~

PART I ANATOMIC SCIENCES (11)

MONDAY-A.M.
DECEMBER 1987

1. Which of the following may cause dead tracts 7. -

Skeletal muscle enlarges with prolonged
in dentin? activity as a consequence of
-
1. Caries 1. differentiation of myoblasts.
2. Erosion 2. mitotic division of muscle fibers.
3. Cavity preparation 3. an increase in endomysial connective
4. Odontoblastic crowding tissue.
5. Any of the above 4. an increase in sarcoplasm and in the
. number of myofibrils of existing muscle
fibers.
2. The component of bone tissue that gives bone
tensile strength is the

1. elastic fibers.
8. Enamel spindles are formed by
2. calcified ground substance. 1. cracks.
3. interconnecting canaliculi.
4. 2. ameloblasts.
periosteal connective tissue. 3.
5. odontoblasts.
collagenous fibrils of matrix. 4. hypoplastic rods.
5. hypocalcified rods.
3. The cerebellar cortex is characterized
histologically by which of the following types
of cells? 9. The structure first formed by the tooth bud that
remains in evidence in the formed tooth is the
1. Basket
2. Purkinje 1. primary cuticle.
3. Pyramidal 2. secondary cuticle.
4. Martinotti 3. inner enamel epithelium.
5. Horizontal 4. cementoenamel junction.
5. dentinoenamel junction.

4. If the spinal tract of the fifth cranial nerve were

sectioned at the level of the caudal medulla,
which of the following modalities would be 10. The thick myofilaments observed in
most affected? . transmission electron microscopic preparations
of skeletal muscle are
1. Taste
2. 1. composed mainly of actin.
Proprioception
3. 2. present only in the A band.
Pain from the ipsilateral side of the face
4. 3. present in both A and I bands.
Light touch from the contralateral side of
the face 4. traversed or crossed by the Z band.

5. The junction between primary and secondary 11. From an anatomic standpoint, an emergency
dentin is characterized by a airNaY may be established most readily by
opening into the trachea
1. resting line.
2. reversal line. 1. between thyroid carti lages.
3. sharp reduction in number of dentinal 2.
tubules. at the level of the jugular notch.
3. through the thyrohyoid membrane.
4. sharp change in direction of dentinal 4.
tubules. through the median cricothyroid ligament.
5. Both (1)and (3) above

12. The organelle that binds and releases calcium

6. The postganglionic sympathetic fibers to the during relaxation and contraction of skeletal
vessels of the submandibular salivary gland muscle is a
arise from cells in the
1. nucleus.
1. otic ganglion. 2. lysosome.
2. submandibular ganglion. 3. mitochondrion.
3. pterygopalatine ganglion. 4. transverse tubule.
4. superior cervical ganglion. 5. sarcoplasmic reticulum.
...
13. Right subclavian and right common carotid 17. When a tooth first erupts into the oral cavity,
arteries arise from the the attachment epithelium is derived from
1. thoracic aorta. 1. oral mucosa.
2. ascending aorta. 2. reduced enamel epithelium.
3. arch of the aorta. 3. epithelial rests of Malassez.
4. pulmonary artery. 4. the epithelial root sheath (Hertwig).
5. brachiocephalic artery.

18. The number of roots that are formed is

determined by the

14. The common bile duct, the hepatic artery and

1. thickness of the cervical loop.
2. number of root sheaths developed by the
the portal vein are found grouped in the
enamel organ.
1. mesocolon. 3. number of discontinuities developed in
2. lesser omentum. the root sheath.
3. 4. number of medial ingrowths of the
greater omentum.
4. gastrosplenic ligament. cervical loop.

19. In a routine demineralized histologic section

of an adult tooth, the area representing enamel
is generally optically clear because
15. In the sketch below, the arrow labeled 0
points to the 1. enamel is very poor in organic matrix.
2. enamel is very brittle and breaks off
during sectioning.
3. ordinary stains do not stain the organic
matrix of enamel.
4. the mounting medium has the same
refractive index as enamel.
c
20. The posterior cervical triangle is bounded
A partly by
1. trapezius and subclavius muscles.
2. splenius capitis and trapezius muscles.
3. trapezius and sternocleidomastoid
muscles.
4. the clavicle and the longus colli muscle.

21. The primary histologic characteristic of the

1. dental papi Ila.
2. pancreas is
dental sac (follicle).
3. inner enamel epithelium. follicles filled with secretion.
1.
4. outer enamel epithelium. 2.
5. groups of special cells scattered among
bone of the crypt surrounding the tooth glandular alveoli.
germ. 3. small groups of cells scattered between
follicles.
4. cells arranged in layers among which are
special cells.

16. The greater peritoneal sac communicates with

the lesser peritoneal sac by means of the 22. The middle constrictor muscle of the pharynx
originates from the
1. aortic hiatus.
2. inguinal canal. 1. hyoid bone.
3. epiploic foramen. 2. thyroid cartilage.
4. lesser pelvic aperture. 3. pterygoid hamulus.
5. superior pelvic aperture. 4. pterygomandibular raphe.

2
 ..
23. Pharyngotympanic (eustachian) tubes connect 29. The lateral boundary of the retropharyngeal
the nasopharynx with the space at the level of the oropharynx is the
1. outer ear. 1. carotid sheath.
2. middle ear. . 2. pterygomandibular raphe.
3. semicircular canals. 3. medial pterygoid muscle and its fascia.
4. vestibule of the inner ear. 4. stylopharyngeus muscle and its fascia.

30. The common hepatic artery is a branch of the

24. Bacteria are frequently ingested by
1. gastric artery.
1. mast cells. 2. splenic artery.
2. fibrocytes. 3. celiac artery (trunk).
3. small lymphocytes. 4. superior mesenteric artery.
4. basophilic leukocytes.
5. neutrophilic leukocytes.
31. Most of the antibodies in the body that act
against bacterial antigens are produced by
25. Considering number and location, the 1. T-Iymphocytes.
parathyroid glands are usually. 2. B-Iymphocytes.
3. macrophages.
1. single and dorsal to the thyroid gland. 4.
2. single and embedded in the dorsum of plasma cells.
the thyroid gland.
3. multiple and embedded in the dorsum of 32. In the fetus, blood enters>the common carotid
the thyroid gland.
4. arteries by means of the
multiple and just superior to the thyroid
gland. .
1. aorta.
5. not related to the thyroid gland. 2. pulmonary vein.
3. pulmonary artery.
4. ductus arteriosus.
5. thebesian veins (venae cordis minimae).
26. A portion of which of the following muscles
has fibers inserting into the articular disk of
the temporomandibular joint?
33. The parotid duct pierces the buccinator muscle
1. Upper head of the lateral pterygoid opposite the
2. Lower head of the lateral pterygoid
3. Deep head of the medial pterygoid
1. mandibular first premolar.
4. Superficial head of the medial pterygoid
2. maxillary first premolar.
3. maxillary first molar.
4. maxillary second molar.
5. maxillary third molar.
27. The arterial supply of the submandibular gland
is from which branch of the externalcarotid
artery? 34. Which of the lymphoid tissues in the body are
considered subepithelial and nonencapsulated?
1. Ascending pharyngeal
2. Superior thyroid 1. Thymus gland and lymph nodes
3. MaxiIlary 2. Lymph nodes and aggregated nodules
4. Facial 3. Pharyngeal tonsils and thymus gland
4. Peyer's patches and pharyngeal tonsils

35. Most of the lymph is returned to the blood at

28. Which of the following blood elements is a which of the following sites?
fragment of megakaryocytic cytoplasm?
1. Right brachiocephalic vein
1. Platelet 2. Left external jugular vein
2. Normoblast 3. junction of left internal jugular and
3. Erythrocyte subclavian veins
4. Promyelocyte 4. junction of right internal jugular and
5. Proerythroblast subclavian veins
.,
,

36. In the fetal heart, the foramen ovale conneds 40. At a muscle-tendon jundion, the union is
the made by

1. pulmonary artery and the aorta. 1. myofibrils conneding with collagenous

2. right and the left atria, permitting the flow fibrils of the tendon.
of blood from right to left. 2. an abundance of reticular fibers in the
3. right and the left atria, permitting the flow area of the jundion.
of blood from left to right. 3. a continuity of connedive tissue sheaths
4. right and the left ventricles, permitting the of the muscle with those of the tendon.
flow of blood from right to left. 4. a special thickening of sarcoplasm that
5. right and the left ventricles, permitting the unites with collagenous fibrils of the
flow of blood from left to right. tendon.

41. Apical abscesses on certain teeth have a

37. Which of the following muscles receives its marked tendency to produce cervical spread of
motor supply from the facial nerve? infection that occurs most rapidly in abscesses
of
1. Masseter
1. mandibular incisors.
2. Temporal 2. mandibular canines.
3. Buccinator
4. 3. maxillary premolars.
lateral pterygoid 4.
5. mandibular second and third molars.
Tensorveli palatini

42. In the sulcular epithelium, small spaces

between cells in the stratum spinosum (prickle
38. Identify the thalamus in the sketch below. cell layer) are normally filled by

1. keratin.
8 2. a small amount of tissue fluid.
3. capillaries that course between cells to
A
0 approach the free surface.
4. none of the above.

43. Normally, the free gingiva can be distinguished

from the epithelial attachment because the

1. underlying connective tissue of the gingiva

E does not contain lymphoid cells.
2. epithelium of the epithelial attachment
does not have rete pegs.
1. A 3. epithelium of the gingiva is not
2. B keratinized.
3. C 4. underlying connective tissue of the
4. 0 epithelial attachment is less vascular.
5. E

44. The bony floor of the nasal cavity is formed by

the
39. Second, third and fourth right posterior
intercostal veins drain from the right superior 1. palatine process of the maxilla and the
intercostal vein into the vertical part of the palatine.
2. palatine process of the temporal and the
1. azygos vein. horizontal part of the palatine.
2. hemiazygos vein. 3. vomer and the vertical part of the
3. accessory hemiazygos vein. palati ne.
4. left brachiocephalic vein. 4. palatine process of the maxilla and the
5. left internal jugular vein. horizontal part of the palatine.

4
,.
:
1

45. Cells of the stratum granulosum of thick 51. 'Nhich of the following structures is formed
stratified squamous epithelium from the first branchial (visceral) arch?
characteristically contain
1. Hyoid bone
1. melanin granules. 2. Buccinator muscle
2. keratin granules. 3. Stylopharyngeus muscle
3. keratohyalin granules, 4. Lateral pterygoid muscle
4. granules that are organelles. ). Superior parathyroid gland

46. A major sensory innervation of the

temporomandibular joint is derived from the 52. Lateral clefting of the lip results from the
failure of merging of
1. great auricular nerve.
2. auriculotemporal nerve. 1. maxillary with mandibular processes.
3. inferior alveolar nerve. 2. maxillary processes with each other.
4. temporal branches of the facial nerve. 3. maxillary and medial nasal processes.
~
"'t. medial and lateral nasal processes.
). palatine processes with the nasal septum.
47. The middle nasal concha is part of which of
the followingbones?
1. Nasal 53. Which of the following cells is most likelyto
2. Vomer have an abundant amount of rough-surfaced
3. Ethmoid endoplasmic reticulum?
4. Pal.3tine
5. Sphenoid 1. Osteocyte
2. Macrophage
3. Osteoblast
48.' The external carotid artery contributes to the 4. Mesothel ial cell
). Small lymphocyte
blood supply of the nasal cavity by way of the

1. facial artery, the superior labial artery and

angular arteries.
2. lingual artery, the deep lingual artery and 54.
internal nasal arteries. The ground substance of hyaline cartilage is
basophilic because it contains
3. occipital artery, the ascending palatine
artery and posterior nasal arteries. 1. phosphatases.
4. maxillary arteryr the sphenopalatine artery 2., polypeptides.
and posterior lateral nasal arteries. 3. orthophosphoric esters.
5. superficial temporal artery, the transverse 4. sulfated proteoglycans.
facial artery and external nasal arteries.

49. The impulse-conducting mechanism in the

heart is composed of
55. Tropocollagen is a protein molecule found in

1. autonomic nerve fibers. 1. collagen and elastic fibers only.

2. elastic and reticular fibers only.
2. bundles of collagenous fibers. 3.
3. reticuloendothelial components. collagen and reticular fibers only.
4. collagen, elastic and reticular fibers.
4. modified cardiac muscle fibers.

50. Movement of the head about its vertical axis

(rotation to right or left) occurs chiefly at 56. Hyaline cartilage differs from bone in that
which of the following joints? hyaline cartilage

1. Atlanto-axial 1. cells lie in lacunae.

2. Spheno-occipital 2. may grow interstitially.
3. Atlanto-occi pital 3. may grow appositionally.
4. Third to seventh cervical vertebrae 4. can become more highly calcified.
'..

57. The most prominent functional component in 62. During endochondral ossification of a long
the tunica media of small arteries is bone of an extremity, the function of hyaline
cartilage is to
1. elastic fibers.
2. smooth muscle. 1. increase strength of the developing bone.
3. striated muscle. 2. provide a region where bone can grow in
4. reticular fibers. length.
5. collagenous fibers. 3. provide undifferentiated cells that will
become osteoblasts.
4. form cores of trabeculae that compose
58. The nucleolus produces most compact bone of the diaphysis.

1. DNA.
2. transfer RNA.
3. ribosomal RNA. 63. Most intrinsic muscles of the larynx receive
4. messenger RNA. their motor innervation from
5. both (1) and (2) above.
1. the laryngeal plexus.
2. the inferior (recurrent) laryngeal nerve.
59. 3. the external branch of the superior
An organ with a retroperitoneal location that
can be approached surgically without violating laryngeal nerve.
the continuity of the peritoneum is the 4. the internal branch of the superior
laryngeal nerve.
1. 5. both external and internal branches of the
ovary.
2. kidney. superior laryngeal nerve.
3. spleen.
4. gallbladder.
64. In the human embryo, during the third week
60. In the drawing below of a medial view of the of development, the first branchial arch divides
right side of the mandible, which of the to form the mandibular process and the
following letters indicates the position of the
bulk of the sublingual gland? 1. hyoid arch.
2. thyrohyoid arch.
3. branchial pouch.
4. maxi Ilary process.
5. frontonasal process.

65. In a relaxed state, transitional epithelium can

B be distinguished from stratified squamous
epithelium because transitional epithelium
contains
A
c 1. stratum corneum.
0 2. flattened superficial cells.
3. dome-shaped superficial cells.
4. more visible ground substance.
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D 66. It is possible to distinguish histologically
between the stomach and the duodenum
because of the presence of
61. Which of the followingare mobilized when a
cell produces an excessive amount of protein? 1. mucosal glands in the stomach only.
2. muscularis mucosa in the stomach only.
1. Lysosomes 3. simple columnar epithelium lining the
2. Mitochondria stomach only.
3. lipofuscin granules 4. submucosal glands in the duodenum only.
4. Rough endoplasmic reticula 5. smooth muscle in the external
5. All of the above. musculature of the duodenum only.

6
p-
fi

67. Circular fibers are present in the 72. The long axes of mandibular condyles intersect
at the foramen magnum indicating that these
1. free gingiva and encircle the tooth. axes are directed .
2. free gingiva and encircle alveolar bone.
3. attached gingiva and encircle alveolar 1. transversely.
bone. 2. anteroposteriorly.
4. periodontal ligament and encircle the 3. anteromedially.
tooth. 4. posteromedially.
5. None of the above

73. Cell bodies of taste fibers from the anterior

68. Which of the following groups of periodontal
two-thirds of the tongue are located in which
ligament fibers has a cementum-to-cementum of the following ganglia?
attachment?
1. Otic
1. Oblique 2. Geniculate
2. Transseptal 3. Submandibular
3. Free gingival 4. Pterygopalatine
4. Interradicular S. Trigeminal (semilunar)
5. Dentoalveolar crest

74. The alveolar bone proper (cribriform plate)

usually consists of
69. Which of the following is necessary for
cementum to be deposited during tooth. 1. woven bone.
development? 2. bundle bone only.
3. lamellar bone only.
1. The tooth must be erupting. 4. bundle bone and lamellar bone.
2. A bony socket must develop.
3. An apical vascular plexus must be present.
4. The continuity of the root sheath
(Hertwig) must be broken. 75. Which of the following structures may be
found within the posterior mediastinum?

1. Heart
2. Phrenic nerve
3. Thoracic duct
70. A disturbance in cartilage formation in a fetus 4. Arch of the aorta
results .in deformities of the 5. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
1. sphenoid and zygomatic bones.
2. axial skeleton and the base of the skull.
3. axial skeleton and the flat bones of the
76. The optic tracts consist of axons from which of
skull.
the following cells?
4. petrous portion of the temporal bones and
the parietal bones. 1. Rod
2. Bipolar
3. Ganglion
4. Horizontal
S. All of the above
71. During intraoral injection to the mandibular
foramen, the needle passes through the
mucous membrane and the buccinator muscle
and lies 77. Gingiva is different from alveolar mucosa in
that gingiva has
1. lateral to the neck of the mandible.
2. medial to the pterygomandibular raphe. 1. elastic fibers.
3. lateral to the pterygomandibular raphe. 2. simple epithelium.
4. lateral to the medial pterygoid muscle. 3. muscularis mucosa.
5. medial to the superior constrictor muscle 4. stratified epithelium.
of the pharynx. 5. high connective tissue papillae.
".
.

78. The large mass of gray matter that bulges into 83. Which of the following increase with age in
the floor and the lateral aspect of the lateral dental pulp?
ventricle is the
(a) Vascularity
1. hypothalamus. (b) Size of the pulp chamber
2. caudate nucleus. (c) Number of collagen fibers
3. substantia nigra. (d) Calcification within the pulp
4. amygdaloid complex.
1. (a) and (b) only
2. (a), (b) and (c)
3. (a) and (c) only
4. (a) and (d)
5. (b) and (c) only
6. (b) and (d)
79. The large ascending bundle of fibers in the 7. (c) and (d)
medulla that is composed of second order
neuron fibers conveying proprioception and
discriminatory touch sensations to conscious
levels is the"

1. medial lemniscus.
2. reticular formation.
3. spinal trigeminal tract.
4. inferior cerebellar peduncle. 84. The epithelial root sheath (Hertwig) is
characterized by

(a) the formation of cell rests in the

periodontal ligament when the
sheath's functions have been
80. Which of the following forms of connective accomplished.
tissues has a preponderance of amorphous (b) progressive involution, thereby
ground substance over fibers? aiding in actual tooth movement
during eruption.
1. Loose (c) the absence of a stellate reticulum
2. Cartilage and a stratum intermedium.
3. Reticular (d) the absence of mitotic ability and,
4. Dense, regularly arranged thus, stretching as the root "grows.
5. Dense, irregularly arranged
1. (a) and (c)
2. (a) and (d)
3. (b) and (c)
4. (b) and (d)

81. In salivary glands, folds of the basal portion of

the cell membrane containing mitochondria
are characteristic of the

1. cells composing demilunes.

2. cells of the striated ducts.
3. cells of the intercalated ducts.
4. 85. Obstruction of the cerebral aqueduct causes
serous cells of the parotid gland.
enlargement of the

(a) third ventricle.

(b) fourth ventricle.
(c) lateral ventricle.

82. The lamina papyracea is located in the orbital 1. (a) only

2. (a) and (b)
1. roof. 3. (a) and (c)
2. floor. 4. (b) only
3. lateral wall. 5. (b) and (c)
4. medial wall. 6. (c) only

8
II1II
~;

....

86. What is the usual sequence of events in the 89. Which of the followingabdominal viscera are
histogenesis of a tooth? retroperitoneal?
(a) Deposition of the first layer of (a) Aorta
enamel (b) Liver
(b) Deposition of the first layer of (c) Kidney
denti n (d) Spleen
(c) Elongation of inner enamel (e) Pancreas
epithelial cells (f) Suprarenal
(d) Differentiation of odontoblasts
1. (a), (b), (c) and (d)
1. a, b, c, d, 2. (a), (b), (c) and (e)
2. c, d, a, b 3. (a), (b), (d) and (f)
3. c, d, b, a 4. (a), (c), (e) and (f)
4. d, a, b, c 5. (b), (d), (e) and (f)
S. d, C,b, a 6. (c), (d), (e) and (f)

90. Which of the following strudures may be

found in the infratemporal fossa?

(a) Sphenomandibular ligament

(b) Medial pterygoid muscle
87. Which of the following muscles or muscle (c) Middle meningeal artery
fibers are elevators of the mandible? (d) Ophthalmic nerve
(e) Internal jugular vein
(a) Medial pterygoid muscle'
(b) 1. (a), (b) and (c)
Lateral pterygoid muscle
Anterior fibers of the temporal 2. (a), (b) and (d)
(c)
muscle 3. (a), (c) and (e)
4. (b), (d) and (e)
(d) Posterior fibers of the temporal
muscle 5. (c), (d) and (e)
6. All of the above
1. (a) and (c) only
2. (a), (c) and (d)
3. (b), (c) and (d)
4. (b) and (d) only
All of the above
91. Which of the followingcell types may be
5.
found in the periodontal ligament?,
(a) Fibroclasts
(b) Osteoblasts
(c) Macrophages
(d) Cementoblasts

1. (a), (b) and (c)

2. (a) and (c) only
3. (b) and (d)
88. Which of the following articulate directly with 4. (d) only
the body of the sternum? 5. All of the above

(a) Clavicle
(b) Eleventh rib
(c) Manubrium
(d) First rib 92. Each of the following cell types secretes the
(e) Xiphoid process substance with which it is paired EXCEPT

1. (a), (bYand (d) 1. Sertoli'scells-testosterone.

2. (b), (d) and (e) 2. corpus luteum-progesterone.
3. (c), (d) and (e) 3. alpha cells of the pancreas-glucagon.
4. (c) and (e) only 4. chromaffincells of the suprarenal-
S. All of the above catecholam ine.
"". . .
"--""'.'..".

':r~~!

.
.

93. All of the following structures can be seen in a 97. Which of the following layers of the epidermis
histologic examination of the adult parotid is least cytodifferentiated?
gland EXCEPT
1. Stratum basale
1. striated ducts. 2. Stratum corneum
2. serous demilunes. 3. Stratum spinosum
3. intercalated ducts. 4. Prickle-cell layer
4. myoepithelial cells. 5. Stratum' granulosum
5. granular serous cells.

94. Which of the following arteries does NOT

accompany the corresponding nerve
throughout its course?
1. Lingual
2. Infraorbital 98. Which of the following tissues would be least
3. Inferioralveolar affected if the anterior lobe of the hypophysis
4. Posterior superior alveolar were destroyed?
1. Thyroid epithelium
95. Which of the following structural changes is 2. Medulla of the adrenal gland
NOT encountered in passing along the 3. Interstitial cells of the testis
respiratory system from the trachea to a 4. Zona fasciculata of the adrenal gland
respiratory bronchiole? 5. Spermatogenic epithelium of the testis

1. Decrease in goblet cells

2. Decrease in ciliated cells
.

3. Total loss of cartilage from the wall

4. Progressive change from stratified
squamous to cuboidal epithelial lining

96. All of the following structures are concerned 99. The secretion of which of the following
with development of the tongue EXCEPTthe endocrine glands is NOT essential to liJe?
1. copula. 1. Parathyroids
2. macula. 2. Adrenal cortex
3. tube~culum impar. 3. Adrenal medulla
4. secondbranchial arch. 4. Anterior pituitary
5. third branchial arch. 5. Pancreatic islets (Langerhans)
...

.."

NATIONAL BOARD DENTAL EXAMINATION PART I .'

A NS\i ER KEY .-

ANATOMIC SCIENCES - DECEMBER 1987

NO. ANS. NO. ANS. NO. ANS. NO. ANS.

1. 5 26. 1 51. 4 76. 3
2. 5 27. 4 52. 3 77. 5
3. 2 28. 1 53. 3 78.
'"

2
4. 3 2 9. 1 54. 4 79. 1
5. 4 30. 3 55. 3 80. 2
6. 4 31. 4 56. 2 81. 2
7. 4 32. 1 57. 2 82. 4
8. 3 33. 4 58. 3 83. 7 .
9. 5 34. 4 59. 2 84. 1
10. 2 35. 3 60. 1 85. 3
11. 4 36. 2 61. 1 86. 3
12. 5 3 7. 3 62. 2 8 7. 2
13. 5 38. 3 63. 2 88. 4
14. 2 3 9. 1 64. 4 89. 4
15. 1 40. 3 6 5. 3 90. 1

16. 3 41. 4 66. 4 91. 5

17. 2 42. 2 6 7. 1 92. 1
18. 4 43. 2 68. 2 93. 2
19. 1 44. 4 69. 4 94. 1
2o. 3 45. 3 70. 2 95. 4

21. 2 46. 2 71. 4 96. 2

22. 1 47. 3 72. 4 97. 1
23. 2 48. 4 73. 2 98. 2
24. 5 49. 4 74. 4 99. 3
25. 3 50. 1 75. 3
.,
,
BIOCHEMISTRY-PHYSIOLOGY(12)

1. The ~ value of an enzyme is numerically 7. Complete hydrolysisof one mole of lecithin

equal to yields
1. half the maximum velocity expressed in 1. L-amino acids.
moles/1iter. 2. D-monosaccharides.
2. velocity of a reaction divideQ by substrate 3. phosphatidylethanol am ines.
concentration. 4. 2 fatty acids, 1 glycerol, 1 phosphoric
3. substrate concentration in moles/liter acid and 1 choline residue.
necessary to achieve half the maximum 5. 2 fatty acids, 1 glycerol, 1 phosphoric
velocity of a reaction. acid and 1 cholesterol molecule.
4. maximum velocity divided by half the
substrate concentration in moles necessary
to achieve maximum velocity.

8. Which of the following amino acids lessens

2. The major driving force for formation of a the need for phenylalanine?
lipid micelle is
1. Lysine
1. protein-lipid interaction. 2. Leucine
2. hydrophobic interaction between 3. Glycine
hydrocarbon tails. 4. Tyrosine
3. hydrogen bonding between water 5. Tryptophan
molecules of the micellar core.
4. electrostatic interaction between the
micellar core and polar heads.
9. What is the product P in the following
3. Excluding the effect of drugs, apnea occurring reaction?
after hyperventilation of an anesthetized
pati~nt results from. a-ketoglutarate + alanine~pyruvate + P

1. decreased demand for oxygen. 1. Glutamate

2. increased cerebral blood flow. 2. Glutamine
3. decreased carbon dioxide tension. 3. Aspartate
4. increased hydrogen ion concentration. . 4. Succinate
5. decreased oxygenation of carotid bodies. 5. Pyridoxine phosphate

4. WIthin physiologic limits, activity of the

respiratory center is decreased directly by 10. An action potential in a nerve fiber is related
to
1. decreased pH.
2. increased pH. 1. entry of sodium ion followed by exit of
3. increased hemoglobin concentration. potassium ion.
4. increased plasma carbon dioxide partial 2. flow of electrons acro~sthe membrane
pressure. followingchange in membrane
permeability.
3. changed orientation of molecules in the
5. Strong stimulation of spindles in the masseter membrane giving rise to a static potential
muscle causes difference.
4. a breakdown of metabolic products
1. relaxation of the masseter muscle. resulting in different concentrations of
2. contraction of the masseter muscle. potassium across the membrane.
3. contraction of the digastric muscle.
4. no change in mandibular position.

6. Chondroitin sulfate occurs primarily in 11. Pantothenic acid is an integral part of

1. bile. 1. NAD.
2. blood. 2. cobalamin.
3. liver. 3. folic acid. .~;..
..<.
4. urine. 4. coenzyme A. '.',~
5. 5. pyridoxine phosphate.
cartilage.

12
12. Spatial summation results from the 18. The spinal cord is the only structure in the
central nervous system necessary for which of
1. convergence of several afferent impulses the following body functions?
on the same postsynaptic nerve soma.
2. repetitive firing of discharges (from the 1. Respiration
same presynaptic terminal), eventually 2. Simple reflex
producing an action potential. 3. Temperature regulation
3. exhaustion of the stores of transmitter 4. Coordinated muscle movement
substance at the synapse.
4. elaboration of some inhibitory substance,
such as y-aminobutyric acid, at the 19. Addition of synthetic polyuridylic acid to a
synapse. cell-free system capable of protein synthesis
results in greatly enhanced incorporation of
phenylalanine into peptide linkages. In this
13. What type of bonds link amino acid residues system, polyuridylic acid is performing a
to form protei ns? function normally performed by
1. Amide 1. DNA.
2. Anomeric 2. transfer RNA.
3. Epimeric 3. ribosomal RNA.
4. Hydrogen 4. messenger RNA.
5. Glycosidic 5. mitochondrial RNA.

14. Of the following,the most immediate source 20. Neutral fats contain mixtures of one or more
of oxaloaceticacid during metabolism is fattyacids esterified with
1. glycine. 1. sterol.
2. aspartic acid. 2. glycerol.
3. glutamic acid. 3. lecithin.
4. acetoacetic acid. 4. sphingosine.
5. a--ketoglutaric acid. s. alcohols of high molecular weight.

15. Proteins rich in basic amino acids, such as 21. Calcium ions trigger contraction of muscles by
lysine and arginine, which bind strongly to binding to
DNA are
1. actin.
1. albumins. 2. myosin.
2. keratins. 3. troponin.
3. histones. 4. tropomyosin.
4. r-globulins.
5. scleroproteins.
22. The degenerate nature of the genetic code
implies
16. ATP inhibits phosphofructokinase even though
ATP is also a substrate for the enzyme. This 1. a common tRNA for at least two amino
phenomenon is an example of acids.
2. that a remarkable degree of inaccuracy
1. genetic repression. occurs in transcription.
2. genetic suppression. 3. the existence of multiple codons for each
3. allosteric inhibition. amino acid.
4. competitive inhibition. 4. the existence of multiple species of
5. noncompetitive inhibition. ribosomes for control of messenger
translation.

17. When are nerve fibers hypoexcitable? 23. Vitamin A functions to

1. During resting potential 1. prevent pellagra.

2. At the firing level 2. promote absorption of calcium.
3. During local depolarization 3. promote differentiation of epithelial cells.
4. During negative after-potential 4. maintain the integrity of connective
5. During positive after-potential tissues.
 ,-
L ;

.,
,

24. In which of the following conditions is oxygen 30. Destruction of the cerebellum causes loss of
partial pressure in arterial blood low?
1. memory.
1. Anemia 2. vision.
2. Polycythemia 3. hearing.
3. Pulmonary AV shunt 4. muscular coordination.
4. Hypovolemia due to hemorrhage. 5. both (2) and (3) above.

25. Which of the following characterize the links

between monomeric units of nucleic acids? 31. Which of the following lipids participates in
mitochondrial electron transport?
1. Ionic bonds
2. Glycosidic bonds 1. Ubiquinone
3. Phosphodiester bonds 2. fJ-carotene
4. Phosphotriester bonds 3. a-tocopherol
4. Sphingomyelin

26. Purine bases taken in the human diet in the

form of DNA or RNA are mostly
32. Corti's organ is responsible for perception of
1. excreted as urea.
2. excreted in the form of uric acid.
1.
3. reused and converted to AT? needed as a light.
2. sound.
source of energy. 3. taste.
4. broken down to give NH) and either 4. temperature.
malor;ic acid or methylmalonic acid. 5. proprioception.

27. Ribose phosphate needed for nucleic acid

synthesis can be derived from
33. The annulospiral (primary) ending of the
1. gl uconeogenesis. skeletal muscle spindle is stimulated when the
2. the pentose phosphate pathway.
3. 1. muscle is relaxed.
the Krebs' tricarboxyl ic acid cycle.
4. 2. muscle is stretched.
decarboxylation of aromatic amino acids.
5. one-carbon transfer from tetrahydrofolate
3. intrafusal fibers are relaxed.
derivatives.
4. gamma efferent fibers are inhibited.
'.r" >...

28. A submaximal direct stimulus to a skeletal

muscle causes 34. Functionally, visceral smooth muscle and
cardiac pacemaker cells are similar in that
1. contraction of no fibers.
2. contraction of some fibers. 1. neither contracts without neural input.
3. partial contraction of all fibers in the 2. neither has a true "resting" membrane
muscle. potential.
4. less contraction than with a subminimal 3. both require a precontractile stretch to
stimulus. initiate contraction.
5. more contraction than with a maxi~1 4. the "resting" membrane potential of each
stimulus. is approximately 85 mY.

29. A deficiency of choline in the diet may cause

abnormalities in metabolism of 35. Failure of the heart to show tetanus when
stimulated is explained by
1. lipids.
2. proteins. 1. fatigue.
3. minerals. 2. automaticity.
4. carbohydrates. 3. a long chronaxie.
5. nucleoproteins. 4. a long refractory period.

!'-
, ';:
:,~.'t, '
1A ..'!;~t3.
 :

36. The usual plasma concentrationof glucose is 41. Which of the following reactions is the
80-100 mgJdl., yet, normally, glucose does not immediate source of energy for muscle
appear in the urine. The best explanation for contraction?
this fact is
1. Creatine-creatinine
1. glucose is freely filtered, but is removed 2. ATP-ADP + inorganic phosphate
by the collecting {juct. 3. Creatine phosphate + ADP-ATP + -
2. glucose is fr-eelyfiltered, but is removed creatine
by reabsorption in the proximal 4. Creatine phosphate-creati!1e + inorganic
convoluted tubule. phosphate
3. glucose is secreted by the proximal
convoluted tubule and reabsorbed by the
distal convoluted tubule.
4. the glomerulus prevents glucose from 42. Decreased blood colloidal osmotic pressure
being filtered into the nephron. causes fluid to shift from

1. interstitial space to blood.

2. blood to interstitial space.
3. intracellular space to interstitial space.
37. Avidin influences which of the following 4.
vitamins? extracellular space to intracellular space.
5. None of the above
1. Niacin
2. Biotin
3. Thiamine 43. The most abundant form of iron in human
4. Tocopherol blood plasma is found
5. Phylloquinone
1. as free Fe++.
2. as free Fe+++.
3. as ferritin.
4. associated with transferrin.
38. Mobilization of blood sugar from liver 5. associated with ceruloplasmin.
glycogen occurs by way of a series of
enzymatic reactions. The last step in this
sequence is catalyzed by
44. Hydroxylationat the 1 position of
1. glucokinase. 25-hydroxycholecalciferoloccurs primarily in
2. adenylate cyclase. the
3. glucose-6-phosphatase.
4. glycogen phosphorylase. 1. skin.
5. phosphorylase phosphatase. 2. liver.
3. kidney.
4. intestinal mucosa.

39. Acids found in the citric acid (Krebs1 cycle are

45. Carbonic anhydrase in erythrocytes increases
1. glutamic acid and succinic acid.
2. glucuronic acid and aspartic acid. 1. rate of dissociation of H2CO3.
3. oxaloacetic acid and aspartic acid. 2. rate of formation of oxyhemoglobin.
4. oxaloacetic acid and pyruvic acid. 3. permeability of erythrocytes to HCO3 - .
5. oxaloacetic acid and a-ketoglutaric acid. 4. formation of carbamino compounds with
hemoglobin.

40. Albinism is a genetic disease that results in 46. Which of the following is present in plasma
incomplete metabolism of but absent in serum?
1. alanine. 1. Albumin
2. tyrosine. 2. Globulin
3. cysteine. 3. Lecithin
4. histidine. 4. Fibrinogen
5. tryptophan. 5. Prothrombin
 I

47. Which of the following hormones are 53. The high ratio of postganglionic to
produced by the neurohypophysis and affect preganglionic fibers in the sympathetic system
contraction of smooth muscle? has the physiologic result that

1. Vasopressin(ADH) and oxytocin 1. convergence of stimuli occurs.

2. Thyrotropin and intermedin 2. synaptic transmission is low, leading to a
3. Adrenotropin and somatotropin delay in response.
4. Aldosterone and luteinizing hormone 3. stimulation of the sympathetic nervous
system leads to widespread effects.
4. stimulation of the sympathetic nervous
48. During extended, strenuous exercise, the system leads to very localized, discrete
energy requirement for contracting skeletal effects.
muscle is supplied largely from 5. the presynaptic stimulus must have a
greater amplitude than when the number
1. oxidation of fatty acids and acetoacetate. of preganglionic and postganglionic fibers
- 2. oxidative-decarboxylation of pyruvic acid is equal.
to acetyl coenzyme A.
3. oxidation of acetyl coenzyme A in the
tricarboxylic acid cycle. 54. Cell bodies of sympathetic preganglionic
4. anaerobic transformation of glucose from neurons are located in
glycogen to lactic acid.
1. dorsal root ganglia.
2. sympathetic chain ganglia.
49. Dental plaque arises primarily as a result of 3. the brain stem and the spinal cord.
enzymatic reactions using which of the 4. thoracic and lumbar segments of the
following? spinal cord.
5. none of the above.
1. Sucrose and lipid
2. Sucrose and saliva
3. Glucose and saliva 55. Which of the following causes some degree of
4. Glucose and protein temporary alkalosis?

1. Hyperventi lation
50. Compared with systemic circulation under 2. High fluid intake
normal conditions, pulmonary circulation is 3. Excessive smoking
characterized by low pressure and 4. Severe muscular effort
5. Ingestion of ammonium chloride
1. low flow and low resistance.
2. equal flow and low resistance.
3. low flow and equal resistance. 56. The pathway of extramitochondrial synthesisof
4. equal flow and equal resistance.. , even-numberedfatty acids differs from that or
5. high flow and equal resistance. the catabolism of fatty acids in that
1. malonyl CoA is an intermediate in
51. -Sounds heard during systole in the antecubital synthesis.
space are produced by 2. acyl carrier protein is needed in
catabolism.
1. closure of AV valves. 3. no flavoprotein enzymes are required for
2. closure of the aortic valve. catabolism.
3. turbulent blood flow through the artery. 4. propionyl CoA may serve as an
4. laminar blood flow through the occluded intermediate in synthesis.
artery.

52. The PR interval in an electrocardiogram is an 57. Tropic hormone releasing factors produced in
index of the the hypothalamus are transported into the
anterior pituitary through
1. length of auricular filling.
2. period of isometric relaxation. 1. nerve impulses.
3. length of auricular contraction. 2. the ultrashort feedback mechanism.
4. conduction time between atria and 3. the peripheral circulatory system.
ventricles. 4. the microcirculatory portal system.
5. period of maximal ejection of ventricular 5. long nerve fibers or ducts that also
systole. transport neurophysins.

16
..

..

58. Glomerular filtration rate may be determined 63. Prolonged medication with cortisol produces
by clearance of atrophy of the adrenal cortex through
1. urea. 1. inhibition of ACTH production. --
2. water. 2. inhibition of aldosterone secretion.
3. inulin. 3. direct action on the synthesis of C21
4. glucose. corticoids.
5. para-aminohippuric acid (PAH). 4, none of the above.

59. Secretin functions in digestion of proteins by

increasing 64. Countercurrent multiplier activity of the kidney
1. flow of bile. is dependent upon the
2. secretion of pepsin. 1.
3. presence of ADH.
flow of pancreatic juice. 2.
4. secretion of carboxypeptidase. reabsorption of water from collecting
ducts.
3. intensity of vasoconstriction of efferent
arterioles.
4. active reabsorption of water in the
60. ascending limb of the loop of Henle.
The air remaining in alveoli at the end of a 5. active reabsorption of sodium ions in the
forced maximal expiration is the ascending limb of the loop of Henle.
1. tidal volume.
2. vital capacity.
3. residual volume.
4. expiratory reserve volume.
5. inspiratory reserve volume.
65. In the absence of compensatory changes, a
drop in blood pressure results from

1. vasoconstriction.
61. 2. increased hematocrit.
Normal hemoglobin concentration is about 15 3. increased stroke volume.
gm.ldl. blood and normal arterial oxygen 4.
content is about 20 ml. aidl. blood. An increased cardiac output.
5. decreased venous return.
anemic individual breathing room air with a
hemoglobin concentration of 10 gmJdl. blood
is expected to have

1. normal arterial oxygen tension and normal

arterial oxygen content.
2. reduced arterial oxygen tension and 66. The chemical mediator at the neuroeffector
normal arterial oxygen content. junction in sweat glands is
3. normal arterial oxygen tension and
reduced arterial oxygen content. 1. atropine.
4. reduced arterial oxygen tension and 2. serotonin~
reduced arterial oxygen content. 3. epinephrine.
4. acetylchol ine.
5. norepi neph rine.

62. The hemoglobin dissociation curve is shifted

to the right by

1. a decrease in temperature. 67. Hypothyroidism in an adult results in

2. an increase in arterial Pcal.
3. an increase in arterial hydrogen ion 1. myxedema.
concentration. 2. thyrotoxicosis.
4. both (1)and (3) above. 3. osteitis fibrosa cystica.
5. both (2) and (3) above. 4. increased basal metabolic rate.
"

,
68. Carbon dioxide or bicarbonate is required in 72. The nitrogenous product that is excreted in
the biosynthesisof fatty acids because high amounts after prolonged acidosis is

1. the bicarbonate/carbonic acid buffer 1. urea.

system is very efficient at the pH optimum 2. ammonia.
of this sensitive enzyme system. 3. glutamine.
2. bicarbonate is a positive effector for this 4. creatinine.
system and favorably alters the 5. aspartic acid.
conformation of its enzymes.
3. carbon dioxide is incorporated into acetyl
coenzyme A forming malonyl coenzyme
A, an intermediate in the synthetic
process. 73. Epinephrine is most closely related in structure
4. carbon dioxide is incorporated into to
carbamyl phosphate, a reactive
intermediate in the synthetic process. 1. niacin.
5. carbon dioxide provides an anaerobic 2. glucose.
environment that prevents oxidation of the 3. glycerol.
sulfhydryl groups in the reactive sites of 4. tyrosine.
the enzyme system. 5. methionine.

69. Which of the following hormones facilitates 74. Development of ovarian follicles to the point
reabsorption of sodium in renal tubules? of ovulation is stimulated primarily by
1. Insulin 1. estrone.
2. Cortisone 2. progesterone.
3. Vasopressin 3. luteinizing hormone.
4. Aldosterone 4. follicle-stimulating hormone.
5. Parathyroid hormone 5. chorionic gonadotropic hormone.

70. Which of the following is a principal action of 75. Neutralization of acids by saliva results mainly
insulin? from which of the following salivary contents?
1. To mobil.ize lipid deposits 1-. -Mucin
2. To enhance cell permeability to glucose 2. Ammonia
3. To decrease cell permeability to glucose 3. Carbonate
4. To conserve glucose by breaking down 4. Bicarbonate
amino acids 5. Amino acids

71. Which of the following occurs in a normal
menstrual cycle?
1. Ovulation generally occurs 10 days from
the beginning of the cycle.
2. The ovum generally disintegrates or
becomes-nonviable if it is not fertilized
within four days.
3. The blood concentration of estradiol
increases as the corpus luteum develops.
4. The blood level of follicle-stimulating
hormone increases and the level of
luteinizing hormone decreases at the time
of ovulation.
76. The mechanism of systemic fluoride action in
reducing dental decay is most likely the result
of
1. an increase in hardness of the tooth.
2. an inhibition of proteolytic enzymes.
3. deposition of CaF2 in areas of enamel
susceptible to bacterial penetration.
4. an increase in carbohydrate metabolism in
the oral cavity as a result of enzyme
inhibition.
5. a reduction in rate of solubilization of
enamel as fluoride content of the tissue
Increases.

18
 ..

77. The most abundant nonphospholipid 83. The arrangement of sugars into 0- and
component of the cell membrane is L-configurations is based upon their
resemblance to 0- and l-
1. cholesterol.
2. 1. -
deoxycholate. glycine.
3. prostaglandin. 2. glucose.
4. macroglobulin. 3. fructose.
s. triacylglyceride. 4. glyceraldehyde.
5. None of the above

78. After functioning in the small intestines, the

largest portion of bile salts are
84. Which of the following proteins contain trace
1. excreted in the feces.
2. reabsorbed into the central lacteal. elements essential for their biologic action?
3. destroyed by bacteria in the large (a)
intestines. Trypsin
4. (b) Myoglobin
reabsorbed into the portal circulation and (c) Thyroglobulin
reused. (d)
s. Salivary amyla;;e
removed from the circulation by the (e) Carbonic anhydrase
kidneys and excreted in the urine.
1. (a), (b) and (c)
2. (a), (c) and (d)
79. What thermodynamic parameter is a measure 3. (a), (d) and (e)
of randomness or disorder in a system? 4. (b), (c) and (e)
". (b), (d) and (e)
1. Entropy 6. All of the above
2. Enthalpy
3. Free energy
4. Potentialenergy
85. Hydrolysis of sucrose by the enzyme sucrase
80. Which of the following solutions has an yields
osmotic pressure different from all the others?
(a) - galactose.
1. 1 M glucose (b) glucose.
2. 1 M sodium chloride (c) fructose.
3. 1 M potassium nitrate (d) maltose.
4. 1 N lithium iodide
5. 1-N hydrochloric acid 1. (a) and (b)
2. (b) only
3. (b) and (c)
.. 4. (b) and (d)
81. The function of rhythmic segmentation is
5. (c) and (d)
chiefly that of

1. macerating food.
2. mixing food with digestive secretions.
3. increasing the surface available for
absorption. 86. Normal production of sound enamel and
4. transporting material down the dentin requires adequate amounts of which of
gastrointestinal tract. the following vitamins?

(a) A
82. Which of the following describes the (b) B12
movement of glycine molecules in an electric (c) C
field, at a pH of 6.06 (the isoelectric pH for (d) 0
glycine)? (e) E
1. Glycine molecules will not move. 1. (a), (b) and (c)
2. All molecules will move to the anode. 2. (a), (b) and (d)
3. All molecules will move to the cathode. 3. (a), (b) and (e)
4. Half the molecules will move to the 4. (a), (c) and (d)
anode and half to the cathode. s. (b), (d) and (e)
s. None of the above 6. (c), (d) and (e)
..

87. The amino acid composition of mammalian 91. Which of the following are examples of local
collagen (Type I) is characterized by the (electrotonic or subthreshold) potentials?
presence of
(a) Inhibitory postsynaptic potentials
(a) cysteine. (b) Excitatory postsynaptic potentials
(b) hydroxyproline and hydroxylysine. (c) Generator potentials in pacinian
(c) no sulfur-containing amino acids. corpuscles
(d) glycine, as nearly one-third the total (d) Endplate potentials at the
number of amino acid residues. neuromuscular junction
(e) a high content of aromatic amino
acids. 1. (a), (b) and (c)
2. (a), (b) and (d)
1. (a), (b) and (d) 3. (a), (c) and (d)
2. (a), (c) and (e) 4. (b), (c) and (d)
3. (b) only 5. All of the above
4. (b), (c) and (d)
5. (b) and (d) only

88. In general, molecules that can penetrate a 92. Hydrolysis of nucleic acids is likely to yield all
biologic membrane with relative ease are of the following EXCEPT

(a) 1. ribose.
highly charged.
(b) nonpolar in nature. 2. adenine.
(c) small in size (below 7.5 A in 3. deoxyribose.
diameter). 4. acetic acid.
5. phosphoric acid.
1. (a) and (b)
2. (a) and (c)
3. (b) and (c)
4. All of the above
93. Which of the following is NOT a primary
(major) electrolyte of saliva?
89. In an experimental animal, the heart rate can 1. Sodium
be accelerated by 2. Calcium
3. Fluoride
(a) sectioning vagus nerves. 4. Potassium
(b) stimulating vagus nerves. 5. Bicarbonate
(c) sectioning sympathetic nerves.
(d) stimulating sympathetic nerves.

1. (a) only
2. (a) or (b) 94. Excessive use of fats by the body as a source
3. (a) or (d) of energy during starvation or disturbances in
4. (b) or (d) carbohydrate metabolism may lead to any of
5. (c) only the following conditions EXCEPT

1. ketosis.
90. Which Gf the following occur when active 2. acidosis.
transport is involved in the movement of a 3. ketonuria.
solute across a biologic membrane? 4. alkalosis.

(a) Expenditure of metabolic energy

(b) A gain in free energy by the system
(c) A unidirectional movement of the
solute
(d) Movement of the solute against a 95. Which of the following enzymes does NOT
concentration gradient function in association with a membrane?

1. (a) and (b) 1. Permease

2. (a), (c) and (d) 2. Na1'/K+ ATPase
3. (b), (c) and (d) 3. Adenylate cyclase
4. (b) and (d) only 4. Phosphofructokinase
5. All of the above 5. Coenzyme Q reductase

20
 ....

96. A substance that is actively secreted by the 99. Gastrointestinal hormones act on each of the
kidney is helpful in measurement of all of the following organs EXCEPTthe
following EXCEPT
1. stomach. .
1. renal blood flow. 2. pancreas.
2. renal plasma flow. 3. duodenum.
3. tubular maximum. 4. gallbladder. -
4. filtration fraction. 5. urinary bladder.
5. glomerular filtration rate.

97. Coupled respiration requires all of the

following EXCEPT
1. ADP.
2. oxygen.
3. carbon dioxide.
4. an electron donor.
5. inorganic phosphate.

100. The hypothalamus-pituitary complex controls

98. Each of the following is a function of the liver hormonal secretions of all of the following
EXCEPT EXCEPT

1. bile formation. 1. corpora lutea.

2. urea elimination. 2. thyroid glands.
3. steroid conjugation. 3. ovarian follicles.
4. carbohydrate storage. 4. parathyroid glands.
5. prothrombin synthesis. 5. interstitial cells of the testes.
..

NATIONAL BOARD DENTAL EXAMINATION PART I

ANSWER KEY

BIOCHEMISTRY-PHYSIOLOGY- DEC. 1987

NO. ANS. NO. ANS. NO. ANS. NO. ANS.

1. 3 26. 2 51. 3 76. 5
2. 2 27. 2 52. 4 77. 1
3. 3 28. 2 53. 3 78. 4
4. 2 29 1 54. 4 79. 1
5. 2 30. 4 55. 1 80. 1
6. 5 31. 1 56. 1 81. 2
7. 4 32. 2 57. 4 82. 1
8. 4 33. 2 58. 3 83. 4
9. 1 34. 2 59. 3 84. 4
10. 1 35. 4 60. 3 85. 3
11. 4 36. 2 61. 3 86. 4
12. 1 37. 2 62. 5 87. 4
13. 1 38. 3 63. 1 . 3
88.
14. 2 39. 5 64. 5 89. 3
15. 3 40. 2 65. 5 90. 5
16. 3 41. 2 66. 4 91. 5
17. 5 42. 2 67. , 1 92. 4
18. 2 43. 4 68. 3 93. 3
19. 4 44. 3 69. 4 94. 4
20. 2 45. 1 70. 2 95. 4
21. 3 46. 4 71. 2 96. 5
22. 3 47. 1 72. 2 97. 3
23. 3 48. 4 73. 4 98. 2
24. 3 49. 2 74. 4 99. 5
25. 3 50. 2 75. 4 100. 4
-

PART I MICROBIOLOGY-PATHOLOGY (13)

MON DAY-P.M.
DECEMBER 1988

1. Which of the following factors has the 7. Which of the following diseases is
greatest impact on prognosis of a skin characterized by painful vesicles that occur
melanoma? on the skin or a mucosal surface along the
distribution of a sensory nerve?
1. Site of origin
2. Depth of invasion 1. Smallpox
3. Degree of pigmentation 2. Psoriasis
4. Existence of ulceration 3. Cat-scratchfever
5. Size of surface area involved 4. Recurrentvaricella
5. Infectious mononucleosis

2. The most common cause of a massive 8. Lysozyme can attack bacterial cells by
hematemesis in alcoholics is
1. degrading their flagella.
1. peptic ulcer. 2. inactivating their ribosomes.
2. acute gastritis. 3. preventing the transpeptidation reaction.
3. esophageal varices. 4. breaking the bond between N-acetyl
4. Mal rory-Weiss - syndrome. glucosamine and N-acetyl muramic acid.
5. acute hemorrhagic pancreatitis.

9. Although the exact mechanism of formation

3. The chemotactic accumulation of of calculus is not understood, it is known
that the organic matrix of calculus in humans
inflammatory cells that occurs at the sites includes
where immune complexes are deposited is
most probably the result of 1. no living microorganisms.
2. a fusospirochetal complex.
1. C5a. 3.
2. an abundance of microorganisms.
IgA. 4. only by-products of bacterial
3. IgD. metabolism.
4. rgE.
5. sensitized-lymphocytes.
10. Generally, resistance of a bacterium to killing
by heat is influenced by time and by
4. Removal of the capsule from an encapsulated temperature employed in growth of the
bacterium js likely to. result in culture. Another factor is the ability of the
organism to
1. loss of viability.
2. 1. form spores.
decreased generation time.
3. 2. withstand acid pH.
failure of the cell to gram stain.
4. 3. produce protoplasts.
increased susceptibility to mutation.
5. 4. undergo transformation.
increased susceptibility to phagocytosis.
5. grow at elevated temperatures.

5. The major factor in the production of 11. The renal lesion most commonly associated
inflammatory edema is with benign hypertension is

1. venous obstruction. 1. renal atresia.

2. arterial dilatation. 2. acute pyelonephritis.
3. generalized kidney damage. 3. chronic pyelonephritis.
4. increased capillary permeability. 4. arteri 0 Ioneph roscleros is.

12. The most likely diagnosis for a patient with

6. Left-sided heart failure or shock may be dysphonia, dysphagia, weight loss and a
associated with history of heavy cigarette smoking is

1. pneumocon iosis. 1. laryngitis.

2. bronch iectasis. 2. tonsillitis.
3. pulmonary edema. 3. laryngeal polyps.
4. pulmonary emboli. 4. carcinoma of the lungs.
5. carcinoma of the larynx.
,

13. Two important factors for initiation of caries 18. A patient with dentinogenesis imperfecta has
by oral streptococci are a history of multiple fractures. Examination
reveals blue sclera. The most probable
1. production of protease and production diagnosis is
of acid.
2. production of dextranase and production 1. achondroplasia.
of soluble dextran. 2. Marfan's syndrome.
3. production of collagenase and 3. osteogenesis imperfecta.
production of hyaluronidase. 4. Albers-Schonberg disease.
4. fermentation of mannitol and sorbitol
and production of protease.
5. synthesis of insoluble dextran and 19. The primary function of SlgA is to
production of glucosyltransferase.
1. promote phagocytosis by monocytes.
2. prevent ingress of antigen through
mucosa.
14. In order for a virus to infect a host cell, it 3. activate complement in secretory fluids.
must first absorb to the cell surface. This 4. activate KINK cells in the gingival
involves crevice.
1. phagocytic activity by the cell.
2. energy output on the part of the cell. 20. Resistance of Staphylococcus aureus to
3. insertion of virally specified penicillin is caused by
glycoproteins into the host cell
membrane. 1. pleomorphism.
4. a specific interaction between a viral 2. an enzyme that attacks penicillin.
surface component and a specific 3. production of a penicillin analogue.
receptor on the cell membrane. 4. a lack of mycolic acid in the cell wall.
5. all of the above. 5. the presence of a tough
lipopolysaccharide capsule.

15. Laboratory results of a patient's serum show 21. Which of the following serum values is likely
presence of HBs and anti-HBs. Which of the
following can be concluded? to be elevated in a patient with
hyperparathyroidism?
1. The patient is a carrier.
2. 1. Calcium
The patient has acute disease. Chloride
3. 2.
The patient is in the convalescent stage.
A. 3. Potassium
The patient has recovered completely. 4.
5. None of the above Phosphorus
5. Acid phosphatase

16. An increased serum acid phosphatase level is 22. The principal antibacterial action of the
clinically significant and aids in the diagnosis tetracyclines is inhibition of
of which of the following conditions?
1. DNA synthesis.
1. Paget's disease of bone 2. protein synthesis.
2. Primary hyperparathyroidism 3. histone formation.
3. Secondary hyperparathyroidism 4. cell wall synthesis.
4. Breast carcinoma with bone metastasis 5. cell membrane function.
5. Prostatic carcinoma with bone metastasis

23. The most acceptable conditions for complete

sterilization by autoclaving are
17. A benign neoplasm of the myometriumof
. the uterus is a 1. 5 minutes at 275°F. (135°(.) and 15 Ibs.
of pressure.
1. myeloma. 2. 15 minutes at 275°F. (135°(.) and 10 Ibs.
2. fibroma. of pressure.
3. leiomyoma. 3. 20 minutes at 250°F. (121°(.) and 1O.lbs.
4. myoblastoma. of pressure.
5. rhabdomyoma. 4. 20 minutes at 250°F. (121°(.) and 15 Ibs.
of pressure.
.

24. The class of antibodies first detected in 30. Long-standing gradual ischemia of an organ
serum after primary immunization is usually or a tissue most likely results in
1. IgA. 1. atrophy.
2. IgO. 2. dysplasia.
3. IgE. 3. metaplasia.
4. IgG. 4. hypertrophy.
5. IgM. 5. hyperplasia.

25. The principal chemical mediator located in 31. A disease caused by the interaction of
the granules of mast cells is
antigen and IgE on the surface of mast cells
1. plasmin. with release of histamine is
2. histamine.
3. 1. serum sickness.
complement.
4. 2. bronchial asthma.
bradykinin.
5. 3. pulmonary emphysema.
norepi neph rine. ". 4. lupus erythematosus.
5. rheumatoid arthritis.
26. Production of bone in scar tissue occurs by

1. dysplasia. 32. Which of the following identifies the cell that

2. anaplasia. produces interleukin-1 and the cell affected
3. neoplasia. by interleukin-l, respectively?
4. metaplasia.
5. fibroplasia. 1. T cell-B cell
2. Macrophage-T cell
3. Macrophage-monocyte
27. Which of the following diseases is. 4. Dendritic cell-B lymphocyte
characterized by an extremely high level of
alkaline phosphatase, normal levels of
calcium and phosphorus, enlargement of the
skull, and an increased incidence of 33. Patients with Bruton's agammaglobulinemia
osteogenic sarcoma? principally suffer from infections caused by

1. Osteoporosis 1. fungi.
2. Multiple myeloma 2. viruses.
3. Fibrous dysplasia 3. parasites.
4. Osteogenesis imperfecta 4. pyogenic bacteria.
5. Paget's disease of bone 5. tubercle bacilli.

28. A very high percentage of cases of hepatitis 34.

A are found in Which of the following is diagnosed by
karyotyping?
1. young people. 1.
2. Phenylketonuria
recent recipients of gamma globulin. 2. Neurofibromatosis
3. recent recipients of whole blood 3.
transfusions. Tay-Sachs disease
4. Turner's syndrome
4. persons with histories of recurrent 5. Sickle cell anemia
respiratory infections.

29. The etiologic basis of Hashimoto's thyroiditis 35~ Neoplasms of which of the following organs
is have been shown to be hormonally
dependent?
1. autoimmune.
2. bacterial infection. 1. Liver
3. hereditary enzyme deficiency. 2. Parotid
4. premalignant diffuse hyperplasia. 3. Prostate
5. secondary to hyperpituitarism. 4. Pancreas
..

36. Chronic passive congestion of the lung is

41. The likelihood that oral bacteria play an
characterized by important role in gingival inflammation is
evidenced by
1. hyaline membranes.
2. chronic bronchitis. 1. an increase in salivary hyaluronidase.
3. giant cell arteritis. 2. an increased number of bacteria in
4. interstitial infiltration of PMN's. saliva. ~ .-
S. edema of alveolar walls and "heart 3. an increase in bacterial antibodies in
failure" cells. saliva.
4. appearance of new pathogenic strains in
the affected area.
s. a reduction in inflammation by removal
of bacteria.

37. Use of vaccines for preventing clinical

symptoms after introduction of the virus is 42. The effectiveness of autoclaving is best
most likely to be effective against determined by

1. rabies. 1. culturing bacterial spores.

2. influenza. 2. culturing the water reservoir.
3. poliomyelitis. 3. thermocouples (temperature recording
4. herpes zoster. devices).
4. indicators that change color at elevated
temperatures.

43. An oral lesion that may appear as an ulcer, a

38. Which of the following is characterized by a nodule or a vegetative process and is often
collapse of alveoli? mistaken for squamous cell carcinoma is a
manifestation of
1. Empyema
2. Pneumonia 1. candidiasis.
3. Emphysema 2. trichinosis;
4. Atelectasis 3. sporotrichosis.
S. Bronchiectasis 4. histoplasmosis.

44. The nuclear material of a bacterial cell is

typically characterized as a
39. A virus causing recurrent herpetic lesions is 1. single, double-stranded DNA molecule
never completely eliminated but assumes a enclosed within a nuclear membrane.
state of
2. single, double-stranded DNA molecule
not confined within a nuclear
1. latency. membrane.
2. symbiosis. 3. rigid, DNA-protein complex enclosed
3. mutualism.
within a nuclear membrane.
4. commensalism.
4. rigid, DNA-lipopolysaccharide complex
S. none of the above. not confined within a nuclear
membrane.

45. Which of the following is the most common

40. Patients receiving chemotherapy for leukemia initial sign or symptom in patients with
are particularly prone to develop oral malignant lymphoma?

1. candidiasis. 1. Pallor
2. actinomycosis. 2. Weight loss
3. blastomycosis. 3. Lymphadenopathy
4. histoplasmosis. 4. Chronic infection
S. coccidioidomycosis. S. Unexplained fever

>;
26
.

46. Most rickettsial diseases produce severe 52. Which of the following laboratory results is
illness in humans because rickettsiae diagnostic of acute pancreatitis?

1. produce potent exotoxins. 1. Decreased albumin

2. are destructive for endothelial cells. 2. Elevated serum lipase
3. are particularly destructive to cutaneous 3. Decreased serum amylase
tissues. 4. Elevated alkaline phosphatase
4. are primarily neurotropic and cause
extensive damage in certain CNS
centers.
53. Classic hemophilia is due to a deficiency of
normal Factor VIII which in turn is due to a
47. Which of the following bacteria has the genetic deficiency that is
highest lipid content in the cell wall? v
1. partially dominant.
1. Escherichia coli 2. autosomal dominant.
2. Lactobacillus casei 3. autosomal recessive.
3. 4. sex-linked dominant.
Leptotrichia bucca/is
4. Staphylococcus aureus 5. sex-linked recessive.
5. Mycobacterium luberculosis

54. Ten days after hospitalization for a large,

48. A complication of peptic ulcer disease that incapacitating myocardial infarct, a
accounts for the majority of deaths is
50-year-old man suddenly develops paralysis
1. of the right side of his body. The best
bleeding.
2. explanation for his brain damage is
perforation.
3. surgical complication. 1. rupture of a congenital aneurysm of the
4. malignant transformation. circle of Willis.
5. obstruction from edema or scarring. 2. brain abscess from necrosis of the
myocardium.
3. detachment of a bacterial embolus from
49. Generally, the antibiotic of choice for the pulmonic valve.
prophylactic therapy covering dental 4. detachment of a mural thrombus from
procedures in a patient with a heart valve the right ventricle. .
abnormality who is allergic to penicillin is 5. detachment of a mural thrombus from
the left ventricle.
1. ampicillin.
2. lincomycin.
3. tetracycl ine.
4. streptomyci n. 55. Features of the herpes simplex virus type 1
5. erythromycin. virion surface include

1. no envelope.
50. Which of the following organs is the most 2. an envelope synthesized de novo.
uncommon site for infarcts? 3. an envelope acquired by budding
through the cytoplasmic membrane.
1. Brain 4. an envelope acquired by budding
2. Heart through the nuclear membrane.
3. liver j, none of the above.
4. Kidney
5. Adrenals

56. Hemorrhagic infarction and necrosis are

51. Cervicofacial actinomycosis is usually due to characteristic of which of the following
fungal diseases?
1. poor aseptic technique during oral
surgery. 1. Candidiasis
2. contamination of a trauma or surgical 2. Actinomycosis
site with spores. 3. Cryptococcosis
3. contamination of a trauma or surgical 4. Histoplasmosis
site with endogenous organisms. 5. Coccidioidomycosis
4. spread of the organisms from a dermal 6. Mucormycosis (Phycomycosis)
or thoracic infection.
..

I
I
I
57. The chemical nature of bacterial endotoxins 62. Bacterial endotoxin exerts its pathologic
is a
. I
effect, in part, by

1. lipid. 1. stimulating production of IgA.

2. protein. 2. activating the complement cascade.
3. complex carbohydrate. 3. inactivating nonspecific Iymphokines.
4. lipopolysaccharide complex. 4. releasing transfer factor from
5. low molecular weight polypeptide. B lymphocytes.
5. releasing vasoactive lipopolysaccharides
from mast cells.

63. The host response to a malignancy is best

58. Detergents kill bacteria by interfering with
the function of the cell reflected by

1. marked cellularity of the tumor.

1. wall.
2. many mitotic figures in the tumor.
2. capsule. 3. lymphocytic infiltration at the edge of
3. membrane.
4. ribosome. ..
the neoplasm.
4. .a large number of blood vessels in the
5. ch romosome.
neoplastic mass.
5. large areas of necrosis in the center of
the neoplastic mass.

59. Phage conversion is responsible for 64. Which of the following is most commonly
associated with development of
1. transduction of bacteria. gastrointestinal cancer?
2. antigenic phase variation.
3. production of {J-galactosidase.. 1. .Amebiasis
4. ability of Rhizobium species to fix 2. VilIous adenoma
nitrogen. 3. Meckel's diverticulum
5. production of erythrogenic toxin by 4. Duodenal peptic ulcer
Streptococcus pyogenes. 5. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome

65. Which of the following is the most common

skin cancer in man?
60. An Rh-negative mother del ivered a normal 1. Malignant melanoma
first child. Her second child developed 2. Basal cell carcinoma.
symptoms of erythroblastosis fetalis. Which of 3. Squamous cell carcinoma
the following can be concluded? 4. Sebaceous adenocarcinoma
5. Transitional cell carcinoma
1. The father is Rh-negative.
2. The first baby is Rh-negative.
3. The first baby is a girl; the second is a 66. Multiple drug resistance is related most
boy.
4. The mother has very high levels of closely to
serum complement and anti-Rh IgE. 1. viruses.
5. None of the above
2. plasm ids.
3. transformation.
4. cell chromosomes.

61. A summer illness that produces vesicular 67. Which of the following organisms is most
lesions of the uvula, anterior pillars and the frequently isolated from the oral cavity?
posterior pharynx is
1. Streptococcus sanguis
1. influenza. 2. Streptococcus pyogenes
2. herpesvirus. 3A Streptococcus pneumoniae
3. ECHO viruSe 4: Neisseria meningitidis
4. coxsackievi ruSe 5. Staphylococcus aureus

28
.

68. Which of the following characteristics of 73. Which of the following are rarely, if ever,
enterobacteria is most important in hospital acquired from another individual?
infections?
(a) Blastomycosis
1. High degree of invasiveness (b) Sporotrichosis
2. Ability to become resistant to antibiotics (c) Histoplasmosis
3. Production of enzymes destructive to (d) Neonatal candidiasis
tissue
4. Ability to survive drying due to spore 1. (a) and (b) only
formation 2. (a), (b) and (c)
3. (a), (b) and (d)
4. (a) and (c) only
5. (b) and (c) only
6. (b) and (d) only
7. All of the above
69. The most common clinical consequence of
benign prostatic hyperplasia is
74. Granulation tissue typically contains
1. pain.
2. jaundice. - (a) fibroblasts.
3. urinary tract obstruction. (b) nerve fibers.
4. red blood cell casts in urine. (c) endothelial cells.
5. progression to prostatic carcinoma. (d) epithelioid cells.
(e) giant cells.

1. (a) and (b)

2. (a) and (c)
3. (b) and (d)
70. In organisms sensitive to penicillin, this 4. (c) and (d)
antibiotic shows the greatest bactericidal 5. (c) and (e)
activity against 6. (d) and (e)

1. growing gram-negative bacteria.

2. growing gram-positive bacteria. 75. Significant functions of polymorphonuclear
3. nongrowing gram-negative bacteria. leukocytes in inflammation are
4. nongrowing gram-positive bacteria.
5. sporulating gram-negative bacteria. (a) replication of new cells.
. (b) phagocytosis of bacteria.
(c) elaboration of proteolytic
enzymes.
(d) elaboration of antibodies.

71. Myasthenia gravis is caused by dysfunction of 1. (a) and (b)

the 2. (a) and (c)
3. (b) and (c)
1. motor nerves. 4. (b) and (d)
2. smooth muscle. 5. (c) and (d)
3. sensory nerves.
4. skeletal muscle.
5. myoneural junction. 76. IgEis involved in which of the following
conditions?

(a) Hives
(b) Hay fever
(c) Pemphigus vulgaris
72. Which antibody type is resistant to hydrolysis (d) Lupus erythematosus
by microbial proteolytic enzymes?
1. (a) and (b)
1. IgA 2. (a) and (c)
2. SlgA 3. (a) and (d)
3. IgE 4. (b) and (c)
4. IgG 5. (c) and (d)
-

77. Invasive staphylococcal infections of orofacial 80. Infants are routinely immunized against
structures are likely to result in diseases caused by

(a) brain abscess. (a) Brucella abortus.

(b) osteomyelitis. (b) Bordetellapertussis. .

(c) cavernous sinus thrombosis. (c) Corynebacterium diphtheriae.

(d) localized tissue abscesses. (d) Clostridium tetani.
(e) Hemophilus influenzae.
1. (a), (b) or (c)
2. (a), (b) or (d) 1. (a), (b) and (c)
3. (a), (c) or (d) 2. (a), (c) and (e)
4. (b), (c) or (d) 3. (b), (c) and (d)
5. Any of the above
4. (b), (d) and (e)
5. (c), (d) and (e)

81. Which of the following blood diseases are

red cell disorders?

(a) Thalassemia
(b) Polycythemia vera
(c) Erythroblastosis fetalis
78. Which of the following diseases are
(d) Hereditary spherocytosis
commonly associated with pathogenic
staphylococci ? 1. (a), (b) and (c)
2. (a), (b) and (d)
(a) Impetigo
3. (a), (c) and (d)
(b) Dysentery 4.
(c) (b), (c) and (d)
Food poisoning 5. All of the above
(d) Rheumatic fever

1. (a) and (b)

2. (a) and (c) 82. Basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell
3. (a) and (d) carcinoma are similar in that both
4, (b) and (c)
5. (b) and (d) (a) are invasive.
6. (c) and (d) (b) readily metastasize.
(c) exhibit mitotic figures.
(d) are cured by early excision.
(e) commonly occur in the oral cavity.

1. (a), (c) and (d)

2. (a), (d) and (e)
3. (b) and (c)
4. (b), (d) and (e)
5. (d) and (e) only
79. Which of the following are associated with a
patient who has AIDS?

(a) Recent Heptavax@vaccination 83. The secondary stage of syphilis may be

(b) Loss of cellular immunity defenses manifested in which of the following forms?
(c) Alteration of T-helperlT-suppressor
cell ratio in blood (a) Hard chancre
(d) Increased susceptibility to (b) Soft chancre
opportunistic infections (c) Maculopapular rash
(e) Decreased immunoglobulin (d) Extensive CNS involvement
concentration in peripheral (e) Mucous patches in the oral cavity
circulation
1. (a) and (b)
1. (a), (b) and (d) 2. (a) and (d)
2. (a), (b) and (e) 3. (b) and (c)
3. (a), (c) and (e) 4. (c) only
4. (b), (c) and (d) 5. (c) and (e)
5. (c), (d) and (e) 6. (d) only

30
-

84. Ascites, which is often a complication of 87. Abnormalitiesin cell growth that cause cells,
alcoholic liver disease, develops as a result of tissues or organs to be smaller than normal
include
(a) cirrhosis.
(b) esophageal varices. (a) metaplasia.
(c) portal hypertension. (b) atrophy.
(d) decreased protein production by (c) anaplasia.
the liver. (d) hypoplasia.

1. (a) only 1. (a) and (b) only

2. (a) and (c) only 2. (a), (b) and (d)
3. (a), (c) and (d) 3. (a) and (c) only
4. (b) and (c) 4. (a), (c) and (d)
5. (b) and (d) 5. (b), (c) and (d)
6. All of the above 6. (b) and (d) only

85. Cells of which of the followingretain a latent

capacity for mitotic division?
88. Right-sided heart failure affects the kidneys by
(a) liver causing
(b) Bone marrow
(c) Cardiac muscle (a) renal hypoxia.
(d) Salivary glands (b) venous congestion.
(e) Neurons (c) retention of H2O and NaCI.
(d) decreased glomerular filtration
1. (a), (b) and (c) rate.
2. (a), (b) and (d)
3. (a), (c) and (d) 1. (a), (b) and (c)
4. (b), (c) and (e) 2. (a), (b) and (d)
5. (b), (d) and (e) 3. (a), (c) and (d)
4. (b), (c) and (d)
...
J. All of the above

86. In healing of a fracture, which of the

following will prevent favorable
reconstruction and alignment of bone?

(a) Formation of pseudoarthrosis 89. A soft tissue infection rather diffusely spread
(b) Functional remodeling of the along the mandible and into the floor of the
procallus by osteoblasts and mouth would likely involve which of the
osteoclasts following organisms?
(c) Formation of new bone at the site
of fracture (a) Eikenella corrodens
(d) Presence of sequestrum (b) Staphylococcus aureus
(e) Organization of a hematoma at (c) Streptococcus pyogenes
the site of fracture (d) Peptostreptococcus anaerobius

1. (a) only 1. (a), (c) and (d)

2. (a) and (d) 2. (b) and (c) only
3. (b) and (c) only 3. (b), (c) and (d)
4. (b), (c) and (d) 4. (b) and (d) only
5. (d) and (e) 5. All of the above
 ..

90. Bacteria of which of the following genera 95. Which of the following is NOT mediated by
have a limited range of habitats in the oral immunoglobulins?
cavity?
1. Anaphylaxis
(a) Treponema 2. Atopic allergy
(b) Bacteroides 3. Serum sickness
(c) Actinomyces 4. Arthus' reaction
(d) Streptococcus 5. Cpntact dermatitis

1. (a) and (b)

2. (a) and (c)
--. 3. (a) and (d)
96. Which of the following is NOT a direct cause
4. (b) and (c) of left-sided heart failure?
5. (b) and (d)
6. (c) and (d)
1. Emphysema
2. Hypertension
3. Aortic stenosis
4. Myocardial infarction
91. Which of the following will NOT promote 5. Rheumatic heart disease
fluid retention in the' interstitial
compartment?

1. Lymphatic obstruction 97. Which of the following viruses is least likely

2. Increased capillary permeability to be spread in the dental office?
3. Decreased osmotic pressure of the blood
4. Increased hydrostatic pressure of the 1. HTLVIII
blood 2. Adenovirus
5. Decreased osmotic pressure of the 3. Rhinovirus
interstitial fluid 4. Hepatitis B
5. Herpes simplex virus

.., 92. Each of the following may be seen in

multiple myeloma EXCEPT 98. Which of the following is NOT a function of
T lymphocytes in defense of the host?
1. hypoproteinemia.
2. plasma cell neoplasia. 1. Production of MIF
3. hypergammaglobul inemia. 2. Production of histamine
4. light-chain proteinuria. 3. Activation of macrophages
5. punched-out areas of bone. 4. Production of chemotactic factors
5. Protection against intracellular parasites

93. Which of the following is NOT a feature of

infectious mononucleosis? 99. A patient with which of the following
diseases is least likely to show "clubbing" of
1. Splenomegaly fingers and cyanotic nail beds?
2. Necrotizing pharyngitis
3. Depressed heterophile titer 1. Polycythemia
4. Abnormal lymphocytes in peripheral 2. Congenital heart disease
blood 3. Chronic pulmonary disease
5. Marked increase in the number of 4. Congestive heart failure
circulating lymphocytes 5. Systemic lupus erythematosus

94. A primary tumor of which of the following 100. Which of the following species of
organs is least likely to give rise to skeletal streptococci is usually NOT found in human
metastasis? dental plaque?
1. Breast 1. S. mutans
2. Tongue 2. S. sanguis
3. Kidney 3. S. pyogenes
4. Thyroid 4. 5. sa/ivarius
5. Prostate 5. S. mitior (5. mitis)
J
i~
 ..

NATIONAL BOARD DENTAL EXAMINATION PART I

ANSWER KEY

MICROBIOLOGY-PATHOLOGY - DECEMBER 1988

NO. ANS. NO. ANS. NO. ANS. NO. ANS.

1. 2 26. 4 51. 3 76. 1

2. 3 27. 5 52 . 2 77. 5
3. 1 28. 1 53. 5 78. 2
4. 5 29. 1 54. 5 79. 4
5. 4 30. 1 55. 4 80. 3

6. 3 31. 2 56. 6 81. 5

7. 4 32 . 2 57. 4 82. 1
8. 4 33. 4 58. 3 83. 5
9. 3 34. 4 59. 5 84. 3
10. 1 35. 3 60. 5 85. 2

11. 4 36. 5 61. 4 86. 2

12. 5 37. 1 62. 2 87. 6
13 . 5 38. 4 63. 3 88. 5
14. 4 39. 1 64. 2 89. 5
15. 1 40. 1 65. 2 90. 1

16. 5 41. 5 66. 2 91. 5

17. 3 42. 1 67. 1 92. 1
18. 3 43. 4 68. 2 93. 3
19. 2 44. 2 69. 3 94. 2
20. 2 45. 3 70. 2 95. 5

21. 1 46. 2 71. 5 96. 1

22. 2 47. 5 72. 2 97. 1
23. 4 48. 2 73. 2 98. 2
24. 5 49. 5 74. 2 99. 5
25. 2 50. 3 75. 3 100. 3
..
DENTALANATOMYand OCCLUSION (14)

All test items relating to occlusion refer to a Class 1 5.
canine and molar relationship unless otherwise
specified. Terms such as ilnormal" or ilideal" are
synonymous with the above definition.
1.
A cross section at midroot of a permanent
mandibular central incisor is likely to show
that the pulp cavity is
In cases of delayed resorption of primary
incisors, the permanent incisors may be
expected to erupt
1. facial to the normal arch form.
2. lingual to the normal arch form.
3. mesial to the normal arch position.
4.
distal to the normal arch position.

1. almost round.
2. divided into two canals.
3. flattened mesiodistally.
4. flattened faciolingually. 6. The protrusive pathway of mandibular cusps
5. shaped much the same as that of a on maxillary posterior teeth is toward the
maxillary central incisor.
1. facial.
2. distal.
2. 3. lingual.
Identify the permanent maxillary tooth
sketched below. 4. mesial.
5. None of the above

7. In an ideal intercuspal position, the

1. mesiolingual cusp of a permanent
Right first mol?r
2. Leftfirst molar mandibular second molar opposes th~
3. Right second molar
4. Left second molar
1. embrasure between maxillary first and
second molars.
2. distal fossa of the maxillary second
molar. .
3. In the intercuspal position, the cusp tip of 3. lingual sulcus of the maxillary second
the permanent maxillary canine is in direct molar.
alignment with which anatomic feature of the 4. central fossa of the maxillary second
mandibular teeth? molar.
5. mesial fossa of the maxillary. third molar.
1. Facial embrasure
2. Incisal embrasure
3. Interproximal space
4. Distal ridge of the cusp of the
mandibular canine
5. Mesial ridge of the facial cusp of the
mandibular first premolar
8. Viewed anteriorly, which diagram represents
a chewing stroke?

4. Which of the following provides the most

reliable criterion for .differentiating permanent
mandibular central incisors from permanent
mandibular lateral incisors? 0
1. Difference in root length I
2. Difference in rotation of the crown on
the root 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
3. Difference in ratio of crown length to
root length 1. 1
4. Degree of parallelism between mesial 2. 2
and distal surfaces of the tooth 3. 3 .j-,;
5. Degree of slope of the inci.saledge 4. 4
when viewed facially 5. 5
,I
 ...

9. On a mandibular first molar, the distofacial 13. In an ideal intercuspal position, the facial
groove serves as an escapeway for the cusp of the mandibular first premolar
mesiolingual cusp of the maxillary first molar contacts the
during which of the following mandibular
movements? 1. mesial marginal ridge area of the
maxillary first premolar. ~
1. Protrusive 2. distal marginal ridge area of the
2. Centric slide maxillary first premolar.
3. Working (laterotrusion) 3. distal inner aspect of the lingual cusp of
4. Non-working (mediotrusion or balancing) the maxillary first premolar.
4. mesial outer aspect of the facial cusp of
the maxillary first premolar.
5. central groove of the maxillary second
premolar.

10. In an ideal intercuspal position, the

distolingual cusp of a permanent maxillary
first molar opposes the
14. In an ideal arrangement of teeth in the
intercuspal position, the mesiofacial cusp of
I 1. central fossa of the mandibular first the permanent mandibular first molar would
\ molar. be in contact with the maxillary first molar
I 2. lingual sulcus of the mandibular first
I molar. 1. in the central fossa.
3. facial embrasure between mandibular 2. in the distal fossa.
first and second molars. 3. on the obi ique ridge.
4. mesial fossa of the mandibular second 4. on the mesial marginal ridge area.
r molar.
5. mesial marginal ridge area of the
mandibular second molar.
15. The lingual cusp of a mandibular first
premolar contacts the

1. lingual embrasures of a maxillary canine

and a maxillary first premolar.
11. Identify the cusp of the maxillary tooth 2. mesial incline plane of the lingual cusp
below that contacts the dot. of a first premolar.
3. mesial marginal ridge of a maxillary first
premolar.
4. cingulum of a maxillary canine.
5. None of the above

16. Which of the following sketches illustrates

1. Buccal cusp of second premolar the distal view of a permanent maxillary first
2. Lingual cusp of second premolar molar?
3. Buccal cusp of first premolar
4. Lingual cusp of first premolar
5. Lingual surface of canine
6. None of the above

12. The disk (meniscus) of the

temporomandibular joint is moved forward 1 2 3 4
principally by the
1. condyle.
2. articular capsule. 1. 1
3. stylomandibular ligament. 2. 2
4. medial pterygoid muscle. 3. 3
5. lateral pterygoid muscle. 4. 4

35
 ..

17. A primary mandibular second molar differs 22. The highest and sharpest cusp on a primary
from a permanent mandibular first molar in mandibular first molar is the
that a,primary mandibular second molar
1. mesiolingual.
1. is darker in color. 2. distolingual.
2. is larger in size. 3. mesiofacial.
3. has a form peculiar to itself. 4. distofacial.
4. has a larger occlusal surface. 5. distal.
5. has roots that are more divergent.

23. Viewed proximally, which of the following

18. The embrasures surrounding the contact area teeth have the greatest axial inclinations
of an anterior tooth are relative to the occlusal plane?

1. gingival, cervical, facial and lingual. 1. Maxillary lateral incisors

2. incisal, cervical, facial and lingual. 2. Maxillary central incisors
3. incisal, cervical and facial only. 3. Mandibular lateral incisors
4. cervical, lingual and facial only. 4. Mandibular central incisors

19. The primary teeth that present the most 24. The roots of a primary mandibular second
outstanding morphologic deviations from molar are flared to allow space for the
permanent teeth are developing tooth bud of which permanent
mandibular tooth?
1. central incisors.
2. lateral incisors. 1. First molar
3. canines. 2. Second molar
4. first molars. 3. First premolar
5. second molars. 4. Second premolar

20. Which of the following sketches illustrates 25. In an ideal arrangement of permanent
the occlusal view of a primary maxillary right maxillary teeth, the narrowest incisal or
first molar? occlusal embrasure is the one between

1. central incisors.
2. central and lateral incisors.

1
~~
1f ~
'-

2
.
...'
(..LJ
..",

3 4
-_._.
@}
: ::
.
'",'

5
:
3.
4.
5.
6.
lateral incisor and canine.
canine and first premolar.
first and second premolars.
second premolar and first molar.

..--

1. 1 26. The incisor indicated by the arrow in the

2. 2 sketch below is a
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5

21. When viewed from the proximal, which of

the following permanent teeth appears to be
aligned in its arch with the axial inclination
of its roots most nearly vertical?

1. Maxillaryfirst molar 1. primary maxillary left lateral.

2. Mandibular second molar 2. primary mandibular right central.
3. Maxillaryfirst premolar 3. primary mandibular right lateral.
4. Maxillarycentral incisor 4. permanent mandibular right lateral.
5. Mandibular central incisor 5. permanent mandibular left lateral. ~,
-,{

36
 -
....

27. Which of the following characteristics is 31. On which of the following primary molars
common to all permanent incisors? would a prominent transverse ridge typically
occur?
1. From a proximal view, the incisal edge
is lingual to the long axis of the root. 1. Maxillary first molar
2. From a proximal view, the crests of facial 2. Maxillary second molar
and lingual cervicoenamel ridges are 3. Mandibular first molar
directly opposite each other. 4. Mandibular second molar
3. Mesial and distal contact areas are
located in the incisal third of the crown.
4. Mesial and distal contact areas are
directly opposite each other. 32. Which of the sketches below best represents
5. Mesial and distal contact areas are an occlusal view of a maxillary left second
approximately centered faciolingually. premolar?

28. The primary function of the dental pulp is to

1. form dentin. 2 3 4 5
2. provide nutrition.
3. provide sensation.
4. assure root-end closure. 1. 1
5. protect the periodontium. 2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5

29. The sketch below of a cross section at the

cementoenamel junction is typical of which 33. In a normal, healthy mouth, the interdental
permanent tooth? papilla that is the shortest cervicoincisally
(cervico-occlusally) is between mandibular

1. central incisors.
2. central and lateral incisors.
3. lateral incisor and canine.
4. canine and first premolar.
5. first and second premolars.
6. second premolar and first molar.

1. Mandibular second premolar

2. Maxillary first premolar 34. A function of proximal contact areas of teeth
3. Maxi Ilary molar is to
4. Mandibular molar
5. Number of different teeth and cannot be 1. provide spillways.
identified 2. guide food toward the occlusal surface.
3. guide food over the free margin of the
gingiva.
4. prevent food particles from entering the
interproximal areas.
5. None of the above
30. Which of the following teeth is most likely to
occasionally exhibit a lingual groove that
extends from the enamel onto the cemental.
area of the root? 35. The distal contact area of a permanent
maxillary canine is usually located at the
1. Maxillary canine
2. Maxillary central incisor 1. middlethird. .
3. Maxillary lateral incisor 2. middle of the incisal third.
4. Maxillary first premolar 3. middle of the cervical third.
".: 5. Mandibular second premolar 4. junction of incisal and middle thirds.
!,

~
i!

37
~- .
.

36. The muscle of mastication that is primarily 41. The sketch below represents the
responsible for synchronizing the movement
of the condyle and the articular disc is the
~
1. masseter.
2. temporalis.
3. internal pterygoid (medial pterygoid).
4. external pterygoid (lateral pterygoid).
-

- 1. mesial view of a permanent mandibular

first molar.
2. mesial view of a permanent mandibular
37. Proximal contact of posterior teeth creates second molar.
wear patterns that eventually cause 3. mesial view of a permanent mandibular
third molar.
1. gingival recession. 4. distal view of a permanent mandibular
2. increased length of clinical crowns. first molar.
3. decreased length of anatomic crowns.
-... 4. reduced interproximal embrasure spaces.
5. distal view of a permanent mandibular
second molar.

38. Which axial surface of the crown of a 42. Contraction of the posterior fibers of the
mandibular canine is almost parallel to the temporalis muscle results in the mandible
long axis of the tooth?
1. closing.
1. Mesial 2. retruding.
,..
- 2. Distal 3. protruding.
3. Facial 4. opening with translation.
4. Lingual 5. opening without translation.

43. Which of the following sketches illustrates

39. Which of the following teeth is most likely to the facial view of a permanent maxillary left
resist caries? canine?

1. Maxillary central incisor

2. Mandibular canine
3. Mandibular first premolar
4. Maxillary lateral incisor

40. How does the greatest faciolingual

fL measurement of the mandibular canine
compare with its greatest mesiodistal 2 3 4
measurement?

L 1. The faciolingual measurement is less. 1. 1

2. The measurements are equal. 2. 2
3. The faciolingual measurement is greater. 3. 3 ~]
4. There is no definite relation. 4. 4
:i
L

38
 .
4<

44. In cross section, the root of a mandibular 48. Which of the following sketches illustrates
canine is described as the mesial view of a permanent mandibular
left lateral incisor?
1. roughly conical.
2. irregularly oval.
3. flattened in a mesiodistal direction.
4. broader mesiodistally on the lingual than
on the labial.

1 2 3 4
45. The usual order of appearance of the primary
teeth in the mouth is central incisors,
1. 1
1. first molars, lateral incisors, second 2. 2
molars, canines. 3. 3
2. lateral incisors, first molars, second 4. 4
molars, canines.
3. lateral incisors, first molars, canines,
second molars.
4. lateral incisors, canines, second molars, 49. When the mandible is in its physiologic rest
first molars. or postural position, contact of teeth is

1. slight.
2. maximum.
3. prematu reo
4. not present.

50. The permanent posterior tooth most likely to

46. When the teeth are in centric occlusion, the have a pronounced concavity on the mesial
position of the mandible in relation to the surface of its crown is the
maxilla is primarily determined by the
1. maxillary first premolar.
1. intercuspation of teeth. 2. maxillary second premolar.
2. presence or absence of diastemas. 3. mandibular first molar.
3. tonus of muscles of head and neck. 4. mandibular first premolar.
4. ligaments of the temporomandibular' 5. mandibular second premolar.
joint.

51. The non-working condyle performs which of

the following movements?

1. Straight forward
2. Downward, forward and lateral
3. Downward, forward and medial
4. Downward, backward and medial
47. Which of the following permanent teeth has
its mesial marginal ridge located more
cervically than its distal marginal ridge?
52. The percentage of dentin that is organic is
1. Maxillary first molar
2. Mandibular first molar 1. 3-5%.
3. Mandibular second molar 2. 10-15%.
'. 4. Mandibular first premolar 3. 20-30%.
~ 5. Maxillary second premolar 4. 40-50%.
6. Mandibular second premolar 5. 50-60%.
f;,
..

53. In the mandibular arch, the greatest lingual 58. Which of the following surfaces of
inclination of the crown from its root is seen permanent maxtllary teeth require special
in a permanent consideration ,in adapting a matrix band
because of pronounced cervical concavities?
1. canine.
2. third molar. 1. Distal of second premolar and distal of
3. first premolar. first molar
4. central incisor. 2. Mesial of first premolar and mesial of
5. lateral incisor. second premolar
3. Distal of first molar and distal of second
molar
54. A carious developmental pit is most likely to 4. Mesial of first premolar and distal of first
be found in the lingual surface of a . molar

1. mandibular central incisor.

2. mandibular lateral incisor.
3. mandibular canine.
4. maxillary central incisor.
5.
maxillary lateral incisor.
55. When compared with maxillary first
premolars, the central developmental groove
of maxillary second premolars is
1. longer with less supplementary grooves.
2. shorter with less supplementary grooves.
3. longer with multiple supplementary
grooves.
4. shorter with multiple supplementary
grooves.
56. In the sketch below, the arrows represent
possible contacting areas for which of the
following maxillary cusps?
59. The occlusal outline of a maxillary first molar
contains two obtuse and two acute angles.
The acute angles are
1. mesiolingual anddistolingual.
2. mesiofacial and distolingual.
3. mesiolingual and distofacial.
4. mesiofacial and distofacial.
5. distofacial and distolingual.
60. In which of the following areas is the
alv~olar process the thinnest?
1. Lingualto the maxillary central incisors
2. Facialto the mandibular central incisors
3. Lingualto the 'maxillary canines
4. Lingualto the mandibular first molars
5. Facial to the maxillary second molars
6. lingual to the maxillary second molars

61. The pulp horns most likely to be exposed

accidentally in the preparation of a Class II
cavity in a maxillary first molar are

1. mesiofacialand mesiolingual.
2. mesiolingual and distolingual.
3. distolingual and distofacial.
4. distofacial and mesiofacial.
1. Facial cusps of premolars
2. Lingual cusps of premolars
3. Facial cusp of second premolar and
mesiofacial cusp of first molar 62. The drawing below is a cross section at the
4. Lingual cusp of second premolar and cementoenamel junction of what permanent
mesiolingual cusp of first molar tooth?

57. Identify the mandibular movement in the

drawing above. viewed from the incisal
j

1. Protrusive °GM !

2. Right lateral (working side)

3. Right lateral (non-working side) 'iii'
4. 1. :;~
,'.
Left lateral (working side) Maxillaryright canine
5. Left lateral (non-working side) 2. Mandibular right canine
3. Maxillaryright central incisor
4. Mandibular right central incisor

40
 --

63. Which of the following permanent teeth 68. The cross-sectional view at midroot pictured
would be expected to have the most variable below is most probably that of a
occlusal anatomy?

1. Maxillary first molar

2. Maxillary second premolar
3. Maxillary third molar
4. Mandibular first premolar
5. Mandibular first molar
6. Mandibular second molar

64. Special consideration should be given in 1. lingual root of a maxillary molar.

preparing this tooth for endodontic therapy 2. distal root of a mandibular first molar.
because two pulp canals are usually found in 3. mandibular canine.
the 4. mandibular first premolar.
5. maxillary first premolar.
1. root system of a mandibular canine.
2. distofacial root of a maxillary molar.
3. distal root of a mandibular first molar.
4: mesial root of a mandibular first molar.
5. lingual root of a maxillary first premolar.
69. Which pulp horn of a permanent mandibular
fi rst molar is the smallest?

1. Distal
65. 2. Mesiofacial
Calcification of the roots of the primary 3. Distofacial
dentition is normally completed at what age? 4. Mesiolingual
). Distolingual
1. 1-2 years
2. 3-4 years
3. 5-6 years
4. 7-8 years
5. None of the above

70. The ridges that together make up the oblique.

ridge of a permanent maxillary first molar
meet near the center of the occlusal surface
on a level with the
66. In comparison with the faciolingual
dimension of the crown of a permanent 1. tips of the mesiolingual and distofacial
mandibular first molar, the mesiodistal cusps.
dimension is 2. depth of central and distal fossae.
3. cusp of Carabelli.
1. slightly less. 4. marginal ridges.
2. slightly greater. 5. central groove.
3. approximately twice.
4. approximately half.

71. In removing calculus from the root trunk

67. Based upon morphology, a mesicrocclusal
(Class II) cavity preparation would be most
difficult in which of the following teeth?
1. Primary mandibular first molar
2. Primary mandibular second molar
3. Permanent mandibular first molar
4. Permanent maxillary second molar
area, which of the following anatomic
surfaces present the most difficulty?
1. Mesials of mandibular second molars
2. Distals of mandibular second premolars
3. Distals of maxillary canines
4. Linguals of maxillary second premolars
5. Distals of maxillary first molars
1\
L...:.,--

L- .

v-
72. 76. The mandibular movement indicated in the
The drawing below is a cross section at the
cervical line of what permanent tooth? drawing above is

1. protrusive.
2. right lateral (working side).
~ 3. left lateral (working side).
4. right lateral (non-working side). I
5. left lateral (non-working side). Ii
~ 1
I

1. Mandibular central incisor

2. Mandibular first premolar I
.......
~ 3. Mandibular canine
4. Maxillary lateral incisor
77. At what age is a primary maxillary canine
~
......
usually exfoliated?

73. What muscle tissues form the floor of the 1. 6-7 years
mouth in the lingual vestibule? 2. 8-9 years
.... 3. 10-11years
1. 4. 12-13years
lingual 5.
2. Stylohyoid 14-15 years
3. Buccinator
4. Mylohyoid
5. Sphenomandibular
6. Superior pharyngeal constrictor
78. In the intercuspal position, which of the
. following anterior teeth has the potential to
contact both anterior and posterior
1- 74. In a normal retrusive tooth contacting
antagonists?
movement of the mandible, which tooth 1. Maxillary canine
contacts the maxillary central incisor? 2. Mandibular canine
3. Maxillary lateral incisor
1. Canine . 4. Mandibular lateral incisor
2. lateral incisor
,3. Central incisor
4. Central and lateral incisors
5. None of the above

79. Which of the following types of mucosa

characterizes attached gingiva?

75. Assuming occlusion and alignment are 1. Free

normal, the arrows on the sketch below 2. Alveolar
represent the path taken by the 3. Special ized
4. Masticatory

80. The height of contour,occlusocervically is

located within the middle third of the

1. facial cusps of premolars.

1. distal surface of a permanent central
2. incisor.
lingual cusps of premolars.
3. 2. lingual surface of a permanent maxillary
cusp of canine and facial cusp of first first molar.
premolar.
4. facial cusp of second premolar and the
3. facial surface of a permanent mandibular
mesiofacial cusp of first molar. premolar.
po 4. facial surface of a permanent mandibular
:J. lingual cusp of second premolar and the first molar.
mesiolingual cusp of first molar. ,-
.~
.J
.<
::
'j
~~
42
.J
81. In an ideal intercuspal position, a permanent 84. Which of the following permanent teeth most
mandibular lateral incisor opposes the frequently have three cusps?

(a) distal marginal ridge of a maxillary (a) Maxillary second premolar

central incisor. . (b) Maxillary first molar
(b) mesial marginal ridge of a (c) Maxillary second molar
maxillary lateral incisor. (d) Mandibular first premolar
(c) distal marginal ridge of a maxillary (e) Mandibular second premolar
lateral incisor. (t) Mandibular second molar
(d) mesial marginal ridge of a
maxillary canine. 1. (a) and (b)
(e) maxillary lateral incisor 2-3 mm. 2. (a) and (d)
cervically to the incisal edge. 3. (b) and (t)
(t) maxillary lateral incisor at the 4. (c) and (d)
incisal edge. . 5. (c) and (e)
6. (e) and (t)
1. (a) and (b) only
2. (a), (b) and (e)
3. (a), (b) and (t)
4. (b) only
5. (c), (d) and (e)

85. The tooth root is attached to the alveolar

process. What structures are included in this
attachment?

(a) Dentin
82. Which of the following are considered (b) Cementum
normal lingual anatomy on a maxillary (c) Bundle bone
canine? (d) lamina dura
(e) Epithelial attachment
(a) Cingulum (f) Periodontal ligament
(b) Lingual cusp
(c) Lingual ridge 1. (a), (c) and (d)
(d) Mesial and distal fossae 2. (a), (d) and (t)
(e) Prominent developmental grooves 3. (b), (c) and (e)
(t) Mesial and distal marginal ridges 4. (b), (c) and (f)
5. (d), (e) and(t)
1. (a), (b), (d) and (e)
2. (a), (c), (d) and (t)
3. (a), (d), (e) and (t)
4. (b), (c), (e) and (t)
5. All of the above

86. Which of the following permanent anterior

teeth normally have their distal contact areas
located within the middle thirds of the
crowns incisogingivally?

83. When posterior teeth are in a crossbite (a) Maxillary central incisors
relationship, "'~,ich of the following cusps are (b) Maxillary lateral incisors
considered supporting cusps? (c) Maxillary canines
(d) Mandibular central incisors
(a) Maxillary facial (e) Mandibular lateral incisors
(b) Maxillary lingual (t) Mandibular canines
(c) Mandibular facial
(d) Mandibular lingual 1. (a), (b) and (c)
2. (b), (c) and (e)
1. (a) and (c) 3. (b), (c) and (t)
2. (a) and (d) 4. (c), (e) and (t)
3. (b) and (c) 5. (d), (e) and (t)
4. (b) and (d) 6. All of the above
 ..

87. The cusp of Carabelli occurs with sufficient 91. The roots of mandibular first premolarsare
frequency to be considered normal in a
-- (a)
. (b)
primary maxillary first molar.
primary maxillary second molar.
(a)
(b)
(c)
flattened faciolingually.
broader facially than lingually. .
frequently sharply curved distally.
(c) permanent mandibular first molar. (d) usually free of marked distal
(d) permanent maxillary first molar. curvature.
""'-- (e) frequently seen with slight
1. (a) and (c) concave areas on mesial and distal
2. (a) and (d) surfaces.
3. (b) and (d)
4. (d) only 1. (a) and (c)
2. (a), (d) and (e)
3. (b) and (e) only
88. The primary cusp triangle on the occlusal
4. (b), (d) and (e)
surface of a permanent maxillary molar is
formed by the

(a) distolingual cusp.

.... (b) mesiolingual cusp.
(c) cusp of Carabell i.
(d) mesiofacial cusp.
(e) distofacial cusp.
92. In intercuspal position, a maxillary lateral
1. (a), (b) and (c)
incisor opposes
2. (a), (b) and (e)
3. (a), (d) and (e)
4.
(a) the incisal edge of a mandibular
(b), (d) and (e) lateral incisor.
5. (c), (d) and (e) (b) both mesial and distal marginal
ridges of a mandibular lateral
mclsor.
89. Maintaining a positive contact area when (c) the distal marginal ridge of a
restoring the proximal surfaces of two mandibular lateral incisor.
adjacent teeth. is essential to (d) a mandibular canine.
(a) provide better retention for the 1. (a) and (b)
restoration. .
2. (a) and (d)
(b) prevent food impaction. 3. (b) and (c)
(c) stabi Iize the'"dental arch, 4. (b) and (d)
(d) protect the periodontium. 5. (c) and (d)
1. (a) and (b)
2. (b) and (c) only
3. (b), (c) and (d)
4. (c) and (d) only
5. All of the above

90. Which of the following are reactions of the

dental pulp? 93. A maxillary first premolar may be identified
by a
(a) Formation of dentin
(b) Transmission of pain stimuli (a) marked mesial concavity in the
(c) Formation of the mesenchyme of cervical area.
the dental papilla (b) deep sulcus.
(d) Production of a defensive reaction (c) long central groove.
when a tooth is exposed to (d) short central groove.
irritation (e) single pulp canal.

1. (a) and (b) only 1. (a), (b) and (c)

2. (a), (b) and (d) 2. (a), (c) and (e)
3. (a), (c) and (d) 3. (b) and (d)
4. (b) and (d) only 4. (d) only
S. All of the above S. (d) and (e)

A A
 ..

94. Pronounced developmental grooves are 97. A 5-year-old child is treated with large doses
usually associated with embrasures between of tetracycline over a one year period. Which
permanent of the following permanent teeth will least
likely show tetracycline staining?
(a) maxillary central and lateral
incisors. (a) Permanent central incisors
(b) maxillary lateral incisors and (b) Permanent lateral incisors
can meso (c) Permanent canines
(c) maxillary canines and first (d) First premolars
premolars. (e) Permanent first molars
(d) maxillary first and second
premolars. . 1. (a) and (b) only
(e) mandibular canines and first 2. (a), (b) and (c)
premolars. 3. (b), (c) and (d)
(t) mandibular first and second 4. (b), (c) and (e)
premolars. 5. (c), (d) and (e)
"' (g) mandibular second premolars and
first molars.
(h) mandibular first and second
molars.

1. (a) only
2. (b) only
3. (c) only
4. (c) and (e)
5. (d) only
6. (d) and (t)
7. (g) on Iy
8. (h) only

98. Which of the following permanent teeth is

95. Distoli"ngual cusps of which of the following least likely to have a divided pulp canal?
posterior teeth may be completely absent?
1. Maxillary central incisor
(a) Maxillary first molar 2. Maxillary first premolar
(b) Mandibular first molar 3. Mandibular central incisor
(c) Mandibular second molar 4. Mandibular lateral incisor
(d) Maxillary third molar 5. Mandibular first premolar
(e) Mandibular second premolar

1. (a) and (b)

2. (a) and (c)
3. (b) and (d)
4. (c) only
5. (d) only
6. (d) and (e)
7. (e) only

96. Which of the following permanent teeth

usually have oblique ridges?

(a) Maxillary premolars

(b) Maxi Ilary molars 99. Which of the following fibers are NOT
(c) Mandibular premolars periodontal ligament fibers?
(d) Mandibular molars
1. Apical
1. (a) and (c) 2. Oblique
2. (b) only 3. Principal
3. (b) and (d) 4. Transverse
4. (d) only 5. Transseptal
5. All of the above 6. Interradicular
 I

NATIONAL BOARD DENTAL EXAMINATION PART I

ANSWER KEY

DENTAL ANATO~ff & OCCLUSION - DECEMBER 1988

NO. ANS. NO. ANS. NO. ANS. NO. ANS.

1. 3 26. 4 51. 3 ""
2. 76.
1 27. 5 52. 3 77. 3
3. 1 28. 1 53. 3
4. 78. 1
2 29. 3 54. 5 79.
5. 2 30. 4
3 55. 4 80. 2
6. 4 31. 3 56. 2 81.
7. 2
1 32. 4 57. 3 82. 2
8. 4 33. 6 58. 4
9. 83. 2
4 34. 4 59. 2 84.
10. 5 5
35. 1 60. 2 85. 4
11. 6 36. not scored 61. 1
12. 86. 3
5 37. 4 62. 3 87. 3
13. 1 38. 1 63. 3
14. 88. 4
4 39. 2 64. 4 89. 3
15. 5 40. 3 65. 2 90. 2
16. 4 41. 4 66. 2 91. 4
17. 5 42. 2 67. 1 92. 2
18. 2 43. 1 68. 5 93.
19. 1
4 44. 2 69. 1 94. 4
20. 3 45. 3 70. 4 95. 6
21. 3 46. 1 71. 5 96. 2
22. 1 47. 4 72. 1 97. 3
23. 2 48. 3 73. 4 98. 1
24. 4 49. 4 74. 5 99. 5
25. 1 50. 1 75. 1

~ .

1-