E10-001 Practice Exam: Information Storage and Management Exam Version 2

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EMC
E10-001 PRACTICE EXAM

Information Storage and Management Exam Version 2
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https://www. pass4sures.com/
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Total Questions: 344
Question 1
Which cache management algorithm is based on the assumpton that data will not be requested by the host when it
has not been accessed for a while?
A. LRU
B. HWM
C. LWM
D. MRU
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
Cache Managementn Algorithms Cache is a fnite and expensive resource that needs proper management. Even
though modern intelligent storage systems come with a large amount of cache, when all cache pages are flled, some
pages have to be freed up to accommodate new data and avoid performance degradaton. Various cache
management algorithms are implemented in intelligent storage systems to proactvely maintain a set of free pages
and a list of pages that can be potentally freed up whenever required.
The most commonly used algorithms are discussed in the following listn
• Least Recently Used (LRU)n An algorithm that contnuously monitors data access in cache and identfes the cache
pages that have not been accessed for a long tme. LRU either frees up these pages or marks them for reuse. This
algorithm is based on the assumpton that data that has not been accessed for a while will not be requested by the
host. However, if a page contains write data that has not yet been commited to disk, the data is frst writen to disk
before the page is reused.
Most Recently Used (MRU)n This algorithm is the opposite of LRU, where the pages that have been accessed most
recently are freed up or marked for reuse. This algorithm is based on the assumpton that recently accessed data may
not be required for a while.
EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 4n Intelligent Storage System
Question 2
What does the area ID of the FC address identfy?
A. Group of ports within a switch

B. An individual port within a fabric
C. Locaton of the name server within the fabric
D. Unique number provided to each switch in the fabric
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
FC Addressing in Switched Fabric An FC address is dynamically assigned when a node port logs on to the fabric. The FC
address has a distnct format, as shown in the slide.
The frst feld of the FC address contains the domain ID of the switch. A Domain ID is a unique number provided to
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each switch in the fabric.

Although this is an 8-bit feld, there are only 239 available addresses for domain ID because some addresses are
deemed special and reserved for fabric management services. For example, FFFFFC is reserved for the name server,
and FFFFFE is reserved for the fabric login service. The area ID is used to identfy a group of switch ports used for
connectng nodes. An example of a group of ports with common area ID is a port card on the switch. The last feld, the
port ID, identfes the port within the group. Therefore, the maximum possible number of node ports in a switched
fabric is calculated asn 239 domains X 256 areas X 256 ports = 15,663,104
EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 5n Fibre Channel Storage Area Network (FC SAN)
Question 3
An organizaton performs copy on frst access (CoFA) replicaton to create a local replica of applicaton data. To
perform a successful restore, what should be considered?
A. Source devices must be healthy

B. Save locaton size must be larger than the size of all source devices
C. Save locaton size must be equal to the size of all source devices
D. All changes to the source and replica must be discarded before the restore starts
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
Replicatonn Restore & Restart Consideratons Local replicas are used to restore data to producton devices.
Alternatvely, applicatons can be restarted using the consistent point-in-tme replicas. Replicas are used to restore
data to the producton devices if logical corrupton of data on producton devices occurs—that is, the devices are
available but the data on them is invalid.
Examples of logical corrupton include accidental deleton of data (tables or entries in a database), incorrect data
entry, and incorrect data updates. Restore operatons from a replica are incremental and provide a small RTO. In some
instances, the applicatons can be resumed on the producton devices prior to the completon of the data copy. Prior
to the restore operaton, access to producton and replica devices should be stopped.
Producton devices might also become unavailable due to physical failures, such as producton server or physical drive
failure. In this case, applicatons can be restarted using the data on the latest replica. As a protecton against further
failures, a “Gold Copy” (another copy of replica device) of the replica device should be created to preserve a copy of
data in the event of failure or corrupton of the replica devices. Afer the issue has been resolved, the data from the
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replica devices can be restored back to the producton devices.

Full-volume replicas (both full-volume mirrors and pointer-based in Full Copy mode) can be restored to the original
source devices or to a new set of source devices. Restores to the original source devices can be incremental, but
restores to a new set of devices are full volume copy operatons.
In pointer-based virtual and pointer-based full-volume replicaton in CoFA mode, access to data on the replica is
dependent on the health and accessibility of the source volumes. If the source volume is inaccessible for any reason,
these replicas cannot be used for a restore or a restart operaton. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 11n
Local Replicaton
Question 4
Which host component eliminates the need to deploy separate adapters for FC and Ethernet communicatons?
A. Converged network adapter

B. TCP Ofoad Engine NIC
C. FCIP bridging adapter
D. iSCSI host bus adapter
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
Converged Network Adaptor (CNA)
A CNA provides the functonality of both a standard NIC and an FC HBA in a single adapter and consolidates both
types of trafc. CNA eliminates the need to deploy separate adapters and cables for FC and Ethernet communicatons,
thereby reducing the required number of server slots and switch ports. CNA ofoads the FCoE protocol processing
task from the server, thereby freeing the server CPU resources for applicaton processing. A CNA contains separate
modules for 10 Gigabit Ethernet, Fibre Channel, and FCoE Applicaton Specifc Integrated Circuits (ASICs). The FCoE
ASIC encapsulate FC frames into Ethernet frames. One end of this ASIC is connected to 10GbE and FC ASICs for server
connectvity, while the other end provides a 10GbE interface to connect to an FCoE switch.
EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 6n IP SAN and FCoE
Question 5
What is a functon of unifed management sofware in cloud computng?
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A. Defning cloud service atributes

B. Consolidatng infrastructure resources scatered across one or more data centers
C. Metering based on usage of resources by the consumer
D. Providing an interface to consumers to request cloud services
Aoswern B
Explanatonn
Cloud Management and Service Creaton Tools The cloud management and service creaton tools layer includes three
types of sofwaren
This classifcaton is based on the diferent functons performed by these sofware. These sofware interact with each
other to automate provisioning of cloud services.
The physical and virtual infrastructure management sofware is ofered by the vendors of various infrastructure
resources and third-party organizatons. For example, a storage array has its own management sofware. Similarly,
network and physical servers are managed independently using network and compute management sofware
respectvely. These sofware provide interfaces to construct a virtual infrastructure from the underlying physical
infrastructure.
Unifed management sofware interacts with all standalone physical and virtual infrastructure management sofware.
It collects informaton on the existng physical and virtual infrastructure confguratons, connectvity, and utlizaton.
Unifed management sofware compiles this informaton and provides a consolidated view of infrastructure resources
scatered across one or more data centers. It allows an administrator to monitor performance, capacity, and
availability of physical and virtual resources centrally. Unifed management sofware also provides a single
management interface to confgure physical and virtual infrastructure and integrate the compute (both CPU and
memory), network, and storage pools. The integraton allows a group of compute pools to use the storage and
network pools for storing and transferring data respectvely.
The unifed management sofware passes confguraton commands to respectve physical and virtual infrastructure
management sofware, which executes the instructons. This eliminates the administraton of compute, storage, and
network resources separately using natve management
sofware.
The key functon of the unifed management sofware is to automate the creaton of cloud services. It enables
administrators to defne service atributes such as CPU power, memory, network bandwidth, storage capacity, name
and descripton of applicatons and platorm sofware, resource locaton, and backup policy. When the unifed
management sofware receives consumer requests for cloud services, it creates the service based on predefned
service atributes.
The user-access management sofware provides a web-based user interface to consumers. Consumers can use the
interface to browse the service catalogue and request cloud services. The user-access management sofware
authentcates users before forwarding their request to the unifed management sofware. It also monitors allocaton
or usage of resources associated to the cloud service instances. Based on the allocaton or usage of resources, it
generates a chargeback report. The chargeback report is visible to consumers and provides transparency between
consumers and providers. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 13n Cloud Computng
Question 6
Which EMC product provides the capability to recover data up to any point-in-tme?
A. RecoverPoint
B. NetWorker
C. Avamar
D. Data Domain
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Aoswern A
Explanatonn
EMC RecoverPoint RecoverPoint is a high-performance, cost-efectve, single product that provides local and remote
data protecton for both physical and virtual environments. It provides faster recovery and unlimited recovery points.
RecoverPoint provides contnuous data protecton and performs replicaton between the LUNs. RecoverPoint uses
lightweight splitng technology either at the applicaton server, fabric, or arrays to mirror a write to a RecoverPoint
appliance. The RecoverPoint family of products include RecoverPoint/CL, RecoverPoint/EX, and RecoverPoint/SE.
RecoverPoint/CL is a replicaton product for a heterogeneous server and storage environment. It supports both EMC
and non-EMC storage arrays. This product supports hostbased, fabric-based, and array-based write spliters.
RecoverPoint/EX supports replicaton between EMC storage arrays and allows only array-based write splitng.
RecoverPoint/SE is a version of RecoverPoint that is targeted for VNX series arrays and enables only Windows-based
host and array-based write splitng.
EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 11n Local Replicaton
Question 7
What is needed to perform a non-disruptve migraton of virtual machines (VMs) between hypervisors?
A. Hypervisors must have access to the same storage volume

B. Physical machines running hypervisors must have the same confguraton
C. Hypervisors must be running within the same physical machine
D. Both hypervisors must have the same IP address
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
VM Migratonn Hypervisor-to-Hypervisor In hypervisor-to-hypervisor VM migraton, the entre actve state of a VM is
moved from one hypervisor to another. This method involves copying the contents of virtual machine memory from
the source hypervisor to the target and then transferring the control of the VM’s disk fles to the target hypervisor.
Because the virtual disks of the VMs are not migrated, this technique requires both source and target hypervisor
access to the same storage.
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EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 12n Remote Replicaton
Question 8
Which iSCSI name requires an organizaton to own a registered domain name?
A. IQN
B. EUI
C. WWNN
D. WWPN
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
iSCSI Name A unique worldwide iSCSI identfer, known as an iSCSI name, is used to identfy the initators and targets
within an iSCSI network to facilitate communicaton. The unique identfer can be a combinaton of the names of the
department, applicaton, or manufacturer, serial number, asset number, or any tag that can be used to recognize and
manage the devices. Following are two types of iSCSI names commonly usedn
• iSCSI Qualifed Name (IQN)n An organizaton must own a registered domain name to generate iSCSI Qualifed
Names. This domain name does not need to be actve or resolve to an address. It just needs to be reserved to prevent
other organizatons from using the same domain name to generate iSCSI names. A date is included in the name to
avoid potental conficts caused by the transfer of domain names. An example of an IQN is iqn.2008-
02.com.examplenoptonallstring. The optonallstring provides a serial number, an asset number, or any other device
identfers. An iSCSI Qualifed Name enables storage administrators to assign meaningful names to iSCSI devices, and
therefore, manage those devices more easily.
Extended Unique Identfer (EUI)n An EUI is a globally unique identfer based on the IEEE EUI64 naming standard. An
EUI is composed of the eui prefx followed by a 16-character exadecimal name, such as eui.0300732A32598D26. In
either format, the allowed special characters are dots, dashes, and blank spaces. EMC E10-001 Student Resource
Guide. Module 6n IP SAN and FCoE
Question 9
Which data center requirement refers to applying mechanisms that ensure data is stored and retrieved as it was
received?
A. Integrity
B. Availability
C. Security
D. Performance
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Aoswern A
Explanatonn
Informaton Security Framework The basic informaton security framework is built to achieve four security goals,
confdentality, integrity, and availability (CIA) along with accountability. This framework incorporates all security
standards, procedures and controls, required to mitgate threats in the storage infrastructure environment.
Confdentalityn Provides the required secrecy of informaton and ensures that only authorized users have access to
data. This requires authentcaton of users who need to access informaton. Data in transit (data transmited over
cables) and data at rest (data residing on a primary storage, backup media, or in the archives) can be encrypted to
maintain its confdentality. In additon to restrictng unauthorized users from accessing informaton, confdentality
also requires to implement trafc fow protecton measures as part of the security protocol. These protecton
measures generally include hiding source and destnaton addresses, frequency of data being sent, and amount of
data sent.
Integrityn Ensures that the informaton is unaltered . Ensuring integrity requires detecton and protecton against
unauthorized alteraton or deleton of informaton. Ensuring integrity stpulate measures such as error detecton and
correcton for both data and systems.
Availabilityn This ensures that authorized users have reliable and tmely access to systems, data and applicatons
residing on these systems. Availability requires protecton against unauthorized deleton of data and denial of service.
Availability also implies that sufcient resources are available to provide a service. Accountabilityn Refers to
accountng for all the events and operatons that take place in the data center infrastructure. The accountability
service maintains a log of events that can be audited or traced later for the purpose of security.
EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 14n Securing the Storage Infrastructure
Question 10
What describes a landing zone in a disk drive?
A. Area on which the read/write head rests

B. Area where the read/write head lands to access data
C. Area where the data is bufered before writng to platers
D. Area where sector-specifc informaton is stored on the disk
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
Disk Drive Components The key components of a hard disk drive are plater, spindle, read-write head, actuator arm
assembly, and controller board. I/O operatons in a HDD is performed by rapidly moving the arm across the rotatng
fat platers coated with magnetc partcles. Data is transferred between the disk controller and magnetc platers
through the read-write (R/W) head which is atached to the arm. Data can be recorded and erased on magnetc
platers any number of tmes.
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Platern A typical HDD consists of one or more fat circular disks called platers. The data is recorded on these platers
in binary codes (0s and 1s). The set of rotatng platers is sealed in a case, called Head Disk Assembly (HDA). A plater
is a rigid, round disk coated with magnetc material on both surfaces (top and botom). The data is encoded by
polarizing the magnetc area, or domains, of the disk surface. Data can be writen to or read from both surfaces of the
plater. The number of platers and the storage capacity of each plater determine the total capacity of the drive.
Spindlen A spindle connects all the platers and is connected to a motor. The motor of the spindle rotates with a
constant speed. The disk plater spins at a speed of several thousands of revolutons per minute (rpm). Common
spindle speeds are 5,400 rpm, 7,200 rpm, 10,000 rpm, and 15,000 rpm. The speed of the plater is increasing with
improvements in technology; although, the extent to which it can be improved is limited.
Read/Write Headn Read/Write (R/W) heads, read and write data from or to platers. Drives have two R/W heads per
plater, one for each surface of the plater. The R/W head changes the agnetc polarizaton on the surface of the
plater when writng data. While reading data, the head detects the magnetc polarizaton on the surface of the
plater. During reads and writes, the R/W head senses the magnetc polarizaton and never touches the surface of the
plater. When the spindle is rotatng, there is a microscopic air gap maintained between the R/W heads and the
platers, known as the head fying height. This air gap is removed when the spindle stops rotatng and the R/W head
rests on a special area on the plater near the spindle. This area is called the landing zone . The landing zone is coated
with a lubricant to reduce fricton between the head and the plater. The logic on the disk drive ensures that heads are
moved to the landing zone before they touch the surface. If the drive malfunctons and the R/W head accidentally
touches the surface of the plater outside the landing zone, a head crash occurs. In a head crash, the magnetc coatng
on the plater is scratched and may cause damage to the R/W head. A head crash generally results in data loss.
Actuator Arm Assemblyn R/W heads are mounted on the actuator arm assembly, which positons the R/W head at the
locaton on the plater where the data needs to be writen or read. The R/W heads for all platers on a drive are
atached to one actuator arm assembly and move across the platers simultaneously.
Drive Controller Boardn The controller is a printed circuit board, mounted at the botom of a disk drive. It consists of a
microprocessor, internal memory, circuitry, and frmware. The frmware controls the power to the spindle motor and
the speed of the motor. It also manages the communicaton between the drive and the host. In additon, it controls
the R/W operatons by moving the actuator arm and switching between diferent R/W heads, and performs the
optmizaton of data access. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 2n Data Center Environment
Question 11
What is a characteristc of unifed storage?
A. Supports multple protocols for data access and managed through a single management interface
B. Supports a common protocol for data access and managed through a unifed management interface
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C. Provides compute, storage, and network virtualizaton products in one soluton

D. Stores all data in the form of objects and managed through a unifed management interface
Aoswern A
Question 12
What defnes the tme taken to positon the read/write head across the plater with a radial movement in a disk
drive?
A. Seek tme
B. Rotatonal latency
C. Data transfer tme
D. Service tme
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
Seek Time The seek tme (also called access tme) describes the tme taken to positon the R/W heads across the
plater with a radial movement (moving along the radius of the plater). In other words, it is the tme taken to positon
and setle the arm and the head over the correct track.
Therefore, the lower the seek tme, the faster the I/O operaton. Disk vendors publish the following seek tme
specifcatonsn Full Stroken The tme taken by the R/W head to move across the entre width of the disk, from the
innermost track to the outermost track. Averagen The average tme taken by the R/W head to move from one random
track to another, normally listed as the tme for one-third of a full stroke. Track-to-Trackn The tme taken by the R/W
head to move between adjacent tracks.
Each of these specifcatons is measured in milliseconds. The seek tme of a disk is typically specifed by the drive
manufacturer. The average seek tme on a modern disk is typically in the range of 3 to 15 milliseconds. Seek tme has
more impact on the I/O operaton of random tracks rather than the adjacent tracks. To minimize the seek tme, data
can be writen to only a subset of the available cylinders. This results in lower usable capacity than the actual capacity
of the drive. For example, a 500-GB disk drive is set up to use only the frst 40 percent of the cylinders and is
efectvely treated as a 200-GB drive. This is known as short stroking the drive.
EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 2n Data Center Environment
Question 13
What is a beneft of cloud computng over traditonal computng?
A. Reduces the tme to provision and deploy new applicatons

B. Eliminates consumer's IT operatonal expenditure
C. Enables the use of proprietary APIs to access IT resources
D. Lowers migraton cost and prevents vendor lock-in
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
Benefts of Cloud Computng Cloud computng ofers the following key beneftsn
Business agilityn
Flexible scalingn Cloud computng enables consumers to scale up, scale down, scale out, or scale in the demand for
computng resources easily. Consumers can unilaterally and automatcally scale computng resources without any
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interacton with cloud service providers. The fexible service provisioning capability of cloud ofen provides a sense of
unlimited scalability to the cloud service consumers.
• High availabilityn Cloud computng has the ability to ensure resource availability at varying levels depending on the
consumer’s policy and priority. Redundant infrastructure components (servers, network paths, and storage
equipment, along with clustered sofware) enable fault tolerance for cloud deployments. These techniques can
encompass multple data centers located in diferent geographic regions, which prevents data unavailability due to
regional failures. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 13n Cloud Computng
Question 14
Which statement describes a denial of service atack?
A. Prevents authorized users from accessing the resources and services

B. Prohibits atempts to repair the resources and services afer an atack
C. Atempts to provide false informaton by impersonatng someone’s identty
D. Prevents unauthorized users to access the resources and services
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
Threats Threats are the potental atacks that can be carried out on an IT infrastructure. These atacks can be classifed
as actve or passive. Passive atacks are atempts to gain unauthorized access into the system. They pose threats to
confdentality of informaton. Actve atacks include data modifcaton, denial of service (DoS), and repudiaton
atacks. They pose threats to data integrity, availability, and accountability.
In a data modifcaton atack, the unauthorized user atempts to modify informaton for malicious purposes. A
modifcaton atack can target the data at rest or the data in transit.
These atacks pose a threat to data integrity. Denial of service (DoS) atacks prevent legitmate users from accessing
resources and services. These atacks generally do not involve access to or modifcaton of informaton.
Instead, they pose a threat to data availability. The intentonal fooding of a network or website to prevent legitmate
access to authorized users is one example of a DoS atack.
Repudiaton is an atack against the accountability of informaton. It atempts to provide false informaton by either
impersonatng someone’s identty or denying that an event or a transacton has taken place. For example, a
repudiaton atack may involve performing an acton and eliminatng any evidence that could prove the identty of the
user (atacker) who performed that acton. Repudiaton atacks include circumventng the logging of security events
or tampering with the security log to conceal the identty of the atacker.
Question 15
What is a key beneft of virtualizaton?
A. Improved resource utlizaton

B. Improved performance
C. Enhanced interoperability
D. Unlimited resource scaling
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
Need for Compute Virtualizaton EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 2n Data Center Environment
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Question 16
What is an accurate statement about the Data Center Bridging Exchange protocol?
A. Enables Converged Enhanced Ethernet (CEE) devices to convey and confgure their features with other CEE devices
B. Creates virtual FCoE links over an existng Ethernet network to transport FC frames over virtual links independently
C. Enables an FCoE switch to send signals to other FCoE switches that need to stop or slow down their transmissions
D. Enables an FCoE switch to transport both TCP/IP and FC frames over a single virtual FCoE link
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
Data Center Brdiging Exchange Protocol (DCBX) DCBX protocol is a discovery and capability exchange protocol, which
helps Converged Enhanced Ethernet devices to convey and confgure their features with the other CEE devices in the
network. DCBX is used to negotate capabilites between the switches and the adapters, and it allows the switch to
distribute the confguraton values to all the atached adapters. This helps to ensure consistent confguraton across
the entre network.
Question 17
What is a key security consideraton when a NAS device enables sharing of the same data among UNIX and Microsof
Windows users?
A. NAS device must map UNIX permissions to Windows and vice versa
B. NAS defnes and maintains ownership to the objects
C. NIS server must separately maintain SIDs for UNIX and Windows environments
D. Object permissions are not defned in advance and assigned dynamically
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
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Authorizaton defnes user privileges in a network. The authorizaton techniques for UNIX users and Windows users
are quite diferent. UNIX fles use mode bits to defne access rights granted to owners, groups, and other users,
whereas Windows uses an ACL to allow or deny specifc rights to a partcular user for a partcular fle. Although NAS
devices support both of these methodologies for UNIX and Windows users, complexites arise when UNIX and
Windows users access and share the same data. If the NAS device supports multple protocols, the integrity of both
permission methodologies must be maintained. NAS device vendors provide a method of mapping UNIX permissions
to Windows and vice versa, so a multprotocol environment can be supported.
EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 14n Securing the storage Infrastructure
Question 18
Which cloud computng characteristc enables consumers to grow and shrink the demand for resources dynamically?
A. Rapid elastcity
B. Resource pooling
C. Measured service
D. On-demand self-service
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
Rapid Elastcity Capabilites can be elastcally provisioned and released, in some cases automatcally, to scale rapidly
outward and inward commensurate with demand. To the consumer, the capabilites available for provisioning ofen
appear to be unlimited and can be appropriated in any quantty at any tme. Consumers can leverage rapid elastcity
of the cloud when they have a fuctuaton in their IT resource requirements. For example, an organizaton might
require doubling the number of web and applicaton servers for a specifc duraton to accomplish a specifc task. For
the remaining period, they might want to release idle server resources to cut down the expenses. The cloud enables
consumers to grow and shrink the demand for resources dynamically. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module
13n Cloud Computng
Question 19
Which operaton is performed while creatng a VM snapshot?
A. Create a delta fle to record changes to the virtual disk since the session is actvated
B. Capture the confguraton data of a VM to create an identcal copy of the VM
C. Create a journal volume to update changes to the snapshot
D. Create a “Gold” copy of the snapshot before copying changes to the virtual disk
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
VM Snapshot VM Snapshot captures the state and data of a running virtual machine at a specifc point in tme. The
VM state includes VM fles, such as BIOS, network confguraton, and its power state (powered-on, powered-of, or
suspended). The VM data includes all the fles that make up the VM, including virtual disks and memory. A VM
Snapshot uses a separate delta fle to record all the changes to the virtual disk since the snapshot session is actvated.
Snapshots are useful when a VM needs to be reverted to the previous state in the event of logical corruptons. EMC
E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 11n Local Replicaton
Question 20
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Which cloud computng capability enables monitoring and reportng resource usage?
A. Metering
B. Pooling
C. Self-service requestng
D. Publishing
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
Measured Service Cloud systems automatcally control and optmize resource use by leveraging a metering capability
at some level of abstracton appropriate to the type of service (example, storage, processing, bandwidth, and actve
user accounts). Resource usage can be monitored, controlled, and reported, providing transparency for both the
provider and consumer of the utlized service.
EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide Module 13n Cloud Computng
Question 21
In the context of protectng the FC SAN infrastructure, what is an example of infrastructure integrity?
A. Preventng node login to the fabric without proper authorizaton

B. Implementng iSNS discovery domains
C. Implementng an FSPF algorithm to create a virtual SAN
D. Not permitng physical segmentaton of nodes
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
Security controls for protectng the storage infrastructure address the threats of unauthorized tampering of data in
transit that leads to a loss of data integrity, denial of service that compromises availability, and network snooping that
may result in loss of confdentality. The security controls for protectng the network fall into two general categoriesn
network infrastructure integrity and storage network encrypton. Controls for ensuring the infrastructure integrity
include a fabric switch functon that ensures fabric integrity. This is achieved by preventng a host from being added to
the SAN fabric without proper authorizaton. Storage network encrypton methods include the use of IPSec for
protectng IP-based storage networks, and FC-SP for protectng FC networks.
EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 14n Securing the storage Infrastructure
Question 22
What is true about parity-based RAID?
A. Parity is updated each tme a write is performed

B. Parity is read each tme a read is performed
C. Parity is updated only when writes fll a stripe
D. Parity is updated each tme when both reads and writes are performed
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
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Compared to mirroring, parity implementaton considerably reduces the cost associated with data protecton.
Consider an example of a parity RAID confguraton with fve disks where four disks hold data, and the ffh holds the
parity informaton. In this example, parity requires only 25 percent extra disk space compared to mirroring, which
requires 100 percent extra disk space. However, there are some disadvantages of using parity.
Parity informaton is generated from data on the data disk. Therefore, parity is recalculated every tme there is a
change in data. This recalculaton is tme-consuming and afects the performance of the RAID array.
When choosing a RAID type, it is imperatve to consider its impact on disk performance and applicaton IOPS. In both
mirrored and parity RAID confguratons, every write operaton translates into more I/O overhead for the disks, which
is referred to as a write penalty. In a RAID 1 implementaton, every write operaton must be performed on two disks
confgured as a mirrored pair, whereas in a RAID 5 implementaton, a write operaton may manifest as four I/O
operatons. When performing I/Os to a disk confgured with RAID 5, the controller has to read, recalculate, and write
a parity segment for every data write operaton.
EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 3n Data Protecton - RAID
Question 23
What is an accurate statement about a gateway NAS soluton?
A. NAS head and storage are managed independently

B. Consolidates fle-level and block-level access on a single storage platorm
C. Provides integrated management for both NAS head and storage
D. Creates a single fle system that runs on all NAS heads
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
A gateway NAS device consists of one or more NAS heads and uses external and independently managed storage.
Similar to unifed NAS, the storage is shared with other applicatons that uses block-level I/O. Management functons
in this type of soluton are more complex than those in a unifed NAS environment because there are separate
administratve tasks for the NAS head and the storage. A gateway soluton can use the FC infrastructure, such as
switches and directors for accessing SAN-atached storage arrays or direct-atached storage arrays.
The gateway NAS is more scalable compared to unifed NAS because NAS heads and storage arrays can be
independently scaled up when required. For example, NAS heads can be added to scale up the NAS device
performance. When the storage limit is reached, it can scale up, adding capacity on the SAN, independent of NAS
heads. Similar to a unifed NAS, a gateway NAS also enables high utlizaton of storage capacity by sharing it with the
SAN environment.
EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 7n Network-Atached Storage (NAS)
Question 24
What is prevented using RAID technology?
A. Data loss
B. Host Bus Adapter failures
C. Security breach
D. Switch failure
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
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Page No | 16
Today’s data centers house hundreds of disk drives in their storage infrastructure. Disk drives are inherently
susceptble to failures due to mechanical wear and tear and other environmental factors, which could result in data
loss. The greater the number of disk drives in a storage array, the greater the probability of a disk failure in the array.
For example, consider a storage array of 100 disk drives, each with an average life expectancy of 750,000 hours. The
average life expectancy of this collecton in the array, therefore, is 750,000/100 or 7,500 hours. This means that a disk
drive in this array is likely to fail at least once in 7,500 hours.
RAID is an enabling technology that leverages multple drives as part of a set that provides data protecton against
drive failures. In general, RAID implementatons also improve the storage system performance by serving I/Os from
multple disks simultaneously. Modern arrays with fash drives also beneft in terms of protecton and performance by
using RAID.
Question 25
Which process minimizes the exposure to a loss of uncommited cached data when there is a power failure?
A. Cache vaultng
B. Cache mirroring
C. Low watermarking
D. Prefetching
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
Cache Data Protecton Cache is volatle memory, so a power failure or any kind of cache failure will cause loss of the
data that is not yet commited to the disk. This risk of losing uncommited data held in cache can be mitgated using
cache mirroring and cache vaultngn
Cache mirroringn Each write to cache is held in two diferent memory locatons on two independent memory cards. If
a cache failure occurs, the write data will stll be safe in the mirrored locaton and can be commited to the disk. Reads
are staged from the disk to the cache; therefore, if a cache failure occurs, the data can stll be accessed from the disk.
Because only writes are mirrored, this method results in beter utlizaton of the available cache. In cache mirroring
approaches, the problem of maintaining cache coherency is introduced. Cache coherency means that data in two
diferent cache locatons must be identcal at all tmes. It is the responsibility of the array operatng environment to
ensure coherency. Cache vaultngn The risk of data loss due to power failure can be addressed in various waysn
powering the memory with a batery untl the AC power is restored or using batery power to write the cache content
to the disk. If an extended power failure occurs, using bateries is not a viable opton. This is because in intelligent
storage systems, large amounts of data might need to be commited to numerous disks, and bateries might not
provide power for sufcient tme to write each piece of data to its intended disk. Therefore, storage vendors use a set
of physical disks to dump the contents of cache during power failure. This is called cache vaultng and the disks are
called vault drives. When power is restored, data from these disks is writen back to write cache and then writen to
the intended disks. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 4n Intelligent Storage System
Question 26
What are the three elements of the risk triad from an informaton security perspectve?
A. Assets, threats, and vulnerabilites

B. Actons, threats, and vulnerabilites
C. Assets, threats, and countermeasures
D. Assets, countermeasures, and vulnerabilites
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Page No | 17
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
Question 27
Which cloud computng characteristc enables consumers to request resources using a service
catalog through a web-based user interface?
A. On-demand self-service
B. Broad network access
C. Metered services
D. Catalog management
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
On-Demand Self-Service A consumer can unilaterally provision computng capabilites, such as server tme and
network storage, as needed automatcally without requiring human interacton with each service provider.
A cloud service provider publishes a service catalogue, which contains informaton about all cloud services available
to consumers. The service catalogue includes informaton about service atributes, prices, and request processes.
Consumers view the service catalogue via a web-based user interface and use it to request for a service. Consumers
can either leverage the “ready-touse” services or change a few service parameters to customize the services.
EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 13n Cloud Computng
Question 28
What is a purpose for distributng Switch Registered State Change Notfcatons (SW-RSCNs) in a fabric?
A. Updates the name server on all switches in the fabric

B. Stops or slows down transmissions from other switches in the fabric
C. Distributes confguraton values and congeston notfcatons across the fabric
D. Exchanges requests for change notfcatons among distributed management servers
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
Fabric Services Each switch has a Fabric Controller located at the predefned address FFFFFD. The Fabric Controller
provides services to both node ports and other switches. The Fabric Controller is responsible for managing and
distributng Registered State Change Notfcatons (RSCNs) to the node ports registered with the Fabric Controller. If
there is a change in the fabric, RSCNs are sent out by a switch to the atached node ports. The Fabric Controller also
generates Switch Registered State Change Notfcatons (SW-RSCNs) to every other domain (switch) in the fabric.
These RSCNs keep the name server up-to-date on all switches in the fabric.
Question 29
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Page No | 18
In the Fibre Channel protocol, what are functons of the FC-1 layer?
A. Encoding and decoding

B. Routng and fow control
C. Interface mapping and fow control
D. Transmission of raw bits and encoding
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
FC-1 Layern It defnes how data is encoded prior to transmission and decoded upon receipt. At the transmiter node,
an 8-bit character is encoded into a 10-bit transmission character. This character is then transmited to the receiver
node. At the receiver node, the 10-bit character is passed to the FC-1 layer, which decodes the 10-bit character into
the original 8-bit character. FC links with speed 10 Gbps and above use 64-bit to 66-bit encoding algorithm. This layer
also defnes the transmission words such as FC frame delimiters, which identfy the start and end of a frame and
primitve signals that indicate events at a transmitng port. In additon to these, the FC1 layer performs link
initalizaton and error recovery. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 5n Fibre Channel Storage Area
Network (FC SAN)
Question 30
What is a security implementaton in NAS environments?
A. Kerberos
B. Port binding
C. SlID Lockdown
D. FC-SP
Aoswern A
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Page No | 19
Explanatonn
Security Implementaton in NAS NAS is open to multple exploits, including viruses, worms, unauthorized access,
snooping, and data tampering. Various security mechanisms are implemented in NAS to secure data and the storage
networking infrastructure. Permissions and ACLs form the frst level of protecton to NAS resources by restrictng
accessibility and sharing. These permissions are deployed over and above the default behaviors and atributes
associated with fles and folders. In additon, various other authentcaton and authorizaton mechanisms, such as
Kerberos and directory services, are implemented to verify the identty of network users and defne their privileges.
Similarly, frewalls protect the storage infrastructure from unauthorized access and malicious atacks. EMC E10-001
Student Resource Guide. Module 14n Securing the Storage Infrastructure
Question 31
In an FC SAN environment, what is a beneft of zoning?
A. Restricts RSCN trafc

B. Isolates fabric services
C. Enables online volume expansion
D. Provides non-disruptve data migraton
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
Zoning Zoning is an FC switch functon that enables node ports within the fabric to be logically segmented into groups
and communicate with each other within the group.
Whenever a change takes place in the name server database, the fabric controller sends a Registered State Change
Notfcaton (RSCN) to all the nodes impacted by the change. If zoning is not confgured, the fabric controller sends an
RSCN to all the nodes in the fabric. Involving the nodes that are not impacted by the change results in increased
fabric-management trafc. For a large fabric, the amount of FC trafc generated due to this process can be signifcant
and might impact the host-to-storage data trafc. Zoning helps to limit the number of RSCNs in a fabric. In the
presence of zoning, a fabric sends the RSCN to only those nodes in a zone where the change has occurred.
Question 32
What is the RAID 5 write penalty for random, small write I/Os?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
Aoswern C
Explanatonn
RAID Impacts on Performance EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 3n Data Protecton - RAID
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Question 33
Which EMC block-level storage virtualizaton product enables hosts from two diferent data centers to access a single
copy of data?
A. VPLEX
B. VMAX
C. VNX
D. Vblock
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
EMC VPLEX EMC VPLEX is the next-generaton soluton for block-level virtualizaton and data mobility both within and
across datacenters. The VPLEX appliance resides between the servers and heterogeneous storage devices. It forms a
pool of distributed block storage resources and enables creatng virtual storage volumes from the pool. These virtual
volumes are then allocated to the servers. The virtual-to-physical-storage mapping remains hidden to the servers.
VPLEX provides nondisruptve data mobility among physical storage devices to balance the applicaton workload and
to enable both local and remote data access. The mapping of virtual volumes to physical volumes can be changed
dynamically by the administrator.
VPLEX uses a unique clustering architecture and distributed cache coherency that enable multple hosts located across
two locatons to access a single copy of data. VPLEX also provides the capability to mirror data of a virtual volume
both within and across locatons.
This enables hosts at diferent data centers to access cache-coherent copies of the same virtual volume. To avoid
applicaton downtme due to outage at a data center, the workload can be moved quickly to another data center.
Applicatons contnue accessing the same virtual volume and remain uninterrupted by the data mobility.
The VPLEX family consists of three productsn VPLEX Local, VPLEX Metro, and VPLEX Geo. EMC VPLEX Local delivers
local federaton, which provides simplifed management and nondisruptve data mobility across heterogeneous arrays
within a data center. EMC VPLEX Metro delivers distributed federaton, which provides data access and mobility
between two VPEX clusters within synchronous distances that support round-trip latency up to 5 ms. EMC VPLEX Geo
delivers data access and mobility between two VPLEX clusters within asynchronous distances (that support round-trip
latency up to 50 ms). EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 5n Fibre Channel Storage Area Network (FC SAN)
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Question 34
Which EMC product enables VNX array-based remote replicaton from a primary volume to a secondary volume
residing on a diferent VNX storage system?
A. MirrorView
B. SnapView
C. RepliStor
D. SRDF
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
EMC MirrorView The MirrorView sofware enables EMC VNX storage array–based remote replicaton. It replicates the
contents of a primary volume to a secondary volume that resides on a diferent VNX storage system. The MirrorView
family consists of MirrorView/Synchronous (MirrorView/S) and MirrorView/Asynchronous (MirrorView/A) solutons.
MirrorView/S is a synchronous product that mirrors data between local and remote storage systems. MirrorView/A is
an asynchronous product that ofers extended distance replicaton based on periodic incremental update model. It
periodically updates the remote copy of the data with all the changes that occurred on the primary copy since the last
update.
EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 12n Remote Replicaton
Question 35
A customer has a requirement to perform a backup each night. However, the customer has a limited amount of tme
for backups to run on week nights, Monday through Friday evenings.
Which backup granularity type is recommended to meet the backup window for those nights?
A. Incremental
B. Cumulatve
C. Full
D. Diferental
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
Backup Granularity Backup granularity depends on business needs and the required RTO/RPO. Based on the
granularity, backups can be categorized as full, incremental, and cumulatve (or diferental).
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Page No | 22
Most organizatons use a combinaton of these three backup types to meet their backup and recovery requirements.
Figure on the slide depicts the diferent backup granularity levels.
Full backup is a backup of the complete data on the producton volumes. A full backup copy is created by copying the
data in the producton volumes to a backup storage device. It provides a faster recovery but requires more storage
space and also takes more tme to back up. Incremental backup copies the data that has changed since the last full or
incremental backup, whichever has occurred more recently. This is much faster than a full backup (because the
volume of data backed up is restricted to the changed data only) but takes longer to restore . Cumulatve backup
copies the data that has changed since the last full backup. This method takes longer than an incremental backup but
is faster to restore.
Another way to implement full backup is synthetc (or constructed) backup. This method is used when the producton
volume resources cannot be exclusively reserved for a backup process for extended periods to perform a full backup.
It is usually created from the most recent full backup and all the incremental backups performed afer that full
backup. This backup is called synthetc because the backup is not created directly from producton data.
A synthetc full backup enables a full backup copy to be created ofine without disruptng the I/O operaton on the
producton volume. This also frees up network resources from the backup process, making them available for other
producton uses. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 10n Backup and Archive
Question 36
What is a characteristc of a scale-out NAS?
A. File system grows dynamically as nodes are added in the cluster

B. Up to four fle systems can be created across the cluster
C. Distnct fle systems are created on each node in the cluster
D. Diferent fle systems can be mixed on each node in a single cluster
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
NAS Implementaton - Scale-out NAS The scale-out NAS implementaton pools multple nodes together in a cluster. A
node may consist of either the NAS head or storage or both. The cluster performs the NAS operaton as a single entty.
A scale-out NAS provides the capability to scale its resources by simply adding nodes to a clustered NAS architecture.
The cluster works as a single NAS device and is managed centrally. Nodes can be added to the cluster, when more
performance or more capacity is needed, without causing any downtme. Scale-out NAS provides the fexibility to use
many nodes of moderate performance and availability characteristcs to produce a total system that has beter
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Page No | 23
aggregate performance and availability. It also provides ease of use, low cost, and theoretcally unlimited scalability.
Scale-out NAS creates a single fle system that runs on all nodes in the cluster. All informaton is shared among nodes,
so the entre fle system is accessible by clients connectng to any node in the cluster. Scale-out NAS stripes data across
all nodes in a cluster along with mirror or parity protecton. As data is sent from clients to the cluster, the data is
divided and allocated to diferent nodes in parallel. When a client sends a request to read a fle, the scale-out NAS
retrieves the appropriate blocks from multple nodes, recombines the blocks into a fle, and presents the fle to the
client. As nodes are added, the fle system grows dynamically and data is evenly distributed to every node. Each node
added to the cluster increases the aggregate storage, memory, CPU, and network capacity. Hence, cluster
performance also increases. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 7n Network-Atached Storage (NAS)
Question 37
In a Microsof Windows fle sharing environment, what is a functon of system access control lists (SACL)?
A. Determines object access informaton that needs to be audited

B. Provides informaton on system access troubleshootng
C. Uniquely identfes objects, users, and user groups
D. Provides path name to access both inbound and outbound trafc
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
NAS File Sharingn Windows ACLs Windows supports two types of ACLsn discretonary access control lists (DACLs) and
system access control lists (SACLs). The DACL commonly referred to as the ACL, that determines access control. The
SACL determines what accesses need to be audited if auditng is enabled.
In additon to these ACLs, Windows also supports the concept of object ownership. The owner of an object has hard-
coded rights to that object, and these rights do not need to be explicitly granted in the SACL. The owner, SACL, and
DACL are all statcally held as atributes of each object. Windows also ofers the functonality to inherit permissions,
which allows the child objects existng within a parent object to automatcally inherit the ACLs of the parent object.
ACLs are also applied to directory objects known as security identfers (SIDs). These are automatcally generated by a
Windows server or domain when a user or group is created, and they are abstracted from the user. In this way, though
a user may identfy his login ID as “User1,” it is simply a textual representaton of the true SID, which is used by the
underlying operatng system. Internal processes in Windows refer to an account's SID rather than the account's
username or group name while grantng access to an object. ACLs are set by using the standard Windows Explorer
GUI but can also be confgured with CLI commands or other third-party tools.
EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide Module 14n Securing the Storage Infrastructure
Question 38
What is an advantage of synchronous remote replicaton compared to other remote replicaton methods?
A. Near zero RPO

B. Near zero RTO
C. No distance limitaton
D. Faster response tme
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
Synchronous Replicaton In synchronous remote replicaton, writes must be commited to the source and remote
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Page No | 24
replica (or target), prior to acknowledging “write complete” to the host. Additonal writes on the source cannot occur
untl each preceding write has been completed and acknowledged.
This ensures that data is identcal on the source and replica at all tmes. Further, writes are transmited to the remote
site exactly in the order in which they are received at the source.
Therefore, write ordering is maintained. If a source-site failure occurs, synchronous remote replicaton provides zero
or near-zero recovery-point objectve (RPO).
EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide Module 12n Remote Replicaton
Question 39
What is an advantage of sub-LUN tering?
A. Improved performance
B. Enhanced reliability and availability
C. Dynamic expansion of storage capacity
D. Faster provisioning of thin LUNs
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
Intra-array Storage Tiering The process of storage tering within a storage array is called intra-array storage tering. It
enables the efcient use of SSD, FC, and SATA drives within an array and provides performance and cost optmizaton.
The goal is to keep the SSDs busy by storing the most frequently accessed data on them, while moving out the less
frequently accessed data to the SATA drives. Data movements executed between ters can be performed at the LUN
level or at the sub-LUN level. The performance can be further improved by implementng tered cache.
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Page No | 25
Traditonally, storage tering is operated at the LUN level that moves an entre LUN from one ter of storage to another.
This movement includes both actve and inactve data in that LUN.
This method does not give efectve cost and performance benefts. Today, storage tering can be implemented at the
sub-LUN level. In sub-LUN level tering, a LUN is broken down into smaller segments and tered at that level.
Movement of data with much fner granularity, for example 8 MB, greatly enhances the value propositon of
automated storage tering. Tiering at the sub-LUN level efectvely moves actve data to faster drives and less actve
data to slower drives.
EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 15n Managing the Storage Infrastructure
Question 40
Which fabric service is responsible for managing and distributng Registered State Change Notfcatons (RSCNs) to
atached node ports?
A. Fabric controller
B. Name server
C. Fabric login server
D. Management server
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
Fabric Services
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Page No | 26
EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide Module 5n Fibre Channel Storage Area Network (FC SAN)
Question 41
Which SAN security mechanism will prevent a switch port from being enabled even afer a switch reboot?
A. Persistent Port Disable

B. Port Binding
C. Port Lockdown
D. Persistent Switch Disable
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
Securing FC Switch Ports Apart from zoning and LUN masking, additonal security mechanisms, such as port binding,
port lockdown, port lockout, and persistent port disable, can be implemented on switch ports.
Port bindingn Limits the devices that can atach to a partcular switch port and allows only the corresponding switch
port to connect to a node for fabric access. Port binding mitgates but does not eliminate WWPN spoofng.
Port lockdown and port lockoutn Restrict a switch port’s type of initalizaton. Typical variants of port lockout ensure
that the switch port cannot functon as an E-Port and cannot be used to create an ISL, such as a rogue switch. Some
variants ensure that the port role is restricted to only F-Port, E-Port, or a combinaton of these. Persistent port disablen
Prevents a switch port from being enabled even afer a switch reboot.
EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide Module 14n Securing the Storage Infrastructure
Question 42
What does a block map contain in a fle system snapshot?
A. Address from which data is to be read when accessing the snapshot

B. Original data when a write is issued to the target for the frst tme
C. Blocks that have changed since the creaton of the snapshot
D. Blocks that have been modifed in either the source or the target
Aoswern A
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Page No | 27
Explanatonn
Host-based Replicatonn File System Snapshot File system (FS) snapshot is a pointer-based replica that requires a
fracton of the space used by the producton FS. It uses the Copy on First Write (CoFW) principle to create snapshots.
When a snapshot is created, a bitmap and blockmap are created in the metadata of the Snap FS. The bitmap is used to
keep track of blocks that are changed on the producton FS afer the snap creaton. The blockmap is used to indicate
the exact address from which the data is to be read when the data is accessed from the Snap FS . Immediately afer
the creaton of the FS Snapshot, all reads from the snapshot are actually served by reading the producton FS. In a
CoFW mechanism, if a write I/O is issued to the producton FS for the frst tme afer the creaton of a snapshot, the
I/O is held and the original data of producton FS corresponding to that locaton is moved to the Snap FS. Then, the
write is allowed to the producton FS. The bitmap and blockmap are updated accordingly. Subsequent writes to the
same locaton will not initate the CoFW actvity. To read from the Snap FS, the bitmap is consulted. If the bit is 0, then
the read is directed to the producton FS. If the bit is 1, then the block address is obtained from the blockmap and the
data is read from that address on the snap FS. Read requests from the producton FS work as normal. EMC E10-001
Student Resource Guide. Module 11n Local Replicaton
Question 43
What describes a full mesh topology?
A. All switches are directly connected to each other

B. Consists of core and edge switch ters
C. Requires four switches
D. Requires two ISL hops for host to storage trafc
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
Mesh Topology
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Page No | 28
A mesh topology may be one of the two typesn full mesh or partal mesh. In a full mesh, every switch is connected to
every other switch in the topology . A full mesh topology may be appropriate when the number of switches involved
is small. A typical deployment would involve up to four switches or directors, with each of them servicing highly
localized host-tostorage trafc. In a full mesh topology, a maximum of one ISL or hop is required for host-tostorage
trafc. However, with the increase in the number of switches, the number of switch ports used for ISL also increases.
This reduces the available switch ports for node connectvity.
In a partal mesh topology, several hops or ISLs may be required for the trafc to reach its destnaton. Partal mesh
ofers more scalability than full mesh topology. However, without proper placement of host and storage devices,
trafc management in a partal mesh fabric might be complicated and ISLs could become overloaded due to excessive
trafc aggregaton. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 5n Fibre Channel Storage Area Network (FC SAN)
Question 44
What is a characteristc of pointer-based virtual replicaton?
A. Replica is immediately available afer actvaton of a replicaton session

B. Replica device is at least as large as the source device
C. Replica is available only afer detachment from the source
D. Source does not need to be healthy for the restore
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
Pointer-based Virtual Replicaton In pointer-based virtual replicaton, at the tme of the replicaton session actvaton,
the target contains pointers to the locaton of the data on the source. The target does not contain data at any tme.
Therefore, the target is known as a virtual replica. Similar to pointer-based full-volume replicaton, the target is
immediately accessible afer the replicaton session actvaton. This replicaton method uses CoFW technology and
typically recommended when the changes to the source are less than 30%.
EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 11n Local Replicaton
Question 45
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Page No | 29
When using the image-based backup approach to backup a virtual machine, where does the backup client run?
A. Proxy server
B. Hypervisor
C. Virtual machine
D. Backup device
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
Image-based Backup Image-based backup operates at the hypervisor level and essentally takes a snapshot of the VM.
It creates a copy of the guest OS and all the data associated with it (snapshot of VM disk fles), including the VM state
and applicaton confguratons. The backup is saved as a single fle called an “image” and this image is mounted on the
proxy server (acts as a backup client). The backup sofware then backs up these image fles normally. This efectvely
ofoads the backup processing from the hypervisor and transfers the load on the proxy server, thereby reducing the
impact to VMs running on the hypervisor. Image-based backup enables quick restoraton of a VM. EMC E10-001
Student Resource Guide. Module 10n Backup and Archive
Question 46
Which NAS implementaton consolidates fle-based and block-based access on a single storage platorm?
A. Unifed
B. Scale-out
C. Gateway
D. Integrated
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
NAS Implementaton - Unifed NAS The unifed NAS consolidates NAS-based and SAN-based data access within a
unifed storage platorm and provides a unifed management interface for managing both the environments.
Unifed NAS performs fle serving and storing of fle data, along with providing access to blocklevel data. It supports
both CIFS and NFS protocols for fle access and iSCSI and FC protocols for block level access. Due to consolidaton of
NAS-based and SAN-based access on a single storage platorm, unifed NAS reduces an organizaton’s infrastructure
and management costs.
A unifed NAS contains one or more NAS heads and storage in a single system. NAS heads are connected to the
storage controllers (SCs), which provide access to the storage. These storage controllers also provide connectvity to
iSCSI and FC hosts. The storage may consist of diferent drive types, such as SAS, ATA, FC, and fash drives, to meet
diferent workload requirements.
Question 47
Which data deduplicaton method increases the chance of identfying duplicate data even when there is only a minor
diference between two documents?
A. Variable-length segment
B. Single-instance
C. File level
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D. Fixed-block
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
Data Deduplicaton Methods File-level deduplicaton (also called single-instance storage) detects and removes
redundant copies of identcal fles. It enables storing only one copy of the fle; the subsequent copies are replaced
with a pointer that points to the original fle. File-level deduplicaton is simple and fast but does not address the
problem of duplicate content inside the fles. For example, two 10-MB PowerPoint presentatons with a diference in
just the ttle page are not considered as duplicate fles, and each fle will be stored separately.
Subfle deduplicaton breaks the fle into smaller chunks and then uses specialized algorithm to detect redundant data
within and across the fle. As a result, subfle deduplicaton eliminates duplicate data across fles. There are two forms
of subfle deduplicatonn fxedlength block and variable-length segment. The fxed-length block deduplicaton divides
the fles into fxed-length blocks and uses a hash algorithm to fnd the duplicate data. Although simple in design, fxed-
length blocks might miss many opportunites to discover redundant data because the block boundary of similar data
might be diferent. Consider the additon of a person’s name to a document’s ttle page. This shifs the whole
document, and all the blocks appear to have changed, causing the failure of the deduplicaton method to detect
equivalencies. In variable-length segment deduplicaton, if there is a change in the segment, the boundary for only
that segment is adjusted, leaving the remaining segments unchanged.
This method vastly improves the ability to fnd duplicate data segments compared to fxed-block.
EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 10n Backup and Archive
Question 48
Which operaton is performed by an FCoE switch when it receives a frame with an FCoE Ethertype?
A. Switch recognizes that the frame contains an FC payload and forwards it to the FC Forwarder
B. Switch recognizes the frame as Ethernet and forwards it to the Ethernet bridge
C. Switch recognizes the frame as FCoE and forwards it to the Ethernet bridge
D. Switch recognizes that the frame contains an Ethernet payload and forwards it to the FC Forwarder
Aoswern A
Question 49
What is a key advantage of data striping across multple disks as compared to a single disk?
A. Performance
B. Space utlizaton
C. Protecton
D. Capacity
Aoswern A
Question 50
Which EMC product is a disk-based backup and recovery soluton and provides source-based data deduplicaton?
A. Avamar
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B. Data Domain
C. NetWorker
D. SourceOne
Aoswern A
Question 51
Click on the calculator icon in the upper lef corner.

When a service is described as "three 9s available", what is the approximate amount of downtme allowed per week?
A. 10 seconds
B. 10 minutes
C. 10 hours
D. 10 days
Aoswern B
Question 52

A customer's applicaton uses fve, 10 GB devices. A full volume local replica of the applicaton is required every 4
hours. The customer requires each replica to be kept for 24 hours.
In this situaton, how many replica devices are required?
A. 5
B. 20
C. 30
D. 50
Aoswern C
Question 53
What is a characteristc of an FC-SW implementaton?
A. Provides a dedicated path between nodes

B. Nodes arbitrate to gain control of the data path to transfer data
C. Only one node can perform an I/O operaton at a tme
D. Supports up to 126 nodes
Aoswern A
Question 54
Which functonality is ofered by user access management sofware?
A. Provides a user interface to browse the service catalog and request cloud services
B. Enables a user to create VMs and allocate them to CPU, memory, and storage capacity
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C. Provides a user interface to view a consolidated view of existng physical and virtual infrastructures across data
centers
D. Allows a user to monitor performance, capacity, and availability of physical and virtual resources centrally
Aoswern A
Question 55
What are the key components of an intelligent storage system?
A. Front-end, cache, back-end, and physical disks

B. Host, connectvity, back-end, and storage array
C. Switch, ports, back-end, and physical disks
D. Host, LUNs, cache, and physical disks
Aoswern A
Question 56
A customer requires additonal storage capacity. The storage expansion must be fast and performance is not a
constraint. What is the most appropriate LUN expansion method?
A. Concatenated metaLUN
B. Striped metaLUN
C. Base LUN
D. Component LUN
Aoswern A
Question 57
Which iSCSI discovery mechanism requires manual confguraton of the initator with the target’s network portal?
A. SendTargets discovery
B. iSCSI service locaton discovery
C. Internet Storage Name Service
D. iSCSI domain name discovery
Aoswern A
Question 58
What is a characteristc of asynchronous remote replicaton?
A. Only the last update is transmited if there are multple writes to the same locaton in the bufer
B. Writes are commited to the target before being commited to the source
C. Reads are always serviced from the target replica
D. Distance between the two sites is restricted to less than 200 km
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Aoswern A
Question 59
What is a characteristc of Big Data?
A. Structured and unstructured data generated by multple sources

B. Structured data generated by a single source
C. Only unstructured data generated by multple sources
D. Structured and unstructured data generated by a single source
Aoswern A
Question 60

A stripe depth of 64 KB has been assigned to a fve-disk RAID 0 set. What is the stripe size?
A. 64 KB
B. 128 KB
C. 256 KB
D. 320 KB
Aoswern D
Question 61
A user tries to update the content of a fle stored on a CAS system. What is the result of this operaton?
A. CAS generates a new address for the altered content and stores it as a new object
B. CAS uses the same content address for the altered content and the original content
C. CAS overwrites the original content and generates a new content address
D. CAS overwrites the original content but the content address is preserved
Aoswern A
Question 62
Which EMC product provides target-based deduplicaton?
A. Data Domain
B. Avamar
C. NetWorker
D. RecoverPoint
Aoswern A
Question 63
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What are the two mechanisms that can be employed to address threats of user identty spoofng?
A. User authentcaton and user authorizaton

B. Access Control Lists (ACLs) and access control to storage objects
C. Access control to storage objects and auditng
D. User authentcaton and Informaton Rights Management (IRM)
Aoswern A
Question 64
What is the functon of enhanced transmission selecton in an FCoE environment?
A. Provides available bandwidth to other classes of trafc when a partcular class of trafc does not use its allocated
bandwidth
B. Provides the capability to independently pause transmission of FCoE frames over each virtual link
C. Enables an FCoE switch to send a signal to other FCoE switches that need to stop or slow down their transmissions
D. Allows an FCoE switch to distribute confguraton parameters to the converged network adapters
Aoswern A
Question 65
Which beneft is provided by EMC PowerPath?
A. Dynamic load balancing

B. Deduplicaton of network trafc
C. Multplexing host trafc
D. Segmentaton of fabric to create VSANs
Aoswern A
Question 66
In a CAS environment, what is used to generate a content address?
A. Binaries of the data

B. Combinaton of data and metadata of the object
C. Locaton of the object
D. Object metadata
Aoswern A
Question 67

An applicaton uses 20, 10 GB devices. A pointer-based full volume replica of the applicaton is required every 6 hours.
Each replica will be kept for 24 hours. The data changes by 10% every 4 hours.
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How many replica devices are required?
A. 20
B. 60
C. 80
D. 120
Aoswern C
Question 68
Which iSCSI naming feature uses a 16-character hexadecimal string?
A. EUI
B. IQN
C. iSNS
D. ARP
Aoswern A
Question 69
What describes a repudiaton atack?
A. An atempt to compromise accountability goals of the security

B. Stealing a private key to decrypt the data-in-transit
C. Unauthorized access to informaton to compromise confdentality
D. A series of repettve atacks to the physical informaton infrastructure
Aoswern A
Question 70

A department within an organizaton requires 200 GB of storage for their business applicaton. The producton LUN is
RAID 1+0 protected and has a local and remote replica. The local replica is on a RAID 1 LUN and the remote replica is
on a fve-disk RAID 5 LUN.
If the cost per GB of storage is $2.00, what is the chargeback cost to the department for applicaton storage?
A. $1050
B. $1500
C. $2100
D. $2900
Aoswern C
Question 71
What is a characteristc of an FC-AL implementaton?
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A. Reserves one address for connectng an FC-SW port

B. Supports connectvity up to 15 million nodes
C. Devices can be added and removed dynamically without any impact
D. Requires at least one connectvity device
Aoswern A
Question 72
Which iSCSI host connectvity opton is recommended in a CPU-intensive applicaton environment?
A. iSCSI HBA
B. NIC with sofware-based iSCSI initator
C. TCP ofoad engine
D. Converged Network Adapter
Aoswern A
Question 73
What is a characteristc of an enterprise fash drive?
A. Uses semiconductor-based solid state media

B. Performs data search and retrieval sequentally
C. Performs rotatonal speed at more than 30000 rpm
D. Writes once and reads many
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
Enterprise Flash Drives Traditonally, high I/O requirements of an applicaton were met by simply using more disks.
Availability of enterprise class fash drives (EFD) has changed the scenario.
Flash drives, also referred as solid state drives (SSDs), are new generaton drives that deliver ultra-high performance
required by performance-sensitve applicatons. Flash drives use semiconductor-based solid state memory (fash
memory) to store and retrieve data. Unlike conventonal mechanical disk drives, fash drives contain no moving parts;
therefore, they do not have seek and rotatonal latencies. Flash drives deliver a high number of IOPS with very low
response tmes. Also, being a semiconductor-based device, fash drives consume less power, compared to mechanical
drives. Flash drives are especially suited for applicatons with small block size and random-read workloads that
require consistently low (less than 1 ms) response tmes. Applicatons that need to process massive amounts of
informaton quickly, such as currency exchange, electronic trading systems, and real-tme data feed processing,
beneft from fash drives.
Overall, fash drives provide beter total cost of ownership (TCO) even though they cost more on $/GB basis. By
implementng fash drives, businesses can meet applicaton performance requirements with far fewer drives
(approximately 20 to 30 tmes less number of drives compared to conventonal mechanical drives). This reducton not
only provides savings in terms of drive cost, but also translates to savings for power, cooling, and space consumpton.
Fewer numbers of drives in the environment also means less cost for managing the storage. EMC E10-001 Student
Resource Guide. Module 2n Data Center Environment
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Question 74
What defnes the tme taken to positon the sector on the plater under the read/write head?
A. Rotatonal delay
B. Seek tme
C. Response tme
D. Data transfer rate
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
Rotatonal Latency To access data, the actuator arm moves the R/W head over the plater to a partcular track while
the plater spins to positon the requested sector under the R/W head. The tme taken by the plater to rotate and
positon the data under the R/W head is called rotatonal latency. This latency depends on the rotaton speed of the
spindle and is measured in milliseconds. The average rotatonal latency is one-half of the tme taken for a full rotaton.
Similar to the seek tme, rotatonal latency has more impact on the reading/writng of random sectors on the disk
than on the same operatons on adjacent sectors.
Average rotatonal latency is approximately 5.5 ms for a 5,400-rpm drive, and around 2.0 ms for a 15,000-rpm (or 250-
rps revoluton per second) drive as shown here. Av. rotatonal latency for 15K rpm or 250 rps (15000/60) drive is =
(1/2)/250=2 milliseconds.
Question 75
What is true about cache dirty page?
A. Data that has changed but is not yet writen to disk

B. Data read from disk but not accessed by the host
C. Data that has changed and has been writen to disk
D. Data requested by the host but not yet fetched
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
Cache Management As cache flls, the storage system must take acton to fush dirty pages (data writen into the
cache but not yet writen to the disk) to manage space availability. Flushing is the process that commits data from
cache to the disk. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 4n Intelligent Storage System
Question 76
As your organizaton's SAN environment grows, you realize there is a greater need to manage SAN security. Which
mechanism is required to prevent unauthorized actvity on the FC fabric for management operatons?
A. Role-based access control

B. Access control lists
C. VSAN
D. Zoning
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Aoswern A
Explanatonn
Securing the Management Access Domain Management access, whether monitoring, provisioning, or managing
storage resources, is associated with every device within the storage network.
Implementng appropriate controls for securing storage management applicatons is important because the damage
that can be caused by using these applicatons can be far more extensive.
Controlling administratve access to storage aims to safeguard against the threats of an atacker spoofng an
administrator’s identty or elevatng privileges to gain administratve access. To protect against these threats,
administratve access regulaton and various auditng techniques are used to enforce accountability of users and
processes.
Access control should be enforced for each storage component. In some storage environments, it may be necessary to
integrate storage devices with third-party authentcaton directories, such as Lightweight Directory Access Protocol
(LDAP) or Actve Directory. Security best practces stpulate that no single user should have ultmate control over all
aspects of the system. It is beter to assign various administratve functons by using RBAC. Auditng logged events is a
critcal control measure to track the actvites of an administrator.
However, access to administratve log fles and their content must be protected. In additon, having a Security
Informaton Management (SIM) soluton supports efectve analysis of the event log fles.
Question 77
Which operaton is performed by a scale-out NAS when it receives a large write I/O from its clients?
A. I/O is striped across multple nodes for processing

B. I/O is sent to the high performance node in the cluster for processing
C. A new node is dynamically added to the cluster to process the I/O
D. I/O is sent to the high storage capacity node in the cluster for processing
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
NAS Implementaton - Scale-out NAS The scale-out NAS implementaton pools multple nodes together in a cluster. A
node may consist of either the NAS head or storage or both. The cluster performs the NAS operaton as a single entty.
Question 78
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When developing a disaster recovery plan, what is the result of choosing a partcular recovery tme objectve for a
system?
A. Determines the type and locaton of the backup media

B. Determines how ofen to take a backup of the system
C. Determines how long to retain backup copies
D. Determines how many transacton logs should be backed up
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
Recovery-Time Objectve (RTO)n The tme within which systems and applicatons must be recovered afer an outage. It
defnes the amount of downtme that a business can endure and survive. Some examples of RTOs and the recovery
strategies to ensure data availability are listed belown RTO of 72 hoursn Restore from tapes available at a cold site. RTO
of 12 hoursn Restore from tapes available at a hot site. RTO of few hoursn Use disk-based backup technology, which
gives faster restore than a tape backup. RTO of a few secondsn Cluster producton servers with bidirectonal mirroring,
enabling the applicatons to run at both sites simultaneously.
EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 9n Introducton to Business Contnuity
Question 79
Which operaton writes data in cache, and immediately to disk, before sending an acknowledgement to the host?
A. Write-through cache
B. Write-back cache
C. Write aside cache
D. Write cache vaultng
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
Write Operaton with Cache
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Write operatons with cache provide performance advantages over writng directly to disks. When an I/O is writen to
cache and acknowledged, it is completed in far less tme (from the host’s perspectve) than it would take to write
directly to disk. Sequental writes also ofer opportunites for optmizaton because many smaller writes can be
coalesced for larger transfers to disk drives with the use of cache. A write operaton with cache is implemented in the
following waysn
Write-back cachen Data is placed in cache and an acknowledgment is sent to the host immediately. Later, data from
several writes are commited (de-staged) to the disk. Write response tmes are much faster because the write
operatons are isolated from the mechanical delays of the disk. However, uncommited data is at risk of loss if cache
failures occur.
Write-through cachen Data is placed in the cache and immediately writen to the disk, and an acknowledgment is sent
to the host. Because data is commited to disk as it arrives, the risks of data loss are low, but the write-response tme
is longer because of the disk operatons. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 4n Intelligent Storage System
Question 80
What is a beneft of WWN zoning over port zoning?
A. A server, afer being moved to another switch port in the fabric, maintains connectvity to its zone partners without
the need to modify the zoning confguraton.
B. A server, afer replacement of its HBAs, maintains connectvity to its zone partners without the need to modify the
zoning confguraton.
C. A server, afer replacement of its HBAs, does not require performing a fabric login to maintain connectvity to its
zone partners.
D. A server, afer being moved to another fabric, maintains connectvity to its zone partners without the need to
modify the zoning confguraton.
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
Types of Zoning Zoning can be categorized into three typesn Port zoningn Uses the physical address of switch ports to
defne zones. In port zoning, access to node is determined by the physical switch port to which a node is connected.
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The zone members are the port identfer (switch domain ID and port number) to which HBA and its targets (storage
devices) are connected. If a node is moved to another switch port in the fabric, port zoning must be modifed to allow
the node, in its new port, to partcipate in its original zone. However, if an HBA or storage device port fails, an
administrator just has to replace the failed device without changing the zoning confguraton.
WWN zoningn Uses World Wide Names to defne zones. The zone members are the unique WWN addresses of the
HBA and its targets (storage devices). A major advantage of WWN zoning is its fexibility. WWN zoning allows nodes to
be moved to another switch port in the fabric and maintain connectvity to its zone partners without having to modify
the zone confguraton. This is possible because the WWN is statc to the node port.
Mixed zoningn Combines the qualites of both WWN zoning and port zoning. Using mixed zoning enables a specifc
node port to be ted to the WWN of another node. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 5n Fibre Channel
Storage Area Network (FC SAN)
Question 81

A department conducts business, Monday through Saturday from 9 A.M. to 5 P.M. each day. The department takes in
revenue on an average of $500,000 per week. Employee salaries are approximately $5,000 per week. The department
requires the use of a computer system with an RPO of 2 hours and an RTO of 4 hours.
To determine the business impact of downtme, what is the average cost of downtme per hour of the business?
A. $10,417
B. $10,521
C. $11,105
D. $12,024
Aoswern B
Explanatonn
Impact of Downtme The business impact of downtme is the sum of all losses sustained as a result of a given
disrupton. An important metric, average cost of downtme per hour, provides a key estmate in determining the
appropriate BC solutons. It is calculated as followsn Average cost of downtme per hour = average productvity loss
per hour + average revenue loss per hour Wheren Productvity loss per hour = (total salaries and benefts of all
employees per week) / (average number of working hours per week) Average revenue loss per hour = (total revenue
of an organizaton per week) / (average number of hours per week that an organizaton is open for business) The
average downtme cost per hour may also include estmates of projected revenue loss due to other consequences,
such as damaged reputatons, and the additonal cost of repairing the system.
Calculaton EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 9n Introducton to Business Contnuity
Question 82
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In Kerberos authentcaton, what is a role of the Actve Directory?
A. Verifes the user’s login informaton

B. Implements the Authentcaton service and Ticket Grantng service
C. Verifes the session ID when the client-server session is established
D. Maintains the access control list in a keytab fle
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
Kerberos Authentcaton
The Kerberos authentcaton process shown in fgure on the slide includes the following stepsn
The user logs on to the workstaton in the Actve Directory domain (or forest) using an ID and a password. The client
computer sends a request to the AS running on the KDC for a Kerberos tcket. The KDC verifes the user’s login
informaton from Actve Directory.
The KDC responds with an encrypted Ticket Grantng Ticket (TGT) and an encrypted session key. TGT has a limited
validity period. TGT can be decrypted only by the KDC, and the client can decrypt only the session key.
When the client requests a service from a server, it sends a request, consistng of the previously generated TGT,
encrypted with the session key and the resource informaton to the KDC.
The KDC checks the permissions in Actve Directory and ensures that the user is authorized to use that service.
The KDC returns a service tcket to the client. This service tcket contains felds addressed to the client and to the
server hostng the service.
The client then sends the service tcket to the server that houses the required resources.
The server, in this case the NAS device, decrypts the server porton of the tcket and stores the informaton in a keytab
fle. As long as the client’s Kerberos tcket is valid, this authorizaton process does not need to be repeated. The server
automatcally allows the client to access the appropriate resources.
A client-server session is now established. The server returns a session ID to the client, which tracks the client actvity,
such as fle locking, as long as the session is actve. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 14n Securing the
Storage Infrastructure
Question 83
A fnance department wants to secure its data while the data traverses over the FC SAN. Currently the SAN is also
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used by other departments in the organizaton.

Which implementaton should be recommended to isolate other department trafc from the fnance department
trafc?
A. Virtual SAN
B. Virtual LAN
C. Fabric binding
D. Port binding
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
Virtual SAN (VSAN) Virtual SAN (also called virtual fabric) is a logical fabric on an FC SAN, which enables
communicaton among a group of nodes regardless of their physical locaton in the fabric. In a VSAN, a group of hosts
or storage ports communicate with each other using a virtual topology defned on the physical SAN. Multple VSANs
may be created on a single physical SAN. Each VSAN acts as an independent fabric with its own set of fabric services,
such as name server, and zoning. Fabric-related confguratons in one VSAN do not afect the trafc in another.
VSANs improve SAN security, scalability, availability, and manageability. VSANs provide enhanced security by isolatng
the sensitve data in a VSAN and by restrictng access to the resources located within that VSAN.
Question 84
Which data center characteristc refers to the capability to grow resources without impactng business operatons?
A. Scalability
B. Security
C. Availability
D. Performance
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
Key Characteristcs of a Data Center
Availabilityn A data center should ensure the availability of informaton when required. Unavailability of informaton
could cost millions of dollars per hour to businesses, such as fnancial services, telecommunicatons, and e-commerce.
Securityn Data centers must establish policies, procedures, and core element integraton to prevent unauthorized
access to informaton.
Scalabilityn Business growth ofen requires deploying more servers, new applicatons, and additonal databases. Data
center resources should scale based on requirements, without interruptng business operatons.
Performancen All the elements of the data center should provide optmal performance based on the required service
levels.
•Data integrityn Data integrity refers to mechanisms, such as error correcton codes or parity bits, which ensure that
data is stored and retrieved exactly as it was received.
Capacityn Data center operatons require adequate resources to store and process large amounts of data, efciently.
When capacity requirements increase, the data center must provide additonal capacity without interruptng
availability or with minimal disrupton. Capacity may be managed by reallocatng the existng resources or by adding
new resources.
Manageabilityn A data center should provide easy and integrated management of all its elements. Manageability can
be achieved through automaton and reducton of human (manual) interventon in common tasks. EMC E10-001
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Student Resource Guide. Module 1n Introducton to Informaton Storage
Question 85
What is an advantage of reportng on storage arrays?
A. Planning for capacity

B. Monitoring the number of arrays
C. Monitoring the number of disks in a RAID group
D. Planning for storage groups
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
Reportng Reportng on a storage infrastructure involves keeping track and gathering informaton from various
components/processes. This informaton is compiled to generate reports for trend analysis, capacity planning,
chargeback, and performance. Capacity planning reports contain current and historic informaton about the utlizaton
of storage, fle systems, database tablespace, ports, and so on. Confguraton and asset management reports include
details about device allocaton, local or remote replicas, and fabric confguraton.
This report also lists all the equipment, with details, such as their purchase date, lease status, and maintenance
records. Chargeback reports contain informaton about the allocaton or utlizaton of storage infrastructure
components by various departments or user groups. Performance reports provide details about the performance of
various storage infrastructure components. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 15n Managing the Storage
Infrastructure
Question 86
A customer wants to connect iSCSI-enabled hosts to an existng Fibre Channel (FC) storage array. Which networking
device enables the connectvity between the host and the storage array?
A. iSCSI gateway
B. FCIP bridge
C. FC gateway
D. IP router
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
iSCSI Topologiesn Bridged iSCSI
Bridged topology enables the coexistence of FC with IP by providing iSCSI-to-FC bridging functonality. Figure in the
slide illustrates an iSCSI host connectvity to an FC storage array. In this case, the array does not have any iSCSI ports.
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Therefore, an external device, called a gateway or a multprotocol router, must be used to facilitate the
communicaton between the iSCSI host and FC storage. The gateway converts IP packets to FC frames and vice versa.
The bridge devices contain both FC and Ethernet ports to facilitate the communicaton between the FC and IP
environments. In bridged iSCSI implementaton, the iSCSI initator is confgured with the gateway’s IP address as its
target destnaton. On the other side, the gateway is confgured as an FC initator to the storage array. EMC E10-001
Student Resource Guide. Module 6n IP SAN and FCoE
Question 87
What is a beneft of virtual storage provisioning over traditonal provisioning?
A. Enables more efcient allocaton of storage to hosts

B. Can be used for applicatons that require predictable performance
C. Provides full control for precise data placement
D. Does not enable oversubscripton
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
Virtual Storage Provisioning Virtual provisioning enables creatng and presentng a LUN with more capacity than is
physically allocated to it on the storage array. The LUN created using virtual provisioning is called a thin LUN to
distnguish it from the traditonal LUN.
Thin LUNs do not require physical storage to be completely allocated to them at the tme they are created and
presented to a host. Physical storage is allocated to the host “on-demand” from a shared pool of physical capacity. A
shared pool is consists of physical disks. A shared pool in virtual provisioning is analogous to a RAID group, which is a
collecton of drives on which LUNs are created. Similar to a RAID group, a shared pool supports a single RAID
protecton level. However, unlike a RAID group, a shared pool might contain large numbers of drives. Shared pools can
be homogeneous (containing a single drive type) or heterogeneous (containing mixed drive types, such as fash, FC,
SAS, and SATA drives).
Virtual provisioning enables more efcient allocaton of storage to hosts. Virtual provisioning also enables
oversubscripton, where more capacity is presented to the hosts than is actually available on the storage array. Both
shared pool and thin LUN can be expanded nondisruptvely as the storage requirements of the hosts grow. Multple
shared pools can be created within a storage array, and a shared pool may be shared by multple thin LUNs.
Question 88
What accurately describes a Vblock?
A. Cloud infrastructure package

B. Block-based storage device
C. SMI specifcaton
D. Virtual tape library
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
VBlock
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Vblock is completely integrated cloud infrastructure ofering that includes compute, storage, network, and
virtualizaton products. These products are provided by EMC, VMware, and Cisco, who have formed a coaliton to
deliver Vblocks. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 13n Cloud Computng
Question 89
Which report provides informaton about the allocaton and utlizaton of storage infrastructure components by
various departments or user groups?
A. Chargeback
B. Capacity Planning
C. Confguraton and Asset Management
D. Service Management
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
Reportng Reportng on a storage infrastructure involves keeping track and gathering informaton from various
components/processes. This informaton is compiled to generate reports for trend analysis, capacity planning,
chargeback, and performance. Capacity planning reports contain current and historic informaton about the utlizaton
of storage, fle systems, database tablespace, ports, and so on. Confguraton and asset management reports include
details about device allocaton, local or remote replicas, and fabric confguraton.
This report also lists all the equipment, with details, such as their purchase date, lease status, and maintenance
records. Chargeback reports contain informaton about the allocaton or utlizaton of storage infrastructure
components by various departments or user groups. Performance reports provide details about the performance of
various storage infrastructure components.
EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 15n Managing the Storage Infrastructure
Question 90
Which component of an archiving soluton is responsible for scanning data that can be archived based on a policy?
A. Archiving agent
B. Archiving server
C. Archiving policy server
D. Archiving storage device
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Aoswern A
Explanatonn
Archiving Soluton Architecture
Archiving soluton architecture consists of three key components; archiving agent, archiving server, and archiving
storage device.
An archiving agent is sofware installed on the applicaton server. The agent is responsible for scanning the data that
can be archived based on the policy defned on the archiving server. Afer the data is identfed for archiving, the
agent sends the data to the archiving server. Then the original data on the applicaton server is replaced with a stub
fle. The stub fle contains the address of the archived data. The size of this fle is small and signifcantly saves space on
primary storage. This stub fle is used to retrieve the fle from the archive storage device
An archiving server is sofware installed on a host that enables administrators to confgure the policies for archiving
data. Policies can be defned based on fle size, fle type, or creaton/modifcaton/access tme. The archiving server
receives the data to be archived from the agent and sends it to the archive storage device. An archive storage device
stores fxed content. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 10n Backup and Archive
Question 91
What describes a hybrid cloud?
A. Composed of distnct clouds that are bound together by standardized or proprietary technology
B. Composed of two or more distnct data centers that enable data and applicaton portability
C. Combinaton of two distnct cloud infrastructures (on-premise and externally-hosted) that are managed together
D. Combinaton of a private cloud and a public cloud that are owned, managed, and operated by a single organizaton
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
Hybrid Cloud
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In a hybrid cloud model, the cloud infrastructure is a compositon of two or more distnct cloud infrastructures
(private, community, or public) that remain unique enttes, but are bound together by standardized or proprietary
technology that enables data and applicaton portability (example, cloud burstng for load balancing between clouds).
The hybrid model allows an organizaton to deploy less critcal applicatons and data to the public cloud, leveraging
the scalability and cost-efectveness of the public cloud. The organizaton’s mission-critcal applicatons and data
remain on the private cloud that provides greater security. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 13n Cloud
Computng
Question 92
What is a requirement for a natve iSCSI implementaton?
A. Host with an iSCSI HBA and an array with an iSCSI port

B. Host with a NIC and an array with an FCoE port
C. Host with iSCSI initator sofware and an array with an FCIP port
D. Host with an iSCSI HBA and an array with an FC port
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
iSCSI Topologiesn Natve iSCSI
Two topologies of iSCSI implementatons are natve and bridged. Natve topology does not have FC components. The
initators may be either directly atached to targets or connected through the IP network. FC components are not
required for iSCSI connectvity if an iSCSI-enabled array is deployed. In fgure in the slide, the array has one or more
iSCSI ports confgured with an IP address and connected to a standard Ethernet switch. Afer an initator is logged on
to the network, it can access the available LUNs on the storage array. A single array port can service multple hosts or
initators as long as the array port can handle the amount of storage trafc that the hosts generate. EMC E10-001
Student Resource Guide. Module 6n IP SAN and FCoE
Question 93
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In additon to applicatons and databases, what are the other core elements of a data center infrastructure?
A. JBOD, networks, and storage arrays

B. Servers/operatng systems, DAS, and NAS
C. Servers/operatng systems, networks, and storage arrays
D. Servers/operatng systems, SAN, and JBOD
Aoswern C
Explanatonn
Data Center Organizatons maintain data centers to provide centralized data-processing capabilites across the
enterprise. Data centers house and manage large amounts of data. The data center infrastructure includes hardware
components, such as computers, storage systems, network devices, and power backups; and sofware components,
such as applicatons, operatng systems, and management sofware. It also includes environmental controls, such as
air conditoning, fre suppression, and ventlaton.
Large organizatons ofen maintain more than one data center to distribute data processing workloads and provide
backup if a disaster occurs.
Five core elements are essental for the functonality of a data centern Applicatonn A computer program that provides
the logic for computng operatons Database management system (DBMS)n Provides a structured way to store data in
logically organized tables that are interrelated Host or computen A computng platorm (hardware, frmware and
sofware) that runs applicatons and databases Networkn A data path that facilitates communicaton among various
networked devices Storagen A device that stores data persistently for subsequent use These core elements are
typically viewed and managed as separate enttes, but all the elements must work together to address data-
processing requirements. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 1n Introducton to Informaton Storage
Question 94
Why does a restore operaton need to communicate with the backup server?
A. Locate the data to be restored using the backup catalog

B. Determine the RTO of the backup save set
C. Run the restore automatcally according to a schedule
D. Determine the RPO of the backup save set
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
Recovery Operaton
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Afer the data is backed up, it can be restored when required. A restore process must be manually initated from the
client. Some backup sofware has a separate applicaton for restore operatons. These restore applicatons are usually
accessible only to the administrators or backup operators. Figure on the slide depicts a restore operaton. Upon
receiving a restore request, an administrator opens the restore applicaton to view the list of clients that have been
backed up. While selectng the client for which a restore request has been made, the administrator also needs to
identfy the client that will receive the restored data. Data can be restored on the same client for whom the restore
request has been made or on any other client. The administrator then selects the data to be restored and the
specifed point in tme to which the data has to be restored based on the RPO. Because all this informaton comes
from the backup catalog, the restore applicaton needs to communicate with the backup server.
The backup server instructs the appropriate storage node to mount the specifc backup media onto the backup device.
Data is then read and sent to the client that has been identfed to receive the restored data.
Some restoratons are successfully accomplished by recovering only the requested producton data. For example, the
recovery process of a spreadsheet is completed when the specifc fle is restored. In database restoratons, additonal
data, such as log fles, must be restored along with the producton data. This ensures consistency for the restored
data. In these cases, the RTO is extended due to the additonal steps in the restore operaton. EMC E10-001 Student
Resource Guide. Module 10n Backup and Archive
Question 95
Which data protecton technology provides the highest degree of protecton against logical corrupton and a near-zero
RPO?
A. CDP
B. Mirroring
C. Backup-to-disk
D. Snapshots with CoFW
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
Contnuous Data Protecton In network-based replicaton, the replicaton occurs at the network layer between the
hosts and storage arrays. Network-based replicaton combines the benefts of array-based and host-based
replicatons. By ofoading replicaton from servers and arrays, network-based replicaton can work across a large
number of server platorms and storage arrays, making it ideal for highly heterogeneous environments. Contnuous
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data protecton (CDP) is a technology used for network-based local and remote replicatons.
In a data center environment, mission-critcal applicatons ofen require instant and unlimited data recovery points.
Traditonal data protecton technologies ofer limited recovery points. If data loss occurs, the system can be rolled
back only to the last available recovery point. Mirroring ofers contnuous replicaton; however, if logical corrupton
occurs to the producton data, the error might propagate to the mirror, which makes the replica unusable. In normal
operaton, CDP provides the ability to restore data to any previous PIT. It enables this capability by tracking all the
changes to the producton devices and maintaining consistent point-in-tme images.
In CDP, data changes are contnuously captured and stored in a separate locaton from the primary storage. Moreover,
RPOs are random and do not need to be defned in advance.
With CDP, recovery from data corrupton poses no problem because it allows going back to a PIT image prior to the
data corrupton incident. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 11n Local Replicaton
Question 96
Which remote replicaton soluton has the highest bandwidth requirements?
A. Array-based synchronous
B. Array-based disk bufered
C. Host-based asynchronous LVM mirroring
D. Log shipping over IP networks
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
Synchronous Replicaton Applicaton response tme is increased with synchronous remote replicaton because writes
must be commited on both the source and target before sending the “write complete” acknowledgment to the host.
The degree of impact on response tme depends primarily on the distance between sites, bandwidth and quality of
service (QOS) of, the network connectvity infrastructure. If the bandwidth provided for synchronous remote
replicaton is less than the maximum write workload, there will be tmes during the day when the response tme
might be excessively elongated, causing applicatons to tme out. The distances over which synchronous replicaton
can be deployed depend on the applicaton’s capability to tolerate extensions in response tme. Typically, it is
deployed for distances less than 200 KM (125 miles) between the two sites. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide.
Module 12n Remote Replicaton
Question 97
In a Fibre Channel (FC) SAN, which protocol implementaton is used?
A. SCSI over FC
B. SCSI over FCoE
C. FC over iSCSI D. FC over SCSI
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
FC Architecture Overview The FC architecture represents true channel/network integraton and captures some of the
benefts of both channel and network technology. FC SAN uses the Fibre Channel Protocol (FCP) that provides both
channel speed for data transfer with low protocol overhead and scalability of network technology.
FCP forms the fundamental construct of the FC SAN infrastructure. Fibre Channel provides a serial data transfer
interface that operates over copper wire and optcal fber. FCP is the implementaton of SCSI over an FC network. In
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FCP architecture, all external and remote storage devices atached to the SAN appear as local devices to the host
operatng system. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 5n Fibre Channel Storage Area Network (FC SAN)
Question 98
Which NAS backup environment transfers data to be backed up over a private backup network?
A. NDMP three-way
B. NDMP two-way
C. Server-based
D. Serverless
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
NDMP 3-Way Backup In the NDMP 3-way method, to avoid the backup data traveling on the producton LAN, a
separate private backup network must be established between all NAS heads and the NAS head connected to the
backup device. Metadata and NDMP control data are stll transferred across the public network. Figure on the slide
depicts NDMP 3-way backup. An NDMP 3-way is useful when backup devices need to be shared among NAS heads. It
enables the NAS head to control the backup device and share it with other NAS heads by receiving the backup data
through the NDMP. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 10n Backup and Archive
Question 99
Which three subject areas, taken together, defne storage security?
A. Informaton, networking, and storage

B. Access control, storage, and encrypton
C. Access control, informaton, and networking
D. Applicaton, management, and backup
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
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Storage Security EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 14n Securing the Storage Infrastructure
Question 100

If a disk drive's rotatonal speed is 10000 revolutons per minute, what is its average rotatonal latency?
A. 0.003 milliseconds
B. 0.05 milliseconds
C. 3 milliseconds
D. 5 milliseconds dr
Aoswern C
Explanatonn
Rotatonal Latency Calculaton
Rotatonal Latency= 0.5 / (RPM / 60) = 0.5 / (10000 / 60) = 0.5 / 166.666 = 0.003 Seconds = 3 msec
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Question 101
In the context of informaton security, which atribute other than individual identty and group membership can be
used to restrict unauthorized access?
A. Role
B. Cryptography
C. World Wide Name
D. Host network address
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
Securing Access In secure storage environments, root or administrator privileges for a specifc device are not granted
to every user. Instead, role-based access control (RBAC) is deployed to assign necessary privileges to users, enabling
them to perform their roles. A role may represent a job functon, for example, an administrator. Privileges are
associated with the roles and users acquire these privileges based upon their roles. It is also advisable to consider
administratve controls, such as “separaton of dutes,” when defning data center procedures.
Question 102
What is a characteristc of an actve/passive storage array confguraton?
A. Read and write I/Os are performed only through the controller that manages the LUN
B. Host can perform I/Os to its LUNs through any of the available controllers
C. Read and write I/Os are performed only through actve cache
D. Passive array is used for backup; actve array is used for producton data
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
Midrange Storage Systems
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Midrange storage systems are also referred to as actve-passive arrays and are best suited for
small- and medium-sized enterprise applicatons. They also provide optmal storage solutons at a lower cost. In an
actve-passive array, a host can perform I/Os to a LUN only through the controller that owns the LUN. The host can
perform reads or writes to the LUN only through the path to controller A because controller A is the owner of that
LUN. The path to controller B remains passive and no I/O actvity is performed through this path.
Midrange storage systems are typically designed with two controllers, each of which contains host interfaces, cache,
RAID controllers, and interface to disk drives.
Midrange arrays are designed to meet the requirements of small and medium enterprise applicaton; therefore, they
host less storage capacity and cache than high-end storage arrays. There are also fewer front-end ports for connecton
to hosts. However, they ensure high redundancy and high performance for applicatons with predictable workloads.
They also support array-based local and remote replicaton. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 4n
Intelligent Storage System
Question 103

An eight-disk RAID 6 set has a stripe size of 192 KB. What is the stripe depth?
A. 24 KB
B. 32 KB
C. 48 KB
D. 64 KB
Aoswern B
Explanatonn
RAID Technique - Striping Strip size (also called stripe depth) describes the number of blocks in a strip, and is the
maximum amount of data that can be writen to or read from a single disk in the set, assuming that the accessed data
starts at the beginning of the strip. All strips in a stripe have the same number of blocks. Having a smaller strip size
means that the data is broken into smaller pieces while spread across the disks.
Stripe size is a multple of strip size by the number of data disks in the RAID set. For example, in a fve disk striped
RAID set with a strip size of 64KB, the stripe size is 320 KB (64KB x 5).
Stripe width refers to the number of data strips in a stripe. Striped RAID does not provide any data protecton unless
parity or mirroring is used.
For parity RAID, the stripe size calculaton does not include the parity strip. For example in a fve (4 + 1) disk parity
RAID set with a strip size of 64 KB, the stripe size will be 256 KB (64 KB x 4).
Calculaton RAID6 = 2x Parity 8 Disk RAID-6 Set = 6 Data + 2 Parity Strip Size = 192KB / 6 = 32KB
Question 104
What is a key beneft of RAID 5 compared to RAID 1+0 for small, random I/Os?
A. Improved storage space utlizaton

B. Improved write performance
C. Higher availability
D. Faster rebuild tmes afer failure
Aoswern A
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Explanatonn
RAID Comparison
Question 105
What is a characteristc of asynchronous remote replicaton?
A. Replica will be behind the source by at least the size of the bufer
B. A near-zero RPO disaster recovery soluton
C. Write must be commited at the target before being acknowledged as complete
D. Deployed only for distances within 200 km between two sites
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
Asynchronous remote replicaton
In asynchronous remote replicaton, a write is commited to the source and immediately acknowledged to the host. In
this mode, data is bufered at the source and transmited to the remote site later. Data at the remote site will be
behind the source by at least the size of the bufer. Hence, asynchronous remote replicaton provides a fnite
(nonzero) RPO disaster recovery soluton. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 12n Remote Replicaton
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Question 106
What is a characteristc of triangle/multtarget replicaton?
A. Failover can occur to either of the two remote sites

B. Distance between all sites must be less than 125 km
C. Bunker site must be in sync with the remote site at all tmes
D. Only the producton site is available during normal operatons
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
Three-site triangle/multtarget replicaton
In three-site triangle/multtarget replicaton, data at the source storage array is concurrently replicated to two
diferent arrays at two diferent sites, as shown in the fgure on the slide. The source-to-bunker site (target 1)
replicaton is synchronous with a near-zero RPO. The sourceto-remote site (target 2) replicaton is asynchronous with
an RPO in the order of minutes. The distance between the source and the remote sites could be thousands of miles.
This implementaton does not depend on the bunker site for updatng data on the remote site because data is
asynchronously copied to the remote site directly from the source. The triangle/multtarget confguraton provides
consistent RPO unlike cascade/multhop solutons in which the failure of the bunker site results in the remote site
falling behind and the RPO increasing. The key beneft of three-site triangle/multtarget replicaton is the ability to
failover to either of the two remote sites in the case of source-site failure, with disaster recovery
(asynchronous) protecton between the bunker and remote sites. Disaster recovery protecton is
always available if any one-site failure occurs. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 12n Remote Replicaton
Question 107
What is a characteristc of cloud-optmized storage?
A. Secure multtenancy
B. Single access mechanism
C. Server-centric
D. Natve source-based deduplicaton
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Aoswern A
Explanatonn
Cloud-optmized storage Content-rich applicatons combined with the growth of unstructured data are challenging to
manage with traditonal approach of storing data at scale. This combinaton of massive growth, new informaton
types, and the need to serve multple locatons and users around the world, has led to requirements for informaton
storage and management at a global scale. Cloud-optmized storage is a soluton to meet these requirements. It
delivers scalable and fexible architecture that provides rapid elastcity, global access and storage capacity ondemand.
It also addresses the constraints of rigid, mount-point based interacton between storage and consumer by presentng
a singular access point to the entre storage infrastructure. It leverages a built-in mult-tenancy model and enables
self-service, fully metered access to storage resources thereby delivers storage-as-a-service on a shared
infrastructure. Cloud-optmized storage typically leverages object-based storage technology that uses customizable,
value-driven metadata to drive storage placement, protecton and lifecycle policies.
Key characteristcs of cloud-optmized storage soluton aren Massively scalable infrastructure that supports large
number of objects across a globally distributed infrastructure Unifed namespace that eliminates capacity, locaton,
and other fle system limitatons Metadata and policy-based informaton management capabilites that optmizes data
protecton, availability and cost, based on service levels Secure multtenancy that enables multple applicatons to be
securely served from the same infrastructure. Each applicaton is securely parttoned and data is neither co-mingled
nor accessible by other tenants Provide access through REST and SOAP web service APIs and fle-based access using
variety of client devices EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 13n Cloud Computng
Question 108
In what way does an integrated NAS soluton difer from a Gateway NAS soluton?
A. Integrated NAS manages storage devices through NAS sofware. Gateway NAS relies on storage array management
sofware to manage storage devices.
B. Integrated NAS allows both fle and block level access to the clients. Gateway NAS allows only block level access to
the clients.
C. Integrated NAS utlizes specialized operatng systems. Gateway NAS utlizes generic operatng systems.
D. Integrated NAS uses Fibre Channel disks only. Gateway NAS uses both Fibre Channel and SATA disks.
Aoswern B
Explanatonn
NAS Implementaton The unifed NAS consolidates NAS-based and SAN-based data access within a unifed storage
platorm and provides a unifed management interface for managing both the environments.
Unifed NAS performs fle serving and storing of fle data, along with providing access to block-level data. It supports
both CIFS and NFS protocols for fle access and iSCSI and FC protocols for block level access. Due to consolidaton of
NAS-based and SAN-based access on a single storage platorm, unifed NAS reduces an organizaton’s infrastructure
and management costs.
A gateway NAS device consists of one or more NAS heads and uses external and independently managed storage.
Similar to unifed NAS, the storage is shared with other applicatons that uses block-level I/O. Management functons
in this type of soluton are more complex than those in a unifed NAS environment because there are separate
administratve tasks for the NAS head and the storage.
Question 109
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What is the name of the drive sub-assembly which contains the platers and read/write heads?
A. ATA
B. SATA
C. HDA
D. IDE
Aoswern C
Explanatonn
Disk Drive Components
The key components of a hard disk drive are plater, spindle, read-write head, actuator arm assembly, and controller
board. I/O operatons in a HDD is performed by rapidly moving the arm across the rotatng fat platers coated with
magnetc partcles. Data is transferred between the disk controller and magnetc platers through the read-write
(R/W) head which is atached to the arm. Data can be recorded and erased on magnetc platers any number of tmes.
Platern A typical HDD consists of one or more fat circular disks called platers. The data is recorded on these platers
in binary codes (0s and 1s). The set of rotatng platers is sealed in a case, called Head Disk Assembly (HDA). A plater
is a rigid, round disk coated with magnetc material on both surfaces (top and botom). The data is encoded by
polarizing the magnetc area, or domains, of the disk surface. Data can be writen to or read from both surfaces of the
plater. The number of platers and the storage capacity of each plater determine the total capacity of the drive.
Spindlen A spindle connects all the platers and is connected to a motor. The motor of the spindle rotates with a
constant speed. The disk plater spins at a speed of several thousands of revolutons per minute (rpm). Common
spindle speeds are 5,400 rpm, 7,200 rpm, 10,000 rpm, and 15,000 rpm. The speed of the plater is increasing with
improvements in technology; although, the extent to which it can be improved is limited.
Read/Write Headn Read/Write (R/W) heads, read and write data from or to platers. Drives have two R/W heads per
plater, one for each surface of the plater. The R/W head changes the magnetc polarizaton on the surface of the
plater when writng data. While reading data, the head detects the magnetc polarizaton on the surface of the
plater. During reads and writes, the R/W head senses the magnetc polarizaton and never touches the surface of the
plater. When the spindle is rotatng, there is a microscopic air gap maintained between the R/W heads and the
platers, known as the head fying height. This air gap is removed when the spindle stops rotatng and the R/W head
rests on a special area on the plater near the spindle. This area is called the landing zone. The landing zone is coated
with a lubricant to reduce fricton between the head and the plater. The logic on the disk drive ensures that heads are
moved to the landing zone before they touch the surface. If the drive malfunctons and the R/W head accidentally
touches the surface of the plater outside the landing zone, a head crash occurs. In a head crash, the magnetc coatng
on the plater is scratched and may cause damage to the R/W head. A head crash generally results in data loss.
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Actuator Arm Assemblyn R/W heads are mounted on the actuator arm assembly, which positons the R/W head at the
locaton on the plater where the data needs to be writen or read. The R/W heads for all platers on a drive are
atached to one actuator arm assembly and move across the platers simultaneously.
Drive Controller Boardn The controller is a printed circuit board, mounted at the botom of a disk drive. It consists of a
microprocessor, internal memory, circuitry, and frmware. The frmware controls the power to the spindle motor and
the speed of the motor. It also manages the communicaton between the drive and the host. In additon, it controls
the R/W operatons by moving the actuator arm and switching between diferent R/W heads, and performs the
optmizaton of data access. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 2n Data Center Environment
Question 110
Why would an iSCSI soluton be implemented?
A. All storage arrays supply GigE ports

B. Block storage over IP is much faster than FC
C. iSCSI HBAs are inexpensive
D. Leverage existng IP network infrastructures
Aoswern D
Explanatonn
Drivers for IP SAN Traditonal SAN enables the transfer of block I/O over Fibre Channel and provides high performance
and scalability. These advantages of FC SAN come with the additonal cost of buying FC components, such as FC HBA
and switches. Organizatons typically have an existng Internet Protocol (IP)-based infrastructure, which could be
leveraged for storage networking. Advancements in technology have enabled IP to be used for transportng block I/O
over the IP network. This technology of transportng block I/Os over an IP is referred to as IP SAN. IP is a mature
technology, and using IP as a storage networking opton provides several advantages. When block I/O is run over IP,
the existng network infrastructure can be leveraged, which is more economical than investng in a new SAN
infrastructure. In additon, many robust and mature security optons are now available for IP networks. Many long
distance, disaster recovery (DR) solutons are already leveraging IP-based networks. With IP SAN, organizatons can
extend the geographical reach of their storage infrastructure. iSCSI is encapsulaton of SCSI I/O over IP. iSCSI is an IP
based protocol that establishes and manages connectons between host and storage over IP. iSCSI encapsulates SCSI
commands and data into an IP packet and transports them using TCP/IP. iSCSI is widely adopted for connectng servers
to storage because it is relatvely inexpensive and easy to implement, especially environments in which an FC SAN
does not exist.
Question 111

An applicaton requires 3.5 TB of capacity. The applicaton generates 2300 IOPS to disks during peak workloads. The
vendor indicates that a 146 GB, 15K rpm drive is capable of performing a maximum of 150 IOPS.
How many disks are required to meet both capacity and performance requirements?
A. 15
B. 22
C. 24
D. 60
Aoswern C
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Explanatonn
Storage Design based on Applicaton Requirements and Disk Drive Performance
Calculaton Dc = 3.5TB / 146GB = 3500 / 146 = 23.97 = 24 Drives Dp = 2300 iops / 150 iops = 15.33 = 15 Drives Disk
required = max(Dc,Dp) = max(24,15) = 24
Question 112
Which two mechanisms address threats of elevatng user privileges in the applicaton access domain?
A. Authentcaton and authorizaton

B. Access control to storage objects and Access Control Lists (ACLs)
C. Access control to storage objects and auditng
D. User authentcaton and Informaton Rights Management (IRM)
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
Securing the Applicaton Access Domain
Access control services regulate user and host access to data. These services mitgate the threats of spoofng user
identty and elevatng their privileges. Both these threats afect data integrity and confdentality. Access control
mechanisms used in applicaton access domain are user and host authentcaton (technical control) and authorizaton
(administratve control). These mechanisms may lie outside the boundaries of the storage network and require
various systems to interconnect with other enterprise identty management and authentcaton systems. NAS devices
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support the creaton of access control lists that regulates user access to specifc fles. The Enterprise Content
Management applicaton enforces access to data by using Informaton Rights Management (IRM) that specifes which
users have what rights to a document.
Question 113
A customer has an existng SAN environment. The customer wants to add NAS to share the storage space. Which
soluton is most appropriate?
A. Gateway NAS
B. Scale-out NAS
C. FCoE SAN
D. IP SAN
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
NAS Implementaton - Gateway NAS A gateway NAS device consists of one or more NAS heads and uses external and
independently managed storage. Similar to unifed NAS, the storage is shared with other applicatons that uses block-
level I/O. Management functons in this type of soluton are more complex than those in a unifed NAS environment
because there are separate administratve tasks for the NAS head and the storage. A gateway soluton can use the FC
infrastructure, such as switches and directors for accessing SAN-atached storage arrays or direct-atached storage
arrays.
The gateway NAS is more scalable compared to unifed NAS because NAS heads and storage arrays can be
independently scaled up when required. For example, NAS heads can be added to scale up the NAS device
performance. When the storage limit is reached, it can scale up, adding capacity on the SAN, independent of NAS
heads. Similar to a unifed NAS, a gateway NAS also enables high utlizaton of storage capacity by sharing it with the
SAN environment. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 7n Network-Atached Storage (NAS)
Question 114
What is characteristc of a virtual tape library?
A. Uses disk drives as backup media

B. Requires changes on the backup sofware
C. A virtual tape cannot span multple LUNs
D. Uses a special mechanism to address the 'shoe-shining' efect
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
Virtual Tape Library A virtual tape library (VTL) has the same components as that of a physical tape library, except that
the majority of the components are presented as virtual resources. For the backup sofware, there is no diference
between a physical tape library and a virtual tape library.
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Virtual tape libraries use disks as backup media.

Emulaton sofware has a database with a list of virtual tapes, and each virtual tape is assigned space on a LUN. A
virtual tape can span multple LUNs if required. File system awareness is not required while backing up because the
virtual tape soluton typically uses raw devices.
Question 115
Refer to Exhibitn Which type of cloud deployment model is represented in the exhibit?
A. Public
B. Private
C. Community
D. Hybrid
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
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Public Cloud In a public cloud model, the cloud infrastructure is provisioned for open use by the general public. It may
be owned, managed, and operated by a business, academic, or government organizaton, or some combinaton of
them. It exists on the premises of the cloud provider.
Consumers use the cloud services ofered by the providers via the Internet and pay metered usage charges or
subscripton fees. An advantage of the public cloud is its low capital cost with enormous scalability. However, for
consumers, these benefts come with certain risksn
No control over the resources in the cloud, the security of confdental data, network performance, and
interoperability issues. Popular public cloud service providers are Amazon, Google, and Salesforce.com. Figure in the
slide shows a public cloud that provides cloud services to organizatons and individuals.
Question 116
Based on the exhibit,
Which zone(s) represent port zoning?
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A. Zone 1 B. Zones 1 and 3

C. Zone 2
D. Zone 3
Aoswern C
Explanatonn
Types of Zoning
Zoning can be categorized into three typesn

Port zoningn Uses the the physical address of switch ports to defne zones. In port zoning, access to node is
determined by the physical switch port to which a node is connected. The zone members are the port identfer
(switch domain ID and port number) to which HBA and its targets (storage devices) are connected. If a node is moved
to another switch port in the fabric, port zoning must be modifed to allow the node, in its new port, to partcipate in
its original zone. However, if an HBA or storage device port fails, an administrator just has to replace the failed device
without changing the zoning confguraton.
node port to be ted to the WWN of another node.
Figure in the slide shows the three types of zoning on an FC network.
Question 117
Based on the exhibit,
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Which zone(s) represent mixed zoning?
A. Zone 1
B. Zones 1 and 2
C. Zone 2
D. Zone 3
Aoswern D
Explanatonn
Types of Zoning Zoning can be categorized into three typesn
Port zoningn Uses the the physical address of switch ports to defne zones. In port zoning, access to node is
determined by the physical switch port to which a node is connected. The zone members are the port identfer
(switch domain ID and port number) to which HBA and its targets (storage devices) are connected. If a node is moved
to another switch port in the fabric, port zoning must be modifed to allow the node, in its new port, to partcipate in
its original zone. However, if an HBA or storage device port fails, an administrator just has to replace the failed device
without changing the zoning confguraton.
node port to be ted to the WWN of another node. Figure in the slide shows the three types of zoning on an FC
network. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 5n Fibre Channel Storage Area Network (FC SAN)
Question 118
Refer to Exhibitn Which type of replicaton is represented in the exhibit?
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A. Cascade/multhop, synchronous + disk bufered

B. Cascade/multhop, synchronous + asynchronous
C. Triangle/multtarget, synchronous + disk bufered
D. Triangle/multtarget, synchronous + diferental resync
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
Three-site Replicatonn Cascade/Multphop (Synchronous + Disk Bufered) In the cascade/multhop three-site
replicaton, data fows from the source to the intermediate storage array, known as a bunker, in the frst hop, and
then, from a bunker to a storage array at a remote site in the second hop. Replicaton can be performed in two ways,
synchronous+ disk-bufered or synchronous + asynchronous.
Synchronous + Disk Buferedn This method employs a combinaton of local and remote replicaton technologies.
Synchronous replicaton occurs between the source and the bunker; a consistent PIT local replica is created at the
bunker. Data is transmited from the local replica at the bunker to the remote replica at the remote site. Optonally, a
local replica can be created at the remote site afer data is received from the bunker. In this method, a minimum of 4
storage volumes are required (including the source) to replicate one storage device. RPO at the remote site is usually
in the order of hours for this implementaton. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 12n Remote Replicaton
Question 119
DRAG DROP
A schedule backup has been started. What is the sequence and steps for the backup operaton?
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Aoswern
Explanatonn
Backup Operaton
Question 120
DRAG DROP
What is the correct sequence of operatons for storing an object in an object-based storage device (OSD)?
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Aoswern
Explanatonn
Process of Storing Object in OSD
The process of storing objects in OSD is illustrated on the slide. The data storage process I an OSD system is as followsn
The applicaton server presents the fle to be stored to the OSD node.
The OSD node divides the fle into two partsn user data and metadata.
The OSD node generates the object ID using a specialized algorithm. The algorithm is executed against the contents of
the user data to derive an ID unique to this data.
For future access, the OSD node stores the metadata and object ID using the metadata service.
The OSD node stores the user data (objects) in the storage device using the storage service.
An acknowledgment is sent to the applicaton server statng that the object is stored. EMC E10-001 Student Resource
Guide. Module 8n Object-based and Unifed Storage
Question 121
What is the process of contnuously gathering informaton on various elements and services in a data center?
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A. Reportng
B. Alertng
C. Provisioning
D. Monitoring
Aoswern D
Explanatonn
Monitoring Storage Infrastructure Monitoring is one of the most important aspects that forms the basis for managing
storage infrastructure resources. Monitoring provides the performance and accessibility status of various
components. It also enables administrators to perform essental management actvites.
Monitoring also helps to analyze the utlizaton and consumpton of various storage infrastructure resources. This
analysis facilitates capacity planning, forecastng, and optmal use of these resources. Storage infrastructure
environment parameters such as heatng, ventlatng and air-conditoning (HVAC) are also monitored.
The key storage infrastructure components that should be monitored aren
Servers
Network
Storage arrays
These components could be physical or virtualized. Each of these components should be monitored for accessibility,
capacity, performance and security. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 15n Managing the Storage
Infrastructure
Question 122
How is the internal transfer rate of disk drives defned?
A. Speed at which data moves from the read/write head to the plater
B. Speed at which data moves from a plater's surface to the internal bufer
C. Speed at which data moves from internal bufer to the host interface
D. Speed at which data moves from the innermost cylinder to the read/write head
Aoswern B
Explanatonn
Data Transfer Rate The data transfer rate (also called transfer rate) refers to the average amount of data per unit tme
that the drive can deliver to the HBA. In a read operaton, the data frst moves from disk platers to R/W heads; then it
moves to the drive’s internal bufer. Finally, data moves from the bufer through the interface to the host HBA. In a
write operaton, the data moves from the HBA to the internal bufer of the disk drive through the drive’s interface.
The data then moves from the bufer to the R/W heads. Finally, it moves from the R/W heads to the platers. The data
transfer rates during the R/W operatons are measured in terms of internal and external transfer rates, as shown in
the slide.
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Internal transfer rate is the speed at which data moves from a plater’s surface to the internal bufer (cache) of the
disk. The internal transfer rate takes into account factors such as the seek tme and rotatonal latency. External
transfer rate is the rate at which data can move through the interface to the HBA. The external transfer rate is
generally the advertsed speed of the interface, such as 133 MB/s for ATA. The sustained external transfer rate is lower
than the interface speed.
Question 123
Which process defnes the writng of physical address informaton to a disk?
A. Parttoning
B. Formatng
C. Zoned-bit recording
D. Command queuing
Aoswern B
Explanatonn
Disk Structure
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Data on the disk is recorded on tracks, which are concentric rings on the plater around the spindle. The tracks are
numbered, startng from zero, from the outer edge of the plater. The number of tracks per inch (TPI) on the plater
(or the track density) measures how tghtly the tracks are packed on a plater.
Each track is divided into smaller units called sectors. A sector is the smallest, individually addressable unit of storage.
The track and sector structure is writen on the plater by the drive manufacturer using a low-level formatng
operaton. The number of sectors per track varies according to the drive type. The frst personal computer disks had
17 sectors per track.
Recent disks have a much larger number of sectors on a single track. There can be thousands of tracks on a plater,
depending on the physical dimensions and recording density of the plater.
Typically, a sector holds 512 bytes of user data; although, some disks can be formated with larger sector sizes. In
additon to user data, a sector also stores other informaton, such as the sector number, head number or plater
number, and track number. This informaton helps the controller to locate the data on the drive.
A cylinder is a set of identcal tracks on both surfaces of each drive plater. The locaton of R/W heads is referred to by
the cylinder number, not by the track number.
Question 124
An applicaton requires 1.46 TB of capacity. The applicaton generates 7200 IOPS to disks during peak workloads. The
vendor indicates that a 146 GB, 15K rpm drive is capable of performing a maximum of 180 IOPS at 70% utlizaton.
How many disks are required to meet both the applicaton's capacity and performance requirements?
A. 10
B. 40
C. 50
D. 72
Aoswern B
Explanatonn
Storage Design based on Applicaton Requirements and Disk Drive Performance
Calculaton Dc = 1.46TB / 146GB = 1460 / 146 = 10 = 10 Drives Dp = 7200 iops / 180 iops = 40 = 40 Drives Disk required
= max(Dc,Dp) = max(10,40) = 40
Question 125
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Where does a host-based volume manager map a fle system block?
A. Sectors
B. Logical Extent
C. Tracks
D. Physical Extent
Aoswern B
Explanatonn
File System The following list shows the process of mapping user fles to the disk storage that uses an LVMn
Files are created and managed by users and applicatons.

These fles reside in the fle systems.
The fle systems are mapped to fle system blocks.
The fle system blocks are mapped to logical extents of a logical volume.
These logical extents in turn are mapped to the disk physical extents either by the operatng system or by the LVM.
These physical extents are mapped to the disk sectors in a storage subsystem. If there is no LVM, then there are no
logical extents. Without LVM, fle system blocks are directly mapped to disk sectors. EMC E10-001 Student Resource
Guide. Module 2n Data Center Environment
Question 126
What describes applicaton virtualizaton?
A. Breaks the dependency between the applicaton and the underlying platorm
B. Increases the applicaton and CPU utlizaton
C. Provides interoperability between diferent applicaton versions
D. Breaks the dependency between the applicaton interface and the processing logic
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
Applicaton Virtualizaton Applicaton virtualizaton breaks the dependency between the applicaton and the
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underlying platorm (OS and hardware). Applicaton virtualizaton encapsulates the applicaton and the required OS
resources within a virtualized container. This technology provides the ability to deploy applicatons without making
any change to the underlying OS, fle system, or registry of the computng platorm on which they are deployed.
Because virtualized applicatons run in an isolated environment, the underlying OS and other applicatons are
protected from potental corruptons. There are many scenarios in which conficts might arise if multple applicatons
or multple versions of the same applicaton are installed on the same computng platorm. Applicaton virtualizaton
eliminates this confict by isolatng diferent versions of an applicaton and the associated O/S resources. EMC E10-
001 Student Resource Guide. Module 2n Data Center Environment
Question 127
A stripe depth of 32 KB has been assigned to a fve-disk RAID 5 set. What is the stripe size?
A. 32KB
B. 128KB
C. 160 KB
D. 192 KB
Aoswern B
Question 128
Which RAID type is recommended for a high performance, write-intensive business critcal applicaton with small
random writes?
A. RAID1
B. RAID 1+0
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 6
Aoswern B
Explanatonn
Suitable RAID levels for Diferent Applicatons Common applicatons that beneft from diferent RAID levels.
RAID 1+0 performs well for workloads that use small, random, write-intensive I/Os. Some applicatons that beneft
from RAID 1+0 are high transacton rate online transacton processing (OLTP), RDBMS temp space and so on.
RAID 3 provides good performance for applicatons that involve large sequental data access, such as data backup or
video streaming.
RAID 5 is good for random, read intensive I/O applicatons and preferred for messaging, medium-performance media
serving, and relatonal database management system (RDBMS) implementatons, in which database administrators
(DBAs) optmize data access. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 3n Data Protecton - RAID
Question 129
How can the loss of uncommited cached data be minimized when there is a cache failure?
A. Cache vaultng
B. Cache striping
C. Cache fushing
D. Cache mirroring
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Aoswern D
Explanatonn
Cache Data Protecton Cache is volatle memory, so a power failure or any kind of cache failure will cause loss of the
data that is not yet commited to the disk. This risk of losing uncommited data held in cache can be mitgated using
cache mirroring and cache vaultngn
Cache mirroringn Each write to cache is held in two diferent memory locatons on two independent memory cards. If
a cache failure occurs, the write data will stll be safe in the mirrored locaton and can be commited to the disk. Reads
are staged from the disk to the cache; therefore, if a cache failure occurs, the data can stll be accessed from the disk.
Because only writes are mirrored, this method results in beter utlizaton of the available cache. In cache mirroring
approaches, the problem of maintaining cache coherency is introduced. Cache coherency means that data in two
diferent cache locatons must be identcal at all tmes. It is the responsibility of the array operatng environment to
ensure coherency.
Cache vaultngn The risk of data loss due to power failure can be addressed in various waysn powering the memory
with a batery untl the AC power is restored or using batery power to write the cache content to the disk. If an
extended power failure occurs, using bateries is not a viable opton. This is because in intelligent storage systems,
large amounts of data might need to be commited to numerous disks, and bateries might not provide power for
sufcient tme to write each piece of data to its intended disk. Therefore, storage vendors use a set of physical disks to
dump the contents of cache during power failure. This is called cache vaultng and the disks are called vault drives.
When power is restored, data from these disks is writen back to write cache and then writen to the intended disks.
Question 130
Which cache algorithm will optmize a storage array's I/O response tme if sequental access is detected?
A. Flushing
B. Least recently used
C. Read ahead
D. Write-through
Aoswern C
Explanatonn
Read Operaton with Cache A prefetch or read-ahead algorithm is used when read requests are sequental. In a
sequental read request, a contguous set of associated blocks is retrieved. Several other blocks that have not yet been
requested by the host can be read from the disk and placed into cache in advance. When the host subsequently
requests these blocks, the read operatons will be read hits. This process signifcantly improves the response tme
experienced by the host. The intelligent storage system ofers fxed and variable prefetch sizes. In fxed prefetch, the
intelligent storage system prefetches a fxed amount of data. It is most suitable when host I/O sizes are uniform. In
variable prefetch, the storage system prefetches an amount of data in multples of the size of the host request.
Maximum prefetch limits the number of data blocks that can be prefetched to prevent the disks from being rendered
busy with prefetch at the expense of other I/Os.
Question 131
DRAG DROP
What is the correct sequence of steps in a read-miss operaton with cache?
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Aoswern
Explanatonn
Read Operaton with Cache
Question 132
Consider a storage array with two LUNs that store data for the engineering and marketng departments One LUN is
masked to the engineering department; the second LUN is masked to the marketng department.
What is a beneft of this architecture?
A. Both departments can access all the data

B. Both departments can replicate all the data
C. Data availability and performance is increased
D. Risk to data integrity and security is reduced
Aoswern D
Explanatonn
LUN Masking LUN masking is a process that provides data access control by defning which LUNs a host can access.
The LUN masking functon is implemented on the storage array. This ensures that volume access by hosts is controlled
appropriately, preventng unauthorized or accidental use in a shared environment.
For example, consider a storage array with two LUNs that store data of the sales and fnance departments. Without
LUN masking, both departments can easily see and modify each other’s data, posing a high risk to data integrity and
security. With LUN masking, LUNs are accessible only to the designated hosts.
Question 133
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Which cache management algorithm occurs contnuously, at a modest rate, when the cache utlizaton level is
between the high and low watermark?
A. Forced fushing
B. Idle fushing
C. Vault fushing
D. High watermark fushing
Aoswern B
Explanatonn
Cache Managementn Watermarking As cache flls, the storage system must take acton to fush dirty pages (data
writen into the cache but not yet writen to the disk) to manage space availability. Flushing is the process that
commits data from cache to the disk. On the basis of the I/O access rate and patern, high and low levels called
watermarks are set in cache to manage the fushing process. High watermark (HWM) is the cache utlizaton level at
which the storage system starts high-speed fushing of cache data. Low watermark (LWM) is the point at which the
storage system stops fushing data to the disks. The cache utlizaton level drives the mode of fushing to be usedn
Idle fushingn Occurs contnuously, at a modest rate, when the cache utlizaton level is between the high and low
watermark.
High watermark fushingn Actvated when cache utlizaton hits the high watermark. The storage system dedicates
some additonal resources for fushing. This type of fushing has some impact on I/O processing.
Forced fushingn Occurs in the event of a large I/O burst when cache reaches 100 percent of its capacity, which
signifcantly afects the I/O response tme. In forced fushing, system fushes the cache on priority by allocatng more
resources. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 4n Intelligent Storage System
Question 134
A customer requires a highly scalable SAN environment. Which SAN topology should be recommended?
A. Token ring
B. Full mesh
C. Bridged
D. Core-edge
Aoswern D
Explanatonn
Core-Edge Topology The core-edge fabric topology has two types of switch ters. The edge ter is usually composed of
switches and ofers an inexpensive approach to adding more hosts in a fabric.
Each switch at the edge ter is atached to a switch at the core ter through ISLs. The core ter is usually composed of
directors that ensure high fabric availability. In additon, typically all trafc must either traverse this ter or terminate
at this ter. In this confguraton, all storage devices are connected to the core ter, enabling host-to-storage trafc to
traverse only one
ISL. Hosts that require high performance may be connected directly to the core ter and consequently avoid ISL delays.
In core-edge topology, the edge-ter switches are not connected to each other. The core edge fabric topology
increases connectvity within the SAN while conserving the overall port utlizaton. If fabric expansion is required,
additonal edge switches are connected to the core. The core of the fabric is also extended by adding more switches or
directors at the core ter. Based on the number of core-ter switches, this topology has diferent variatons, such as,
single-core topology and dual-core topology. To transform a single-core topology to dual core, new ISLs are created to
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connect each edge switch to the new core switch in the fabric. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 5n Fibre
Channel Storage Area Network (FC SAN)
Question 135
A customer wants the fexibility to atach any host to any switch port without afectng the zoning confguratons.
Which zoning method(s) should be recommended?
A. Mixed zoning
B. Port zoning
C. Both WWN and port zoning
D. WWN zoning
Aoswern D
Explanatonn
Types of Zoning Zoning can be categorized into three typesn
Port zoningn Uses the physical address of switch ports to defne zones. In port zoning, access to node is determined by
the physical switch port to which a node is connected. The zone members are the port identfer (switch domain ID
and port number) to which HBA and its targets (storage devices) are connected. If a node is moved to another switch
port in the fabric, port zoning must be modifed to allow the node, in its new port, to partcipate in its original zone.
However, if an HBA or storage device port fails, an administrator just has to replace the failed device without changing
the zoning confguraton.
node port to be ted to the WWN of another node. Figure in the slide shows the three types of zoning on an FC
network. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 5n Fibre Channel Storage Area Network (FC SAN)
Question 136
What is a beneft of block-level storage virtualizaton?
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A. Enables users to perform nondisruptve data migratons

B. Enables users to automatcally perform zoning changes
C. Reduces applicaton downtme during backups
D. Enables hosts to perform online path management
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
Block Level Storage Virtualizaton
Block-level storage virtualizaton aggregates block storage devices (LUNs) and enables provisioning of virtual storage
volumes, independent of the underlying physical storage. A virtualizaton layer, which exists at the SAN, abstracts the
identty of physical storage devices and creates a storage pool from heterogeneous storage devices. Virtual volumes
are created from the storage pool and assigned to the hosts. Instead of being directed to the LUNs on the individual
storage arrays, the hosts are directed to the virtual volumes provided by the virtualizaton layer. For hosts and storage
arrays, the virtualizaton layer appears as the target and initator devices, respectvely. The virtualizaton layer maps
the virtual volumes to the LUNs on the individual arrays. The hosts remain unaware of the mapping operaton and
access the virtual volumes as if they were accessing the physical storage atached to them.
Typically, the virtualizaton layer is managed via a dedicated virtualizaton appliance to which the hosts and the
storage arrays are connected.
Figure in the slide illustrates a virtualized environment. It shows two physical servers, each of which has one virtual
volume assigned. These virtual volumes are used by the servers. These virtual volumes are mapped to the LUNs in the
storage arrays. When an I/O is sent to a virtual volume, it is redirected through the virtualizaton layer at the storage
network to the mapped LUNs. Depending on the capabilites of the virtualizaton appliance, the architecture may
allow for more complex mapping between array LUNs and virtual volumes.
Block-level storage virtualizaton enables extending the storage volumes online to meet applicaton growth
requirements. It consolidates heterogeneous storage arrays and enables transparent volume access. Block-level
storage virtualizaton also provides the advantage of nondisruptve data migraton. In a traditonal SAN environment,
LUN migraton from one array to another is an ofine event because the hosts needed to be updated to refect the
new array confguraton.
In other instances, host CPU cycles were required to migrate data from one array to the other, especially in a
multvendor environment. With a block-level virtualizaton soluton in place, the virtualizaton layer handles the back-
end migraton of data, which enables LUNs to remain online and accessible while data is migratng. No physical
changes are required because the host stll points to the same virtual targets on the virtualizaton layer. However, the
mappings informaton on the virtualizaton layer should be changed. These changes can be executed dynamically and
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are transparent to the end user. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 5n Fibre Channel Storage Area
Network (FC SAN)
Question 137
How many Domain IDs are reserved in the fabric in the Fibre Channel address space?
A. 16
B. 17
C. 239
D. 256
Aoswern B
Explanatonn FC Addressing in Switched Fabric The number of RESERVED Domain IDs = 256 - 239 = 17 An FC address is
dynamically assigned when a node port logs on to the fabric. The FC address has a distnct format, as shown in the
slide. The frst feld of the FC address contains the domain ID of the switch. A Domain ID is a unique number provided
to each switch in the fabric.
Although this is an 8-bit feld, there are only 239 available addresses for domain ID because some addresses are
deemed special and reserved for fabric management services. For example, FFFFFC is reserved for the name server,
and FFFFFE is reserved for the fabric login service.
Question 138
In an FC SAN environment, what does a Domain ID represent?
A. Switch port ID
B. Switch ID
C. Switch port card ID
D. WWN of a switch
Aoswern B
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Explanatonn
FC Addressing in Switched Fabric An FC address is dynamically assigned when a node port logs on to the fabric. The FC
address has a distnct format, as shown in the slide. The frst feld of the FC address contains the domain ID of the
switch. A Domain ID is a unique number provided to each switch in the fabric. Although this is an 8-bit feld, there are
only 239 available addresses for domain ID because some addresses are deemed special and reserved for fabric
management services. For example,
FFFFFC is reserved for the name server, and FFFFFE is reserved for the fabric login service.
Question 139
What is a sequence' in a Fibre Channel (FC) data structure?
A. Group of exchanges that are sent to another port to perform certain operatons
B. Contguous set of informaton units that map to a frame header
C. Upper layer protocol-specifc informaton in a FC frame
D. Contguous set of frames that correspond to an informaton unit
Aoswern D
Explanatonn
Structure and Organizaton of FC Data In an FC network, data transport is analogous to a conversaton between two
people, whereby a frame represents a word, a sequence represents a sentence, and an exchange represents a
conversaton.
Exchangen An exchange operaton enables two node ports to identfy and manage a set of informaton units. Each
upper layer protocol has its protocol-specifc informaton that must be sent to another port to perform certain
operatons. This protocol-specifc informaton is called an informaton unit. The structure of these informaton units is
defned in the FC-4 layer. This unit maps to a sequence. An exchange is composed of one or more sequences.
Sequencen A sequence refers to a contguous set of frames that are sent from one port to another. A sequence
corresponds to an informaton unit, as defned by the ULP.
Framen A frame is the fundamental unit of data transfer at Layer 2. An FC frame consists of fve partsn start of frame
(SOF), frame header, data feld, cyclic redundancy check (CRC), and end of frame (EOF). The SOF and EOF act as
delimiters. The frame header is 24 bytes long and contains addressing informaton for the frame. The data feld in an
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FC frame contains the data payload, up to 2,112 bytes of actual data—in most cases, the SCSI data. The CRC checksum
facilitates error detecton for the content of the frame. This checksum verifes data integrity by checking whether the
content of the frames was received correctly. The CRC checksum is calculated by the sender before encoding at the
FC-1 layer. Similarly, it is calculated by the receiver afer decoding at the FC-1 layer. EMC E10-001 Student Resource
Guide. Module 5n Fibre Channel Storage Area Network (FC SAN)
Question 140
How do VSANs work?
A. Restricts communicaton between nodes located within the same VSAN and zone
B. Each VSAN acts as an independent fabric with its own set of fabric services
C. Enables assigning the same WWN and MAC addresses to nodes in diferent VSANs
D. Fabric-related confguratons are uniformly applied to all VSANs
Aoswern B
Explanatonn
Virtual SAN (VSAN) Virtual SAN (also called virtual fabric) is a logical fabric on an FC SAN, which enables
communicaton among a group of nodes regardless of their physical locaton in the fabric. In a VSAN, a group of hosts
or storage ports communicate with each other using a virtual topology defned on the physical SAN. Multple VSANs
may be created on a single physical SAN. Each VSAN acts as an independent fabric with its own set of fabric services,
such as name server, and zoning. Fabric-related confguratons in one VSAN do not afect the trafc in another.
VSANs improve SAN security, scalability, availability, and manageability. VSANs provide enhanced security by isolatng
the sensitve data in a VSAN and by restrictng access to the resources located within that VSAN.
Question 141
Which fabric service provides informaton about other logged in nodes afer receiving a query from a node?
B. Name server
C. Management server
D. Fabric login server
Aoswern B
Explanatonn
Login types in Switched Fabric Fabric services defne three login typesn
Fabric login (FLOGI)n Performed between an NlPort and an FlPort. To log on to the fabric, a node sends a FLOGI frame
with the WWNN and WWPN parameters to the login service at the predefned FC address FFFFFE (Fabric Login
Server). In turn, the switch accepts the login and returns an Accept (ACC) frame with the assigned FC address for the
node. Immediately afer the FLOGI, the NlPort registers itself with the local Name Server on the switch, indicatng its
WWNN, WWPN, port type, class of service, assigned FC address and so on. Afer the NlPort has logged in, it can
query the name server database for informaton about all other logged in ports.
Port login (PLOGI)n Performed between two NlPorts to establish a session. The initator NlPort sends a PLOGI request
frame to the target NlPort, which accepts it. The target NlPort returns an ACC to the initator NlPort. Next, the
NlPorts exchange service parameters relevant to the session.
Process login (PRLI)n Also performed between two NlPorts. This login relates to the FC-4 ULPs, such as SCSI. If the ULP
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is SCSI, NlPorts exchange SCSI-related service parameters. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 5n Fibre
Channel Storage Area Network (FC SAN)
Question 142
What is a characteristc of iSNS?
A. Assigns iSCSI names to the available targets

B. Authentcates iSCSI gateways automatcally
C. Requires manual confguraton and registraton of initators
D. Provides a list of available targets to the initator
Aoswern D
Explanatonn
iSCSI Discovery An initator must discover the locaton of its targets on the network and the names of the targets
available to it before it can establish a session. This discovery can take place in two waysn SendTargets discovery or
internet Storage Name Service (iSNS).
In SendTargets discovery, the initator is manually confgured with the target’s network portal to establish a discovery
session. The initator issues the SendTargets command, and the target network portal responds with the required
parameters of the targets available to the host.
iSNS enables automatc discovery of iSCSI devices on an IP network. The initators and targets can be confgured to
automatcally register themselves with the iSNS server. Whenever an initator wants to know the targets that it can
access, it can query the iSNS server for a list of available
targets. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 6n IP SAN and FCoE
Question 143
Which two protocols leverage IP as a transport mechanism?
A. FCP and FCoCEE

B. iSCSI and FCIP
C. FCIP and FCP
D. iSCSI and FCoE
Aoswern B
Explanatonn
IP SAN Two primary protocols that leverage IP as the transport mechanism are Internet SCSI (iSCSI) and Fibre Channel
over IP (FCIP) EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 6n IP SAN and FCoE
Question 144
What is one way that iSCSI initators can discover their targets?
A. Using a Storage Name Service

B. Using a common Internet fle system
C. Using an Internet Storage Name Service
D. Using a Domain Name Service
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Aoswern C
Explanatonn
iSCSI Discovery An initator must discover the locaton of its targets on the network and the names of the targets
available to it before it can establish a session. This discovery can take place in two waysn SendTargets discovery or
internet Storage Name Service (iSNS). In SendTargets discovery, the initator is manually confgured with the target’s
network portal to establish a discovery session. The initator issues the SendTargets command, and the target network
portal responds with the required parameters of the targets available to the host.
iSNS enables automatc discovery of iSCSI devices on an IP network. The initators and targets can be confgured to
automatcally register themselves with the iSNS server. Whenever an initator wants to know the targets that it can
access, it can query the iSNS server for a list of available targets. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 6n IP
SAN and FCoE
Question 145
An organizaton wants to interconnect their distributed FC SANs for disaster recovery implementatons.
Which protocol is recommended to connect the FC SANs?
A. iSCSI
B. FCoE
C. FCIP
D. infniBand
Aoswern C
Explanatonn
IP SAN Protocoln FCIP FC SAN provides a high-performance infrastructure for localized data movement. Organizatons
are now looking for ways to transport data over a long distance between their disparate SANs at multple geographic
locatons. One of the best ways to achieve this goal is to interconnect geographically dispersed SANs through reliable,
high-speed links. This approach involves transportng the FC block data over the IP infrastructure. FCIP is a tunneling
protocol that enables distributed FC SAN islands to be interconnected over the existng IP-based networks.
FCIP is a protocol in which FCIP entty such as FCIP gateway is used to tunnel FC fabrics through an IP network. In FCIP
FC frames are encapsulated onto the IP payload. An FCIP implementaton is capable to merge interconnected fabrics
into a single fabric. Frequently, only a small subset of nodes at either end requires connectvity across fabrics. Thus,
the majority of FCIP implementatons today use switch-specifc features such as IVR (Inter-VSAN Routng) or FCRS
(Fibre Channel Routng Services) to create a tunnel. In this manner, trafc may be routed between specifc nodes
without actually merging the fabrics.
The FCIP standard has rapidly gained acceptance as a manageable, cost-efectve way to blend the best of the two
worldsn FC SAN and the proven, widely deployed IP infrastructure.
As a result, organizatons now have a beter way to store, protect, and move their data by leveraging investments in
their existng IP infrastructure. FCIP is extensively used in disaster recovery implementatons in which data is
duplicated to the storage located at a remote site. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 6n IP SAN and FCoE
Question 146
What is a functon of the Fibre Channel Forwarder (FCF)?
A. Checks the Ethertype of FC frames

B. Forwards Ethernet frames to an IP network
C. Encapsulates and de-encapsulates FC frames
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D. Forwards FC frames to an IP network
Aoswern C
Explanatonn
FCoE Switch An FCoE switch has both Ethernet switch and Fibre Channel switch functonalites. The FCoE switch has a
Fibre Channel Forwarder (FCF), Ethernet Bridge, and set of Ethernet ports and optonal FC ports. The functon of the
FCF is to encapsulate the FC frames, received from the FC port, into the FCoE frames and also to de-encapsulate the
FCoE frames, received from the Ethernet Bridge, to the FC frames. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 6n
IP SAN and FCoE
Question 147
Which FCoE feature enables consistent confguraton parameters across the network?
A. Enhanced transmission selecton

B. Congeston notfcaton protocol
C. Priority-based fow control
D. Data center bridging exchange protocol
Aoswern D
Explanatonn
Data Center Brdiging Exchange Protocol (DCBX) DCBX protocol is a discovery and capability exchange protocol, which
helps Converged Enhanced Ethernet devices to convey and confgure their features with the other CEE devices in the
network. DCBX is used to negotate capabilites between the switches and the adapters, and it allows the switch to
distribute the confguraton values to all the atached adapters. This helps to ensure consistent confguraton across
the entre network. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 6n IP SAN and FCoE
Question 148
Which functonality enables creatng virtual links on a single physical link and independently pausing a virtual link in
an FCoE environment?

B. Data center bridging exchange
C. Bufer-to-bufer credit
D. Priority-based fow control
Aoswern D
Explanatonn
Priority Based Flow Control
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Traditonal FC manages congeston through the use of a link-level, credit-based fow control that guarantees no loss of
frames. Typical Ethernet, coupled with TCP/IP, uses a packet drop fow control mechanism. The packet drop fow
control is not lossless. This challenge is eliminated by using an IEEE 802.3x Ethernet PAUSE control frame to create a
lossless Ethernet. A receiver can send a PAUSE request to a sender when the receiver’s bufer is flling up. Upon
receiving a PAUSE frame, the sender stops transmitng frames, which guarantees no loss of frames. The downside of
using the Ethernet PAUSE frame is that it operates on the entre link, which might be carrying multple trafc fows.
PFC provides a link level fow control mechanism. PFC creates eight separate virtual links on a single physical link and
allows any of these links to be paused and restarted independently.
PFC enables the pause mechanism based on user priorites or classes of service. Enabling the pause based on priority
allows creatng lossless links for trafc, such as FCoE trafc. This PAUSE mechanism is typically implemented for FCoE
while regular TCP/IP trafc contnues to drop frames. Figure in the slide illustrates how a physical Ethernet link is
divided into eight virtual links and allows a PAUSE for a single virtual link without afectng the trafc for the others.
Question 149
What is a key requirement that drives an organizaton to deploy a NAS soluton?
A. Ability to handle large sequental workloads

B. Disaster recovery among diferent locatons over IP
C. Data sharing between heterogeneous operatng environments
D. Ability to handle large random workloads
Aoswern C
Explanatonn
What is NAS NAS is a dedicated, high-performance fle sharing and storage device. NAS enables its clients to share
fles over an IP network. NAS provides the advantages of server consolidaton by eliminatng the need for multple fle
servers. It also consolidates the storage used by the clients onto a single system, making it easier to manage the
storage. NAS uses network and fle-sharing protocols to provide access to the fle data. These protocols include TCP/IP
for data transfer, and Common Internet File System (CIFS) and Network File System (NFS) for network fle service. NAS
enables both UNIX and Microsof Windows users to share the same data seamlessly. EMC E10-001 Student Resource
Guide. Module 7n Network-Atached Storage (NAS)
Question 150
What is an element of a NAS head?
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A. Control staton
B. Storage controller
C. Data accepted in real tme
D. Optmized operatng system
Aoswern D
Explanatonn
Components of NAS A NAS device has two key componentsn NAS head and storage. In some NAS implementatons,
the storage could be external to the NAS device and shared with other hosts. The NAS head includes the following
componentsn CPU and memory One or more network interface cards (NICs), which provide connectvity to the client
network. Examples of network protocols supported by NIC include Gigabit Ethernet, Fast Ethernet, ATM, and Fiber
Distributed Data Interface (FDDI) An optmized operatng system for managing the NAS functonality. It translates fle
level requests into block-storage requests and further converts the data supplied at the block level to fle data NFS,
CIFS, and other protocols for fle sharing Industry-standard storage protocols and ports to connect and manage
physical disk resources The NAS environment includes clients accessing a NAS device over an IP network using fle
sharing protocols.
Question 151
Which NAS implementaton creates a single fle system that runs on all NAS nodes in a cluster?
A. Unifed and gateway

B. Scale-out
C. Gateway
D. Unifed
Aoswern B
Explanatonn
Scale-Out NAS The scale-out NAS implementaton pools multple nodes together in a cluster. A node may consist of
either the NAS head or storage or both. The cluster performs the NAS operaton as a single entty.
Question 152
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Which feature(s) ensures that the stored content has NOT been altered in a CAS system?
A. Single instance storage

B. Content integrity
C. Content mirroring and parity protecton
D. Locaton independence
Aoswern B
Explanatonn
Key features of CAS CAS provides all the features required for storing fxed content. The key features of CAS are as
followsn
• Content authentcityn It assures the genuineness of stored content. This is achieved by generatng a unique content
address for each object and validatng the content address for stored objects at regular intervals. Content authentcity
is assured because the address assigned to each object is as unique as a fngerprint. Every tme an object is read, CAS
uses a hashing algorithm to recalculate the object’s content address as a validaton step and compares the result to its
original content address. If the object fails validaton, CAS rebuilds the object using a mirror or parity protecton
scheme.
Content integrityn It provides assurance that the stored content has not been altered. CAS uses a hashing algorithm
for content authentcity and integrity. If the fxed content is altered, CAS generates a new address for the altered
content, rather than overwrite the original fxed content.
Locaton independencen CAS uses a unique content address, rather than directory path names or URLs, to retrieve
data. This makes the physical locaton of the stored data irrelevant to the applicaton that requests the data.
Single-instance storage (SIS)n CAS uses a unique content address to guarantee the storage of only a single instance of
an object. When a new object is writen, the CAS system is polled to see whether an object is already available with
the same content address. If the object is available in the system, it is not stored; instead, only a pointer to that object
is created.
Retenton enforcementn Protectng and retaining objects is a core requirement of an archive storage system. Afer an
object is stored in the CAS system and the retenton policy is defned, CAS does not make the object available for
deleton untl the policy expires.
• Data protectonn CAS ensures that the content stored on the CAS system is available even if a disk or a node fails.
CAS provides both local and remote protecton to the data objects stored on it. In the local protecton opton, data
objects are either mirrored or parity protected. In mirror protecton, two copies of the data object are stored on two
diferent nodes in the same cluster. This decreases the total available capacity by 50 percent. In parity protecton, the
data object is split in multple parts and parity is generated from them. Each part of the data and its parity are stored
on a diferent node. This method consumes less capacity to protect the stored data, but takes slightly longer to
regenerate the data if corrupton of data occurs. In the remote replicaton opton, data objects are copied to a
secondary CAS at the remote locaton. In this case, the objects remain accessible from the secondary CAS if the
primary CAS system fails.
Fast record retrievaln CAS stores all objects on disks, which provides faster access to the objects compared to tapes
and optcal discs.
Load balancingn CAS distributes objects across multple nodes to provide maximum throughput and availability.
Scalabilityn CAS allows the additon of more nodes to the cluster without any interrupton to data access and with
minimum administratve overhead.
Event notfcatonn CAS contnuously monitors the state of the system and raises an alert for any event that requires
the administrator’s atenton. The event notfcaton is communicated to the administrator through SNMP, SMTP, or e-
mail.
Self diagnosis and repairn CAS automatcally detects and repairs corrupted objects and alerts the administrator about
the potental problem. CAS systems can be confgured to alert remote support teams who can diagnose and repair the
system remotely.
Audit trailsn CAS keeps track of management actvites and any access or dispositon of data. Audit trails are mandated
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by compliance requirements. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 8n Object-based and Unifed Storage
Question 153
What is a role of the metadata service in object-based storage?
A. Stores both objects and object IDs

B. Maps object IDs to the fle system namespace
C. Manages a set of disks on which the user data is stored
D. Stores data in the form of objects
Aoswern B
Explanatonn
Key components of Object-based Storage Device
The OSD system is typically composed of three key componentsn nodes, private network, and storage.
The OSD system is composed of one or more nodes. A node is a server that runs the OSD operatng environment and
provides services to store, retrieve, and manage data in the system. The OSD node has two key servicesn metadata
service and storage service. The metadata service is responsible for generatng the object ID from the contents (may
also include other atributes of data) of a fle. It also maintains the mapping of the object IDs and the fle system
namespace. The storage service manages a set of disks on which the user data is stored. The OSD nodes connect to
the storage via an internal network. The internal network provides node-to-node connectvity and node-to-storage
connectvity. The applicaton server accesses the node to store and retrieve data over an external network. In some
implementatons, such as CAS, the metadata service might reside on the applicaton server or on a separate server.
OSD typically uses low-cost and high-density disk drives to store the objects. As more capacity is required, more disk
drives can be added to the system EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 8n Object-based and Unifed
Storage
Question 154
What is a characteristc of EMC Atmos?
A. Consolidates block, fle, and object accesses in one soluton

B. Supports storage multtenancy
C. Provides compute, storage, network, and virtualizaton products in one soluton
D. Provides source-based deduplicaton
Aoswern B
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Explanatonn
EMC Atmos EMC Atmos supports object-based storage for unstructured data, such as pictures and videos. Atmos
combines massive scalability with specialized intelligence to address the cost, distributon, and management
challenges associated with vast amounts of unstructured data.
Atmos can be deployed in two waysn as a purpose-built hardware appliance or as sofware in VMware environments,
where Atmos VE can leverage the existng servers and storage. The hardware appliance is comprised of servers
(nodes) connected to standard disk enclosures.
The rack includes a 24-port Gigabit Ethernet switch to provide internode communicaton. The Atmos sofware is
installed on each node.
Atmos VE enables users to exploit the power of Atmos in a virtualized environment. It can be deployed on a virtual
machine in VMware ESXi hosts and confgured with the VMware certfed back-end storage.
Following are the key features ofered by EMC Atmosn
• Policy-based managementn EMC Atmos improves operatonal efciency by automatcally distributng content based
on business policy. The administrator-defned policies dictate how, when, and where the informaton resides.
• Protectonn Atmos ofers two optons to protect the objects, replicaton and Geo Parityn Replicaton ensures that the
content is available and accessible by creatng redundant copies of an object at multple designated locatons. Geo
Parity ensures that the content is available and accessible by dividing objects into multple segments plus parity
segments and distributng them to one or more designated locatons.
Data servicesn EMC Atmos includes the data services, such as, compression, and deduplicaton. These features are
natve to Atmos and can be managed and accessed via a policy.
Web services and legacy protocolsn EMC Atmos provides fexible web services access (REST/SOAP) for web-scale
applicatons and fle access (CIFS/NFS/Installable File System/Centera API) for traditonal applicatons.
Automated system managementn EMC Atmos provides auto-confguring, auto-managing, and auto-healing
capabilites to reduce administraton and downtme.
Multtenancyn EMC Atmos enables multple applicatons to be served from the same infrastructure. Each applicaton
is securely parttoned and cannot access the other applicaton’s data. Multtenancy is ideal for service providers or
large enterprises that want to provide cloud computng services to multple customers or departments allowing
logical and secure separaton within a single infrastructure.
Flexible administratonn EMC Atmos can be managed via a graphical user interface (GUI) or command line interface
(CLI). EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 8n Object-based and Unifed Storage
Question 155
What is an accurate statement if the recovery tme objectve (RTO) of an applicaton is 4 hours?
A. No more than 4 hours of producton data can be lost

B. Producton must be resumed within 4 hours afer a failure
C. Mean tme to repair the applicaton is at least 4 hours
D. Mean tme between applicaton failure is 4 hours
Aoswern B
Explanatonn
BC Terminologies Recovery-Point Objectve (RPO)n This is the point-in-tme to which systems and data must be
recovered afer an outage. It defnes the amount of data loss that a business can endure. Based on the RPO,
organizatons plan for the frequency with which a backup or replica must be made. An organizaton can plan for an
appropriate BC technology soluton on the basis of the RPO it sets.
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Recovery-Time Objectve (RTO)n The tme within which systems and applicatons must be recovered afer an outage. It
defnes the amount of downtme that a business can endure and survive EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide.
Module 9n Introducton to Business Contnuity
Question 156
When reviewing the disaster recovery plan for two data centers, you fnd thatn
-The copy of data at remote Site B will lag behind the producton data at Site A by 5 minutes -It will take 2 hours afer
an outage at Site A to shif producton to Site B. -Three more hours will be needed to power up the servers, bring up
the network, and redirect
users to Site B.
What is the recovery point objectve (RPO) of this plan?
A. 5 minutes
B. 2 hours
C. 5 hours
D. 5 hours 5 minutes
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
BC Terminologies
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Recovery-Point Objectve (RPO)n This is the point-in-tme to which systems and data must be recovered afer an
outage. It defnes the amount of data loss that a business can endure. Based on the RPO, organizatons plan for the
frequency with which a backup or replica must be made. An organizaton can plan for an appropriate BC technology
soluton on the basis of the RPO it sets.
RPO of 24 hoursn Backups are created at an ofsite tape library every midnight. The corresponding recovery strategy is
to restore data from the set of last backup tapes.
RPO of 1 hourn Shipping database logs to the remote site every hour. The corresponding recovery strategy is to
recover the database to the point of the last log shipment.
RPO in the order of minutesn Mirroring data asynchronously to a remote site.
RPO of zeron Mirroring data synchronously to a remote site. Recovery-Time Objectve (RTO)n The tme within which
syste Recovery-Time Objectve (RTO)n The tme within which systems and applicatons must be recovered afer an
outage. It defnes the amount of downtme that a business can endure and survive.
EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 9n Introducton to Business Contnuity
Question 157
Which factor is a measurement of system reliability?
A. Recovery point objectve

B. Mean tme between failures
C. Mean tme to repair
D. Recovery tme objectve
Aoswern B
Explanatonn
Measuring Informaton Availability Informaton availability relies on the availability of both physical and virtual
components of a data center. Failure of these components might disrupt informaton availability. A failure is the
terminaton of a component’s ability to perform a required functon. The component’s ability can be restored by
performing an external correctve actons, such as a manual reboot, a repair, or replacement of the failed
component(s). Proactve risk analysis, performed as part of the BC planning process, considers the component failure
rate and average repair tme, which are measured by MTBF and MTTRn
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Mean Time Between Failure (MTBF)n It is the average tme available for a system or component to
perform its normal operatons between failures. It is the measure of system or component reliability and is usually
expressed in hours.
Mean Time To Repair (MTTR)n It is the average tme required to repair a failed component. MTTR includes the total
tme required to do the following actvitesn detect the fault, mobilize the maintenance team, diagnose the fault,
obtain the spare parts, repair, test, and restore the data. MTTR is calculated asn Total downtme/Number of failures IA
can be expressed in terms of system uptme and downtme and measured as the amount or percentage of system
uptmen IA = system uptme / (system uptme + system downtme) Where system uptme is the period of tme during
which the system is in an accessible state; when it is not accessible, it is termed as system downtme. In terms of
MTBF and MTTR, IA could also be expressed asn IA = MTBF / (MTBF + MTTR)
Question 158
What is required for a successful backup of all fles during a hot backup?
A. Remote vault
B. Multstreaming
C. Open fle agent
D. Virus scan sofware
Aoswern C
Explanatonn
Backup Methods Hot backup and cold backup are the two methods deployed for backup. They are based on the state
of the applicaton when the backup is performed. In a hot backup, the applicaton is up-andrunning, with users
accessing their data during the backup process. This method of backup is also referred to as online backup. A cold
backup requires the applicaton to be shutdown during the backup process. Hence, this method is also referred to as
ofine backup.
The hot backup of online producton data is challenging because data is actvely being used and changed. If a fle is
open, it is normally not backed up during the backup process. In such situatons, an open fle agent is required to back
up the open fle. These agents interact directly with the operatng system or applicaton and enable the creaton of
consistent copies of open fles. The disadvantage associated with a hot backup is that the agents usually afect the
overall applicaton performance. Consistent backups of databases can also be done by using a cold backup. This
requires the database to remain inactve during the backup. Of course, the disadvantage of a cold backup is that the
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database is inaccessible to users during the backup process. All the fles must be backed up in the same state for
consistent backup of a database that comprises many fles EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 9n
Introducton to Business Contnuity
Question 159
Which component of a backup system is responsible for maintaining confguraton informaton and backup metadata?
A. Storage node
B. Media server
C. Backup server
D. Backup client
Aoswern C
Explanatonn
Backup Architecture
A backup system commonly uses the client-server architecture with a backup server and multple backup clients.
Figure on the slide illustrates the backup architecture. The backup server manages the backup operatons and
maintains the backup catalog, which contains informaton about the backup confguraton and backup metadata.
Backup confguraton contains informaton about when to run backups, which client data to be backed up, and so on,
and the backup metadata contains informaton about the backed up data. The role of a backup client is to gather the
data that is to be backed up and send it to the storage node. It also sends the tracking informaton to the backup
server.
The storage node is responsible for writng the data, to the backup device. In a backup environment, a storage node is
a host that controls backup devices. The storage node also sends tracking informaton to the backup server. In many
cases, the storage node is integrated with the backup server, and both are hosted on the same physical platorm. A
backup device is atached directly or through a network to the storage node’s host platorm.
Some backup architecture refers the storage node as the media server because it manages the storage device. EMC
E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 9n Introducton to Business Contnuity
Question 160
Which NAS backup environment uses a NAS head to retrieve data from storage over a SAN and then sends the data
directly to the backup device?
A. Serverless
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B. NDMP three-way
C. NDMP two-way
D. Server-based
Aoswern C
Explanatonn
NDMP 2-Way NDMP is an industry-standard TCP/IP-based protocol specifcally designed for a backup in a NAS
environment. It communicates with several elements in the backup environment (NAS head, backup devices, backup
server, and so on) for data transfer and enables vendors to use a common protocol for the backup architecture. Data
can be backed up using NDMP regardless of the operatng system or platorm. Due to its fexibility, it is no longer
necessary to transport data through the applicaton server, which reduces the load on the applicaton server and
improves the backup speed. NDMP optmizes backup and restore by leveraging the high-speed connecton between
the backup devices and the NAS head. In NDMP, backup data is sent directly from the NAS head to the backup device,
whereas metadata is sent to the backup server.
Figure on the slide illustrates backup in the NAS environment using NDMP 2 -way. In this model, network trafc is
minimized by isolatng data movement from the NAS head to the locally atached backup device. Only metadata is
transported on the network. The backup device is dedicated to the NAS device, and hence, this method does not
support centralized management of all backup devices. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 9n Introducton
to Business Contnuity
Question 161
What is a beneft of source-based deduplicaton over target-based deduplicaton?
A. Backup processing is ofoaded from the backup client

B. Less backup data is stored on the backup server
C. Backup data can be retained longer
D. Only unique data is sent over the network to be backed up
Aoswern D
Question 162
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What is a characteristc of target-based inline deduplicaton?
A. Deduplicaton processing occurs on the client before backup data is sent to the backup device
B. Backup data is stored on the backup device and then deduplicaton is performed
C. Changes must be made in the backup sofware to implement deduplicaton D. Deduplicaton processing occurs at
the backup device before it is stored on the backup device
Aoswern D
Question 163
In a copy on frst access (CoFA) technique, when is data copied from the source to the target?
A. All writes are issued to a locaton on the source

B. All writes are issued to a locaton on the target
C. A read or write is issued for the frst tme to a locaton on the target
D. A read is issued for the frst tme from a locaton on the source
Aoswern C
Question 164
A customer wants 24x7 availability for a business applicaton that uses a fle system. Which operaton ensures a
consistent replica of the fle system?
A. Unmount the fle system prior to the creaton of the replica

B. Stop the applicaton prior to the creaton of the replica
C. Flush the fle system bufers afer creaton of the replica
D. Flush the fle system bufers before creaton of the replica
Aoswern D
Question 165
An applicaton uses ten, 15 GB devices. A pointer-based full volume replica of the applicaton is required. The replica
will be kept for 24 hours and the data changes by 10% every 24 hours.
How much storage should be allocated for the replicaton?
A. 15 GB
B. 30 GB
C. 150 GB
D. 300 GB
Aoswern C
Question 166
In a virtualized environment, which method enables a virtual machine to be rolled back in case of a logical corrupton
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to the virtual machine?
A. Virtual volume replicaton

B. VM snapshot
C. Storage array volume replicaton
D. VM clone
Aoswern B
Question 167
Which EMC product is a VNX array-based local replicaton sofware that creates a full volume mirror of the source?
A. SnapView Snapshot
B. SnapView Clone
C. TimeFinder/Snap
D. TimeFinder/Clone
Aoswern B
Question 168
What should be considered when determining the recovery point objectve (RPO) in a log shipping remote
replicaton?
A. Frequency of log switching

B. Size of the source database
C. Size of the standby database
D. Frequency of reading the database
Aoswern A
Question 169
What must be done before LVM-based replicaton can take place between a source and remote volume?
A. Ensure arrays at the target are the same type as the source
B. Perform an inital synchronizaton
C. Suspend network links between the source and the target
D. Install the journal volume
Aoswern B
Question 170
Which migraton technique moves the actve state of a virtual machine (VM) without powering of the VM?
A. Push and pull

B. VM snapshot
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C. Array-to-array
D. Hypervisor-to-hypervisor
Aoswern D
Question 171
What describes the state of the remote device during the data migraton process?
A. Host access to the remote device is allowed

B. Data is mirrored before writen to the remote device
C. Host access to the remote device is not allowed
D. Data is momentarily paused before writen to the remote device
Aoswern C
Question 172
What describes a community cloud model?
A. Cloud services are made available to the social community at no cost

B. Cloud infrastructure is operated solely for an organizaton
C. Cloud infrastructure is shared by organizatons with shared concerns
D. Organizatons consume resources from two or more clouds
Aoswern C
Question 173
In which cloud service model does the consumer have control over deployed applicatons but NOT over databases and
operatng systems?
A. IaaS
B. AaaS
C. PaaS
D. SaaS
Aoswern C
Explanatonn
Platorm-as-a-Service The capability provided to the consumer is to deploy onto the cloud infrastructure consumer-
created or acquired applicatons created using programming languages, libraries, services, and tools supported by the
provider. The consumer does not manage or control the underlying cloud infrastructure including network, servers,
operatng systems, or storage, but has control over the deployed applicatons and possibly confguraton setngs for
the applicaton-hostng environment.
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PaaS is also used as an applicaton development environment, ofered as a service by the cloud service provider. The
consumer may use these platorms to code their applicatons and then deploy the applicatons on the cloud. Because
the workload to the deployed applicatons varies, the scalability of computng resources is usually guaranteed by the
computng platorm, transparently. Google App Engine and Microsof Windows Azure Platorm are examples of PaaS.
Question 174
What is an example of an SaaS ofering?
A. Microsof Azure
B. Google App Engine
C. EMC Mozy
D. Amazon Elastc Compute Cloud
Aoswern C
Explanatonn
Sofware-as-a-Service
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The capability provided to the consumer is to use the provider’s applicatons running on a cloud infrastructure. The
applicatons are accessible from various client devices through either a thin client interface, such as a web browser
(example, web-based e-mail), or a program interface. The consumer does not manage or control the underlying cloud
infrastructure including network, servers, operatng systems, storage, or even individual applicaton capabilites, with
the possible excepton of limited user-specifc applicaton confguraton setngs.
In a SaaS model, applicatons, such as Customer Relatonship Management (CRM), e-mail, and Instant Messaging
(IM), are ofered as a service by the cloud service providers. The cloud service providers exclusively manage the
required computng infrastructure and sofware to support these services. The consumers may be allowed to change a
few applicaton confguraton setngs to customize the applicatons.
EMC Mozy is an example of Sofware-as-a-Service. Consumers can leverage the Mozy console to perform automatc,
secured, online backup and recovery of their data with ease.
Salesforce.com is a provider of SaaS-based CRM applicatons, such as Sales Cloud and Service Cloud.
Question 175
A careful analysis of fnancial benefts provides a clear picture about the cost savings in cloud adopton.
Which two factors should the analysis compare?
A. ROI and CAPEX

B. CAPEX and OPEX
C. TCO and SLA
D. TCO and ROI
Aoswern D
Explanatonn
Financial Advantage A careful analysis of fnancial benefts provides a clear picture about the cost-savings in adoptng
the cloud. The analysis should compare both the Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) and the Return on Investment (ROI) in
the cloud and non cloud environment and identfy the potental cost beneft. While calculatng TCO and ROI,
organizatons and individuals should consider the expenditure to deploy and maintain their own infrastructure versus
cloud adopton costs. While calculatng the expenditures for owning infrastructure resources, organizatons should
include both the capital expenditure (CAPEX) and operaton expenditure (OPEX). The CAPEX includes the cost of
servers, storage, OS, applicaton, network equipment, real estate, and so on. The OPEX includes the cost incurred for
power and cooling, personnel, maintenance, backup, and so on. These expenditures should be compared with the
operaton cost incurred in adoptng cloud computng. The cloud adopton cost includes the cost of migratng to the
cloud, cost to ensure compliance and security, and usage or subscripton fees. Moving applicatons to the cloud
reduces CAPEX, except when the cloud is built on-premise. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 13n Cloud
Computng
Question 176
What is a challenge to consumers in adoptng a public cloud?
A. High CAPEX
B. Delayed resource scaling
C. Management overhead
D. Vendor lock-in
Aoswern D
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Explanatonn
Cloud Challenges - Consumers' Perspectve Business critcal data requires protecton and contnuous monitoring of its
access. If the data moves to a cloud model other than an on-premise private cloud, consumers could lose absolute
control of their sensitve data. Although most of the cloud service providers ofer enhanced data security, consumers
might not be willing to transfer control of their businesscritcal data to the cloud.
Cloud service providers might use multple data centers located in diferent countries to provide cloud services. They
might replicate or move data across these data centers to ensure high availability and load distributon. Consumers
may or may not know in which country their data is stored. Some cloud service providers allow consumers to select
the locaton for storing their data. Data privacy concerns and regulatory compliance requirements, such as the EU
Data Protecton Directve and the U.S. Safe Harbor program, create challenges for the consumers in adoptng cloud
computng.
Cloud services can be accessed from anywhere via a network. However, network latency increases when the cloud
infrastructure is not close to the access point. A high network latency can either increase the applicaton response
tme or cause the applicaton to tmeout. This can be addressed by implementng stringent Service Level Agreements
(SLAs) with the cloud service providers.
Another challenge is cloud platorm services may not support consumer’s desired applicatons. For example, service
provider might not be able to support highly specialized or proprietary environments, such as compatble OSs and
preferred programming languages, required to develop and run the consumer’s applicaton. Also a mismatch
between hypervisors could impact migraton of virtual machines into or between clouds. Another challenge is vendor
lock-inn the difculty for consumers to change their cloud service provider. A lack of interoperability between the APIs
of diferent cloud service providers could also create complexity and high migraton costs when moving from one
service provider to another. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 13n Cloud Computng
Question 177
What are the three primary goals of informaton security?
A. Authentcity, repudiaton, and accountability

B. Availability, confdentality, and integrity
C. Authentcity, confdentality, and accountability
D. Availability, authentcity, and confdentality
Aoswern B
Explanatonn
Informaton Security Framework The basic informaton security framework is built to achieve four security goals,
confdentality, integrity, and availability (CIA) along with accountability. This framework incorporates all security
standards, procedures and controls, required to mitgate threats in the storage infrastructure environment.
Confdentalityn Provides the required secrecy of informaton and ensures that only authorized users have access to
data. This requires authentcaton of users who need to access informaton. Data in transit (data transmited over
cables) and data at rest (data residing on a primary storage, backup media, or in the archives) can be encrypted to
maintain its confdentality. In additon to restrictng unauthorized users from accessing informaton, confdentality
also requires to implement trafc fow protecton measures as part of the security protocol. These protecton
measures generally include hiding source and destnaton addresses, frequency of data being sent, and amount of
data sent.
Integrityn Ensures that the informaton is unaltered. Ensuring integrity requires detecton and protecton against
unauthorized alteraton or deleton of informaton. Ensuring integrity stpulate measures such as error detecton and
correcton for both data and systems.
Availabilityn This ensures that authorized users have reliable and tmely access to systems, data and applicatons
residing on these systems. Availability requires protecton against unauthorized deleton of data and denial of service.
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Availability also implies that sufcient resources are available to provide a service. Accountabilityn Refers to
accountng for all the events and operatons that take place in the data center infrastructure. The accountability
service maintains a log of events that can be audited or traced later for the purpose of security. EMC E10-001 Student
Resource Guide. Module 14n Securing the Storage Infrastructure
Question 178
How can an organizaton reduce vulnerabilites in their environment?
A. Minimize the atack surface and maximize the work factor

B. Maximize the atack surface and minimize the work factor
C. Minimize both the atack surface and work factor
D. Maximize both the atack surface and work factor
Aoswern A
Explanatonn
Vulnerabilites The paths that provide access to informaton are vulnerable to potental atacks. Each of the paths may
contain various access points, which provide diferent levels of access to the storage resources. It is important to
implement adequate security controls at all the access points on an access path. Implementng security controls at
each access point of every access path is known as defense in depth. Defense in depth recommends using multple
security measures to reduce the risk of security threats if one component of the protecton is compromised. It is also
known as a “layered approach to security”. Because there are multple measures for security at diferent levels and
defense in depth gives additonal tme to detect and respond to an atack. This can reduce the scope or impact of a
security breach.
Atack surface, atack vector, and work factor are the three factors to consider when assessing the extent to which an
environment is vulnerable to security threats. Atack surface refers to the various entry points that an atacker can use
to launch an atack. Each component of a storage network is a source of potental vulnerability. An atacker can use all
the external interfaces supported by that component, such as the hardware and the management interfaces, to
execute various atacks. These interfaces form the atack surface for the atacker. Even unused network services, if
enabled, can become a part of the atack surface.
An atack vector is a step or a series of steps necessary to complete an atack. For example, an atacker might exploit a
bug in the management interface to execute a snoop atack whereby the atacker can modify the confguraton of the
storage device to allow the trafc to be accessed from one more host. This redirected trafc can be used to snoop the
data in transit. Work factor refers to the amount of tme and efort required to exploit an atack vector. For example, if
atackers atempt to retrieve sensitve informaton, they consider the tme and efort that would be required for
executng an atack on a database. This may include determining privileged accounts, determining the database
schema, and writng SQL queries. Instead, based on the work factor, they may consider a less efort-intensive way to
exploit the storage array by ataching to it directly and reading from the raw disk blocks.
Question 179
What is an example of correctve control?
A. Deploying role-based access control to manage permissions

B. Running an antvirus program afer denial of service
C. Setng up user accounts and passwords to control unauthorized access
D. Encryptng the data in-fight and data-at-rest
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Aoswern B
Explanatonn
Security Controlsn Classifcaton Based on the roles they play, controls are categorized as preventve, detectve, and
correctve. The preventve control atempts to prevent an atack; the detectve control detects whether an atack is in
progress; and afer an atack is discovered, the correctve controls are implemented. Preventve controls avert the
vulnerabilites from being exploited and prevent an atack or reduce its impact. Correctve controls reduce the efect
of an atack, whereas detectve controls discover atacks and trigger preventve or correctve controls. For example,
an Intrusion ejecton/Intrusion Preventon System (IDS/IPS) is a detectve control that determines whether an atack is
underway and then atempts to stop it by terminatng a network connecton or invoking a frewall rule to block trafc.
Question 180
What is recommended for a SAN security architecture?
A. Single hierarchical soluton for security

B. Multple integrated layers of security
C. Multple isolated solutons for security
D. Multple isolated layers of security
Aoswern B
Explanatonn
SAN Security Architecturen Defense in Depth Storage networking environments are a potental target for unauthorized
access, thef, and misuse because of the vastness and complexity of these environments. Therefore, security
strategies are based on the defense in depth concept, which recommends multple integrated layers of security. This
ensures that the failure of one security control will not compromise the assets under protecton. EMC E10-001
Student Resource Guide. Module 14n Securing the Storage Infrastructure
Question 181
Which security feature is available in a Microsof Windows fle sharing environment using Network Atached Storage?
A. Windows Security Identfer (SID)

B. Discretonary Access Control Lists (DACL)
C. Operatng System Control Lists (OSCL)
D. Global Unique Identfer (GUID)
Aoswern B
Explanatonn
NAS File Sharingn Windows ACLs Windows supports two types of ACLsn discretonary access control lists (DACLs) and
system access control lists (SACLs). The DACL, commonly referred to as the ACL, that determines access control. The
SACL determines what accesses need to be audited if auditng is enabled.
In additon to these ACLs, Windows also supports the concept of object ownership. The owner of an object has hard-
coded rights to that object, and these rights do not need to be explicitly granted in the SACL. The owner, SACL, and
DACL are all statcally held as atributes of each object. Windows also ofers the functonality to inherit permissions,
which allows the child objects existng within a parent object to automatcally inherit the ACLs of the parent object.
ACLs are also applied to directory objects known as security identfers (SIDs). These are automatcally generated by a
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Windows server or domain when a user or group is created, and they are abstracted from the user. In this way, though
a user may identfy his login ID as “User1,” it is simply a textual representaton of the true SID, which is used by the
underlying operatng system. Internal processes in Windows refer to an account's SID rather than the account's
username or group name while grantng access to an object. ACLs are set by using the standard Windows Explorer
GUI but can also be confgured with CLI commands or other third-party tools. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide.
Module 14n Securing the Storage Infrastructure
Question 182
In a NAS environment, what is a role of the Kerberos protocol?
A. Contain ACLs that specify access rights for fles/folders

B. Authentcate clients using the CHAP protocol
C. Allow clients to prove their identty to the servers
D. Set up a virtual private network connecton
Aoswern C
Explanatonn
Kerberos - Network Authentcaton Protocol Kerberos is a network authentcaton protocol, which is designed to
provide strong authentcaton for client/server applicatons by using secret-key cryptography. It uses cryptography so
that a client and server can prove their identty to each other across an insecure network connecton. Afer the client
and server have proven their identtes, they can choose to encrypt all their communicatons to ensure privacy and
data integrity. In Kerberos, authentcatons occur between clients and servers. The client gets a tcket for a service and
the server decrypts this tcket by using its secret key. Any entty, user, or host that gets a service tcket for a Kerberos
service is called a Kerberos client. The term Kerberos server generally refers to the Key Distributon Center (KDC). The
KDC implements the Authentcaton Service (AS) and the Ticket Grantng Service (TGS). The KDC has a copy of every
password associated with every principal, so it is absolutely vital that the KDC remain secure. In Kerberos, users and
servers for which a secret key is stored in the KDC database are known as principals. EMC E10-001 Student Resource
Guide. Module 14n Securing the Storage Infrastructure
Question 183
What is included as part of SAN accessibility monitoring?
A. Fan-in/Fan out rato

B. Port status change
C. ISL utlizaton
D. Disk status
Aoswern B
Explanatonn
Monitoring Networkn Accessibility Storage networks need to be monitored to ensure proper communicaton between
the server and the storage array. Uninterrupted access to data over the storage network depends on the accessibility
of the physical and logical components in the storage network. The physical components of a storage network include
switches, ports, cables, and power supplies. The logical components include constructs, such as zones. Any failure in
the physical or logical components causes data unavailability. For example, errors in zoning, such as specifying the
wrong WWN of a port, result in failure to access that port, which potentally prevents access from a host to its
storage. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 14n Securing the Storage Infrastructure
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Question 184
Which EMC product enables confguraton of Vblock resources and the actvaton of cloud services?
A. Unisphere Manager
B. Vblock Manager
C. ControlCenter
D. Unifed Infrastructure Manager
Aoswern D
Explanatonn
VBlock
Vblock is completely integrated cloud infrastructure ofering that includes compute, storage, network, and
virtualizaton products. These products are provided by EMC, VMware, and Cisco, who have formed a coaliton to
deliver Vblocks.
Vblocks enables organizatons to build virtualized data centers and cloud infrastructures.
Vblocks are pre-architected, preconfgured, pretested and have defned performance and availability atributes.
Rather than customers buying and assembling individual cloud infrastructure components, Vblock provides a
validated cloud infrastructure soluton and is factory-ready for deployment and producton. This saves signifcant cost
and deployment tme.
EMC Unifed Infrastructure Manager (UIM) is the unifed management soluton for Vblocks. UIM provides a single
point of management for Vblocks and manages multple Vblocks. With UIM, cloud infrastructure services can be
provisioned automatcally and based on provisioning best practces. EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module
13n Cloud Computng
Question 185
What is an example of an availability management task?
A. Confguring LUN masking

B. Enforcing capacity quotas for users
C. Installing multpathing sofware
D. Auditng of event logs
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Aoswern C
Explanatonn
Availability Management A critcal task in availability management is establishing a proper guideline based on defned
service levels to ensure availability. Availability management involves all availability-related issues for components or
services to ensure that service levels are met. A key actvity in availability management is to provision redundancy at
all levels, including components, data, or even site levels. For example, when a server is deployed to support a critcal
business functon, it requires high availability. This is generally accomplished by deploying two or more HBAs,
multpathing sofware, and server clustering. The server must be connected to the storage array using at least two
independent fabrics and switches that have built-in redundancy. Provision RAID-protected LUNs to the server using at
least two front-end ports.
In additon, the storage arrays should have built-in redundancy for various components and should support local and
remote replicaton.
Question 186
Data is being replicated from site A to site B using disk bufering to create extended distance consistent point in tme
copies every hour. In the event of a site failure at A, what is the maximum amount of data that will be missing at site
B?
A. 1 hour
B. 2 hours
C. 3 hours
D. 4 hours
Aoswern B
Question 187
What is a remote replicaton soluton for EMC CLARiiON storage systems?
A. Mirror View/A
B. Snap View
C. SRDF/AR
D. TimeFinder
Aoswern A
Question 188
Which represents a common implementaton of a storage network with limited scalability?
A. CSMA/CD
B. Fibre Channel Arbitrated Loop
C. Store and Forward
D. Switched Fabric
Aoswern B
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Question 189
What is the process that writes physical address informaton to a disk?
A. Concatenatng
B. Formatng
C. Parttoning
D. Striping
Aoswern B
Question 190
The Recovery Point Objectve (RPO) of a company is 4 hours. Which statement is true in the event of a disaster?
A. Must be able to restart their network within 4 hours

B. Must be able to restart their servers within 4 hours
C. Must be able to resume producton within 4 hours
D. No more than 4 hours of producton data can be lost
Aoswern D
Question 191
What are the physical ports that interconnect two FC switches referred to as?
A. ElPorts
B. FlPorts
C. GlPorts
D. NlPorts
Aoswern A
Question 192
In which management task would you collect and analyze ISL trafc metrics?
A. Availability
B. Health
C. Performance
D. Security
Aoswern C
Question 193
When is data copied from the source to the save locaton in pointer based replica technology?
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A. All writes to a locaton on the source

B. All writes to a locaton on the target
C. First read from a locaton on the target
D. First write to a locaton on the source
Aoswern D
Question 194
Which statement describes the iSCSI protocol?
A. ATA over SCSI

B. IP over SCSI
C. SCSI over ATA
D. SCSI over IP
Aoswern D
Question 195
What is a concern of NAS management?
A. Confguring the system to meet applicaton performance requirements

B. Confguring the system to meet limited interconnectvity optons
C. Managing the system to integrate multple block level access ports to the NAS devices
D. Managing the system to prevent multple client access to visible volumes
Aoswern A
Question 196
You must create a chargeback system for cost recovery in the IT department. Which actvity supports this goal?
A. Capacity planning
B. Monitoring
C. Provisioning
D. Reportng
Aoswern D
Question 197
What is a logical component of a storage environment?
A. Bus
B. Disk
C. Filesystem
D. Memory
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Aoswern C
Question 198
Which aspect of monitoring will allow you to prevent a fle system from running out of space?
A. Array Capacity
B. Array Health
C. Server Capacity
D. Server Health
Aoswern C
Question 199
The queued writes on the source side exceed the size of the dedicated log fle. Which remote replicaton technology
requires a full resynchronizaton between source and target in this situaton?
A. Array based synchronous remote replicaton

B. Disk bufered consistent remote replicaton
C. LVM based remote replicaton
D. Synchronous plus extended distance consistent remote replicaton
Aoswern C
Question 200
What is a reason for implementng single HBA zoning?
A. Decrease reset tme for any change made in the state of the fabric
B. Increase reset tme for any change made in the state of the fabric
C. Prevent host from seeing the same volumes via multple HBAs
D. Reduce the number of zones required in the SAN
Aoswern A
Question 201
Which data center characteristc ensures that data is stored and retrieved exactly as it was received?
A. Data integrity
B. Security
C. Scalability
D. Manageability
Aoswern A
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Question 202
Which capability does big data analytcs provide?
A. Translatng large volumes of data into right decisions

B. Storing large volumes of data without afectng availability
C. Reducing the data storage capacity requirement
D. Performing analytcs using traditonal tools
Aoswern A
Question 203
Why do businesses seek to store, protect, optmize, and leverage informaton?
A. Develop new business opportunites

B. Fulfll increasing storage needs
C. Convert informaton into digital form
D. Increase informaton processing capabilites
Aoswern A
Question 204
Which I/O characteristcs, generated by an applicaton, infuence the overall performance of storage system and
storage soluton designs?
A. Read versus write-intensive, sequental versus random, and I/O size

B. Seek tme, rotatonal latency, and data transfer tme
C. Read versus write-intensive, rotatonal latency, and I/O size
D. Data transfer tme, sequental versus random, and seek tme
Aoswern A
Question 205
Which process combines several physical drives and presents them to the host as a single logical volume?
A. Concatenaton
B. Parttoning
C. Striping
D. Shredding
Aoswern A
Question 206
Which technology enables the detachment of the user state, the O/S, and has the applicatons from end-point
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devices?
A. Desktop virtualizaton
B. Compute virtualizaton
C. Applicaton virtualizaton
D. Memory virtualizaton
Aoswern A
Question 207
Which statement describes compute virtualizaton?
A. Abstracton of physical hardware that enables multple operatng systems to run concurrently on a single physical
machine
B. Presentaton of an applicaton to an end user without any installaton, integraton, or dependencies on the
underlying computng platorm
C. Abstracton of physical storage resources and presentng the logical view of the resources to compute systems
D. Logical segmentaton of physical networks that makes them appear as a single network to compute systems
Aoswern A
Question 208
An organizaton plans to deploy a new business applicaton in their environment. The new applicaton requires 3 TB of
storage space. During peak workloads, the applicaton is expected to generate 2450 IOPS with a typical I/O size of 2
KB. Because the applicaton is business-critcal, the response tme must be within acceptable range.
The available disk drive opton is a 7200 rpm drive with 100 GB capacity. The number of IOPS in which the disk drive
can perform at 100 percent utlizaton is 140.
What is the number of disk drives needed to meet the applicaton’s capacity and performance requirements?
A. 18
B. 25
C. 28
D. 30
Aoswern D
Question 209
What accurately describes the seek tme of a disk drive?
A. Time taken to positon the read/write head over the correct track
B. Time taken by the plater to positon the data under the read/write head
C. Time taken to read a block of data from the plater
D. Time taken by the controller to service an I/O from the applicaton
Aoswern A
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Question 210
Which parameter determines the rotaton latency of a disk drive?
A. Speed of the spindle

B. Seek tme
C. Data transfer speed
D. Response tme
Aoswern A
Question 211
Which factors afect the performance of a disk drive?
A. Seek tme, rotatonal latency, and data transfer tme

B. Rotatonal latency, number of platers, and data transfer tme
C. Seek tme, rotatonal latency, and number of read/write heads
D. Data transfer tme, number of cylinders, and rotatonal latency
Aoswern A
Question 212
What is an accurate statement about applicaton virtualizaton?
A. Avoids conficts between diferent versions of the same applicaton

B. Runs applicatons with the help of underlying computng components
C. Runs applicatons without requiring the use of cache memory
D. Presents more memory to an applicaton than is physically available
Aoswern A
Question 213
storage space. During peak workloads, the applicaton is expected to generate 9,800 IOPS with a typical I/O size of 4
The available disk drive opton is a 15,000 rpm drive with 100 GB capacity. The number of IOPS in which the disk drive
A. 20
B. 60
C. 70
D. 100
Aoswern D
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Question 214
storage space. During peak workloads, the applicaton is expected to generate 4900 IOPS with a typical I/O size of 8
The available disk drive opton is a 10,000 rpm drive with 200 GB capacity. The number of IOPS in which the disk drive
A. 20
B. 25
C. 35
D. 50
Aoswern D
Question 215
An applicaton generates 4200 small random I/Os at peak workloads with a read/write rato of 2n1. What is the disk
load at peak actvity for a RAID 1/0 confguraton?
A. 2,800
B. 5,600
C. 8,400
D. 11,200
Aoswern B
Question 216
load at peak actvity for a RAID 5 confguraton?
A. 2,800
B. 5,600
C. 8,400
D. 11,200
Aoswern C
Question 217
load at peak actvity for a RAID 6 confguraton?
A. 2,800
B. 5,600
C. 8,400
D. 11,200
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Aoswern D
Question 218
What is an accurate statement about a sofware RAID implementaton?
A. Uses host CPU cycles to perform RAID calculatons

B. Supports the upgrade of RAID sofware on incompatble O/S
C. Uses a specialized hardware controller to perform RAID calculatons
D. Supports all RAID levels
Aoswern A
Question 219
What is an accurate statement about a hardware RAID implementaton?
A. Uses a specialized hardware controller installed on a storage array

B. Uses host CPU cycles to perform RAID calculatons
C. Requires a RAID controller and operatng system to be compatble
D. Ofers a low-cost soluton for providing disk protecton
Aoswern A
Question 220
Which type of LUN is suitable for applicatons that require predictable performance?
A. Traditonal
B. Thin
C. Journal
D. Bitmap
Aoswern A
Question 221
Which type of metaLUN provides only additonal capacity without improving performance?
A. Concatenated
B. Striped
C. Mirrored
D. Parity
Aoswern A
Question 222
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Which technique prevents hosts from gaining unauthorized access to storage volumes in a shared storage
environment?
A. LUN masking
B. Zoning
C. Fabric binding
D. Concatenatng metaLUNs
Aoswern A
Question 223
Which EMC product is a high-end enterprise block-based storage platorm?
A. VMAX
B. VNX
C. VPLEX
D. Atmos
Aoswern A
Question 224
An organizaton has deployed an applicaton that has a read-intensive workload. They want to improve applicaton
performance by reducing latency and acceleratng throughput.
What is recommended to address their requirements?
A. Deploy server fash-caching

B. Reduce the high watermark
C. Use a most recently-used algorithm
D. Disable the prefetch algorithm
Aoswern A
Question 225
Which technique protects the data in cache from power failures?
A. Vaultng
B. Mirroring
C. Prefetching
D. Watermarking
Aoswern A
Question 226
In a storage system, the cache is confgured with an upper-bound and a lower-bound to manage its utlizaton. Which
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fushing mode is actvated when the cache utlizaton levels reach the upper-bound?
A. High watermark
B. Idle
C. Low watermark
D. Forced
Aoswern A
Question 227
In a storage system, the cache is confgured with an upper-bound and a lower-bound to manage its utlizaton. Which
fushing mode is actvated when the cache utlizaton levels reach 100 percent?
A. Forced
B. High watermark
C. Idle
D. Low watermark
Aoswern A
Question 228
What is an accurate statement about a core-edge topology?
A. Core-ter is extended by adding more switches at the core

B. Edge-ter switches are connected to each other and to the core
C. Network trafc traverses all the switches at the edge-ter
D. All hosts are connected to the core-ter switches
Aoswern A
Question 229
What is a characteristc of a single-mode optcal fber cable?
A. Carries a single ray of light projected at the center of the core

B. Carries a single ray of light at any angle onto the core
C. Carries a single ray of light at either a 7 or 11 degree angle onto the core
D. Carries multple beams of light through a single core
Aoswern A
Question 230
What is a characteristc of a modular switch?
A. Port count is increased by installing additonal port cards

B. Ports are connected in a logical loop or a physical star topology
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C. Functonality of a standard NIC and an FC HBA is converged in an ASIC

D. All port cards on the switch share the loop bandwidth
Aoswern A
Question 231
Which data structure enables two node ports to identfy and manage a set of informaton units in a Fibre Channel (FC)
SAN?
A. Exchange
B. Sequence
C. Frame
D. Domain
Aoswern A
Question 232
Which type of fabric login enables NlPorts to exchange service parameters relevant to a session?
A. PLOGI
B. PRLI
C. FLOGI
D. WWPN
Aoswern A
Question 233
Which type of login is performed between an NlPort and an FlPort in a Fibre Channel (FC) SAN environment?
A. FLOGI
B. PLOGI
C. PRLI
D. WWPN
Aoswern A
Question 234
Which type of fabric login is associated with the FC-4 upper layer protocol of the Fibre Channel protocol stack?
A. PRLI
B. FLOGI
C. PLOGI
D. WWNN
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Aoswern A
Question 235
Which beneft does block-level storage virtualizaton provide?
A. Non-disruptve data migraton between storage arrays

B. Performance enhancement by limitng the RSCN trafc
C. Logical segmentaton of block storage devices for improved security
D. Increased scalability through separaton of FC addresses across VSANs
Aoswern A
Question 236
Which fabric service is responsible for distributng SW-RSCNs to every other switch in a Fibre Channel SAN?
B. Fabric login server
C. Name server
D. Management server
Aoswern A
Question 237
What keeps the name server up-to-date on all switches in a fabric?
A. SW-RSCN
B. Management server
C. Zoning
D. FLOGI
Aoswern A
Question 238
What is a functon of the FC-1 layer of the Fibre Channel (FC) protocol stack?
A. Defnes data encoding

B. Provides FC addressing
C. Defnes the physical interface
D. Provides the structure of data
Aoswern A
Question 239
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Which layer of the Fibre Channel (FC) protocol stack defnes the fabric services?
A. FC-0
B. FC-1
C. FC-2
D. FC-4
Aoswern C
Question 240
What accurately describes a VSAN?
A. A logical fabric on an FC SAN that enables communicaton among a group of nodes

B. A logical fabric on an FC SAN that has a 1-to-1 relatonship with a zone in the FC SAN
C. A logical fabric across FC SANs that aggregates the FC SANs to create a network pool
D. A logical fabric across FC SANs that allows non-disruptve fle mobility between the SANs
Aoswern A
Question 241
What is a key reason for using an IP SAN?
A. Reduced cost compared to investng in new FC SAN hardware and sofware

B. Latest IP networks facilitate both fle-level and block-level access
C. Support for up to 15 million devices over a single network
D. Leverage existng security mechanisms of an FC SAN in an IP SAN environment
Aoswern A
Question 242
What is a method for an iSCSI initator to discover its targets?
A. Initator sends a query to an iSNS server for a list of available targets

B. Initator is confgured with the target’s Ethertype to perform discovery
C. Initator employs data center bridging exchange protocol for the discovery
D. Initator sends SCSI commands and the target responds by sending its name
Aoswern A
Question 243
In an FCIP environment, which switch-specifc feature helps to tunnel FC fabrics through an IP network?
A. Fibre Channel Routng Services

B. Bit and Frame Synchronizaton
C. Enhanced Transmission Selecton
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D. Upper Layer Protocol Mapping
Aoswern A
Question 244
What is an accurate statement about an FCoE network?
A. Consolidates both FC SAN trafc and Ethernet trafc onto a common Ethernet infrastructure
B. Creates virtual FC links over an IP network that is used to transport FC data between FCoE SANs
C. Enables the coexistence of FC trafc with IP trafc by providing FC-to-IP bridging functonality
D. Enables the encapsulaton of Ethernet trafc into an FC packet and transports them over CEE
Aoswern A
Question 245
In an FCoE environment, which functonality provides a framework for the assignment of bandwidth to diferent
network trafc classes?

B. Priority-based fow control
C. Congeston notfcaton
D. Data center bridging exchange protocol
Aoswern A
Question 246
What is a component of an FCoE switch?
A. Ethernet Bridge
B. Host Bus Adapter
C. Converged Network Adapter
D. FCIP Forwarder
Aoswern A
Question 247
Which lossless Ethernet functonality helps Converged Enhanced Ethernet (CEE) devices to convey and confgure their
features with the other CEE devices in the network?
A. Data center bridging exchange protocol

B. Enhanced transmission selecton
C. Priority-based fow control
D. Congeston notfcaton
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Aoswern A
Question 248
Which component of a NAS head provides connectvity to the client network?
A. NIC
B. IP router
C. FC HBA
D. Storage protocol
Aoswern A
Question 249
Which NAS implementaton requires separate management of the NAS head and the storage?
A. Gateway
B. Scale-out
C. Unifed
D. Integrated
Aoswern A
Question 250
Which NAS implementaton creates a single fle system that spans across all nodes in a cluster?
A. Scale-out
B. Unifed
C. Gateway
D. Scale-up
Aoswern A
Question 251
What is a beneft when a node is added to a scale-out NAS cluster?
A. Increased cluster performance

B. Reduced capital expenditure
C. Simplifed cluster management
D. Decreased data duplicaton
Aoswern A
Question 252
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Which operaton is performed by a scale-out NAS cluster when clients send data to the cluster?
A. Data is divided and stored on multple nodes in parallel

B. Data is consolidated into a block and stored in the NAS head
C. Data is evenly distributed to every fle system in the cluster
D. NAS fle system and cluster grow dynamically to store the data
Aoswern A
Question 253
What is an accurate statement about the Network File System (NFS) protocol?
A. Provides a set of remote procedure calls to access a remote fle system

B. Uses the server message block that provides fle locking capability to a fle system
C. Translates block I/O requests from a fle system into object-level requests
D. Duplicates fle systems on client workstatons to ensure greater data scalability
Aoswern A
Question 254
What is an accurate statement about the Common Internet File System (CIFS) protocol?
A. Enables a CIFS server to maintain connecton informaton regarding every connected client
B. Uses a Remote Procedure Call mechanism to provide access to the CIFS supported fle systems
C. Contains an open variaton of the stateless user datagram protocol that stores informaton about open fles
D. Uses fle system locking to enable users to simultaneously overwrite all metadata of a fle system
Aoswern A
Question 255
What is an accurate statement about a NAS device?
A. Contains a specialized operatng system dedicated to fle serving

B. Requires an IP-based, high-performance, dedicated storage array
C. Contains one or more storage controllers in a single NAS head
D. Contains a FC forwarder that is optmized for fle-sharing functons
Aoswern A
Question 256
In an object-based storage environment, which enttes does an object contain?
A. Data, metadata, object ID, and atributes

B. LUN ID, data, metadata, and atributes
C. Metadata, object ID, atributes, and fle path
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D. Object ID, atributes, LUN ID, and fle path
Aoswern A
Question 257
Which storage system is designed for storing fxed content?
A. Content addressed storage

B. Block-based storage
C. File-based storage
D. Hierarchy-based storage
Aoswern A
Question 258
What describes a recovery point objectve?
A. Point-in-tme to which systems and data must be recovered afer an outage

B. Time within which systems and applicatons must be recovered afer an outage
C. Amount of downtme that a business can endure and survive afer an outage
D. Minimum amount of infrastructure required to run business operatons afer an outage
Aoswern A
Question 259
In which stage of the business contnuity planning lifecycle does an organizaton identfy critcal business processes
and assign recovery priorites?
A. Analyzing
B. Establishing objectves
C. Designing and developing
D. Implementng
Aoswern A
Question 260
Which aspect of a business contnuity soluton is determined by the recovery point objectve?
A. Frequency of backup
B. Type of backup devices
C. Type of disaster recovery site
D. Choice of backup sofware
Aoswern A
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Question 261
A system has three components and all three components need to be operatonal 24 hours; Monday to Friday. During
a partcular week, failure on component 1 occurred as followsn
Monday = 6 PM to 9 PM
Tuesday = 8 AM to 10 AM
Wednesday = No failure
Thursday = 8 PM to 9 PM
Friday = No failure
Saturday = 5 AM to 8 AM
Sunday = 6 PM to 9 PM
What is the mean tme between failures of component 1?
A. 30 Hours
B. 37 Hours
C. 40 Hours
D. 44 Hours
Aoswern B
Question 262
A system has three components and all three components need to be operatonal for 24 hours; Monday to Friday.
During a partcular week, failure of component 2 occurred as followsn
Friday = No failure
What is the mean tme between failures on component 2?
A. 30 Hours
B. 38 Hours
C. 40 Hours
D. 42 Hours
Aoswern B
Question 263
A system has three components and all three components need to be operatonal 24 hours; Monday to Friday. During
a partcular week, failure of component 3 occurred as followsn
Friday = No failure
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What is the mean tme to repair component 3?
A. 2 Hours
B. 4 Hours
C. 6 Hours
D. 8 Hours
Aoswern A
Question 264
An administrator has confgured redundant Fibre Channel links between hosts and storage systems. The administrator
has identfed a performance botleneck on a link due to overutlizaton; whereas, the other links have sufcient
bandwidth. In additon, the administrator has identfed that if a link fails, I/Os to the link do not failover to the other
available links.
Which soluton should be recommended to resolve these issues?
A. Multpathing sofware
B. NIC teaming
C. Virtual SAN
D. Zoning
Aoswern A
Question 265
What refers to an IT infrastructure's ability to functon during its specifed tme of operatons, based on business
expectatons?
A. Informaton availability
B. Disaster recovery
C. Disaster restart
D. Business agility
Aoswern A
Question 266
An administrator has defned a backup policy to perform full backups every Monday and cumulatve backups on the
remaining week days. How many backup copies are required to restore the data if it was accidentally deleted on
Friday morning?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
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Aoswern B
Question 267
When deploying a cold backup soluton, what should be considered?
A. Applicaton must be shut down during the backup process

B. Applicaton can only read the data to be backed up
C. An open fle agent must be deployed to perform the backup
D. Deduplicaton cannot be performed during the backup process
Aoswern A
Question 268
What is an accurate statement about a backup-to-disk library soluton?
A. Supports storage of both backup and producton data

B. Provides built-in portability to meet ofsite requirements
C. Supports the shoe shining efect for improved backup performance
D. Pre-confgured and dedicated appliance is only used for back ups
Aoswern A
Question 269
An organizaton backs up their data to a tape library. What is a possible impact of the "shoe shining" efect?
A. Causes degradaton of the tape media

B. Deletes the data stored on the tapes
C. Increases the network bandwidth requirement
D. Reduces the amount of data to be backed up
Aoswern A
Question 270
What is an accurate statement about NDMP 3-way backup in a NAS environment?
A. Backup device can be shared among multple NAS heads

B. Each NAS head should have a dedicated backup device
C. Backup data traverses at least three NAS heads before reaching the backup device
D. Backup is performed only when three or more NAS heads are present
Aoswern A
Question 271
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An administrator has defned a backup policy to perform full backups at 8 P.M. every Monday and incremental
backups at 8 P.M. on the remaining week days. How many backup copies are required to restore the data if it was
accidentally deleted on Friday morning?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Aoswern D
Question 272
What is a key advantage of performing cumulatve backups compared to incremental backups for the same data?
A. Facilitates faster restores

B. Facilitates faster backups
C. Reduces the storage space required for backups
D. Eliminates the need for full backups
Aoswern A
Question 273
Which backup architecture component maintains the backup catalog?
A. Backup server
B. Storage node
C. Backup client
D. Backup device
Aoswern A
Question 274
An organizaton has deployed physical servers at a remote site that is dissimilar from the servers deployed at their
primary site. In the event of a disaster, which soluton will enable the server O/S, hardware, and applicaton setngs
at the primary site to be restored at the remote site?
A. Server confguraton backup

B. Server online backup
C. Guest-level O/S backup
D. Server-initated backup
Aoswern A
Question 275
Which EMC product provides inherent source-based deduplicaton?
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A. Avamar
B. Data Domain
C. VMAX
D. VNX
Aoswern A
Question 276
Which EMC product provides a target-based deduplicaton soluton?
A. Data Domain
B. VPLEX
C. RecoverPoint
D. Avamar
Aoswern A
Question 277
An organizaton plans to deploy a deduplicaton soluton by retaining their legacy backup applicaton. They are
concerned about the applicaton servers’ performance and long backup window during backup.
Which deduplicaton soluton(s) should be recommended to the organizaton?
A. Post-process
B. Inline
C. Variable-length segment and source-based
D. Fixed-length block and source-based
Aoswern A
Question 278
What is a functon of an archiving server?
A. Enables the ability to confgure policies for archiving data

B. Installs agents on the archiving storage device
C. Scans the data that can be archived on applicaton servers
D. Creates stub fles on an archiving storage device
Aoswern A
Question 279
What is an advantage of implementng deduplicaton for performing backups?
A. Enables a longer retenton period of backup data

B. Eliminates backup window requirements
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C. Reduces the storage space requirement for producton data

D. Eliminates the need for archiving data
Aoswern A
Question 280
What is an advantage of using content addressed storage as an archival soluton?
A. Ensures content authentcity and integrity

B. Supports locaton independence using diferent content IDs for an object
C. Enables the ability to reuse tapes for storing archive data
D. Enables modifcaton of archived data
Aoswern A
Question 281
Why is it important for an organizaton to archive their data for an extended period of tme?
A. Meet regulatory compliance requirements

B. Avoid data loss in the event of a disaster
C. Eliminate the need for backups
D. Provide disaster recovery capability
Aoswern A
Question 282
What is an accurate statement about image-based backup in a virtualized environment?
A. Ofoads backup processing from the hypervisor

B. Backup agents are running on both the VMs and hypervisor
C. Backup process does not use snapshot technology
D. Backup agents are running only inside the VM
Aoswern A
Question 283
An organizaton plans to deploy an array-based local replicaton soluton. They identfed that the change to the
source volume is less than 30%. They need a soluton in which the replica devices require a small fracton of the size of
the source volumes.
Which soluton should be recommended to the organizaton?
A. Pointer-based virtual replicaton

B. Contnuous data protecton
C. Synchronous replicaton
D. Pointer-based full volume replicaton
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Aoswern A
Question 284
What is an accurate statement about pointer-based full-volume replicaton?
A. Target device is at least as large as the source device

B. Target device requires only a fracton of the space used by the source device
C. Target device is accessible only afer full replicaton is completed
D. Target device and source device should be on diferent storage arrays
Aoswern A
Question 285
What is an accurate statement about a virtual machine (VM) snapshot?
A. Captures the state and data of a running VM at a specifc point-in-tme

B. Provides the capability to delete the parent VM once the snapshot is created
C. Runs as an independent copy from the parent VM
D. Provides the capability to restore VM data to any point-in-tme
Aoswern A
Question 286
Why should a replica be consistent with its source?
A. Ensure the usability of the replica

B. Reduce the need to create multple replicas
C. Ensure the security of the replica
D. Reduce the size of the replica
Aoswern A
Question 287
What determines how far back the recovery points can go in a contnuous data protecton (CDP) soluton?
A. Amount of space that is confgured for the journal

B. Size of the CDP appliance used for replicaton
C. Size of the source and replica volume
D. Type of write spliter used for replicaton
Aoswern A
Question 288
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What is an advantage of fle system (FS) snapshot replicaton?
A. Requires a fracton of the space used by the producton FS

B. Requires low network bandwidth for replicaton
C. Enables the ability to restore data when the producton FS fails
D. Enables the ability to restore data to any point-in-tme
Aoswern A
Question 289
When does data get copied from the source to the target device in a copy on frst access (COFA) pointer-based full-
volume replicaton?
A. Write I/O is issued to the source device Read or write I/O is issued on the target for the frst tme
B. Read I/O is issued to the source device Write I/O is issued on the target for the frst tme
C. Read or write I/O is issued to the source device Read I/O is issued on the target for the frst tme
D. Read or write I/O is issued to the source device Read or write I/O is issued on the target for the frst tme
Aoswern A
Question 290
What is determined based on the recovery point objectve in asynchronous remote replicaton?
A. Size of the bufer

B. Size of the replica
C. Response tme
D. Locaton of the source
Aoswern A
Question 291
Which remote replicaton soluton requires the least network bandwidth?
A. Disk bufered
B. Triangle/mult-target
C. Asynchronous
D. Synchronous
Aoswern A
Question 292
In contnuous data protecton (CDP) remote replicaton, where are the two split write I/Os of an incoming write I/O
directed?
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A. One I/O goes to the local CDP appliance and the other I/O goes to the producton volume
B. One I/O goes to the host and the other I/O goes to the producton volume
C. One I/O goes to the remote CDP appliance and the other I/O goes to the replica
D. One I/O goes to the journal volume and the other I/O goes to the replica
Aoswern A
Question 293
What is a key advantage of deploying a three-site remote replicaton soluton?
A. Ensures disaster recovery protecton remains available even if the source or remote site failed
B. Provides the capability to recover data to any point-in-tme
C. Requires very low network bandwidth to perform replicaton
D. Enables a consistent near zero RPO in the event of source and remote site failures
Aoswern A
Question 294
What is an advantage of implementng array-to-array virtual machine (VM) migraton?
A. Balances storage utlizaton by redistributng VMs across diferent storage arrays

B. Enables VMs to keep functoning even if the source data is lost due to a failure
C. Improves the security of applicatons running inside VMs on the migrated storage array
D. Reduces the overall storage array capacity requirements for organizatons
Aoswern A
Question 295
Which EMC product provides a remote replicaton soluton for EMC VNX storage arrays?
A. MirrorView
B. SnapView
C. Avamar
D. TimeFinder
Aoswern A
Question 296
Which EMC product provides a remote replicaton soluton for EMC VMAX arrays?
A. SRDF
B. Avamar
C. MirrorView
D. TimeFinder
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Aoswern A
Question 297
Which cloud computng characteristc enables consumers to adapt to changing resource requirements by dynamically
provisioning and releasing resources?
A. Rapid elastcity
B. On-demand self-service
C. Measured service
D. Resource pooling
Aoswern A
Question 298
Which beneft does the measured service characteristc provide to a cloud service provider?
A. Enables control and optmizaton of resource use

B. Enables cloud services to communicate with each other
C. Enables availability of specifc resources depending on policy
D. Enables the reducton and/or eliminaton of upfront IT expenditures
Aoswern A
Question 299
A state government has a number of independent agencies. They have common requirements and functon under the
same policies and guidelines. Each agency has a limited budget and requires a cloud soluton for their operatons.
Which cloud service model will enable the agencies to deploy a shared cloud infrastructure and lower their individual
costs?
A. Community cloud
B. Externally-hosted private cloud
C. Hybrid cloud
D. On-premise private cloud
Aoswern A
Question 300
An enterprise with a worldwide customer base is planning to adopt a cloud soluton for its operatons. The enterprise
has no budget constraints and requires complete control over applicatons, customer data, and the infrastructure.
Which cloud deployment opton should be recommended?
A. On-premise private cloud

B. Hybrid cloud
C. Public cloud
D. Externally-hosted private cloud
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Aoswern A
Question 301
A start-up company with a limited budget is planning to adopt a hybrid cloud soluton for their operatons. The
company has business-critcal applicatons that serve customers and have strict service levels. In additon, the
company has less critcal applicatons, such as backup and archive.
Which hybrid cloud strategy should be recommended to the company?
A. Deploy the business-critcal applicatons on an externally-hosted private cloud and the less critcal applicatons on a
public cloud.
B. Deploy the business-critcal applicatons on an on-premise private cloud and the less critcal applicatons on an
externally-hosted private cloud.
C. Deploy the business-critcal applicatons on an on-premise private cloud and the less critcal applicatons on a
public cloud.
D. Deploy the business-critcal applicatons on an externally-hosted private cloud and the less critcal applicatons on
an on-premise private cloud.
Aoswern A
Question 302
What is a beneft of using the public cloud model?
A. Facilitates low capital expenditure with massive scalability

B. Enables consumers to standardize cloud service management processes
C. Provides consumers complete control over the cloud infrastructure
D. Enables data and applicaton portability across clouds
Aoswern A
Question 303
What is an accurate statement about Infrastructure as a Service?
A. A consumer can deploy and run arbitrary sofware, including operatng systems and applicatons.
B. A consumer only has control over user-specifc applicaton confguraton setngs.
C. A consumer can deploy applicatons created using the programming tools ofered by the provider.
D. A consumer only has control over the confguraton setngs of the applicaton-hostng environment.
Aoswern A
Question 304
What is an accurate statement about Sofware as a Service?
A. A consumer has limited control over user-specifc applicaton confguraton setngs.

B. A consumer has control over the operatng systems and deployed applicatons.
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C. A consumer has control over the confguraton setngs of the applicaton-hostng environment.
D. A consumer has limited control over select networking components, such as host frewalls.
Aoswern A
Question 305
Which cloud-enabling technology provides a service provisioning model that ofers computng resources as a metered
service?
A. Utlity computng
B. Service-oriented architecture
C. Grid computng
D. Distributed computng
Aoswern A
Question 306
What is a functon of unifed management sofware?
A. Automates the creaton of cloud services based on pre-defned service atributes

B. Authentcates consumers and forwards their requests to the user access management sofware
C. Provides a self-service interface to consumers to view and provision cloud services
D. Enables consumers to view and manage physical and virtual resources centrally
Aoswern A
Question 307
What is a feature of cloud-optmized storage?
A. Provides self-service and metered access to storage resources

B. Enables massive scalability through the use of intelligent fash cards
C. Provides a unifed namespace to automate the creaton of cloud services
D. Enables secure mult-tenancy through the use of privilege elevaton
Aoswern A
Question 308
An organizaton is planning to use a public cloud service for some of its operatons. What is a necessary atribute the
organizaton should identfy when selectng the cloud service provider?
A. Standardizaton through the use of open APIs for accessing cloud services
B. Support availability for only non-proprietary applicatons and platorms
C. Use of a hypervisor from only a single vendor to enable use of open standards
D. Availability of a management interface to create new cloud service oferings
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Aoswern A
Question 309
An organizaton recently adopted Platorm as a Service that is provided from an externally-hosted private cloud. What
is an operatonal expenditure the organizaton will incur to access the cloud service?
A. Payment of subscripton fees

B. Purchase cost of platorm sofware
C. Cost of deploying the SAN
D. Procurement cost of cloud servers
Aoswern A
Question 310
What is an actvity in the security risk assessment process?
A. Determining the extent of potental threats in the IT infrastructure

B. Defning security measures to direct the safe executon of operatons
C. Ensuring that security measures comply with processes and policies
D. Deploying security measures to mitgate the impact of risk occurrences
Aoswern A
Question 311
What is considered a type of a passive atack on an IT infrastructure?
A. Atempt to gain unauthorized access into the system

B. Atempt to exhaust the network bandwidth to prevent legitmate access
C. Atempt to modify the data in the storage system
D. Atempt to impersonate an identty by providing false informaton
Aoswern A
Question 312
What is a type of an actve atack on an IT infrastructure?
A. Atempt to modify informaton for malicious purposes

B. Atempt to leak the data from the storage system
C. Atempt to gain unauthorized access into the system
D. Atempt to gain access to data in transit
Aoswern A
Question 313
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Which informaton security framework goal is compromised by a passive atack on an IT infrastructure?
A. Confdentality
B. Integrity
C. Availability
D. Repudiaton
Aoswern A
Question 314
What is a characteristc of a VSAN?
A. Management trafc in a VSAN is restricted within its boundary

B. Multple zone sets can be actve at the same tme in a VSAN
C. Consolidates multple physical SANs to create a logical SAN
D. Uses 16 bits of the 24-bit FC address and supports up to 127 nodes
Aoswern A
Question 315
In an FC SAN environment, an administrator wants to prevent unauthorized nodes from accessing a switch. What
enables the administrator to specify which node ports can access the switch?
A. Access Control List

B. Fabric Binding
C. Persistent Port Disable
D. Role-based Access Control
Aoswern A
Question 316
In an FC SAN environment, an administrator wants to ensure that a partcular switch port cannot functon as an ElPort
and cannot be used to create an inter-switch link. Which security mechanism should the administrator use?
A. Port Lockdown
B. Port Binding
C. Persistent Port Disable
D. Fabric Binding
Aoswern A
Question 317
In an FC SAN environment, which security mechanism prevents a switch port from being enabled even afer a switch
reboot?
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Page No | 138
A. Persistent Port Disable

B. Port Lockdown
C. Port Binding
D. Fabric Binding
Aoswern A
Question 318
What enables an administrator to create device groups in an IP-SAN for restrictng device communicaton to a group?
A. iSNS discovery domain

B. NIC teaming
C. Demilitarized zone
D. Security identfer
Aoswern A
Question 319
A department in an organizaton requires 300 GB of storage space for a business applicaton. The producton LUN is
RAID 1+0 protected and has both a local and a remote replica. The local replica is a RAID 1 LUN and the remote replica
is on a fve disk RAID 5 LUN.
If the raw disk storage cost per GB is $3.00, what is the chargeback cost to the department for applicaton storage?
A. $2,700
B. $3,600
C. $4,500
D. $4,725
Aoswern D
Question 320
Which EMC product provides a single point of management for Vblock systems?
A. Unifed Infrastructure Manager

B. Unisphere
C. Smarts
D. ProSphere
Aoswern A
Question 321
What is a functon of the policy engine in inter-array storage tering?
A. Facilitates moving inactve data from primary to secondary storage
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B. Creates a stub fle in secondary storage pointng to data on the primary storage
C. Ensures that primary and secondary storage have identcal data for compliance
D. Runs backup agent and determines the fles to be copied to the secondary storage
Aoswern A
Question 322
What is the purpose of monitoring accessibility in a storage infrastructure?
A. Identfying component failures that may lead to service unavailability

B. Ensuring availability of adequate resources to prevent service unavailability
C. Evaluatng utlizaton of components and identfying botlenecks
D. Detectng unavailability of informaton to authorized users
Aoswern A
Question 323
What is the purpose of monitoring capacity in a storage infrastructure?
A. Ensuring availability of adequate resources to prevent service unavailability

B. Evaluatng utlizaton of components and identfying botlenecks
C. Tracking confguraton changes of infrastructure elements
D. Identfying component failures that may lead to service unavailability
Aoswern A
Question 324
What is an example of an availability management task in storage infrastructure management?
A. Confguring replicaton for data redundancy

B. Trend analysis of storage space consumpton
C. Tracking confguraton changes to storage components
D. Specifying storage space quotas for users
Aoswern A
Question 325
What is an example of a security management task in a storage infrastructure?
A. Confguring LUN masking to restrict hosts from accessing a specifc LUN

B. Enforcing storage space quotas to restrict users from overprovisioning resources
C. Restrictng the number of simultaneous client access to applicaton servers
D. Enabling sending messages to a support center in the event of resource failure
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Aoswern A
Question 326
Refer to the exhibit.
Which type of host access to storage does ‘X’ represent in the exhibit?
A. Block-level
B. File-level C. Object-level
D. Web-based
Aoswern A
Question 327
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Which type of host access to storage does ‘X’ represent in the exhibit?
A. File-level
B. Block-level C. Object-level
D. Sector-level
Aoswern A
Question 328
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Which environment is represented in the exhibit?
A. Write-through cache
B. Read miss
C. Read hit
D. Write-back cache
Aoswern A
Question 329
Which environment is represented in the exhibit?
A. Write-back cache
B. Write-through cache
C. Read miss
D. Read hit
Aoswern A
Question 330
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Which type of Fibre Channel (FC) ports do "X" and "Y" represent in the exhibit?
A. X is an FlPort and Y is an NlPort

B. X is an NlPort and Y is an ElPort
C. X is an ElPort and Y is an FlPort
D. X is an NlPort and Y is an FlPort
Aoswern A
Question 331
Which type of fabric topology does the exhibit represent?
A. Partal mesh
B. Full mesh
C. Single core-edge
D. Dual core-edge
Aoswern A
Question 332
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Page No | 144
A. X is an NlPort and Y is an NlPort

B. X is an FlPort and Y is an ElPort
C. X is an ElPort and Y is an NlPort
D. X is an FlPort and Y is an FlPort
Aoswern A
Question 333
A. X is an NlPort and Y is an ElPort

B. X is an FlPort and Y is an ElPort
C. X is an FlPort and Y is a GlPort
D. X is a GlPort and Y is an NlPort
Aoswern A
Question 334
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Which type of fabric topology does the exhibit represent?
A. Full mesh
B. Partal mesh
C. Single core-edge
D. Dual core-edge
Aoswern A
Question 335
Based on the exhibit, which part of the Fibre Channel (FC) frame does “X” represent?
A. Frame Header
B. CRC
C. SOF
D. Data Field
Aoswern A
Question 336
The exhibit refects the encapsulaton order in an iSCSI environment. What do the labels "X" and "Y" represent?
A. X = TCP Y = iSCSI
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B. X = iSCSI Y = TCP
C. X = FCIP Y = iSCSI
D. X = iSCSI Y = FCoE
Aoswern A
Question 337
Which type of storage device does the ‘X’ represent in the exhibit?
A. Object-based
B. Block-based
C. File-based
D. Unifed-based
Aoswern A
Question 338
Which backup topology does the exhibit represent?
A. Direct-atached backup
B. LAN-based backup
C. Server-less backup
D. NDMP-based backup
Aoswern A
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Question 339
Based on the exhibit, which example represents the risk triad?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Aoswern A
Question 340
DRAG DROP
Match the Storage type with the correct characteristcs.
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Aoswern
Question 341
DRAG DROP
Match the four security goals of an informaton security framework with their correct descripton.
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Page No | 149
Aoswern
Question 342
DRAG DROP
The following represents a list of RAID levels and applicaton characteristcs. Match each RAID level to the applicaton
characteristc to which it is most suitable.
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Aoswern
Question 343
DRAG DROP
What is the correct sequence of steps for a target to authentcate to an initator in an IP SAN using one-way
Challenge-Handshake Authentcaton Protocol (CHAP)?
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Aoswern
________________________________________________________________________________________________
Page No | 152
Question 344
DRAG DROP
What is the correct sequence of steps to store objects in an object-based storage device (OSD)?
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Page No | 153
Aoswern
________________________________________________________________________________________________

E10-001 Practice Exam: Information Storage and Management Exam Version 2

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E10-001 PRACTICE EXAM

Total Questions: 344

What does the area ID of the FC address identfy?

A. Group of ports within a switch

each switch in the fabric.

A. Source devices must be healthy

replica devices can be restored back to the producton devices.

A. Converged network adapter

What is a functon of unifed management sofware in cloud computng?

A. Defning cloud service atributes

A. Hypervisors must have access to the same storage volume

EMC E10-001 Student Resource Guide. Module 12n Remote Replicaton

Which iSCSI name requires an organizaton to own a registered domain name?

What describes a landing zone in a disk drive?

A. Area on which the read/write head rests

What is a characteristc of unifed storage?

C. Provides compute, storage, and network virtualizaton products in one soluton

What is a beneft of cloud computng over traditonal computng?

A. Reduces the tme to provision and deploy new applicatons

Which statement describes a denial of service atack?

A. Prevents authorized users from accessing the resources and services

What is a key beneft of virtualizaton?

A. Improved resource utlizaton

Which operaton is performed while creatng a VM snapshot?

A. Preventng node login to the fabric without proper authorizaton

What is true about parity-based RAID?

A. Parity is updated each tme a write is performed

What is an accurate statement about a gateway NAS soluton?

A. NAS head and storage are managed independently

What is prevented using RAID technology?

A. Assets, threats, and vulnerabilites

A. Updates the name server on all switches in the fabric

A. Encoding and decoding

What is a security implementaton in NAS environments?

In an FC SAN environment, what is a beneft of zoning?

A. Restricts RSCN trafc

What is a characteristc of a scale-out NAS?

A. File system grows dynamically as nodes are added in the cluster

A. Determines object access informaton that needs to be audited

A. Near zero RPO

What is an advantage of sub-LUN tering?

A. Persistent Port Disable

What does a block map contain in a fle system snapshot?

A. Address from which data is to be read when accessing the snapshot

What describes a full mesh topology?

A. All switches are directly connected to each other

What is a characteristc of pointer-based virtual replicaton?

A. Replica is immediately available afer actvaton of a replicaton session

Click on the calculator icon in the upper lef corner.

Click on the calculator icon in the upper lef corner.

What is a characteristc of an FC-SW implementaton?

A. Provides a dedicated path between nodes

Which functonality is ofered by user access management sofware?

What are the key components of an intelligent storage system?

A. Front-end, cache, back-end, and physical disks

What is a characteristc of asynchronous remote replicaton?

What is a characteristc of Big Data?

A. Structured and unstructured data generated by multple sources

Click on the calculator icon in the upper lef corner.

Which EMC product provides target-based deduplicaton?

A. User authentcaton and user authorizaton

What is the functon of enhanced transmission selecton in an FCoE environment?