First Certificate in English

Examination Report Syllabuses 0100 and 0102

JUNE 1999

CONTENTS

Page

Introduction 1

Paper 1 - Reading 3

Paper 2 - Writing 7

Paper 3 - Use of English 13

Paper 4 - Listening 18

Paper 5 - Speaking 22

Feedback Form 28

© UCLES 1999 0100/0102

INTRODUCTION

The First Certificate in English examination appeared in its revised format for the first time in
December 1996.

This Report is intended to provide a general view of how candidates performed on each paper and to
offer guidance on the preparation of candidates. Candidates took either FCE Syllabus 100 (Tuesday)
or FCE Syllabus 102 (Saturday).

The overall pass rate for 0100 was 73.21% and for 0102 was 76.81%.

The following table gives details of the percentage and numbers of candidates at each grade.

0100 0102
PERCENTAGE NO. OF PERCENTAGE NO. OF CANDIDATES
CANDIDATES
A 6.69 2889 7.86 2999
B 26.28 11342 26.61 10158
C 40.24 17368 42.34 16165
D 10.04 4334 10 3817
E 16.75 7227 13.20 5038

• Grading
Grading took place during July 1999 (approximately six weeks after the examination).

The five FCE papers total 200 marks, after weighting. Papers 1-5 are each weighted to 40 marks.
The candidate’s overall FCE grade is based on the total score gained by the candidate in all five
papers. Candidates do not ‘pass’ or ‘fail’ in a particular paper, but rather in the examination as a
whole.

The overall grades (A, B, C, D, and E) are set according to the following information:
• statistics on the candidature;
• statistics on the overall candidate performance;
• statistics on individual items, for those parts of the examination for which this is appropriate
(Papers 1, 3 and 4);
• the advice of the Principal Examiners, based on the performance of candidates, and on the
recommendation of examiners where this is relevant (Papers 2 and 5);
• comparison with statistics from previous years' examination performance and candidature.

Results are reported as three passing grades (A, B and C) and two failing grades (D and E). The
minimum successful performance which a candidate typically requires in order to achieve a grade C
corresponds to about 60% of the total marks. Result slips for candidates who achieve a pass grade
provide an indication of those papers in which a high level of performance has been achieved. Result
slips for candidates who fail with grades D and E provide an indication of those papers in which
performance is particularly weak.

• Awards
The Awarding Committee meets after the grade boundaries have been confirmed. It deals with all
cases for special consideration, e.g., temporary disability, unsatisfactory examination conditions,
suspected collusion, etc. The committee can ask for scripts to be re-marked, check results, change
grades, withhold results, etc. Results may be withheld because of infringement of the regulations or

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because further investigation is needed. Centres are notified if a candidate’s result has been scrutinised
by the Awarding Committee.
• Notification of Results
Result slips are issued through centres approximately two months after the examination has been
taken. Certificates are issued about six weeks after the issue of result slips. Requests for a check on
results may be made through centres, within one month of the issue of result slips. UCLES produces
the following documents which may be of use in preparing candidates for FCE:

• Regulations (produced annually, for information on dates, etc.);

• FCE Handbook (for detailed information on the examination and sample materials);
• Examination Report (produced after each administration);
• Past Paper Pack (available approximately 10 weeks after each examination session, includes
Question Papers for Papers 1 - 4, sample Speaking Test materials, answer keys, cassette, and
Paper 2 mark schemes and sample scripts).

Users of this Examination Report may find it useful to refer simultaneously to the relevant Past
Paper Packs. These, together with further copies of this report are available from:

UCLES
Publications Unit
1 Hills Road
Cambridge
CB1 2EU
UK

Tel: +44 (1)223 553930

Fax: + 44 (1)223 460278

Feedback on this Report is very welcome and should be sent to the FCE Co-ordinator,
EFL Division, at the above address. Please use the feedback form at the end of this report.

© UCLES 1999 0100/0102 2

PAPER 1 - READING

Part Task Type and Focus Number of Task Format

Questions
Syllabus 0100
Syllabus 0102

1 Multiple-matching 7 7 A text preceded by multiple-

Main focus: main points
2 Multiple-choice
Main focus: detail
3 Gapped text
Main focus: text structure
4 Multiple-matching,
multiple-choice
Main focus: specific
information
matching questions.
Candidates must match a prompt
from one list to a prompt in
another list, or match prompts
to elements in the text.
7 7 A text followed by four-option
multiple-choice questions.
7 6 A text from which paragraphs or
sentences have been removed and
placed in jumbled order after the
text. Candidates must decide
from where in the text the
paragraphs or sentences have
been removed.
14 15 As Part 1

• Marking

Candidates record their answers on a separate answer sheet, which is scanned by computer. Questions
in Parts 1, 2 & 3 carry two marks each. Questions in Part 4 carry one mark each. The total score is
adjusted to give a mark out of 40.

• Candidate performance

In general, candidates coped very competently with the four task formats of the papers. The
difficulty levels of the two papers, as ascertained from pretesting, were comparable. Statistical
evidence showed that the questions in all four parts provided a very reliable assessment of candidates'
relative ability levels.

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Syllabus 0100 (Tuesday)

Part 1 Working with glass

This headings task, focusing on the understanding of the main points in the text, was competently
handled by most candidates, though it was, unusually, the most difficult part of the test. Questions 1
and 4 were the easiest, while the most difficult items turned out to be numbers 2 and 7. Paragraph 2
focuses on the development of the business and Simon’s ambitions for the future (Key H ‘Aiming
high’), whereas 7 discusses how the owners came to be glass makers in the first place (Key C ‘Starting
out in the business’).

Part 2 Bernadino

This four-option multiple-choice task focused mainly on candidates’ detailed comprehension, but also
included lexical and reference questions. Question 11 stood out as the easiest item, while 8 was the
most difficult. In 8, weak candidates seemed to interpret ‘I had forgotten to turn the microphone on’
as machine failure (Option C) rather than human error. They preferred this to the key ‘trying to
tape animals that didn’t turn up’ (Option B).

Part 3 Chinese Medicine

This gapped-paragraph task, focusing on text structure, discriminated well, and was, in general,
competently handled. Questions 15 and 18 provided few problems for most candidates, while 17 was
the most difficult. Weaker candidates ignored the clue that ‘traditional and western medicine can co-
exist’ as an introduction to Option H, which is an example of that concept in practice. They
preferred to put H at 16 or 21.

Part 4 Introducing Westwillows

This multiple-matching task focused on candidates’ ability to retrieve specific information from the
text, and was the easiest part of the paper. The most straightforward questions were numbers 23,26
and 31. Problems arose for weaker candidates with Questions 33 and 34, where their answers were
evenly spread over the five options. One factor in this may have been that these questions focus on
the characters in the series, not the actors in their own lives. Competent candidates did not
experience this difficulty.

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© UCLES 1999 0100/0102 5
Syllabus 0102 (Saturday)

Part 1 Groups

This summary sentence task, focusing on the understanding of the main points in the text, was very
well handled by most candidates. Question 2 was extremely well answered, and none of the questions
caused particular difficulty to the majority of candidates.

Part 2 A stitch in time

This four-option choice task focused mainly on candidates’ detailed comprehension. Question 13 was
the easiest, while 9 and 10 were more challenging, with the weaker candidates’ incorrect responses
being well spread among the distractors. Stronger candidates had little difficulty with either item.

Part 3 A trip across the Gobi Desert

This gapped-paragraph task, focusing on text structure, was the most difficult part of the paper, and
discriminated very well. Competent candidates handled the task very effectively, while weaker
candidates experienced considerable difficulty sequencing the beginning of the trip, and the problems
with the vehicles. This affected principally Questions 15, 17 and 18. Again, competent candidates
coped very well with these items.

Part 4 Things you thought you’d never do

This multiple-matching task focused on candidates’ ability to retrieve specific information from the
text. This was the easiest part of the Paper for most candidates, and none of the questions caused
particular difficulty. Questions 21, 22 and 25 were particularly well answered.

• Recommendations for candidate preparation

Teachers and students should note that no single FCE1 paper includes all possible tasks or question
types. The FCE Handbook lists all the task types which may appear on the Paper.

In addition to specific examination practice, students should be advised to read as widely as they can,
with a range of reading purposes reflecting those sampled in the Paper (retrieving relevant
information, getting the ’gist’, understanding detail, etc.) Many of the texts for the Reading Paper
are drawn from magazines and newspapers, rather than books, and students will benefit from being
familiar within these types of text.

• DOs AND DON’Ts

DO read the whole text first in Part 3. Concentrate on the overall direction of the text,
and try to predict what information is missing from each of the gaps. Research
indicates that strong candidates can use a variety of strategies on this task with some
success. However, working on the extracts before forming a sound grasp of the base
text tends to lead to confusion among weaker candidates.

DO consider possible alternative meanings of headings before attempting to match them

to the text. Look out for figurative language in headings (Part 1).

DO avoid being attracted solely by the presence in the text of a word used in the question
(‘word-spotting’) (All parts). The presence of the word is no guarantee that it is the
correct answer.

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DO be prepared to spend longer on the middle questions in a gapped text. These are
usually the ones which cause most problems. (Part 3)

DO constantly review your choices in Parts 1 and 3. As you work through the task,
difficulty in finding a particular answer may indicate that you have already used the
correct answer in completing an earlier question. Always be prepared to go back and
check.

DO spend plenty of time reading English, both fiction and non-fiction. There is no need
to look up everything you don’t know in every piece you look at: just reading for fun
will get you used to the rhythm of the language and help to increase your reading
speed.

DON’T forget that, if a Part 2 multiple-choice question is an incomplete sentence, the whole
sentence must match the text, not just the phrase presented as A, B, C or D. The
information in these options may be true in itself, but not work with the sentence
beginning you are given.

DON’T choose your answers too quickly in Part 3. Look at the whole task first. Fill what
you think are easy gaps first and deal with the problem areas last.

DON’T ignore the need for the tenses in the extract to fit logically with those already present
in the base text in Part 3.

DON’T ignore the need in Part 3 to connect introductory adverbs or phrases with the ideas
which go before the gap you are working on (e.g. ‘However’ must be preceded by a
contrasting idea; ‘Another mistake we made… ‘ must be preceded by a previous
mistake etc).

DON’T ignore similar information in the other sections of the text, when you decide on an
answer in Part 4. There are usually some similarities between sections, and you need
to make sure that your choice matches the question you are asked.
•

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 PAPER 2 - WRITING

Part Task Type and Focus Number of Tasks Task Format

and Length

1 Q. 1 1 compulsory task Candidates are required to deal

with input material of up to 250
Writing a transactional
words, which may include graphic
letter (formal/informal)
120 - 180 and pictorial material. Texts may
words include advertisements, letters,
postcards, diaries, short articles,
etc.

2 Q. 2-4 4 tasks from which A situationally-based writing task

the candidates choose specified in no more than 70
Writing one of the
1 words.
following:
• an article
• a non-transactional letter 120 - 180
• a report words
• a discursive composition
• a descriptive/narrative
composition/short story

Q. 5 Q. 5 has two options

Writing one of the above on
a prescribed background
reading text

• Marking
All scripts are marked by experienced examiners, who must attend a training and standardisation
session before they commence any marking. Examiners award marks according to a General Mark
Scheme, which has detailed Performance Bands from 0 - 5, where Band 3 describes a ‘satisfactory’
level. Within the bands, examiners place the script more exactly at bottom, mid or top of the band
range, e.g., 3·1, 3·2, 3·3. These scores are converted by computer to provide a mark out of 20 for
each piece of writing.

Examiners also use a Task Specific Mark Scheme for each question. This describes satisfactory Band 3
performance and covers content, organisation, range, register and format, and effect on target reader.
Examples of the mark schemes are included in the FCE Past Paper Packs.

Examiners work in small teams and are monitored and advised by Team Leaders, who in turn are
monitored by the Principal Examiner.

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• Candidate performance Syllabus 0100 (Tuesday)

Part 1, Question 1

All candidates answered this compulsory question, where they had to write to the Editor of a
guidebook, correcting information about the entry for Lampton, making further suggestions of
information to include and requesting a free copy of the next edition. There were seven points
to include in total. All the inaccurate information had to be corrected and at least one
suggestion made for a mark in Band 3.

This question was well-answered on the whole, and overall had a higher than average mean
mark, in comparison to previous sessions. However, there sometimes seemed to be confusion
arising from the notes on the question paper. For example, the reference to a 'direct' coach
service was misunderstood; often, the note about the Riverside Hotel was not explained
appropriately, with no reference made to 'great value'; Trinity Bridge was occasionally
understood to have been renamed as King's Bridge.

Some candidates wrote a letter of complaint, giving rise to an inappropriately negative tone,
which would have had a negative effect on the reader. Better candidates organised their letters
skilfully, expanded the points well, and made relevant and helpful references to the page number
and headings of the guidebook entry, to orientate the reader.

Part 2

Question 2, a story, was by far the most popular question, chosen by over 70% of candidates.
Around 13% chose Question 3, an article, while 12% chose Question 4, a report. Although only
2% chose Questions 5a or 5b, there were some very good answers to these set text questions,
particularly to 5a.

Question 2

In this question, candidates had to write a story in the first person, including the given sentence
at the beginning or end. There was some temptation to change the given sentence, for example
including names instead of 'them'; writing in the third person rather than 'I'. Sometimes the
given sentence was embedded in the story, as in sample script F. In some instances, the story
bore no link whatsoever to the given sentence and therefore had to be heavily penalised.

There were some extremely good answers, which contained a wide range of vocabulary, good
variety of structures, and some excellent description.

Question 3

The topic of health and fitness was clearly accessible to candidates and some good articles were
written. However, many candidates are still erroneously using letter format for an article and
few see the need for a title. Better candidates produced lively and informative articles that
would have engaged the reader.

Question 4

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This was less popular than Questions 2 and 3, but produced some interesting answers and good
use of relevant vocabulary. As observed above, many candidates used letter format instead of
writing a report.

Sometimes, candidates did not explain why their choice of films would be suitably enjoyable for
club members, in spite of the 'and' in the question being in bold type. Such answers could not be
given a mark higher than in Band 2, as the task was only partially dealt with.

Questions 5a and 5b

In Question 5a, candidates had to write a composition describing a place mentioned in the book,
explaining why it added something special to the book. There were some excellent answers,
especially in relation to The Old Man and the Sea and to Wuthering Heights.

Question 5b was also a composition, asking candidates to assess the importance of the beginning
of the book to its development. This question was less well-done and often resulted in undue
emphasis on the entire plot.

Several candidates wrote about books which are not on the book list and received 0.

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 Candidate performance Syllabus 0102 (Saturday)

Part 1, Question 1

All candidates answered this compulsory question, which required them to write an informal
letter to a friend, giving relevant information about suitable activities during a forthcoming
visit. At least three activities and a mention of when the writer would be free had to be included
for a mark in Band 3. Very occasionally, candidates omitted to address this last point and had to
be awarded a mark in Band 2.

Most candidates did the task well, expanding the notes given and adding relevant points of their
own. Better candidates displayed a good structural range, including indirect questions and
conditionals.

Many candidates wrote in an appropriate informal register, included a suitably welcoming

opening sentence and maintained a friendly tone throughout, which would have had a positive
and reassuring effect on the reader.

Part 2

Questions 2, 3 and 4 were all answered in good numbers. Question 4, a letter of application, was
the most popular question, with over 41% of candidates choosing it. Question 2, a composition,
was answered by approximately 26% of candidates, while Question 3, a story, by 28% of
candidates. Questions 5a and 5b combined were answered by only 1.4% of candidates, with
Question 5b the more popular of the two, answered by 1.2%.

Question 2

This was an accessible composition topic, which often aroused strong feelings, and allowed
better candidates to express complex ideas most competently. Some candidates were able to use
specialist vocabulary relating to computers, while others made excellent use of adjectives or
expressions to convey their feelings.

In a few cases, candidates did not have the necessary language to express their ideas and
appeared to be struggling somewhat. For this type of writing, it is particularly advisable to plan
the piece before starting to write.

Question 3

The story required some reference to the weather, since the given sentence was about the
weather getting worse. Several candidates wrote stories which bore little or no link to this
content, and had to be penalised.

There were however some excellent answers, showing wide range and good narrative skills.

Question 4

Candidates who chose to answer this question did it reasonably well, on the whole. However,
sometimes conventions in writing letters of application were followed too slavishly, resulting in
an answer that did not relate sufficiently to the advertisement in the question.

Questions 5a and 5b

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There were a few excellent answers to these questions and 5b had the highest average mark of
all the questions on the paper. There were some interesting answers on
The Old Man and the Sea, Wuthering Heights, and Cry Freedom.

However, some candidates did not write in relation to one of the set books, writing about a
different book altogether. These answers received a mark of 0.

• Recommendations for candidate preparation

Part 1

Candidates should spend some time reading the question carefully, and underline the points they
have to cover. Then, before they start writing, they should make a plan for their answer,
thinking about how best to organise these points and how to expand them relevantly, as well as
checking that they have included all of them.

The specification of the target reader in the rubric, together with the context of the letter, will
define whether formal or informal register is suitable. Students should be taught appropriate
opening and closing formulae for a range of transactional letters, and should carefully consider
the suitability of 'standard' introductions and endings. Class discussion and suitable practice on
how to achieve a friendly tone is also worthwhile.

Candidates should make the opening paragraph of their letter as clear and informative as
possible, including their reason for writing and giving any specific information that will be of
help to the target reader (for example, the mention of the Student Tourist Guidebook and
Lampton, to the editor.)

While it may be necessary to use some key words from the input, the 'lifting' of whole phrases
from the rubric or input material is penalised and candidates should be made aware of this and
encouraged to use their own words as far as possible.

Part 2

Students should be encouraged to choose a Part 2 question for which they have personal
experience or affinity. In Part 2, the focus of the assessment is primarily on the range of
language produced, the appropriacy of the text format and register chosen, and on accuracy.

When choosing a letter of application, candidates should write persuasively about their
suitability, relating their skills and qualities to the job being advertised, as they would need to do
in the real world.

A story needs to be a coherent piece of writing, that leads naturally from or up to the given
sentence. Practice in how best to include the given sentence is recommended.

When writing an article, candidates should be encouraged to write in an interesting way, that will
engage the reader. It is usually a good idea to include a suitable title. Candidates should also be
dissuaded from starting and ending the article as a letter, since this is not required and will
possibly distract them from producing the style needed for an article.

A composition benefits from planning in advance of writing, so that the argument is organised
in the most logical way. Class evaluation of different approaches to planning, including the use
of diagrams and making notes, would be useful.

When writing a report, candidates need to write for the reader specified, and so need guidance
with register and format. Clear organisation is also particularly important to a report.

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Students should be encouraged to read one of the background texts and consider choosing this
question in Part 2. Candidates answering this question should be advised to focus on what has
been asked, rather than merely reproducing the plot of the book.

• DOs and DON'Ts

DO read each question carefully and ensure you know exactly what is required.

DO make a plan for each task before you start writing.

DO remember to use paragraphs.

DO try to develop the points adequately.

DO allow time in the examination to check what you have written, so that slips in
spelling and grammatical errors can be rectified.

DON’T omit any of the content points in Question 1.

DON’T stray from the question set - irrelevant answers are penalised, no matter how
good the language is.

DON’T use formulaic phrases which may be inappropriate in terms of register.

DON’T use unattached pieces of paper if you run out of space. You should use the pages
marked 'BLANK' in your answer booklet for this.

DON’T write untidily or illegibly, since poor handwriting that is difficult to read is penalised.

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PAPER 3 - USE OF ENGLISH

Part Task Type and Focus Number of Task Format

Questions
1 Multiple-choice cloze 15 A modified cloze text containing
15 gaps and followed by 15 four-
Focus: Vocabulary
option multiple-choice questions.
2 Open cloze 15 A modified cloze text containing
15 gaps.
Focus: Grammar and
vocabulary

3 ‘Key’ word transformations 10 Discrete items with a lead-in

sentence and a gapped response
Focus: Grammar and
to complete using a given word.
vocabulary

4 Error correction 15 A text containing errors. Some

lines of the text are correct.
Focus: Grammar
Other lines contain an extra and
unnecessary word which must be
identified.
5 Word formation 10 A text containing 10 gaps. Each
gap corresponds to a word. The
Focus: Vocabulary
‘stems’ of the missing words are
given beside the text and must be
transformed to provide the
missing word.

• Marking

Candidates write their answers on a separate answer sheet, which is marked according to a mark
scheme and then scanned by computer.
Questions 1-30 and 41-65 carry one mark each. Questions 31-40 are marked on a scale
0-1-2. The total score is adjusted to give a mark out of 40.

• Candidate performance Syllabus 100 (Tuesday)

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Part 1 The Tallest Buildings – Skyscrapers Focus: Vocabulary
Multiple-Choice Cloze
Candidates fared quite well on this part of the paper. Items 2, 7, 11 and 12 were quite easy for candidates
but these items were matched by items 1, 8, 14 and 15 which were found to be difficult. In number 1, it
was very common for candidates to choose option D rather than C. Most of the more able candidates
chose the correct option in number 15. However, it would seem that the middle range and weaker
candidates were simply guessing wildly here as all the options were chosen by significant numbers of these
candidates.

Part 2 A Famous Flamenco Dancer Focus: Grammar and Vocabulary

Open Cloze

This part of the test generally proved quite difficult for candidates but it did begin with an extremely
straightforward item, which all but the very weakest candidates got right. The second item, however, was
considerably more difficult with many candidates writing the inappropriate ‘dancing’. The two most
difficult items in this section were numbers 20 and 22. A common answer in 20 was ‘had’ but this was
unacceptable as it produced a tense which did not fit in with the rest of the sentence. Although a number
of different answers were allowed for item 22, many candidates chose nouns which were inappropriate in
the context when preceded by ‘at’ (e.g. childhood, youth). Item 27 was also fairly difficult, as candidates
had to realise the significance of ‘However’ at the beginning of the sentence if they were to produce the
correct answer.

Part 3 Focus: Grammar and Vocabulary

‘Key’ Word Transformations

This was the part of the paper which produced most problems for candidates. Items 34, 35 and 40 caused
the greatest number of difficulties. In 34, many candidates used a simple past instead of the required
participle. Tense problems also occurred in number 36 where many candidates failed to make the reported
speech transfer from ‘didn’t buy’ to ‘hadn’t bought’. In number 40, some candidates seeing that the key
word was a past participle, constructed an answer in the active voice (present perfect tense) instead of in
the passive voice.

Part 4 The place I come from Focus: Grammar

Error Correction

This section did not produce too many difficulties for candidates. Candidates dealt particularly well with
items 41, 43, 48, 49 and 53. The only item causing major difficulties was in line 50 where very few
candidates realised that the definite article should not appear in front of ‘nature’ in this context. Item 51,
where the incorrect word was the first word in the sentence (‘Although’), caused weaker candidates
problems but was dealt with successfully by the other candidates.

Part 5 Save our Tree Focus: Vocabulary

Word Formation

This was the part of the paper which candidates found to be by far the easiest. Few candidates failed to
produce the appropriate words for items 57, 58, 60, 64 and 65. The item causing most difficulty was
number 62 where candidates had difficulty in producing the correct spelling of ‘responsibility’. Item 59
caused some candidates problems – quite often it was not realised that a plural form of the noun was
required, in spite of the form of the following verb and the presence of ‘They’ in the following sentence.

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• Candidate performance Syllabus 0102 (Saturday)

Please note that the report below is based on performance in December 1998. The report on June 1999
will be available at a later date.

Part 1 Scrabble Focus: Vocabulary

Multiple-Choice Cloze

This proved to be the most difficult part of the paper for candidates. Only item 4, proved to be easy
for a large number of candidates. There were three particularly difficult items, numbers 3, 6 and 15.
In number 6, a popular choice was B (‘similar’). One assumes that candidates making this choice
took into account only the four words following the gap; however, the remaining words in the
sentence showed that ‘similar; was not the appropriate word to fill the gap. In numbers 3 and 15, the
phrasal verbs clearly caused problems. In 3, candidates tended to choose ‘took up’ (option A);
presumably they attributed the wrong meaning to the key, ‘set out’ (option B). In 15, only the ablest
candidates chose ‘caught on’ (option D) as the key: the most common choice was ‘turned on’
(option B).

Part 2 Working Aboard Focus: Grammar and Vocabulary

Open Cloze

This part of the test was done well by most candidates. The passage opened with three easy items.
Items 25 and 26 also gave very few candidates problems. Item 20 was difficult as relatively few
candidates were able to produce the necessary present participle. Other items causing problems were
27, 28 and 29. One tends to imagine that gaps needing to be filled by the indefinite article will not
prove difficult, but in fact this is often not the case as was noted in the answers given for number 28.

Part 3 Focus: Grammar and Vocabulary

‘Key’ Word Transformations

There were plenty of high scores on this part of the paper. Candidates did particularly well on
numbers 31, 35, 36 and 37. The only item causing major problems was number 38. Many candidates
did not know ‘accuracy’ whilst others assumed that ‘doubt’ must be followed by ‘of’ or ‘about’. In
number 33, quite a few candidates offered ‘it might have been possible’. Whilst this was worth one of
the two marks available, it could not be awarded both marks; the words are somewhat ambiguous and
seem to suggest that, given the circumstances, several people would have been able to go to the
cinema, not just Rachel. In number 39, many candidates added (unnecessarily) an extra word such as
‘having’ after ‘forward’ in their answers; unfortunately, the words chosen were usually inappropriate.

Part 4 A Tall Man’s Point of View Focus:

Grammar

Error Correction

This was the easiest part of the paper for the candidates. All but the very weakest candidates
produced correct answers for lines 47, 49, 51 and 52. The only line causing any major difficulties was
43. The presence of several prepositions in this line presumably caused problems for candidates who
were not sure which one (if any) was incorrect. There were a few problems in lines 41 and 53. In 41,
‘it’ was sometimes thought to be wrong. In line 53, some candidates were not sure which tense was
appropriate here and, thus, decided that it was acceptable to leave ‘have’ in the line.

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Part 5 An Environmental Success Story Focus: Vocabulary
Word Formation

Candidates found several items on this part of the paper to be very difficult. Only the most able
candidates produced a correct answer for 60 (strong/strengthen). It would seem that whilst candidates
are used to attaching prefixes and suffixes, they have problems when the change is in the body of the
word (especially when a verbal form is also required). Numbers 61, 63 and 64 also gave problems.
The easier items 56, 58 and 65 were handled well by the majority of candidates. A wide variety of
(wrong) answers was offered for number 63.

• Recommendations for preparation

In Part 3, a few candidates wrote out their answers but left a blank or a dash to indicate the given key
word. Candidates must not do this – the key word must be written out in the answer in exactly the same
form as it appears on the question paper.

In the recent examinations it was pleasing to see that in Part 3 fewer candidates were breaking the rule of
writing more than five words in their answers. The sentences in this part of the paper are carefully
constructed so that it is always possible to write the answer in good clear English in no more than five
words. It is realised that it is often possible for people to use more than five words in writing the answer
but on this paper no more than five words may be used. The five word limit aims to encourage concise
writing and to limit the number of possible alternative answers.

In Part 4 some candidates continue to indicate correct lines by leaving a blank on their answer sheet. It is
impossible for markers to know if a blank is meant to represent a line with no error or whether it simply
means that the candidate has missed out a particular item. When a blank appears it has to be assumed that
the item has been omitted and, therefore, no mark may be awarded for that line.

In Part 4 it must be remembered that candidates have to find which lines contain a word which is actually
wrong in that particular context. There may well be words in a line that are not vital to the meaning of
the sentence and could in fact be omitted. However, these words are not actually wrong and must not be
indicated as such.

In Part 5 a few candidates put their answers in the incorrect order. This happens mainly when a candidate
has missed out one or two answers and then has put, for instance, the answer to
item 7 where the answer for item 6 should be. Markers are trained to be aware that this may happen.
However, by being careless in this, candidates risk losing marks.

• DOs and DON’Ts

DO write clearly, especially the letters a, e, o.

DO read carefully the instructions telling you how to answer each part of the test.

DO copy out the key word in Part 3 accurately without making any changes to it.

DO make sure that you spell all words in all parts of the paper correctly.

DO check that answers on your answer sheet are next to the appropriate numbers.

DON’T choose more than one letter in indicating your answer for each item in Part 1

DON’T write more than one word in your answer to items in Parts 2, 4, and 5.

DON’T add extra, unnecessary words to your answers in Part 3.

© UCLES 1999 0100/0102 17

DON’T leave blanks to indicate correct lines in Part 4.

DON’T forget that some words may be in the negative form.

© UCLES 1999 0100/0102 18

PAPER 4 - LISTENING

Part Task Type and Focus Number of Task Format

Questions
1 Multiple-choice
Understanding gist, main
points, detail, function,
location, roles and
relationships, mood,
attitude, intention, feeling
or opinion
2 Note-taking or blank-filling
Understanding gist, main
points, detail or specific
information, or deducing
meaning
3 Multiple-matching
As for Part 1
4 Selection from 2 or 3
possible answers
As for Part 2
8 A series of short unrelated
extracts, of approximately 30
seconds each, from monologues
or exchanges between interacting
speakers. The multiple-choice
questions have three options.
10 A monologue or text involving
interacting speakers and lasting
approximately 3 minutes.
5 A series of short related extracts,
of approximately 30 seconds
each, from monologues or
exchanges between interacting
speakers. The multiple-matching
questions require selection of the
correct option from a list of 6.
7 A monologue or text involving
interacting speakers and lasting
approximately 3 minutes. The
questions require candidates to
select between 2 or 3 possible
answers, e.g., true/false; yes/no;
three-option multiple- choice;
which speaker said what, etc.

• Marking

Candidates write their answers on a separate answer sheet, which is marked according to a mark
scheme and then scanned by computer.

Each question carries one mark. The total score is adjusted to give a mark out of 40.

For security reasons, more than one version of the Paper 4 Listening Test is made available at each
session. As with all other FCE papers, rigorous criteria are built into the question paper production
process to ensure all versions of the test are of comparable content and difficulty. In addition, for
Paper 4, the marks are adjusted to ensure that there is no advantage or disadvantage to candidates
taking one particular version.

All texts and tasks were representative of what can be expected in future versions of the Paper. In
Part 4, three-way matching tasks as outlined in the FCE Specifications and exemplified in the first
sample paper may appear in future versions.
• Candidate performance

© UCLES 1999 0100/0102 19

Candidates generally performed very well on all versions of the
Paper, with no particular task type proving significantly more
difficult than any other.

Part 1

Although there were differences in candidate performance on

individual questions, no single question presented undue difficulty
to candidates in general. There was again nothing to suggest that
questions with particular test focuses generally present greater
difficulty than questions with other test focuses.
In Test A, the most challenging item was 4, where the reference to
an appointment and to the speaker's work led some candidates to opt
for B or C instead of the key A, which was alluded to by the phrase
if you're tired, don't wait up.

Part 2

Candidates performed very well on this part. In Test A, there were

no questions that proved to be of immense difficulty. The most
challenging items were 10 (where some candidates found the book
title Free at Heart difficult), 11, (where some candidates could
not work out that a street that has carried her name is a street
that is named after her):18, (where the word diary presented some
difficulty).

Part 3

Candidates performed well on this task. In test A, the only item

that presented any difficulty was the last one, 23, where a number
of candidates opted for E, which was not the answer to any question
(the speaker makes references to high earnings but not to a
personal contact).

Part 4

Overall performance was very good. In Test A, the most challenging

items were 24 (where the phrase the brains behind and she set up
pointed to the correct answer, B) and 27, (where the answer A is
indicated by Angela's reference to people not playing the pieces
because they are difficult and people can't play them).

• Recommendations for preparation

Part 1

Candidates should be aware that, by design, this part gives them a

chance to orientate themselves to the Listening Test in a
relatively gentle way. Unlike elsewhere, they both hear and read
the questions and they should realise that this gives them ample
time to work out their answers. However, this does not mean that
questions are 'easy' in themselves, and careful listening is
required, particularly since an option that may seem to be
obviously correct on a superficial listening may not in fact be
correct. Additionally, teachers should give adequate practice in
dealing with all the task types and focuses listed on page 18, as

© UCLES 1999 0100/0102 20

all Part 1 sections in the exam include as wide a range as possible
of these.

Part 2

In preparing for this part of the test, candidates should be

encouraged to establish the best approach to writing words and
phrases, as opposed to choosing from options, since the productive
task presents different challenges from those presented by the
other tasks. They should not detain themselves on a question they
are struggling with, as this may prevent them from answering
subsequent questions which may have provided them with little or no
difficulty. They should also be aware that most, if not all, the
questions involve them writing a word or phrase that they actually
hear; attempting to rephrase what is heard is not expected, and it
may result in candidates giving incorrect answers despite having
understood what was said. Candidates should also know that minor
spelling errors are accepted, although the intention is that most
of the words and phrases tested in this task are limited to those
which candidates can reasonably be expected to spell correctly.

Part 3

Candidates should be advised to make good use of the second

listening, even if they have answered every question on the first
listening. They may discover that they need to change more than one
answer if they discover an error, because one incorrect answer may
have a knock-on effect on other questions.

Part 4

For multiple-choice question tasks, candidates should be aware that

they are given a full minute in which to read the questions before
they hear the piece and that they should use this time to acquaint
themselves with the aspects of the piece they are to be tested on.
In addition, they should realise that, although a particular option
is true according to what is said in the piece, it is not
necessarily the correct answer to the question that has been asked.
Thus, the question 'What did he find annoying about his journey?'
may be followed by more than one option describing something that
really did happen to a speaker, but only one option will be
something that he found annoying.
Candidates should be prepared to encounter any of the three task
types in the Specifications (multiple-choice, true/false, matching)
as any of them could appear in any version. They should know that
with all three types they are given adequate time to read the
questions before the piece is heard. With regard to matching tasks,
any of the following formats may arise:

• choosing from 3 options, e.g., which of the three places does

this statement refer to?
• choosing from one option, another option or both, e.g., which
book mentions this: Book A, Book B or both of them?
• choosing from one option, another option or neither option,
e.g., which person is this true of: Person A, Person B or
neither of them?

© UCLES 1999 0100/0102 21

DOs AND DON'Ts

DO use the full time you are allowed to read the questions
carefully before you hear each piece. If you are
familiar with what you are being asked, it is likely
that it will be easier for you to focus precisely on the
points you are being tested on. In Part 2, this will
also help you to anticipate what kind of answer you will
be required to give.

DO expect to write a word or words that you hear on the

tape in Part 2.

DO remember that any error you discover in Part 3 when

hearing the piece for the second time may have an
effect on your other answers.

DO concentrate on gaining an in-depth understanding of what

the speakers say rather than only a superficial one,
particularly in Parts 1, 3 and 4.

DON'T try to write a more complicated word or phrase than the

one you hear in
Part 2.

DON'T spend too much time on a question you are having

difficulty with, as this may make it harder for you to
answer later questions.

© UCLES 1999 0100/0102 22

 PAPER 5 - SPEAKING

Part Task Type and Focus Length of Parts Task Format

1 Short exchanges between 3 minutes The interlocutor encourages the
each candidate and the candidates to give information
interlocutor about themselves.
2 Giving personal 4 minutes The candidates are in turn given
information; socialising visual prompts (two colour
photographs) which they each
Long turn from each
talk about for approximately 1
candidate, with a brief
minute. They are also asked to
response from the other
comment briefly on each other’s
candidate
photographs.
Exchanging personal and
factual information;
expressing attitudes and
opinions; employing
discourse functions related
to managing a long turn
3 Candidates talk with one 3 minutes The candidates are given visual
another prompts (photographs, line
drawings, diagrams, etc.) which
Exchanging information,
generate discussion through
expressing attitudes and
engagement in tasks such as
opinions
planning, problem solving,
decision making, prioritising,
speculating, etc.
4 Candidates talk with one 4 minutes The interlocutor encourages a
another and the interlocutor discussion of matters related to
the theme of Part 3.
Exchanging and justifying
opinions

• Marking

The Speaking tests are conducted by trained examiners, who attend biannual co-ordination sessions to
ensure that standards are maintained.

The Assessor awards marks to each candidate for performance throughout the test according to the
four Analytical Criteria (Grammar and Vocabulary, Discourse Management, Pronunciation &
Interactive Communication). The Interlocutor awards marks according to the Global Achievement
scale, which assesses the candidate’s overall effectiveness in tackling the tasks. These scores are
converted by computer to provide a mark out of 40.

© UCLES 1999 0100/0102 23

• Candidate Performance

Candidate performance in this administration was consistent with

that of December 1998 and historical norms. Feedback from Oral
Examiners has been very positive and students overall were very
well prepared for this paper. Feedback indicates that this year's
test materials have been well received. Students who performed less
well were those who did not listen carefully to the instructions
given or those who dominated the interaction at the expense of
their partner. To perform well a candidate should answer the task
set and therefore should not be afraid to ask for repetition of
instructions before embarking on the task. Candidates should be
made aware that asking for the instructions to be repeated will not
affect their marks in any way, whereas redirection by the examiner
once the task has begun may affect their performance.

Part 1

This part of the test gives the examiners their first impression of
the candidates and it is therefore important that the candidates
speak about themselves and their lives with appropriate detail. One
word responses are inadequate and will affect the score for
Interactive Communication. Candidates should also be advised not to
prepare long responses to questions that they feel they may be
asked as this often means that they do not answer appropriately.
This tactic does not lead to effective Interactive Communication,
and is easily noticed by examiners. Candidates who have not met
prior to the test should not feel concerned as feedback from
examiners indicates that this does not affect performance and in
some cases leads to a more natural interaction in this part of the
test.

Part 2

The tendency in this part of the test is for candidates to focus on

the pictures without listening carefully to the task set by the
examiner. Simply comparing and contrasting the two pictures is
unlikely to provide the candidate with enough to talk about for a
full minute. Candidates will always be asked to Compare / contrast
'and say ... (something specific about the photographs)...'. They
should be trained to listen very carefully for the 'and say......'
so that they fully complete the task and are able to continue for
the full minute. Candidates should not feel concerned if the
examiner interrupts as this simply means that they have completed
the task. It is important for candidates to start talking as soon
as they can in order to make full use of their long turn.

Comments on released Test Materials

Enjoying Yourself

© UCLES 1999 0100/0102 24

Candidates were shown two photographs of people doing different
things in their free time. In the first photograph two people were
entertaining a group of children by singing and playing the guitar.
The second photograph showed someone alone listening to a personal
stereo while reading. Students were asked to compare and contrast
the photographs and say how much fun they thought the people were
having. Candidates whose responses were restricted to 'In this
picture I can see someone playing the guitar and in this picture
someone is listening to music' will not have performed as well as
those who went on to talk about how much fun it would be to
entertain others, how pleasurable it is to spend time alone, how
enjoyable reading can be, how it might not be such fun to be on
stage if the audience didn't like you, and so on.

Getting Around

Candidates were shown two photographs of different types of

transport. They were asked to compare and contrast the photographs
and say which way of travelling was more convenient. The first
showed holiday makers in a rickshaw while the second showed people
getting on a bus. Candidates were obviously not expected to know
the word 'rickshaw', but the stronger candidates were those who,
having compared and contrasted the photographs, went on to talk
about how convenient they would find the different methods of
transport - the problems of buses being late, how slow it might be
to travel in this way, how pleasant it is to travel in the open
air, how crowded buses can be, how you know exactly where to catch
a bus, the problems of hills for the poor man with the rickshaw and
so on.

Part 3

The aim of this part of the test is for candidates to discuss the
task outlined by the examiner as fully as possible, and to work
towards a negotiated outcome in the time available. In this part
of the test candidates are always invited to do two things. They
are required to respond to and give their views on a range of
visual prompts, then to come to a negotiated decision. The wording
of the rubric is:
'First talk to each other about......... Then
decide......................

Candidates, presented with the visual stimulus, sometimes fail to

hear the first part of the instructions which is in fact the bulk
of the task. Candidates who performed less well were therefore
those who made their decisions very early on in the interaction
without first considering and discussing as fully as possible the
range of suggestions presented to them and, as a result, ran out of
things to say. Candidates should be trained to listen carefully for

© UCLES 1999 0100/0102 25

the words 'First talk to each other about.....' and to internalise
the task set. As already mentioned in the section on candidate
performance, candidates should be made aware that they will not
lose marks if they need to ask the examiner to repeat the rubric.

To perform well in this part of the test candidates should be able

to take a full and active part in the interaction, making use of
the range of visual stimulus available, expressing their own views
clearly, listening to their partner and developing their partner's
comments. However, candidates should be aware of the importance of
inviting their partner to respond, ensuring that both candidates
take an equal part in the development of the interaction.
Candidates are expected to negotiate an outcome and should not be
concerned if they do not agree. Disagreeing in a friendly way can
be an effective part of Interactive Communication. However, strong
disagreement can undermine their partner's confidence and an
overbearing candidate may lose marks. Candidates should make full
use of the time available, starting promptly and finishing only
when the examiner interjects. They should not feel concerned if
they are asked to stop as this will probably mean that they have
talked for the allotted time.

Comments on released Test Materials

Bookshop

Candidates were asked to imagine that a local bookshop wanted to

attract more customers. They were then shown a picture of a rather
old fashioned bookshop surrounded by visuals of possible ways of
improving the shop e.g. piped music, a coffee bar, a children's
reading area, a bargain books stand etc. They were asked to talk
about the advantages and disadvantages of the different ideas and
then decide which would be most successful in attracting customers.
Candidates are often tempted to start with the words, ‘I think the
children's reading area would be the most successful idea
because.....', Candidates who did this often performed less well as
they did not address the task fully, having failed to discuss the
'advantages and disadvantages of the different ideas'. Candidates
should not feel concerned if they are unable to make use of the
full range of visual prompts but they should have managed to
discuss several areas before making their decision. Candidates
should therefore be trained to make full use of the different
suggestions or ideas offered and come to a negotiated decision
towards the end of their three minutes rather than making a
decision at the outset and therefore running out of things to say.

Part 4

In this part of the test candidates are given a further opportunity

to demonstrate their language ability by engaging in a three-way
discussion with their partner and the examiner. It is therefore
vital that candidates offer more than a minimal response and take
the opportunity to initiate discussion as well as answer the
examiner's questions. Candidates who performed well in this part of

© UCLES 1999 0100/0102 26

the test were those able to develop and illustrate the topic,
demonstrating a range of vocabulary. Candidates generally
performed confidently in this part of the test and were often so
enthusiastic that it became necessary for examiners to draw the
Speaking Test to a close!

Comments on released Test Materials

Following the discussion of the bookshop (see Part 3), candidates

were asked to talk about the kind of books or magazines they like
to buy and whether they prefer to borrow books from a library or to
buy them. The discussion then became more general and candidates
were asked how difficult they thought it would be to write a book
and whether they thought computers would ever replace books.
Finally they were asked about shops in general, when they need the
help of a shop assistant, when they prefer to be left alone, and
how important a shop window is in attracting customers. Candidates
who performed well were those who responded fully to the questions
asked.

• Recommendations for preparation

Candidates are expected to take a full and active part in the test.
It is important, therefore, that candidates seek as many
opportunities to practise their spoken English as possible, inside
and outside the classroom. 'Exam training' can help with
nervousness and candidates certainly benefit from being familiar
with the different parts of the test, but this no substitute for a
genuine interest in the language. Candidates who put themselves in
a position where they need to use English on a regular basis are
likely to perform well.

Part 1

For this part of the test candidates will benefit from finding
opportunities to practise explaining themselves, their likes and
dislikes, personal / educational history, present circumstances,
plans and hopes for the future etc.
.
Part 2

Candidates can improve their performance in this part of the test

by choosing pairs of thematically linked photographs, practising
comparing and contrasting them, and going on to talk about the
theme in a more general way. Candidates should time themselves to
check that they are able to keep going for a full minute. Without
practice candidates may find it difficult to speak for a full
minute in the test.

Part 3

The best preparation for this part of the test is for candidates to
practise taking part in discussions in small groups so that all
candidates have the opportunity to take the floor. Candidates with
a quieter disposition should be encouraged to develop strategies to

© UCLES 1999 0100/0102 27

ensure they are able to take their turn. Stronger candidates should
be encouraged to invite opinions from others. Suitable thematic
areas for discussion can be found in FCE coursebooks and should
relate to the candidate's own experience rather than more abstract
concepts.
(See the FCE Handbook for a list of topic areas.)

Part 4

As in Part 3, candidates will benefit from being given as many

opportunities as possible to give their opinions on a range of
issues, and to expand on their views while inviting opinions from
others and responding to them.

• DOs and DON'Ts

DO familiarize yourself with the focus, function and

procedures of all parts of the test.

DO take every opportunity to practise your English in

groups and pairs and outside the classroom before the
test.

DO listen carefully to instructions given and questions

asked throughout the test and focus your answers
appropriately.

DO respond to your partner's contributions and invite your

partner to contribute in Parts 3 and 4

DO speak clearly so that both the assessor and the

interlocutor can hear you.

DO make use of opportunities to speak in all parts of the

test and give extended contributions where you can.

DON'T worry about asking for repetition of instructions if you

are unclear about what you should do.

DON'T prepare long responses in advance. You are unlikely to

answer questions appropriately.

DON'T just describe the pictures in Part 2. Compare and

contrast them, addressing the focus given in the
instructions.

DON'T try to give your views during your partner's long turn.

DON'T try to dominate your partner or to interrupt him/her in

an abrupt way.

DON'T allow frequent pauses and hesitations during the

interaction or during your long turn.

© UCLES 1999 0100/0102 28

DON'T just respond to what your partner has said. Be prepared
to initiate discussion.

DON'T worry if you disagree with your partner in Parts 3 and

4. As long as you are polite and not overbearing this is
all part of interactive communication.

DON'T worry about being interrupted by the examiner. For administrative reasons it is
important that tests do not overrun.

© UCLES 1999 0100/0102 29

FCE Examination Report June 1999 - 0100 and 0102

We are interested in hearing your views on how useful this report has been.

We would be most grateful if you could briefly answer the following questions and return a photocopy
of this page to the following address:

UCLES
FCE Co-ordinator
EFL Division
1 Hills Road
Cambridge
CB1 2EU

Fax: +44 1223 460278

1. Please describe your situation: (e.g. EFL teacher, Director of Studies, Examinations Officer, Local
Secretary, etc.)

2. Have you prepared candidates for FCE? YES/NO

3. Do you plan to prepare candidates for FCE in the future? YES/NO

4. How have you used this report? (e.g. to provide feedback to other teachers, for examination
practice, etc.)

5. Which parts of this report did you find most useful?

6. Which parts are not so useful?

7. What extra information would you like to see included in this report?

8. Your name (optional) .........................................................................

Centre/School ...................................................................................

Thank you.

© UCLES 1999 0100/0102 30