:
A. Use of Bait and Changing Pace
B. Convoy and Watching Procession
C. Entering Crowded buildings and
concealment to movement
D. Retracting the cause and Window
Shopping
343. The process of assigning higher category of
document or information according to the
degree of security needed.
A. Reclassify
C. Classify
B. Upgrading
D. Declassify
 Classify – Assigning of Information or
material to one of the four security
classification after determining that such
information requires security as
prescribed by PNP regulation 200-012.
 Reclassify – The act of changing the
assigned classification of a document or
material.
 Declassify – The removal of the security
classification from classified document or
material.
Page
  Compartmentation – The granting of
access to classified document or
information only to properly cleared
persons when such classified information
is required in the performance of their
official duties, and restricting it to
specific physical confines when feasible.
345. The purpose of evaluation and analysis is
to determine if the information is true and-
A. Reliable C.
Accurate
B. Correct D. Probably true
347. It refers to a place, building or enclosed
area where police undercover men meet for
debriefing or reporting purposes.
A. Safe house C. Log
B. Live Drop D. Decoy
 Log – chronological records of activities that
took place in the establishment under
surveillance.
 Live Drop- Refers to a place where agents
or informants leave their messages to the
other Agents.
348. It is more comprehensive than the NAC or
LAC, which includes some or all of the
circumstances.
A. National Agency Check
B. Background Investigation
C. Complete Background Investigation
D. Personnel Security Investigation
349. Greeting of Fellow Surveillant is
encouraged. The statement is –
A. Yes C. NO
B. Absolutely Correct D. False
350. What specialist group of CIA that was
established to research, create and manage
technical collection discipline and equipment.
A. National Clandestine Service
B. Directorate of Intelligence . progress of the research and development
C. Directorate of Support
D. Directorate of Science and
Technology
 National clandestine Service
(Formerly known as Directorate of
Operations)- responsible for collecting
intelligence mainly from clandestine
sources and covert action.
 Directorate of Intelligence (DI)-
Responsible for providing timely and
accurate all source of intelligence
analysis.
 Directorate of Support- Provides
everything that the CIA needs to
accomplish its mission.
351. The persons listed in________ are allowed to
enter a certain establishment or building.
A. Access list C. Black
List
B. Blue Print D. Silver
list
352. The deliberate destruction, disruption, or
damage of equipment, a public service, as by
enemy agent or dissatisfied employees.
A. Subversion C. Sabotage
B. Espionage D. None of
these
 Subversion - acts designed to destabilize
or overthrow the authority of a ruling
power.
 Espionage - the secret collection of
information, or intelligence, that the
source of such information wishes to
protect from disclosure.
353. In order to secure the intelligence the
surveillance Operation center, the stationary
surveillance must _________ before leaving.
A. Conduct Surveillance Detection
B. Conduct Debriefing
C. Conduct Post-Surveillance Operation
D. Conduct Interrogation
354. It deals with the demographic and
psychological aspects of groups of people.
A. Sociological Intelligence
B. Economic Intelligence
C. Biographical Intelligence
D. Political Intelligence
 Political Intelligence – deals with
Domestic and Foreign affairs and relation of
government operations
 Economic Intelligence – deals with the
extent and utilization of Natural and Human
resources to the industrial potential of the
Nations
 Biographical Intelligence – deals with
individual personalities who have actual
possession of power
 Geographical Intelligence – deals with
the natural as well as manmade features of
the physical environment of man
considered from the point in view of military
operations
 Scientific Intelligence – deals with the
as it affects the economic and military
potential of a nation.
355. Which among the following principles of
intelligence deemed to be the most important?
A. Intelligence requires continuous security
measures
B. Intelligence and operation are interdependent
C. Intelligence must be available on time
D. Intelligence must be flexible
356. It is the careful inspection of a place to
determine its suitability for a particular
operational purpose.
A. Casing C. Loose
Tail
B. Close Tail D. Stakeout
 Loose tail – employed where a general
impression of the subject’s habits and
associates is required.
 Close tail – extreme precautions are
taken against losing the subject is
employed where constant surveillance is
necessary.
357. In Foot Surveillance, “Call – Off” means
that –
 A. Termination of Surveillance C. Public Safety Intelligence
B. Actual Surveillance D. Preventive Intelligence
C. Stake – out and Pick up of the Subject
D. On target Requirements and Instruction 364. If the information or documents are
procured openly without regard as to whether
358. It refers to the most dangerous type of the subject of the investigation becomes
informant. knowledgeable of the purpose or purposes for
A. Women C. Double which it is being regarded.
Crosser A. Overt Operation C.
B. False D. Anonymous Clandestine
B. Surveillance D. Covert Operation
 Anonymous-Unidentified or unknown
informants 365. Which of the following is the most common
 False Informant- reveals information of reason why an informer gives information to the
no consequences, value or stuff police?
connected within thin air. A. Monetary Reward C. Popularity
 Frightened Informants- weakest link in B. Revenge D. As a good citizen
criminal chain, motivated by anxiety.
 Self-Aggrandizing- moves around the 366. A method of collecting information thru
center of criminals delight in surprising interception of telephone conversation.
the police about bits of information. A. Bugging C. Wire
 Mercenary- Information for sale needed Tapping
something for exchange of information. B. Code name D. NONE
 Double-Crosser- He wants to get more
information from the police more than he 367. Is the condition, situation, and
gives. circumstance the enemy’s’ area of
 Legitimate- operators of business consideration that render the criminal groups
desire to give information for legitimate susceptible to damage, deception, or defeat by
reasons. the police organization.
A. Conclusion C. Capabilities
359. It is the transforming of coded message B. Vulnerabilities D.
into plain text. Evaluation
A. Coding C. Encrypting
B. Decoding D. Reclassify 368. It is the general statement describing the
current police internal defense, internal
 Coding-It is the changing of message development, psychological operation and
from plain clear text to unintelligible form responsibilities of the organization
also known as “Encrypting”. A. Area of operation
B. Capabilities of organized crime
360. After the planning on how intelligence is to C. the crime situation
be collected, the intelligence officer must have D. the mission
thorough knowledge of the __________.
A. The strength of the area where the 369. It is defined as evaluative and interpreted
information will be gathered information concerning organized crime and
B. Where they will be collecting the information other major police problems.
C. Available sources of information A. Military Intelligence C. Military
D The vulnerabilities of the possessor of Information
intelligence B. Police Intelligence D. Police
Investigation
361. He often dresses as a beggar & went to the
street of Rome to gather first hand information, 370. The term appropriate for someone who
he is considered as the greatest military gives information in exchange for a reward is:
strategist. A. Informer C. Informant
A. Alexander the Great C. Hannibal B. Special informer D. Confidential
B. Frederick the Great D. Genghis Khan Informant

362. If information comes with a low reliability  Informants- Any person who hand over
and doubtful accuracy, will this information be information to the agents which is
discarded or refused acceptance? relevant to the subject. The informant
A. Yes C. True may openly give the information
B. No D. False clandestinely and choose to remain
anonymous.

371 Developing security consciousness among

policemen forms part of enhancing _______.
363. It is one of the Functional Classification of A. Line intelligence C. strategic
Police Intelligence which refers to the intelligence
knowledge essential to the prevention of crimes B. counter intelligence D. artificial
and the investigation, arrest, and prosecution of intelligence
criminal offenders.
A. Internal Security Intelligence
B. Criminal Intelligence

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372. It is a type of Support Agent who obtains
money when needed for operational use. 385. Factors to be considered in choosing a
A. Procurer of Funds C. Safe house “Safe House” EXCEPT:
Keeper A. Concealment, Utility, and Suitability
B. Communication Agent D. Surveillant B. Activity of the people in neighborhood and
location of Police Outpost
 Surveillant- Agent who observes persons C. Complete Description of Entrance, Exits and
and places of operations of interest. Escape Routes
 Safe house Keeper- Agents who manages D. Operational Technical Requirements
and maintains a safe house for clandestine
operations like meetings, safe heavens,
training, briefing, and debriefing. 386. Which of the following statement is FALSE?
 Communication Agent- Agent who is A. Classified information must not be
detailed as securing of clandestine discussed with friends and members of
communications. the family.
B. Classified information should be
373. What is the evaluation rating of Unreliable known only by one person.
and Possibly true? C. Cabinets with classified documents must
A. C-2 C. E-2 be secured with padlocks and security
B. E-3 D. C-3 measures at all times.
D. All classified documents must be
374. Phase of intelligence covering the activity safeguarded.
devoted in destroying the effectiveness of
hostile foreign activities and the protection of 387. It refers to the person who conducts the
information against espionage, subversion and surveillance.
sabotage. A. Surveillant C.
A. Passive Intelligence Subject
B. Counter Intelligence B. Interrogator D. Interviewee
C. Line Intelligence
D. Demographic Intelligence  Interrogator- person who conduct
Interrogation
379 All except one are interrelated to one
another. 388. The following are objectives of Casing
A. Fixed Surveillance EXCEPT:
B. Stakeout Surveillance A. Security of an Agent
C. Stationary Surveillance B. Planning for Surveillance and preparation of
D. Active Surveillance Search
C. Suitability of Sites for personal meeting
380. The agent will gain access to the subject D. Verification
by going to the different hang out places of the
subject. 389. The purpose of evaluation and analysis is
A. Social Assignment to determine if the information is true and-
B. Residential Assignment A. Reliable C.
C. Work Assignment Correct
D. None of these B. Probably true D. Accurate

381. A person who informs solely for the 390. It refers to those measures, which seek
pecuniary or other material gain he is to actively to block the enemies’ effort to gain
receive. information or engage in espionage, subversion,
A. Gratitude C. Repentance and sabotage.
B. Remuneration D. Vanity A. Counter Intelligence
B. Passive Counter Intelligence
382. National Intelligence Coordinating Agency C. Active Counter Intelligence
is led by a- D. Intelligence
A. Director C. General
B. President D.  Passive CI Measures – protection of
Director-General classified and sensitive information to the
unauthorized through secrecy,
383. Integrated product of intelligence communication security, and other various
developed by all government departments safeguards.
concerning the broad aspect of national policy
391. All EXCEPT one should be considered in
and national Security.
A. National Intelligence conducting stationary surveillance.
A. Preparation
B. Departmental Intelligence
C. International Intelligence B. Financial Requirement
C. Personnel, Supply/Equipment and Security
D. Social Intelligence
D. Coverage of Operation
384. In Foot Surveillance “Debriefing” means:
A. Actual Surveillance 392. Undercover operation is also known as;
A. Roping C. Bait
B. Collation of Report and Analysis of
Significant Observation B. Clandestine D. Loose
C. Preparation of reports and its submission
D. Observe time
393. It is defined as an art and science of codes  P/D Rodolfo A. Tor – First
and ciphers. Commissioned officer in UN Integral
A. Cryptography C. Mission
Cryptanalysis
B. Decipher D. Coding 403. New York Police Department (NYPD) have
limited jurisdiction on _______:
394. The protection resulting from the A. USA C. New York
application of various measures which prevent B. None of these D. Los
or delay the enemy or unauthorized person in Angeles
gaining information through communication.
A. Communication Security 405. In the etymology of the word police the
B. Physical Security ancient word “Polisoos” referred to a person
C. Document Security who_____?
D. Internal Security A. Enforcing Law C. Civil Policy
B. Guarding a City D.
397. It is a certification by a responsible Citizenship
authority that the person described is cleared to
access and classify matters at appropriate 406. During the middle ages, there were two
levels. guard officer of the kingdom of France with
A. Security Clearance police responsibilities those are the Marshal of
B. Document Clearance France and ________:
C. Interim Clearance A. Constable of France C. Queens Royal
D. Nome of these Guard
B. Scotland Yard D. Constabulary
398. Refers to an attack amounting to actual or
eminent threat to the life, limb, or right of the 408. The typical number of Detectives roughly
person claiming self-defense. ________ of police service personnel:
A. Imminent Danger C. Unlawful A. 75% C. 5 to 10%
Aggression B. 15 to 25% D. 7 to 10%
B. Just Cause D. None of these
409. In USA, FBI only have jurisdiction over
399. The police officer may stop an individual federal crimes or those with an interstate
for the purpose of conducting a spot components. The statement is:
check/accosting only when- A. Correct C. Partially
A. Probable Cause Exist Correct
B . Notion to commit crime B. False D. partly False
C. Rational Grounds
D. Reasonable Suspicion 410. This pertains to all those forms of policing
that, in some sense transgress national borders:
399. X evaluates the information as usually A. International Policing
reliable and probably true. B. Global Policing
A. C-4 C. B-3 C. National Policing
B. B-2 D. C-5 D. Transnational Policing

400. Mossad is the National Intelligence agency 411. In US, he introduced police reforms to
of _____________. include educational requirement for police
A. Russia C. Philippines officer:
B. Israel D. Pakistan A. James Q. Wilson C. Sir Robert
Peel
 Russia - Federal Security Service of Russian B. August Volmer D. O.W.
Federation Wilson
 Philippines- National Intelligence
Coordinating Agency  Robert Peel – Father of Modern policing
 Pakistan - Inter-Services Intelligence System
 O.W. Wilson - responsible in reducing
corruption and introduced
401. Law enforcement in China was carried out professionalism in Winchita, Kansas and
by _______ which developed in both chu and jin Chicago Police Department
kingdom of the Spring and Autumn period.
A. Watch man C. Prefect 412. The motto of Hongkong Police force:
B. Gendemarie D. Constabulary A. Law and Order
B. Knowledge is Safety
402. First Female Filipino commissioned officer C. Serve and Protect
in a UN integral mission. D. We serve with pride and Care
A. P /D Rodolfo A. Tor C. Insp. Anrisa I.
Mitra 413. Where do you can find the so called Police
B. SPO2 Ester A. Marcidas Ombudsman? It’s outside review organization
D. None of these for police officer whose are changed of
committing any form of misconduct:
 SPO2 Ester A. Marcidas – First Non- A. Northern Ireland C. England
Commissioned officer in a UN integral B. China D. Japan
Mission

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414. Throughout the United Kingdom, the rank 425. The police rank in Japan that is called
structured of police force is identical up to the Keishi:
rank of? A. Policeman C. Chief
A. Chief Constable C. Chief Inspector Superintendent
B. Chief Superintendent D. Inspector B. Superintendent D. Senior
Superintendent
415. In USA, what state are among the first to
hire women and minorities as police officer. 426. It is the counterpart of Police Community
A. Massachusetts C. California Precinct in Japan:
B. New York D. A. Keishi C. Koban
Washington B. Omerta D. Keiban

416. In Taiwan police Agency, what is the 427. In Japan it is not considered as a rank but it
comparable rank to inspector or sub-lieutenant? is the highest position in Japan Police
A. Police Rank 4 Organization:
B. Police Supervisor Rank 4 A. Commissioner Secretariat
C. Police Officer Rank 1 B. Commissioner
D. Police Supervisor Rank 1 C. Chairman
D. Commissioner General
417. In Taiwan National Police Agency, what is
the lowest possible rank of its police personnel? 428. The Japan’s Police Organization is headed
A. Police Rank 1 C. Police Officer Rank by a Commissioner General who is appointed
1 by:
B. Investigator 1 D. Constable A. Japans Emperor
B. Prime Minister
418. It is being acknowledge by Federal Bureau C. National Public Safety Commission
Investigation and INTERPOL to be the “Asia’s D. Japan Commission
Finest” police force and in having, set up the
foundation for the social stability of Hong Kong 429. The lowest rank in Singapore Police Force:
and has won a good reputation as one of the A. Junsa C. Constable
safety cities in the world. B. Sergeant D. Police
A. Philippine National Police Officer
B. Hong Kong Police Force 430. Irish Police are called:
C. Japan Police Department A. Militsiya C.
D. National Police Agency Constable
B. Police Force D. Garda Socha
419. It is the highest possible rank in Australia
Police Force: 431. The following are the language of
A. Commissioner General C. Director communication used by the Gen. Secretariat:
General a. French;
B. Commissioner D. Director b. Mandarin;
c. English;
 Director General – Philippine National d. Arabic; and
Police e. Spanish.
 Director – BJMP and BFP
 Commissioner General - highest position A. b, c, d, e C. d, a, c, e
in Japan Police Organization B. c, d, e D. a, b, c, d, e

420. The code of secrecy of Mafia: 432. It States that the yardstick of police
A. Omerta C. Morse proficiency relies on the absence of crime.
B. Nostra Compra D. Cosa Nostra A. Home rule C. Continental
B. Old police service D. Modern police
421. INTERPOL stands for: service
A. International Police 433. The first secretary general of the Interpol.
B. International Organization of Police A. Oskar Dressler C. Ronald K.
C. International criminal Organization Noble
D. International Criminal Police B. Johann Schober D. Aberdeen
Organization Scotland
422. The supreme governing body of the
Johann Schober - The first president of the
INTERPOL is the:
Interpol
A. Executive Assembly C. Major Assembly
B. National Assembly D. General
435. Group of highly specialized armed men
Assembly
who inflict fear and uses violence to accomplish
their objectives with a usual international scope
423. The general Secretariat office of the
of activity.
INTERPOL is run by the:
A. Organized Crime
A. Director General C. Supervisor
B. Transnational Crime
B. Inspector General D. Secretary
C. Transnational Organized crime
General
D. Terrorist
  Organized Crime - Group activities of
three or more persons, with hierarchical
links or personal relationships, which
permits their leaders to earn profits or
control territories or markets, internal or
foreign, by means of violence,
intimidation or corruption, both in
furtherance of criminal activity and to
infiltrate the legitimate economy.
 Transnational Crime - a continuing
illegal activity of group of person which is
primarily concerned with the generation
of profits, irrespective of national
boundaries as a result of globalization.
 Transnational Organized crime - is a
crime perpetuated by organized criminal
group which the aim of committing one
or more serious crimes or offenses in
order to obtain directly or indirectly, a
financial or other material benefits
committed through crossing of borders
or jurisdictions
436 Is the terrorist group which was founded by
Osama Bin Laden in 1980?
A. Al Qaeda C. Jihad
B. Mafia D. Nuestra Costra
 Mafia – is a term used to describe a
number of criminal organizations
around the world.
 Jihad - refers to the holy war by
members of the Islamic religion against
the Jews
438. It is the category of terrorist organization
which is aimed in achieving political autonomy
or religious freedom.
A. Revolutionary C. Separalist
B. Ethnocentric D. Political
 Ethnocentric - is the category of
terrorist organization which is aimed at
establishing a dominant or superior race
that will be looked upon by the entire
populace in the world.
 Revolutionary - is the category of
terrorist group which is dedicated to
overthrow an established order and
replacing it with a new political or social
structure.
 Political - is the category of terrorist
group which aims in restructuring the
society.
 Nationalistic - those who commit acts
of violence due to their loyalty or
devotion to their country.
439. It is the anchor of the investigation of all
crimes committed via the internet:
A. Dynamic IP Address
B. Internet Protocol Address
C. Static IP Address
D. Website
 ISP – stands for Internet Service
Provider. It provides internet service to
internet users.
 IP Address – series of numbers
assigned by an Internet Service Provider
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to an internet user when it connects to
the Internet
 Dynamic IP Address – a type of IP
Address that changes every time the
internet user accesses his Internet
Service Provider. It is usually assigned to
dial-up or base speed broadband service
subscribers
 Static IP Address – a type of IP Address
that is constant regardless of the time or
number of attempts the internet user
accesses the internet. It is usually
assigned to High-Speed Internet Users.
 Website – a portfolio of a person /
organization / entity / company which is
posted on the Internet for accessibility
worldwide.
440. It is the act of illegally accessing the
computer system or network of an individual,
group or business enterprise without the
consent of the party’s system:
A. Computer Fraud C. Hacking
B. Cracking D. Theft
 Hacking - is the act of illegally
accessing the computer system/network
of an individual, group or business
enterprise without the consent or
approval of the owner of the system.
 Cracking - is a higher form of hacking in
which the unauthorized access
culminates with the process of defeating
the security system for the purpose of
acquiring money or information and/or
availing of free services
441. It refers to a Code written with the
intention of replicating itself.
A. Trojan Horse
C. Worm
B. Logic Bomb
D. Computer Virus
 Worm spread itself to other computers
without needing to be transferred as part
of a host.
 Trojan horse - is a file that appears
harmless until executed. Trojan horses do
not insert their code into other computer
files
 Logic bomb - a set of instructions
secretly inserted into a program that is
designed to execute if a particular
program is satisfied.
442. It is a center created by Executive Order
No. 62 to establish a shared database among
concerned agencies for information on
criminals, methodologies, arrests and
convictions on transnational crime
A. Philippine Center on Transnational
Crimes (PCTC)
B. National Commission on Anti Hijacking
(NACAH)
C. International Criminal Police Organization
(ICPO)
D. Philippine National Police (PNP)
443. An order strengthening the operational,
administrative and information support system
of the PCTC. Under this EO, the centre shall
Page
exercise general supervision and control over A. Retirement in the next higher grade
NACAHT, ICPO, PNP or DILG B. Compulsory retirement
A. EO 100 C. EO 465 C. Early retirement program
B. EO 465 D. EO 789 D. Optional Retirement

444. Considered as the major concerns of the
PCTC, EXCEPT:
A. Information Exchange
B. Strategic studies and capacity building
C. Law enforcement coordination
D. none of these
452. It is a part of the PNP but enjoining an
independence from the PNP. It has an
investigative and adjudicatory power over PNP
members.
A. Internal Affairs Service
B. National Police Commission
C. People’s Law Enforcement Board
D. National Appellate Board

445. A decree codifying the law on 453. In police operational planning the use of
Illegal/unlawful Possession, manufacture, the wedge, squad diagonal or deployed line
Dealing in, acquisition or disposition of firearms, would be probable used for:
ammunitions or explosions A. Arm confrontation C. Relief Operation
A. RA 9165 C. RA B. Civil Disturbance D. VIP Security
9372
B. RA 8294 D. RA 453. Organized in 1712 for the purpose of
8792 carrying the regulations of the Department of
State; this was armed and considered as the
mounted police.
 RA 8792 - Electronic Commerce Act A. Carabineros De Seguridad Publica
 R.A. 9165 – Comprehensive Dangerous B. Guadrilleros
Drug Act of 2002 C. Guardia Civil
 RA 9372 - Human Security Act of 2007 D. Metropolitan Police Force
 PD 1866 as amended by RA 8294 -
Illegal Possession of Firearms and 454. What is the appropriate training course for
Explosive POIII to SPOI?
 RA 9745 - Anti-Torture Law of 2009 A. Officers Senior Executive Course
 RA 9995 - Anti-Photo and Video B. Officer Basic Course
Voyeurism Act of 2009 C. Senior Leadership Course
 RA 9775 - Anti-Child Pornography Act of D. Junior Leadership Course
2009
 RA 10088 - Anti-Cam cording Act of 455. Reasons for suspension or withdrawal of
2010 deputation of local chief executives as
representative of the NAPOLCOM:
446. What is the highest rank of police officer in I. Repeated unauthorized absences;
Japan? II. Abuse of authority;
A. KEISHI SOKAN C. KEISHI SO III. Habitual tardiness;
B. KEISHI KAN D. KEIBU-HO IV. Providing material support to criminals; and
V. Engaging in acts inimical to national security.
447. The founder of the Texas Rangers and
known to be the “Father of Texas”. A. I, II, III, V C. II, V, IV, I
A. Stephen Austin C. Vernon B. I, II, IV, III D. I, II, III, IV,
Knell V
B. Dave Batista D. Johann Schober
449. The following have summary dismissal 456. Planning for emergencies of a specific
powers over errant police members. nature at known locations.
a. District Director; A. Functional Plan C. Time Specific
b. Chief of Police; Plans
c. Regional Director; B. Tactical Plans D.
d. Chief, PNP; Operational Plans
e. PLEB; and
f. NAPOLCOM. 457. A retired PNP uniformed personnel can get
the lump sum of his retirement benefits for the
A. a, b, d, f C. c, d, f period of the first _____.
B. b, d, e D. a, c, e, f A. 10 years C. 5 years
B. 6 years D. 2 years
450. Amado Perez joined the PNP in 1996. She
was 29 years old then. What year will Amado 458. Specific Qualifications may be waived like
will retire? Age, Height, Weight and Education, only when
A. 2016 C. 2023 the number of qualified applicants falls below
B. 2012 D. 2031 the minimum annual quota. Appointment status
under a waiver program is ________.
451. It refers to a kind of retirement where PNP A. Temporary C. Probationary
commissioned and non-commissioned officer B. Permanent D. Regular
may retire and be paid separation benefits
corresponding to a position two ranks higher 459. No officer who has retired or is retirable
than his/her rank: within _______ from his compulsory retirement
age be appointed as chief of the PNP.
 A. Three months C. Six months B. Staff function D. Auxiliary
B. One year D. Two years function

460. __________ is given to any PNP member who 468. The planning responsibility of the PNP chief
has exhibited act of conspicuous and gallantry and other high ranking PNP officials is known as:
at the risk of his life above and beyond the call A. Broad external policy planning
of duty. B. Incremental planning
A. Meritorious Promotion C. Internal policy planning
B. Special Promotion D. Radical planning
C. Regular Promotion
D. On-the-Spot Promotion 469. Refers to the actual restraint of armed
persons following a high-risk stop.
461. Which among the following has no A. Dragnet Operation C. Hasty
promotional authority over the members of the Checkpoint
PNP? B. High -Risk Arrest D. High Risk
A. Deputy Director General Stop
B. Director General
C. President of the Philippines
D. Regional Director  Dragnet Operation - police operation
intentionally to seal-off the probable exit
462. The establishment of a formal structure of points of fleeing suspects from the crime
authority through which works and divisions are scene to prevent their escape.
arranged, defined and coordinated refers to:  Hasty Checkpoint - is an immediate
A. Planning C. response to block the escape of lawless
Organizing elements from a crime scene, and is also
B. Staffing D. Directing established when nearby checkpoints are
ignored or during hot pursuit operations.
463. In regard to the police planning function, it  High Risk Stop - actual stopping of
may be said that: armed and dangerous persons, aboard a
A. Planning is essentially order giving. vehicle or on foot, including the power to
B. Planning is essentially decision making use all necessary and legal means to
in advance of action. accomplish such end.
C. Policemen must plan carefully than their
supervisors. 470. Maximum period wherein a police officer
D. The higher the job in the organization, the may be suspended from service by the Chief
shorter the time-lag between planning PNP:
and execution. A. 180 days C. 60 days
B. 90 days D. 30 days
464. The National Bureau of Investigation, was
patterned by the Federal Bureau Investigation, it Disciplinary Authorities for Breach of
was organized by R.A. 157. What law Internal Discipline
reorganized the NBI?
A. R.A 9708 C. R.A  Chief of Police- NOT EXCEEDING
FIFTEEN (15) DAYS
6040
B. R.A. 2678 D. R.A.  Provincial Directors- NOT
EXCEEDING THIRTY (30) DAYS
9262
 Regional Director- NOT EXCEEDING
SIXTY (60) DAYS
465. The IAS can recommend promotion of the
members of the PNP or the assignment of PNP
471. The IAS can recommend promotion of the
personnel to any key position. The statement is: members of the PNP or the assignment of PNP
A. Partly True C. Partly False
personnel to any key position. The statement is-
B. Absolutely True D. A. YES C. NO
Absolutely False
B. Wholly Correct D. Wholly
False
466. The following are the offenses for which a
member of the PNP may be charged 472. Who has the disciplinary authority in
administratively:
citizen’s complaint when the penalty imposed is
I. Oppression; not exceeding fifteen (15) days?
II. Misconduct;
A. City/Municipal Mayor C. Chief of Police
III. Neglect of Duty; B. Provincial Director D. PLEB
IV. Violation of law; and
V. Incompetence.  City/Municipality Mayors- not less
than SIXTEEN but not exceeding
A. I, II, IV, V C. I, II, III, IV THIRTY (30) DAYS
B. V, II, III, I D. IV, III,  People’s Law Enforcement Board
IV, I, II (PLEB)- exceeding THIRTY (30)
DAYS, or by DISMISSAL
467. The police function in which patrol belong
is: 473. The law that governs the Code of Conduct
A. Line function C. Administrative and Ethical Standards for officials and
function employees of the Government – National or
Local.

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 A. R.A. 7160 C. R.A. 7610 monthly base pay after adding his longevity
B. R.A. 6713 D. R.A. 9263 pay?
A. 21, 857.00 C. 19,
 RA 7160 – Local Government Code 970.00
 RA 7610 - Special Protection of Children B. 24, 870.00 D. 31,
against Abuse, Exploitation and 549.00
Discrimination
 RA 9263 – BFP and BJMP 481. If the police plan of Municipality X can
Professionalization Act of 2004 carry out the purpose or goal of the police
station then the plan is considered_______.
474. How vacancy filled up in the commission, A. Feasible C. Acceptable
except through expirations of term? B. Suitable D. Adaptable
A. It shall be filed up for the unexpired term only
with the capacity for regular appointment 482. The PNP Internal Affairs Service is headed
for another full term. by a police officer with the rank of __________
B. It shall be filed up for the unexpired and a designation as Inspector-General.
term only without re appointment. A. Deputy Director General C. General
C. It shall be filed up by another person with full B. Director D.
term C/Superintendent
D. None of these
483. The shift that receives most of the call of
the public which are directly related to police
function, it is considered as the busiest among
475. Under the police reform and reorganization them all.
law, a Field training Program for all PNP A. Afternoon shift C.
uniformed members is required for permanency Day shift
of their appointment consisting of 12 months. B. Midnight shifts D. Night Shift
Basic areas of actual experience and
assignment during this period shall be on:  Night Shift – Least Desirable shift
A. Patrol, traffic and investigation
B. Patrol, investigation and Intelligence 484. If we are seeking for an arrest of wanted
C. Patrol, Public Relations and auxiliary services person with a view to extradition.
D. Traffic, investigation and Intelligence A. Blue Notice
C. Red Notice
476. Based on NAPOLCOM MC# 95-013, the B. Black Notice
following are the factors considered in D. Purple Notice
promotion:
a. Educational Attainment; Types of Notice by INTERPOL
b. Personality traits;  Yellow Notice- To help locate missing
c. Potential; persons, often minors, or to help identify
d. Service reputation; and persons who are unable to identify
e. Physical Fitness. themselves.
 Blue Notice- To locate, identify or obtain
A. a, c, d, e C. b, e, c, a information on a person of interest in a
B. d, b, c, a D. a, b, c, d, e criminal investigation.
 Black Notice- To seek information on
477. At 48 years old, Supt. Andres Matapang is unidentified bodies.
due to be promoted. Who has the authority to  Green Notice- To warn about a person's
promote him to his next rank? criminal activities if that person is
A. Chief, PNP C. CSC considered to be a possible threat to
B. Secretary, DILG D. President public safety.
 Orange Notice- To warn of an event, a
478. Fr. Bogart Roman was born on December person, an object or a process
11, 1964; He opted to join the Philippine representing an imminent threat and
National Police in March 1999. Is he qualified to danger to persons or property.
join the PNP?  Purple Notice- To provide information
A. Yes C. Wholly True on modi operandi, objects, devices and
B. No D. Wholly False concealment methods used by criminals.

479. In times of war or other national
emergency declared by the Congress the
President may extend such term of office from
__________________depending on the gravity of
the situation.
A. Six months to one year
B. One year to two years
C. One to six months
D. Five months to one year
480. POIII Floyd Macanochie, receives 19,
870.00 base pay since he was promoted. After
five years from promotion, what would be his
484. What is the name of the acclaimed first
formally organized modern police force in the
world?
A. Interpol C. Scotland
Yard
B. New York Police District D. Texas rangers
485. The following are the law enforcement
principles enunciated by the Father of Modern
Policing System, except:
A. Prevention of crime is the basic mission of the
police
B. The police must have full respect of the
citizenry
C. The police are the public and the public are a. Conduct home visitations when a
the police circumstance warrants, dialogues with the
D. No free man shall be imprisoned except by residents in their beat;
final judgment b. Report occurrences and conditions which
E. None of the above relate to crime, public peace, order and safety;
c. Observe and monitor public gatherings,
487. The period of time elapsed since the oath prevent disorders and disperse unlawful
of office was administered is termed assemblies;
A. Tour of duty C. Term of office d. Assist personnel of responsible agencies/unit
B. On duty D. Length of in facilitating the flow of traffic at busy
service intersections/roads within his Area of
Responsibility (AOR) and;
488. The NAPOLCOM shall affirm, reverse or e. Inspect and/or conduct surveillance in various
modify personnel disciplinary actions involving places of business establishments and other
demotion or dismissal from the service imposed installation and remove hazards to public safety.
upon members of the PNP by the Chief PNP
through the: A. b, c, d C. c, e, a, b
A.PLEB C. RAB B. e, b, d, c D. a, b, c, d, e
B. NAB D. C/PNP
497. Which among the following is not included
in a Patrol Plan?
489. Promotion by virtue of position shall be
A. Organization Detail of Personnel
granted after:
C. Stand-by points
A. 6 months C. 2 years
B. Spot Report
B. 1 year D. 18 months
D. Area Coverage
490. Breach of internal discipline committed by
any member of the PNP shall be brought to the 498. The terrorist group Abu Sayyaf is formerly
office of the Chief of Police or equivalent included in what terrorist group?
supervisor if the penalty imposed covers the A. MILF C. MNLF
period of: B. Al Qaeda D. NPA
A. Not exceeding 15 days
B. Not exceeding 60 days 499. The Koban policing system is adopted in:
C. Not exceeding 30 days A. Japan C. Malaysia
D. Dismissal B. Korea D. Thailand

491. Any PNP member shall be dismissed 500. The word “Abu Sayyaf” in Arabic literally
immediately from the service after due notice means-
and summary hearings if it was proven that he A. The Sword Bearer C. The Base
went on AWOL for a continuous period of: B. Islamic Congregation D. Hezbollah
A. 30 days or more C. 15 days
or more  Jemaah Islamiyah - Islamic
B. 20 days or more D. 60 days or more Congregation
 Al Qaeda – The Base
492. The city or municipal mayor shall develop  Hezbollah – Party of God
an integrated community public safety plan  Ayman Al Zawahiri – 2011-Present
pursuant to: commander of Al Qaeda
A. E.O. 309 C. E.O. 903
B. RA No. 6975 D. RA No. 8551 501. PNP in-service training programs are under
the responsibility of the;
493. The Statute of Winchester introduced the A. PNP Directorate for Plans
system known as: B. PNP Directorate for Human Resource
A. Keepers of the peace C. Curfew and Doctrine Development
B. Watch and ward D. Justice of C. PNP Directorate for Personnel and Records
the peace Management
D. PNP Directorate for Comptrollership
494. Which of the following is a characteristic of It is the total number of police officers assigned
effective plan? in patrol duties.
A. give police department a clear direction
B. increase personnel involvement 502. Who is responsible in determining whether
C. clearly define objectives and goals there is a permit for the holding of the public
D. contain a degree of flexibility for the assembly?
unforeseen A. Immediate Superior C. Ground
Commander
495. As a general rule, a patrol officer on foot B. Commanding Officer D. Chief of Police
during day time should walk ____ the curb:
A. Outside C. Inside 503. The following are the things to be done
B. Near D. Far after armed confrontation, EXCEPT:
A. Check whether the situation still poses
496. The following are the duties and imminent danger
responsibilities of Patrol officers: B. Conduct debriefing on all involved PNP
operatives
C. Submit the fact-finding report

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D. Evacuate the wounded to the nearest
hospital
E. None of these
504. The IAS shall also conduct, motu propio of
the following cases:
I. incidents where a police personnel
discharges a firearm;
II. incidents where death, serious physical
injury, or any violation of human rights
occurred in the conduct of a police
operation;
III. incidents where evidence was
compromised, tampered with,
obliterated, or lost while in the custody
of police personnel;
IV. incidents where a suspect in the custody
of the police was seriously injured; and
V. Incidents where the established rules of
engagement have been violated.
A. I, II, IV and V C. II, III, IV, and
V 502. Which of the following is considered as the
B. I, II, III, and IV D. I, II, III, IV
and V
497. The nature of which, the police officer is
free from specific routine duty is the definition
of
A. “on duty” C. “Active Service”
B. “Length of Service” D. “off duty”
 Length of Service- The period of time
elapsed since the oath of office was
administered.
 Active Service- shall refer to services
rendered as an officer and non-officer,
cadet, trainee or draftee in the PNP
498. The first step a dispatcher must take when
a felony-in-progress call has been received
through telephone or by direct alarm signal is
to?
A. assigns an investigator to investigate the
witness
B. clears the air for emergency broadcast
C. call the investigators to report to crime scene
D. sends augmentation force
499. How many years of non-promotion before
a PNP Member can be attrited?
A. 5 years C. 2 years
B. 10 years D. 18 Months
 Attrition by Relief - Those who have
been relieved for just cause and have not
been given an assignment within TWO (2)
YEARS after such relief shall be retired or
separated
 Attrition by Demotion in Position or
Rank - who shall not be assigned to a
position commensurate to his or her grade
within EIGHTEEN (18) MONTHS after such
demotion shall be retired or separated
500. What is the main purpose why police car or
police officers are not allowed to be sent in the
scene of a Kidnap for ransom?
a. To avoid unnecessary actions for the
kidnappers
b. To avoid disturbances in the negotiation
c. To avoid any indication that police have
been informed of the KFR incident
d. To avoid failure in surveillance of the KFR
activities inside the warehouse
501.Which among the following, is not a
applicable legal parameter during rallies,
strikes, demonstrations or other public
assemblies, under the pertinent provisions of
the Public Assembly Act of 1985 (Batas
Pambansa Bilang 880), the Labor Code of the
Philippines, as amended and other applicable
laws.
A. Exercising Maximum Tolerance
B. No arrest of any leader, organizer, or
participant shall be made during the
public assembly, unless he violates any
pertinent law as evidence warrants.
C. In case of unlawful aggression, only
reasonable force may be employed to
prevent or repel it.
D. Directly employment of tear gas and
water cannons.
most important factor in formulating an
effective patrol strategy?
A. training of station commander
B. rank of the patrol commander
C. adequacy of resources of police station
D. salary rates of police personnel
503. The peace-keeping detail shall not be
stationed in the picket line (or confrontation
line) but should be stationed in such manner
that their presence may deter the commission
of criminal acts or any untoward incident from
either side. The members of the peace-keeping
detail shall stay outside a _______ radius from
the picket line.
A. 50 feet C. 50 meter
B. 100 feet D. 100 meter
504. Police officers are required to give the
suspect Miranda Warning, during Spot checks
and pat down searches. The statement is-
A. Partially C. Correct
B. Partially Wrong D. Wrong
505. The following are the circumstances which
may justify pat-down search, EXCEPT:
A. The appearance and demeanor of the
suspect
B. The time of the day and the location
where the pat-down search took
C. Where the police officer handles several
suspects
D. None of these
506. Whenever possible, pat-down searches
should be conducted by-
A. Day time to avoid ambush or Surprise
attack.
B. At least two police officers, one to
perform the search while the other
provides protective cover.
C. the aid of civilian to act as a witness
during the search.
D. Civilian to avoid any issue thereof.
507. Which of the following is not included in
the patrol function?
A. Respon.se for citizen calls for assistance
 B. Investigation of crimes after this is
reported to the investigation section
C. Routine preventive patrol
D. Inspection of identified hazards
508. During police intervention operations, the
duty to issue a warning is not absolute before
he could use force against an offender.
A. Correct C. Partially
Correct
B. Wrong D. Partially Wrong
509. In transporting Detention Prisoner, if
transported by a patrol jeep, the subject must
be-
A. Seated on the left rear seat and a PNP
escort shall sit at the rear on the Right side
facing the subject
B. Seated on the Right rear seat and a
PNP escort shall sit at the rear on the
left side facing the subject
C. Seated on the Left rear seat and a PNP
escort shall sit at the rear on the left side
facing the subject
D. Seated on the Right rear seat and a PNP
escort shall sit at the rear on the Right side
facing the subject
510. Which among the following should be
observed during the patrol operations?
A. Render after-patrol report
B. Buddy System
C. Kabit System
D. Render Hourly Report
511. During rallies, strikes, demonstrations or
other public assemblies, employment of tear
gas and water cannons shall be made under the
control and supervision of the-
A. Ground Commander C. Incident
Commander
B. Immediate Commander D. Superior Officer
512. What should be the action of patrol
officers, when responding to Calls for Police
Assistance, except?
A. Stop the car at some distance away from
the scene.
B. Focus all efforts to arrest criminals
C. Determine the crime committed.
D. None of these
513. Where should the patrol officer turnover
the information and pieces of evidence gathered
at the crime scene?
A. SOCO team C. Immediate
Supervisor
B. Responding unit D. Medico Legal Officer
514. Request for police assistance in the
implementation of final decisions or orders of
the court in civil cases and of administrative
bodies on controversies within their jurisdiction
shall be acted upon by the appropriate police
office. The request is filed at least _____ prior to
the actual implementation.
A. 3 days C. 10 days
B. 5 days D. 15 days
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42 of 44
515. In cases of armed confrontation wherein a
suspect dies, the Team Leader of the operating
unit shall?
A. He shall immediately undertake the
necessary investigation and processing
of the scene of the encounter.
B. After the Investigation, He shall
immediately request the SOCO team to
conduct Crime Scene Processing.
C. He shall submit the incident for
inquest before the duty Inquest
Prosecutor prior to the removal of
the body from the scene.
D. He shall report immediately to his
superior for the proper undertakings to
be done.
516. PNP personnel who will point/profile
suspected vehicle subject for checkpoint:
A. Search Sub-Team C. Security Sub-Team
B. Spotter D. Investigation Sub-
team
 Team Leader (TL) - shall lead and take
responsibility in the conduct of checkpoint
preferably an officer with the rank of at
least Police Inspector;
 Spokesperson - TL or member who is
solely in charge of communicating with the
motorists subject for checkpoint;
 Investigation Sub-team - in charge of
investigation and documentation of
possible incidents in the checkpoint to
include issuance of Traffic Citation Ticket
(TCT) or Traffic Violation Report (TVR);
 Search/Arresting Sub-Team - designated
to conduct search, seizure and arrest, if
necessary;
 Security Sub-Team - tasked to provide
security in the checkpoint area; and
 Blocking/Pursuing Sub-Team - team
tasked to block/pursue fleeing
suspects/vehicle.
517. During Checkpoints, who are allowed to
display high-powered firearms and are
positioned where they can best provide security
to the Checkpoint team including themselves.
A. Security Sub-Team C. Search
Sub-Team
B. Blocking/pursuing Sub-team D. A and B
518. As much as practicable, who shall lead the
PNP contingent detailed to assist the Sheriff
during the demolition activity.
A. Immediate Superior C. Ground
Commander
B. Commissioned Officer D. Chief of Police
519. Police officers shall, upon receipt of a
complaint or report or information that a child
has been or is being abused, maltreated,
discriminated, exploited, neglected, or
abandoned, or is under imminent danger of
being abused or exploited, shall take immediate
action thereon, but under no circumstance shall
be beyond____?
A. 12 hours C. 36 hours
B. 24 hours D. 48
hours
Page
520. In designating a “safe” assembly area, well
away from the threatened structure, out of line-
of-sight of the building and well clear of
windows. A minimum distance of is
recommended.
A. 200 meters C. 100 meters
B. 150 meters D. 300 meters
521. Provides for methods of apprehending a
criminal by an act of the complainant shout to
call all male residents to assemble and arrest
the suspect.
A. Tun Policing C. Hue and Cry
B. Statute of 1295 D. Courts of the Star
Chamber
 Courts of the Star-Chamber (1487) - The
room set-up is formed in a shape of a star
and judges were given great powers such
as the power to force testimony from a
defendant leading to a great abuse of
power or brutality on the part of the judges.
 Statute of 1295 - the law that mark the
beginning of the curfew hours, which
demanded the closing of the gates of
London during sundown.
 Tun Policing System - A system of
policing emerged during the Anglo-Saxon
period whereby all male residents were
required to guard the town
522. Refers to a location where the search,
which is duly authorized by the PNP, is
conducted to deter/prevent the commission of
crimes, enforce the law, and for other legitimate
purposes.
A. Clear Zone C. Public Place
B. Police Checkpoint D. Pre-Determined
Area
523. Electronic blotter is a computerized
system, which was accepted by the courts,
prosecutors’ office and the public in general.
What police office is using this kind of blotter?
A. Makati C. Cebu
B. Baguio D. Davao
B. Incident Commander D. Immediate
Superior
528. Which of the following is not true about
patrol?
A. It is the backbone of the police
department
B. It is the essence of police operation
C. It is the single largest unit in the
police department that can be
eliminated
D. It is the nucleus of the police department
E. It is the operational heart of the police
department
529. The low informers and unreliable
renegades of value chiefly in spreading
false information to the enemy.
A. Common Spies C. Double Spies
B. Spies of Consequences D. None
530. Refers to utilization of units or elements of
the PNP for purpose of protection of lives and
properties, enforcement of laws, maintenance of
peace and order, prevention of crimes, arrest of
criminal offenders and etc.
A. Deployment C. Operation
B. Service D. Employment
Deployment- shall mean the orderly and
organized physical movement of elements
or units of the PNP within the province, city
or municipality for purposes of employment
-END-
“In everything you do always put GOD first
and He will guide you and reward your
efforts with Success.”– NMK12

524. Marcos is a robber who is looking at the

earrings of Josephine while Insp. Gonzales is
standing near Josephine, Marcos plan to rob is
not weaken by existence of Insp. Gonzales but
the ______ for successful robbery is prevented.
A. Ambition C. Intention
B. Motive D. Opportunity

525. Police personnel whose rank at the time of

his retirement is Superintendent shall retire with
the rank of __________:
A. Superintendent C.
C/Superintendent
B. Sr. Superintendent D. C/Inspector

526. Which among the following terms is not

related to each other?
A. Hot Pursuit C. Fresh Pursuit
B. Cross Jurisdictional Pursuit D. Bright
Pursuit

527. General rules on media relations, No

information regarding the incident shall be
released without clearance from the_________:
A. Chief of police C. Ground
Commander
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