There are 4 laws at work simultaneously.

All of them must apply, namely, Ohm's law,

Ampere's law, Faraday's law, and the conservation of energy law.

A transformer cannot output more power than inputted, due to CEL (conservation of
energy law). Right off the bat, it should be obvious that the secondary power, which is
Isec*Vsec must equal the primary power, Ipri*Vpri, minus losses.

Faraday's law, FL, relates the magnetic flux density, B, to the voltage, V, and the
frequency, f. Ampere's law, AL, relates the magnetic field intensity, H, to the current,
I. Also, B and H are interrelated through the permeability mu, which is analogous to
Ohm's law (for magnetics). Ohm's law, OL, relate the current and voltage at the
secondary with the load resistance.

Most transformers are driven at their primary by an independent power source which
is generally a "constant voltage" source. Current transformers can be discussed later.
The voltage source magnitude, V, frequency, f, and primary turns number, Np, and
the core area, A, determine the magnetic flux density, B, per FL. This magnetic flux
almost completely links, or couples into the secondary winding. Since the core area is
the same, as well as the frequency, only the number of turns differs, Ns. Just as FL
describes the relation between Vp, f, A, and Np, it holds equally for Vs, f, A, and Ns.
Again, f and A don't change, so that the ratio of volts to turns cannot change. Hence
Vp/Np = Vs/Ns, since B, f, & A remain constant.

When current is drawn by loading the secondary, a magnetomotive force, mmf,

occurs, which tends to counter the existing core flux, which tends to reduce the
voltage. But, by definition, the primary power source is a constant voltage type, which
will supply whatever current needed to maintain a fixed voltage value. The primary
current increases to a value needed to maintain the core flux. AL describes the
relation. For a given secondary current, Is, and Ns, a magnetic field intensity, H, is
given by AL. In the primary an equal and opposite H, or mmf if you will, must exist.
Since H is almost equal in the primary and secondary, Np*Ip = Ns*Is.

Since the volt per turn RATIO must be the same on each side, the winding with higher
turns has a higher voltage, or emf. Since the amp-turns PRODUCT must be the same
on both sides, the winding with the higher turns has the lower current, or mmf.

It can't be any other way, as the CEL would be breached. Does this explanation make
it clear?

Because the primary has a constant voltage source, CVS, connected across its
terminals. Remember the definition of a CVS. It will output any current neded to
sustain a fixed voltage value. When the secondary is open, and a CVS is connected to
the primary, a small current flows, called exciting current. The B-H curve of the core
material, and the CVS value of voltage determine the magnetizing portion, Imag, of
the exciting current. Hystersis and eddy current losses determine the loss portion of
the exciting current. FL describes the relation between V, f, N, A, and B. For a
transformer whose core has area A, and primary turns Np, the flux density B will be
determined by the voltage and frequency of the CVS. AL describes the relation
between magnetizing current Imag, primary turns Np, magnetic path length including
gap(s) lc, and magnetic field intensity H.

This B value links the secondary almost entirely. For a given B, f, A, and Ns, Vs is
determined. Just as a fixed voltage determines the flux density value, a fixed flux
density determines the induced voltage value. FL is bi-directional. Likewise with AL.
When a load resistance is connected across the secondary, Is is induced in
accordance with OL, Is=Vs/Rs. This current Is is accompanied by an mmf which
counters the original emf, known as Lenz' law, or LL. This mmf would tend to reduce
the flux density B, and the field intensity H. But remember that the primary flux (&
secondary since the coupling is very good) is determined by the value of the CVS. A
CVS forces a specific voltage value, and consequently a specific B & H value. When
the primary voltage Vp is countered by the mmf of the secondary load, the CVS
outputs a larger current whose mmf opposes the secondary mmf. In other words, just
as Is and its mmf tend to reduce the flux and emf, Ip does just the opposite and
restores them. Otherwise power would diminish greatly as soon as a load is
connected.

Does this make things clear? BR.

Claude

More on the original transformer question. When you apply a voltage to the primary
connections, an EMF is developed across the primary coil. The current in the primary
coil is 90 degrees out of phase with the primary voltage, because the ideal
transformer with no load looks like an inductance (remember jwL). It is this primary
coil current that generates the magnetic flux amplitude in the core. Faraday's law
generates a voltage across the secondary coil. But the induced voltage is 90 degrees
out of phase with the magnetic flux amplitude (remember dB/dt -->jwB), and
therefore the induced output voltage is in phase with the voltage across the primary
coil. The magnetic flux amplitude in the core in phase with the input voltage is
independent of the transformer load current because of Lenz's Law. The only
magnetic flux in the core that is not cancelled by Lenz's law is the original excitation,
due to the primary inductance, and is in phase-quadrature with the input voltage. So
this is why the magnetic flux excitation is independent (mostly) of the secondary load
current. Think about it.

Believe me, I've "thought about it" a lot, and spent years developing custom
transformers as well as teach a power lab as a grad teaching assistant. To say that
the primary current is what generates the magnetic flux amplitude is not correct.

The magnetic flux, phi, in weber, divided by the core cross sectional area, Ac, in m^2,
is the magnetic flux density B, in tesla. The amplitude of the core flux density B, is
determined by the primary voltage, not primary current. Faraday's law, FL, is
bidirectional. Just as a specific value of flux determines the voltage, so does a specific
voltage determine a flux.

To illustrate, consider a wound bobbin with the ferromagnetic core installed. A CVS of
120V, 60 Hz is connected across the primary. The flux density B is determined by Vp,
the primary voltage amplitude, f, the frequency, Ac, the core area, and Np the primary
no. of turns. Then, the value of magnetic field intensity H, is determined by the B-H
curve of the core material. Also, the magnetizing current is directly related to H via
Ampere's law, AL.

Now remove the core altogether. The value of B without the core is approximately the
same as with the core, a little less since the magnetizing current increases greatly
and I*R resistive drops increase resulting in less emf across the winding. But, without
the core, H increases drastically as does Imag. Imag can increase by orders of
magnitude.
With time changing magnetic fields, current and voltage are BOTH needed since a
time changing ENERGY is present. Time changing energy, dw/dt, is power. But power
is I*V. So it is impossible to set up a time changing flux without BOTH Ip & Vp.

Under static conditions a dc current has a dc magnetic flux w/o a voltage. But that is
static. Under time-variation, it is impossible to have a flux unless Ip & Vp are BOTH
NON-ZERO.

This issue has been laid to rest in the 19th century. Is it Ip or Vp that creates the core
magnetic flux? It is BOTH. No ferromagnetic material has been found with a
permeability of zero, or infinite. Hence B & H cannot exist independently. Since B is in
volt-seconds per turn-meter^2, & H is in amp-turns per meter, both Ip & Vp are
needed for time varying flux. Does this help?

Claude

I respecfully disagree.

When a transformer is powered under no-load conditions, the primary inductance L1

determines the excitation current. Specifically,

[1] I = V/jwL1.Furthermore, we know that in the core (from Maxwell's equations)

[2] curl H = J

where H is the magnetic excitation (amp turns per meter), and J is current density.

This may also be written

[3] H = NI

where NI is the coil amp-turns per meter. In the iron,

[4] B = u u0 H

where u = relative permeability and u0 is the permeability of free space.

So

[5] B = u u0N I.

Thus the magnetic field B depends explicitly on the coil current I, and is in phase with
I.

In terms of transformer performance, if we plug [1] into [5] we get

[6] B = u u0 N V/jwL1

So the magnetic field in the core is in phase quadrature with the applied voltage
(power factor angle nearly 90 degrees), and the peak amplitude varies inversely with
excitation frequency w. This is why transformers designed specifically for 60 Hz
(where the peak fields are about 1.4 Tesla) will overheat at 50 Hz, where the peak
fields would be (60/50) x 1.4 Tesla = 1.68 Tesla. Because the POWER required to
excite a transformer under no load conditions depends on the power factor, the
POWER is
V*I = VI cos(90 degrees) = ~0.

Summarizing, the only Maxwell's equation that determines the core excitation is curl
H = J.

But you start with Imag = Vp / j*omega*L to get the Imag value. Then you establish H.
Then multiplying by mu gives B. Then dB/dt gives Vs.

But I started with B = Vp/(4.44*f*Ac*Np), which is Faraday's Law, FL. Then, Vs =

B*4.44*f*Ac*Ns, also FL. FL works both ways.

But one can measure or compute the Imag value to get H, then times mu to get B,
etc., which is what you did. It's equivalent. Remember that Lp = mu*Np^2*Ac/lc,
where lc is the core's path length.

The end result is the same. But my way is easier because the primary is generally
driven from a CVS. If the source powering the primary was a constant current source,
CCS, your method is more direct. For a current transformer, CT, your method is more
direct.

The core flux is established by both the current & voltage in the primary. Vp
determines B, while Ip determines H. For a voltage xfmr, i.e. driven by a CVS, the B
value is determined by Vp. Then Vs = (Ns/Np)*Vp. Imag doesn't matter, as well as Is.

Transformers operate under 2 of Maxwell's laws, Ampere's law which you stated, curl
H = J, and Faraday's law, curl E = -dB/dt. Both are always in effect.

Both methods give the same result, but FL gives a more direct answer for a VT,
whereas AL is shorter computation for a CT. Both approaches give the correct result.
Have I helped?

Claude