Answer with Explanation

Date 26/03/2018
1. Consider the following statements regarding the Regulating Act of 1773:

1. It designated the Governor -General of Bengal as Governor-General of India.

2. It recognized, for the first time the political and administrative functions of the Company.
3. British Government was given the supreme control over Company’s affairs in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Ans: (a)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Regulating Act of 1775 designated Governor of Bengal as Governor-General

of Bengal. It was the Charter Act of 1833 which made the Governor -General of Bengal as Governor-
General of India.

Statement 2 is correct: The Regulating Act of 1773 is of great constitutional importance as (a) it was the
first step taken by the British Government to control and regulate the affairs of the East India Company
in India; (b) it recognized, for the first time, the political and administrative functions of the
Company; and (c) it laid the foundations of central administration in India.

Statement 3 is incorrect: It was Pitt’s India Act of 1784 which gave the British Government, supreme
control over Company’s affairs in India.

2. Consider the following pairs:

Committees of Constituent Assembly Chairman

1. Union Constitution Committee : Sardar Vallabhai Patel

2. States Committee : Jawahar Lal Nehru
3. Union Powers Committee : J.B. Kripalani

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

Ans: (c)

Explanation

The correct matching is as follows:

Committees of Constituent Assembly Chairman

1. Union Constitution Committee : Jawahar Lal Nehru

2. States Committee : Jawahar Lal Nehru
3. Union Powers Committee : Jawahar Lal Nehru

Sardar Patel was the chairman of Provincial Constitution Committee.

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J.B. Kripalani was the chairman of Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee.

3. The Government of India Act of 1909 provided:

(a) Non-official majority in the Central Legislative Council.

(b) Separate representation of presidency corporations.
(c) Direct elections in the country.
(d) Establishment of Provincial Public Service Commission.

Ans: (b)

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: Government of India Act of 1909 provided for non-official majority in the
Provincial Legislative Council while retaining official majority in the Central Legislative Assembly.

Statement 2 is correct: It provided for the separate representation of presidency corporations, chambers
of commerce, universities and zamindars.

Statement 3 is incorrect: It was the Government of India Act of 1919 which provided for the direct
elections in the country.

Statement 4 is incorrect: It was the Government of India Act of 1935 which provided for the
establishment of Provincial Public Service Commission


4. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Government of India Act of 1858?

1. It ended the system of double government in India.

2. It introduced for the first time, local representation in the Central Legislative Council.
3. It changed the designation of the Governor-General of India to that of Viceroy of India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (c)

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Government of India Act of 1858 ended the system of double government in India
by abolishing the Board of Control and Court of Directors.

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Statement 2 is incorrect: Local representation in the Central Legislative Council was first introduced by
the Charter Act of 1853.

Statement 3 is correct: Government of India Act of 1858 changed the designation of the Governor-
General of India to that of Viceroy of India. He was the direct representative of the British Crown in India.

5. Which of the following changes were made by the Indian Independence Act of 1947?

1. It empowered the assembly to abrogate any law made by British Parliament in relation to
 India.
2. It enabled the assembly to perform law-making functions apart from drafting the constitution.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (c)

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Indian Independence Act of 1947 made Assembly a fully sovereign body,
which could frame any Constitution it pleased. The act empowered the Assembly to abrogate or alter any
law made by the British Parliament in relation to India.

Statement 2 is correct: The Assembly also became a legislative body. In other words, two separate
functions were assigned to the Assembly, that is, making of a constitution for free India and enacting of
ordinary laws for the country. These two tasks were to be performed on separate days. Thus, the Assembly
became the first Parliament of free India.

6. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

1. Originally, the Constitution provided for seven fundamental rights.

2. There is a single Constitution for all the states of the Indian Union.
3. Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution was added by the 52nd Amendment Act of 1985.
4. The 44th Amendment Act (1976) is also known as the ‘mini-constitution’.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

Ans: (d)

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Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Originally, the Constitution provided for seven Fundamental Rights. However,
the Right to Property (Article 31) was deleted from the list of Fundamental Rights by the 44th Amendment
Act of 1978. It is made a legal right under Article 300-A in Part XII of the constitution.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The state of Jammu and Kashmir has its own constitution and thus, enjoys a
special status by virtue of Article 370 of constitution of India.

Statement 3 is correct: 10th schedule provides for provisions relating to disqualification of members of
Parliament and State legislature on grounds of defection. This schedule was added by the 52nd
Amendment Act of 1985 and is also known as Anti-Defection Law.

Statement 4 is incorrect: The 42nd Amendment Act (1976) is known as mini-constitution due to
important and large number of changes made by it in various parts of the constitution.

7. Consider the following pairs:

Borrowed Features of the Constitution Source

1. Appointment of state governors : Government of India Act,1935

2. Emergency Provisions : Weimar Constitution
3. Procedure of Amendment : Japanese Constitution
4. Method of election of President : Australian Constitution

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) None

Ans: (d)

Explanation

The correct matching is as follows:

1. Appointment of state governors : Canadian Constitution

2. Emergency Provisions : Government of India Act,1935
3. Procedure of Amendment : South African Constitution
4. Method of election of President : Irish Constitution

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8. Which of the following independent bodies are provided by the Indian Constitution?

1. Comptroller and Auditor-General of India

2. State Public Service Commission
3. National Human Rights Commission
4. Election Commission

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (b)

Explanation

National Human Rights Commission is a statutory body and not a constitutional body. Comptroller and
Auditor-General of India, State Public Service Commission and Election Commission are all
constitutional bodies.

9. Which of the following is not a federal feature of the Indian Constitution?

(a) Supremacy of the constitution

(b) Rigidity of the constitution
(c) Single constitution
(d) None of the above

Ans: (c)

Explanation

Union of India is a federal system with a unitary bias.

Federal features of the constitution include: two government, division of powers, written Constitution,
supremacy of Constitution, rigidity of Constitution, independent judiciary and bicameralism.

Unitary features of the constitution include: strong Centre, single Constitution, single citizenship,
flexibility of Constitution, integrated judiciary, appointment of state governor by the Centre, all-India
services, emergency provisions etc.

10. Consider the following statements regarding the composition of the Constituent
 Assembly
under the scheme formulated by the Cabinet Mission Plan:

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1. Seats allocated to each province were to be decided among the two principal communities - Muslims
and general.
2. Princely states were to be allotted seats in proportion to their respective population
3. Representatives of each community were to be directly elected by the members of that community.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 only

Ans: (a)

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: Seats allocated to each province were to be decided among the three principal
communities - Muslims, Sikhs and general (all except Muslims and Sikhs), in proportion to their
population.

Statement 2 is correct: Each province and princely state (or group of states in case of small states) were
to be allotted seats in proportion to their respective population. Roughly, one seat was to be allotted for
every million population.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Representatives of each community were to be indirectly elected by the

members of that community in the provincial legislative assembly and voting was to be by the method of
proportional representation by means of single transferable vote.


11. Consider the following statements regarding Kyoto protocol:

1. It was negotiated under the aegis of United Nations framework convention on climate change.
2. The objective of the Kyoto protocol is to fight ozone layer depletion.
3. India has ratified the second commitment period of Kyoto protocol.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) All of the above

Ans: (b)

Explanation:

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Statement 1 is correct: Kyoto protocol adopted in 1997 is an international treaty negotiated under
UNFCCC.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The objective of the Kyoto protocol is to fight global warming by reducing
greenhouse gas emissions . The objective of Montreal protocol is to fight Ozone layer depletion.

Statement 3 is correct: A second commitment period was agreed on in 2012, known as the Doha
Amendment to the protocol. India has ratified the second commitment period of Kyoto Protocol.
The amendment includes new commitments for parties to the Protocol who agreed to take on
commitments in a second commitment period and a revised list of GHGs to be reported on by Parties.

12. New Urban agenda -Habitat III often seen in news is related to which of the following :

(a) Conservation of wetlands with special emphasis on urban areas.

(b) It provides for a roadmap to address the habitat fragmentation of Wild animals which has resulted in
increased Man-animal conflict.
(c) It sets a global vision to address the challenges of Urbanization .
(d) It aims to promote renewable energies so as to address the challenges of climate change.

Ans: (c)

Explanation:

Option A is incorrect: Ramsar Convention aims to conserve and sustainably utilize wetlands .

Option B is incorrect: New Urban agenda- Habitat III is a set of 175 commitments that countries need
to adhere to tackle the staggering challenges of urbanization and it is not related to Man - Animal
conflict.

Option C is correct: It sets the global vision of sustainable urbanization for the next 20 years. It is a
roadmap for building cities that can serve as engines of prosperity and centers of cultural and social
well-being while protecting the environment.

Option D is incorrect: Paris agreement, International solar alliance are involved in promoting
renewable energies.

13 Which of the following was awarded the 2017 Nobel Peace prize?

(a) International Campaign to Abolish Nuclear Weapons

(b) Juan Manuel Santos
(c) Venerable Sobitha thero
(d) Intergovernmental panel on climate change (IPCC)

Ans: (a)

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Explanation:

International Campaign to Abolish Nuclear Weapons (ICAN) was awarded the 2017 Nobel Peace Prize
for its efforts on nuclear prohibition. ICAN was launched in 2007. It is a global civil society coalition
which constitutes 468 partner organizations from around 100 countries. Earlier this year, ICAN came up
with an international treaty that was negotiated and concluded at the United Nations.

14 With reference to International Solar alliance (ISA) consider the following statements

1. It was launched at 2015 Paris Climate change summit by India and Germany.
2. The ISA Framework Agreement entered into force in 2017 making ISA treaty based International
Intergovernmental Organization with headquarters at Gurugram, India.
3. It seeks to empower solar-rich countries located between the equator and the tropic of Capricorn to
make collaborative efforts to harness solar energy to generate the electricity.

Which of the statements is/are correct:

(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1,2 and 3
(d) None of the above

Ans: (a)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is Incorrect: The ISA was launched at the 2015 Paris Climate Change Summit by Prime
Minister Narendra Modi and French President Francois Hollande.

Statement 2 is correct: The ISA framework agreement entered into force in December 2017 and is
headquartered at Gurugram, India. Its major objectives include global deployment of over 1,000GW
of solar generation capacity and mobilization of investment of over US $1000 billion into solar energy
by 2030.

Statement 3 is incorrect: It seeks to empower solar-rich countries located between the tropic of
Cancer and the tropic of Capricorn to make collaborative efforts to harness solar energy to generate
the electricity.

15. Which of the following are features of Antarctic treaty?

1. It prohibits military activity, except in support of science.

1. It also prohibits nuclear explosions and the disposal of nuclear waste.
2. India has not acceded to the Antarctic treaty.

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Choose the correct option:

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1,2 and 3

Ans: (b)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The treaty is framed to ensure that Antarctica shall continue forever to be used
exclusively for peaceful purposes and shall not become the scene of international conflict. It prohibits
military activity, except in support of science.

Statement 2 is correct: It prohibits nuclear explosions and the disposal of nuclear waste. It promotes
scientific research and the exchange of data and suspends all territorial claims.

Statement 3 is incorrect: India has also acceded to the Antarctica Treaty. India is drafting new legislation
on Antarctica.

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