Applied Mechanics and Graphic Statics

Question No. 01
Select the correct statement
(A) The body centrode rolls on the space centrode
(B) The space centrode rolls on the body centrode
(C) Both body and space centrodes may role on each other
(D) The body centrode never touches space centrode
Answer: Option A

Question No. 02
The following is in unstable equilibrium
(A) A uniform solid cone resting on a generator on a smooth horizontal plane
(B) A uniform solid cone resting on its base on a horizontal plane
(C) A solid cube resting on one edge
(D) A satellite encircling the earth
Answer: Option C

Question No. 03
In a lifting machine with efficiency 60%, an effort of 200 N is required to raise a load of 6 kN. The
velocity ratio of the machine is
(A) 30
(B) 50
(C) 60
(D) 80
Answer: Option B

Question No. 04
The member forces in a statically in determinate truss
(A) Can be obtained by graphic statics
(B) Cannot be obtained by graphic statics
(C) May be obtained by graphic statics
(D) Can be obtained by graphic statics by trial and error
Answer: Option B

Question No. 05
A ball moving on a smooth horizontal table hits a rough vertical wall, the coefficient of restitution
between ball and wall being 1/3. The ball rebounds at the same angle. The fraction of its kinetic
energy lost is
(A) 1/3
(B) 2/3
(C) 1/9
(D) 8/9
 Answer: Option D

Question No. 06
A heavy ladder resting on floor and against a vertical wall may not be in equilibrium if
(A) Floor is smooth and wall is rough
(B) Floor is rough and wall is smooth
(C) Both floor and wall are rough
(D) Both floor and wall are smooth
Answer: Option D

Question No. 07
The maximum displacement of a particle executing S.H.M. corresponds to
(A) Zero potential energy and maximum kinetic energy
(B) Zero kinetic energy and maximum potential energy
(C) Maximum kinetic energy and maximum potential energy
(D) Minimum kinetic energy and minimum potential energy
Answer: Option B

Question No. 08
A sphere and a cylinder having the same mass and radii start from rest and roll down the same
inclined plane. Which body gets to the bottom first?
(A) Sphere with greater rotational energy at bottom than cylinder
(B) Sphere with lesser rotational energy at bottom than cylinder
(C) Cylinder with greater rotational energy at bottom than sphere
(D) Both reach the bottom simultaneously with equal rotational energy at bottom
Answer: Option B

Question No. 09
When a circular wheel rolls on a straight track, then the shape of body centrode and space
centrode respectively are
(A) Straight line and parabola
(B) Straight line and circle
(C) Circle and straight line
(D) Circle and parabola
Answer: Option C

Question No. 10
The time period of a simple pendulum depends on
(i) Mass of suspended particle
(ii) Length of the pendulum
(iii) Acceleration due to gravity
The correct answer is
(A) Only (i)
(B) Both (ii) and (iii)
(C) Both (i) and (iii)
 (D) All are correct
Answer: Option B

Question No. 11
A light rope is loaded with many equal weights at equal horizontal intervals. The points of
suspension on the rope lie on a
(A) Parabola
(B) Catenary
(C) Cycloid
(D) Ellipse
Answer: Option A

Question No. 12
Free body diagram is an
(A) Isolated joint with only body forces acting on it
(B) Isolated joint with internal forces acting on it
(C) Isolated joint with all the forces, internal as well as external, acting on it
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 13
The graphical method of determining the forces in the members of a truss is based on
(A) Method of joint
(B) Method of section
(C) Either method
(D) None of the two methods
Answer: Option A

Question No. 14
In which of the following trusses, the method of substitution is required for determining the forces
in all the members of the truss by graphic statics?
(A) Howe truss
(B) King post truss
(C) Fink truss
(D) Warren truss
Answer: Option C

Question No. 15
If the direction of projection bisects the angle between the vertical and the inclined plane, then
the range of projectile on the inclined plane is
(A) Zero
(B) Maximum
(C) Minimum
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 16
A particle executes a simple harmonic motion. While passing through the mean position, the
particle possesses
(A) Maximum kinetic energy and minimum potential energy
(B) Maximum kinetic energy and maximum potential energy
(C) Minimum kinetic energy and maximum potential energy
(D) Minimum kinetic, energy and minimum potential energy
Answer: Option A

Question No. 17
The tension in a cable supporting a lift
(A) Is more when the lift is moving downwards
(B) Is less when the lift is moving upwards
(C) Remains constant whether its moves downwards or upwards
(D) Is less when the lift is moving downwards
Answer: Option D

Question No. 18
The vertical reaction at the support of the structure shown in below figure, is

(A) 1 t
(B) 2 t
(C) 3 t
(D) 3.5 t
Answer: Option C

Question No. 19
The shape of a suspended cable under its own weight, is
(A) Parabolic
(B) Circular
(C) Catenary
(D) Elliptical
Answer: Option C
Question No. 20
If the kinetic energy and potential energy of a simple harmonic oscillator of amplitude A are both
equal to half the total energy, then the displacement is equal to
(A) A
(B) A/2
(C) A
(D) A
Answer: Option C

Question No. 21
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) If two equal and perfectly elastic smooth spheres impinge directly, they interchange their
velocities
(B) If a sphere impinges directly on an equal sphere which is at rest, then a fraction ½(1 - e2) the
original kinetic energy is lost by the impact
(C) If two equal spheres which are perfectly elastic impinge at right angles, their direction after
impact will still be at right angles
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 22
The inherent property of a body which offers reluctance to change its state of rest or uniform
motion, is
(A) Weight
(B) Mass
(C) Inertia
(D) Momentum
Answer: Option C

Question No. 23
A particle is executing simple harmonic motion in a line 1.0 m long. If the time of one complete
vibration is 1 sec, then the maximum velocity of the particle is
(A) 1.00 m/sec
(B) 1.57 m/sec
(C) 3.14 m/sec
(D) 6.28 m/sec
Answer: Option C

Question No. 24
Pick up the correct statement from the following. The kinetic energy of a body
(A) Before impact is equal to that after impact
(B) Before impact is less than that after impact
(C) Before impact is more than that after impact
(D) Remain constant
Answer: Option C
Question No. 25
The reaction at the support of the beam shown in below figure is

(A) 2 t
(B) 5.8 t
(C) 0.2 t
(D) 3.5 t
Answer: Option A

Question No. 26
Three forces which act on a rigid body to keep it in equilibrium. The forces must be coplanar and
(A) Concurrent
(B) Parallel
(C) Concurrent parallel
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 27
Coefficient of friction depends on
(A) Nature of surfaces only
(B) Area of contact only
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 28
The intrinsic equation of catenary is
(A) S = c
(B) y = c cosh x/c
(C) y = c
(D) y = c
Answer: Option A

Question No. 29
If a particle is projected inside a horizontal tunnel which is 554 cm high with a velocity of 60 m per
sec, the angle of projection for maximum range, is
(A) 8°
(B) 9°
(C) 10°
(D) 11°
 Answer: Option C

Question No. 30
The reaction RB of the roller support B of the beam shown in below figure is

(A) 10.8 t
(B) 10.6 t
(C) 10.4 t
(D) 10.2 t
Answer: Option A

Question No. 31
The maximum pull in a cable, carrying a uniformly distributed load and supported at two ends
which are at the same level, is at
(A) Supports
(B) Quarter span
(C) Mid span
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 32
A stone is whirled in a vertical circle, the tension in the string, is maximum
(A) When the string is horizontal
(B) When the stone is at the highest position
(C) When the stone is at the lowest position
(D) At all the positions
Answer: Option C

Question No. 33
At a given instant ship is travelling at 6 km/h due east and ship is travelling at 8 km/h due
north. The velocity of relative to is
(A) 7 km/hrs
(B) 2 km/hrs
(C) 1 km/hrs
(D) 10 km/hrs
Answer: Option D

Question No. 34
The ratio of the moment of inertia of a rectangle about its centroidal axis to the moment of inertia
about its base, is
 (A) 1/4
(B) 1/2
(C) 3/4
(D) 2
Answer: Option A

Question No. 35
The angular speed of a car taking a circular turn of radius 100 m at 36 km/hr will be
(A) 0.1 rad/sec
(B) 1 rad/sec
(C) 10 rad/sec
(D) 100 rad/sec
Answer: Option A

Question No. 36
A weight is suspended at the free end of a light member hinged to a vertical wall. If the angle
of
(A) W
(B) W
(C) W
(D) W
Answer: Option A

Question No. 37
The beam shown in below figure is supported by a hinge at and a roller at . The
reaction RA of the hinged support of the beam, is

(A) 10.8 t
(B) 10.6 t
(C) 10.4 t
(D) 10.2 t
Answer: Option D

Question No. 38
Two particles have been projected at angles 64° and 45° to the horizontal. If the velocity of
projection of first is 10 m/sec, the velocity of projection of the other for equal horizontal ranges is
(A) 9.3 m/sec
(B) 8.3 m/sec
(C) 7.3 m/sec
(D) 6.3 m/sec
 Answer: Option A

Question No. 39
The force polygon representing a set of forces in equilibrium is a
(A) Triangle
(B) Open polygon
(C) Closed polygon
(D) Parallelogram
Answer: Option C

Question No. 40
The centre of gravity of a homogenous body is the point at which the whole
(A) Volume of the body is assumed to be concentrated
(B) Area of the surface of the body is assumed to be concentrated
(C) Weight of the body is assumed to be concentrated
(D) All the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 41
A satellite moves in its orbit around the earth due to
(A) Gravitational force
(B) Centripetal force
(C) Centrifugal force
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 42
The force acting on a point on the surface of a rigid body may be considered to act
(A) At the centre of gravity of the body
(B) On the periphery of the body
(C) On any point on the line of action of the force
(D) At any point on the surface normal to the line of action of the force
Answer: Option C

Question No. 43
For a non-concurrent force system to be in equilibrium
(A) Only the closure of force polygon is sufficient
(B) Only the closure of funicular polygon is sufficient
(C) Both force polygon and funicular polygon must close
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 44
If w) and the
central dip is , the horizontal pull at each support, is
 (A) wl/4y
(B) wl/8y
(C) wl/2y
(D) wl
Answer: Option B

Question No. 45
The C.G. of the shaded area of the below figure whose curve OM is a parabola from y-axis, is

(A) a/4
(B) 3a/4
(C) 3b/10
(D) 3a/10
Answer: Option B

Question No. 46
A rod 5 m in length is moving in a vertical plane. When it is inclined at 60° to horizontal, its lower
end is moving horizontally at 3 m/sec and upper end is moving in vertical direction. The velocity of
its upper end, is
(A) 0.5 m/sec
(B) 1.0 m/sec
(C) 1.5 m/sec
(D) 2.5 m/sec
Answer: Option B

Question No. 47
A force P of 50 N and another force Q of unknown magnitude act at 90° to each other. They are
balanced by a force of 130 N. The magnitude of Q is
(A) 60 N
(B) 80 N
(C) 100 N
(D) 120 N
Answer: Option D

Question No. 48
On a mass describing a circular path of radius , the centrifugal force
(A) Acts tangentially to the circular path
(B) Acts towards the centre of rotation
(C) Acts away from the centre of rotation
 (D) Is mw2r/g kgf
Answer: Option B

Question No. 49
Parallelogram Law of Forces states, "if two forces acting simultaneously on a particle be
represented in magnitude and direction by two adjacent sides of a parallelogram, their resultant
may be represented in magnitude and direction by
(A) Its longer side
(B) Its shorter side
(C) The diagonal of the parallelogram which does not pass through the point of intersection of
the forces
(D) The diagonal of the parallelogram which passes through the point of intersection of the
forces
Answer: Option D

Question No. 50
The following factor affects the orbit of a satellite up to an altitude of 720 km from the earth's
surface
(A) Uneven distribution of the gravitational field
(B) Gravity of the sun and the moon
(C) Aerodynamic forces
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 51
Two circular discs of same weight and thickness are made from metals having different densities.
Which disc will have the larger rotational inertia about its central axis?
(A) Disc with larger density
(B) Disc with smaller density
(C) Both discs will have same rotational inertia
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 52
Moment of inertia of a squares of side about an axis through its centre of gravity, is
(A) b3/4
(B) b4/12
(C) b4/3
(D) b4/8
Answer: Option B

Question No. 53
The masses of two balls are in the ratio of 2 : 1 and their respective velocities are in the ratio of 1 :
2 but in opposite direction before impact. If the coefficient of restitution is ½, the velocities of
separation of the balls will be equal to
 (A) Original velocity in the same direction
(B) Half the original velocity in the same direction
(C) Half the original velocity in the opposite direction
(D) Original velocity in the opposite direction
Answer: Option D

Question No. 54
The ratio of the reactions RA and RB of a simply supported beam shown in below figure is

(A) 0.50
(B) 0.40
(C) 0.67
(D) 1.00
Answer: Option D

Question No. 55
A disc of mass 4 kg, radius 0.5 m and moment of inertia 3 kgm² rolls on a horizontal surface so that
its center moves with speed 5 m/see. Kinetic energy of the disc is
(A) 50 J
(B) 150 J
(C) 200 J
(D) 400 J
Answer: Option C

Question No. 56
A point subjected to a number of forces will be in equilibrium, if
(A) Sum of resolved parts in any two directions at right angles, are both zero
(B) Algebraic sum of the forces is zero
(C) Two resolved parts in any two directions at right angles are equal
(D) Algebraic sum of the moments of the forces about the point is zero
Answer: Option A

Question No. 57
The resultant of two forces and acting at an
(A) P2 + Q2 + 2P
(B) P2 + Q2 + 2PQ
(C) P2 + Q2 + 2PQ
(D) P2 + Q2 + 2PQ
Answer: Option D
Question No. 58
A particle moves with a velocity of 2 m/sec in a straight line with a negative acceleration of 0.1
m/sec2. Time required to traverse a distance of 1.5 m, is
(A) 40 sec
(B) 30 sec
(C) 20 sec
(D) 15 sec
Answer: Option C

Question No. 59
It is observed that in a certain sinusoidal oscillation, the amplitude is linearly dependent on the
frequency f . If the maximum velocity during the oscillation is V , then V must be proportional to
(A) f
(B) 1/f
(C) 1/f²
(D) f²
Answer: Option D

Question No. 60
One Joule is equivalent to
(A) 9.81 Newton metre
(B) 1 Newton metre
(C) 1 kg wt metre
(D) 1 dyne metre
Answer: Option B

Question No. 61
The velocity of a moving body, is
(A) A vector quantity
(B) A scalar quantity
(C) A constant quantity
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 62
1 and u2 are the velocities of approach of two moving bodies in the same direction and their

corresponding velocities of separation are v1 and v2 wton's law of collision of elastic

bodies, the coefficient of restitution (e) is given by
(A) e = v1 - v2/u2 - u1
(B) e = u2 - u1/v1 - v2
(C) e = v2 - v1/u1 - u2
(D) e = v1 - v2/u2 + u1
Answer: Option C
Question No. 63
For the system of the loads shown in below figure, the time required for the 6.6 kg load to fall on
the edge, is

(A) 1 sec
(B) 2 sec
(C) 3 sec
(D) 4 sec
Answer: Option C

Question No. 64
A cable loaded with 10 kN/m of span is stretched between supports in the same horizontal line
100 m apart. If the central dip is 10 m, then the maximum and minimum pull in the cable
respectively are
(A) 1346.3 kN and 1500 kN
(B) 1436.2 kN and 1250 kN
(C) 1346.3 kN and 1250 kN
(D) 1436.2 kN and 1500 kN
Answer: Option C

Question No. 65
A vehicle weighing w kg is to run on a circular curve of radius r . If the height of its centre of
gravity above the road level is h and the distance between the centres of wheels is 2a, the
maximum velocity, in order to avoid over turning, will be
(A) gra/h
(B) (gra/h)
(C) 3 (gra/h)
(D) 4 (gra/h)
Answer: Option B

Question No. 66
The centre of gravity of a triangle is at the point where three
(A) Medians of the triangle meet
(B) Perpendicular bisectors of the sides of the triangle meet
(C) Bisectors of the angle of the triangle meet
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 67
For perfectly elastic bodies, the value of coefficient of restitution is
(A) Zero
(B) 0.5
(C) 1.0
(D) Between 0 and 1
Answer: Option C

Question No. 68
A stone was thrown vertically upwards from the ground with a velocity of 50 m/sec. After 5
seconds another stone was thrown vertically upwards from the same place. If both the stones
strike the ground at the same time, then the velocity with which the second stone was thrown
should be (Assume g = 10 m/sec²)
(A) 15 m/sec
(B) 25 m/sec
(C) 40 m/sec
(D) 50 m/sec
Answer: Option B

Question No. 69
A retarding force on a body does not
(A) Change the motion of the body
(B) Retard the motion of the body
(C) Introduce the motion of the body
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 70
A cable loaded with 0.5 tonne per horizontal metre span is stretched between supports in the
same horizontal line 400 m apart. If central dip is 20 m, the minimum tension in the cable, will be
(A) 200 tonnes at the centre
(B) 500 tonnes at the centre
(C) 200 tonnes at the right support
(D) 200 tonnes at the left support
Answer: Option B

Question No. 71
The bending moment in an arch is proportional to
(A) Vertical ordinate of funicular polygon
(B) Vertical ordinate of the arch
(C) Intercept between the arch axis and the funicular polygon
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 72
The C.G. of the shaded area of the below figure from the x-axis is

(A) a/4
(B) 3a/4
(C) 3b/10
(D) 3a/10
Answer: Option C

Question No. 73
The centre of gravity of a trapezoidal dam section whose top width is a, bottom width is band the
vertical side is a, from its vertical face is
(A) (a² + ab + b²)/3 (a + b)
(B) (b² + bc + c²)/3 (b + c)
(C) (a² + ab + c²)/3 (a + c)
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 74
Joule is the unit of
(A) Work
(B) Force
(C) Power
(D) Torque
Answer: Option A

Question No. 75
The equation of motion of a particle starting from rest along a straight line is x = t3 - 3l2 + 5. The
ratio of the velocities after 5 sec and 3 sec will be
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
Answer: Option D

Question No. 76
If a set of given forces are such that their free vectors build a closed polygon, then
(A) The resultant force and resultant couple are always zero
(B) The resultant force is zero but resultant couple is not zero
 (C) The resultant force is zero but resultant couple may not be zero
(D) The resultant force and resultant couple both may not be zero
Answer: Option C

Question No. 77
To double the period of oscillation of a simple pendulum
(A) The mass of its bob should be doubled
(B) The mass of its bob should be quadrupled
(C) Its length should be quadrupled
(D) Its length should be doubled
Answer: Option C

Question No. 78
When a body in equilibrium undergoes an infinitely small displacement, work imagined to be
done, is known as
(A) Imaginary work
(B) Negative work
(C) Virtual work
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 79
A ball is dropped from a height of 2.25 m on a smooth floor and rises to a height of 1.00 m after
the bounce. The coefficient of restitution between the ball and the floor is
(A) 0.33
(B) 0.44
(C) 0.57
(D) 0.67
Answer: Option D

Question No. 80
If the resultant of two forces has the same magnitude as either of the force, then the angle
between the two forces is
(A) 30°
(B) 45°
(C) 60°
(D) 120°
Answer: Option D

Question No. 81
A ball which is thrown upwards, returns to the ground describing a parabolic path during its flight
(A) Vertical component of velocity remains constant
(B) Horizontal component of velocity remains constant
(C) Speed of the ball remains constant
(D) Kinetic energy of the ball remains constant
 Answer: Option B

Question No. 82
A string of length 90 cm is fastened to two points and at the same level 60 cm apart. A ring
weighing 120 g is slided on the string. A horizontal force is applied to the ring such that it is in
equilibrium vertically below . The value of is:
(A) 40 g
(B) 60 g
(C) 80 g
(D) 100 g
Answer: Option C

Question No. 83
A satellite is said to move in a synchronous orbit if it moves at an altitude of 36, 000 km with a
maximum velocity of about
(A) 7000 km per hour
(B) 8000 km per hour
(C) 9000 km per hour
(D) 11,000 km per hour
Answer: Option

Question No. 84
A rigid body is in a stable equilibrium if the application of any force
(A) Can raise the CG of the body but cannot lower it
(B) Tends to lower the CG of the body
(C) Neither raises nor lowers the CG of the body
(D) None of above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 85
The reaction at the support B of the beam shown in below figure is

(A) 1.6 t
(B) 9.6 t
(C) 8.5 t
(D) 0.5 t
Answer: Option C
Question No. 86
A uniform rod 9 m long weighing 40 kg is pivoted at a point 2 m from one end where a weight of
120 kg is suspended. The required force acting at the end in a direction perpendicular to rod to
keep it equilibrium, at an inclination 60° with horizontal, is
(A) 40 kg
(B) 60 kg
(C) 10 kg
(D) 100 kg
Answer: Option C

Question No. 87
The instantaneous centre of a member lies at the point of intersection of two lines drawn at the
ends of the member such that the lines are inclined to the direction of motion of the ends at
(A) 30°
(B) 45°
(C) 60°
(D) 90°
Answer: Option D

Question No. 88
A flywheel of moment of inertia 20 kgm" is acted upon by a tangential force of 5 N at 2 m from its
axis, for 3 seconds. The increase in angular velocity in radian per second is
(A) 1/2
(B) 3/2
(C) 2
(D) 3
Answer: Option B

Question No. 89
The phenomenon of collision of two elastic bodies takes place because bodies
(A) Immediately after collision come momentarily to rest
(B) Tend to compress each other till they are compressed maximum possible
(C) Attempt to regain its original shape due to their elasticities
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 90
The unit of Moment of Inertia of a body, is
(A) m
(B) m2
(C) m3
(D) m4
Answer: Option D
Question No. 91
The angle of friction is:
(A) The ratio of the friction and the normal reaction
(B) The force of friction when the body is in motion
(C) The angle between the normal reaction and the resultant of normal reaction and limiting
friction
(D) The force of friction at which the body is just about to move
Answer: Option C

Question No. 92
If a projectile is fired with an initial velocity of 10 m/sec at an angle of 60° to the horizontal, its
horizontal and vertical velocity at the highest point of trajectory are
(A) 0 and 5 m/sec
(B) 5 m/sec and 0
(C)
(D)
Answer: Option B

Question No. 93
ank whose radius is
centre and obliquity of the connecting rod v of the piston, is given by the
equation
(A) 2 (l cos + r sin
(B) 2 (l sin + r
(C) l sin + r cos
(D) 2 (l sin - r )
Answer: Option C

Question No. 94
One Newton force, is
(A) 103 dynes
(B) 104 dynes
(C) 105 dynes
(D) 106 dynes
Answer: Option C

Question No. 95
A simple pendulum of length l has an energy E , when its amplitude is A . If the length of
pendulum is doubled, the energy will be
(A) E
(B) E/2
(C) 2E
(D) 4E
Answer: Option B
Question No. 96
A square hole is made in a circular lamina, the diagonal of the square is equal to the radius of the
circle as shown in below figure the shift in the centre of gravity is

(A) r ( - 0.75)/( - 0.5)

(B) r ( - 0.25)/( - 0.75)
(C) r ( - 0.5)/( - 0.75)
(D) r ( - 0.5)/( - 0.25)
Answer: Option A

Question No. 97
A particle moving with a simple harmonic motion, attains its maximum velocity when it passes
(A) The extreme point of the oscillation
(B) Through the mean position
(C) Through a point at half amplitude
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 98
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Nature plays an important role in the launch of a satellite
(B) The earth's gravity reduces the speed of a satellite by 32 km per second
(C) The gravitational force relents as the satellite climbs higher
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 99
A stone of mass 1 kg is tied to a string of length 1 m and whirled in a horizontal circle at a constant
angular speed 5 rad/sec. The tension in the string is,
(A) 5 N
(B) 10 N
(C) 15 N
(D) 25 N
Answer: Option D
Question No. 100
A ladder of weight 'w' rests against a smooth vertical wall, and rests on rough horizontal ground,
the coefficient of friction between the ladder and the ground being 1/4. The maximum angle of
inclination of the ladder to the vertical, if a man of weight 'w' is to walk to the top of it safely, is
tan'1 x, where x is
(A) 1/4
(B) 1/3
(C) 3
(D) 4
Answer: Option B

Question No. 101

For a self-locking machine, the efficiency should be
(A) Less than 60%
(B) 50 %
(C) More than 50%
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 102

The C.G. of a right circular cone lies on its axis of symmetry at a height of
(A) h/2
(B) h/3
(C) h/4
(D) h/5
Answer: Option C

Question No. 103

The resultant of two forces acting at right angles is kg and acting at 60° is 70 kg. The forces are
(A) 1 kg and 4 kg
(B) 2 kg and 3 kg
(C) kg
(D) 3 kg and 5 kg
Answer: Option D

Question No. 104

A body is dropped from a height of 100 m and at the same time another body is projected
vertically upward with a velocity of 10 m/sec. The two particles will
(A) Never meet
(B) Meet after 1 sec
(C) Meet after 5 sec
(D) Meet after 10 sec
Answer: Option D
Question No. 105
In the structure shown in below figure, the member which carries zero force, is

(A) AB
(B) BC
(C) BE
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 106

The forces which meet at one point and have their lines of action in different planes are called
(A) Coplanar non-concurrent forces
(B) Non-coplanar concurrent forces
(C) Non-coplanar non-current forces
(D) Intersecting forces
Answer: Option B

Question No. 107

A marble ball is rolled on a smooth floor of a room to hit a wall. If the time taken by the ball in
returning to the point of projection is twice the time taken in reaching the wall, the coefficient of
restitution between the ball and the wall, is
(A) 0.25
(B) 0.50
(C) 0.75
(D) 1.0
Answer: Option B

Question No. 108

A system of coplanar forces acting on a rigid body can be reduced to
(A) One force only
(B) One couple only
(C) One force and one couple only
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 109

Williot-Mohr diagram is used to determine deflection in
(A) Trusses only
 (B) Beam only
(C) Rigid frames only
(D) Any type of structure
Answer: Option A

Question No. 110

The Law of Polygon of Forces states that
(A) If a polygon representing the forces acting at point in a body is closed, the forces are in
equilibrium
(B) If forces acting on a point can be represented in magnitude and direction by the sides of a
polygon taken in order, then the resultant of the forces will be represented in magnitude
and direction by the closing side of the polygon
(C) If forces acting on a point can be represented of a polygon taken in order, their sides of a
polygon taken in order, their resultant will be represented in magnitude and direction by the
closing side of the polygon, taken in opposite order
(D) If forces acting on a point can be represented in magnitude and direction by the sides of a
polygon in order, the forces are in equilibrium
Answer: Option C

Question No. 111

The reaction at the support D of the continuous beam ABCD, hinged at two points shown in below
figure is

(A) 1.6 t
(B) 1.6 t
(C) 0.5 t
(D) 0.5 t
Answer: Option B

Question No. 112

A 49 kg lady stands on a spring scale in an elevator. During the first 5 sec, starting from rest, the
scale reads 69 kg. The velocity of the elevator will be
(A) 10 m/sec
(B) 15 m/sec
(C) 20 m/sec
(D) 25 m/sec
Answer: Option C
Question No. 113
The numbers of funicular polygons which can be drawn to pass through two specified points in the
space diagram are
(A) Zero
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) Infinity
Answer: Option D

Question No. 114

Periodic time of body moving with simple harmonic motion, is
(A) Directly proportional to its angular velocity
(B) Directly proportional to the square of its angular velocity
(C) Inversely proportional to the square of its angular velocity
(D) Inversely proportional to its angular velocity
Answer: Option D

Question No. 115

A square hole is punched out of a circular lamina, the diagonal of the square being the radius of
the circle. If is the radius of the circle, the C.G. of the remainder from the corner of the square
on the circumference will be
(A) [r ( + 0.25)]/( - 0.5)
(B) [r ( - 0.5)]/( + 0.25)
(C) [r ( - 0.25)]/( - 0.5)
(D) [r ( + 0.25)]/( + 0.5)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 116

A body A of mass 6.6 kg which is lying on a horizontal platform 4.5 m from its edge is connected to
the end of a light string whose other end is supporting a body of mass 3.2 kg as shown in below
figure. If the friction between the platform and the body A is 1/3, the acceleration is

(A) 0.5 m/sec2

(B) 0.75 m/sec2
(C) 1.00 m/sec2
(D) 1.25 m/sec2
Answer: Option C
Question No. 117
A geo-stationary satellite is one which orbits the earth with a velocity of rotation of
(A) Moon
(B) Earth
(C) Sun
(D) Pole
Answer: Option B

Question No. 118

The total time of collision and restitution of two bodies, is called
(A) Time of collision
(B) Period of collision
(C) Period of impact
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 119

is the force acting on a body whose mass is and acceleration is . The equation P - mf= 0, is
known as
(A) Equation of dynamics
(B) Equation of dynamic equilibrium
(C) Equation of statics
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 120

A rod AB carries three loads of 30 N, 70 N and 100 N at distances of 20 mm, 90 mm and 150 mm
respectively from A. Neglecting the weight of the rod, the point at which the rod will balance is
(A) 109.5 mm from A
(B) 119.5 mm from A
(C) 125.5 mm from A
(D) 132.5 mm from A
Answer: Option A

Question No. 121

M.I. of solid sphere, is
(A) Mr2
(B) ½ Mr2
(C) Mr2
(D) 4/2
Answer: Option C

Question No. 122

Two forces act an angle of 120°. If the greater force is 50 kg and their resultant is perpendicular to
the smaller force, the smaller force is
 (A) 20 kg
(B) 25 kg
(C) 30 kg
(D) 35 kg
Answer: Option B

Question No. 123

The necessary condition of equilibrium of a body is:
(A) Algebraic sum of horizontal components of all the forces must be zero
(B) Algebraic sum of vertical components of all the forces must be zero
(C) Algebraic sum of the moments of the forces about a point must be zero
(D) All (a), (b) and (c)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 124

Which of the following represents the state of neutral equilibrium?
(A) A cube resting on one edge
(B) A smooth cylinder lying on a curved surface
(C) A smooth cylinder lying on a convex surface
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 125

The unit of force in C.G.S. system of units, is called
(A) Dyne
(B) Newton
(C) Kg
(D) All the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 126

The equation of motion of a particle starting from rest along a straight line is x = t3 - 3t2+ 5. The
ratio of the accelerations after 5 sec and 3 sec will be
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
Answer: Option

Question No. 127

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) The C.G. of a circle is at its centre
(B) The C.G. of a triangle is at the intersection of its medians
(C) The C.G. of a rectangle is at the intersection of its diagonals
(D) The C.G. of a semicircle is at a distance of r/2 from the centre
 Answer: Option D

Question No. 128

If the angular distance, 0 = 2t3 - 3t², the angular acceleration at t = 1 sec. is
(A) 1 rad/sec²
(B) 4 rad/sec²
(C) 6 rad/sec²
(D) 12 rad/sec²
Answer: Option C

Question No. 129

A heavy ladder resting on a floor and against a vertical wall may not be in equilibrium, if
(A) Floor is smooth and the wall is rough
(B) Floor is rough and the wall is smooth
(C) Floor and wall both are smooth surfaces
(D) Floor and wall both are rough surfaces
Answer: Option C

Question No. 130

If the tension in a cable supporting a lift moving upwards is twice the tension when the lift is
moving downwards, the acceleration of the lift, is
(A) g/2
(B) g/3
(C) g/4
(D) g/5
Answer: Option B

Question No. 131

Newton's law of Collision of elastic bodies states that when two moving bodies collide each other,
their velocity of separation
(A) Is directly proportional to their velocity of approach
(B) Is inversely proportional to their velocity of approach
(C) Bears a constant ratio to their velocity of approach
(D) Is equal to the sum of their velocities of approach
Answer: Option C

Question No. 132

The angle of projection at which the horizontal range and maximum height of a projectile are
equal to
(A) 36°
(B) 45°
(C) 56°
(D) 76°
Answer: Option D
Question No. 133
Two loads of 50 kg and 75 kg are hung at the ends of a rope passing over a smooth pulley shown in
below figure. The tension in the string is:

(A) 50 kg
(B) 75 kg
(C) 25 kg
(D) 60 kg
Answer: Option D

Question No. 134

The mechanical advantage of an ideal machine is 100. For moving the local through 2 m, the effort
moves through
(A) 0.02 m
(B) 2 m
(C) 2.5 m
(D) 20 m
Answer: Option A

Question No. 135

A ball moving with a velocity of 5 m/sec impinges a fixed plane at an angle of 45° and its direction
after impact is equally inclined to the line of impact. If the coefficient of restitution is 0.5, the
velocity of the ball after impact will be
(A) 0.5 m/sec
(B) 1.5 m/sec
(C) 2.5 m/sec
(D) 3.5 m/sec
Answer: Option C

Question No. 136

If A is the amplitude of particle executing simple harmonic motion, then the total energy E of the
particle is
(A) Proportional to A
(B) Proportional to A²
(C) Proportional to 1/A²
(D) Independent of A
Answer: Option B
Question No. 137
A body of weight placed on an inclined plane is acted upon by a force parallel to the plane
which causes the body just to move up the plane. If the angle of
, is
(A) w sin ( - cos
(B) w sin - )/
(C) w cos )/cos
(D) w sin cos - )/
Answer: Option B

Question No. 138

The C.G. of a thin hollow cone of height , above its base lies on the axis, at a height of
(A) h/3
(B) h/4
(C) 2h/3
(D) 3h/4
Answer: Option C

Question No. 139

According to Law of Triangle of Forces
(A) Three forces acting at a point, can be rep-resented by the sides of a triangle, each side being
in proportion to the force
(B) Three forces acting along the sides of a triangle are always in equilibrium
(C) If three forces acting on a, point can be represented in magnitude and direction, by the sides
of a triangle taken in order, these will be in equilibrium
(D) If the forces acting on a particle be represented in magnitude and direction by the two sides
of a triangle taken in order, their resultant will be represented in magnitude and direction by
the third side of the triangle, taken in opposite order
Answer: Option D

Question No. 140

The unit of rotational inertia of a body in C.G.S system is
(A) cm4
(B) kg.cm²
(C) gm.cm²
(D) gm.cm3
Answer: Option C

Question No. 141

In case of S.H.M. the period of oscillation (T), is given by
(A) T = 2 / ²
(B) T = 2 /
(C) T = 2/
(D) T = /2
Answer: Option B
Question No. 142
The locus of the instantaneous centre of a moving rigid body, is
(A) Straight line
(B) Involute
(C) Centroid
(D) Spiral
Answer: Option C

Question No. 143

A 50 kg boy climbs up a 8 m rope in gymnasium in 10 sec. The average power developed by the
boy is approximately
(A) 400 watts
(B) 500 watts
(C) 4000 watts
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 144

Minimum pull in a suspended cable with supports at two ends is equal to
(A) Horizontal thrust
(B) Support reactions
(C) Resultant of horizontal thrust and support reaction
(D) Half the weight of the cable
Answer: Option A

Question No. 145

The reaction at the central support B of the beam ABC hinged at D shown in below figure is

(A) 2 t
(B) 5.8 t
(C) 0.2 t
(D) 3.5 t
Answer: Option B

Question No. 146

Engineer's units of force, is
(A) Newton in absolute units
(B) Dyne in absolute units
(C) Newton and dyne in absolute units
(D) All the above
 Answer: Option A

Question No. 147

The ends of a string weighing w/metre are attached to two points at the same horizontal level. If
the central dip is very small, the horizontal tension of the string throughout is
(A) wl/4d
(B) wl²/4d
(C) wl²/8d
(D) wl²/16d
Answer: Option C

Question No. 148

A shell of mass 100 kg travelling with a velocity of 10 m/sec breaks into two equal pieces during an
explosion which provides an extra kinetic energy of 20000 Joules. If the pieces continue to move in
the same direction as before, then the speed of the faster one must be
(A) 20 m/sec
(B) 30 m/sec
(C) 40 m/sec
(D) 50 m/sec
Answer: Option B

Question No. 149

The rate of change of displacement of a body with respect to its surrounding, is known
(A) Velocity
(B) Acceleration
(C) Speed
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 150

If the radius of the earth is 600 km the height of a mountain above sea level at the top of which a
beat seconds pendulum at sea level, looses 27 seconds a day, is
(A) 500 metres
(B) 1000 metres
(C) 1500 metres
(D) 2000 metres
Answer: Option D

Question No. 151

If the horizontal range is 2.5 times the greatest height, the angle of projection of the projectile, is
(A) 57°
(B) 58°
(C) 59°
(D) 60°
Answer: Option B
Question No. 152
If two forces are in equilibrium, then the forces must
(i) Be equal in magnitude
(ii) Be opposite in sense
(iii) Act along the same line
The correct answer is
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i) and (iii)
(C) Only (i)
(D) All (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 153

The unit of moments in M.K.S system, is
(A) kg.m
(B) kg/m2
(C) kg/sec2
(D) kg/sec
Answer: Option A

Question No. 154

. It will have the maximum
centripetal acceleration
(A) At the start
(B) At the top of the trajectory
(C) As it strikes the ground
(D) Elsewhere
Answer: Option A

Question No. 155

If two bodies of masses M1 and M2(M1 > M2) are connected by alight inextensible string passing
over a smooth pulley, the tension in the string, will be given by
(A) T = g(M1 - M2)/(M1 + M2)
(B) T = g(M1 + M2)/(M1 × M2)
(C) T = g(M2 - M1)/(M1 + M2)
(D) T = g(M2 + M1)/(M2 - M1)
Answer: Option A

Question No. 156

The angles between two forces to make their resultant a minimum and a maximum respectively
are
(A) 0° and 90°
(B) 180° and 90°
(C) 90° and 180°
(D) 180° and 0°
 Answer: Option D

Question No. 157

The piston of a steam engine moves with a simple harmonic motion. The crank rotates 120 r.p.m.
and the stroke length is 2 metres. The linear velocity of the piston when it is at a distance of 0.5
metre from the centre, is
(A) 5.88 m/sec
(B) 8.88 m/sec
(C) 10.88 m/sec
(D) 12.88 m/sec
Answer: Option C

Question No. 158

The angle which an inclined surface makes with the horizontal when a body placed on it is on the
point of moving down, is called
(A) Angle of repose
(B) Angle of friction
(C) Angle of inclination
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 159

Two shots fired simultaneously from the top and bottom of a vertical tower with elevations of 30°
and 45° respectively strike a target simultaneously. If horizontal distance of the target from the
tower is 1000 m, the height of the tower is
(A) 350 m
(B) 375 m
(C) 400 m
(D) 425 m
Answer: Option D

Question No. 160

The angular speed of a car while taking a circular turn of radius 100 m at 36 km/hour, is
(A) 0.1 radian/sec
(B) 1 radian/sec
(C) 100 radian/sec
(D) 1000 radian/sec
Answer: Option A

Question No. 161

A particle is dropped from the top of a tower 60 m high and another is projected upwards from
the foot of the tower to meet the first particle at a height of 15.9 m. The velocity of projection of
the second particle is
(A) 16 m/sec
(B) 18 m/sec
 (C) 20 m/sec
(D) 22 m/sec
Answer: Option C

Question No. 162

(A)
(B) (1 -
(C) -
(D) (1 -
Answer: Option D

Question No. 163

The member which does not carry zero force in the structure shown in below figure, is

(A) ED
(B) DC
(C) BC
(D) BD
Answer: Option D

Question No. 164

At the instantaneous center, the velocity of the moving lamina at any instant is
(A) Zero
(B) Maximum
(C) Minimum
(D) Varying
Answer: Option A

Question No. 165

If two equal forces of magnitude act at an an
(A) P
(B) 2P
(C) P
(D) 2P
Answer: Option D
Question No. 166
If a body moves in such a way that its velocity increases by equal amount in equal intervals of
time, it is said to be moving with
(A) A uniform retardation
(B) A uniform acceleration
(C) A variable acceleration
(D) A variable retardation
Answer: Option C

Question No. 167

A number of forces acting simultaneously on a particle of a body
(A) May not be replaced by a single force
(B) May be replaced by a single force
(C) May be replaced by a single force through C.G. of the body
(D) May be replaced by a couple
Answer: Option B

Question No. 168

A stone is thrown up a slope of inclination 60° to the horizontal. At what angle to the slope must
the stone be thrown so as to land as far as possible from the point of projection?
(A) 15°
(B) 30°
(C) 45°
(D) 75°
Answer: Option A

Question No. 169

If a body is acted upon by a number of coplanar non-concurrent forces, it may
(A) Rotate about itself without moving
(B) Move in any one direction
(C) Move in any one direction rotating about itself
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 170

If three rigid rods are hinged together to form a triangle and are given rotary as well as translatory
motion, the number of instantaneous centres of the triangle, will be
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Answer: Option C
Question No. 171
are the angle of projection and initial velocity of a projectile respectively, the
horizontal range of the projectile, is
(A) /g
(B) /g
(C) /2g
(D) /2g
Answer: Option A

Question No. 172

The potential energy of a particle falling through a straight shaft drilled through the earth
(assumed homogenous and spherical) is proportional to
(A) log r
(B) r
(C) r²
(D) 1/r
Where r is the distance of the particle from centre of the earth
Answer: Option C

Question No. 173

From a circular plate of a diameter 6 cm is cut out a circle whose diameter is equal to the radius of
the plate. The C.G. of the remainder from the centre of circular plate is at a distance of
(A) 2.0 cm
(B) 1.5 cm
(C) 1.0 cm
(D) 0.5 cm
Answer: Option D

Question No. 174

If the gravitational acceleration at any place is doubled, the weight of a body, will
(A) Be reduced to half
(B) Be doubled
(C) Not be affected
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 175

A pilot flies a small plane in a vertical loop of radius . At the top of its trajectory he experiences
weightlessness. If the acceleration due to gravity is , the speed of the plane at the top of its
trajectory would be
(A) Zero
(B) Infinite
(C) gr
(D) 2gr
Answer: Option C
Question No. 176
If a body is lying on a plane whose inclination with the horizontal is less than the angle of friction,
then?
(i) A force is required to move the body upwards
(ii) A force is required to move the body downward
(iii) The body will not be in equilibrium
The correct answer is
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Both (i) and (ii)
(D) Both (i) and (iii)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 177

The acceleration of a particle moving along the circumference of a circle with a uniform speed, is
directed
(A) Radially
(B) Tangentially at that point
(C) Away from the centre
(D) Towards the centre
Answer: Option B

Question No. 178

Work may be defined as
(A) Force × distance
(B) Force × velocity
(C) Force × acceleration
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 179

Pick up the correct statement from the following for the structure shown in below figure.

(A) The horizontal reaction at A t

(B) The horizontal reaction at C t
(C) The vertical reaction at A is zero
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 180
A shell travelling with a horizontal velocity of 100 m/sec explodes and splits into two parts, one of
mass 10 kg and the other of 15 kg. The 15 kg mass drops vertically downward with initial velocity
of 100 m/sec and the 10 kg mass begins to travel at an angle to the horizontal of tan"1 x, where x
is
(A) 3/4
(B) 4/5
(C) 5/3
(D) 3/5
Answer: Option D

Question No. 181

A ball of mass 250 g moving on a smooth horizontal table with a velocity of 10 m/sec hits an
identical stationary ball on the table. If the impact is perfectly plastic, the velocity of the
ball just after impact would be
(A) Zero
(B) 5 m/sec
(C) 10 m/sec
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 182

The length of a Second's pendulum, is
(A) 99.0 cm
(B) 99.4 cm
(C) 100 cm
(D) 101 cm
Answer: Option B

Question No. 183

The following statement is one of the laws of Dynamic friction
(A) The force of friction always acts in a direction opposite to that in which a body is moving
(B) The magnitude of the kinetic friction bears a constant ratio to the normal reaction between
two surfaces. The ratio being slightly less than that in the case of limiting friction
(C) For moderate speeds the force of friction remains constant but decreases slightly with the
increase of speed
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 184

Force polygon method is applicable for
(A) Any coplanar force system
(B) A system of parallel forces only
(C) Concurrent coplanar force system
(D) Non-concurrent coplanar force system
 Answer: Option C

Question No. 185

A weight of 100 kg is supported by a string whose ends are attached to pegs and at the
same level shown in below figure. The tension in the string is

(A) 50 kg
(B) 75 kg
(C) 100 kg
(D) 120 kg
Answer: Option C

Question No. 186

A particle moves along a straight line such that distance traversed in seconds is given
by x = t2(t + 1), the acceleration of the particle, will be
(A) 3t3 - 2t
(B) 3t2 + 2t
(C) 6t - 2
(D) 6t + 2
Answer: Option D

Question No. 187

If two forces P and Q (P > Q) act on the same straight line but in opposite direction, their resultant,
is
(A) P + Q
(B) P/Q
(C) Q/P
(D) P - Q
Answer: Option D

Question No. 188

The condition of equilibrium for any system of forces in a plane is
(A) That polygon of forces must close
(B) That resultant couple must be zero
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option C
Question No. 189

(A) Arithmetical sum of the moments of two forces about any point, is equal to the moments of
their resultant about that point
(B) Algebraic sum of the moments of two forces about any point, is equal to the moment of
their resultant about that point
(C) Arithmetical sum of the moments of the forces about any point in their plane, is equal to the
moment of their resultant about that point
(D) Algebraic sum of the moments of the forces about any point in their plane, is equal to the
moment of their resultant about that point
Answer: Option D

Question No. 190

If g1 and g2 are the gravitational accelerations on two mountains A and B respectively, the weight
of a body when transported from A to B will be multiplied by
(A) g1
(B) g2
(C) g1/g2
(D) g2/g1
Answer: Option D

Question No. 191

The characteristic of a couple is:
(A) Algebraic sum of forces, constituting a couple is zero
(B) Algebraic sum of moments of forces, constituting a couple, about any point, is same
(C) A couple can be never the balanced by a single force
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 192

When two forces, each equal to P, act at 90° to each other, then the resultant will be
(A) P
(B) P
(C) P
(D) 2P
Answer: Option B

Question No. 193

The displacement of a particle which moves along a straight line is given by S = 4t3 + 3t2- 10
where is in meters and t is in seconds. The time taken by the particle to acquire a velocity of 18
m/sec from rest, is
(A) ½ sec
(B) 1 sec
(C) 1.2 sec
(D) 1.5 sec
 Answer: Option B

Question No. 194

Which one of the following statements is true?
(A) The tangent of the angle of friction is equal to coefficient of friction
(B) The angle of repose is equal to angle of friction
(C) The tangent of the angle of repose is equal to coefficient of friction
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 195

A load of 500 kg was lifted through a distance of 13 cm. by an effort of 25 kg which moved through
a distance of 650 cm. The velocity ratio of the lifting machine is
(A) 50
(B) 55
(C) 60
(D) 65
Answer: Option A

Question No. 196

Instantaneous center is at infinity when the angular velocity is
(A) Constant
(B) Zero
(C) Maximum
(D) Minimum
Answer: Option B

Question No. 197

When a body moves round a fixed axis, it has
(A) A rotary motion
(B) A circular motion
(C) A translatory
(D) A rotary motion and translatory motion
Answer: Option B

Question No. 198

A load of 500 kg was lifted through a distance of 13 cm. by an effort of 25 kg which moved through
a distance of 650 cm. The efficiency of the lifting machine is
(A) 50 %
(B) 40 %
(C) 55 %
(D) 30 %
Answer: Option A
Question No. 199

(A) Everybody continues in its state of rest or of uniform motion in a straight line, unless it is
acted upon by some external force
(B) The rate of change of momentum is directly proportional to the impressed force, and takes
place in the same direction, in which the force acts
(C) To every action, there is always an equal and opposite reaction
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 200

(A) 1 sec and 99.4 cm

(B) 1 sec and 92.7 cm
(C) 2 sec and 99.4 cm
(D) 2 sec and 92.7 cm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 201

The frequency of oscillation on moon as compared to that on earth, will be
(A) 2.44 times more
(B) 2.44 times less
(C) 3 times less
(D) 3 times more
Answer: Option B

Question No. 202

The maximum velocity of a body vibrating with a simple harmonic motion of amplitude 150 mm
and frequency 2 vibrations/sec, is
(A) 188.5 m/sec
(B) 18.85 m/sec
(C) 1.885 m/sec
(D) 0.18845 m/sec
Answer: Option C

Question No. 203

The centre of gravity of the trapezium as shown in below figure from the side is at a distance of
 (A) (h/3) × [(b + 2a)/(b + a)]
(B) (h/3) × [(2b + a)/(b + a)]
(C) (h/2) × [(b + 2a)/(b + a)]
(D) (h/2) × [(2b + a)/(b + a)]
Answer: Option A

Question No. 204

Cartesian form of the equation of catenary is
(A) y = c cosh x/c
(B) y = c sinh x/c
(C) y = c tan x/c
(D) y = c sin x/c
Answer: Option A

Question No. 205

The moment of inertia of a triangular section (base b, height h) about centroidal axis parallel to
the base, is
(A) b3h/12
(B) bh3/3
(C) bh3/36
(D) bh3/2
Answer: Option C

Question No. 206

To attain the synchronous orbit, the launch of a satellite, is done from a place
(A) On equator
(B) On 30° latitude
(C) On 45° latitude
(D) On the poles
Answer: Option A

Question No. 207

Pick up the correct statement from the following. A rubber ball when strikes a wall rebounds but a
lead ball of same mass and velocity when strikes the same wall, falls down
(A) Rubber and lead balls undergo equal changes in momentum
(B) Change in momentum suffered by lead ball is less that of rubber ball
(C) Momentum of rubber ball is less than that of lead ball
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 208

Two objects moving with uniform speeds are 5 m apart after 1 second when they move towards
each other and are 1 m apart when they move in the same direction. The speeds of the objects are
(A) 2 m/sec and 2 m/sec
(B) 3 m/sec and 2 m/sec
 (C) 3 m/sec and 3 m/sec
(D) 4 m/sec and 6 m/sec
Answer: Option B

Question No. 209

A body of weight 14 g appears to weight 13 g when weighed by a spring balance in a moving lift.
The acceleration of the lift at that moment was
(A) 0.5 m/sec2
(B) 0.7 m/sec2
(C) 1 m/sec2
(D) 1 cm/sec2
Answer: Option B

Question No. 210

The product of mass and velocity of a moving a body, is called
(A) Moment
(B) Momentum
(C) Power
(D) Impulse
Answer: Option B

Question No. 211

A body is said to move with Simple Harmonic Motion if its acceleration, is
(A) Always directed away from the centre, the point of reference
(B) Proportional to the square of the distance from the point of reference
(C) Proportional to the distance from the point of reference and directed towards it
(D) Inversely proportion to the distance from the point of reference
Answer: Option C

Question No. 212

An ordinate in a funicular polygon represents
(A) Shear force
(B) Resultant force
(C) Bending moment
(D) Equilibrium
Answer: Option C

Question No. 213

A bullet weighing 200 g is fired horizontally with a velocity of 25 m/sec from a gun carried on a
carriage which together with the gun weighs 100 kg. The velocity of recoil of the gun, will be
(A) 0.01 m/sec
(B) 0.05 m/sec
(C) 1.00 m/sec
(D) 1.5 m/see
Answer: Option B
Question No. 214
The load shared by the member BC of the structure shown in below figure is

(A) 23 t
(B) 32 t
(C) 4 t
(D) 3 t
Answer: Option C

Question No. 215

The ratio of the ranges on the inclined plane with motion upward and with motion downward for
a given velocity, angle of projection will be
(A) -
(B) -
(C) -
(D) -
Answer: Option B

Question No. 216

The resultant of two forces P and Q is R. If Q is doubled, the new resultant is perpendicular to P.
Then,
(A) P = R
(B) Q = R
(C) P = Q
(D) None of the above is correct
Answer: Option B

Question No. 217

A sphere is resting on two planes BA and BC which are inclined at 45° and 60° respectively with the
horizontal. The reaction on the plane BA will be
(A) Less than that on BC
(B) More than that of BC
(C) Equal to that on BC
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 218
The moment of inertia of the shaded portion of the area shown in below figure about the X-axis,
is

(A) 229.34 cm4

(B) 329.34 cm4
(C) 429.34 cm4
(D) 529.34 cm4
Answer: Option C

Question No. 219

A hoop of radius 3 m weighs 100 kg. It rolls along a horizontal floor so that at its centre of mass
has a speed of 200 mm/sec. The work required to stop the hoop is
(A) 2 J
(B) 4 J
(C) 6 J
(D) 8 J
Answer: Option B

Question No. 220

circle of radius , the equation for the velocity of the particle, is

(A) v (y² - r²)
(B) y (y - r)
(C) v (r² + y²)
(D) v (r² - y²)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 221

A projectile is fired with a velocity of 100.3 m/sec. at an elevation of 60°. The velocity attained by
the projectile when it is moving at a height of 100 m, is
(A) 70 m/sec
(B) 75 m/sec
(C) 80 m/sec
 (D) 90 m/sec
Answer: Option D

Question No. 222

A stone is thrown vertically upwards with a vertical velocity of 49 m/sec. It returns to the ground
in
(A) 5 sec
(B) 8 sec
(C) 10 sec
(D) 20 sec
Answer: Option C

Question No. 223

If two forces each equal to in magnitude act at right angles, their effect may be neutralised by a
third force acting along their bisector in opposite direction whose magnitude will be
(A) 2 T
(B) 1/2 T
(C) T
(D) 3 T
Answer: Option C

Question No. 224

When a body of mass M1 is hanging freely and another of mass M2 lying on a smooth inclined
ey, the
acceleration of the body of mass M1, will be given by
(A) g(M1 + M2 )/(M1 + M2) m/sec
(B) g(M1 - M2 )/(M1 + M2) m/sec²
(C) g(M2 + M1 )/(M1 + M2) m/sec²
(D) g(M2 × M1 )/(M2 - M1) m/sec²
Answer: Option B

Question No. 225

One end of an elastic string of natural length / and modulus X is kept fixed while to the other end
is attached a particle of mass m which is hanging freely under gravity. The particle is pulled down
vertically through a distance x, held at rest and then released. The motion is
(A) A simple harmonic motion
(B) A rectilinear motion with constant speed
(C) A damped oscillatory motion
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 226

projectile from a horizontal plane, is

(A) /2g
 (B) /2g
(C) /2g
(D) u² sin 2 /2g
Answer: Option B

Question No. 227

If two forces acting at a point are in equilibrium, they must be equal in magnitude and their line of
action must be along
(A) The same line in the same sense
(B) The same line in opposite sense
(C) The perpendicular to both the lines
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 228

The shape of a suspended cable for a uniformly distributed load over it is
(A) Circular
(B) Parabolic
(C) Catenary
(D) Cubic parabola
Answer: Option B

Question No. 229

Kinetic friction may be defined as
(A) Friction force acting when the body is just about to move
(B) Friction force acting when the body is in motion
(C) Angle between normal reaction and resultant of normal reaction and limiting friction
(D) Ratio of limiting friction and normal reaction
Answer: Option B

Question No. 230

Ball of mass 250 g moving on a smooth horizontal table with a velocity of 10 m/s hits an
identical stationary ball on the table. If the impact is perfectly elastic, the velocity of the
ball just after impact would be
(A) Zero
(B) 5 m/sec
(C) 10 m/sec
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 231

A bullet weighing 10 gm moves with a velocity of l km/sec. Its kinetic energy is
(i) 5000 Nm
(ii) 5000 kg.m
(iii) 5000 J
 The correct answer is
(A) Only (ii)
(B) Both (i) and (iii)
(C) Both (ii) and (iii)
(D) All (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer: Option B

Question No. 232

The moment of inertia of a circular lamina of diameter , about an axis perpendicular to the
plane of the lamina and passing through its centre, is
(A) 4
/12
(B) 4
/16
(C) 4
/24
(D) 4
/32
Answer: Option D

Question No. 233

If
the circular path of radius , will be
(A) r/v²
(B) v²/r
(C) r/
(D) /r
Answer: Option B

Question No. 234

A funicular polygon cannot be made to pass through
(A) One specified point
(B) Two specified points
(C) Three specified points
(D) More than three specified points
Answer: Option D

Question No. 235

From a solid cylinder of height 8 cm and radius 4 cm, a right circular cone is scooped out on the
same base and having the same height as that of the cylinder. The C.G. of the remainder is at a
height of
(A) 4.5 cm
(B) 5.0 cm
(C) 5.25 cm
(D) 5.5 cm
Answer: Option B

Question No. 236

A cube on a smooth horizontal surface
 (A) Cannot be in stable equilibrium
(B) Cannot be in neutral equilibrium
(C) Cannot be in unstable equilibrium
(D) Can be in any of these states
Answer: Option D

Question No. 237

The height at which the end of a rope of length should be tied so that a man pulling at the other
end may have the greatest tendency to overturn the pillar, is
(A) ¾ l
(B) ½ l
(C) l
(D) l
Answer: Option C

Question No. 238

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 239

Two forces of 6 Newtons and 8 Newtons which are acting at right angles to each other, will have a
resultant of
(A) 5 Newtons
(B) 8 Newtons
(C) 10 Newtons
(D) 12 Newtons
Answer: Option C

Question No. 240

Rate of change of angular momentum is equal to
(A) Force
(B) Torque
(C) Linear momentum
(D) Impulse
Answer: Option B

Question No. 241

A Second's pendulum gains 2 minutes a day. To make it to keep correct time its length
(A) Must be decreased
(B) Must be increased
(C) Is not changed but weight of the bob is increased
 (D) Is not changed but weight of the bob is decreased
Answer: Option B

Question No. 242

The horizontal reaction at the support A of the structure shown in below figure, is

(A) Zero
(B) 2 t
(C) 3 t
(D) 1 t
Answer: Option A

Question No. 243

In a simple harmonic motion, the position of equilibrium is always
(A) Stable
(B) Unstable
(C) Neutral
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 244

The centre of gravity of a quadrant of a circle lies along its central radius at a distance of
(A) 0.2 R
(B) 0.4 R
(C) 0.3 R
(D) 0.6 R
Answer: Option D

Question No. 245

Lami's theorem states that
(A) Three forces acting at a point are always in equilibrium
(B) If three forces acting on a point can be represented in magnitude and direction by the sides
of a triangle, the point will be in the state of equilibrium
(C) Three coplanar forces acting at a point will be in equilibrium, if each force is proportional to
the sine of the angle between the other two
(D) Three coplanar forces acting at a point will be in equilibrium if each force is inversely
proportional to the sine of the angle between the other two
 Answer: Option C

Question No. 246

Impulse can be obtained from a
(A) force-displacement diagram
(B) force-time diagram
(C) velocity-time diagram
(D) velocity-displacement diagram
Answer: Option B

Question No. 247

A block of weight 50 kg is placed on a horizontal plane. When a horizontal force of 18 kg is applied,
the block is just on the point of motion. The angle of friction is
(A) 17° 48'
(B) 18° 48'
(C) 19° 48'
(D) 20° 48'
Answer: Option C

Question No. 248

The units of moment of inertia of an area are
(A) kg/m
(B) kg/m2
(C) m4
(D) m3
Answer: Option C

Question No. 249

A car goes round a curve of radius 100 m at 25 m/sec. The angle to the horizontal at which the
road must be banked to prevent sideways friction on the car wheels is tan"1 x, where x is (Assume
g = 10 m/sec²)
(A) 3/8
(B) 1/2
(C) 9/5
(D) 5/8
Answer: Option D

Question No. 250

From the circular plate of a diameter 6 cm is cut out a circular plate whose diameter is equal to
radius of the plate. The C.G. of the remainder shifts from the original position through
(A) 0.25 cm
(B) 0.50 cm
(C) 0.75 cm
(D) 1.00 cm
Answer: Option B
Question No. 251
The resultant of two forces acting at right angles is 5 kgf and if they act at an angle of 60°, it
is 37 kgf. The magnitudes of the forces are:
(A) 2 kgf, 3 kgf
(B) 3 kgf, 4 kgf
(C) 4 kgf, 5 kgf
(D) 5 kgf, 3 kgf
Answer: Option B

Question No. 252

The diagram showing the point of application and line of action of forces in their plane is called
(A) Vector diagram
(B) Space diagram
(C) Force diagram
(D) Funicular diagram
Answer: Option B

Question No. 253

Energy may be defined as
(A) Power of doing work
(B) Capacity of doing work
(C) Rate of doing work
(D) All the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 254

If two forces of 3 kg and 4 kg act at right angles to each other, their resultant force will be equal to
(A) 7 kg
(B) 1 kg
(C) 5 kg
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 255

A block in the shape of a parallelepiped of sides 1m × 2m × 3m lies on the surface. Which of the
faces gives maximum stable block?
(A) 1 m × 2 m
(B) 2 m × 3 m
(C) 1 m × 3 m
(D) Equally stable on all faces
Answer: Option B

Question No. 256

A smooth cylinder lying on its convex surface remains
(A) In stable equilibrium
 (B) In unstable equilibrium
(C) In neutral equilibrium
(D) Out of equilibrium
Answer: Option B

Question No. 257

A trolley wire weighs 1 kg per metre length. The ends of the wire are attached to two poles 20 m
apart. If the horizontal tension is 1000 kg, the central dip of the cable is
(A) 2 cm
(B) 3 cm
(C) 4 cm
(D) 5 cm
Answer: Option D

Question No. 258

A particle moves in a straight line and its position is defined by the equation x = 6 t² - t3 where t is
x the motion is
(A) 6 m/sec
(B) 12 m/sec
(C) 24 m/sec
(D) 48 m/sec
Answer: Option B

Question No. 259

Periodic time of a particle moving with simple harmonic motion is the time taken by the particle
for
(A) Half oscillation
(B) Quarter oscillation
(C) Complete oscillation
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 260

One end of a light string 4 m in length is fixed to a point on a smooth wall and the other end
fastened to a point on the surface of a smooth sphere of diameter 2.25 m and of weight 100 kg.
The reaction between the sphere and the wall of the arrangement made is
(A) 102.5 kg
(B) 105.5 kg
(C) 108.5 kg
(D) 110 kg
Answer: Option A

Question No. 261

A particle of mass 2 kg executes simple harmonic motion of frequency 6/71 Hz and amplitude 0.25
m. Its maximum kinetic energy is
 (A) 4.5 J
(B) 9.0 J
(C) 12.0 J
(D) 18.0 J
Answer: Option B

Question No. 262

The Centre of gravity of a 10 × 15 × 5 cm T-section from its bottom, is
(A) 7.5 cm
(B) 5.0 cm
(C) 8.75 cm
(D) 7.85 cm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 263

The following is not a law of static friction:
(A) The force of friction always acts in a direction opposite to that in which the body tends to
move
(B) The force of friction is dependent upon the area of contact
(C) The force of friction depends upon the roughness of the surface
(D) The magnitude of the limiting friction bears a constant ratio to the normal reaction between
two surfaces
Answer: Option A

Question No. 264

One Newton is equivalent to
(A) 1 kg. wt
(B) 9.81 kg. wt
(C) 981 dyne
(D) 1/9.81 kg. wt
Answer: Option D

Question No. 265

When a body slides down an inclined surface, the acceleration (f) of the body, is given by
(A) f = g
(B) f = g
(C) f = g
(D) f = g
Answer: Option B

Question No. 266

For lifting a load of 50 kg through a distance of 2.5 cm, an effort of 12.5 kg is moved through a
distance of 40 cm. The efficiency of the lifting machine, is
(A) 60 %
(B) 65 %
 (C) 70 %
(D) 75 %
Answer: Option D

Question No. 267

In a lifting machine a weight of 5 kN is lifted through 200 mm by an effort of 0.1 kN moving
through 15 m. The mechanical advantage and velocity ratio of the machine are respectively
(A) 50 and 75
(B) 75 and 50
(C) 75 and 75
(D) 50 and 50
Answer: Option A

Question No. 268

The motion of a particle moving with S.H.M. from an extremity to the other, constitutes
(A) half an oscillation
(B) One full oscillation
(C) Two oscillations
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 269

One end of a light string 4 m in length is fixed to a point on a smooth wall and the other end
fastened to a point on the surface of a smooth sphere of diameter 2.25 m and of weight 100 kg.
The tension in the string is
(A) 17.5 kg
(B) 19.5 kg
(C) 22.5 kg
(D) 25 kg
Answer: Option C

Question No. 270

will
(A) Be in equilibrium
(B) Always reduce to a resultant force
(C) Always reduce to a couple
(D) Both (A) and (C)
Answer: Option B

Question No. 271

The force which produces an acceleration of 1 m/sec2 in a mass of one kg, is called
(A) Dyne
(B) Newton
(C) Joule
 (D) Erg
Answer: Option B

Question No. 272

If is the Gauge of track, is velocity of the moving vehicle, is the acceleration due to gravity
and is the radius of a circular path, the required super elevation is
(A) gv²/Gr
(B) Gr²/gr
(C) Gr²/gv²
(D) Gv²/gv
Answer: Option D

Question No. 273

A uniform pyramid and a uniform prism of same height lie with their base on the surface. Which is
more stable?
(A) Pyramid
(B) Prism
(C) Both equally stable
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 274

For a particle moving with a simple harmonic motion, the frequency is
(A) Directly proportional to periodic time
(B) Inversely proportional to periodic time
(C) Inversely proportional to its angular velocity
(D) Directly proportional to its angular velocity
Answer: Option B

Question No. 275

Principle of Transmissibility of Forces states that, when a force acts upon a body, its effect is
(A) Maximum if it acts at the centre of gravity of the body
(B) Different at different points on its line of
(C) Same at every point on its line of action
(D) Minimum if it acts at the C.G. of the body
Answer: Option C

Question No. 276

A 2 m long ladder rests against a wall and makes an angle of 30° with the horizontal floor. Where
will be the instantaneous center of rotation when the ladder starts slipping?
(i) 1.0 in from the wall
(ii) 1.732 m from the wall
(iii) 1.0 m above the floor
(iv) 1.732 m above the floor
The correct answer is
 (A) (i) and (iii)
(B) (i) and (iv)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (ii) and (iv)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 277

If a spherical body is symmetrical about its perpendicular axes, the moment of inertia of the body
about an axis passing through its centre of gravity as given by Routh's rule is obtained by dividing
the product of the mass and the sum of the squares of two semi-axes by Where, is
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
Answer: Option D

Question No. 278

Which one of the following laws is not applicable to a simple pendulum?
(A) The time period does not depend on its magnitude
(B) The time period is proportional to its length l
(C) The time period is proportional to l, where l is length
(D) The time period is inversely proportional to g, where g is the acceleration due to gravity
Answer: Option B

Question No. 279

One Newton is equivalent to
(A) 105 dyne
(B) 106 dyne
(C) 107 dyne
(D) 981 dyne
Answer: Option A

Question No. 280

and are angle of projection and initial velocity of a projectile respectively, the total time of
flight, is given by
(A) T
(B) T
(C) T
(D) T
Answer: Option D

Question No. 281

A spring scale in a stationary lift shows a reading of 60 kg for a man standing on it. If the lift starts
descending at an acceleration of g/5, the scale reading would be
(A) 48 kg
 (B) 60 kg
(C) 72 kg
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 282

The condition for a lifting machine to be reversible is that its efficiency should be
(A) Less than 50%
(B) More than 50%
(C) More than 66.67%
(D) Equal to 100%
Answer: Option B

Question No. 283

The C.G. of a hemisphere from its base measured along the vertical radius is at a distance of
(A) 4R/3
(B) 3R/8
(C) 3 /4
(D) 8R/3
Answer: Option B

Question No. 284

To avoid bending action at the base of a pier,
(A) Suspension and anchor cables are kept at the same level
(B) Suspension and anchor cables are fixed to pier top
(C) Suspension cable and anchor cables are attached to a saddle mounted on rollers on top of
the pier
(D) None the these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 285

The pole distance is measured in
(A) Distance scale
(B) Force scale
(C) Mass scale
(D) Time scale
Answer: Option B

Question No. 286

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. In a simple harmonic motion
(A) Velocity is maximum at its mean position
(B) Velocity is minimum at the end of the stroke
(C) Acceleration is minimum at the end of the stroke
(D) Acceleration is zero at the mean position
Answer: Option C
Question No. 287
The motion of a particle is described by the relation x = t2- 10t + 30, where x is in metres and t in
seconds. The total distance travelled by the particle from t = 0 to t = 10 seconds would be
(A) Zero
(B) 30 m
(C) 50 m
(D) 60 m
Answer: Option A

Question No. 288

Minimum potential energy of a system will be in the position of
(A) Stable equilibrium
(B) Unstable equilibrium
(C) Neutral equilibrium
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 289

The direction of projection should bisect the angle between the inclined plane and the vertical for
a range of a projectile on inclined plane
(A) To be zero
(B) To be maximum
(C) To be minimum
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 290

For the given values of initial velocity of projection and angle of inclination of the plane, the
maximum range for a projectile projected upwards will be obtained, if the angle of projection is
(A) - /2
(B)
(C) -
(D) -
Answer: Option B

Question No. 291

A projectile has maximum range of 40 m on a horizontal plane. If angle of projection is a and the
time of flight is 1 second, then sin a must be about (Assume g = 10 m/sec²)
(A) 1/4
(B) 1/3
(C) 1/2
(D) 1/5
Answer: Option A
Question No. 292
The units of inertia of mass are
(A) kg/m
(B) kg/m2
(C) m4
(D) kg-m2
Answer: Option D

Question No. 293

overturn simultaneously if the ratio of its wheel distance to the height of its centroid, is
(A)
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) ½
Answer: Option B

Question No. 294

A particle is dropped from a height of 3 m on a horizontal floor, which has a coefficient of
restitution with the ball of 1/2. The height to which the ball will rebound after striking the floor is
(A) 0.5 m
(B) 0.75 m
(C) 1.0 m
(D) 1.5 m
Answer: Option B

Question No. 295

According to Kennedy's theorem, if three bodies have plane motions, their instantaneous centres
lie on
(A) A point
(B) A straight line
(C) Two straight lines
(D) A triangle
Answer: Option B

Question No. 296

Effect of a force on a body depends upon its
(A) Direction
(B) Magnitude
(C) Position
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 297

The velocity of a moving body, is
 (A) A vector quantity
(B) A scalar quantity
(C) A scalar as well as a vector quantity
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 298

The total kinetic energy of a hoop of mass 2 kg and radius 4 m sliding with linear velocity 8 m/sec
and angular velocity 5 radian/sec is
(A) 64 J
(B) 400 J
(C) 464 J
(D) 89 J
Answer: Option C

Question No. 299

A train weighing 196 tonnes experiences a frictional resistance of 5 11/22 per tonne. The speed of
the train at the top of a down gradient 1 in 78.4 is 36 km/hour. The speed of the train after
running 1 km down the slope, is
(A) m/sec
(B) m/sec
(C) m/sec
(D) m/sec
Answer: Option A

Question No. 300

The ratio of kinetic energy and potential energy of a simple harmonic oscillator, at a displacement
equal to half its amplitude is given by
(A) 1 : 2
(B) 1 : 1
(C) 2 : 1
(D) 3 : 1
Answer: Option D

Question No. 301

A glass ball is shot to hit a wall from a point on a smooth floor. If the ball returns back to the point
of projection in twice the time taken in reaching the wall, the coefficient of restitution between
the glass ball and the wall is
(A) 0.25
(B) 0.33
(C) 0.40
(D) 0.50
Answer: Option D
Question No. 302
Power can be expressed as
(A) Work/energy
(B) Work/time
(C) Work × time
(D) Work/distance
Answer: Option B

Question No. 303

A system of coplanar forces is in equilibrium when
(A) Force polygon closes
(B) Funicular polygon closes
(C) Both force polygon and funicular polygon close
(D) All the forces are concurrent
Answer: Option C

Question No. 304

The practical units of work, is
(A) Erg
(B) Joule
(C) Newton
(D) Dyne
Answer: Option B

Question No. 305

For a simple pendulum, the period of one oscillation is
(A) (l/2g)
(B) (2g/l)
(C) (l/g)
(D) (g/2l)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 306

Which of the following is a scalar quantity?
(A) Energy
(B) Momentum
(C) Torque
(D) Impulse
Answer: Option A

Question No. 307

The gravitational force makes a satellite go round the earth in a circular orbit, if it is projected with
an initial velocity of
(A) 8.04 km/sec at a height of 285 km
(B) 11.11 km/sec at a height of 37,400 km
 (C) 11.26 km/sec, the satellite escapes the pull of the earth
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 308

The apparent weight of a man in a moving lift is less than his real weight when it is going down
with
(A) Uniform speed
(B) An acceleration
(C) Linear momentum
(D) Retardation
Answer: Option B

Question No. 309

The torque produced by a force depends on
(i) The magnitude of the force
(ii) The direction of the force
(iii) The point of application of the force relative to origin
The correct answer is
(A) Only (i)
(B) Both (i) and (ii)
(C) Both (i) and (iii)
(D) All (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 310

Two parallel forces 20 kg and 15 kg act. In order that the distance of the resultant from 20 kg force
may be the same as that of the former resultant was from 15 kg, the 20 kg force is diminished by
(A) 5.5 kg
(B) 6.25 kg
(C) 8.75 kg
(D) 10.5 kg
Answer: Option C

Question No. 311

If the linear velocity of a point on the rim of a wheel of 10 m diameter, is 50 m/sec, its angular
velocity will be
(A) 20 rad/sec
(B) 15 rad/sec
(C) 10 rad/sec
(D) 5 rad/sec
Answer: Option D

Question No. 312

The ratio of the speed of a rolling cylinder to the speed of sliding cylinder is
 (A) Less than 1
(B) Equal to 1
(C) Between 1 and 2
(D) Greater than 2
Answer: Option A

Question No. 313

A simple pendulum of length 1 has an energy E when its amplitude is A. If its amplitude is
increased to 2 A, the energy becomes
(A) E
(B) E/2
(C) 2E
(D) 4E
Answer: Option D

Question No. 314

(A) 0°
(B) 30°
(C) 45°
(D) 90°
Answer: Option C

Question No. 315

The resultant of the forces acting on a body will be zero if the body
(A) Rotates
(B) Moves with variable velocity in a straight line
(C) Moves along a curved path
(D) Does not move at all
Answer: Option D

Question No. 316

On a ladder resisting on a smooth ground and leaning against a rough vertical wall, the force of
friction acts
(A) Towards the wall at its upper end
(B) Away from the wall at its upper end
(C) Upwards at its upper end
(D) Downwards at its upper end
Answer: Option C

Question No. 317

The velocity ratio of the differential wheel and axle is
(A) R/r1 - r2
(B) 2R/r1
(C) 3R/r1 - r2
 (D) 2R/r1 + r2
Answer: Option B

Question No. 318

Joule is the unit of
(A) Power
(B) Impulse
(C) Work
(D) Momentum
Answer: Option C

Question No. 319

Total no of instantaneous centres of a machine having links, is
(A) n/2
(B) n
(C) (n - 1)
(D) n (n - 1)/2
Answer: Option D

Question No. 320

For a body moving with simple harmonic motion, the number of cycles per second, is known as its
(A) Oscillation
(B) Amplitude
(C) Periodic time
(D) Frequency
Answer: Option D

Question No. 321

A ball is dropped from a height of 16 m on a horizontal floor. If it rebounds to a height of 9 m after
striking the floor, the coefficient of restitution between ball and floor is
(A) 1/4
(B) 2/3
(C) 3/4
(D) 4/3
Answer: Option C

Question No. 322

The motion of a bicycle wheel is
(A) Translatory
(B) Rotary
(C) Rotary and translatory
(D) Curvilinear
Answer: Option C
Question No. 323
For a simple pendulum, time period for a beat, is
(A) (l/g)
(B) (2l/g)
(C) (g/2l)
(D) (l/2g)
Answer: Option A

Question No. 324

A circular disc rotates at n rpm. The angular velocity of a circular ring of same mass and radius as
the disc and to have the same angular momentum is
(A) n rpm
(B) n/2 rpm
(C) n/4 rpm
(D) 2n rpm
Answer: Option B

Question No. 325

The rotational velocity of a satellite is increased by 450 m per second if its launch is done from
equator
(A) Eastward
(B) Northward
(C) Westward
(D) Southward
Answer: Option A

Question No. 326

The velocity of a body fallen from height , on reaching the ground is given by
(A) v = 2gh
(B) v = 2gh2
(C) v = (2gh)
(D) v (2gh)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 327

In SI units, the units of force and energy are respectively
(A) Newton and watt
(B) Dyne and erg
(C) Newton and joule
(D) kg wt and joule
Answer: Option C

Question No. 328

The point about which combined motion of rotation and translation of a rigid body takes place, is
known as
 (A) Virtual centre
(B) Instantaneous centre
(C) Instantaneous axis
(D) Point of rotation
Answer: Option B

Question No. 329

For a given velocity of a projectile, the range is maximum when the angle of projection is
(A) 30°
(B) 45°
(C) 90°
(D) 0°
Answer: Option B

Question No. 330

Time of flight of a projectile on a horizontal plane, is
(A) 2 /g
(B) 2 /g
(C) 2 /g
(D) 2 /g
Answer: Option A

Question No. 331

Power developed by a torque, is
(A) NT kg m/min
(B) NT/4500 h.p
(C) NT /60 watts
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 332

The maximum value of the horizontal range for a projectile projected with a velocity of 98 m/sec is
(A) 98 m
(B) 490 m
(C) 980 m
(D) 1960 m
Answer: Option C

Question No. 333

Centre of gravity of a thin hollow cone lies on the axis of symmetry at a height of
(A) One-half of the total height above base
(B) One-third of the total height above base
(C) One-fourth of the total height above base
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 334

(A) Algebraic sum of the resolved parts of the forces in the direction
(B) Arithmetical sum of the resolved parts of the forces in the direction
(C) Difference of the force
(D)
Answer: Option A

Question No. 335

Two balls of masses 3 kg and 6 kg are moving with velocities of 4 m/sec and 1 m/sec respectively,
towards each other along the line of their centers. After impact the 3 kg ball comes to rest. This
can happen only if the coefficient of restitution between the balls is
(A) 2/3
(B) 1/5
(C) 3/5
(D) 1/3
Answer: Option B

Question No. 336

Equation of motion of a point in a straight line, is
(A) v = u + ft
(B) S = ut + ½ ft2
(C) 2fS = v2 - u2
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 337

The unit of impulse, is
(A) kg.m/sec
(B) kg.m/sec
(C) kg.m/sec2
(D) kg.m/sec
Answer: Option A

Question No. 338

The moment of inertia of a hollow circular section whose external diameter is 8 cm and internal
diameter is 6 cm, about centroidal axis, is
(A) 437.5 cm4
(B) 337.5 cm4
(C) 237.5 cm4
(D) 137.5 cm4
Answer: Option D

Question No. 339

A Seconds pendulum executes
 (A) 0.5 beat per second
(B) 1.0 beat per second
(C) 2.0 beats per second
(D) 2.5 beats per second
Answer: Option C

Question No. 340

On a ladder resting on a rough ground and leaning against a smooth vertical wall, the force of
friction acts
(A) Downwards at its upper end
(B) Upwards at its upper end
(C) Perpendicular to the wall at its upper end
(D) Zero at its upper end
Answer: Option D

Question No. 341

A load of 500 kg was lifted through a distance of 13 cm. by an effort of 25 kg which moved through
a distance of 650 cm. The mechanical advantage of the lifting machine is
(A) 15
(B) 18
(C) 20
(D) 26
Answer: Option C

Question No. 342

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. In case of suspension bridge due to rise in
temperature,
(A) Dip of the cable increases
(B) Length of the cable increases
(C) Dip of the cable decreases
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 343

frequency of the motion is

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) -
Answer: Option B

Question No. 344

A satellite goes on moving along its orbit round the earth due to
(A) Gravitational force
 (B) Centrifugal force
(C) Centripetal force
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 345

The acceleration of a train starting from rest at any instant is 1/6(V + 1) m/sec² where is the
velocity of the train in m/sec. The train will attain a velocity of 36 km/hour after travelling a
distance of
(A) 2000 m
(B) 2100 m
(C) 2200 m
(D) 2300 m
Answer: Option D

Question No. 346

M.I. of a thin ring (external diameter D, internal diameter d) about an axis perpendicular to the
plane of the ring, is
(A) D4 + d4)
(B) D4 - d4)
(C) D4 + d4)
(D) D4 × d4)
Answer: Option B

Question No. 347

A rigid body suspended vertically at a point and oscillating with a small amplitude under the action
of the force of gravity, is called
(A) Simple pendulum
(B) Compound pendulum
(C) Second's pendulum
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 348

The maximum frictional force which comes into play, when a body just begins to slide over the
surface of a another body, is known
(A) Sliding friction
(B) Rolling friction
(C) Limiting friction
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 349

If the resultant of two forces and , then tan
 (A) -
(B)
(C)
(D)
Answer: Option B

Question No. 350

For maximum range of a projectile, the angle of projection should be
(A) 30°
(B) 45°
(C) 60°
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 351

The angle of projection for a range is equal to the distance through which the particle would have
fallen in order to acquire a velocity equal to the velocity of projection, will be
(A) 30°
(B) 45°
(C) 60°
(D) 75°
Answer: Option D

Question No. 352

One half of a vibration of a body, is called
(A) Period time
(B) Oscillation
(C) Beat
(D) Amplitude
Answer: Option C

Question No. 353

Time required to stop a car moving with a velocity 20 m/sec within a distance of 40 m, is
(A) 2 sec
(B) 3 sec
(C) 4 sec
(D) 5 sec
Answer: Option C

Question No. 354

A ball of mass 1 kg moving with a velocity of 2 m/sec collides a stationary ball of mass 2 kg and
comes to rest after impact. The velocity of the second ball after impact will be
(A) Zero
(B) 0.5 m/sec
(C) 1.0 m/sec
 (D) 2.0 m/sec
Answer: Option C

Question No. 355

The centre of gravity of a plane lamina will not be at its geometrical centre if it is a
(A) Circle
(B) Equilateral triangle
(C) Rectangle
(D) Right angled triangle
Answer: Option D

Question No. 356

If the angle between the applied force and the direction of motion of a body, is between 90° and
180°, the work done, is called
(A) Virtual work
(B) Imaginary work
(C) Zero work
(D) Negative work
Answer: Option D

Question No. 357

on which particle is
projected, the ratio of times of flight up the inclined plane and down the inclined plane, will be
(A) ½
(B) ½
(C) ½
(D) 2
Answer: Option A

Question No. 358

In simple harmonic motion, acceleration of a particle is proportional to
(A) Rate of change of velocity
(B) Displacement
(C) Velocity
(D) Direction
Answer: Option B

Question No. 359

When a body falls freely under gravitational force, it possesses
(A) Maximum weight
(B) Minimum weight
(C) No weight
(D) No effect on its weight
Answer: Option C
Question No. 360
In a simple screw jack, the pitch of the screw is 9 mm and length of the handle operating the screw
is 45 cm. The velocity ratio of the system is
(A) 1.5
(B) 5
(C) 25
(D) 314
Answer: Option D

Question No. 361

Angular acceleration of a particle may be expressed as
(A) Radians/sec2
(B) Degrees/sec2
(C) Revolutions/sec
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 362

If a ball which is dropped from a height of 2.25 m on a smooth floor attains the height of bounce
equal to 1.00 m, the coefficient of the restitution between the ball and floor, is
(A) 0.25
(B) 0.50
(C) 0.67
(D) 0.33
Answer: Option B
 Building Materials

Question No. 01
Which of the following has more fire resisting characteristics?
(A) Marble
(B) Lime stone
(C) Compact sand stone
(D) Granite
Answer: Option C

Question No. 02
The rocks which are formed due to cooling of magma at a considerable depth from earth's surface
are called
(A) Plutonic rocks
(B) Hypabyssal rocks
(C) Volcanic rocks
(D) Igneous rocks
Answer: Option A

Question No. 03
Plywood has the advantage of
(A) Greater tensile strength in longer direction
(B) Greater tensile strength in shorter direction
(C) Same tensile strength in all directions
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 04
Due to attack of dry rot, the timber
(A) Cracks
(B) Shrinks
(C) Reduces to powder
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 05
Excess of alumina in brick earth makes the brick
(A) Impermeable
(B) Brittle and weak
(C) To lose cohesion
(D) To crack and warp on drying
Answer: Option D
Question No. 06
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) In stone arches, the stones are placed with their natural beds radial
(B) In cornices, the stones are placed with their natural beds as vertical
(C) In stone walls, the stones are placed with their natural beds as horizontal
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 07
The constituent of cement which is responsible for all the undesirable properties of cement is
(A) Di-calcium silicate
(B) Tri-calcium silicate
(C) Tri-calcium aluminate
(D) Tetra calcium alumino ferrite
Answer: Option C

Question No. 08
Inner part of a timber log surrounding the pitch, is called
(A) Sapwood
(B) Cambium layer
(C) Heart wood
(D) None to these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 09
For testing compressive and tensile strength of cement, the cement mortar is made by mixing
cement and standard sand in the proportions of
(A) 1 : 2
(B) 1 : 3
(C) 1 : 4
(D) 1 : 6
Answer: Option B

Question No. 10
If is the percentage of water required for normal consistency, water to be added for
determination of initial setting time, is
(A) 0.70 P
(B) 0.75 P
(C) 0.80 P
(D) 0.85 P
Answer: Option D

Question No. 11
The basic purpose of a retarder in concrete is
(A) To increase the initial setting time of cement paste in concrete
 (B) To decrease the initial setting time of cement paste in concrete
(C) To render the concrete more water tight
(D) To improve the workability of concrete mix
Answer: Option A

Question No. 12
Clay and silt content in a good brick earth must be at least
(A) 50 %
(B) 40 %
(C) 30 %
(D) 25 %
Answer: Option A

Question No. 13
Which of the following is the purest form of iron?
(A) Cast iron
(B) Wrought iron
(C) Mild steel
(D) High carbon steel
Answer: Option B

Question No. 14
If the iron ore contains clay as an impurity, the flux added during calcination, is
(A) Clay
(B) Lime stone
(C) Argillaceous iron ore
(D) All the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 15
The stretcher bond in brick masonry can be used only when the thickness of wall is
(A) 90 mm
(B) 180 mm
(C) 190 mm
(D) 280 mm
Answer: Option A

Question No. 16
The plywood
(A) Has good strength along the panel only
(B) Can be spilt in the plane of the panel
(C) Has greater impact resistance to blows than ordinary wood
(D) Cannot be bent more easily than ordinary wood of same thickness
Answer: Option C
Question No. 17
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The phenol is carbolic acid
(B) The phenol is either extracted from coal-tar or prepared from benzene
(C) Phenol reacts with formaldehyde, to form phenol formaldehyde resin
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 18
Advantage of a clamp compared to a kiln for burning bricks is that
(A) It takes less time for burning
(B) It gives more output of first class bricks
(C) It has less initial cost
(D) It is suitable when bricks are required in large numbers
Answer: Option C

Question No. 19
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Solder material is an alloy which melts at a temperature above 400°C
(B) Brazing is done at temperature above 600°C to 1100°C
(C) Brazing joint is stronger than the solder joint
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 20
Assertion A : Pure lime takes a long time to develop adequate strength.
Reason R : Pure lime has slow hardening characteristics.
Select your answer according to the coding system given below:
(A) Both A and R is true and R is correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R is true and R is not a correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
Answer: Option A

Question No. 21
During pudding
(A) Molten metal is kept clear of the fuel
(B) Carbon is converted into carbonic acid gas
(C) Silicon forms a slag
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 22
Early attainment of strength in rapid hardening cement is mainly due to
(A) Gypsum
 (B) Finer grinding
(C) Tri-calcium silicate
(D) Tri-calcium aluminate
Answer: Option B

Question No. 23
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Quick lime is obtained by burning pure lime stone
(B) Hydraulic lime is obtained by burning lime stone containing clay 5% to 30%
(C) Poor lime is obtained by burning lime stone containing impurities more than 5%
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 24
Which of the following cements contains maximum percentage of dicalcium silicate?
(A) Ordinary Portland cement
(B) Low heat cement
(C) Rapid hardening cement
(D) Sulphate resisting cement
Answer: Option B

Question No. 25
Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) Hydraulic lime is generally obtained by burning kankar
(B) Hydraulic lime sets slowly as compared to fat lime
(C) Hydraulic lime is generally used in lime mortar
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 26
Which of the following stresses is used for identifying the quality of structural steel?
(A) Ultimate stress
(B) Yield stress
(C) Proof stress
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 27
Quick lime
(A) Generates heat when added to water
(B) Reacts with carbon dioxide
(C) May be used for white-washing
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 28
Assertion A : Normally turpentine oil is recommended as thinner for indoor painting.
Reason R : Turpentine oil is costlier than other thinners.
Select your answer according to the coding system given below:
(A) Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R is true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
Answer: Option B

Question No. 29
Putty is
(A) Made with finely powdered chalk and linseed oil
(B) Used for fixing glass panes
(C) Softened by a solution of pearl ash and quick-lime soaked in water
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 30
A mortar joint in masonry which is normal to the face of wall is known as
(A) Bed joint
(B) Wall joint
(C) Cross joint
(D) Bonded joint
Answer: Option C

Question No. 31
A volatile substance added to a paint to make its application easy and smooth, is known as
(A) Base
(B) Solvent
(C) Vehicle
(D) None to these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 32
Jumper is a tool used for
(A) Testing of stones
(B) Quarrying of stones
(C) Dressing of stones
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 33
Pick up the volcanic rock from the following:
(A) Granite
 (B) Dolerite
(C) Basalt
(D) All the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 34
Sapwood consists of
(A) Innermost annular rings around the pith
(B) Portion of timber between heartwood and cambium layer
(C) Thin layers below the bark
(D) Thin fibre which extends from the pith outwards and holds the annular rings together
Answer: Option B

Question No. 35
Strength of cement concrete primarily depends upon
(A) Quality of water
(B) Quantity of aggregate
(C) Quantity of cement
(D) Water-cement ratio
Answer: Option D

Question No. 36
The main function of alumina in brick earth is
(A) To impart plasticity
(B) To make the brick durable
(C) To prevent shrinkage
(D) To make the brick impermeable
Answer: Option A

Question No. 37
Cast iron
(A) Is obtained by purifying pig iron
(B) Is manufactured in required shapes
(C) May contain 2 to 5 per cent of carbon with other impurities
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 38
Which of the following pairs gives a correct combination of the useful and harmful constituents
respectively of a good brick earth?
(A) Lime stone and alumina
(B) Silica and alkalies
(C) Alumina and iron
(D) Alkalies and magnesium
Answer: Option B
Question No. 39
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The distinct plane of division along which a stone can easily be split, is called natural bed of
stone
(B) The natural bed of sedimentary rocks is along the planes of stratification
(C) The natural bed of igneous rocks is not defined
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 40
Hydraulic lime is obtained by
(A) Burning of lime stone
(B) Burning of kankar
(C) Adding water to quick lime
(D) Calcination of pure clay
Answer: Option B

Question No. 41
Oil varnish generally consists of
(A) Synthetic resin and spirit
(B) Oil, wax and resin
(C) Resin, oil and turpentine
(D) Spirit, oil and wax
Answer: Option C

Question No. 42
For testing compressive strength of cement, the size of cube used is
(A) 50 mm
(B) 70.6 mm
(C) 100 mm
(D) 150 mm
Answer: Option A

Question No. 43
When a brick is immersed in water for 24 hours and then dried, if
(A) No grey or white deposits appear on the surface, the brick is free from soluble salts
(B) 10 percent surface is covered with grey or white deposits, the brick has slight efflorescence
(C) 50 percent surface is covered with grey or white deposits, the brick has serious efflorescence
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 44
Gypsum consists of
(A)
(B)
 (C)
(D)
Answer: Option B

Question No. 45
For sanitary pipes and chemical stonewares,
(A) Salt glazing is used
(B) Lead glazing is used
(C) Opaque glazing is used
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 46
The most commonly used retarder in cement is
(A) Gypsum
(B) Calcium chloride
(C) Calcium carbonate
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 47
The rocks which are formed due to cooling of magma at a relatively shallow depth from the earth's
surface are called
(A) Plutonic rocks
(B) Hypabyssal rocks
(C) Volcanic rocks
(D) Igneous rocks
Answer: Option B

Question No. 48
The ratio of the thickness of web to that of flange of steel rolled structural beams and channels is
(A) Less than 1
(B) Equal to 1
(C) Greater than 1
(D) Less than 1 in beams but greater than 1 in channels
Answer: Option A

Question No. 49
Non acid-resistant asbestos is:
(A) Tremolite asbestos
(B) Chrysotile asbestos
(C) Amosite asbestos
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 50
The pressure acting on the stones in stone masonry construction should be
(A) Along the direction of bedding planes
(B) At 45° to the direction of bedding planes
(C) At 60° to the direction of bedding planes
(D) Perpendicular to the direction of bedding planes
Answer: Option D

Question No. 51
Pick up the constituent of good brick earth whose excess causes the raw bricks shrink and warp
during drying and burning, from the following:
(A) Alumina
(B) Lime
(C) Iron-oxide
(D) Magnesia
Answer: Option A

Question No. 52
The type of bond provided in brick masonry for carrying heavy loads is
(A) Single Flemish bond
(B) Double Flemish bond
(C) English bond
(D) Zigzag bond
Answer: Option C

Question No. 53
Blister steel
(A) Is obtained by cementation process
(B) Is full of fissures and cavities
(C) Can be easily welded
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 54
Gypsum is a
(A) Mechanically formed sedimentary rock
(B) Igneous rock
(C) Chemically precipitated sedimentary rock
(D) Metamorphic rock
Answer: Option C

Question No. 55
Seasoning of timber is done
(A) To make it water proof
(B) To paint its surface
 (C) To increase its temperature
(D) To remove water
Answer: Option D

Question No. 56
Which of the following is a rock?
(A) Quartz
(B) Mica
(C) Gypsum
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 57
The tendency of a stone is, to split along:
(A) Texture
(B) Fracture
(C) Cleavage
(D) Structure
Answer: Option C

Question No. 58
Which of the following stone is best suited for construction of piers and abutments of a railway
bridge?
(A) Granite
(B) Sand stone
(C) Lime stone
(D) Quartzite
Answer: Option A

Question No. 59
Cast iron contains carbon approximately
(A) 1.5% to 5.5%
(B) 0.05% to 1.75%
(C) 0.250 %
(D) None to these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 60
Which of the following trees yields hard wood?
(A) Deodar
(B) Chir
(C) Shishum
(D) Pine
Answer: Option C
Question No. 61
Soundness of cement is tested by
(A) Vicat's apparatus
(B) Le-chatelier apparatus
(C) Compressive strength testing apparatus
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 62
First class timber has an average life of
(A) Less than one year
(B) 1 to 5 years
(C) 5 to 10 years
(D) More than 10 years
Answer: Option D

Question No. 63
Bitumen may be dissolved in
(A) Carbondioxide
(B) Water
(C) Sodium chloride
(D) Carbon disulphide
Answer: Option D

Question No. 64
Which of the following ingredients of the brick earth enables the brick to retain its shape?
(A) Alumina
(B) Silica
(C) Iron
(D) Magnesia
Answer: Option B

Question No. 65
Veneering means
(A) Carving out designs on timber planks
(B) Chemically treating timber planks
(C) Thick layer of superior wood glued to inferior wood
(D) Thin layer of superior wood glued to inferior wood
Answer: Option C

Question No. 66
Number of bricks required for one cubic metre of brick masonry is
(A) 400
(B) 450
(C) 500
 (D) 550
Answer: Option C

Question No. 67
Which one of the following is used for preparing porcelain?
(A) Clay
(B) Feldspar
(C) Quartz
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 68
The main ingredients of Portland cement are
(A) Lime and silica
(B) Lime and alumina
(C) Silica and alumina
(D) Lime and iron
Answer: Option A

Question No. 69
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Blistering may be cured by applying water paint finished with oil paint dried with a little
copal varnish
(B) Cracked paints may be cured by removing paint and giving a fresh coat of paint
(C) Crawling paints may be cured by sand preparing the surface and giving a fresh coat with
plenty of turps
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 70
After storage, the strength of cement
(A) Decreases
(B) Increases
(C) Remains same
(D) May increase or decrease
Answer: Option A

Question No. 71
A bull nose brick is not used for
(A) Rounding off sharp corners
(B) Pillars
(C) Decoration purpose
(D) Arches
Answer: Option D
Question No. 72
The most common admixture which is used to accelerate the initial set of concrete is
(A) Gypsum
(B) Calcium chloride
(C) Calcium carbonate
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 73
Chlorite, a green colour mineral is mainly derived from the decomposition of
(A) Augite
(B) Biotite
(C) Hornblende
(D) All of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 74
The ultimate tensile strength of structural mild steel is about
(A) 160 N/mm²
(B) 260 N/mm²
(C) 420 N/mm²
(D) 520 N/mm²
Answer: Option C

Question No. 75
Asbestos
(A) Is a natural fibrous mineral substance
(B) Is composed of hydrous silicates of calcium and magnesium (CaSiO3, 3MgSiO3)
(C) Contains iron oxide and alumina
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 76
A queen closer is a
(A) Brick laid with its length parallel to the face or direction of wall
(B) Brick laid with its breadth parallel to the face or direction of wall
(C) Brick having the same length and depth as the other bricks but half the breadth
(D) Brick with half the width at one end and full width at the other
Answer: Option C

Question No. 77
The percentage of alumina and silica in good fire clay vary respectively is
(A) 25, 75
(B) 30, 70
(C) 35, 65
 (D) All of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 78
The proportions of lime and sand in the mortar normally used in brick construction are
(A) 1 : 2
(B) 1 : 4
(C) 1 : 6
(D) 1 : 8
Answer: Option A

Question No. 79
Index number expressing the relative sizes of both coarse and fine aggregates, is called
(A) Proportioning of aggregates
(B) Fineness modulus
(C) Grading of aggregates
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 80
Which of the following sedimentary rocks changes into quartzite by metamorphic action?
(A) Sand stone
(B) Lime stone
(C) Shale
(D) Gypsum
Answer: Option A

Question No. 81
Lime putty
(A) Is made from hydraulic lime
(B) Is made by adding lime to water
(C) Can be used only upto three days
(D) All of above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 82
The stone suitable for rubble masonry should be.
(A) Hard
(B) Tough
(C) Heavy
(D) Light
Answer: Option A

Question No. 83
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
 (A) Air bubbles in casting produce a dull sound by tapping their surfaces lightly with a hammer
(B) Cupola furnace is used for the manufacture of cast iron
(C) Red short iron is of no value for welding purpose
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 84
Spalling hammer is used for
(A) Driving wooden headed chisels
(B) Rough dressing of stones
(C) Carving of stones
(D) Breaking small projection of stones
Answer: Option B

Question No. 85
Bullet proof glass is made of thick glass sheet sandwiched by a layer of
(A) Steel
(B) Stainless steel
(C) High test plastic
(D) Chromium plate
Answer: Option C

Question No. 86
Plywood is made by bonding together thin layers of wood in such a way that the angle between
grains of any layer to grains of adjacent layers is
(A) 0°
(B) 30°
(C) 45°
(D) 90°
Answer: Option D

Question No. 87
According to IS 399-1963, the weight of the timber is specified at
(A) 8% moisture content
(B) 10% moisture content
(C) 12% moisture content
(D) 14% moisture content
Answer: Option C

Question No. 88
The internal size of mould used in brick preparation is
(A) Equal to the size of a fully burnt brick
(B) Smaller than the size of a fully burnt brick
(C) Greater than the size of a fully burnt brick
(D) None of the above
 Answer: Option C

Question No. 89
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The free quartz suddenly expands at a temperature lower than 600°C
(B) The lime stone resists fire upto about 800°C and at higher temperature it splits into CaO and
CO2
(C) The sand stone with silicates resist a fire in a better way
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 90
Quick lime is
(A) Calcium carbonate
(B) Calcium oxide
(C) Calcium hydroxide
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 91
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Styrene resin is produced from ethylene which is made from petroleum
(B) Styrene resin is light in weight
(C) Styrene resin transmits ultraviolet waves of light
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 92
The initial setting time for ordinary Portland cement as per IS specifications should not be less
than
(A) 10 minutes
(B) 30 minutes
(C) 60 minutes
(D) 600 minutes
Answer: Option B

Question No. 93
Rapid hardening cement attains early strength due to
(A) Larger proportion of lime grounded finer than normal cement
(B) Lesser proportion of lime grounded coarser than normal cement
(C) Lesser proportion of lime grounded finer than normal cement
(D) Excess percentage of gypsum
Answer: Option A
Question No. 94
With increase in moisture content, the bulking of sand
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) First increases to a certain maximum value and then decreases
(D) First decreases to a certain minimum value and then increases
Answer: Option C

Question No. 95
Plywood is normally available
(A) 1 mm thick
(B) 2 mm thick
(C) 2 to 3 mm thick
(D) 3 mm to 4 mm thick
Answer: Option D

Question No. 96
Compared to mild steel, cast iron has
(i) High compressive strength
(ii) High tensile strength
(iii) Low compressive strength
(iv) Low tensile strength
The correct answer is
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i) and (iv)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 97
In a mortar, the binding material is
(A) Cement
(B) Sand
(C) Surkhi
(D) Cinder
Answer: Option A

Question No. 98
The vehicle used in case of enamel paints is usually
(A) Linseed oil
(B) Water
(C) Varnish
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option C
Question No. 99
In the method of condensation polymerization,
(A) Low-molecular substances are removed from the high molecular substance
(B) The reaction proceeds with an evolution of ammonia
(C) The reaction proceeds with an evolution of hydrogen chloride
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 100

The slenderness ratio for masonry walls should not be more than
(A) 10
(B) 20
(C) 30
(D) 40
Answer: Option B

Question No. 101

Sand stone is
(A) Sedimentary rock
(B) Metamorphic rock
(C) Igneous rock
(D) Volcanic rock
Answer: Option A

Question No. 102

Which of the following represents a metamorphic rock?
(i) Slate
(ii) Shale
(iii) Quartzite
The correct answer is
(A) Only (iii)
(B) Both (i) and (iii)
(C) Both (ii) and (iii)
(D) All (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer: Option B

Question No. 103

For the manufacture of Portland cement, the proportions of raw materials used, are
(A) Lime 63% ; silica 22% ; other ingredients 15%
(B) Lime 22% ; silica 63% ; other ingredients 15%
(C) Silica 40% ; lime 40% ; other ingredients 20%
(D) Silica 70% ; lime 20% ; other ingredients 10%
Answer: Option A
Question No. 104
A good building stone should not absorb water more than
(A) 5 %
(B) 10 %
(C) 15 %
(D) 20 %
Answer: Option A

Question No. 105

Good quality stones must
(A) Be durable
(B) Be free from clay
(C) Resist action of acids
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 106

Specific gravity for most of the building stones lies between
(A) 1.5 to 2.0
(B) 2.0 to 2.5
(C) 2.5 to 3.0
(D) 3.0 to 3.5
Answer: Option C

Question No. 107

Initial setting time of cement for asbestos cement products should be not less than
(A) 30 minutes
(B) 50 minutes
(C) 75 minutes
(D) 90 minutes
Answer: Option D

Question No. 108

The age of a tree can be known by examining
(A) Cambium layer
(B) Annular rings
(C) Medullary rays
(D) Heart wood
Answer: Option B

Question No. 109

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) In basic Bessemer process, the steel heats the converter
(B) In open-hearth process, the furnace heats the steel
(C) In Siemens process, the impurities of pig iron are oxidised by the oxygen of the ore
 (D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 110

Percentage of silica in a good brick earth lies between
(A) 5 to 10 %
(B) 20 to 30 %
(C) 50 to 60 %
(D) 70 to 80 %
Answer: Option C

Question No. 111

Resins are
(A) Not soluble in water
(B) Soluble in spirit
(C) Used in varnishes
(D) Left behind on evaporation of oil
Answer: Option C

Question No. 112

Quick lime is
(i) Slow in setting
(ii) Rapid in slacking
(iii) Good in strength
The correct answer is
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Both (i) and (ii)
(D) Both (ii) and (iii)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 113

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Soft stones are required for carving
(B) Light stones are required for arches
(C) Hard stones are required to stand high pressure
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 114

As per IS specifications, the maximum final setting time for ordinary Portland cement should be
(A) 30 minutes
(B) 1 hour
(C) 6 hours
(D) 10 hours
 Answer: Option D

Question No. 115

Shingle is
(A) Decomposed laterite
(B) Crushed granite
(C) Water bound pebbles
(D) Air weathered rock
Answer: Option A

Question No. 116

Proper amount of entrained air in concrete results in
(i) Better workability
(ii) Better resistance to freezing and thawing
(iii) Lesser workability
(iv) Less resistance to freezing and thawing
The correct answer is
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i) and (iv)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (iii) and (iv)
Answer: Option A

Question No. 117

Pick up the correct statement from the following: Method of sawing timber
(A) Tangentially to annual rings, is known as tangential method
(B) In four quarters such that each board cuts annual rings at angles not less than 45°, is known
as quarter sawing method
(C) Cut out of quarter logs, parallel to the medullary rays and perpendicular to annual rings, is
known as radial sawing
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 118

Assertion A : Paints with white lead base are not recommended for painting of iron works.
Reason R : Paints with white lead base do not check rusting of iron.
Select your answer according to the coding system given below:
(A) Both A and R is true and, R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R is true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
Answer: Option A

Question No. 119

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
 (A) Alexander Parkes, a Scottish chemist prepared a hard material by mixing camphor and
alcohol with nitro cellulose and called it, as Parkesite
(B) Dr. L. Bakeland, a Belgian scientist prepared a product known as Bakelite
(C) Pollark, an Austrian scientist prepared a substance from urea and formaldehyde and called
it Plastic
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 120

Expansion Joints in masonry walls are provided in wall lengths usater than
(A) 10 m
(B) 20 m
(C) 30 m
(D) 40 m
Answer: Option D

Question No. 121

Cast steel is manufactured by
(A) Cementation process
(B) Crucible process
(C) Bessemer process
(D) Open hearth process
Answer: Option B

Question No. 122

Based on the following rocks and minerals, select the correct statement, quartz, shale, basalt,
granite, marble, gypsum, mica
(A) Basalt and marble are the only metamorphic rocks
(B) There is no sedimentary rock
(C) Granite is the only igneous rock
(D) Quartz and mica are minerals
Answer: Option D

Question No. 123

The foliated structure is very common in
(A) Sedimentary rocks
(B) Igneous rocks
(C) Metamorphic rocks
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 124

Cross cut saw is used for
(A) Cutting soft stones
(B) Cutting hard stones
 (C) Cutting large blocks of stones
(D) Dressing stones
Answer: Option B

Question No. 125

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Catalysts are added to assist and accelerate the hardening of resin
(B) The fillers are inert materials and they impart strength and hardness
(C) Fibrous fillers increase thermal resistance
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 126

A first class brick when immersed in cold water for 24 hours should not absorb water more than
(A) 15 %
(B) 20 %
(C) 22 %
(D) 25 %
Answer: Option B

Question No. 127

The minimum compressive strength of 2nd class bricks should be
(A) 75 kg/cm2
(B) 90 kg/cm2
(C) 100 kg/cm2
(D) 120 kg/cm2
Answer: Option A

Question No. 128

Which of the following bricks are used for lining of furnaces?
(A) Over-burnt bricks
(B) Under-burnt bricks
(C) Refractory bricks
(D) First class bricks
Answer: Option C

Question No. 129

Bulking of sand is caused due to
(A) Surface moisture
(B) Air voids
(C) Viscosity
(D) Clay contents
Answer: Option A
Question No. 130
According to IS specifications, the compressive strength of ordinary Portland cement after three
days should not be less than
(A) 7 MPa
(B) 11.5 MPa
(C) 16 MPa
(D) 21 MPa
Answer: Option C

Question No. 131

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Plastics have generally low melting point
(B) The coefficient of thermal expansion of plastics is about three times than that of steel
(C) The acoustical boards prepared by impregnating fibre-glass with phenolic resins has
absorption coefficient of about 0.67
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 132

The amount of water used for one kg of distemper is
(A) 0.2 liter
(B) 0.4 liter
(C) 0.6 liter
(D) 0.8 liter
Answer: Option C

Question No. 133

Smith's test of stones is performed to find out
(A) The presence of soluble matter of stone
(B) The compressive strength of the stone
(C) The hardness of the stone
(D) The toughness of the stone
Answer: Option A

Question No. 134

The most important tool in brick laying for lifting and spreading mortar and for forming joints is
(A) Trowel
(B) Square
(C) Bolster
(D) Scutch
Answer: Option A

Question No. 135

The weight of 1 m3 of brick earth, is about
(A) 1200 kg
 (B) 1500 kg
(C) 1800 kg
(D) 2000 kg
Answer: Option C

Question No. 136

Which of the following is a mineral?
(A) Basalt
(B) Granite
(C) Quartz
(D) Syenite
Answer: Option C

Question No. 137

Age of a tree may be ascertained by
(A) Radius of its stem
(B) Circumference of its stem
(C) Number of branches
(D) Number of annual rings
Answer: Option D

Question No. 138

Crushing strength of a good building stone should be more than
(A) 50 MPa
(B) 100 MPa
(C) 150 MPa
(D) 200 MPa
Answer: Option B

Question No. 139

Generally wooden moulds are made from
(A) Ply wood
(B) Shishum wood
(C) Deodar wood
(D) Teak wood
Answer: Option B

Question No. 140

The nominal size of the modular brick is
(A) 190 mm × 90 mm × 80 mm
(B) 190 mm × 190 mm × 90 mm
(C) 200 mm × 100 mm × 100 mm
(D) 200 mm × 200 mm × 100 mm
Answer: Option C
Question No. 141
Bitumen is generally obtained from
(A) Organic material
(B) Synthetic material
(C) Petroleum product
(D) Coal
Answer: Option C

Question No. 142

The main constituent which imparts hydraulicity to hydraulic lime is
(A) Calcium oxide
(B) Silica
(C) Clay
(D) Water
Answer: Option C

Question No. 143

Calcination of iron ores is done
(A) To remove moisture
(B) To remove carbonic acid
(C) By roasting in heaps
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 144

Which of the following cements is suitable for use in massive concrete structures such as large
dams?
(A) Ordinary Portland cement
(B) Low heat cement
(C) Rapid hardening cement
(D) Sulphate resisting cement
Answer: Option B

Question No. 145

The commonly used thinner in oil paints, is
(A) Naphtha
(B) Turpentine
(C) Both (a) and (b)
(D) None the these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 146

Minimum thickness of wall where single Flemish bond can be used is
(A) Half brick thick
(B) One brick thick
 (C) One and a half bricks thick
(D) Two bricks thick
Answer: Option C

Question No. 147

The pigment used in paints for corrosive resistance, is
(A) White lead
(B) Ferrous oxide
(C) Zinc white
(D) Red lead
Answer: Option D

Question No. 148

Slate is formed by metamorphic action on
(A) Shale
(B) Lime stone
(C) Sand stone
(D) Granite
Answer: Option A

Question No. 149

Sea sand used in structures causes
(A) Dampness
(B) Efflorescence
(C) Disintegration
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 150

The trunk of tree left after cutting all the branches is known as
(A) Log
(B) Batten
(C) Plank
(D) Baulk
Answer: Option A

Question No. 151

The weight of a good quality brick when immersed in water for a period of 16 hours should not
exceed the weight of dry brick
(A) 20 %
(B) 15 %
(C) 10 %
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 152
Pug mill is used for
(A) Preparation of clay
(B) Moulding of clay
(C) Drying of bricks
(D) Burning of bricks
Answer: Option A

Question No. 153

Pick up the synthetic resin from the following:
(A) Urea resin
(B) Phenolic resin
(C) Resorcinol resin
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 154

Addition of pozzolana to ordinary Portland cement increases
(A) Bleeding
(B) Shrinkage
(C) Permeability
(D) Heat of hydration
Answer: Option B

Question No. 155

Plastics are compounds of carbon with element
(A) Hydrogen
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Oxygen
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 156

Paints with white lead base are suitable for painting of
(A) Wood work
(B) Iron work
(C) Both wood work and iron work
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 157

For a good building stone, its specific gravity should the greater than
(A) 1.5
(B) 1.7
(C) 2.2
 (D) 2.7
Answer: Option D

Question No. 158

Sandstone is a
(i) Sedimentary rock
(ii) Aqueous rock
(iii) Siliceous rock
The correct answer is
(A) Only (i)
(B) Both (i) and (ii)
(C) Both (i) and (iii)
(D) All (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 159

The rocks having alumina or clay as their major constituents are known as
(A) Siliceous rocks
(B) Argillaceous rocks
(C) Calcareous rocks
(D) Sedimentary rocks
Answer: Option B

Question No. 160

The practical limit of moisture content achieved in air drying of timber is
(A) 5 %
(B) 15 %
(C) 25 %
(D) 35 %
Answer: Option B

Question No. 161

Glazing of clay products, is done
(A) To improve their appearance
(B) To protect them from atmospheric effect
(C) To protect them from corrosive action
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 162

Study the following statements.
(i) Hydraulic lime is suitable for white washing,
(ii) Fat lime is suitable for whitewashing,
(iii) Hydraulic lime is suitable for making mortar,
(iv) Fat lime is suitable for making mortar.
 The correct answer is
(A) (i) and (iv)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i) and (ii)
(D) (iii) and (iv)
Answer: Option B

Question No. 163

The yield strength and tensile strength of low carbon steel may be improved by the addition of
(A) Manganese
(B) Chromium
(C) Nickel
(D) Vanadium
Answer: Option D

Question No. 164

Three basic raw materials which are needed in large quantities for production of steel are
(A) Iron ore, coal and sulphur
(B) Iron ore, carbon and sulphur
(C) Iron ore, coal and lime stone
(D) Iron ore, carbon and lime stone
Answer: Option C

Question No. 165

To give a brilliant finish, the type of varnish used, is
(A) Water varnish
(B) Spirit varnish
(C) Turpentine varnish
(D) Oil varnish
Answer: Option B

Question No. 166

Which of the following should be used for hearting of thicker walls?
(A) Headers
(B) Stretchers
(C) Brick bats
(D) Queen closer
Answer: Option A

Question No. 167

Asbestos
(A) Is an excellent insulator for heat and electricity
(B) Is fire-proof and acid proof
(C) Has sp. gravity equal to 3.10
(D) All the above
 Answer: Option D

Question No. 168

A heavy stone is suitable for
(A) Arches
(B) Rubble masonry
(C) Roads
(D) Retaining walls
Answer: Option D

Question No. 169

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Blisters in the finished wrought iron, are caused due to the reaction between oxide of iron
and carbon
(B) The edges of a finished wrought iron are rough due to red shortage
(C) Pig iron (charcoal) is manufactured from magnetic ore (Fe3O4)
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 170

The percentage of alumina in a good brick earth lies between
(A) 5 to 10 %
(B) 20 to 30 %
(C) 50 to 60 %
(D) 70 to 80 %
Answer: Option B

Question No. 171

Pig iron made from haematite ores free from sulphur, phosphorus and copper, is known as
(A) Bessemer pig
(B) Grey or foundry pig
(C) White or forge pig
(D) Mottled pig
Answer: Option A

Question No. 172

Le-Chatelier's device is used for determining the
(A) Setting time of cement
(B) Soundness of cement
(C) Tensile strength of cement
(D) Compressive strength of cement
Answer: Option B

Question No. 173

Red short iron cracks when bent due to the presence of
 (A) Sulphur
(B) Carbon
(C) Phosphorus
(D) Silicon
Answer: Option A

Question No. 174

Percentage of carbon content in mild steel is
(A) Less than 0.25
(B) Between 0.25 and 0.7
(C) Between 0.7 and 1.5
(D) Greater than 1.5
Answer: Option A

Question No. 175

The method of addition polymerization is used for obtaining:
(A) Polystyrene
(B) Polypropylene
(C) Polyvinylchloride
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 176

Which of the following metamorphic rocks has the most weather resisting characteristics?
(A) Marble
(B) Quartzite
(C) Slate
(D) Lime stone
Answer: Option B

Question No. 177

To retard the initial setting time of cement, the compound responsible, is
(A) Tri-calcium silicate
(B) Gypsum
(C) Di-calcium silicate
(D) Tri-calcium aluminate
Answer: Option B

Question No. 178

Seasoning of timber is done for
(A) Increasing moisture content
(B) Decreasing moisture content
(C) Increasing strength of timber
(D) None to these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 179
The steel used for the manufacture of rails, is
(A) Bessemer steel
(B) Mild steel
(C) Cast steel
(D) Stainless steel
Answer: Option A

Question No. 180

Durability of building stone is affected by its
(A) Chemical composition
(B) Texture
(C) Resistance to atmosphere
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 181

Pick up the most favourable condition for the rapid growth of fungus for dry rot from the
following:
(A) Absence of sun light
(B) Dampness
(C) Presence of sap
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 182

Crushing strength of a first class brick should not be less than
(A) 3.5 N/mm²
(B) 7.0 N/mm²
(C) 10.5 N/mm²
(D) 14.0 N/mm²
Answer: Option C

Question No. 183

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Rust is due to formation of oxides
(B) Cast iron oxidises less
(C) Steel oxidises most
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 184

The main constituent of cement which is responsible for initial setting of cement is
(A) Di-calcium silicate
(B) Tri-calcium silicate
 (C) Tri-calcium aluminate
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 185

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The low voltage porcelain is prepared by wet process
(B) The high voltage porcelain is prepared by dry process
(C) The low voltage porcelain is prepared by dry process
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 186

In brick masonry the bond produced by laying alternate headers and stretchers in each course is
known as
(A) English bond
(B) Double Flemish bond
(C) Zigzag bond
(D) Single Flemish bond
Answer: Option B

Question No. 187

In stone masonry, if stones are so placed that their layers are parallel to the direction of load, they
(A) Split easily
(B) Are affected by moisture
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 188

Granite is not suitable for ordinary building purpose because
(A) It cannot be polished
(B) It is not a fire proof material
(C) It is costly
(D) It has less crushing strength
Answer: Option C

Question No. 189

Lacquer paints
(A) Are generally applied on structural steel
(B) Are less durable as compared to enamel paints
(C) Consist of resin and nitro-cellulose
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 190
Glazing is used to make earthenware
(A) Hard
(B) Soft
(C) Porous
(D) Impervious
Answer: Option D

Question No. 191

In the cement the compound quickest to react with water, is
(A) Tri-calcium aluminate
(B) Tetra-calcium alumino-ferrite
(C) Tri-calcium silicate
(D) Di-calcium silicate
Answer: Option A

Question No. 192

Which of the following gradients exerts maximum influence on properties of steel?
(A) Iron
(B) Carbon
(C) Manganese
(D) Sulphur
Answer: Option B

Question No. 193

Stainless steel contains
(A) 18% of chromium and 8% nickel
(B) 8% of chromium and 18% of nickel
(C) 12% of chromium and 36% of nickel
(D) 36% of chromium and 12% of nickel
Answer: Option A

Question No. 194

Excess of silica in brick earth results in
(A) Cracking and warping of bricks
(B) Loss of cohesion
(C) Enhancing the impermeability of bricks
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 195

Which one of the following is acid resistant asbestos?
(A) Actinolite asbestos
(B) Amosite asbestos
(C) Anthophylite asbestos
 (D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 196

The slump recommended for mass concrete is about
(A) 25 mm to 50 mm
(B) 50 mm to 100 mm
(C) 100 mm to 125 mm
(D) 125 mm to 150 mm
Answer: Option A

Question No. 197

For preparing porcelains, the clay should be
(A) Sufficiently pure
(B) Of high degree of tenacity
(C) Of good plasticity
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 198

For melting one tonne of cast iron
(A) 700 m3 air is required
(B) 20 kg limestone is required
(C) One quintal coke is required
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 199

Pick up the correct statement regarding low heat cement from the following:
(A) It possesses less compressive strength
(B) Its initial setting time is about one hour
(C) Its final setting time is about 10 hours
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 200

Quick lime (or caustic lime)
(A) Is obtained by the calcination of pure lime stone
(B) Has great affinity to moisture
(C) Is amorphous
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 201

The commonly used lime in white washing, is
 (A) White lime
(B) Fat lime
(C) Hydraulic lime
(D) Quick lime
Answer: Option B

Question No. 202

For slaking of 10 kg of CaO, the theoretical amount of water is
(A) 2.2 kg
(B) 1.5 kg
(C) 3.2 kg
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 203

Plywood is made from
(A) Common timber
(B) Bamboo fibre
(C) Teak wood only
(D) Asbestos sheets
Answer: Option C

Question No. 204

A 1st class brick immersed in water for 24 hours, should not absorb water (by weight) more than
(A) 10 %
(B) 15 %
(C) 20 %
(D) 25 %
Answer: Option C

Question No. 205

The preparation of surface of stone to obtain plain edges or to obtain stones of required size and
shape is known as
(A) Quarrying of stones
(B) Blasting of stones
(C) Seasoning of stones
(D) Dressing of stones
Answer: Option D

Question No. 206

The hardest rock is
(A) Marble
(B) Diamond
(C) Talc
(D) Quartz
 Answer: Option B

Question No. 207

Wrought iron is used for
(A) Structural works in beams
(B) Small sized water pipes
(C) Columns and struts
(D) None to these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 208

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Corrugated sheet iron is made by passing plain sheets between grooved rollers
(B) Strength and stiffness of corrugated sheets are considerably increased
(C) Corrugated sheets are generally used on slanting roofs
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 209

The process of mixing clay, water and other ingredients to make brick is known as
(A) Kneading
(B) Moulding
(C) Pugging
(D) Drying
Answer: Option A

Question No. 210

The type of steel used for precision levelling staff, is
(A) Titanium steel
(B) Carbon steel
(C) Invar
(D) Stainless steel
Answer: Option C

Question No. 211

Formula for quick lime, is
(A) CaCO3
(B) Ca(OH)2
(C) CO3CO2
(D) None to these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 212

The process of decarbonising the pig iron completely and then adding proper percentage of carbon
for manufacturing steel, is called
 (A) Cementation process
(B) Crucible process
(C) Bessemer process
(D) Open hearth process
Answer: Option A

Question No. 213

The maximum quantity of calcium chloride used as an accelerator in cement in percentage by
weight of cement is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Answer: Option B

Question No. 214

Which one of the following polymers is obtained from condensation polymerization?
(A) Phenol formaldehyde
(B) Carbamide
(C) Melamine-formaldehyde
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 215

The portion of a brick cut to form angles other than right angles in plan, is known as
(A) Queen closer
(B) King closer
(C) Closer
(D) Squint brick
Answer: Option D

Question No. 216

The moisture content in a well seasoned timber is
(A) 4 % to 6 %
(B) 10 % to 12 %
(C) 15 % to 20 %
(D) 100 %
Answer: Option B

Question No. 217

The cement becomes unsound by the presence of excess
(A) Sulphur
(B) Magnesia
(C) Lime
(D) All of these
 Answer: Option D

Question No. 218

For one cubic metre of brick masonry, number of bricks required, is
(A) 400
(B) 425
(C) 450
(D) 500
Answer: Option D

Question No. 219

Rapid hardening cement contains
(A) Tri-calcium silicate
(B) Tri-calcium aluminate
(C) Tetra-calcium alumino-ferrite
(D) Di-calcium silicate
Answer: Option A

Question No. 220

In order of increasing percentage of silica, the correct sequence is
(A) Sandy clay, calcareous clay, pure clay
(B) Calcareous clay, pure clay, sandy clay
(C) Pure clay, sandy clay, calcareous clay
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 221

Which of the following timbers is suitable for making sports goods?
(A) Mulberry
(B) Mahogany
(C) Sal
(D) Deodar
Answer: Option A

Question No. 222

The stones obtained by blasting are used as
(A) Ballast in railways
(B) Aggregates for concrete
(C) Road metal
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 223

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Acid test is done to find out the weathering quality of stones
 (B) Attrition test is done to find out the rate of wear of stones which are used in road
construction
(C) Crushing test is done to find out the compressive strength of the stone
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 224

Mastic asphalt is
(A) Water proof
(B) Fire proof
(C) Elastic
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 225

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Lime is available in Free State
(B) Lime is available by dissolving calcium carbonate in water
(C) Lime is available by calcining calcium carbonate at 900°C
(D) Lime is nothing but calcium chloride
Answer: Option C

Question No. 226

The frog of the brick in a brick masonry is generally kept on
(A) Bottom face
(B) Top face
(C) Shorter side
(D) Longer side
Answer: Option B

Question No. 227

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Roasting is not necessary if iron ore is an oxide
(B) Impurities float on the molten iron as slag
(C) The slag contains lime about 45%
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 228

For obtaining vinyl chloride acetate, the method used, is
(A) Addition polymerization
(B) Condensation polymerization
(C) Co-polymerization
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 229
Whitworth compressed steel is obtained when molten steel is subjected to a pressure of
(A) 5 kg/mm2
(B) 9 kg/mm2
(C) 13 kg/mm2
(D) 15 kg/mm2
Answer: Option B

Question No. 230

The normal consistency of ordinary Portland cement is about
(A) 10 %
(B) 20 %
(C) 30 %
(D) 40 %
Answer: Option C

Question No. 231

Lacquer is
(A) Oil paint
(B) Distemper
(C) Spirit varnish
(D) None to these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 232

Plaster of Paris is obtained by calcining
(A) Bauxite
(B) Gypsum
(C) Lime stone
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 233

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The lime in excess makes the cement unsound and causes the cement to expand and
disintegrate
(B) The silica in excess makes the cement stronger but its setting time also increases
(C) The excess amount of alumina weakens the cement
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 234

Priming consists of
(A) One part of white lead, 8 parts of chalk and four parts of twice boiled linseed oil
(B) 8 parts of white lead, one part of chalk and four parts of twice boiled linseed oil
 (C) One part of white lead, 8 parts of chalk and one part of linseed oil
(D) None to these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 235

The coefficient of hardness of stones used in road work should be greater than
(A) 10
(B) 12
(C) 15
(D) 17
Answer: Option D

Question No. 236

Manganese steels
(A) Are non-magnetic
(B) Possess high electrical resistance
(C) Possess low coefficient of expansion
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 237

The most commonly used base for timber painting, is
(A) Red lead
(B) Zinc white
(C) White lead
(D) Titanium white
Answer: Option C

Question No. 238

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Adding 5% to 6% of moisture content by weight, increases the volume of dry sand from 18%
to 38%
(B) The bulking of fine sand is more than that of coarse sand
(C) If the percentage content of moisture exceeds 10%, increase in bulk of sand starts increasing
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 239

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) For thin structures subjected to wetting and drying, the water cement ratio should be 0.45
(B) For mass concrete structures subjected to wetting and drying, the water ratio should be 0.55
(C) For thin structures which remain continuously under water, the water-cement ratio by
weight should be 0.55
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 240
Quartzite is a
(A) Metamorphic rock
(B) Argillaceous rock
(C) Calcareous rock
(D) Siliceous rock
Answer: Option D

Question No. 241

The plastics made from cellulose resin
(A) Are as clear as glass
(B) Are tough and strong
(C) Possess excellent electrical properties
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 242

Polymerization helps to improve the property of
(A) Strength
(B) Rigidity
(C) Elasticity
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 243

For filling cracks in masonry structures, the type of bitumen used, is
(A) Cut-back bitumen
(B) Bitumen-emulsion
(C) Blown bitumen
(D) Plastic bitumen
Answer: Option D

Question No. 244

Expanded metal is
(A) Manufactured from steel sheets
(B) Used for reinforced concrete in road pavements
(C) Measured in term of SWM (short way mesh) and LWM (long way mesh)
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 245

Pick up the plutonic rock from the following:
(A) Granite
(B) Dolerite
(C) Basalt
 (D) All the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 246

The portion of the brick without a triangular corner equal to half the width and half the length, is
called
(A) Closer
(B) Queen closer
(C) King closer
(D) Squint brick
Answer: Option C

Question No. 247

Cement is said to be of good quality if
(A) Its colour is not greenish grey
(B) One feels cool by thrusting one's hand in the cement bag
(C) A handful of cement thrown into a bucket of water does not float
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 248

The silica is used for preparing
(A) Silica bricks
(B) Coke oven
(C) Lining for glass furnaces
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 249

The timber having maximum resistance against white ants, is obtained from
(A) Chir
(B) Shishum
(C) Sal
(D) Teak
Answer: Option B

Question No. 250

Duco is one of the patent forms of
(A) Emulsion paints
(B) Plastic paints
(C) Bituminous paints
(D) Cellulose paints
Answer: Option D
Question No. 251
Quartzite, a metamorphic stone is
(A) Hard
(B) Brittle
(C) Crystalline
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 252

If water required for 1 bag of cement is 30 litres, the water cement ratio is:
(A) 0.40
(B) 0.50
(C) 0.60
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 253

A piece of timber whose thickness and width are respectively 5 cm and 10 cm is called
(A) Slate
(B) Plank
(C) Board
(D) Strip
Answer: Option D

Question No. 254

The percentage of water for normal consistency, is
(A) 5% to 15%
(B) 10% to 25%
(C) 15% to 25%
(D) 20% to 30%
Answer: Option C

Question No. 255

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The baked earth is called terra-cotta
(B) The articles prepared from clay which is burnt at low temperature and cooled down slowly,
are called earthen-ware
(C) The articles prepared from refractory clays which as mixed with stone and crushed pottery,
are called stone ware
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 256

In a rock calcium carbonate predominates. State whether it is:
(A) Siliceous rock
 (B) Argillaceous rock
(C) Calcareous rock
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 257

The cracks which extend from bark towards the sap wood in the cross section of a tree, are called
(A) Radial shakes
(B) Star shakes
(C) Heart shakes
(D) Cup shakes
Answer: Option B

Question No. 258

The steel used for rails under heavy traffic and on sharp curves, is
(A) Nickel steel
(B) Chrome steel
(C) Manganese steel
(D) Vanadium steel
Answer: Option C

Question No. 259

The steel used in R.C.C. work is
(A) Stainless steel
(B) Mild steel
(C) High carbon steel
(D) Wrought iron
Answer: Option B

Question No. 260

Pick up the rock which is not a sedimentary rock from the following:
(A) Gravel
(B) Sand stone
(C) Gypsum
(D) Dolerite
Answer: Option D

Question No. 261

Acrylic is the name of
(A) Cellulose resin
(B) Alkyd resin
(C) Methyl methacrylate
(D) Cumarone-indene
Answer: Option C
Question No. 262
The PVC doors and windows are preferred as they are
(A) Rust proof
(B) Rot proof
(C) Water proof
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 263

The sequence of refractory materials according to increasing melting points is:
(A) Dolomite, Magnesia, Bauxite, Chromites
(B) Bauxite, Chromites, Dolomite, Magnesia
(C) Magnesia, Bauxite, Dolomite, Chromites
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 264

Upto a maximum of 72% of iron, is available in
(A) Magnetite
(B) Limonite
(C) Siderite
(D) Iron pyrites
Answer: Option A

Question No. 265

The melting point of silica is:
(A) 1570°C
(B) 1630°C
(C) 1730°C
(D) 1850°C
Answer: Option C

Question No. 266

Lime stones are generally known as
(A) Aqueous rocks
(B) Sedimentary rocks
(C) Stratified rocks
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 267

Stones used for rubble masonry must be
(A) Soft
(B) Hard
(C) Light
 (D) Heavy
Answer: Option B

Question No. 268

The property by virtue of which lime sets under water, is known as
(A) Slacking
(B) Setting
(C) Hydraulicity
(D) Calcining
Answer: Option C

Question No. 269

Porcelain is used as:
(A) Sanitary wares
(B) Electric insulators
(C) Storage vessels
(D) Reactor chambers
Answer: Option D

Question No. 270

The lime which contains high percentage of calcium oxide, is generally called
(A) Fat lime
(B) Rich lime
(C) White lime
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 271

Second class bricks
(A) Are of dark brown colour
(B) Produce a metallic sound when struck
(C) Are well burnt
(D) Are under burnt
Answer: Option B

Question No. 272

Wrought iron contains carbon upto
(A) 0.25 %
(B) 1.0 %
(C) 1.5 %
(D) 2 %
Answer: Option A

Question No. 273

The variety of pig iron used for manufacture of wrought iron, is
 (A) Bessemer pig
(B) Grey or foundry pig
(C) White forge pig
(D) Mottled pig
Answer: Option C

Question No. 274

Kaolin is chemically classified as
(A) Metamorphic rock
(B) Argillaceous rock
(C) Calcareous rock
(D) Siliceous rock
Answer: Option B

Question No. 275

Sewer pipes are made of
(A) Earthen ware
(B) Stone ware
(C) Refractory clay
(D) All the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 276

The process of manufacturing steel by heating short lengths of wrought iron bars mixed with
charcoal in fire clay crucibles and collecting the molten iron into moulds, is known as
(A) Cementation process
(B) Crucible process
(C) Bessemer process
(D) Open hearth process
Answer: Option B

Question No. 277

The rock generally used for roofing, is
(A) Granite
(B) Basalt
(C) Slate
(D) Pumice
Answer: Option C

Question No. 278

The lime which contains mainly calcium oxide and slacks with water, is
(A) Fat lime
(B) Quick lime
(C) Hydraulic lime
(D) Poor lime
 Answer: Option B

Question No. 279

The standard size of masonry bricks, is
(A) 18 cm × 8 cm × 8 cm
(B) 19 cm × 9 cm × 9 cm
(C) 20 cm × 10 cm × 10 cm
(D) 21 cm × 11 cm × 11 cm
Answer: Option B

Question No. 280

The proportions of charcoal, saltpetre and sulphur in gun powder by weight, are respectively:
(A) 15, 75, 10
(B) 75, 10, 15
(C) 10, 15, 75
(D) 10, 75, 15
Answer: Option A

Question No. 281

Knots in timber are
(A) Defects caused by crushing fibres
(B) Splits radiating from the centre
(C) Speckled strains
(D) Signs of branches cut off
Answer: Option D

Question No. 282

Pick up correct statement from the following:
(A) Fibre boards are used for thermal and acoustic control
(B) Fibre boards are used for light weight standing members
(C) Fibre boards are obtained by impregnating a resin product on fibres
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 283

Portland cement manufactured from pure white chalk and clay but free from iron-oxide, is known
as
(A) Quick setting cement
(B) Rapid hardening cement
(C) White cement
(D) Low heat Portland cement
Answer: Option C

Question No. 284

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
 (A) Slaked lime contains calcium hydroxide
(B) Quick lime contains calcium oxide
(C) Slaked lime may be obtained from quick lime
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 285

The minimum compressive strength of 1st class bricks should be
(A) 75 kg/cm2
(B) 90 kg/cm2
(C) 100 kg/cm2
(D) 120 kg/cm2
Answer: Option C

Question No. 286

The cast iron when heated to red heat with powdered red haematite in an oven for increasing its
toughness, is converted to
(A) Grey cast iron
(B) White cast iron
(C) Mottled cast iron
(D) Toughed cast iron
Answer: Option C

Question No. 287

A well seasoned timber may contain moisture up to
(A) 4 to 6 %
(B) 6 to 8 %
(C) 8 to 10 %
(D) 10 to 12 %
Answer: Option D

Question No. 288

The usual percentages of clay and metal in cermet are:
(A) 50%, 50%
(B) 60%, 40%
(C) 70%, 30%
(D) 80%, 20%
Answer: Option D

Question No. 289

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The plastic bottles are made by the process of blowing
(B) The application of thermo-setting resins on sheets of paper, is called laminating process
(C) The plastic articles made by placing raw material in the desired moulds, is known as
moulding process
 (D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 290

The specific gravity of marble, is
(A) 2.50
(B) 2.60
(C) 2.66
(D) 2.72
Answer: Option D

Question No. 291

Plastic asphalt is
(A) Used as a water proofing layer over roof
(B) A mixture of cement and asphalt
(C) A natural asphalt
(D) A refinery product
Answer: Option B

Question No. 292

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Rusting is caused due to combined action of air, moisture and carbon dioxide
(B) During rusting, first ferrous bicarbonates are formed
(C) On further oxidation ferrous bicarbonates get converted to ferric bicarbonates
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 293

The commonly used base for iron and steel work, is
(A) Red lead
(B) Zinc white
(C) White lead
(D) Titanium white
Answer: Option A

Question No. 294

For high grade instruments the steel preferred to, is
(A) Cast steel
(B) Bessemer steel
(C) Mild steel
(D) Whitworth compressed steel
Answer: Option A

Question No. 295

Bitumen felt is used for
 (A) Water proofing
(B) Damp proofing
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 296

The most important constituent of an oil paint, is
(A) Thinner
(B) Vehicle
(C) Pigment
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 297

Acrylic sheets
(A) Possess 10 to 17 times greater breakage resistance than that of glass of equivalent thickness
(B) Are generally unaffected by most household detergents
(C) Possess the light transmission rate of 93%
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 298

Brass is an alloy of
(A) Copper and zinc
(B) Zinc and lead
(C) Tin and silver
(D) Zinc and nickel
Answer: Option A

Question No. 299

Pick up the polymineralic rock from the following:
(A) Quartz sand
(B) Pure gypsum
(C) Magnesite
(D) Granite
Answer: Option D

Question No. 300

Pick up the hypabyssal rock from the following:
(A) Granite
(B) Dolerite
(C) Basalt
(D) All the above
Answer: Option B
Question No. 301
The rocks formed by gradual deposition, are called
(A) Sedimentary rocks
(B) Igneous rocks
(C) Metamorphic rocks
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 302

Plastic
(A) Is an organic substance
(B) Consists of natural or synthetic binders
(C) Finished products are rigid and stable at normal temperature
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 303

Apiece of sawn timber whose cross-sectional dimensions exceed 5 cm, in one direction and 20 cm
in the other direction, is called a
(A) Cant
(B) Deal
(C) Baulk
(D) Strip
Answer: Option C

Question No. 304

Rocks formed due to alteration of original structure due to heat and excessive pressure are called
(A) Sedimentary rocks
(B) Igneous rocks
(C) Metamorphic rocks
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 305

Geologically, marble is known as
(A) Sedimentary rock
(B) Igneous rock
(C) Metamorphic rock
(D) Stratified rock
Answer: Option C

Question No. 306

Iron ore may contain
(A) Carbon
(B) Silicon
 (C) Phosphorus and manganese
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 307

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) Plastics are chemical resistant
(B) Plastics are durable
(C) Plastics are ductile
(D) Plastics are excellent electric insulators
Answer: Option C

Question No. 308

The cracks caused by shrinkage of the exterior surface of the wood exposed to atmosphere, are
called:
(A) Radial shakes
(B) Heart shakes
(C) Wind cracks
(D) Twisted fibres
Answer: Option C

Question No. 309

Pig iron is manufactured from the ores by
(A) Dressing
(B) Calcination and roasting
(C) Smelting
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 310

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The plywoods do not split or crack due to changes in atmosphere
(B) The commercial plywoods are available upto 150 cm wide and upto 300 cm long
(C) The plywoods possess uniform tensile strength in all directions
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 311

Jhumb bricks are
(A) Under burnt
(B) Over burnt
(C) Kutcha
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 312
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Steel produced by open hearth process is milder than that obtained by the Bessemer
process
(B) Engineers prefer open hearth steel for structural purpose as it is more homogenous
(C) Basic Bessemer process is suitable for converting poor ore containing a large proportion of
sulphur and phosphorus into steel
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 313

Refractory bricks resist
(A) High temperature
(B) Chemical action
(C) Dampness
(D) All the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 314

The thermosetting plastic
(A) Becomes rigid when moulded at suitable pressure and temperature
(B) At 127°C to 177°C permanently set and further application of heat does not soften it
(C) Chars at 343°C
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 315

Commonly used thinner in
(A) Lacquer paints, is alcohol
(B) Cellulose paints is ethyl acetate
(C) Oil paints, is naphtha
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 316

The curved swellings from the growth of layers or wounds left after branches are cut off in an
irregular manner are known as
(A) Knots
(B) Rindgalls
(C) Burls
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 317

Bitumen completely dissolves in
 (A) Carbon bisulphide
(B) Chloroform
(C) Coal tar
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 318

A stone is rejected if it absorbs water more than
(A) 5 %
(B) 10 %
(C) 15 %
(D) 20 %
Answer: Option B

Question No. 319

The most commonly used synthetic abrasive is
(A) Aluminium carbide
(B) Boric acid
(C) Silicon
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 320

During smelting process, the combination of fuel in the furnace
(A) Forms carbon dioxide
(B) Carbon dioxide with carbon forms carbon mono-oxide
(C) Carbon mono-oxide reacts with Fe2O3 to form iron and liberates CO2
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 321

According to ISI, bitumen is classified into
(A) 2 grades
(B) 4 grades
(C) 8 grades
(D) 10 grades
Answer: Option D

Question No. 322

Basalt is
(A) Sedimentary rock
(B) Metamorphic rock
(C) Extrusive igneous rock
(D) Intrusive igneous rock
Answer: Option C
Question No. 323
The size of mould for bricks, is generally kept
(A) A little large to specified size
(B) A little small to specified size
(C) Equal to specified size
(D) 10% larger than specified size
Answer: Option A

Question No. 324

For construction of structures under water, the type of lime used, is
(A) Hydraulic lime
(B) Fat lime
(C) Quick lime
(D) Pure lime
Answer: Option A

Question No. 325

French polish is
(A) Oil paint
(B) Distemper
(C) Spirit varnish
(D) None to these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 326

Ultimate strength to cement is provided by
(A) Tri-calcium silicate
(B) Di-calcium silicate
(C) Tri-calcium aluminate
(D) Tetra calcium alumino ferrite
Answer: Option B

Question No. 327

Wrought iron contains carbon about
(A) 1.5% to 5.5%
(B) 0.5% to 1.75%
(C) 0.1% to 0.25%
(D) None to these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 328

Galvanising means covering iron with a thin coat of
(A) Tin
(B) Zinc
(C) Glaze
 (D) Coal tar
Answer: Option B

Question No. 329

The rocks in which argil (or clay) predominates, are called
(A) Siliceous rocks
(B) Argillaceous rocks
(C) Calcareous rocks
(D) Igneous rocks
Answer: Option B

Question No. 330

Name the type of cement from the following for canal linings:
(A) Sulphate resisting cement
(B) Rapid hardening cement
(C) Quick setting cement
(D) Pozzolana cement
Answer: Option A

Question No. 331

Seasoning is
(A) A process of removing sap
(B) Creosoting
(C) Painting with sodium silicate
(D) Coating with tar
Answer: Option A

Question No. 332

Soundness test of cement determines
(A) Quality of free lime
(B) Ultimate strength
(C) Durability
(D) Initial setting
Answer: Option A

Question No. 333

Turpentine oil is used in paints as
(A) Thinner
(B) Vehicle
(C) Base
(D) Drier
Answer: Option A

Question No. 334

Stucco paints are suitable for
 (A) Stone masonry
(B) Brick walls
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 335

Stones used for ornamental work must be
(A) Soft
(B) Hard
(C) Light
(D) Heavy
Answer: Option A

Question No. 336

Lime stone is not a
(A) Sedimentary rock
(B) Stratified rock
(C) Aqueous rock
(D) Metamorphic rock
Answer: Option D

Question No. 337

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The heating of a material to redness in contact with air, is known as calcination
(B) The property of lime by which it sets or hardens in damp places having no free circulation of
air is called setting
(C) The product that remains after calcination of limestone, is called lime
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 338

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The average crushing strength of hand moulded bricks is 6000 t/m2
(B) The average tensile strength of hand moulded brick is 200 t/m2
(C) The average shearing strength of hand moulded brick is 600 t/m2
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 339

Snowcrete is one of the patent forms of
(A) Distempers
(B) Water proof cement paints
(C) Enamel paints
(D) Cellulose paints
 Answer: Option B

Question No. 340

Cast iron is used for
(A) Structural works in beams
(B) Small sized water pipes
(C) Columns and struts
(D) None to these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 341

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The percentage of absorption for firebricks varies from 5 to 10
(B) The percentage of silica in silica bricks is to the extent of about 95 to 97 percent
(C) Roughly 1 to 2 percent of lime in silica bricks is added to act as binding material
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 342

Good quality cement contains higher percentage of
(A) Tri-calcium silicate
(B) Di-calcium silicate
(C) Tri-calcium aluminate
(D) Tetra calcium alumino ferrite
Answer: Option A

Question No. 343

Laterite is a/an
(A) Volcanic rock
(B) Argillaceous rock
(C) Calcareous rock
(D) Siliceous rock
Answer: Option B

Question No. 344

Seasoning of timber is essential to remove
(A) Knots from timber
(B) Sap from timber
(C) Twisted fibre from timber
(D) Roughness of timber
Answer: Option B

Question No. 345

The term frog means
(A) An apparatus to lift the stone
 (B) A depression on a face of brick
(C) Vertical joint in a brick work
(D) Soaking brick in water
Answer: Option B

Question No. 346

The presence of sand in brick earth prevents:
(A) Cracking of bricks
(B) Shrinkage of bricks
(C) Warping of bricks
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 347

Refractory bricks are
(A) Neutral refractory bricks
(B) Acid refractory bricks
(C) Basic refractory bricks
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 348

A prime coat is given to steel work with
(A) An oxide of iron paint
(B) A mixture of white lead and lead paint
(C) A special paint
(D) Cement paint
Answer: Option B

Question No. 349

Teak wood is suitable for
(A) Sports articles
(B) Furnitures
(C) Railway sleepers
(D) All the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 350

Elastomers can extend upto
(A) Five times their original dimensions
(B) Seven times their original dimensions
(C) Ten times their original dimensions
(D) Three times their original dimensions
Answer: Option C
Question No. 351
Bitumen in
(A) Solid state, is called asphalt
(B) Semi fluid state, is called mineral tar
(C) Fluid state, is called petroleum
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 352

Varnish is a transparent or semi-transparent solution of resinous substances in
(A) Alcohol
(B) Linseed
(C) Turpentine
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 353

Refractory bricks are used for
(A) Retaining walls
(B) Columns
(C) Piers
(D) Combustion chambers
Answer: Option D

Question No. 354

Minimum required water cement ratio for a workable concrete, is
(A) 0.30
(B) 0.40
(C) 0.50
(D) 0.60
Answer: Option B

Question No. 355

Minimum of 40% of iron, is available in
(A) Magnetite
(B) Red haematite
(C) Limonite
(D) Black band
Answer: Option D

Question No. 356

Portland pozzolana cement possesses
(A) Higher resistance to chemical attack
(B) Lower heat of hydration
(C) Lower shrinkage on drying
 (D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 357

Dextrin is
(A) Animal glue
(B) Starch glue
(C) Albumin glue
(D) Rubber based adhesive
Answer: Option D

Question No. 358

Mastic asphalt is normally used for
(A) Sound insulation
(B) Water proofing
(C) Fire proofing
(D) None to these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 359

The steel which contains fissures and cavities, is manufactured by
(A) Cementation process
(B) Crucible process
(C) Bessemer process
(D) Open hearth process
Answer: Option A

Question No. 360

Based on flow quality, the sequence of pipes is
(A) A.C. pipes, G.I. pipes, C.I. pipes, PVC pipes
(B) C.I. pipes, G.I. pipes, A.C. pipes, PVC pipes
(C) C.I. pipes, G.I. pipes, PVC pipes, A.C. pipes
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 361

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Hornblende mineral is brittle
(B) Muscovite is also known as white mica and potash mica
(C) Biotite is also known as black-mica
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 362

Good quality sand is never obtained from
 (A) River
(B) Lake
(C) Sea
(D) Gravel powder
Answer: Option C

Question No. 363

Lime mortar is generally made with
(A) Quick lime
(B) Fat lime
(C) Hydraulic lime
(D) Plain lime
Answer: Option C

Question No. 364

Pick up the compound responsible for early strength of cement from the following:
(A) Tetra-calcium alumino-ferrite
(B) Tri-calcium silicate
(C) Tri-calcium aluminate
(D) Di-calcium silicate
Answer: Option B

Question No. 365

Linseed oil is used in paints as
(A) Thinner
(B) Vehicle
(C) Base
(D) Drier
Answer: Option D

Question No. 366

Asphalt is obtained from
(A) Petroleum distillation
(B) Bitumen distillation
(C) Plastic distillation
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 367

Percentage content of silica in window glass, is
(A) 40 to 45
(B) 50 to 55
(C) 60 to 65
(D) 70 to 75
Answer: Option D
Question No. 368
Most commonly used solvent in oil paints, is
(A) Petroleum
(B) Spirit
(C) Coal tar
(D) Turpentine
Answer: Option A

Question No. 369

The harmonious mixing of the clay ingredients, is known as
(A) Weathering
(B) Blending
(C) Tempering
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 370

Bitumen felt
(A) Is used as water proofing material
(B) Is used as damp proofing material
(C) Is made from bitumen and hessian fibres
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 371

The initial setting time of lime-pozzolana, is
(A) 30 minutes
(B) 60 minutes
(C) 90 minutes
(D) 120 minutes
Answer: Option D

Question No. 372

The clay to be used for manufacturing bricks for a large project, is dugout and allowed to weather
throughout
(A) The monsoon
(B) The winter
(C) The summer
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 373

If the furnace is provided with insufficient fuel at low temperatures, the type of pig iron produced,
is called
(A) Bessemer pig
 (B) Grey or foundry pig
(C) White or forge pig
(D) Mottled pig
Answer: Option C

Question No. 374

Depending on the chemical composition and mechanical properties, iron may be classified as
(A) Cast iron
(B) Wrought iron
(C) Steel
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 375

The main constituent of fly-ash, is
(A) Aluminium oxide
(B) Silica
(C) Ferrous oxide
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 376

Brittleness of cold is due to an excess of
(A) Sulphur
(B) Carbon
(C) Phosphorus
(D) Silicon
Answer: Option C

Question No. 377

Asbestos cement
(A) Is brittle
(B) Warps due to changes in humidity
(C) Strength is lowered when saturated by water
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 378

Gneiss is obtained from
(A) Igneous rocks
(B) Metamorphic rocks
(C) Sedimentary rocks
(D) Sedimentary metamorphic rocks
Answer: Option D
Question No. 379
Fibre glass
(A) Retains heat-longer
(B) Has a higher strength to weight ratio
(C) Is shock proof and fire retardant
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 380

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The theory of formation of concrete is based on the phenomena of formation of voids
(B) The bulking of sand is taken into account while volumetric proportioning of the aggregates
(C) The dry sand and the sand completely flooded with water, have practically the same volume
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 381

The commonly used colour pigment in paints, is
(A) Ambers
(B) Carbon black
(C) Iron oxide
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 382

The variety of pig iron used for the manufacture of steel by Bessemer process, is
(A) Bessemer pig
(B) Grey pig
(C) White forge pig
(D) Mottled pig
Answer: Option A

Question No. 383

Vanadium steel is generally used for
(A) Railway switches and crossing
(B) Bearing balls
(C) Magnets
(D) Axles and springs
Answer: Option D

Question No. 384

A badly mixed cement concrete results in
(A) Segregation
(B) Bleeding
(C) Honey combing
 (D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 385

Chemically, marble is known as
(A) Metamorphic rock
(B) Argillaceous rock
(C) Calcareous rock
(D) Siliceous rock
Answer: Option C

Question No. 386

The filler used in plastic bitumen, is
(A) Shale powder
(B) Talc powder
(C) Asbestos powder
(D) Plastic powder
Answer: Option C

Question No. 387

Mastic asphalt is generally used for
(A) Damp proof course
(B) Water proof layer
(C) Partition walls
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 388

The most fire resistant paints are:
(A) Enamel paints
(B) Aluminium paints
(C) Asbestos paints
(D) Cement paints
Answer: Option C

Question No. 389

A pug mill is used for
(A) Softening brick earth
(B) Moulding brick earth
(C) Tempering brick earth
(D) Providing brick earth
Answer: Option C

Question No. 390

A good brick earth should contain:
 (A) About 20% to 30% of alumina
(B) About 50% to 60% of silica
(C) Not more than 5% of lime
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 391

The compound of Portland cement which contributes to the strength after two to three years is
(A) Tri-calcium silicate
(B) Di-calcium silicate
(C) Tri-calcium aluminate
(D) Tetra-calcium alumino ferrite
Answer: Option B

Question No. 392

Bessemer process is used for the manufacture of
(A) Pig iron
(B) Cast iron
(C) Wrought iron
(D) Steel
Answer: Option D

Question No. 393

Which one of the following is an air binding material?
(A) Gypsum
(B) Acid-resistant cement
(C) Quick lime
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 394

A good quality stone absorbs water less than
(A) 5 %
(B) 10 %
(C) 15 %
(D) 25 %
Answer: Option A

Question No. 395

The slag which floats on the surface of the molten iron generally contains
(A) Lime (CaO) 45%
(B) Silica (SiO2) 35%
(C) Alumina (Al2O3) 12% and MgO, CaSO4, KMnO2 and FeO 8%
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 396
For the manufacture of plywood, veneers are placed so that grains of adjacent veneers
(A) Run at right angles
(B) Parallel
(C) Inclined at 45°
(D) Inclined at 60°
Answer: Option A

Question No. 397

The commonly used drying oil for oil paints, is
(A) Olive oil
(B) Linseed oil
(C) Kerosene oil
(D) Acetate of lead
Answer: Option D

Question No. 398

Initial setting of cement is caused due to
(A) Tri-calcium silicate
(B) Di-calcium silicate
(C) Tri-calcium aluminate
(D) Tetra calcium alumino ferrite
Answer: Option C

Question No. 399

Wrought iron is manufactured from pig iron by
(A) Refining
(B) Pudding
(C) Shingling
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 400

Fibre boards can be
(A) Distempered
(B) Painted
(C) Painted and distempered
(D) Used for furniture
Answer: Option D

Question No. 401

Lime concrete is generally used for
(A) Wall foundations
(B) Flooring at ground level
(C) Both (A) and (B)
 (D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Answer: Option B

Question No. 402

Bituminous fells are used for
(A) Covering A.C. sheets
(B) Covering sloping roofs
(C) D.P.C.
(D) None to these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 403

Quick setting cement is produced by adding
(A) Less amount of gypsum in very fine powdered form
(B) More amount of gypsum in very fine powdered form
(C) Aluminium sulphate in very fine powdered form
(D) Pozzolana in very fine powdered form
Answer: Option C

Question No. 404

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The substance which consists of one primary chemical, is known as monomer
(B) The polymer consists of thousands of monomers joined together
(C) The polymer molecule is called macro-molecule
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 405

The normal curing period for lime mortar, is:
(A) 1 day
(B) 3 days
(C) 7 days
(D) 10 days
Answer: Option C

Question No. 406

German silver is an alloy of
(A) Zinc, lead and nickel
(B) Silver, gold and lead
(C) Copper, nickel and zinc
(D) Copper, brass and zinc
Answer: Option C

Question No. 407

For the manufacture of stainless steel, steel is mixed with
 (A) Chromium
(B) Nickel
(C) Tungsten
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 408

The presence of original rounded surface on the manufactured piece of timber, is called
(A) Wane
(B) Torn grain
(C) Diagonal grain
(D) Chipmark
Answer: Option A

Question No. 409

In paints, the pigment is responsible for
(A) Durability
(B) Colour
(C) Smoothness
(D) Glassy face
Answer: Option B

Question No. 410

The operation of removal of impurities or clay adhering to iron ores, is known as
(A) Dressing
(B) Calcination
(C) Roasting
(D) Smelting
Answer: Option A

Question No. 411

Dry rot
(A) Cracks the timber
(B) Reduces the strength of timber
(C) Reduces the timber to powder
(D) Spoils the appearance of timber
Answer: Option C

Question No. 412

Pozzolana (or surkhi) is used in lime
(A) To impart hydraulicity
(B) To prevent shrinkage
(C) To decrease the cost of construction
(D) To decrease the setting time
Answer: Option A
Question No. 413
The size of modular bricks, is
(A) 10 × 10 × 9 cm
(B) 19 × 9 × 9 cm
(C) 22.5 × 10 × 8.5 cm
(D) 22.5 × 8.0 × 9 cm
Answer: Option B

Question No. 414

Plywood is obtained by gluing wooden sheets at
(A) 100 to 150 N/cm2
(B) 100 to 130°C
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 415

The low voltage porcelain is mainly used for
(A) Switch block
(B) Insulating tubes
(C) Lamp sockets
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 416

The initial setting time of hydraulic lime, is
(A) 30 minutes
(B) 60 minutes
(C) 90 minutes
(D) 120 minutes
Answer: Option D

Question No. 417

PVC stands for
(A) Plastic very compact
(B) Polythene vinyl chloride
(C) Polythene vinyl carbon
(D) Polythene vanadium carbide
Answer: Option B

Question No. 418

Cement paints usually
(A) Contain hydrated lime
(B) Contain 5% to 10% colour pigments
(C) Contain 5% sodium chloride
 (D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 419

The kiln which may work throughout the year, is
(A) Clamp
(B) Bull's kiln
(C) Hoffman's kiln
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 420

The main ingredient of a good quality brick earth, is
(A) Magnesia
(B) Lime
(C) Silica
(D) Alumina
Answer: Option D

Question No. 421

In stone masonry, stones (stratified rocks) are so placed that the direction of pressure to the plane
of bedding is
(A) Right angles
(B) 45°
(C) 60°
(D) Parallel
Answer: Option A

Question No. 422

The most durable varnish is
(A) Water varnish
(B) Spirit varnish
(C) Turpentine varnish
(D) Oil varnish
Answer: Option D

Question No. 423

Softer variety of steel may be obtained by
(A) Cementation process
(B) Crucible process
(C) Bessemer process
(D) Open hearth process
Answer: Option C
Question No. 424
Bitumen emulsion is
(A) A liquid containing bitumen in suspension
(B) A paint
(C) Used as anti-corrosive paint
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 425

Plastic bitumen is generally used for
(A) Road pavements
(B) Expansion joints
(C) Crack fillings
(D) None to these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 426

Asbestos is
(A) Corrugated sheet used for roofing
(B) An incombustible fire proof material
(C) An organic substance
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 427

The rocks which are formed due to pouring of magma at the earth's surface are called
(A) Plutonic rocks
(B) Hypabyssal rocks
(C) Volcanic rocks
(D) Igneous rocks
Answer: Option C

Question No. 428

Invar contains
(A) 12% of nickel
(B) 24% of nickel
(C) 30% to nickel
(D) 36% of nickel
Answer: Option D

Question No. 429

Distemper is
(A) A paint consisting of powdered chalk, pigments and water
(B) A water proofing agent
(C) A paint consisting of coloured cement and water
 (D) A drying agent
Answer: Option A

Question No. 430

The compound of Portland cement which reacts immediately with water and also sets first is
(A) Tri-calcium silicate
(B) Di-calcium silicate
(C) Tri-calcium aluminate
(D) Tetra calcium alumino ferrite
Answer: Option C

Question No. 431

In arches, stratified stones are placed so that their planes are
(A) Parallel
(B) Perpendicular
(C) Radial
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 432

The fire clay contains pure
(A) Lime
(B) Oxide of iron
(C) Hydrated aluminium silicate
(D) Magnesium
Answer: Option C

Question No. 433

Pick up the correct characteristic of Pyroxene from the following:
(A) It forms octagonal crystals
(B) It converts to chlorine by hydration
(C) Its density is 2.3 to 3.6 g/cm2
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 434

The base material for distemper, is
(A) Chalk
(B) Lime
(C) Lime putty
(D) Cement wash
Answer: Option A

Question No. 435

Slacking of lime is affected by
 (A) Keeping it exposed to air
(B) Immersing the lime in water
(C) Crushing the lime lumps
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 436

Stones used for the construction of retaining walls must be
(A) Soft
(B) Hard
(C) Light
(D) Heavy
Answer: Option D

Question No. 437

Permanent magnets are made of high carbon steel and
(A) 15% of cobalt
(B) 20% of cobalt
(C) 35% of cobalt
(D) 45% of cobalt
Answer: Option D

Question No. 438

Stainless steel resists corrosion due to
(A) Carbon
(B) Sulphur
(C) Vanadium
(D) Chromium
Answer: Option D

Question No. 439

The most important constituent of varnish, is
(A) Drier
(B) Solvent
(C) Resin
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 440

A ferrous metal is
(A) Cast iron
(B) Wrought iron
(C) Steel
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 441
For making fly-ash building bricks, the following mix of fly-ash, sand and lime, is
(A) 80 : 13 : 7
(B) 70 : 20 : 10
(C) 60 : 35 : 5
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 442

Water paint is a
(A) White wash
(B) Colour wash
(C) Whiting
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 443

Spirit varnish generally consists of
(A) Oil, wax and resin
(B) Alcohol, wax and turpentine
(C) Pigment and synthetic resin
(D) Spirit and shellac
Answer: Option D

Question No. 444

Duco paints are
(A) Plastic paints
(B) Cellulose paints
(C) Emulsion paints
(D) Oil paints
Answer: Option D

Question No. 445

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Melamine is obtained from calcium carbide
(B) Formaldehyde is prepared synthetically from methane
(C) The melamine when reacted with formaldehyde forms the melamine-formaldehyde resin
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 446

Steel contains carbon approximately
(A) 1.50% to 5.6%
(B) 0.05% to 1.75%
(C) 0.25 %
 (D) None to these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 447

Based on its dry weight, a freshly felled tree may contain water
(A) 25 %
(B) 50 %
(C) 75 %
(D) 100 %
Answer: Option D

Question No. 448

Forge pig may be converted to wrought iron by
(A) Rolling
(B) Pudding
(C) Shingling
(D) Refining
Answer: Option B

Question No. 449

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Bull's trench kiln a trench excavated in ground
(B) Hoffman's kiln is constructed over ground
(C) Tunnel Kiln is constructed as a tunnel
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 450

The softest rock is
(A) Marble
(B) Diamond
(C) Talc
(D) Quartz
Answer: Option C

Question No. 451

Mild steel is used for
(A) Structural works in beams, joints and girders
(B) Small sized water pipes
(C) Columns and struts
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 452

The most valuable timber may be obtained from
 (A) Chir
(B) Shishum
(C) Sal
(D) Teak
Answer: Option D

Question No. 453

Mastic asphalt is
(A) Acid resisting material
(B) Non-corrosive material
(C) Corrosive material
(D) Heating-resisting material
Answer: Option B

Question No. 454

For lime concrete,
(A) Slump is 50 to 75 mm
(B) Flexural strength at 90 days is 0.2 N/mm2
(C) Compressive strength at 90 days is 1.5 N/mm2
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 455

The material generally not used as extender in paints, is
(A) Powdered silica
(B) Gypsum
(C) Talc
(D) Zinc white
Answer: Option D

Question No. 456

Pick up the non-inflammable plastic from the following:
(A) Cellulose acetate plastics
(B) Polyvinyl chloride plastics
(C) Phenol formaldehyde plastic
(D) Urea formaldehyde plastic
Answer: Option B

Question No. 457

For light and ornamental casting, the most unsuitable pig iron, is
(A) Bessemer pig
(B) Grey or foundry pig
(C) White or forge pig
(D) Mottled pig
Answer: Option D
Question No. 458
If the ore impurities is
(A) Clay, lime stone is used as flux
(B) Lime stone, clay is used as flux
(C) Quartz, lime stone and argillaceous iron ores are used as flux
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 459

The plastics prepared from Vinyl resin are
(A) Odourless
(B) Non-toxic
(C) Transparent
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 460

A rock contains only one mineral. It is called
(A) Homogeneous
(B) Non-homogeneous
(C) Monomineralic
(D) Polymineralic
Answer: Option C

Question No. 461

Pegmatite is a/an
(A) Intrusive igneous rock
(B) Extrusive igneous rock
(C) Sedimentary rock
(D) Metamorphic rock
Answer: Option A

Question No. 462

Dorry's testing machine is used for
(A) Crushing test of stone
(B) Hardness test of stone
(C) Impact test of stone
(D) Water absorption test
Answer: Option B

Question No. 463

Dolomite is a lime stone which contains carbonate of magnesia upto
(A) 15 %
(B) 20 %
(C) 25 %
 (D) 45 %
Answer: Option D

Question No. 464

The portion of the brick cut across its width and having its length equal to that of a full brick, is
known as
(A) Closer
(B) Queen closer
(C) King closer
(D) Prince closer
Answer: Option B

Question No. 465

The minimum percentage of silica, alumina and ferric oxide in lime for white washing, is
(A) 20
(B) 15
(C) 5
(D) 0
Answer: Option D

Question No. 466

For a 50 kg cement bag water required, is
(A) 16.5 litres
(B) 18.5 litres
(C) 20.5 litres
(D) 22.5 litres
Answer: Option D

Question No. 467

Slump test for concrete is carried out, to determine
(A) Strength
(B) Durability
(C) Workability
(D) Water content
Answer: Option C

Question No. 468

The frog of a brick is normally made on its
(A) Top face
(B) Bottom face
(C) Longer face
(D) Shorter side
Answer: Option A
Question No. 469
Granite mainly composed of quartz and feldspar particles, is obtained from
(A) Sedimentary rocks
(B) Metamorphic rocks
(C) Igneous rocks
(D) All the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 470

Pig iron obtained from the furnace which is properly provided with fuel at a very high
temperature, is called
(A) Bessemer pig
(B) Grey or foundry pig
(C) White or forge pig
(D) Mottled pig
Answer: Option B

Question No. 471

Pick up the metal refractory from the following:
(A) Molybdenum
(B) Tungsten
(C) Zirconium
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 472

With storage, strength of cement
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remains the same
(D) None to these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 473

The commonly used raw material in the manufacture of cement, is
(A) Slate
(B) Sand stone
(C) Lime stone
(D) Basalt
Answer: Option C

Question No. 474

The rocks formed from molten magma, are called
(A) Sedimentary rocks
(B) Igneous rocks
 (C) Metamorphic rocks
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 475

Bitumen paints offer
(A) Pleasing surface
(B) Hard surface
(C) Smooth surface
(D) Protective surface
Answer: Option D

Question No. 476

Ground glass
(A) Is made by grinding its one side
(B) Is made by melting powdered glass paints surface
(C) Is used for getting light without transparency
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 477

The wedging is adopted for quarrying costly stratified rock such as
(A) Laterite
(B) Marble
(C) Limestone
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 478

The colour of statuary marble used for sculptor's work, is
(A) Red
(B) Blue
(C) White
(D) Green
Answer: Option C
 Building Construction

Question No. 01
Cast iron piles
(A) Are suitable for works under sea water
(B) Resist shocks or vibrations
(C) Are suitable for use as batter piles
(D) Are useful for heavy vertical loads
Answer: Option D

Question No. 02
The form work from the slabs excluding props, can be removed only after
(A) 1 day
(B) 4 days
(C) 7 days
(D) 14 days
Answer: Option B

Question No. 03
The process of filling hollow spaces of walls before plastering, is known
(A) Hacking
(B) Dubbing out
(C) Blistering
(D) Peeling
Answer: Option B

Question No. 04
The type of arch generally constructed over a wooden lintel or over a flat arch for the purpose of
carrying the load of the wall above is
(A) Segmental arch
(B) Pointed arch
(C) Relieving arch
(D) Flat arch
Answer: Option C

Question No. 05
The platform at the end of a series of steps, is known as
(A) Platform
(B) Relief
(C) Rest
(D) Landing
Answer: Option D
Question No. 06
The pile which supports the load due to friction between pile face and surrounding soil, is
generally known as
(A) Bearing pile
(B) Friction pile
(C) Sheet pile
(D) Battered pile
Answer: Option B

Question No. 07
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) A mortar joint having a concave finishing in brick masonry, is called keyed joint
(B) A mortar joint projecting beyond the face of a masonry wall, is called tucked joint
(C) A mortar joint having a recess in it, is called ruled joint
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 08
The type of roof which slopes in two directions with a break in the slope on each side is known as
(A) Gable roof
(B) Hip roof
(C) Gambrel roof
(D) Mansard roof
Answer: Option C

Question No. 09
The inclined surface of an abutment to receive the arch, is known as
(A) Skew back
(B) Soffit
(C) Spandril
(D) Haunch
Answer: Option A

Question No. 10
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) D.P.C. should be continuous
(B) D.P.C. should be of good impervious material
(C) D.P.C. may be horizontal or vertical
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 11
A wall constructed with stones to protect slopes of cuttings in natural ground from the action of
weathering agents, is called
(A) Retaining wall
 (B) Breast wall
(C) Buttress
(D) Parapet wall
Answer: Option B

Question No. 12
Higher pitch of the roof
(i) Results in stronger roof
(ii) Results in weaker roof
(iii) Requires more covering material
(iv) Requires less covering material
The correct answer is
(A) (i) and (iii)
(B) (i) and (iv)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (ii) and (iv)
Answer: Option A

Question No. 13
For different layers of cement concrete floor. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) The lowest layer consists of consolidated ground
(B) A 10 cm thick clean sand is laid on consolidated ground
(C) A 10 cm lime concrete (1 : 4 : 8) is laid on clean sand
(D) A 10 cm thick cement concrete (1 : 2 : 4) is laid on top layer
Answer: Option D

Question No. 14
Open test pit is only suitable upto a depth of
(A) 2 metres
(B) 2.5 metres
(C) 3 metres
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 15
The service area in a building means the area occupied by
(A) Stairs
(B) Toilets
(C) Light and shafts
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 16
The number of steps in a flight generally should not be less than
(A) 2
 (B) 3
(C) 5
(D) No limit
Answer: Option B

Question No. 17
The columns of multi-storeyed buildings are designed to withstand the forces due to
(A) Dead loads
(B) Live loads
(C) Wind loads
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 18
In soils possessing low bearing capacity, the type of foundation generally provided, is
(A) Column footing
(B) Grillage footing
(C) Raft footing
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 19
The minimum strength of the mortar used in load bearing brick masonry, is
(A) 50 N/cm2
(B) 100 N/cm2
(C) 150 N/cm2
(D) 200 N/cm2
Answer: Option B

Question No. 20
As compared to stretcher course, the thickness of joints in header course should be
(A) Less
(B) More
(C) Equal
(D) Equal or more
Answer: Option A

Question No. 21
To obtain good bonding in brick masonry
(A) First class bricks are used
(B) Vertical joints in alternate courses are kept in plumb line
(C) Bats are used where necessary
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 22
The type of pointing in which upper side of mortar joints is kept about 12 mm inside the face of
the masonry and bottom is kept flushed with face of wall, is
(A) Truck pointing
(B) Recessed pointing
(C) Struck pointing
(D) Grooved pointing
Answer: Option C

Question No. 23
The wedge shaped bricks forming an arch ring, are called
(A) Soffits
(B) Voussoirs
(C) Haunches
(D) Spandrils
Answer: Option B

Question No. 24
The maximum total settlement for isolated foundations on clayey soils should be limited to
(A) 25 mm
(B) 40 mm
(C) 65 mm
(D) 100 mm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 25
The foundation which consists of a thick reinforced cement slab covering whole area to support
heavy concentrated structural loads, is known as
(A) Combined footing
(B) Strap footing
(C) Raft footing
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 26
For each storey of a building, the depth of exploration should be
(A) 1 metre
(B) 2 metres
(C) 3 metres
(D) 4 metres
Answer: Option C

Question No. 27
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Plain cement concrete is equally strong in compression as well as in tension
 (B) Slump test is performed to check concrete strength
(C) Curing of concrete is done for proper compaction of cement
(D) Fineness modulus is the index number expressing the relative sizes of both coarse and fine
aggregates
Answer: Option D

Question No. 28
The bearing capacity of a water logged soil can be improved by
(A) Compacting the soil
(B) Draining the soil
(C) Increasing the depth of foundation
(D) Grouting
Answer: Option B

Question No. 29
The position of a brick when laid on its side 9 cm × 9 cm with its frog in the vertical plane, is called
(A) Brick on edge
(B) Brick on end
(C) Brick on bed
(D) Brick held vertically
Answer: Option B

Question No. 30
A floor constructed with the 4 to 6 mm marble chips, is known
(A) Reinforced marble floor
(B) Terrazzo floor
(C) Marble floor
(D) Chip floor
Answer: Option B

Question No. 31
A stair should not have pitch more than
(A) 25°
(B) 30°
(C) 40°
(D) 50°
Answer: Option C

Question No. 32
Depth or height of the arch is the
(A) Perpendicular distance between intrados and extrados
(B) Vertical distance between springing line and intrados
(C) Perpendicular distance between springing line and extrados
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option A
Question No. 33
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The pile driven in sand is called sand pile
(B) The drilled hole filled with sand is called sand pile
(C) The sand piles are used for bearing purposes
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 34
A wall constructed to resist the pressure of an earth filling, is called
(A) Retaining wall
(B) Breast wall
(C) Buttress
(D) Parapet wall
Answer: Option A

Question No. 35
Two columns 50 cm × 50 cm and 60 cm × 60 cm carry 80 tonnes and 120 tonnes of loads
respectively. The centre to centre distance between columns is 5.00 metres. The permissible
bearing capacity of the soil is 20 t/m2. If the footing is not to project more than 25 cm beyond the
outside of the smaller column, pick up the correct design parameters of the footing from the
following:
(A) Distance of C.G. of the loads from the smaller column = 3.00 m
(B) The length of the foundation slab = 7.00 m
(C) Area of footing slab = 11.00 m2
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 36
Pitched and sloping roofs are suitable for
(A) Coastal regions
(B) Plain regions
(C) Covering large areas
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 37
A wooden block hinged on post outside a door, is known
(A) Cleat
(B) Stop
(C) Horn
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 38
If a is the offset of concrete bed in cms, and d is the depth of concrete bed in cms, then
(A) d = 0.445 a
(B) d = 0.557 a
(C) d = 0.775 a
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 39
In high mountainous region, the type of roof generally recommended for buildings, is
(A) Shed type
(B) Gable type
(C) Gambrel type
(D) Mansard type
Answer: Option C

Question No. 40
The function of cleats in a roof truss is
(A) To support the common rafter
(B) To support purlins
(C) To prevent the purlins from tilting
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 41
The Auger borings are not common
(A) In soils that require lateral support
(B) In cohesive soils
(C) In soft soils
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 42
The pile provided with one or more bulles in its vertical shaft, is generally known as
(A) Under-ream pile
(B) Friction pile
(C) Bearing pile
(D) Sheet pile
Answer: Option A

Question No. 43
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Isolated footing is provided under column to transfer the load safely to soil bed
(B) Column footings may have steps or projections in the concrete base
(C) Heavily loaded column base must be provided steel reinforcement in both directions
 (D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 44
In any good staircase, the maximum and minimum pitch respectively should be
(A) 90° and 0°
(B) 75° and 30°
(C) 60° and 10°
(D) 40° and 25°
Answer: Option D

Question No. 45
Raft foundation are generally preferred to when the area required for individual footing, is more
than
(A) 25% to total area
(B) 30% of total area
(C) 40% to total area
(D) 50% of total area
Answer: Option D

Question No. 46
According to National Building Code, the hydrants in water mains is provided at minimum interval
of
(A) 50 m
(B) 60 m
(C) 75 m
(D) 90 m
Answer: Option C

Question No. 47
The X-ray rooms are plastered with
(A) Plaster of Paris
(B) Barium plaster
(C) Martin's cement
(D) Keen's cement
Answer: Option B

Question No. 48
The type of footing which is used to transmit heavy loads through steel columns is
(A) Raft foundation
(B) Grillage foundation
(C) Well foundation
(D) Isolated footing
Answer: Option B
Question No. 49
Dutch bond is a modification of
(A) English bond
(B) Stretcher bond
(C) Header bond
(D) Single Flemish bond
Answer: Option A

Question No. 50
In clay soil
(A) Swelling and shrinkage characteristics prevail
(B) Consolidation continues even after several years of construction
(C) Differential settlement is generally prevalent
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 51
Which one of the following activities is not correct as applicable to brick corbels?
(A) The maximum projection of the corbel should not be more than the thickness of the wall
(B) The maximum projection of each corbel course should be limited to a quarter brick at a time
(C) The discontinuous corbels are used to carry heavy concentrated loads
(D) Stretcher bond is generally used for the construction of brick corbel
Answer: Option D

Question No. 52
In ordinary residential and public buildings, the damp proof course is generally provided at
(A) Ground level
(B) Plinth level
(C) Water table level
(D) Midway ground level and water-table level
Answer: Option B

Question No. 53
In which of the following pairs both trees yield soft wood?
(A) Deodar and Shishum
(B) Chir and sal
(C) Sal and teak
(D) Chir and deodar
Answer: Option D

Question No. 54
The raft slab is projected beyond the outer walls of the structure by
(A) 5 to 10 cm
(B) 15 to 20 cm
(C) 25 to 30 cm
 (D) 30 to 45 cm
Answer: Option D

Question No. 55
In grillage foundations, distance between flanges of grillage beams, is kept
(A) 40 cm
(B) Equal to flange width
(C) Twice the flange width
(D) Maximum of (a), (b) and (c)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 56
The sill of a common wooden partition is
(A) Vertical wooden member on either end
(B) Lower horizontal wooden member
(C) Upper horizontal wooden member
(D) Intermediate horizontal wooden member
Answer: Option B

Question No. 57
The important test to be conducted on a stone used in docks and harbours is
(A) Hardness test
(B) Workability test
(C) Weight test
(D) Toughness test
Answer: Option C

Question No. 58
The member which is placed horizontally to support common rafter of a sloping roof, is
(A) Purlin
(B) Cleat
(C) Batten
(D) Strut
Answer: Option A

Question No. 59
A covering of concrete placed on the exposed top of an external wall, is known as
(A) Cornice
(B) Coping
(C) Frieze
(D) Lintel
Answer: Option B
Question No. 60
The bond in which headers and stretchers are laid in alternate courses and every stretcher course
is started with a three fourth brick bat, is known as
(A) English cross bond
(B) Dutch bond
(C) Monk bond
(D) Rat-trap bond
Answer: Option B

Question No. 61
The vertical distance between the springing line and highest point of the inner curve of an arch is
known as
(A) Intrados
(B) Rise
(C) Spandril
(D) Extrados
Answer: Option B

Question No. 62
The entrained concrete is used in lining walls and roofs for making
(A) Heat insulated
(B) Sound insulated
(C) Neither (a) nor (b)
(D) Both (a) and (b)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 63
The depth of concrete bed of the foundation depends upon
(A) The projection of the concrete block beyond the footing over it
(B) The upward soil pressure
(C) The mix of the concrete
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 64
A pre-stressed concrete pile is
(A) Easy to handle
(B) Lighter in weight
(C) Extremely durable
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 65
The type of joint commonly used at the junction of a principal rafter and tie beam in timber
trusses is
 (A) Mortise and tenon joint
(B) Oblique mortise and tenon joint
(C) Butt joint
(D) Mitred joint
Answer: Option B

Question No. 66
During percussion drilling
(A) Ground water observations are hindered due to entry of the slurry in the soil below the
bottom of the hole
(B) Caving or mixing of strata are caused in soft soils or cohesionless soils
(C) The soil to a considerable depth below the bottom of the hole gets disturbed
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 67
The type of stone masonry in which stones of same height are laid in layers, is called
(A) Random rubble masonry
(B) Course rubble masonry
(C) Uncoursed rubble masonry
(D) Ashlar masonry
Answer: Option B

Question No. 68
A wooden block fixed on back side of a door frame on its post, is known as
(A) Cleat
(B) Stop
(C) Horn
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 69
In a colar beam roof
(A) There is no horizontal tie beam
(B) There is a horizontal tie at the feet of rafters only
(C) There is a horizontal tie at almost the middle of rafters only
(D) There are two horizontal ties, one at the feet and other at the middle of the rafters
Answer: Option C

Question No. 70
The piece of a brick cut with its one corner equivalent to half the length and half the width of a full
brick, is known as
(A) Queen closer
(B) Bevelled closer
(C) King closer
 (D) Half king closer
Answer: Option C

Question No. 71
For effective drainage, the finished surface of flat roof should have a minimum slope of
(A) 1 in 20
(B) 1 to 50
(C) 1 in 10
(D) 1 in 5
Answer: Option A

Question No. 72
Vertical construction joints are provided where the shearing forces are minimum in the case of
(A) Slabs
(B) Beams
(C) Girders
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 73
Single Flemish bond consists of
(A) Double Flemish bond facing and English bond backing in each course
(B) English bond facing and double Flemish bond backing in each course
(C) Stretcher bond facing and double Flemish bond backing in each course
(D) Double Flemish bond facing and header bond backing in each course
Answer: Option A

Question No. 74
The foundations are placed below ground level, to increase
(A) Strength
(B) Workability
(C) Stability of structure
(D) All the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 75
The type of bond in a brick masonry containing alternate courses of stretchers and headers, is
called
(A) Flemish bond
(B) English bond
(C) Stretcher bond
(D) Header bond
Answer: Option B
Question No. 76
The width of the hollow space between two walls of a cavity wall should not exceed
(A) 5 cm
(B) 7.5 cm
(C) 10 cm
(D) 15 cm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 77
The predominant constituent which is responsible for strength in granite is
(A) Quartz
(B) Felspar
(C) Mica
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 78
To ensure that supporting area of an offset footing of a boundary wall is fully compressive, the
C.G. of load must act
(A) At the centre of the base
(B) Within the middle third of the base
(C) Within the middle fifth of the base
(D) Neither (a), (b) nor (c)
Answer: Option B

Question No. 79
The size of a floor tile commonly used, is
(A) 15 cm × 15 cm × 1.8 cm
(B) 20 cm × 20 cm × 2 cm
(C) 22.5 × 22.5 cm × 2.2 cm
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 80
The art of bringing the floor to a true level surface by means of screeds, is called
(A) Topping
(B) Bedding
(C) Screeding
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 81
The type of roof suitable in plains where rainfall is meagre and temperature is high is
(A) Pitched and sloping roof
(B) Flat roof
 (C) Shell roof
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 82
For constructing a terrazzo floor, Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) A base course is prepared as in cement concrete flooring
(B) A 32 mm thick layer of cement concrete (1 : 2 : 4) is laid on the base course and the surface
is made smooth by trowelling
(C) Glass strips are driven into the layer according to the pattern required
(D) After final grinding is over, oxalic acid mixed with water is spread over and rubbed hard with
soft material
Answer: Option B

Question No. 83
The arrangement made to support an unsafe structure temporarily, is known as
(A) Shoring
(B) Scaffolding
(C) Underpinning
(D) Jacking
Answer: Option A

Question No. 84
The type of pointing in which a V-shaped projection outside the wall surface, is provided, is called
(A) Recessed pointing
(B) Weather pointing
(C) V-pointing
(D) Tuck pointing
Answer: Option B

Question No. 85
Assertion A : Shishum is used for decorative woodwork.
Reason R : Shishum can be polished to an excellent finish.
Select your answer according to the coding system given below:
(A) Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R is true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
Answer: Option A

Question No. 86
Rotary drilling
(A) Is not suitable for deposits containing very coarse gravel
(B) Hinders the ground water observations and permeability test
(C) Is not economical for holes of less than 10 cm
 (D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 87
Safe bearing capacity of black cotton soil varies from
(A) 2 to 3 t/m2
(B) 5 to 7.5 t/m2
(C) 8 to 10 t/m2
(D) 10 to 12 t/m2
Answer: Option B

Question No. 88
The window which projects outside a room of a building for admitting more light and air, is known
(A) Bay window
(B) Casement window
(C) Lantern window
(D) Dormer window
Answer: Option A

Question No. 89
In the construction of arches, sand box method is used for
(A) Centring
(B) Actual laying of arch work
(C) Striking of centring
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 90
In English garden wall bond
(A) One course of headers to three or five course of stretchers
(B) Queen closer in provided in each heading course
(C) The middle course of stretchers is started with a header to give proper vertical joints
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 91
The concrete slump recommended for foundations, is
(A) 25 to 50 mm
(B) 30 to 125 mm
(C) 50 to 100 mm
(D) 75 to 125 mm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 92
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
 (A) In a king post truss, principal rafter and tie beams are jointed together with a bridle joint
(B) Joint between the principal rafter and the king post is made by making tenon and mortise
respectively
(C) Joint between strut and king post, is generally of mortise and tenon type
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 93
Sum of tread and rise must lie between
(A) 300 to 350 mm
(B) 400 to 450 mm
(C) 500 to 550 mm
(D) 600 to 650 mm
Answer: Option B

Question No. 94
In case of foundations on sandy soil, maximum permissible differential settlement, is usually
limited to
(A) 15 mm
(B) 25 mm
(C) 35 mm
(D) 45 mm
Answer: Option B

Question No. 95
In soft clay of low bearing capacity, the type of steel pile generally used, is
(A) H-pile
(B) Screw pile
(C) Disc pile
(D) Pipe pile
Answer: Option B

Question No. 96
Gravels
(A) Are cohesionless aggregates
(B) Vary in size between 2 to 20 mm
(C) Never swell when they come into contact with water
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 97
The differential settlement in case of foundations on sandy soils should not exceed
(A) 25 mm
(B) 40 mm
(C) 65 mm
 (D) 100 mm
Answer: Option A

Question No. 98
An arch constructed with finely dressed stones, is known
(A) Ashlar arch
(B) Rubble arch
(C) Gauged arch
(D) Axed arch
Answer: Option A

Question No. 99
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Lime mortar with cement in the ratio of in 10 is cheaper and better for outside plaster
(B) For very cold or very hot climate, a compact and closed plan should be provided
(C) On the sea coast, an exposed and open house is generally preferred
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 100

Weep holes are provided in retaining and breast walls
(A) To drain off the water from the filling
(B) To ventilate the stone masonry
(C) To add architectural beauty
(D) To increase compaction of the earth retained
Answer: Option A

Question No. 101

The radial splits which are wider on the outside of the log and narrower towards the pith are
known as
(A) Heart shakes
(B) Cupshakes
(C) Starshakes
(D) Rindgalls
Answer: Option C

Question No. 102

The angular steps used for changing direction of the stairs, are called
(A) Round steps
(B) Angular steps
(C) Winders
(D) Radial steps
Answer: Option C
Question No. 103
The concrete slump recommended for columns, is
(A) 25 to 50 mm
(B) 25 to 75 mm
(C) 75 to 125 mm
(D) 50 to 100 mm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 104

The minimum width of a stair in residential buildings, is
(A) 55 cm
(B) 70 cm
(C) 85 cm
(D) 100 cm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 105

The function of king post in a king post roof truss is
(A) To support the frame work of the roof
(B) To receive the ends of principal rafter
(C) To prevent the walls from spreading outward
(D) To prevent the tie beam from sagging at its centre
Answer: Option D

Question No. 106

The dimensions of a half queen closer, are
(A) 9 cm × 9 cm × 9 cm
(B) 9 cm × 9 cm × 4.5 cm
(C) 9 cm × 4.5 cm × 9 cm
(D) 1.8 cm × 4.5 cm × 9 cm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 107

For plastering the exposed brick walls, the cement sand mortar should be
(A) 1 : 2
(B) 1 : 3
(C) 1 : 4
(D) 1 : 6
Answer: Option C

Question No. 108

The stone blocks approximately triangular in shape, used as steps, are known
(A) Stone steps
(B) Built up steps
(C) Spandril steps
 (D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 109

As compared to English bond, double Flemish bond is
(A) Stronger
(B) More compact
(C) Costly
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 110

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The cost of square rooms is less
(B) The expenditure on the foundation and roof for the double storeyed building is nearly half of
that for the ground storeyed building
(C) The cost of construction of a house may be minimised by restricting the height floors
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 111

In the method of tube boring of soil investigation, the following is essential:
(A) A tube of about 2 metres length and 20 cm diameter with a cutting edge
(B) A flap valve at the bottom of tube is provided to extract the soil sample
(C) The tube is raised and lowered by 4 thick rope moving over a pulley suspended on a tripod
stand
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 112

Slate
(A) Is a metamorphic rock
(B) Splits into thin sheets along its bedding planes
(C) Has a smooth surface and contains alumina and silica
(D) Possesses good water absorption capacity
Answer: Option A

Question No. 113

The minimum depth of foundation in clayey soils is
(A) 0.5 m
(B) 0.7 m
(C) 0.9 m
(D) 1.2 m
Answer: Option C
Question No. 114
In case of Raymond pile
(A) Lengths vary from 6 m to 12 m
(B) Diameter of top of piles varies from 40 cm to 60 cm
(C) Diameter of pile at bottom varies from 20 cm to 28 cm
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 115

Herringbone bond is used for
(A) Walls having thickness more than 4 bricks
(B) Architectural finish to the face work
(C) Ornamental panels in brick flooring
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 116

Suitable spacing of timber piles, is
(A) 50 cm
(B) 60 cm
(C) 80 cm
(D) 90 cm
Answer: Option D

Question No. 117

The disease of dry rot in timber is caused by
(A) Lack of ventilation
(B) Alternate wet and dry conditions
(C) Complete submergence in water
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 118

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Louvered door is generally provided in bath rooms
(B) Flush door is generally provided in dining room
(C) Revolving door is generally provided in cinema halls
(D) Sliding door is generally provided in show rooms
Answer: Option C

Question No. 119

The minimum distance between the centres of bulb of diameter du, of a multi under reamed piles,
is
(A) du
(B) 1.25 du
 (C) 1.5 du
(D) 1.75 du
Answer: Option C

Question No. 120

The stone masonry of finely dressed stones laid in cement or lime, is
(A) Random rubble masonry
(B) Coursed rubble masonry
(C) Dry rubble masonry
(D) Ashlar masonry
Answer: Option D

Question No. 121

The vertical posts placed at the top and bottom ends of a flight supporting the hand rail are known
as
(A) Balusters
(B) Newel posts
(C) Balustrades
(D) Railings
Answer: Option B

Question No. 122

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) The function of foundation is to distribute the load of super structure over a large bearing
area
(B) No timbering is required for shallow trenches
(C) Shallow foundations can be constructed on made-up soil
(D) Black cotton soil is very good for foundation bed
Answer: Option D

Question No. 123

For the construction of flyovers in sandy soils, the type of foundation provided, is
(A) Strap footing
(B) Raft footing
(C) Combined footing
(D) Pier footing
Answer: Option D

Question No. 124

For a rectangular foundation of width b, eccentricity of load should not exceed
(A) b/2
(B) b/3
(C) b/4
(D) b/6
Answer: Option D
Question No. 125
The type of pile which is driven at an inclination to resist inclined forces is known as
(A) Friction pile
(B) Sheet pile
(C) Batter pile
(D) Anchor pile
Answer: Option C

Question No. 126

The maximum bearing capacity of soil is that of
(A) Black cotton soil
(B) Loose fine sandy soil
(C) Dry coarse sandy soil
(D) Hard rocks
Answer: Option D

Question No. 127

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Cavity of a cavity wall should start near ground level
(B) Cavity of a cavity wall should terminate near eaves level of sloping roof
(C) Cavity of a cavity wall should terminate near coping of flat roof with parapet wall
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 128

The thickness of a reinforced brick partition wall, is generally kept
(A) 5 cm
(B) 10 cm
(C) 15 cm
(D) 20 cm
Answer: Option B

Question No. 129

The term string is used for
(A) The underside of a stair
(B) Outer projecting edge of a tread
(C) A sloping member which supports the steps in a stair
(D) A vertical member between two treads
Answer: Option C

Question No. 130

The 19 cm × 9 cm side of a brick as seen in the wall face, is generally known as
(A) Stretcher
(B) Face
(C) Front
 (D) Header
Answer: Option A

Question No. 131

The steel pile which is generally sunk in soft clay or loose sand of low bearing capacity, is
(A) H-pile
(B) Pipe pile
(C) Screw pile
(D) Disc pile
Answer: Option C

Question No. 132

Pick up the correct statement about silt soil from the following:
(A) The silt soil has particle size from 0.02 mm to 0.06 mm
(B) In organic fine grained silt soil possesses no plasticity
(C) The least plastic type normally consists of more or less equidimensional grains of quartz
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 133

The type of flooring suitable for use in churches, theatres, public libraries and other places where
noiseless floor covering is desired is
(A) Cork flooring
(B) Glass flooring
(C) Wooden flooring
(D) Linoleum flooring
Answer: Option A

Question No. 134

The angle between skew back of a flat arch and the horizontal, is kept approximately equal to
(A) 0°
(B) 30°
(C) 60°
(D) 90°
Answer: Option C

Question No. 135

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The sand in the sand pile is well compacted
(B) The sand is kept moist at the time of placing and tamping
(C) Sand piles are generally used under column loads
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 136
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) A combined footing is so proportioned that centre of gravity of supporting area coincides
with centre of gravity of two column loads
(B) A combined footing may be either rectangular or trapezoidal in shape
(C) Trapezoidal shaped footings may be provided under any loading
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 137

Minimum width of landing should be
(A) Equal to width of stairs
(B) Half the width of stairs
(C) Twice the width of stairs
(D) One fourth the width of stairs
Answer: Option A

Question No. 138

For a wall carrying heavy load on low bearing capacity soil,
(A) Lean concrete bed is provided
(B) Thick concrete bed is provided
(C) Reinforced concrete bed is provided
(D) Both (a) and (c) of the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 139

While investigating the site, a thick layer of fairly firm clay over a deep layer of soft clay is
encountered. In such a situation, the following type of foundation is useful:
(A) Pile formation
(B) Raft foundation
(C) Grillage foundation
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 140

The type of arch used for high class buildings where appearance is of prime importance, is known
as
(A) Ashlar arch
(B) Rubble arch
(C) Gauged brick arch
(D) Axed brick arch
Answer: Option A

Question No. 141

Mansard roof is a roof which slopes in
 (A) Two directions without break in the slope on each side
(B) Two directions with break in the slope on each side
(C) Four directions without break in the slope on each side
(D) Four directions with break in the slope on each side
Answer: Option D

Question No. 142

If is the angle of repose of soil of weight w kg/m3, the horizontal pressure p at a depth
of h metres per metre length of wall, is
(A) wh × [(1 - sin )/(1 + )]
(B) (wh/2) × [(1 - sin )/(1 + )]
(C) wh - sin )/(1 + )]
(D) wh )/(1 - )]
Answer: Option A

Question No. 143

Pick up the correct specification of one-room quarters generally adopted from the following:
(A) Six quarters in a row
(B) The size of room is either 3.5 m × 3 m or 4.2 m × 2.5 m
(C) The front verandah is kept 2 m wide
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 144

The piece of a brick cut along the centre of width in such a way that its length is equal to that of
full brick, is called
(A) Half brick
(B) Queen closer
(C) King closer
(D) Bevelled closer
Answer: Option B

Question No. 145

Number of vertical joints in a stretcher course is x times the number of joints in the header course,
where x is equal to
(A) 1/2
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 1/4
Answer: Option A

Question No. 146

The process of keeping concrete moist for a certain period after its finishing, is known as
(A) Finishing of concrete
(B) Curing of concrete
 (C) Placing of concrete
(D) Compaction of concrete
Answer: Option B

Question No. 147

The inner section of a cavity wall, is generally known as
(A) Buttress
(B) Leaf wall
(C) Pilaster
(D) Pillar
Answer: Option B

Question No. 148

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Sand consists of coarse particles of silica formed due to the disintegration of rocks
(B) The grains of sand are not affected by frost
(C) Sand beds are permeable and do not allow water to rise up between pores due to capillary
action
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 149

The lintels are preferred to arches because
(A) Arches require more headroom to span the openings like doors, windows etc.
(B) Arches require strong abutments to withstand arch thrust
(C) Arches are difficult in construction
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 150

Cavity wall is generally provided for
(A) Heat insulation
(B) Sound insulation
(C) Prevention of dampness
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 151

The construction joints in buildings are provided after
(A) 10 m
(B) 15 m
(C) 20 m
(D) 40 m
Answer: Option D
Question No. 152
A pointed arch which forms isosceles or equilateral triangle, is generally known as
(A) Three centred arch
(B) Two centred arch
(C) Lancet arch
(D) Bull's eye arch
Answer: Option C

Question No. 153

In case of foundations on black cotton soils, the most suitable method to increase the bearing
capacity of soils is to
(A) Increase the depth of foundation
(B) Drain the soil
(C) Compact the soil
(D) Replace the poor soil
Answer: Option D

Question No. 154

Depth of lean concrete bed placed at the bottom of a wall footing, is kept
(A) 10 cm
(B) 15 cm
(C) Equal to its projection beyond wall base
(D) Less than its projection beyond wall base
Answer: Option C

Question No. 155

The sound which continues even after its source is cut off, is called
(A) Reverberation
(B) Echo
(C) Intensity of sound
(D) Interference
Answer: Option A

Question No. 156

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The bearing capacity of a pile is defined as the load which can be sustained by the pile
without producing excessive settlement
(B) The safe bearing capacity of a pile is obtained by dividing the ultimate bearing capacity with
a suitable factor of safety
(C) The factor of safety for piles is taken as 6
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 157

The maximum total settlement for raft foundation on clayey soils should be limited to
 (A) 25 mm
(B) 25 to 40 mm
(C) 40 to 65 mm
(D) 65 to 100 mm
Answer: Option D

Question No. 158

Which one of the following rocks is used for monumental buildings?
(A) Granite
(B) Marble
(C) Sand stone
(D) Slate
Answer: Option B

Question No. 159

Pick up the consideration to the taken while designing a hospital from the following:
(A) The operation theatre unit to be detached as it requires sterilized zone but near the ward for
the patients and doctor
(B) The mortuary should be detached from the main circulation with a post-mortem room
(C) Casualty unit should be provided a separate entrance
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 160

The members which support covering material of a sloping roof, are
(A) Rafters
(B) Purlins
(C) Battens
(D) Struts
Answer: Option A

Question No. 161

The triangular space formed between the extrados and the horizontal line drawn through the
crown of an arch is known as
(A) Haunch
(B) Spandril
(C) Voussoirs
(D) Skewbacks
Answer: Option B

Question No. 162

For providing a raft foundation, the following activities are involved
1. Ramming the foundation bed
2. Excavation of the soil upto required depth
3. Laying the reinforcement over the foundation bed
4. Curing the cement concrete placed over reinforcement
5. Pouring the cement concrete over the reinforcement
The correct sequence is
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
(B) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
(C) 2, 1, 3, 5, 4
(D) 3, 2, 5, 1, 4
Answer: Option C

Question No. 163

The stone whose crushing strength is maximum, is
(A) Granite
(B) Chalk
(C) Slate
(D) Sand stone
Answer: Option A

Question No. 164

Brick nogging type of partition wall, is constructed by
(A) Laying bricks as stretchers in cement mortar
(B) Laying bricks as headers in cement mortar
(C) Reinforcing brick wall with iron straps
(D) Constructing brick work within a wooden framework
Answer: Option D

Question No. 165

Couple close roof is suitable for maximum span of
(A) 2.5 m
(B) 3.5 m
(C) 4.5 m
(D) 5.5 m
Answer: Option C

Question No. 166

A solid core of rock is formed inside the cylinder in the case of
(A) Auger boring
(B) Percussion drilling
(C) Diamond drilling
(D) Wash boring
Answer: Option C

Question No. 167

The floor is rubbed with oxalic acid, for making its surface
(A) Free from voids
(B) Glossy
 (C) Durable
(D) Uniform
Answer: Option B

Question No. 168

The line of intersection of two surfaces of a sloping roof forming an internal angle less than 180°, is
known as
(A) Ridge
(B) Hip
(C) Valley
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 169

In which of the following directions, the strength of timber is maximum?
(A) Parallel to grains
(B) 45° to grains
(C) Perpendicular to grains
(D) Same in all directions
Answer: Option A

Question No. 170

Arches in the form of masonry arcs struck from more than four centres, are called
(A) Two curved arches
(B) Gothic arches
(C) Ogee arches
(D) Drop gothic arches
Answer: Option C

Question No. 171

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) Horizontal D.P.C. is provided at plinth level in internal walls
(B) D.P.C. is provided under door and verandah openings
(C) Vertical D.P.C. is not provided in internal walls
(D) Cement concrete is a rigid damp-proofing material
Answer: Option B

Question No. 172

The vertical faces of a door opening which support frame of the door, are
(A) Jambs
(B) Posts
(C) Reveals
(D) Styles
Answer: Option A
Question No. 173
The lower edge of the pitched roof, from where the rain water of the roof surface drops down, is
known as
(A) Hip
(B) Gable
(C) Ridge
(D) Eaves
Answer: Option D

Question No. 174

The arrangement of supporting an existing structure by providing supports underneath, is known
as
(A) Shoring
(B) Underpinning
(C) Jacking
(D) Piling
Answer: Option B

Question No. 175

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The first coat of stucco plaster is called scratch coat
(B) The second coat of stucco plaster is called brown coat
(C) The third coat of stucco plaster is called white coat
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 176

A concrete structure is set on fire and the temperature raises to 1000°C. The strength of concrete
as compared to original strength reduces to
(A) 10 %
(B) 15 %
(C) 20 %
(D) 25 %
Answer: Option C

Question No. 177

The horizontal timber piece provided at the apex of a roof truss which supports the common rafter
is called
(A) Ridge board
(B) Hip rafter
(C) Eaves board
(D) Valley rafter
Answer: Option A

Question No. 178

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) In dog-legged stairs, no space between its flights is provided
(B) In open newel stair, a rectangular well is provided
(C) In geometric stair, a curved shaped well between forward and backward flights, is provided
(D) In geometrical stair, two quarter space landing is provided
Answer: Option D

Question No. 179

The maximum number of steps in a flight should generally be restricted to
(A) 10
(B) 12
(C) 15
(D) No limit
Answer: Option B

Question No. 180

In flat roof of reinforced cement concrete, the recommended angle of slope, is
(A) Zero
(B) A few degrees
(C) 10°
(D) 200°
Answer: Option B

Question No. 181

The process of working a flat for the finishing coat, is known
(A) Dubbing out
(B) Floating
(C) Knitting
(D) Blistering
Answer: Option B

Question No. 182

The highest line of sloping roof, where two opposite slopes meet, is known as
(A) Rafter
(B) Ridge
(C) Crown
(D) Eave
Answer: Option B

Question No. 183

The depth of the ground water table may be ascertained by
(A) Looking through the well in the vicinity
(B) Standing on the well in the vicinity
(C) Measuring the depth of water in the well
(D) None of the above
 Answer: Option C

Question No. 184

Which of the following metal sheets is most effective in preventing dampness?
(A) Copper sheets
(B) Lead sheets
(C) Aluminium sheets
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 185

Under reamed piles are generally used for
(A) Machine foundations
(B) Factory building
(C) Tall structures
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 186

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) The width of the wall is constructed thicker at the base in a stepped fashion
(B) A long vertical load transferring concrete structure is called a concrete pile
(C) In pile which transfers the load to the soil by the friction between the pile and the
surrounding soil is called friction pile
(D) The pile which transfers the load to a hard rock bed at certain depth is called load bearing
Answer: Option D

Question No. 187

Engineering news formula for obtaining safe bearing capacity of pile for drop hammer, is,
(A) Q = Wh/6 (S + 2.5)
(B) Q = Wh/2.5 (S + 6)
(C) Q = (W × 6)/h (S + 2.5)
(D) Q = (W × 2.5)/6 (S + h)
Answer: Option A

Question No. 188

The rock formed from the solidification of molten matter (magma) is called:
(A) Sedimentary rock
(B) Metamorphic rock
(C) Igneous rock
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 189

The maximum permissible deflection of a timber beam supporting a roof, is
 (A) L/100
(B) L/150
(C) L/260
(D) L/360
Answer: Option D

Question No. 190

Negative skin friction
(A) Is a downward drag acting on a pile due to downward movement of the surrounding
compressible soil relative to the pile
(B) Develops due to lowering of ground water
(C) Both (a) and (b)
(D) Neither (a) not (b)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 191

The ceiling height of a building is
(A) Between ceiling and ground level
(B) Between ceiling and floor level
(C) Upto roof above ground level
(D) Upto ceiling from the ground level
Answer: Option B

Question No. 192

The skirting/dado in a bath roof should be upto
(A) Ceiling
(B) 15 cm above floor level
(C) 200 cm
(D) Level of the tap
Answer: Option C

Question No. 193

The bearing capacity of piles is determined by
(A) Dynamic formula
(B) Static formula
(C) Pile load tests
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 194

The vertical sides of a door and window openings provided in a wall, are known as
(A) Verticals
(B) Reveals
(C) Jambs
(D) None of these
 Answer: Option C

Question No. 195

The type of ashlar masonry in which stones are finely chisel dressed and thickness of joints does
not exceed 3 mm, is
(A) Chamfered ashlar masonry
(B) Ashlar facing masonry
(C) Random coursed ashlar masonry
(D) Coursed ashlar masonry
Answer: Option D

Question No. 196

The form Work including the props can be removed from beams, only after
(A) 3 day
(B) 7 days
(C) 14 days
(D) 21 days
Answer: Option C

Question No. 197

The mortar in which both cement and lime are used as binding materials, is called
(A) Cement mortar
(B) Lime mortar
(C) Fire resistant mortar
(D) Gauged mortar
Answer: Option D

Question No. 198

According to Rankine's formula, minimum depth of foundations, is
(A) (P/w) × [(1 + sin )/(1 - )]²
(B) (P/w) × [(1 - sin )/(1 + )]²
(C) (P/2w) × [(1 - sin )/(1 + )]²
(D) (P/w) × [(1 + sin )/(1 - )]
Answer: Option B

Question No. 199

To stagger vertical joints in successive courses of a wall, a piece of brick is generally used at the
end of the course, which is known as
(A) Bat
(B) Header
(C) Stretcher
(D) Closer
Answer: Option D
Question No. 200
The bearing capacity of granite is generally
(A) 5 to 10 kg/cm2
(B) 15 to 20 kg/cm2
(C) 30 to 35 kg/cm2
(D) 40 to 45 kg/cm2
Answer: Option C

Question No. 201

In grillage foundations a minimum 15 cm cover is provided on
(A) Upper flange of top tier
(B) Lower beam of lower tier
(C) Ends of external beams
(D) None to these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 202

Stability of an existing structure may be disturbed by
(A) Rising of water table
(B) Vibrations caused by traffic movements
(C) Mining in the neighbourhood
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 203

The Auger boring method is not suitable for
(A) Very hard soil
(B) Cemented soil
(C) Vary soft soil
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 204

Dampness causes
(A) Efflorescence
(B) Bleaching of paints
(C) Crumbling of plaster
(D) Growth of termites
Answer: Option D

Question No. 205

The pile which supports the load partly by friction and partly by resting on hard stratum, is called
(A) Friction pile
(B) Bearing pile
(C) Friction bearing pile
 (D) Rough pile
Answer: Option C

Question No. 206

An ordinary concrete may be made water proof by adding
(A) Pudlo
(B) Impermo
(C) Snowcem
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 207

The opening provided in sloping roof with its top parallel to the roof surface, is called
(A) Dormer window
(B) Sky light window
(C) Lantern window
(D) Louvered window
Answer: Option B

Question No. 208

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The roof slabs of multi-storeyed buildings are constructed monolithically to carry the various
floor loads
(B) The beams of multi-storeyed buildings rest on girders and are the main load transferring
members to the columns
(C) The slab is spanned across the secondary beams provided between the main beams
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 209

The window which is provided in flat roof of a room, is known
(A) Dormer window
(B) Lantern window
(C) Louvered window
(D) Sky window
Answer: Option B

Question No. 210

Grillage foundation
(A) Is used to transfer heavy structural loads from steel columns to a soil having low bearing
capacity
(B) Is light and economical
(C) Does not require deep cutting as the required base area with required pressure intensity is
obtained at a shallow depth
(D) All the above
 Answer: Option D

Question No. 211

Pick up the correct statements from the following:
(A) Cracks appear on the plastered surface in the form of hair cracks
(B) In brick work, the efflorescence is removed by applying a solution of zinc sulphate and water
(C) Excessive thermal variations in the backing or plaster causes the plaster to fall
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 212

The window which is provided on a sloping roof of a building, is called
(A) Lantern window
(B) Dormer window
(C) Louvered window
(D) Rash window
Answer: Option B

Question No. 213

The single stage well point system of dewatering an excavation can be used if the depth of
excavation does not exceed
(A) 5 m
(B) 10 m
(C) 15 m
(D) 20 m
Answer: Option A

Question No. 214

The nominal thickness of one brick wall in mm, is
(A) 90 mm
(B) 150 mm
(C) 190 mm
(D) 200 mm
Answer: Option D

Question No. 215

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) The retaining wall should be structurally capable to resist the applied earth pressure
(B) The section of the retaining wall should be so proportioned that it may not overturn by the
lateral pressure
(C) The retaining wall should be safe against sliding
(D) To drain off water from the earth retained, weep holes are provided near the top of the
retaining wall
Answer: Option D
Question No. 216
The stepped structure provided for lateral support of a structure, is
(A) Retaining wall
(B) Breast wall
(C) Buttress
(D) Parapet wall
Answer: Option C

Question No. 217

Raft foundations are used for:
(A) Providing increased area of foundation over poor bearing capacity of soil
(B) Spanning over small soft or loose pockets
(C) Counter acting the hydrostatic effect
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 218

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) In Flemish bond, headers and stretchers are laid alternately in the same course
(B) In Flemish bond every header in each course lies centrally over every stretcher of the
underlying course
(C) In English bond, stretchers are laid in every course
(D) In English bond, headers and stretchers are laid in alternate courses
Answer: Option C

Question No. 219

Stud(s) of a common wooden partition
(A) Are vertical wooden members
(B) Is the upper horizontal wooden member
(C) Is the lower horizontal wooden member
(D) Are the intermediate horizontal wooden members
Answer: Option A

Question No. 220

The additional piles which are driven to increase the capacity of supporting loads on vertical piles,
are known
(A) Construction piles
(B) Raking piles
(C) Eccentric piles
(D) Sinking piles
Answer: Option B

Question No. 221

Queen closer may be placed
(A) In header course
 (B) In stretcher course
(C) In header course next to first brick
(D) In stretcher course next to first brick
Answer: Option C

Question No. 222

The bearing capacity of a water logged soil, may be improved by
(A) Grouting
(B) Chemical action
(C) Drainage
(D) Compaction
Answer: Option C

Question No. 223

The process of making the back ground rough, before plastering, is
(A) Dubbing
(B) Hacking
(C) Blistering
(D) Peeling
Answer: Option B

Question No. 224

Which one of the following piles has a cast iron shoe even after removal of the hollow cylindrical
steel casing?
(A) Simplex pile
(B) Pedestal pile
(C) Vibro pile
(D) Both (a) and (c) of the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 225

While designing a stair, the product of rise and going is approximately kept equal to
(A) 350
(B) 420
(C) 450
(D) 500
Answer: Option B

Question No. 226

Nogging of a common wooden partition is
(A) Upper horizontal wooden member
(B) Lower horizontal wooden member
(C) Intermediate horizontal wooden member
(D) Vertical wooden member
Answer: Option C
Question No. 227
Which one of the following factors is considered for the orientation of buildings?
(A) The direction of the prevailing winds in the area
(B) The exposure of the walls and roof of the buildings to the rays of sun
(C) The extent up to which the sunrays penetrate with the verandah
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 228

To construct a 10 cm thick partition wall, you will prefer
(A) English bond
(B) Flemish bond
(C) Header bond
(D) Stretcher bond
Answer: Option D

Question No. 229

The strength of brick masonry in 1:6 cement mortar, is
(A) 20 tonnes/m2
(B) 40 tonnes/m2
(C) 50 tonnes/m2
(D) 60 tonnes/m2
Answer: Option C

Question No. 230

The form work from the sides of beams can be removed only after
(A) 1 day
(B) 4 days
(C) 7 days
(D) 14 days
Answer: Option A

Question No. 231

For brick construction, the lime-sand mortar, is
(A) 1 : 1
(B) 1 : 2
(C) 1 : 3
(D) 1 : 4
Answer: Option B

Question No. 232

The least bearing capacity of soil is that of
(A) Hard rock
(B) Moist clay
(C) Soft rock
 (D) Coarse sandy soil
Answer: Option B

Question No. 233

The maximum permissible differential settlement, in case of foundations in clayey soil, is usually
limited to
(A) 10 mm
(B) 20 mm
(C) 30 mm
(D) 40 mm
Answer: Option D

Question No. 234

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) English bond is used for brick masonry to support heavy loads
(B) Double-Flemish bond is suitable for brick masonry to give uniform face appearance
(C) The stretcher bond is used for the construction of half brick masonry brick
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 235

The black cotton soil
(A) Undergoes volumetric changes
(B) Swells excessively when wet
(C) Shrinks excessively when dry
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 236

A cut in frame of a door to receive the shutter, is called
(A) Louver
(B) Stop
(C) Horn
(D) Rebate
Answer: Option D

Question No. 237

The loose pockets in soil mass can be bridged safely by providing a raft foundation provided the
soft area is smaller than
(A) The column spacing
(B) One-third the column spacing
(C) Half the column spacing
(D) Three-fourth the column spacing
Answer: Option B
Question No. 238
Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) In king post truss, one vertical post is used
(B) In a queen post truss, one vertical post is used
(C) In a queen post truss, two vertical posts are used
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 239

The pile which is provided with a bulb filled with concrete at its lower end, is known as
(A) Simplex pile
(B) Mac-Arthur pile
(C) Raymond pile
(D) Franki pile
Answer: Option B

Question No. 240

Ornamental moulded course placed on the top of a wall, is
(A) Cornice
(B) Coping
(C) Frieze
(D) Lintel
Answer: Option A

Question No. 241

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) Cement is added to lime mortar to increase its hydraulic properties only
(B) Lime surkhi mortar is used for pointing the walls
(C) Lime should be slaked before preparing lime mortar
(D) High early strength concrete is generally used in cold weather
Answer: Option A

Question No. 242

Pile foundation is generally provided if soil is
(A) Compressible
(B) Water logged
(C) Made up
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 243

Bearing capacity of soils cannot be improved by
(A) Draining sub-soil water
(B) Ramming crushed stone in soil
(C) Driving sand piles
 (D) Watering surface of soil
Answer: Option D

Question No. 244

Rotary drilling is the fastest method in case of
(A) Rocky soils
(B) Clay soils
(C) Sandy soil
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 245

The concrete slump recommended for beams and slabs; is
(A) 25 to 50 mm
(B) 25 to 75 mm
(C) 30 to 125 mm
(D) 50 to 100 mm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 246

The alignment of a cross joint along the plumb line is
(A) Bed block
(B) Perpend
(C) Lintel
(D) Vertical line
Answer: Option B

Question No. 247

A projecting piece usually provided to support a truss, is
(A) Cornice
(B) Coping
(C) Frieze
(D) Lintel
Answer: Option C

Question No. 248

Best type of piles for soft soil having little resistance to the flow of concrete, is
(A) Simplex pile
(B) Vibro pile
(C) Raymond pile
(D) Franki pile
Answer: Option B

Question No. 249

The form work from the underside of slabs, can be removed only after
 (A) 1 day
(B) 4 days
(C) 7 days
(D) 14 days
Answer: Option C

Question No. 250

Couple roof is used for spans
(A) 3.5 m or less
(B) 3.5 m but less than 5 m
(C) 5 m but less than 6.5 m
(D) 6.5 m but less than 8 m
Answer: Option A

Question No. 251

For heavy embankments and dams, of height h, the depth of exploration of soil should not be less
than
(A) h/4
(B) 1/2 h
(C) h
(D) 2 h
Answer: Option D

Question No. 252

The vertical member running through middle of a shutter frame, is
(A) Style
(B) Reveal
(C) Mullion
(D) Post
Answer: Option C

Question No. 253

The lower half portion between crown and skew back of the arch, is called
(A) Spandril
(B) Haunch
(C) Springing
(D) Soffit
Answer: Option B

Question No. 254

An arch may fail due to
(A) Uneven settlement of abutments
(B) Sliding of voussoirs
(C) Crushing of the material
(D) All the above
 Answer: Option D

Question No. 255

The exterior angle between outer faces of a wall, is known as
(A) Turn
(B) Junction
(C) Quion
(D) All the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 256

The minimum thickness of walls built in cement mortar (1 : 6) for a single storey building, is
(A) 10 cm
(B) 15 cm
(C) 20 cm
(D) 25 cm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 257

Pick up the commonly adopted geophysical method in civil engineering from the following:
(A) The seismic method
(B) Electrical resistivity method
(C) Gravitational method
(D) Both (a) and (b) of the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 258

If height of the first storey of a building is 3.2 m and riser is 13 cm, the number of treads required,
is
(A) 12
(B) 18
(C) 24
(D) 25
Answer: Option C

Question No. 259

Dado is usually provided in
(A) Dining halls
(B) Bath rooms
(C) Living rooms
(D) Verandah
Answer: Option B

Question No. 260

A roof which slopes in four directions, is called
 (A) Shed roof
(B) Gable end roof
(C) Hipped roof
(D) Gambrel roof
Answer: Option C

Question No. 261

The taper of precast concrete pile should not be more than
(A) 1 cm per metre length
(B) 2 cm per metre length
(C) 4 cm per metre length
(D) 5 cm per metre length
Answer: Option B

Question No. 262

If the depth of an excavation is 20 metres, number of single stage well points to be installed at
various levels, is
(A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 2
Answer: Option C

Question No. 263

In case of multi-storeyed buildings, the forms to be removed first are
(A) Sides of beams and girders
(B) Column forms
(C) Bottom of beams and girders
(D) All the above at the same time
Answer: Option A

Question No. 264

The vertical members fixed between steps and hand rail, are known
(A) Balusters
(B) Strings
(C) Newel posts
(D) Soffits
Answer: Option A

Question No. 265

The depth of an arch is the distance between
(A) Ground level and springing line
(B) Crown and springing line
(C) Crown and ground level
(D) Intrados and extrados
 Answer: Option D

Question No. 266

The nominal thickness of an expansion joint in brick walls, is kept more than
(A) 5 mm
(B) 10 mm
(C) 15 mm
(D) 20 mm
Answer: Option D

Question No. 267

Exposed portions of vertical surface at right angles to the door or window frame, are known as
(A) Jambs
(B) Lintels
(C) Reveals
(D) Soffits
Answer: Option C

Question No. 268

The projections of head or sill of a door or window frame are
(A) Transoms
(B) Horns
(C) Stops
(D) Chocks
Answer: Option B

Question No. 269

The line of intersection of the surfaces of a sloping roof forming an external angle exceeding 180°,
is
(A) Ridge
(B) Hip
(C) Valley
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 270

The depth of excavation of foundations, is generally measured with a
(A) Ranging rod
(B) Steel tape
(C) Levelling staff
(D) Boning rod
Answer: Option D

Question No. 271

The 9 cm × 9 cm side of a brick as seen in the wall face, is generally known as
 (A) Stretcher
(B) Face
(C) Front
(D) Header
Answer: Option D

Question No. 272

The range of spread from the wall base to outer edge of a brick work foundation does not exceed
(A) 1/2 horizontal to 1 vertical
(B) 2/3 horizontal to 1 vertical
(C) 1 horizontal to 1 vertical
(D) 2 horizontals to 1 vertical
Answer: Option C

Question No. 273

The foundation in which a cantilever beam is provided to join two footings, is known as
(A) Strip footing
(B) Strap footing
(C) Combined footing
(D) Raft footing
Answer: Option B

Question No. 274

Auger boring
(A) Is the most primitive method for making a hole in the ground
(B) Is generally employed in cohesive and other self soils above water table
(C) Is most economical upto a depth of 5 metres
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 275

In horizontal D.P.C, thickness of cement concrete (1 : 2 : 4) is
(A) 2 cm
(B) 4 cm
(C) 6 cm
(D) 8 cm
Answer: Option B

Question No. 276

The triangular portion between any two adjacent arches and the tangent to their crowns, is
(A) Haunch
(B) Spandril
(C) Soffit
(D) Rise
Answer: Option B
Question No. 277
The compaction of concrete in the drilled pile hole is done by compressed air in the case of
(A) Simplex pile
(B) Franki pile
(C) Pressure pile
(D) Vibro pile
Answer: Option C

Question No. 278

Pile foundations are suitable for
(A) Water logged soils
(B) Soft rocks
(C) Compact soils
(D) Multi-storeyed buildings
Answer: Option A

Question No. 279

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Inclined borings are made for taking samples under existing structures
(B) Inclined borings are occasionally used instead of vertical holes
(C) The spacing of inclined borings is kept such that one bore hole is vertically above the bottom
of an adjacent bore hole
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 280

The inclined support at the ends of treads and rises of a stair, is known as
(A) Baluster
(B) Header
(C) String
(D) Beam
Answer: Option C

Question No. 281

The brick laid with its breadth parallel to the face of a wall, is known as
(A) Header
(B) Stretcher
(C) Closer
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 282

The voussoir placed at crown of an arch, is known as a
(A) Key
(B) Soffit
 (C) Springer
(D) Haunch
Answer: Option A

Question No. 283

In places where the soil is soft and has small resistance to the flow of concrete, which one of the
following types of piles, is used
(A) Vibro pile
(B) Pressure pile
(C) Franki pile
(D) Pedestal pile
Answer: Option A

Question No. 284

Crown is located at
(A) Highest point on the extrados of the arch
(B) Highest point on the intrados of the arch
(C) Skew-back of the arch
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 285

The under surface of an arch, is called
(A) Soffit
(B) Intrados
(C) Haunch
(D) Back
Answer: Option A

Question No. 286

The brick laid with its length parallel to the face of a wall, is a known as
(A) Header
(B) Stretcher
(C) Closer
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 287

You are asked to design and supervise a truss for a factory to have spans 6 m to 9 m. The type of
the truss you will use, is
(A) Mansard truss
(B) Queen post truss
(C) King post truss
(D) Collar truss
Answer: Option C
Question No. 288
In verandah floors outward slope is
(A) 1 in 40
(B) 1 in 50
(C) 1 in 60
(D) 1 in 70
Answer: Option C

Question No. 289

In jack arch floor, the rise is kept
(A) 1/6th of the span
(B) 1/8th of the span
(C) 1/10th of the span
(D) 1/12th of the span
Answer: Option D

Question No. 290

The method of moving each brick through a small horizontal distance before it is finally laid in any
brick wall and pressing it by means of brick hammer, is known as
(A) Trowelling
(B) Laying
(C) Grouting
(D) Placing
Answer: Option B

Question No. 291

Black cotton soil is unsuitable for foundations because its
(A) Bearing capacity is low
(B) Permeability is uncertain
(C) Particles are cohesive
(D) Property to undergo a volumetric change due to variation of moisture content
Answer: Option D

Question No. 292

A temporary rigid structure having platforms to enable masons to work at different stages of a
building, is known as
(A) Scaffolding
(B) Dead shore
(C) Raking shore
(D) Under pinning
Answer: Option A

Question No. 293

A floor constructed with 3 mm marble chips, is known
(A) Mosaic floor
 (B) Terrazzo floor
(C) Chips floor
(D) Marble floor
Answer: Option B

Question No. 294

The local swelling of a finished plaster, is termed
(A) Cracking
(B) Dubbing
(C) Blistering
(D) Hacking
Answer: Option C

Question No. 295

Expansion joints in masonry walls are provided if length exceeds
(A) 10 m
(B) 20 m
(C) 30 m
(D) 40 m
Answer: Option D

Question No. 296

The stone whose crushing strength is least, is
(A) Granite
(B) Chalk
(C) Marble
(D) Slate
Answer: Option B

Question No. 297

The portion of a brick cut across the width, is called
(A) Closer
(B) Half brick
(C) Bed
(D) Bat
Answer: Option D

Question No. 298

The type of bond in which every course contains both headers and stretchers, is called
(A) English bond
(B) Flemish bond
(C) Russian band
(D) Mixed bond
Answer: Option B
Question No. 299
To support a heavy structure in sandy soil, the type of foundation generally used, is
(A) Combined footing
(B) Raft footing
(C) Pier footing
(D) Strap footing
Answer: Option C

Question No. 300

The vertical side member of a shutter frame, is known
(A) Style
(B) Reveal
(C) Mullion
(D) Post
Answer: Option A
 Construction Planning and Management

Question No. 01
In time-cost optimization of a project, crashing is done.
(A) On all the activities
(B) On all the activities lying on the critical path
(C) Only on activities lying on the original critical path and having flatter cost slopes
(D) On original critical activities and those that become critical at any stage of crashing in the
order of ascending cost slope
Answer: Option D

Question No. 02
Which of the following does not represent an activity?
(A) Site located
(B) Foundation is being dug
(C) The office area is being cleaned
(D) The invitations are being sent
Answer: Option A

Question No. 03
In resources levelling
(A) Total duration of project is reduced
(B) Total duration of project is increased
(C) Uniform demand of resources is achieved
(D) Cost of project is controlled
Answer: Option C

Question No. 04
Sensitivity analysis is a study of
(A) Comparison of profit and loss
(B) Comparison of assets and liabilities
(C) Change in output due to change in input
(D) Economics of cost and benefits of the project
Answer: Option C

Question No. 05
Preliminary project report for a road project must contain
(A) The detailed estimated cost based on detailed design
(B) The several alternatives of the project that have been considered
(C) The soil survey, traffic survey, concept design and approximate cost
(D) The contract documents for inviting tenders
Answer: Option C
Question No. 06
For which of the following materials, the output of power shovels for a fixed shovel size will be
maximum
(A) Moist loam
(B) Good common earth
(C) Well blasted rock
(D) Wet sticky clay
Answer: Option A

Question No. 07
If the output of a dragline for 90° angle of swing at optimum depth of cut is X, then the output for
120° angle of swing at 120 % of optimum depth of cut will be
(A) Equal to X
(B) More than X
(C) Less than X
(D) Any of the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 08
In PERT analysis, the time estimates of activities and probability of their occurrence follow
(A) Normal distribution curve
(B) Poisson's distribution curve
(C) Beta distribution curve
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 09
Free float is mainly used to
(A) Identify the activities which can be delayed without affecting the total float of preceding
activity
(B) Identify the activities, which can be delayed without affecting the total float of succeeding
activity
(C) Establish priorities
(D) Identify the activities which can be delayed without affecting the total float of either the
preceding or succeeding activities
Answer: Option B

Question No. 10
Grader is used mainly for
(A) Trimming and finishing
(B) Shaping and trimming
(C) Finishing and shaping
(D) Finishing, shaping and trimming
Answer: Option D
Question No. 11
Which of the following surfaces will give highest rolling resistance for a rubber tyred vehicle?
(A) Concrete
(B) Loose sand
(C) Asphalt
(D) Firm earth
Answer: Option B

Question No. 12
Which of the following earth moving machines has the shortest cycle time?
(A) Drag line
(B) Hoe
(C) Clam shell
(D) Dipper shovel
Answer: Option D

Question No. 13
Updating may result in
(A) Change of critical path
(B) Decrease of project completion time
(C) Increase of project completion time
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 14
The time by which a particular activity can be delayed without affecting the preceding and
succeeding activities is known as
(A) Total float
(B) Free float
(C) Interfering float
(D) Independent float
Answer: Option D

Question No. 15
During the construction period, price variation clause in contracts caters to
(A) Increase in rates of only important materials
(B) Variation in cost in materials element, labour element and petrol-oil-lubricant element
(C) Variation in total cost of the project on an ad hoc basis
(D) Rate of inflation
Answer: Option B

Question No. 16
Critical path method
(A) Is an improvement upon bar chart method
(B) Provides a realistic approach to daily problems
 (C) Avoids delays which are very common in bar charts
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 17
At a work site, statistical quality control of concrete means
(A) Measurement of risks to eliminate failures
(B) Applying the theory' of probability to sample testing or inspection
(C) Reduction in wastage of inspection costs
(D) Reduction in costs for the removal of defects
Answer: Option B

Question No. 18
For the network shown in the given figure, the expected time for the activity

(A) 1-2 is 4
(B) 2-3 is 7
(C) 3-4 is 8
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 19
A critical ratio scheduling
(A) Determines the status of each activity
(B) Adjusts automatically changes in activity progress
(C) Is a dynamic system
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 20
For a given activity, the optimistic time, pessimistic time and the most probable estimates are 5,
17 and 8 days respectively, The expected time is
(A) 8 days
(B) 9 days
(C) 10 days
(D) 15 days
Answer: Option B

Question No. 21
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Optimistic time estimate refers to activities
(B) Pessimistic time estimate refers to activities
(C) Most likely time estimate refers to activities
 (D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 22
In the time-cost optimisation, using CPM method for network analysis, the crashing of the
activities along the critical path is done starting with the activity having
(A) Longest duration
(B) Highest cost slope
(C) Least cost slope
(D) Shortest duration
Answer: Option C

Question No. 23
A golden rule for the procurement of construction stones, suggests
(A) 100% at the site
(B) 67% at the site and 33% under procurement
(C) 50% at the site and 50% under procurement
(D) 33% at the site and 67% under procurement
Answer: Option B

Question No. 24
The time with which direct cost does not reduce with the increase in time is known as
(A) Crash time
(B) Normal time
(C) Optimistic time
(D) Standard time
Answer: Option B

Question No. 25
Pick up the correct statement from the following with regards to C.P.M. network analysis of
projects
(A) The latest occurrence time of the node of which the activity arrow terminates minus the
duration of the activity, is called latest start time
(B) The latest occurrence time for the node at which the activity arrow terminates, is called
latest finish time
(C) Earliest occurrence time of the event from which the activity arrow' originates, is called
earliest start time of the activity
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 26
Interfering float is the difference between
(A) Total float and free float
(B) Total float and independent float
(C) Free float and independent float
 (D) None of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 27
While filling the tender for any work, the contractor considers
(A) Site survey
(B) Availability of construction materials
(C) Availability of labour
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 28
An excavator costs Rs. 20,00,000 and has an estimated life of 8 years. It has no salvage value at the
end of 8 years. The book value of the excavator at the end of 3 years using general double
declining balance method is
(A) Rs. 8,43,750
(B) Rs. 8,75,000
(C) Rs. 10,50,000
(D) Rs. 11,56,250
Answer: Option A

Question No. 29
Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) The various functions under each activity, are shown by one bar on Bar Charts
(B) Bar chart establishes the interdependency of one event on another
(C) Only approximate percentage of the completed work is reported
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 30
A wheeled tractor hauling unit is working on firm earth. The total loaded weight distribution of
this unit is:
Drive wheels: 25000 kg
Scraper wheels: 10000 kg
If the coefficient of traction for wheeled tractor on firm earth is 0.5, the rimpull which this tractor
can exert without slipping is
(A) 10000 kg
(B) 12500 kg
(C) 22500 kg
(D) 5000 kg
Answer: Option B

Question No. 31
If the expected time of completion of a project is 60 weeks with a standard deviation of 5 weeks,
the probability of completing the project in 50 weeks and 65 weeks respectively will be
 (A) 2.3% and 84.1%
(B) 97.7% and 84.1%
(C) 97.7 % and 15.9%
(D) 15.9% and 97.7%
Answer: Option A

Question No. 32
Power stations are generally treated as
(A) Light construction
(B) Heavy construction
(C) Industrial construction
(D) Electrical construction
Answer: Option C

Question No. 33
For a given size of bucket, the ideal output of a dragline will be least in
(A) Moist loam
(B) Sand and gravel
(C) Good common earth
(D) Wet sticky clay
Answer: Option D

Question No. 34
Bar charts are suitable for
(A) Minor works
(B) Major works
(C) Large projects
(D) All the Above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 35
The time corresponding to minimum total project cost is
(A) Crash time
(B) Normal time
(C) Optimistic time
(D) Between normal time and crash time
Answer: Option D

Question No. 36
Construction team means
(A) An engineer
(B) An architect
(C) An owner
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 37
Select the incorrect statement.
(A) Start float and finish float are always equal.
(B) Total float can be either start float or finish float.
(C) Start float and finish float need not be equal.
(D) Start float and finish float are the differences between activity times and not event times.
Answer: Option C

Question No. 38
The artificial activity which indicates that an activity following it, cannot be started unless the
preceding activity is complete, is known as
(A) Event
(B) Free float
(C) Dummy
(D) Constraint
Answer: Option C

Question No. 39
PERT technique of network analysis is mainly useful for
(A) Small projects
(B) Large and complex projects
(C) Research and development projects
(D) Deterministic activities
Answer: Option C

Question No. 40
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The float may be positive, zero or negative
(B) If the float is positive and the activity is delayed by a period equal to its total float, the
completion of project is not delayed
(C) If the float of an activity is negative, delay in its performance is bound to delay the
completion of project
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 41
The independent float affects only
(A) Preceding activities
(B) Succeeding activities
(C) The particular activity involved
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 42
Site order book is used for recording
 (A) Instructions by the executive engineers
(B) Construction measurements
(C) Issue of store equipments
(D) Names of the casual labour
Answer: Option A

Question No. 43
The time by which activity completion time can be delayed without affecting the start of
succeeding activities, is known as
(A) Duration
(B) Total float
(C) Free float
(D) Interfering float
Answer: Option C

Question No. 44
The part of a derrick crane include
(i) Mast
(ii) Boom
(iii) Bull wheel
(iv) Jack
Of these statements
(A) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer: Option D

Question No. 45
If the gross vehicle weight of a truck is 30 tonne and rolling resistance is 30 kg/tonne, then the
tractive effort required to keep the truck moving at a uniform speed is
(A) 30 kg
(B) 300 kg
(C) 900 kg
(D) 1000 kg
Answer: Option C

Question No. 46
Works costing less than Rs. 20,000 are treated as
(A) Any project
(B) Major projects
(C) Minor projects
(D) All the above
Answer: Option C
Question No. 47
A machine costs Rs. 20000 and its useful life is 8 years. The money is borrowed at 8% interest per
annum. The capital recovery factor at 8% interest per annum for 8 years is 0.174. The annual
equipment cost of the machine will be
(A) Rs. 1740
(B) Rs. 3480
(C) Rs. 5220
(D) Rs. 6960
Answer: Option B

Question No. 48
Railway projects are treated as
(A) Light construction
(B) Heavy construction
(C) Industrial construction
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 49
Consider the following statements:
In the critical path method of construction planning, Free Float can be.
1. Greater than Total Float.
2. Greater than Independent Float
3. Equal to Total Float.
4. Less than Independent Float. Of these statements
(A) 1 and 4 are correct
(B) 2 and 3 are correct
(C) 1 and 4 are correct
(D) 1 and 2 are correct
Answer: Option B

Question No. 50
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The duration between the earliest start time of the preceding event and latest finish time of
the succeeding event, is called 'float'
(B) The duration of time by which an activity can be delayed without affecting the succeeding
activity, is called free float
(C) The difference between total float and free float, is called interfering float
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 51
The original cost of an equipment is Rs.10,000. Its salvage value at the end of its total useful life of
five years is Rs. 1,000. Its book value at the end of two years of its useful life (as per straight line
method of evaluation of depreciation) will be
 (A) Rs. 8,800
(B) Rs. 7,600
(C) Rs. 6,400
(D) Rs. 5,000
Answer: Option C

Question No. 52
For completion of a project, the critical path of the network represents
(A) Minimum time
(B) Maximum time
(C) Maximum cost
(D) Minimum cost
Answer: Option A

Question No. 53
The maximum rimpull in the first gear of a tractor while towing a load is 6300 kg. The tractor
weighs 12.5 tonnes and is operating along a 2 percent upgrade and the rolling resistance is 45
kg/tonne. Pull available for towing the load is
(A) 3425 kg
(B) 5515 kg
(C) 4350 kg
(D) 2975 kg
Answer: Option B

Question No. 54
Which one of the following represents an event?
(A) Concrete cured
(B) Fixing of door
(C) Plastering of walls
(D) Selecting sites
Answer: Option A

Question No. 55
The rated loads of lifting cranes, as percentage of tipping load at specified radius, for crawler-
mounted and pneumatic tyre-mounted machines would be respectively
(A) 80 and 90
(B) 90 and 80
(C) 85 and 75
(D) 75 and 83
Answer: Option D

Question No. 56
PERT is
(A) An analytic in concept
(B) Limited of event oriented diagrams
 (C) Used for research and development projects
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 57
Optimistic time, most likely time and pessimistic times for the activities of a network in the given
figure are written above their arrows. If the contractual obligation time for the project is 75, the
latest occurrence time for the event 2, is

(A) 20
(B) 25
(C) 35
(D) 15
Answer: Option B

Question No. 58
An earth moving equipment costs Rs. 5,00,000 and has an estimated life of 10 years and a salvage
value of Rs. 50,000. What uniform annual amount must be set aside at the end of each of the 10
years for replacement if the interest rate is 8% per annum and if the sinking fund factor at 8% per
annum interest rate for 10 years is 0.069?
(A) Rs. 31050
(B) Rs. 34500
(C) Rs. 37950
(D) Rs. 50000
Answer: Option A

Question No. 59
Output of a bulldozer is
(i) Increased if drawbar HP of the tractor is increased for a given hauling distance
(ii) Decreased if drawbar HP of the tractor is increased for a given hauling distance
(iii) Increased if the hauling distance is increased for a given drawbar HP of the tractor
(iv) Decreased if the hauling distance is increased for a given drawbar HP of the tractor
Of these statement
(A) (i) and (iii) are correct
(B) (i) and (iv) are correct
(C) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(D) (ii) and (iv) are correct
Answer: Option B

Question No. 60
For the execution of a project, a contractor is
(A) A person
(B) A firm
 (C) An agency
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 61
The constraints in case of resource smoothening operation would be
(A) Resources
(B) Project duration time
(C) Both resources and project duration time
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 62
The time which results in the leasi, possible construction cost of an activity, is known as
(A) Normal time
(B) Slow time
(C) Crash time
(D) Standard time
Answer: Option B

Question No. 63
The direct cost of a project with respect to normal time is
(A) minimum
(B) Maximum
(C) Zero
(D) Infinite
Answer: Option A

Question No. 64
The object of technical planning, is
(A) Preparation of specifications
(B) Preparation of estimates
(C) Initiating the procurement action of resources
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 65
If an activity has its optimistic, most likely and pessimistic times as 2, 3 and 7 respectively, then its
expected time and variance are respectively
(A) 3.5 and 5/6
(B) 5 and 25/36
(C) 3.5 and 25/36
(D) 4 and 5/6
Answer: Option C
Question No. 66
Various activities of a project, are shown on bar charts by
(A) Vertical lines
(B) Horizontal lines
(C) Dots
(D) Crosses
Answer: Option B

Question No. 67
Select the correct statement.
(A) Activity arrows in a CPM network are drawn to scale
(B) The tail of an arrow represents the finish of an activity
(C) Arrow bead represents the start of an activity
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 68
If D is the duration, ES and EF are the earliest start and finish, LS and LF are latest start and latest
finish time, then the following relation holds good
(A) EF = ES + D
(B) LS = LF - D
(C) LF = LS + D
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 69
Total float for any activity is defined as the difference between
(A) Its latest finish time and earliest start time for its successor activity
(B) Its latest start time and earliest start time
(C) Its latest start time and earliest finish time
(D) Its earliest finish time and earliest start time for its successor activity
Answer: Option B

Question No. 70
Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) The activity is the time consuming part of a project
(B) The beginning and end of a job, are called events
(C) The activity which consumes maximum time, is called a node
(D) Logically and sequentially connected activities and events form a network
Answer: Option C

Question No. 71
Assertion (A): Activity 57 is critical.
Reason (R): Earliest finish time and latest finish time for events 57 are same
Select the correct answer.
 (A) A is correct but R is not correct
(B) R is correct but A is not correct
(C) Both A and R is correct
(D) Both A and R is incorrect
Answer: Option A

Question No. 72
The main principle of an organisation, is
(A) Unity of command
(B) Effective control at all levels
(C) Delegation of authority
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 73
If the expected time for completion of a project is 10 days with a standard deviation of 2 days, the
expected time of completion of the project with 99.9% probability is
(A) 4 days
(B) 6 days
(C) 10 days
(D) 16 days
Answer: Option D

Question No. 74
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Earliest expected time is denoted by TE
(B) Latest occurrence time is denoted by TL
(C) Contractual obligation time is denoted by Ts
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 75
Consider the following operations:
1. Drilling
2. Blasting
3. Mucking
4. Placing steel
5. Placing concrete
The correct sequence of these operations in tunnel construction is
(A) 1, 2, 4, 3, 5
(B) 1, 3, 2, 4, 5
(C) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
(D) 1, 3, 4, 2, 5
Answer: Option C
Question No. 76
Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) The difference between the earliest start time and latest finish time of any activity, is the
maximum time available for the activity
(B) The difference between the maximum time available for the job and actual time it
consumes, is called total float
(C) The difference between the latest start time and earliest start time of an activity, is called
total float
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 77
The basic action involved in sheep foot rolling is
(A) Kneading
(B) Pressing
(C) Tamping
(D) Vibration
Answer: Option A

Question No. 78
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Programme Evaluation and Review Technique, is event oriented
(B) Programme Evaluation and Review Technique is not event oriented
(C) Critical Path Method is event oriented
(D) Critical Path method is event oriented
Answer: Option A

Question No. 79
If the excavation of earth is done manually then it costs Rs. 10 per cum. A machine can excavate at
a fixed cost of Rs. 4000 plus a variable cost of Rs. 2 per cum. The quantity of earth for which the
cost of excavation by machine will be equal to the cost of manual excavation is
(A) 500 cum
(B) 1000 cum
(C) 1500 cum
(D) 2000 cum
Answer: Option A

Question No. 80
Time and progress chart of a construction, is also known as
(A) Bar chart
(B) Gantt chart
(C) Modified Mile stone chart
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 81
Economic saving of time results by crashing
(A) Cheapest critical activity
(B) Cheapest noncritical activity
(C) Costliest critical activity
(D) Costliest noncritical activity
Answer: Option A

Question No. 82
In the given figure, the network of a project represents

(A) Activity of an excavation of a footing

(B) Activity of an excavation which starts at event No. 1 and ends at even No. 2
(C) Activity of excavation which takes 8 units of time
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 83
Select the incorrect statement.
(A) Earliest start of an activity is the early event time of the node it leaves.
(B) Latest finish of an activity is the late event time of the node it enters.
(C) Latest start of an activity is its latest finish minus its duration.
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 84
The technique for establishing and maintaining priorities among the various jobs of a project, is
known
(A) Event flow scheduling technique
(B) Critical ratio scheduling
(C) Slotting technique for scheduling
(D) Short interval scheduling
Answer: Option B

Question No. 85
Which of the following is a weakness of bar chart?
(A) Interdependencies of activities
(B) Project progress
(C) Uncertainties
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 86
Which one of the following represents an activity?
(A) Excavation for foundation
(B) Curing of concrete
(C) Setting of question paper
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 87
Which of the following excavators is most suitable for digging under water?
(A) Drag line
(B) Hoe
(C) Clam shell
(D) Dipper shovel
Answer: Option A

Question No. 88
A CPM family includes
(A) CPA (Critical Path Analysis)
(B) CPP (Critical Path Plotted)
(C) MCE (Minimum Cost Expenditure)
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 89
Critical path
(A) Is always longest
(B) Is always shortest
(C) May be longest
(D) May be shortest
Answer: Option A

Question No. 90
For the supply of materials for concrete, form work reinforcing and placing of concrete, removal of
form work and curing of concrete, number of bar(s) required on bar chart, is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Answer: Option A

Question No. 91
Which one of the following surfaces will give highest coefficient of traction while using crawler
track tractors?
(A) Ice
 (B) Concrete
(C) Loose sand
(D) Earth
Answer: Option D

Question No. 92
Residential buildings are treated as
(A) Light construction
(B) Heavy construction
(C) Industrial construction
(D) Private construction
Answer: Option A

Question No. 93
Consider the following statements:
In the bar chart planning
1. Interdependence of the operations cannot be portrayed.
2. Progress of work can be measured.
3. Spare time of the activities can be determined.
4. Schedule cannot be updated.
Of these statements
(A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(B) 1 and 4 are correct
(C) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(D) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
Answer: Option B

Question No. 94
The three time estimates for the activities of the network shown in the given figure are shown
above their arrows. The earliest expected time for the event 4, is

(A) 19
(B) 14
(C) 24
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 95
Consider the following activities in a building construction:
1. Concreting of roof slabs
2. Brick-jelly lime concrete terracing
3. Erection of form work for slab
4. Construction of parapet wall in terrace
 The correct sequence of these activities is
(A) 1, 3, 2, 4
(B) 3, 1, 4, 2
(C) 3, 1, 2, 4
(D) 1, 3, 4, 2
Answer: Option C

Question No. 96
Military organisation is known as
(A) Line organisation
(B) Line and staff organisation
(C) Functional organisation
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 97
Mobilization advance up to 10% of the cost of work is given to a contractor
(A) On commencement of work at site for payment of loan taken by him
(B) For the purchase of construction materials
(C) For the payment of advances to labour and other staff
(D) For all activities required to start the work at site on finalization of the contract document
Answer: Option D

Question No. 98
Pick up the PERT event from the following:
(A) Digging of foundation started
(B) Digging of foundation completed
(C) Laying of concrete started
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 99
A machine is purchased for Rs. 10,000,00 and has an estimated life of 10 years. The salvage value
at the end of 10 years is Rs. 1,50,000. The book value of the machine at the end of 5 years using
general straight line method of evaluation of depreciation is
(A) Rs. 4,75,000
(B) Rs. 5,75,000
(C) Rs. 6,50,000
(D) Rs. 8,50,000
Answer: Option B

Question No. 100

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) An activity of a project is denoted by an arrow on the net work
(B) The tail of the arrow indicates the start of the activity
 (C) The head of the arrow indicates the end of the activity
(D) The arrows are drawn to scale from left to right
Answer: Option D

Question No. 101

The process of incorporating changes and rescheduling or replanning is called
(A) Resource levelling
(B) Resource smoothening
(C) Updating
(D) Critical path scheduling
Answer: Option C

Question No. 102

Completion of an activity on CPM network diagram, is generally known
(A) Event
(B) Node
(C) Connector
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 103

Assertion A: For a given depth of cut, the output of a power shovel can be increased by decreasing
the angle of swing.
Reason R: If the angle of swing is decreased, the cycle time will be decreased.
Select the correct answer.
(A) Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R is true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
Answer: Option A

Question No. 104

The salient feature of functional organisation is
(A) Strict adherence to specifications
(B) Separation of planning and design part
(C) Each individual maintains functional efficiency
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 105

A tractor shovel has a purchase price of Rs. 4.7 lacs and could save the organization an amount of
rupees one lac per year on operating costs. The salvage value after the amortization period is 10%
of the purchase price. The capital recovery period will be
(A) 3.7 years
(B) 4.23 years
 (C) 5 years
(D) 7.87 years
Answer: Option B

Question No. 106

The first method invented for planning projects, was
(A) Bar chart method
(B) Milestone chart
(C) Critical path method (CPM)
(D) Programme Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT)
Answer: Option A

Question No. 107

Which one of the following is not an excavating and moving type of equipment?
(A) Bulldozer
(B) Clam shell
(C) Scraper
(D) Dump truck
Answer: Option D

Question No. 108

The main disadvantage of line organisation, is
(A) Rigid structure
(B) Extraordinary delay in communications
(C) Top level executions over work
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 109

Batching refers to
(A) Controlling the total quantity at each batch
(B) Weighing accurately, the quantity of each material for a job before mixing
(C) Controlling the quantity of each material into each batch
(D) Adjusting the water to be added in each batch according to the moisture content of the
materials being mixed in the batch
Answer: Option C

Question No. 110

While scheduling a project by C.P.M.
(A) A project is divided into various activities
(B) Required time for each activity is established
(C) Net work is drawn by connecting the activities and the events
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 111
Slack time refers to
(A) An activity
(B) An event
(C) Both event and activity
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 112

Final technical authority of a project lies with
(A) Assistant Engineer
(B) Executive Engineer
(C) Superintending Engineer
(D) Chief Engineer
Answer: Option D

Question No. 113

Whenever an activity has zero total float, then
(A) Free float of the activity must be zero but independent float need not be zero
(B) Independent float must be zero but free float need not be zero
(C) Free float and independent float both must be zero
(D) Free float and independent float both need not be zero
Answer: Option C

Question No. 114

Mile Stone charts were invented in the year of
(A) 1910
(B) 1920
(C) 1930
(D) 1940
Answer: Option D

Question No. 115

Which of the following is not a PERT event?
(A) Site investigation started
(B) Sessional work completed
(C) Bus starts from Jaipur
(D) Class is being attended
Answer: Option D

Question No. 116

A construction schedule is prepared after collecting
(A) Number of operations
(B) Output of labour
(C) Output of machinery
 (D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 117

A tractor whose weight is 20 tonnes has a drawbar pull of 2500 kg, when operated on a level road
having a rolling resistance of 30 kg per tonne. If this tractor is operated on a level road having a
rolling resistance of 40 kg per tonne, then the drawbar pull of the tractor will
(A) Reduce by 200 kg
(B) Increase by 200 kg
(C) Increase by 250 kg
(D) Reduce by 250 kg
Answer: Option A

Question No. 118

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The difference of latest occurrence time and earliest expected time, is called slack
(B) The activities connecting the events having zero slack, lie on the critical path
(C) The critical path consumes the maximum time
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 119

In India, are prefabricated components costlier than those of traditional cast-in-situ items that the
prefabricated components replace?
(A) Yes, because of heavier overheads and handling cost
(B) Yes, because of the very high order of quality control for the factory made components
(C) No, because of repetitive manufacture of a number of elements
(D) No, because of savings in site labour
Answer: Option C

Question No. 120

Frequency distribution curves
(A) Having a single lump, are called uninodal curves
(B) If symmetrical, are called normal curves
(C) If not symmetrical, are called skew curves
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 121

Consider the following statements:
Wheeled tractors are replacing crawler tractors because
1. Wheeled tractors travel faster.
2. Crawler tractors are more expensive.
3. Track parts of a crawler wear out quickly.
4. Crawler tractors have stick control.
 Of these statements
(A) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(B) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(C) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(D) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
Answer: Option C

Question No. 122

The difference between the time avail-to do a job and the time required to do the job, is known as
(A) Event
(B) Float
(C) Duration
(D) Constraint
Answer: Option B

Question No. 123

The grade resistance factor for an earth moving machine can be obtained by multiplying grade
percentage by a factor approximately equal to
(A) 2 kg/tonne
(B) 6 kg/tonne
(C) 9 kg/tonne
(D) 20 kg/tonne
Answer: Option C

Question No. 124

A dummy activity
(A) Is artificially introduced
(B) Is represented by a dotted line
(C) Does not consume time
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 125

The reduction in project time normally results in
(A) Decreasing the direct cost and increasing indirect cost
(B) Increasing the direct cost and decreasing the indirect cost
(C) Increasing the direct cost and indirect cost both
(D) Decreasing the direct cost and indirect cost both
Answer: Option B

Question No. 126

Frederick W. Taylor introduced a system of working known as
(A) Line organisation
(B) Line and staff organisation
(C) Functional organisation
 (D) Effective organisation
Answer: Option C

Question No. 127

The area under the Beta distribution curve is divided into two equal parts by
(A) Most likely time
(B) Optimistic time
(C) Pessimistic time
(D) Expected time
Answer: Option D

Question No. 128

CPM is
(A) Synthesising in concepts
(B) Is built of activities oriented programme
(C) Is based on time estimate
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 129

A four wheel truck or whose operating weight is 12000 kg is pulled along a road having a rising
slope of 2% at a uniform speed. Assume grade resistance factor = 10 kg/tonne. The tension in the
tow cable is 720 kg. The rolling resistance of the road will be
(A) 20 kg/tonne
(B) 30 kg/tonne
(C) 40 kg/tonne
(D) 50 kg/tonne
Answer: Option C

Question No. 130

The Overall in-charge of an organisation at the site responsible for the execution of the works, is
(A) Executive Engineer
(B) Engineer
(C) Junior Engineer
(D) Assistant Engineer
Answer: Option B

Question No. 131

Consider the following features/factors:
1. Projects are of the non-repetitive type
2. Time required need not be known
3. Time required is known precisely
4. Events have been established for planning
5. Emphasis is given to activities of project
PERT is preferred for planning because of
 (A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 3, 4 and 5
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 5
Answer: Option A

Question No. 132

The first stage of a construction, is
(A) Preparation of estimate
(B) Survey of the site
(C) Initiation of proposal
(D) Preparation of tender
Answer: Option C

Question No. 133

Crash project duration is obtained by summing the
(A) Normal durations for all the activities
(B) Crash durations for all activities
(C) Crash durations for all the activities along the critical path obtained by taking into account
the normal duration for all the activities
(D) Crash durations for all the activities along the critical path obtained by taking into account
the crash duration for all the activities.
Answer: Option D

Question No. 134

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Forward pass is used for calculating earliest expected time
(B) Backward pass is used for calculating the latest occurrence time
(C) Maximum value of earliest expected time is used if there is more than one value of any
event
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 135

Sinking fund is
(A) The fund for rebuilding a structure when its economic life is over
(B) Raised to meet maintenance costs
(C) The total sum to be paid to the municipal authorities by the tenants
(D) A part of the money kept in reserve for providing additional structures and structural
modifications
Answer: Option A

Question No. 136

If a is the optimistic time, b is the pessimistic time and m is most likely time of an activity, the
expected time of the activity, is
 (A) (a + m + b)/6
(B) (a + 2m + b)/6
(C) (a + 4m + b)/6
(D) (a + 5m + b)/6
Answer: Option C

Question No. 137

Consider the following statements for a power shovel:
(i) Output can be increased by reducing the angle of swing for a given depth of cut.
(ii) For a given angle of swing, output will be maximum at optimum depth of cut.
(iii) Output can be increased by keeping the depth of cut less than optimum depth,
(iv) Output can be increased by increasing the size of shovel. Of these statements
(A) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(B) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(D) (i) and (iv) are correct
Answer: Option B

Question No. 138

If to, tp and tm are the optimistic, pessimistic and most likely time estimates of an activity
respectively, the expected time t of the activity will be
(A) to + 3tm+ tp/3
(B) to + 4tm+ tp/4
(C) to + 4tm+ tp/5
(D) to + 4tm+ tp/6
Answer: Option D

Question No. 139

The most suitable type of equipment for compaction of cohesive soils is
(A) Smooth-wheeled rollers
(B) Vibratory rollers
(C) Sheep foot rollers
(D) Tampers
Answer: Option C

Question No. 140

If the total float and duration of an activity are 5 and 10 days respectively, the particular activity
can be
(A) Started 5 days later
(B) Completed 5 days later
(C) Performed at slower rate in 15 days
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 141
Rolling resistance of a wheel depends upon
(i) Vehicle load
(ii) Grade
(iii) Ground conditions
Of these statements
(A) Only (i) is correct
(B) (i) and (ii) are correct
(C) (i) and (iii) are correct
(D) (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer: Option C

Question No. 142

A Milestone chart
(A) Shows the interdependencies of various jobs
(B) Depicts the delay of jobs, if any
(C) Points outgoing ahead of schedule of jobs, if any
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 143

Earliest finish of an activity is always
(A) Greater than earliest event time of the following node
(B) Less than earliest event time of the following node
(C) Less than or equal to earliest event time of the following node
(D) Greater than or equal to earliest event time of the following node
Answer: Option C

Question No. 144

Critical path lies along the activities having total float
(A) Positive
(B) Negative
(C) Zero
(D) Same
Answer: Option C

Question No. 145

If the scheduled completion time of a project is more than the earliest expected time for
completion of the project, then the probability of completion of the project within the scheduled
completion time will be
(A) 50 %
(B) Less than 50 %
(C) More than 50 %
(D) 100 %
Answer: Option C
Question No. 146
The critical activity has
(A) Maximum float
(B) Minimum float
(C) Zero float
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 147

For excavating utility trenches with precise control of depth, the excavation equipment used is
(A) Hoe
(B) Shovel
(C) Dragline
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 148

PERT analysis is based on
(A) Optimistic time
(B) Pessimistic time
(C) Most likely time
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 149

The most popular type of organisation used for Civil Engineering Constructions, is
(A) Line organisation
(B) Line and staff organisation
(C) Functional organisation
(D) Effective organisation
Answer: Option A

Question No. 150

The probability of completion of any activity within its expected time is
(A) 50 %
(B) 84.1 %
(C) 99.9 %
(D) 100 %
Answer: Option A

Question No. 151

The performance of a specific task in CPM, is known
(A) Dummy
(B) Event
(C) Activity
 (D) Contract
Answer: Option C

Question No. 152

Pre-tender stage requires
(A) Acquisition of land
(B) Selection of site
(C) Fmalisation of alignment of work
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 153

An event is indicated on the network by a number enclosed in
(A) A circle
(B) A square
(C) A triangle
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 154

Select the incorrect statement.
(A) A critical path always begins at the very first event.
(B) A critical path always terminates at the last event.
(C) Critical activities control the project duration.
(D) Critical activity is the one for which free float is zero.
Answer: Option D

Question No. 155

If t is the duration of an activity, t1 is the latest finish possible moment of its preceding activity
and t2 is the earliest start possible moment, the independent float of the activity is
(A) (t1 - t2) - t
(B) t - (t1 - t2)
(C) (t1 + t2) - t
(D) t + (t1 - t2)
Answer: Option A

Question No. 156

Free float for any activity is defined as the difference between
(A) Its earliest finish time and earliest start time for its successor activity
(B) Its latest start time and earliest start time
(C) Its latest finish time and earliest start time for its successor activity
(D) Its earliest finish time and latest start time for its successor activity
Answer: Option A
Question No. 157
In CPM analysis,
(A) Emphasis is given to activities
(B) Uncertainties are not allowed
(C) Activities are represented by arrows
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 158

The estimated time required to perform an activity, is known as
(A) Event
(B) Dummy
(C) Duration
(D) Float
Answer: Option C

Question No. 159

Critical Path Net Work helps an engineer
(A) To concentrate his attention on critical activities
(B) To divert the resources from non-critical advanced activities to critical activities
(C) To be cautious for avoiding any delay in the critical activities to avoid delay of the whole
project
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 160

B. If he decides to invest in A, for every rupee invested, he is assured of doubling his money in ten
years. If he decides to invest in B, he is assured of making his money 1.5 times in 5 years. If the
contractor values his money at 10% interest rate, he
(A) Should invest in neither of the two projects
(B) Could invest in either of the two projects
(C) Should invest in project A
(D) Should invest in project B
Answer: Option A

Question No. 161

Henry Gantt developed Bar charts for planning and scheduling of projects in
(A) 1880
(B) 1900
(C) 1920
(D) 1940
Answer: Option B
Question No. 162
If TL is the latest allowable event occurrence time, total activity slack(s), is equal to
(A) LST-EST
(B) LFT-EFT
(C) TL-EFT
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 163

Modular co-ordination of construction means proper
(A) Planning
(B) Designing
(C) Execution
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 164

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) CPM analysis is activity oriented
(B) PERT analysis is event oriented
(C) In CPM, the time is related to cost
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 165

The final selection of a construction site, is done by
(A) Departmental representative or user
(B) Local civil authority representative
(C) Representative of engineer authority
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 166

The main advantage of line organisation is:
(A) Effective command and control
(B) Rigid discipline in the organisation
(C) Defined responsibilities at all levels
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
 Concrete Technology and Design

Question No. 01
The temperature reinforcement in the vertical slab of a T-shaped R.C. retaining wall is
(A) Not needed
(B) Provided equally on inner and front faces
(C) Provided more on inner face than on front face
(D) Provided more on front face than on inner face
Answer: Option D

Question No. 02
Bulking of sand is maximum if moisture content is about
(A) 2 %
(B) 4 %
(C) 6 %
(D) 10 %
Answer: Option B

Question No. 03
Diagonal tension in a beam
(A) Is maximum at neutral axis
(B) Decreases below the neutral axis and increases above the neutral axis
(C) Increases below the neutral axis and decreases above the neutral axis
(D) Remains same
Answer: Option C

Question No. 04
According to IS: 4561978, the column or the strut is the member whose effective length is greater
than
(A) The least lateral dimension
(B) 2 times the least lateral dimension
(C) 3 times the least lateral dimension
(D) 4 times the least lateral dimension
Answer: Option C

Question No. 05
When shear stress exceeds the permissible limit in a slab, then it is reduced by
(A) Increasing the depth
(B) Providing shear reinforcement
(C) Using high strength steel
(D) Using thinner bars but more in number
Answer: Option A
Question No. 06
The diameter of ties in a column should be
(A) More than or equal to one fourth of diameter of main bar
(B) More than or equal to 5 mm
(C) More than 5 mm but less than one-fourth of diameter of main bar
(D) More than 5 mm and also more than one-fourth of diameter of main bar
Answer: Option D

Question No. 07
In counterfort retaining walls, the main reinforcement in the stem at support is
(A) Not provided
(B) Provided only on inner face
(C) Provided only on front face
(D) Provided both on inner and front faces
Answer: Option B

Question No. 08
Due to shrinkage stresses, a simply supported beam having reinforcement only at bottom tends to
(A) Deflect downward
(B) Deflect upward
(C) Deflect downward or upward
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 09
The purpose of reinforcement in pre-stressed concrete is
(A) To provide adequate bond stress
(B) To resist tensile stresses
(C) To impart initial compressive stress in concrete
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 10
Select the correct statement
(A) Elastic modulus of high tensile steel is nearly the same as that of mild steel
(B) Elastic modulus of high tensile steel is more than that of mild steel
(C) Carbon percentage in high carbon steel is less than that in mild steel
(D) High tensile steel is cheaper than mild steel
Answer: Option A

Question No. 11
To minimise the effect of differential settlement, the area of a footing should be designed for
(A) Dead load only
(B) Dead load + live load
(C) Dead load + fraction of live load
 (D) Live load + fraction of dead load
Answer: Option C

Question No. 12
Due to circumferential action of the spiral in a spirally reinforced column
(A) Capacity of column is decreased
(B) Ductility of column reduces
(C) Capacity of column is decreased but ductility of column increases
(D) Both the capacity of column and ductility of column increase
Answer: Option D

Question No. 13
For concreting of heavily reinforced sections without vibration, the workability of concrete
expressed as compacting factor should be
(A) 0.75 - 0.80
(B) 0.80 - 0.85
(C) 0.85 - 0.92
(D) Above 0.92
Answer: Option D

Question No. 14
Workability of concrete is directly proportional to
(A) Aggregate cement ratio
(B) Time of transit
(C) Grading of the aggregate
(D) All of above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 15
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(A) Minimum cross sectional area of longitudinal reinforcement in a column is 0.8%
(B) Spacing of longitudinal bars measured along the periphery of column should not exceed 300
mm
(C) Reinforcing bars in a column should not be less than 12 mm in diameter
(D) The number of longitudinal bars provided in a circular column should not be less than four
Answer: Option D

Question No. 16
Critical section for shear in case of flat slabs is at a distance of
(A) Effective depth of slab from periphery of column/drop panel
(B) d/2 from periphery of column/capital/ drop panel
(C) At the drop panel of slab
(D) At the periphery of column
Answer: Option B
Question No. 17
For road pavements, the cement generally used, is
(A) Ordinary Portland cement
(B) Rapid hardening cement
(C) Low heat cement
(D) Blast furnace slag cement
Answer: Option B

Question No. 18
Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) Space between the exterior walls of a warehouse and bag piles should be 30 cm
(B) Cement bags should preferably be piled on wooden planks
(C) Width and height of the pile should not exceed 3 m and 2.70 m respectively
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 19
For a slab supported on its four edges with corners held down and loaded uniformly, the Marcus
correction factor to the moments obtained by Grashoff Rankine's theory
(A) Is always less than 1
(B) Is always greater than 1
(C) Can be more than 1
(D) Can be less than 1
Answer: Option A

Question No. 20
Addition of pozzolana to ordinary port land cement, causes
(A) Decrease in early strength
(B) Reduction in chemical action with sulphates
(C) Increase in shrinkage
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 21
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The maximum size of a coarse aggregate, is 75 mm and minimum 4.75 mm
(B) The maximum size of the fine aggregate, is 4.75 mm and minimum 0.075 mm
(C) The material having particles of size varying from 0.06 mm to 0.002 mm, is known as silt
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 22
In a counterfort retaining wall, the main reinforcement is provided on the
(i) Bottom face in front counterfort
(ii) Inclined face in front counterfort
 (iii) Bottom face in back counterfort
(iv) Inclined face in back counterfort
The correct answer is
(A) (i) and (ii),
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i) and (iv)
(D) (iii) and (iv)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 23
For construction of structures in sea water, the cement generally preferred to, is
(A) Portland-pozzolana cement
(B) Quick setting cement
(C) Low heat Portland cement
(D) Rapid hardening cement
Answer: Option A

Question No. 24
Curing of pavements, floors, roofs and slabs, is done by
(A) Membrane method
(B) Ponding method
(C) Covering surface with bags
(D) Sprinkling water method
Answer: Option B

Question No. 25
The centroid of compressive force, from the extreme compression fiber, in limit state design lies at
a distance of
(A) 0.367 xu
(B) 0.416 xu
(C) 0.446 xu
(D) 0.573 xu
Where xu is the depth of neutral axis at the limit state of collapse
Answer: Option B

Question No. 26
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Construction joints are necessarily planned for their locations
(B) Expansion joints are provided to accommodate thermal expansion
(C) Construction joints are provided to control shrinkage cracks
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 27
The bulk density of aggregates, depends upon
 (A) Shape
(B) Grading
(C) Compaction
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 28
In symmetrically reinforced sections, shrinkage stresses in concrete and steel are respectively
(A) Compressive and tensile
(B) Tensile and compressive
(C) Both compressive
(D) Both tensile
Answer: Option B

Question No. 29
The main object of compaction of concrete, is:
(A) To eliminate air holes
(B) To achieve maximum density
(C) To provide intimate contact between the concrete and embedded materials
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 30
Which of the following has high tensile strength?
(A) Plain hot rolled wires
(B) Cold drawn wires
(C) Heat treated rolled wires
(D) All have same tensile strength
Answer: Option B

Question No. 31
Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) The degree of grinding of cement, is called fineness
(B) The process of changing cement paste into hard mass, is known as setting of cement
(C) The phenomenon by virtue of which cement does not allow transmission of sound, is known
as soundness of cement
(D) The heat generated during chemical reaction of cement with water, is known as heat of
hydration
Answer: Option C

Question No. 32
Concrete gains strength due to
(A) Chemical reaction of cement with sand and coarse aggregates
(B) Evaporation of water from concrete
(C) Hydration of cement
 (D) All the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 33
To determine the modulus of rupture, the size of test specimen used is
(A) 150 × 150 × 500 mm
(B) 100 × 100 × 700 mm
(C) 150 × 150 × 700 mm
(D) 100 × 100 × 500 mm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 34
Tricalcium aluminate (C3A)
(A) Reacts fast with water
(B) Generates less heat of hydration
(C) Causes initial setting and early strength of cement
(D) Does not contribute to develop ultimate strength
Answer: Option B

Question No. 35
If the various concrete ingredients i.e. cement, sand and aggregates are in the ratio of 1:3:6, the
grade of concrete, is
(A) M 100
(B) M 150
(C) M 200
(D) M 250
Answer: Option A

Question No. 36
Admixtures which cause early setting and hardening of concrete are called
(A) Workability admixtures
(B) Accelerators
(C) Retarders
(D) Air entraining agents
Answer: Option B

Question No. 37
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Sand stones may be divided into calcareous, siliceous and ferruginous sand stones
(B) Concrete using sand stones, cracks due to excessive shrinkage
(C) Broken bricks produce a concrete having good fire resisting qualities
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 38
Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) Admixtures accelerate hydration
(B) Admixtures make concrete water proof
(C) Admixtures make concrete acid proof
(D) Admixtures give high strength
Answer: Option A

Question No. 39
For a reinforced concrete section, the shape of shear stress diagram is
(A) Wholly parabolic
(B) Wholly rectangular
(C) Parabolic above neutral axis and rectangular below neutral axis
(D) Rectangular above neutral axis and parabolic below neutral axis
Answer: Option C

Question No. 40
Allowable shear strength of concrete, depends upon
(A) Shear strength
(B) Tensile strength
(C) Compressive strength
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 41
In slump test, each layer of concrete is compacted by a steel rod 60 cm long and of 16 mm
diameter for
(A) 20 times
(B) 25 times
(C) 30 times
(D) 50 times
Answer: Option B

Question No. 42
The individual variation between test strength of sample should not be more than
(A) ±5 % of average
(B) ± 10 % of average
(C) ± 15 % of average
(D) ±20 % of average
Answer: Option C

Question No. 43
Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. For performing compressive strength test of
cement
(A) Cement and standard sand mortar are used in the ratio of 1 : 3
 (B) Water is added at the rate of (P/4) + 3.0 percentage of water where P is the percentage of
water for standard consistency
(C) A cube mould of 10 cm × 10 cm × 10 cm is used
(D) The prepared moulds are kept in a atmosphere of 50% relative humidity
Answer: Option A

Question No. 44
Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) Concrete for which preliminary tests are conducted, is called controlled concrete
(B) Bulking of sand depends upon the fineness of grains
(C) Concrete mix 1 : 6 : 12, is used for mass concrete in piers
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 45
The slab is designed as one way if the ratio of long span to short span is
(A) Less than 1
(B) Between 1 and 1.5
(C) Between 1.5 and 2
(D) Greater than 2
Answer: Option D

Question No. 46
For the construction of cement concrete dams, the maximum permissible size of the aggregates, is
(A) 40 mm
(B) 50 mm
(C) 60 mm
(D) 70 mm
Answer: Option A

Question No. 47
Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) With passage of time, the strength of cement increases
(B) With passage of time, the strength of cement decreases
(C) After a period of 24 months, the strength of cement reduces to 50%
(D) The concrete made with storage deteriorated cement, gains strength with time
Answer: Option A

Question No. 48
The load carrying capacity of a helically reinforced column as compared to that of a tied column is
about
(A) 5 % less
(B) 10 % less
(C) 5 % more
(D) 10 % more
 Answer: Option C

Question No. 49
To hydrate 500kg of cement full water needed, is
(A) 100 kg
(B) 110 kg
(C) 120 kg
(D) 130 kg
Answer: Option D

Question No. 50
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) A highly absorptive aggregate reduces the workability of concrete considerably
(B) The specific gravity of aggregate is important for the determination of the moisture content
(C) The absorption and porosity of an aggregate influence the property of the concrete
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 51
In a counterfort retaining wall, the main reinforcement in the stem at mid span is provided on
(A) Front face only
(B) Inner face only
(C) Both front face and inner face
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 52
Under normal conditions using an ordinary cement, the period of removal of the form work, is:
(A) 7 days for beam soffits
(B) 14 days for bottom slabs of spans 4.6 m and more
(C) 21 days for bottom beams over 6 m spans
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 53
Water cement ratio is generally expressed in volume of water required per
(A) 10 kg
(B) 20 kg
(C) 30 kg
(D) 50 kg
Answer: Option D

Question No. 54
The minimum cover in a slab should neither be less than the diameter of bar nor less than
(A) 10 mm
 (B) 15 mm
(C) 25 mm
(D) 13 mm
Answer: Option B

Question No. 55
To ensure constant moisture content in aggregates
(A) Area of each aggregate pile should be large
(B) Height of each aggregate pile should not exceed 1.50 m
(C) Aggregate pile should be left for 24 hours before aggregates are used
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 56
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Cement should be mixed for at least one minute
(B) 10% of water is placed in the rotating drum before adding dry material
(C) 10% of water is added after placing the other ingredients in the drum
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 57
The average permissible stress in bond for plain bars in tension is
(A) Increased by 10% for bars in compression
(B) Increased by 25% for bars in compression
(C) Decreased by 10% for bars in compression
(D) Decreased by 25% for bars in compression
Answer: Option B

Question No. 58
Concrete mainly consists of
(A) Cement
(B) Aggregates
(C) Water
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 59
For the construction of thin R.C.C. structures, the type of cement to be avoided, is
(A) Ordinary Portland cement
(B) Rapid hardening cement
(C) Low heat cement
(D) Blast furnace slag cement
Answer: Option D
Question No. 60
Which of the following R.C. retaining walls is suitable for heights beyond 6 m?
(A) L-shaped wall
(B) T-shaped wall
(C) Counterfort type
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 61
For batching 1:3:6 concrete mix by volume, the ingredients required per bag of 50 kg cement, are:
(A) 70 litres of sand and 120 litres of aggregates
(B) 70 kg of sand and 140 litres of aggregates
(C) 105 litres of sand and 140 litres of aggregates
(D) 105 litres of sand and 210 litres of aggregates
Answer: Option D

Question No. 62
A concrete using an air entrained cement
(A) Has strength less than 10% to 15%
(B) Has more resistance to weathering
(C) Is more plastic and workable
(D) Is free from segregation and bleeding
Answer: Option C

Question No. 63
In the design of a front counterfort in a counterfort retaining wall, the main reinforcement is
provided on
(i) Bottom face near counterfort
(ii) Top face near counterfort
(iii) Bottom face near centre of span
(iv) Top face near centre of span
The correct answer is
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Both (i) and (iv)
(D) Both (ii) and (iii)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 64
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Segregation is necessary for a workable concrete
(B) Consistency does not affect the workability of concrete
(C) If the concrete mix is dry, the slump is maximum
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 65
The surface where two successive placements of concrete meet, is known as
(A) Contraction joint
(B) Expansion joint
(C) Construction joint
(D) Both (a) and (b)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 66
A beam curved in plan is designed for
(A) Bending moment and shear
(B) Bending moment and torsion
(C) Shear and torsion
(D) Bending moment, shear and torsion
Answer: Option D

Question No. 67
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Water cement paste hardens due to hydration
(B) During hardening cement binds the aggregates together
(C) Cement provides strength, durability and water tightness to the concrete
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 68
'Ware house pack' of cement means
(A) Full capacity of the ware house
(B) Pressure exertion of the bags of upper layers
(C) Pressure compaction of the bags on lower layers
(D) Packing the ware house
Answer: Option C

Question No. 69
High carbon content in the steel causes
(A) Decrease in tensile strength but increase in ductility
(B) Increase in tensile strength but decrease in ductility
(C) Decrease in both tensile strength and ductility
(D) Increase in both tensile strength and ductility
Answer: Option B

Question No. 70
If the engineer-in-charge approves, the 10 cm cubes may be used for the work test of concrete
provided maximum nominal size of aggregate, does not exceed
(A) 10 cm
(B) 15 cm
 (C) 20 cm
(D) 25 cm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 71
Particles of 0.002 mm size are that of
(A) Clay
(B) Sand
(C) Gravel
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 72
Ultimate strength of cold drawn high steel wires
(A) Increases with increase in diameter of bar
(B) Decreases with increase in diameter of bar
(C) Does not depend on diameter of bar
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 73
The cement whose strength is a little lower than the ordinary cement during the first three
months but attains afterwards the same strength, is known as
(A) Low-heat Portland cement
(B) Rapid hardening Portland cement
(C) Portland blast slag cement
(D) Portland pozzolana cement
Answer: Option A

Question No. 74
The dimensions of a 35 litre forma for measuring aggregates by volume, are:
(A) length 30 cm, breadth 25 cm, height 30 cm
(B) length 39 cm, breadth 25 cm, height 32 cm
(C) length 27 cm, breadth 27 cm, height 48 cm
(D) length 220 cm, breadth 25 cm, height 40 cm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 75
Ratio of permissible stress in direct compression and bending compression is
(A) Less than 1
(B) Between 1 and 1.5
(C) Between 1.5 and 2.0
(D) Greater than 2
Answer: Option A
Question No. 76
Concrete containing
(A) Siliceous aggregates, has higher co-efficient of expansion
(B) Igneous aggregates, has intermediate coefficient of expansion
(C) Lime stones, has lowest co-efficient of expansion
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 77
The lower water cement ratio in concrete, introduces
(A) Smaller creep and shrinkage
(B) Greater density and smaller permeability
(C) Improved frost resistance
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 78
In T-shaped R C. retaining walls, the main reinforcement in the stem is provided on
(A) The front face in one direction
(B) The front face in both directions
(C) The inner face in one direction
(D) The inner face in both directions
Answer: Option C

Question No. 79
The aggregate containing moisture in pores and having its surface dry, is known as
(A) Moist aggregates
(B) Very dry aggregates
(C) Dry aggregates
(D) Saturated surface dry aggregate
Answer: Option D

Question No. 80
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Construction joints in columns are provided a few cm below the junction of beam
(B) Construction joints in columns are provided at the bottom hunching
(C) Construction joints in beams and slabs are provided within middle third
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 81
According to ISI recommendations, the maximum depth of stress block for balanced section of a
beam of effective depth d is
(A) 0.43 d
(B) 0.55 d
 (C) 0.68 d
(D) 0.85 d
Answer: Option A

Question No. 82
Pick up the correct proportions of chemical ingredients of cement
(A) Lime : Silica : Alumina : Iron oxide : 63 : 22 : 6 : 3
(B) Silica : Lime : Alumina : Iron oxide : 63 : 22 : 6 : 3
(C) Alumina : Silica : Lime : Iron oxide : 63 : 22 : 6 : 3
(D) Iron oxide : Alumina : Silica : Lime : 63 : 22 : 6 : 3
Answer: Option A

Question No. 83
Internal friction between the ingredients of concrete, is decreased by using
(A) Less water
(B) Fine aggregates
(C) Rich mix
(D) More water and coarse aggregates
Answer: Option D

Question No. 84
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The quality of water governs the strength of concrete
(B) 10% excess of water reduces the strength of concrete by 15%
(C) 30% excess of water reduces the strength of concrete by 50%
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 85
In pre-stressed concrete
(A) Forces of tension and compression change but lever arm remains unchanged
(B) Forces of tension and compressions remain unchanged but lever arm changes with the
moment
(C) Both forces of tension and compression as well as lever arm change
(D) Both forces of tension and compression as well as lever arm remain unchanged
Answer: Option B

Question No. 86
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Lime in excess, causes the cement to expand and disintegrate
(B) Silica in excess, causes the cement to set slowly
(C) Alumina in excess, reduces the strength of the cement
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 87
If the effective plan area of a warehouse is 54 sq. m, and maximum height of piles permitted is 270
cm, the number of cement bags to be stored, is
(A) 2000 bags
(B) 2200 bags
(C) 2400 bags
(D) 2700 bags
Answer: Option D

Question No. 88
The property of fresh concrete, in which the water in the mix tends to rise to the surface while
placing and compacting, is called
(A) Segregation
(B) Bleeding
(C) Bulking
(D) Creep
Answer: Option B

Question No. 89
Workability of concrete for a given water content is good if the aggregates, are
(A) Rounded aggregate
(B) Irregular aggregate
(C) Angular aggregate
(D) Flaky aggregates
Answer: Option A

Question No. 90
For preparing ordinary concrete, the quantity of water used, is
(A) 5% by weight of aggregates plus 20% of weight of cement
(B) 10% by weight of aggregates plus 10% of weight of cement
(C) 5% by weight of aggregates plus 30% of weight of cement
(D) 30% by weight of aggregates plus 10% of weight of cement
Answer: Option C

Question No. 91
Finer grinding of cement
(A) Affects only the early development of strength
(B) Affects only the ultimate strength
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Does not affect the strength
Answer: Option A

Question No. 92
The light weight aggregates are obtained from
(A) Sedimentary rocks
 (B) Metamorphic rocks
(C) Igneous rocks
(D) Volcanic source
Answer: Option D

Question No. 93
The aggregate impact value of the aggregate used in
(A) Building concrete is less than 45
(B) Road pavement concrete is less than 30
(C) Runway concrete is less than 30
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 94
For walls, columns and vertical faces of all structural members, the form work is generally
removed after
(A) 24 to 48 hours
(B) 3 days
(C) 7 days
(D) 14 days
Answer: Option A

Question No. 95
Efflorescence in cement is caused due to an excess of
(A) Alumina
(B) Iron oxide
(C) Silica
(D) Alkalis
Answer: Option D

Question No. 96
For given workability the grading requiring the least amount of water is one that gives
(A) Greatest surface area for the given cement and aggregates
(B) Least surface area for the given cement and aggregates
(C) Least weight for the given cement and aggregates
(D) Greatest weight for the given cement and aggregates
Answer: Option A

Question No. 97
Minimum pitch of transverse reinforcement in a column is
(A) The least lateral dimension of the member
(B) Sixteen times the smallest diameter of longitudinal reinforcement bar to be tied
(C) Forty-eight times the diameter of transverse reinforcement
(D) Lesser of the above three values
Answer: Option D
Question No. 98
Pick up the incorrect statement applicable to the field test of good cement.
(A) When one thrusts one's hand into a bag of cement, one should feel warm
(B) The colour of the cement is bluish
(C) By rubbing cement in between fingers, one should feed rough
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 99
An aggregate is known as cyclopean aggregate if its size is more than
(A) 4.75 mm
(B) 30 mm
(C) 60 mm
(D) 75 mm
Answer: Option D

Question No. 100

In counterfort type retaining walls
(i) The vertical slab is designed as a continuous slab
(ii) The heel slab is designed as a continuous slab
(iii) The vertical slab is designed as a cantilever
(iv) The heel slab is designed as a cantilever
The correct answer is
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i)and(iv)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (iii) and (iv)
Answer: Option A

Question No. 101

Workability of concrete mix with low water cement ratio is determined by
(A) Tensile strength test
(B) Slump test
(C) Compaction factor test
(D) Flexural strength test
Answer: Option C

Question No. 102

If the average compressive strength is 4000 kg/cm2 and standard deviation is 500, the co-efficient
of variation is
(A) 10 %
(B) 12.5 %
(C) 15 %
(D) 18.5 %
Answer: Option B
Question No. 103
The effect of creep on modular ratio is
(A) To decrease it
(B) To increase it
(C) Either to decrease or to increase it
(D) To keep it unchanged
Answer: Option B

Question No. 104

The type of aggregates not suitable for high strength concrete and for pavements subjected to
tension, is
(A) Rounded aggregate
(B) Irregular aggregate
(C) Angular aggregate
(D) Flaky aggregate
Answer: Option A

Question No. 105

The maximum percentage of chemical ingredient of cement is that of
(A) Magnesium oxide
(B) Iron oxide
(C) Silica
(D) Lime
Answer: Option D

Question No. 106

Select the incorrect statement
(A) The loss of pre-stress is more in pre-tensioning system than in post-tensioning system.
(B) Pre-tensioning system has greater certainty about its durability.
(C) For heavy loads and large spans in buildings or bridges, post-tensioning system is cheaper
than pre-tensioning system
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 107

The commercial name of white and coloured cement in India, is
(A) Colorcrete
(B) Silvicrete
(C) Snowcem
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 108

An excess of flaky particles in concrete aggregates
(A) Decreases the workability
 (B) Increases the quantity of water and sand
(C) More than 15% are not desirable
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 109

Increase in the moisture content in concrete
(A) Reduces the strength
(B) Increases the strength
(C) Does not change the strength
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 110

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) High percentage of C3S and low percentage of C2S cause rapid hardening
(B) High percentage of C3S and low percentage of C2S make the cement less resistive to chemical
attack
(C) Low percentage of C3S and high percentage of C2S contribute to slow hardening
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 111

The 28 days cube strength of mass concrete using aggregates of maximum size 5 cm for gravity
dams should be
(A) Between 150 to 300 kg/cm2
(B) Between 350 to 600 kg/cm2
(C) Between 150 to 500 kg/cm2
(D) Below 200 kg/cm2
Answer: Option D

Question No. 112

Select the incorrect statement
(A) Lean mixes bleed more as compared to rich ones.
(B) Bleeding can be minimized by adding pozzolana finer aggregate
(C) Bleeding can be increased by addition 'of calcium chloride
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 113

Permissible compressive strength of M 150 concrete grade is
(A) 100 kg/cm2
(B) 150 kg/cm2
(C) 200 kg/cm2
(D) 250 kg/cm2
 Answer: Option C

Question No. 114

Cement used for normal concrete construction, is obtained by burning a mixture of
(A) Siliceous and argillaceous materials
(B) Argillaceous and calcareous materials
(C) Siliceous and calcareous materials
(D) Siliceous, argillaceous and calcareous materials
Answer: Option D

Question No. 115

As compared to ordinary Portland cement, high alumina cement has
(A) Higher initial setting time but lower final setting time
(B) Lower initial setting time but higher final setting time
(C) Higher initial and final setting times
(D) Lower initial and final setting times
Answer: Option A

Question No. 116

The maximum amount of dust which may be permitted in aggregates is
(A) 5% of the total aggregates for low workability with a coarse grading
(B) 10% of the total aggregates for low workability with a fine grading
(C) 20% of the total aggregates for a mix having high workability with fine grading
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 117

If P, Y and Z are the weights of cement, fine aggregates and coarse aggregates respectively and
W/C is the water cement ratio, the minimum quantity of water to be added to first batch, is
obtained by the equation
(A) 0.1P + 0.3Y + 0.1Z = W/C × P
(B) 0.3P + 0.1Y + 0.01Z = W/C × P
(C) 0.4P + 0.2Y + 0.01Z = W/C × P
(D) 0.5P + 0.3Y + 0.01Z = W/C × P
Answer: Option B

Question No. 118

Examine the following statements:
(i) Factor of safety for steel should be based on its yield stress,
(ii) Factor of safety for steel should be based on its ultimate stress,
(iii) Factor of safety for concrete should be based on its yield stress,
(iv) Factor of safety for concrete should be based on its ultimate stress.
The correct statements are
(A) (i) and (iii)
(B) (i) and (iv)
 (C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (ii) and (iv)
Answer: Option B

Question No. 119

If 20 kg of coarse aggregate is sieved through 80 mm, 40 mm, 20 mm, 10 mm, 4.75 mm, 2.36 mm,
1.18 mm, 600 micron, 300 micron and 150 micron standard sieves and the weights retained are 0
kg, 2 kg, 8 kg, 6 kg, 4 kg respectively, the fineness modulus of the aggregate, is
(A) 7.30
(B) 7.35
(C) 7.40
(D) 7.45
Answer: Option C

Question No. 120

Bulking of sand is
(A) Mixing of different sizes of sand particles
(B) Mixing of lime with sand
(C) Maximum water with sand
(D) Swelling of sand when wetted
Answer: Option D

Question No. 121

For a longitudinal reinforcing bar in a column, the minimum cover shall neither be less than the
diameter of bar nor less than
(A) 15 mm
(B) 25 mm
(C) 30 mm
(D) 40 mm
Answer: Option D

Question No. 122

Workability of concrete is measured by
(A) Vicat apparatus test
(B) Slump test
(C) Minimum void method
(D) Talbot Richard test
Answer: Option B

Question No. 123

The size of fine aggregates does not exceed
(A) 2.75 mm
(B) 3.00 mm
(C) 3.75 mm
(D) 4.75 mm
 Answer: Option D

Question No. 124

The main reason for providing number of reinforcing bars at a support in a simply supported beam
is to resist in that zone
(A) Compressive stress
(B) Shear stress
(C) Bond stress
(D) Tensile stress
Answer: Option C

Question No. 125

Hardening of cement occurs at
(A) Rapid rate during the first few days and afterwards it continues to increase at a decreased
rate
(B) Slow rate during the first few days and afterwards it continues to increase at a rapid rate
(C) Uniform rate throughout its age
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 126

The entrained air in concrete
(A) Increases workability
(B) Decreases workability
(C) Decreases resistance to weathering
(D) Increases strength
Answer: Option A

Question No. 127

According to IS: 4561978, the flexural strength of concrete is
(A) Directly proportional to compressive strength
(B) Inversely proportional to compressive strength
(C) Directly proportional to square root of compressive strength
(D) Inversely proportional to square root of compressive strength
Answer: Option C

Question No. 128

Slump test is done for
(A) Clay
(B) Sand
(C) Lime
(D) Concrete
Answer: Option D
Question No. 129
Di-calcium silicate (C2S)
(A) Hydrates rapidly
(B) Generates less heat of hydration
(C) Hardens rapidly
(D) Provides less ultimate strength to cement
Answer: Option B

Question No. 130

The limits of percentage p of the longitudinal reinforcement in a column is given by
(A) 0.15% to 2%
(B) 0.8% to 4%
(C) 0.8% to 6%
(D) 0.8% to 8%
Answer: Option C

Question No. 131

The risk of segregation is more for
(A) Wetter mix
(B) Larger proportion of maximum size aggregate
(C) Coarser grading
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 132

Le-Chatelier's apparatus is used for testing
(A) Soundness of cement
(B) Hardness of cement
(C) Strength of cement
(D) Durability of cement
Answer: Option A

Question No. 133

According to Whitney's theory, depth of stress block for a balanced section of a concrete beam is
limited to
(A) 0.43 d
(B) 0.537 d
(C) 0.68 d
(D) 0.85 d
Where d is effective depth of beam
Answer: Option B

Question No. 134

Construction joints are generally provided in concrete
(A) Roads
 (B) Retaining walls
(C) Lining of canals
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 135

If a grading curve is horizontal between the portions of 20 mm I.S. Sieve and 4.75 mm I.S. Sieve,
the graded aggregates do not contain
(A) 20 mm particles
(B) 10 mm particles
(C) 4.75 mm particles
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 136

Most common method of pre-stressing used for factory production is
(A) Long line method
(B) Freyssinet system
(C) Magnel-Blaton system
(D) Lee-Macall system
Answer: Option A

Question No. 137

C.R.R.I. charts are used to obtain a relationship between strength of concrete and
(A) Water cement ratio
(B) Workability
(C) Grading of aggregate
(D) Fineness modulus
Answer: Option A

Question No. 138

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Sand obtained from pits, is washed to remove clay and silt
(B) Sand obtained from flooded pits, need not be washed before use
(C) The chloride in sea shore sand and shingle may cause corrosion of reinforcement if the
concrete is porous
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 139

For the design of retaining walls, the minimum factor of safety against overturning is taken as
(A) 1.5
(B) 2.0
(C) 2.5
(D) 3.0
 Answer: Option B

Question No. 140

If the depth of moist sand in a cylinder is 15 cm and the depth of the sand when fully inundated
with water is 12 cm, the bulking of the moist sand, is
(A) 10 %
(B) 12 %
(C) 15 %
(D) 25 %
Answer: Option D

Question No. 141

If aggregates completely pass through a sieve of size 75 mm and are retained on a sieve of size 60
mm, the particular aggregate will be flaky if its minimum dimension is less than
(A) 20.5 mm
(B) 30.5 mm
(C) 40.5 mm
(D) 50.5 mm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 142

If the foundations of all the columns of a structure are designed on the total live and dead load
basis, then
(A) There will be no settlement of columns
(B) There will be no differential settlement
(C) The settlement of exterior columns will be more than interior columns
(D) The settlement of interior columns will be more than exterior columns
Answer: Option C

Question No. 143

Saw dust can be rendered chemically inert by boiling it in water containing
(A) Ferrous sulphate
(B) Potassium chloride
(C) Ammonia
(D) Nitric acid
Answer: Option A

Question No. 144

A concrete having a slump of 6.5 cm, is said to be
(A) Dry
(B) Earth moist
(C) Semi-plastic
(D) Plastic
Answer: Option D
Question No. 145
Shrinkage of concrete depends upon
(i) Humidity of atmosphere
(ii) Passage of time
(iii) Stress
The correct answer is
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) Only (iii)
(D) All (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer: Option A

Question No. 146

To obtain a very high strength concrete, use very fine grained
(A) Granite
(B) Magnetite
(C) Barite
(D) Volcanic scoria
Answer: Option A

Question No. 147

Vicat apparatus is used for
(A) Fineness test
(B) Consistency test
(C) Test for setting time
(D) Test for tensile strength
Answer: Option B

Question No. 148

Which of the following losses of pre-stress occurs only in pre-tensioning and not in post-
tensioning?
(A) Elastic shortening of concrete
(B) Shrinkage of concrete
(C) Creep of concrete
(D) Loss due to friction
Answer: Option A

Question No. 149

The type of aggregates of same nominal size, which contain less voids when compacted, are
(A) Rounded spherical
(B) Irregular
(C) Flaky
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 150
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Continuous grading is not necessary for obtaining a minimum of air voids
(B) The omission of a certain size of aggregate is shown by a straight horizontal line on the
grading curve
(C) The omission of a certain size of aggregate in concrete increases the workability but also
increases the liability to segregation
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 151

Pre-stress loss due to friction occurs
(A) Only in post-tensioned beams
(B) Only in pre-tensioned beams
(C) In both post-tensioned and pre-tensioned beams
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 152

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) An increase in water content must be accompanied by an increase in cement content
(B) Angular and rough aggregates reduce the workability of the concrete
(C) The slump of the concrete mix decreases due to an increase in temperature
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 153

In the method of voids for determination of the quantity of cement paste, it is assumed that
(A) Voids in coarse aggregates are filled by fine aggregates
(B) Voids in fine aggregates are filled by the cement paste
(C) Volume of fine aggregates is equal to total voids in coarse aggregates plus 10% extra
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 154

As compared to ordinary Portland cement, use of pozzolana cement
(A) Reduces workability
(B) Increases bleeding
(C) Increases shrinkage
(D) Increases strength
Answer: Option C

Question No. 155

The following proportion of the ingredients of concrete mix, is not in conformation to arbitrary
method of proportioning
 (A) 1 : 1 : 2
(B) 1 : 2 : 4
(C) 1 : 3 : 6
(D) 1 : 4 : 10
Answer: Option D

Question No. 156

The strength and quality of concrete, depend upon:
(A) Grading of aggregates
(B) Surface area of aggregates
(C) Shape of aggregates
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 157

The factor of safety for
(A) Steel and concrete are same
(B) Steel is lower than that for concrete
(C) Steel is higher than that for concrete
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 158

The preliminary test is repeated if the difference of compressive strength of three test specimens,
exceeds
(A) 5 kg/cm2
(B) 8 kg/cm2
(C) 10 kg/cm2
(D) 15 kg/cm2
Answer: Option D

Question No. 159

Setting time of cement increases by adding
(A) Gypsum
(B) Hydrogen peroxide
(C) Calcium chloride
(D) Sodium oxide
Answer: Option A

Question No. 160

According to IS: 4561978, the maximum reinforcement in a column is
(A) 2 %
(B) 4 %
(C) 6 %
(D) 8 %
 Answer: Option C

Question No. 161

According to the recommendations of IS : 456-1978, the expansion joints
(A) Are provided where plane changes abruptly
(B) Are provided to ensure minimum resistance
(C) Do not carry reinforcement across them
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 162

The impurity of mixing water which affects the setting time and strength of concrete, is
(A) Sodium sulphates
(B) Sodium chlorides
(C) Sodium carbonates and bicarbonates
(D) Calcium bicarbonates
Answer: Option C

Question No. 163

If the size of panel in a flat slab is 6 m × 6 m, then as per Indian Standard Code, the widths of
column strip and middle strip are
(A) 3.0 m and 1.5 m
(B) 1.5 m and 3.0 m
(C) 3.0 m and 3.0 m
(D) 1.5 m and 1.5 m
Answer: Option C

Question No. 164

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) The bottom and top ends of slump mould are parallel to each other
(B) The axis of the mould is perpendicular to the end faces
(C) The internal surface of the mould is kept clean and free from set cement
(D) The mould is in the form of a frustum of hexagonal pyramid
Answer: Option D

Question No. 165

The concrete mix which causes difficulty in obtaining a smooth finish, possess
(A) Segregation
(B) Internal friction
(C) Hardness
(D) Bleeding
Answer: Option C

Question No. 166

While designing the pile as a column, the end conditions are nearly
 (A) Both ends hinged
(B) Both ends fixed
(C) One end fixed and other end hinged
(D) One end fixed and other end free
Answer: Option C

Question No. 167

The internal dimensions of a ware house are 15 m × 5.6 m, and the maximum height of piles is
2.70 m, the maximum number of bags to be stored in two piles, are
(A) 1500 bags
(B) 2000 bags
(C) 2500 bags
(D) 3000 bags
Answer: Option D

Question No. 168

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. While performing preliminary test on concrete
(A) Proportions of the material and water should be the same as to be used at the work site
(B) Cement should be mixed by hand in order to maintain uniformity
(C) Concrete mix should be stored in air-tight containers
(D) Concrete ingredients should be kept at a temperature of 37° ± 2°C
Answer: Option D

Question No. 169

In a spherical dome the hoop stress due to a concentrated load at crown is
(A) Compressive everywhere
(B) Tensile everywhere
(C) Partly compressive and partly tensile
(D) Zero
Answer: Option B

Question No. 170

I.S. Sieve Nos. 10 mm and 4.75 mm are generally used for grading of
(A) Coarse aggregates
(B) Fine aggregates
(C) Neither (a) nor (b)
(D) Both (a) and (b)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 171

Log Angles machine is used to test the aggregate for
(A) Crushing strength
(B) Impact value
(C) Abrasion resistance
(D) Water absorption
 Answer: Option C

Question No. 172

The property of the ingredients to separate from each other while placing the concrete is called
(A) Segregation
(B) Compaction
(C) Shrinkage
(D) Bulking
Answer: Option A

Question No. 173

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Higher workability indicates unexpected increase in the moisture content
(B) Higher workability indicates deficiency of sand
(C) If the concrete mix is dry, the slump is zero
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 174

The process of mixing, transporting, placing and compacting concrete using Ordinary Port land
Cement should not take more than
(A) 30 minutes
(B) 40 minutes
(C) 60 minutes
(D) 90 minutes
Answer: Option A

Question No. 175

The strength of concrete after one year as compared to 28 days strength is about
(A) 10 to 15% more
(B) 15 to 20% more
(C) 20 to 25% more
(D) 25 to 50% more
Answer: Option C

Question No. 176

Specified compressive strength of concrete is obtained from cube tests at the end of
(A) 3 days
(B) 7 days
(C) 21 days
(D) 28 days
Answer: Option D

Question No. 177

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
 (A) Tricalcium silicate (C3S) hydrates rapidly
(B) Tricalcium silicate (C3S) generates more heat of hydration
(C) Tricalcium silicate (C3S) develops early strength
(D) Tricalcium silicate (C3S) has more resistance to sulphate attack
Answer: Option D

Question No. 178

If the permissible stress in steel in tension is 140 N/mm², then the depth of neutral axis for a singly
reinforced rectangular balanced section will be
(A) 0.35 d
(B) 0.40 d
(C) 0.45 d
(D) Dependent on grade of concrete also
Answer: Option B

Question No. 179

A construction joint is provided where
(A) Bending moment is small
(B) Shear force is small
(C) The member is supported by other member
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 180

Sand generally contains salt if it is obtained from:
(A) Nala beds
(B) River beds
(C) Sea beds
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 181

According to IS: 4561978, minimum slenderness ratio for a short column is
(A) Less than 12
(B) Less than 18
(C) Between 18 and 24
(D) More than 24
Answer: Option A

Question No. 182

Water cement ratio is
(A) Volume of water to that of cement
(B) Weight of water to that of cement
(C) Weight of concrete to that of water
(D) Both (a) and (b) of the above
 Answer: Option D

Question No. 183

For a concrete mix 1:3:6 and water cement ratio 0.6 both by weight, the quantity of water
required per bag, is
(A) 10 kg
(B) 12 kg
(C) 14 kg
(D) 16 kg
Answer: Option C

Question No. 184

is the span)
(A) l/3
(B) l/5
(C) l/7
(D) l/10
Answer: Option C

Question No. 185

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) In properly graded aggregates, bulk density is more
(B) In single size aggregates, bulk density is least
(C) In single size aggregates, bulk density is maximum
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 186

To prevent segregation, the maximum height for placing concrete, is
(A) 100 cm
(B) 125 cm
(C) 150 cm
(D) 200 cm
Answer: Option A

Question No. 187

For a simply supported beam of span 15 m, the minimum effective depth to satisfy the vertical
deflection limits should be
(A) 600 mm
(B) 750 mm
(C) 900 mm
(D) More than 1 m
Answer: Option B
Question No. 188
For compacting plain concrete road surface of thickness less than 20 cm, we use
(A) Internal vibrator
(B) Screed vibrator
(C) Form vibrator
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 189

Expansion joints are provided if the length of concrete structures exceeds
(A) 10 m
(B) 15 m
(C) 15 m
(D) 45 m
Answer: Option D

Question No. 190

The permissible diagonal tensile stress in reinforced brick work is
(A) About 0.1 N/mm²
(B) Zero
(C) 0.3 N/mm² to 0.7 N/mm²
(D) About 1.0 N/mm²
Answer: Option A

Question No. 191

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) According to the petrological characteristics, concrete aggregates are classified as heavy
weight, normal weight and light weight
(B) According to the shape of the particles, concrete aggregates are classified as rounded
irregular, angular and flaky
(C) According to the surface texture of the particles, the concrete aggregates are classified as
glassy, smooth, granular, rough, crystalline, honey combed and porous
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 192

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The concrete gains strength due to hydration of cement
(B) The concrete does not set at freezing point
(C) The strength of concrete increases with its age
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 193
Separation of water or water sand cement from a freshly concrete, is known
(A) Bleeding
(B) Creeping
(C) Segregation
(D) Flooding
Answer: Option A

Question No. 194

The critical section for finding maximum bending moment for footing under masonry wall is
located
(A) At the middle of the wall
(B) At the edge of the wall
(C) Halfway between the middle and edge of the wall
(D) At a distance equal to effective depth of footing from the edge of the wall
Answer: Option C

Question No. 195

On a grading curve, the gap grading is represented by
(A) A horizontal line
(B) A vertical line
(C) N.W. inclined line
(D) N.E. inclined line
Answer: Option A

Question No. 196

Sinking of an intermediate support of a continuous beam
(i) Reduces the negative moment at support
(ii) Increases the negative moment at support
(iii) Reduces the positive moment at center of span
(iv) Increases the positive moment at center of span
The correct answer is
(A) (i) and (iii)
(B) (i) and (iv)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (ii) and (iv)
Answer: Option B

Question No. 197

High temperature
(A) Increases the strength of concrete
(B) Decreases the strength of concrete
(C) Has no effect on the strength of concrete
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 198
Horizontal construction joints in concrete walls are generally provided at
(A) Soffit level
(B) Window sill level
(C) Floor level
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 199

Stress strain curve of high tensile steel
(A) Has a definite yield point
(B) Does not show definite yield point but yield point is defined by 0.1% proof stress
(C) Does not show definite yield point but yield point is defined by 0.2% proof stress
(D) Does not show definite yield point but yield point is defined by 2% proof stress,
Answer: Option C

Question No. 200

Addition of pozzolana to cement causes
(A) Reduction in permeability
(B) Loss of heat of hydration
(C) Reduction in bleeding
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 201

Permissible compressive strength of M 200 concrete grade is
(A) 100 kg/cm2
(B) 150 kg/cm2
(C) 200 kg/cm2
(D) 250 kg/cm2
Answer: Option C

Question No. 202

The minimum diameter of longitudinal bars in a column is
(A) 6 mm
(B) 8 mm
(C) 12 mm
(D) 16 mm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 203

The high strength of rapid hardening cement at early stage, is due to its
(A) Finer grinding
(B) Burning at high temperature
(C) Increased lime cement
 (D) Higher content of tricalcium
Answer: Option C

Question No. 204

Sand requiring a high water cement ratio, belongs to
(A) Zone I
(B) Zone II
(C) Zone III
(D) Zone IV
Answer: Option A

Question No. 205

Minimum grade of concrete to be used in reinforced concrete as per IS: 4561978 is
(A) M 15
(B) M 20
(C) M 10
(D) M 25
Answer: Option A

Question No. 206

While compacting the concrete by a mechanical vibrator, the slump should not exceed
(A) 2.5 cm
(B) 5.0 cm
(C) 7.5 cm
(D) 10 cm
Answer: Option B

Question No. 207

Non-uniform compaction may cause the concrete
(A) Porous
(B) Non-homogeneous
(C) Reduced strength
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 208

Modulus of rupture of concrete is a measure of
(A) Flexural tensile strength
(B) Direct tensile strength
(C) Compressive strength
(D) Split tensile strength
Answer: Option A
Question No. 209
M10 grade of concrete approximates
(A) 1 : 3 : 6 mix
(B) 1 : 1 : 2 mix
(C) 1 : 2 : 4 mix
(D) 1 : 1.5 : 3 mix
Answer: Option A

Question No. 210

Higher workability of concrete is required if the structure is
(A) Made with cement concrete
(B) Thick and reinforced
(C) Thin and heavily reinforced
(D) Thick and heavily reinforced
Answer: Option D

Question No. 211

For a cantilever of effective depth of 0.5 m, the maximum span to satisfy vertical deflection limit is
(A) 3.5 m
(B) 4 m
(C) 4.5 m
(D) 5 m
Answer: Option A

Question No. 212

The bulk density of aggregates does not depend upon:
(A) Size and shape of aggregates
(B) Specific gravity of aggregates
(C) Grading of aggregates
(D) Size and shape of the container
Answer: Option D

Question No. 213

How long will it take for the concrete to achieve 100% of its strength?
(A) 7 days
(B) 14 days
(C) 21 days
(D) 28 days
Answer: Option D

Question No. 214

A higher modular ratio shows
(A) Higher compressive strength of concrete
(B) Lower compressive strength of concrete
(C) Higher tensile strength of steel
 (D) Lower tensile strength of steel
Answer: Option B

Question No. 215

For the construction of cement concrete floor, the maximum permissible size of aggregate, is
(A) 4 mm
(B) 6 mm
(C) 8 mm
(D) 10 mm
Answer: Option D

Question No. 216

The specifications of a cement bag for storage, are
(A) Weight 50 kg
(B) Height 18 cm
(C) Plan area 3000 sq. cm
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 217

The main reinforcement in the heel of a T-shaped R.C. retaining wall is provided on
(A) Top face perpendicular to wall
(B) Bottom face perpendicular to wall
(C) Both top and bottom faces perpendicular to wall
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 218

Separation of coarse aggregates from mortar during transportation, is known
(A) Bleeding
(B) Creeping
(C) Segregation
(D) Shrinkage
Answer: Option C

Question No. 219

A flaky aggregate is said to be elongated if its length is
(A) Equal to the mean size
(B) Twice the mean size
(C) Thrice the mean size
(D) Four times the mean size
Answer: Option B
Question No. 220
Assertion A : The load factor for live load is greater than that for dead load.
Reason R : The live loads are more uncertain than dead loads.
Select your answer based on the coding system given below:
(A) Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R is true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
Answer: Option A

Question No. 221

You are asked to construct a massive dam, the type of cement you will use, is
(A) Ordinary Portland cement
(B) Rapid hardening cement
(C) Low heat cement
(D) Blast furnace slag cement
Answer: Option C

Question No. 222

An ideal ware house, is provided
(A) Water proof masonry walls
(B) Water proof roof
(C) Few windows which remain generally closed
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 223

Normally pre-stressing wires are arranged in the
(A) Upper part of the beam
(B) Lower part of the beam
(C) Center
(D) Anywhere
Answer: Option B

Question No. 224

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Bulking of sand is caused due to formation of a thin film of surface moisture
(B) Fine sand bulks more than coarse sand
(C) The volume of fully saturated sand, is equal to the volume of dry and loose sand
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 225

The minimum percentage of chemical ingredient of cement is that of
(A) Magnesium oxide
 (B) Iron oxide
(C) Alumina
(D) Lime
Answer: Option A

Question No. 226

Poisson's ratio for concrete
(A) Remains constant
(B) Increases with richer mixes
(C) Decreases with richer mixes
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 227

Shrinkage in concrete can be reduced by using
(A) Low water cement ratio
(B) Less cement in the concrete
(C) Proper concrete mix
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 228

The shuttering of a hall measuring 4 m × 5 m, can be removed after
(A) 5 days
(B) 7 days
(C) 10 days
(D) 14 days
Answer: Option B

Question No. 229

The approximate value of the ratio between direct tensile strength and flexural strength is
(A) 0.33
(B) 0.5
(C) 0.75
(D) 1.0
Answer: Option B

Question No. 230

An aggregate is said to be flaky if its least dimension is less than
(A) 1/5th of mean dimension
(B) 2/5th of mean dimension
(C) 3/5th of mean dimension
(D) 4/5th of mean dimension
Answer: Option C
Question No. 231
Workability improved by adding
(A) Fly ash
(B) Hydrated lime
(C) Calcium chloride
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 232

Workability of concrete is inversely proportional to
(A) Time of transit
(B) water-cement ratio
(C) The air in the mix
(D) Size of aggregate
Answer: Option A

Question No. 233

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The free water is the amount of water added while mixing and the amount of water held on
the surface of the aggregates prior to mixing
(B) The total water is the free water and the amount actually absorbed by the aggregates
(C) Neither (a) nor (b)
(D) Both (a) and (b)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 234

Inert material of a cement concrete mix, is
(A) Water
(B) Cement
(C) Aggregate
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 235

If a beam fails in bond, then its bond strength can be increased most economically by
(A) Increasing the depth of beam
(B) Using thinner bars but more in number
(C) Using thicker bars but less in number
(D) Providing vertical stirrups
Answer: Option B

Question No. 236

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) A rich mix of concrete possesses higher strength than that a lean mix of desired workability
with excessive quantity of water
 (B) The strength of concrete decreases as the water cement ratio increases
(C) Good compaction by mechanical vibrations, increases the strength of concrete
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 237

Ordinary Portland cement is manufactured from
(A) Lime stone and clay
(B) Gypsum and lime
(C) Pozzolana
(D) Lime, pozzolana and clay
Answer: Option B

Question No. 238

The percentage of reinforcement in case of slabs, when high strength deformed bars are used is
not less than
(A) 0.15
(B) 0.12
(C) 0.30
(D) 1.00
Answer: Option B

Question No. 239

Addition of pozzolana to cement
(A) Decreases workability
(B) Increases strength
(C) Increases heat of hydration
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 240

If 50 kg of fine aggregates and 100 kg of coarse aggregates are mixed in a concrete whose water
cement ratio is 0.6, the weight of water required for harsh mix, is
(A) 8 kg
(B) 10 kg
(C) 12 kg
(D) 14 kg
Answer: Option C

Question No. 241

The minimum cover to the ties or spirals should not be less than
(A) 15 mm
(B) 20 mm
(C) 25 mm
(D) 50 mm
 Answer: Option C

Question No. 242

According to Water-Cement Ratio Law, the strength of workable plastic concrete
(A) Depends upon the amount of water used in the mix
(B) Does not depend upon the quality of cement mixed with aggregates
(C) Does not depend upon the quantity of cement mixed with aggregates
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 243

Sands of zone I are:
(A) Course
(B) Medium
(C) Medium to fine
(D) Fine
Answer: Option A

Question No. 244

According to Whitney's theory, ultimate strain of concrete is assumed to be
(A) 0.03 %
(B) 0.1 %
(C) 0.3 %
(D) 3 %
Answer: Option C

Question No. 245

The condition not applicable to water cement ratio law, is
(A) Internal moisture conditions on hydration continue till complete strength is gained
(B) Concrete specimens may be tested at any temperature
(C) Concrete specimens need be of same age
(D) Concrete specimens need be of same size
Answer: Option B

Question No. 246

If the slump of a concrete mix is 60 mm, its workability is
(A) Very low
(B) Low
(C) Medium
(D) High
Answer: Option C

Question No. 247

Cube strength of controlled concrete to be used for pre-tensioned and post-tensioned work
respectively should not be less than
 (A) 35 MPa and 42 MPa
(B) 42 MPa and 35 MPa
(C) 42 MPa and 53 MPa
(D) 53 MPa and 42 MPa
Answer: Option B

Question No. 248

The void ratio of
(A) Single size coarse aggregate is roughly 0.45
(B) Graded coarse aggregate is roughly 0.040
(C) Fine aggregate is roughly 0.45
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 249

According to IS : 382-1963, a good aggregate should be
(A) Chemically inert
(B) Sufficiently strong
(C) Hard and durable
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 250

The compressive strength of 100 mm cube as compared to 150 mm cube is always
(A) Less
(B) More
(C) Equal
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 251

The diameter of the Vicat plunger is 10 mm and its length varies from
(A) 20 mm to 30 mm
(B) 30 mm to 40 mm
(C) 40 mm to 50 mm
(D) 50 mm to 60 mm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 252

Gypsum is added for
(A) Colour
(B) Strength
(C) Controlling setting time
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 253
Modulus of elasticity of steel as per IS: 4561978 shall be taken as
(A) 20 kN/cm²
(B) 200 kN/cm²
(C) 200 kN/mm²
(D) 2 × 106 N/cm²
Answer: Option C

Question No. 254

The grade of concrete M 150 means that compressive strength of a 15 cm cube after 28 days, is
(A) 100 kg/cm2
(B) 150 kg/cm2
(C) 200 kg/cm2
(D) 250 kg/cm2
Answer: Option B

Question No. 255

The cement becomes useless if its absorbed moisture content exceeds
(A) 1 %
(B) 2 %
(C) 3 %
(D) 5 %
Answer: Option D

Question No. 256

In reinforced concrete footing on soil, the minimum thickness at edge should not be less than
(A) 100 mm
(B) 150 mm
(C) 200 mm
(D) 250 mm
Answer: Option B

Question No. 257

For preparing a test-specimen, it is necessary
(A) To mix cement and fine aggregate by dry hand
(B) To mix coarse aggregates
(C) To mix water to the cement, fine aggregates and coarse aggregates
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 258

For a good concrete
(A) Aggregates should be hard and durable
(B) Water should be free from organic materials
(C) Cement should be sufficient to produce the required strength
 (D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 259

The design yield stress of steel according to IS: 4561978 is:
(A) 0.37 fy
(B) 0.57 fy
(C) 0.67 fy
(D) 0.87 fy
Where fy is the characteristic yield strength of steel
Answer: Option D

Question No. 260

The process of hardening the concrete by keeping its surface moist is known
(A) Placing
(B) Wetting
(C) Curing
(D) Compacting
Answer: Option C

Question No. 261

For the construction of the retaining structures, the type of concrete mix to be used, is
(A) 1 : 3 : 6
(B) 1 : 2 : 4
(C) 1 : 1½ : 3
(D) 1 : 4 : 8
Answer: Option C

Question No. 262

The main reinforcement in the toe of a T-shaped R C. retaining wall is provided on
(i) Top face parallel to the wall
(ii) Top face perpendicular to the wall
(iii) Bottom face parallel to the wall
(iv) Bottom face perpendicular to the wall
The correct answer is
(A) Only (ii) is correct
(B) (i) and (ii) are correct
(C) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(D) Only (iv) is correct
Answer: Option D

Question No. 263

The produce impermeable concrete
(A) Thorough mixing of concrete is required
(B) Proper compaction of concrete is required
 (C) Proper curing of concrete is required
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 264

Pozzolanic properties exist in
(A) Shales
(B) Fly ash
(C) Pumicite
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 265

A continuous beam is deemed to be a deep beam when the ratio of effective span to overall depth
(1/D) is less than
(A) 1.5
(B) 2.0
(C) 2.5
(D) 3.0
Answer: Option C

Question No. 266

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The weight of ingredients of concrete mix, is taken in kilograms
(B) Water and aggregates are measured in litres
(C) 20 bags of cement make one tonne
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 267

If fineness modulus of sand is 2.5, it is graded as
(A) Very fine sand
(B) Fine sand
(C) Medium sand
(D) Coarse sand
Answer: Option B

Question No. 268

Maximum quantity of water needed per 50 kg of cement for M 15 grade of concrete is
(A) 28 liters
(B) 30 liters
(C) 32 liters
(D) 34 liters
Answer: Option C
Question No. 269
The increased cohesiveness of concrete, makes it
(A) Less liable to segregation
(B) More liable to segregation
(C) More liable to bleeding
(D) More liable for surface scaling in frosty weather
Answer: Option A

Question No. 270

Concrete is unsuitable for compaction by a vibrator if it is
(A) Dry
(B) Earth moist
(C) Semi-plastic
(D) Plastic
Answer: Option D

Question No. 271

In order to obtain the best workability of concrete, the preferred shape of aggregate is
(A) Rounded
(B) Elongated
(C) Angular
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 272

Hydration of cement is due to chemical action of water with
(A) Tricalcium silicate and dicalcium silicate
(B) Dicalcium silicate and tricalcium aluminate
(C) Tricalcium aluminate and tricalcium alumino ferrite
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 273

An aggregate which passes through 25 mm I.S. sieve and is retained on 20 mm sieve, is said to be
flaky if its least dimension is less than
(A) 22.5 mm
(B) 18.5 mm
(C) 16.5 mm
(D) 13.5 mm
Answer: Option D

Question No. 274

Approximate value of shrinkage strain in concrete, is
(A) 0.003
(B) 0.0003
 (C) 0.00003
(D) 0.03
Answer: Option B

Question No. 275

For quality control of Portland cement, the test essentially done is
(A) Setting time
(B) Tensile strength
(C) Consistency
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 276

Strength of concrete with passage of time
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Fluctuates
(D) Remains constant
Answer: Option A

Question No. 277

Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(A) Higher Vee-Bee time shows lower workability
(B) Higher slump shows higher workability
(C) Higher compacting factor shows higher workability
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 278

To obtain cement dry powder, lime stones and shales or their slurry, is burnt in a rotary kiln at a
temperature between
(A) 1100° and 1200°C
(B) 1200° and 1300°C
(C) 1300° and 1400°C
(D) 1400° and 1500°C
Answer: Option D

Question No. 279

In a pile of length , the points of suspension from ends for lifting it are located at
(A) 0.207 l
(B) 0.25 l
(C) 0.293 l
(D) 0.333 l
Answer: Option A
Question No. 280
Curing a concrete for long period ensures better
(A) Volume stability
(B) Strength
(C) Water resistance
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 281

In a ring beam subjected to uniformly distributed load
(i) Shear force at mid span is zero
(ii) Shear force at mid span is maximum
(iii) Torsion at mid span is zero
(iv) Torsion at mid span is maximum
The correct answer is
(A) (i) and (iii)
(B) (i) and (iv)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (ii) and (iv)
Answer: Option A

Question No. 282

Batching error means inaccuracy in the quantity of
(A) Aggregates
(B) Cement
(C) Water
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 283

If the storey height is equal to length of RCC wall, the percentage increase in strength is
(A) 0
(B) 10
(C) 20
(D) 30
Answer: Option B

Question No. 284

If X, Y and Z are the fineness modulli of coarse, fine and combined aggregates, the percentage (P)
of fine aggregates to combined aggregates, is
(A) P = [(Z - X)/(Z - Y)] × 100
(B) P = [(X - Z)/(Z - Y)] × 100
(C) P = [(X - Z)/(Z + Y)] × 100
(D) P = [(Z + X)/(Z - Y)] × 100
Answer: Option B
Question No. 285
If the depth of actual neutral axis in a beam is more than the depth of critical neutral axis, then the
beam is called
(A) Balanced beam
(B) Under-reinforced beam
(C) Over-reinforced beam
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 286

Proper proportioning of concrete, ensures
(A) Desired strength and workability
(B) Desired durability
(C) Water tightness of the structure
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 287

The relation between modulus of rupture fcr, splitting strength fcs and direct tensile strength fcl is
given by
(A) fcr - fcs = fcl
(B) fcr > fcs > fcl
(C) fcr < fcs < fcl
(D) fcs > fcr > fcl
Answer: Option B

Question No. 288

Wp and Wf are the weights of a cylinder containing partially compacted and fully compacted
concrete. If the compaction factor (Wp/Wf) is 0.95, the workability of concrete is
(A) Extremely low
(B) Very low
(C) Low
(D) High
Answer: Option D

Question No. 289

Air entrainment in the concrete increases
(A) Workability
(B) Strength
(C) The effects of temperature variations
(D) The unit weight
Answer: Option A
Question No. 290
Construction joints are provided
(A) Where B.M. and S.F. are small
(B) Where the member is supported by other member
(C) At 18 m apart in huge structures
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 291

Maximum distance between expansion joints in structures as per IS: 456 1978 is
(A) 20 m
(B) 30 m
(C) 45 m
(D) 60 m
Answer: Option C

Question No. 292

Ordinary concrete is not used for concrete grade
(A) M 100
(B) M 150
(C) M 250
(D) M 400
Answer: Option D

Question No. 293

In a spherical dome subjected to concentrated load at crown or uniformly distributed load, the
meridional force is always
(A) Zero
(B) Tensile
(C) Compressive
(D) Tensile or compressive
Answer: Option C

Question No. 294

An aggregate is said to be flaky, if its least dimension is less than
(A) 2/3 mean dimension
(B) 3/4 mean dimension
(C) 3/5 mean dimension
(D) 5/8 mean dimension
Answer: Option C

Question No. 295

The depth of footing for an isolated column is governed by
(i) Maximum bending moment
(ii) Shear force
 (iii) Punching shear
The correct answer is
(A) Only (i)
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (i) and (iii)
(D) All (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 296

While designing an air entrained concrete
(A) Water cement ratio is reduced
(B) Proportion of aggregates is reduced
(C) An allowance for the entrained air is made
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 297

Minimum thickness of load bearing RCC wall should be
(A) 50 mm
(B) 100 mm
(C) 150 mm
(D) 200 mm
Answer: Option B

Question No. 298

M 150 grade of concrete approximates
(A) 1 : 3 : 6 mix
(B) 1 : 1 :2 mix
(C) 1 : 2 : 4 mix
(D) 1 : 1.5 : 3 mix
Answer: Option B

Question No. 299

The effect of adding calcium chloride in concrete is
(i) To increase shrinkage
(ii) To decrease shrinkage
(iii) To increase setting time
(iv) To decrease setting time
The correct answer is
(A) (i) and (iii)
(B) (i) and (iv)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (ii) and (iv)
Answer: Option B
Question No. 300
Permissible compressive strength of M 300 concrete grade is
(A) 100 kg/cm2
(B) 150 kg/cm2
(C) 200 kg/cm2
(D) 300 kg/cm2
Answer: Option D

Question No. 301

Strength of concrete increases with
(A) Increase in water-cement ratio
(B) Increase in fineness of cement
(C) Decrease in curing time
(D) Decrease in size of aggregate
Answer: Option B

Question No. 302

For ensuring quality of concrete, use
(A) Single sized aggregates
(B) Two sized aggregate
(C) Graded aggregates
(D) Coarse aggregates
Answer: Option C

Question No. 303

In working stress design, permissible bond stress in the case of deformed bars is more than that in
plain bars by
(A) 10 %
(B) 20 %
(C) 30 %
(D) 40 %
Answer: Option D

Question No. 304

Workability improved by adding
(A) Air-entraining agent
(B) Foaming agent
(C) Oily-agent
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 305

The maximum value of hoop compression in a dome is given by
(A) wR / 4d
(B) wR/2d
 (C) wR/d
(D) 2wR/d
Where, w = load per unit area of surface of dome R = radius of curvature d = thickness of dome
Answer: Option B

Question No. 306

The rock which is not calcareous, is:
(A) Lime stone
(B) Chalk
(C) Laterite
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 307

A T-shaped retaining wall mainly consists of
(A) One cantilever
(B) Two cantilevers
(C) Three cantilevers
(D) Four cantilevers
Answer: Option C

Question No. 308

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Insufficient quantity of water makes the concrete mix harsh
(B) Insufficient quantity of water makes the concrete unworkable
(C) Excess quantity of water makes the concrete segregated
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 309

The fineness modulus of fine aggregate is in the range of
(A) 2.0 to 3.5
(B) 3.5 to 5.0
(C) 5.0 to 7.0
(D) 6.0 to 8.5
Answer: Option A

Question No. 310

After casting, an ordinary cement concrete on drying
(A) Expands
(B) Mix
(C) Shrinks
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 311
The most commonly used admixture which prolongs the setting and hardening time is
(A) Gypsum
(B) Calcium chloride
(C) Sodium silicate
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 312

For given water content, workability decreases if the concrete aggregates contain an excess of
(A) Thin particles
(B) Flat particles
(C) Elongated particles
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 313

During erection, the pile of length is supported by a crane at a distance of
(A) 0.207 l
(B) 0.293 l
(C) 0.707 l
(D) 0.793 l
From the driving end of pile which rests on the ground
Answer: Option C

Question No. 314

The process of proper and accurate measurement of concrete ingredients for uniformity of
proportion, is known
(A) Grading
(B) Curing
(C) Mixing
(D) Batching
Answer: Option D

Question No. 315

The load factors for live load and dead load are taken respectively as
(A) 1.5 and 2.2
(B) 2.2 and 1.5
(C) 1.5 and 1.5
(D) 2.2 and 2.2
Answer: Option B

Question No. 316

The mixture of different ingredients of cement, is burnt at
(A) 1000°C
 (B) 1200°C
(C) 1400°C
(D) 1600°C
Answer: Option C

Question No. 317

In case of hand mixing of concrete, the extra cement to be added is
(A) 5 %
(B) 10 %
(C) 15 %
(D) 20 %
Answer: Option B

Question No. 318

If 1500 g of water is required to have a cement paste 1875 g of normal consistency, the percentage
of water is,
(A) 20 %
(B) 25 %
(C) 30 %
(D) 35 %
Answer: Option B

Question No. 319

The percentage of voids in cement is approximately
(A) 25 %
(B) 40 %
(C) 60 %
(D) 80 %
Answer: Option B

Question No. 320

Water required per bag of cement, is
(A) 7 kg
(B) 14 kg
(C) 21 kg
(D) 35 kg
Answer: Option D

Question No. 321

The recommended value of modular ratio for reinforced brick work is
(A) 18
(B) 30
(C) 40
(D) 58
Answer: Option C
Question No. 322
For an ordinary Portland cement
(A) Residual does not exceed 10% when sieved through IS Sieve No. 9
(B) Soundness varies from 5 to 10 mm
(C) Initial setting time is not less than 30 minutes
(D) Compressive stress after 7 days, is not less than 175 kg/cm2
Answer: Option C

Question No. 323

The ratio of the diameter of reinforcing bars and the slab thickness is
(A) 1/4
(B) 1/5
(C) 1/6
(D) 1/8
Answer: Option D

Question No. 324

Pozzolana cement is used with confidence for construction of
(A) Dams
(B) Massive foundations
(C) R.C.C. structures
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 325

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Calcium chloride acts as a retarder
(B) Calcium chloride acts as an accelerator
(C) Gypsum (calcium sulphate) acts as a retarder
(D) Both (b) and (c)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 326

The operation of removing humps and hollows of uniform concrete surface, is known as
(A) Floating
(B) Screeding
(C) Trowelling
(D) Finishing
Answer: Option B

Question No. 327

1% of voids in a concrete mix would reduce its strength by about
(A) 5 %
(B) 10 %
(C) 15 %
 (D) 20 %
Answer: Option A

Question No. 328

Permissible compressive strength of M 200 concrete grade is
(A) 100 kg/cm2
(B) 150 kg/cm2
(C) 200 kg/cm2
(D) 250 kg/cm2
Answer: Option C

Question No. 329

For a continuous slab of 3 m × 3.5 m size, the minimum overall depth of slab to satisfy vertical
deflection limits is
(A) 50 mm
(B) 75 mm
(C) 100 mm
(D) 120 mm
Answer: Option B

Question No. 330

The most useless aggregate is one whose surface texture is
(A) Smooth
(B) Granular
(C) Glassy
(D) Honey combed and porous
Answer: Option C

Question No. 331

The shrinkage of concrete
(A) Is proportional to water content is the mix
(B) Is proportional to cement concrete
(C) Increases with age of concrete
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 332

The maximum thickness of concrete floor of a cement warehouse, is
(A) 10 cm
(B) 15 cm
(C) 20 cm
(D) 25 cm
Answer: Option D
Question No. 333
Too wet concrete may cause
(A) Weakness of concrete
(B) Excessive laitance
(C) Segregation
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 334

Maximum percentage reinforcement in case of slabs is limited to
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8
Answer: Option B

Question No. 335

The commonly used material in the manufacture of cement is
(A) Sand stone
(B) Slate
(C) Lime stone
(D) Graphite
Answer: Option C

Question No. 336

According to I.S. : 456, the number of grades of concrete mixes, is
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 7
Answer: Option D

Question No. 337

Grading of sand causes great variation in
(A) Workability of concrete
(B) Strength of concrete
(C) Durability of concrete
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 338

The percentage of the aggregate of F.M. 2.6 to be combined with coarse aggregate of F.M. 6.8 for
obtaining the aggregates of F.M. 5.4, is
(A) 30 %
(B) 40 %
 (C) 50 %
(D) 60 %
Answer: Option C

Question No. 339

The ratio of various ingredients (cement, sand, aggregates) in concrete of grade M 200, is
(A) 1 : 2 : 4
(B) 1 : 3 : 6
(C) 1 : 1½ : 3
(D) 1 : 1 : 2
Answer: Option C

Question No. 340

Joints in concrete structures, are provided
(A) To reduce the tensile stresses likely to be developed due to evaporation of water
(B) To minimise the change in the dimensions of the slab
(C) To minimise the necessary cracking
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 341

For the construction of R.C.C. slabs, columns, beams, walls, etc. the grade of concrete mix used, is
(A) 1 : 3 : 6
(B) 1 : 1½ : 3
(C) 1 : 2 : 4
(D) 1 : 1 : 2
Answer: Option C

Question No. 342

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Water enables chemical reaction to take place with cement
(B) Water lubricates the mixture of gravel, sand and cement
(C) Strength of concrete structure largely depends upon its workability
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 343

The final operation of finishing floors, is known as
(A) Screeding
(B) Floating
(C) Trowelling
(D) Finishing
Answer: Option C
Question No. 344
Transport of concrete by pumps, is done for a distance of
(A) 100 m
(B) 200 m
(C) 300 m
(D) 400 m
Answer: Option D

Question No. 345

Curing
(A) Reduces the shrinkage of concrete
(B) Preserves the properties of concrete
(C) Prevents the loss of water by evaporation
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 346

The datum temperature for maturity by Plowman, is
(A) 23°C
(B) 0°
(C) - 5.6°C
(D) - 11.7°C
Answer: Option D

Question No. 347

The bulk density of aggregates, is generally expressed as
(A) tonnes/cubic metre
(B) kg/cubic metre
(C) kg/litre
(D) g/cm3
Answer: Option C

Question No. 348

For concreting tunnel linings, transportation of concrete is done by
(A) Pans
(B) Wheel borrows
(C) Containers
(D) Pumps
Answer: Option D

Question No. 349

The factor which affects workability, is
(A) Water content and its temperature
(B) Shape and size of the aggregates
(C) Air entraining agents
 (D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 350

Proper batching ensures
(A) Economy
(B) Durability
(C) Workability
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 351

The ratio of the length to breadth of a wooden float, is
(A) 4.5
(B) 5.5
(C) 6.5
(D) 7.5
Answer: Option D

Question No. 352

Vicat's apparatus is used for
(A) Fineness test
(B) Consistency test
(C) Setting time test
(D) Soundness test
Answer: Option B

Question No. 353

Percentage of pozzolanic material containing clay upto 80% used for the manufacture of pozzolana
cement, is
(A) 30 %
(B) 40 %
(C) 50 %
(D) 60 %
Answer: Option A

Question No. 354

The grade of concrete not recommended by I.S. : 456, is
(A) M 100
(B) M 200
(C) M 300
(D) M 500
Answer: Option D
Question No. 355
The compaction of concrete, improves
(A) Density
(B) Strength
(C) Durability
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 356

Segregation is responsible for
(A) Honey-combed concrete
(B) Porous layers in concrete
(C) Surface scaling in concrete
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 357

Slump test of concrete is a measure of its
(A) Consistency
(B) Compressive strength
(C) Tensile strength
(D) Impact value
Answer: Option A

Question No. 358

Slump test of concrete is a measure of its
(A) Consistency
(B) Compressive strength
(C) Tensile strength
(D) Impact value
Answer: Option A

Question No. 359

If the effective working time is 7 hours and per batch time of concrete is 3 minutes, the output of a
concrete mixer of 150 litre capacity, is
(A) 15,900 litres
(B) 16,900 litres
(C) 17,900 litres
(D) 18,900 litres
Answer: Option D

Question No. 360

An ordinary Portland cement when tested for its fineness, should not leave any residue on I.S.
sieve No. 9, more than
(A) 5 %
 (B) 10 %
(C) 15 %
(D) 20 %
Answer: Option B

Question No. 361

The top diameter, bottom diameter and the height of a slump mould are:
(A) 10 cm, 20 cm, 30 cm
(B) 10 cm, 30 cm, 20 cm
(C) 20 cm, 10 cm, 30 cm
(D) 20 cm, 30 cm, 10 cm
Answer: Option A
 Design of Masonry Structures

Question No. 01
Rich cement mortars are more liable to cracking as compared to lean mortars because rich mortars
have
(A) High shrinkage
(B) Less strength
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 02
In a cavity wall, both leaves of which are load bearing, the effective thickness is taken as
(A) Sum of thickness of both leaves
(B) Two-third of the sum of thickness of both the leaves
(C) Actual thickness of the stronger leaf
(D) Larger of (B) and (C)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 03
Assertion A : For identical strength, a composite cement-lime mortar is preferred over cement
mortar.
Reason R : Composite cement-lime mortar has higher drying shrinkage than cement mortar.
Select your answer based on the codes given below:
(A) Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R is true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
Answer: Option C

Question No. 04
For earthquake resistant masonry buildings, the vertical distance between openings one above the
other in a load bearing wall shall not be less than
(A) 50 cm
(B) 60 cm
(C) 75 cm
(D) 100 cm
Answer: Option B

Question No. 05
The mode of failure of a very short masonry member having h/t ratio of less than 4 is by
(A) Shear
(B) Vertical tensile splitting
 (C) Buckling
(D) Any of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 06
Where a structural component or a system is providing lateral support to five or more walls or
columns, the lateral load to be resisted may be taken as _________ of the total vertical load on
the most heavily loaded wall or column in the group
(A) 4 %
(B) 5 %
(C) 6 %
(D) 7 %
Answer: Option D

Question No. 07
Consider the following statements regarding bands to be provided for strengthening masonry
work in masonry buildings constructed in zone III, IV and V.
(i) Lintel band is provided at lintel level on partition walls,
(ii) Gable band is provided at top of gable masonry below the purlins,
(iii) The bands shall be to full width of the wall and not less than 7.5 cm in depth,
(iv) The bands shall be made of reinforced concrete only.
Of these statements, the correct statements are
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iv)
(D) (ii) and (iii)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 08
The basic stress in masonry units having height to width ratio of 1.5 may be increased by a factor
of
(A) 1.2
(B) 1.4
(C) 1.6
(D) 2.0
Answer: Option C

Question No. 09
The timber floor not spanning on the masonry wall but properly anchored to the wall gives
(A) Lateral restraint but not rotational restraint
(B) Rotational restraint but not lateral restraint
(C) Both lateral and rotational restraints
(D) Neither lateral nor rotational restraint
Answer: Option A
Question No. 10
A free standing brick wall 20 cm thick is subjected to a wind pressure of 75kg/m². The maximum
height of wall from stability consideration is
(A) 0.64 m
(B) 0.96 m
(C) 1.28 m
(D) 1.5 m
Answer: Option A

Question No. 11
Consider the following statements:
The use of relatively weak mortar
1. Will accommodate movements due to loads and, cracking if any, and will be distributed as thin
hair cracks which are less noticeable or harmful.
2. Will result in reduction of stresses due to differential expansion of masonry units.
Of these statements
(A) 1 alone is correct
(B) 2 alone is correct
(C) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
Answer: Option C

Question No. 12
If is the height of wall between centers of supports, then the effective height of wall where
concrete floors have a bearing on wall irrespective of the direction of span will be
(A) 0.75 H
(B) 0.85 H
(C) 1.0 H
(D) 1.5 H
Answer: Option A

Question No. 13
For designing masonry components of a structure, seismic forces provision in the design
calculation is not necessary for buildings constructed in
(A) Zone I only
(B) Zone I and II
(C) Zone I, II and III
(D) Zone I, II, III and IV
Answer: Option B

Question No. 14
A 200 mm thick wall made of modular bricks is 5 m long between cross walls and 3.8 m clear
height between RCC slabs at top and bottom. The slenderness ratio of the wall is
(A) 15
(B) 19
 (C) 20
(D) 25
Answer: Option A

Question No. 15
Water retentivity for brick masonry should not be less than
(A) 50 %
(B) 60 %
(C) 70 %
(D) 80 %
Answer: Option C

Question No. 16
The bending stress in a wall or column subjected to effective vertical load need not be considered,
if the eccentricity ratio is
(A) Less than or equal to 1/24
(B) Less than or equal to 1/6
(C) More than 1/24
(D) Less than or equal to 1/12
Answer: Option A

Question No. 17
Assertion A : Lime based mortars give higher ratio of brickwork strength to mortar strength as
compared to non-lime mortar.
Reason R : Lime based mortars have lower bond strength as compared to non-lime mortars.
Select your answer according to the codes given below:
(A) Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R is true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
Answer: Option C

Question No. 18
In the case of panel wall subjected to horizontal loads at right angles to the plane of the wall, with
the mortar not leaner than Ml type, tensile stress in bending in the vertical direction may be
allowed to the extent of
(A) 0.4 kg/cm²
(B) 0.7 kg/cm²
(C) 1.0 kg/cm²
(D) 1.2 kg/cm²
Answer: Option C

Question No. 19
If the ratio of center to center spacing of intersecting walls to actual thickness of intersecting wall
is more than 20, then the stiffening coefficient for wall proper will be
 (A) 0
(B) Between 0 and 1
(C) 1
(D) Greater than 1
Answer: Option D

Question No. 20
Consider the following statements:
1. Masonry in rich cement mortar though having good strength with high shrinkage is much liable
for surface cracks.
2. Lime mortar possesses poor workability and poor water retentivity and also suffers high
shrinkage.
3. Masonry in lime mortar has better resistance against rain penetration and is less liable to crack
when compared to masonry in cement mortar.
Which of these statements are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1 and 3
Answer: Option D

Question No. 21
If the eccentricity ratio is more than 1/24, then increase in the permissible stress in the design of
wall subjected to eccentric loading as per code is
(A) 10 %
(B) 25 %
(C)
(D) 50 %
Answer: Option B

Question No. 22
For masonry work with solid bricks, consistency of mortar should be
(A) 5 to 8 cm
(B) 9 to 13 cm
(C) 14 to 18 cm
(D) 19 to 23 cm
Answer: Option B

Question No. 23
Consider the following statements regarding provision of chases in masonry,
(i) No chase should be permitted in a half brick load-bearing wall,
(ii) Vertical chases should not be closer than 2 m in any stretch of a wall,
(iii) Chases should be provided near to bearings of beams and lintels. Of these statements
(A) (i) and (ii) are correct
(B) (i) and (iii) are correct
 (C) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer: Option A

Question No. 24
For masonry built in 1 : 1 : 6 cement-lime-sand mix mortar or equivalent, the horizontal shear
stress permissible on the area of a mortar bed joint is
(A) 0.15 MPa
(B) 0.125 MPa
(C) 0.1 MPa
(D) 0.075 MPa
Answer: Option A

Question No. 25
Maximum slenderness ratio of load bearing walls for a dwelling having more than 2 storeys
(i) Shall not exceed 12 if lime mortar is used
(ii) Shall not exceed 18 if cement lime mortar 1 : 2 : 9 is used
(iii) Shall not exceed 24 if cement mortar 1 : 6 is used
Of these statements
(A) (i) and (ii) are correct
(B) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(C) (i) and (iii) are correct
(D) (i) and (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer: Option A

Question No. 26
Full restraint is provided by
(i) Foundation footing of a wall
(ii) Timber floor spanning on the wall and anchored to the wall
(iii) RCC slab with a minimum bearing of 10 cm on the wall
Of these statements
(A) (i) and (iii) are correct
(B) (i) and (ii) are correct
(C) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer: Option D

Question No. 27
Consider the following statements:
A high lime content in a composite cement-lime mortar results in
1. Slow hardening.
2. Quick setting.
3. Weaker mortar. Of these statements
(A) 2 and 3 are correct
(B) 1 and 2 are correct
 (C) 1 and 3 are correct
(D) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Answer: Option C

Question No. 28
The effective height of free standing non-load bearing wall and column respectively will be
(A) 1.0H and 1.0H
(B) 1.5H and 1.5H
(C) 2.0H and 1.5H
(D) 2.0H and 2.0H
Where H is the height of wall or column between centers of supports
Answer: Option D

Question No. 29
Assertion A : From consideration of structural soundness and economy of design, most codes
control the maximum slenderness ratio of masonry walls and columns.
Reason R : By controlling the maximum slenderness ratio, failure is by excessive stress and not by
buckling. Select your answer according to codes given below:
(A) Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R is true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
Answer: Option A

Question No. 30
Assertion A : Limiting value of slenderness ratio for a column is less than that of a wall.
Reason R : A column can buckle around either of the two horizontal axes while a wall can buckle
around only one axis.
Select your answer according to the codes given below:
(A) Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R is true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
Answer: Option A

Question No. 31
A 200 mm thick brick masonry wall made of modular bricks carries an axial load of 30 kN/m from
wall above and an eccentric load of 20 kN/m from RCC floor acting at a distance of 47.5 mm from
the centre line of the wall. The resultant eccentricity ratio is
(A) 0.090
(B) 0.095
(C) 0.100
(D) 0.105
Answer: Option C
Question No. 32
The thickness of each leaf of a cavity wall shall not be less than
(A) 5 cm
(B) 7.5 cm
(C) 10 cm
(D) 15 cm
Answer: Option B

Question No. 33
Minimum compressive strength in N/mm² for H1 type mortar used for masonry is
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 7.5
(D) 10
Answer: Option D

Question No. 34
Direct load carrying capacity of a brick masonry wall standing freely as against when it supports RC
slab will be
(A) More
(B) Less
(C) The same in both the cases
(D) 100 %
Answer: Option B

Question No. 35
Assertion A : For eccentricity ratio exceeding 1/6, effective thickness of masonry will get reduced.
Reason R : For eccentricity ratio exceeding 1/6, there will be tension on one side of the member.
Select your answer according to the codes give below:
(A) Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R is true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
Answer: Option A

Question No. 36
If the horizontal cross-sectional area of a wall is 1200 cm², then the basic stress shall be multiplied
by a reduction factor equal to
(A) 0 6
(B) 0.75
(C) 0.85
(D) 0.95
Answer: Option C
Question No. 37
For strengthening a 50 m long and 5 m high straight compound wall built in brick work, which one
of the following would be most suitable?
(A) Providing buttresses at certain intervals
(B) Providing a deeper foundation
(C) Using a richer mortar
(D) Using stronger bricks
Answer: Option A

Question No. 38
Minimum thickness of stiffening wall for 1 to 3 storeys shall not be less than
(A) 10 cm
(B) 15 cm
(C) 20 cm
(D) 30 cm
Answer: Option A

Question No. 39
Cement mortars richer than 1 : 3 are not used in masonry because
(i) There is no gain in strength of masonry
(ii) There is high shrinkage
(iii) They are prone to segregation
Of these statements
(A) Only (ii) is correct
(B) (i) and (ii) are correct
(C) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer: Option B
 Design of Steel Structures

Question No. 01
Select the correct statement
(A) Material cost of a rivet is higher than that of a bolt
(B) Tensile strength of a bolt is lesser than that of a rivet
(C) Bolts are used as a temporary fastening whereas rivets are used as permanent fastenings
(D) Riveting is less noisy than bolting
Answer: Option C

Question No. 02
The forces acting on the web splice of a plate girder are
(A) Axial forces
(B) Shear and axial forces
(C) Shear and bending forces
(D) Axial and bending forces
Answer: Option C

Question No. 03
Generally the purlins are placed at the panel points so as to avoid
(A) Axial force in rafter
(B) Shear force in rafter
(C) Deflection of rafter
(D) Bending moment in rafter
Answer: Option D

Question No. 04
Which of the following sections should preferably be used at places where torsion occurs?
(A) Angle section
(B) Channel section
(C) Box type section
(D) Any of the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 05
Other conditions being same, the load factor in indeterminate structures is
(A) Equal to load factor in determinate structures
(B) More than the load factor in determinate structures
(C) Less than the load factor in determinate structures
(D) Unpredictable
Answer: Option B
Question No. 06
Rivets connecting flange angles to cover plates in a plate girder are subjected to
(A) Horizontal shear only
(B) Vertical load only
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 07
The effective length of a fillet weld should not be less than
(A) Two times the weld size
(B) Four times the weld size
(C) Six times the weld size
(D) Weld size
Answer: Option B

Question No. 08
In a gusseted base, when the end of the column is machined for complete bearing on the base
plate, then the axial load is assumed to be transferred to base plate
(A) Fully by direct bearing
(B) Fully through fastenings
(C) 50% by direct bearing and 50% through fastenings
(D) 75% by direct bearing and 25% through fastenings
Answer: Option C

Question No. 09
If the floor is supported at or near the bottom but top chords of a bridge is not braced, then the
bridge is called
(A) Deck type
(B) Through type
(C) Half through type
(D) Double deck type
Answer: Option C

Question No. 10
The elastic strain for steel is about
(A) 1/12 of strain at the initiation of strain hardening and about 1/120 of maximum strain
(B) 1/2 of strain at the initiation of strain hardening and about 1/12 of maximum strain
(C) 1/12 of strain at the initiation of strain hardening and 1/200 of maximum strain
(D) 1/24 of strain at the initiation of strain hardening and about 1/200 of maximum strain
Answer: Option C

Question No. 11
In the virtual work method, the virtual quantity is
(A) Displacement
 (B) Load
(C) Slope
(D) Moment
Answer: Option A

Question No. 12
In moment resistant connections, the moment resistance of riveted connection depends upon
(A) Shear in rivets
(B) Compression in rivets
(C) Tension in rivets
(D) Strength of rivets in bearing
Answer: Option C

Question No. 13
The portal bracing in a truss bridge is used to
(A) Transfer load from top of end posts to bearings
(B) Keep the rectangular shape of the bridge cross-section
(C) Stiffen the structure laterally
(D) Prevent the sides-way buckling of top chord
Answer: Option A

Question No. 14
The maximum permissible span of asbestos cement sheets is
(A) 650 mm
(B) 810 mm
(C) 1250 mm
(D) 1680 mm
Answer: Option D

Question No. 15
Lacing bars in a steel column should be designed to resist
(A) Bending moment due to 2.5% of the column load
(B) Shear force due to 2.5% of the column load
(C) 2.5% of the column load
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Answer: Option B

Question No. 16
The moment of the couple set up in a section of a beam by the longitudinal compressive and
tensile force, is known as
(A) Bending moment
(B) Moment of resistance
(C) Flexural stress moment
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 17
The thickness of the web of a mild steel plate girder is less than d/200. If only one horizontal
stiffener is used, it is placed at
(A) The neutral axis of the section
(B) 2/3rd of the depth of the neutral axis from the compression flange
(C) 2/5th of the depth of the neutral axis from the compression flange
(D) 2/5th of the height of the neutral axis from tension flange
Answer: Option C

Question No. 18
Shear buckling of web in a plate girder is prevented by using
(A) Vertical intermediate stiffener
(B) Horizontal stiffener at neutral axis
(C) Bearing stiffener
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 19
The most commonly used sections in lateral system to carry shear force in built up columns, are
(A) Rolled steel flats
(B) Rolled angles
(C) Rolled channels
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 20
The stress in the wall of a thin cylinder subjected to internal pressure, is
(A) Hoop compression
(B) Shear
(C) Torsional shear
(D) Hoop tension
Answer: Option D

Question No. 21
The risk coefficient k, depends on
(A) Mean probable design life of structures
(B) Basic wind speed
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 22
For eccentrically loaded columns, the bending factor is
(A) Cross-sectional area of column/Radius of gyration
(B) Radius of gyration/Cross-sectional area of column
 (C) Cross-sectional area of column/Section modulus of the section
(D) Section modulus of the section/Cross-sectional area of column
Answer: Option C

Question No. 23
The net area of round bars to resist the tension, is the area of cross section at
(A) Mid-section
(B) Root of the thread
(C) Difference of (a) and (b)
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 24
The bracing between two columns of a steel tank will be designed to resist
(A) Horizontal shear due to wind or earthquake only
(B) Horizontal, shear due to wind or earthquake + 2.5% of column loads
(C) Column loads + 2.5% of horizontal shear due to wind or earthquake
(D) Column loads + full horizontal shear due to wind or earthquake
Answer: Option B

Question No. 25
A column splice is used to increase
(A) Length of the column
(B) Strength of the column
(C) Cross-sectional area of the column
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 26
A beam may be designed as a cased beam if
(A) Section is of double open channel form with the webs not less than 40 mm apart
(B) Overall depth and width of the steel section do not exceed 750 and 450 mm respectively
(C) Beam is solidly encased in concrete with 10 mm aggregate having 28 days strength 160
kg/cm2
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 27
The bracing provided in the plane of end posts is called
(A) Sway bracing
(B) Portal bracing
(C) Top lateral bracing
(D) Bottom lateral bracing
Answer: Option B
Question No. 28
In a built up beam actual bending compressive stress fbc is given by (when y1 is the distance of the
edge of the beam from the neutral axis).
(A) fbc = (M/Ixx) × y
(B) fbc = (Ixx/M) × y
(C) fbc = (Ixx/M) + y
(D) fbc = (M/Ixx) + y
Answer: Option A

Question No. 29
If the thickness of a structural member is small as compared to its length and width, it is classified
as
(A) One dimensional
(B) Two dimensional
(C) Three dimensional
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 30
The statical method of plastic analysis satisfies
(A) Equilibrium and mechanism conditions
(B) Equilibrium and plastic moment conditions
(C) Mechanism and plastic moment conditions
(D) Equilibrium condition only
Answer: Option B

Question No. 31
Lug angle is
(A) Used with single angle member
(B) Not used with double angle member
(C) Used with channel member
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 32
Compression members composed of two channels back-to-back and separated by a small distance
are connected together by riveting so that the minimum slenderness ratio of each member
between the connections, does not exceed
(A) 40
(B) 50
(C) 60
(D) 70
Answer: Option A
Question No. 33
The connection of intermediate vertical stiffeners to the web, not subjected to external loads,
shall be designed for a minimum shear force (kN/m) of
(A) 75 t²/h
(B) 125 t3/h²
(C) 125 t²/h
(D) 175 t²/h
Where, t = the web thickness in mm and h = the outstand of stiffener in mm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 34
When the upper column does not provide full bearing area over lower column, the column splice
is provided with the following assumption
(A) Bearing plate is assumed as a short beam to transmit the axial load to the lower column
section
(B) Axial load is assumed to be taken by flanges
(C) Load transmitted from the flanges of upper column and reactions from the flanges of lower
columns are equal and form a couple
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 35
For the economical design of a combined footing to support two equal column loads, the
projections of beams in lower tier are kept such that bending moment under column is equal to
(A) Bending moment at the centre of the beam
(B) Half the bending moment at the centre of the beam
(C) Twice the bending moment at the centre of the beam
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 36
The allowable shear stress in the web of mild steel beams decreases with
(A) Decrease in h/t ratio
(B) Increase in h/t ratio
(C) Decrease in thickness
(D) Increase in height
Where 'h is thickness
Answer: Option B

Question No. 37
On eccentrically loaded columns, the equivalent axial load may be obtained by
(A) Adding the axial load, eccentric load, the product of the bending moment due to eccentric
load and the appropriate bending factor
(B) Adding the axial load and eccentric load and subtracting the product of bending moment
and appropriate bending factor
 (C) Dividing the sum of axial load and eccentric load by the product of the bending moment and
appropriate bending factor
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 38
Stiffeners are used in a plate girder
(A) To reduce the compressive stress
(B) To reduce the shear stress
(C) To take the bearing stress
(D) To avoid bulking of web plate
Answer: Option D

Question No. 39
As compared to field rivets, the shop rivets are
(A) Stronger
(B) Weaker
(C) Equally strong
(D) Any of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 40
A fillet weld whose axis is parallel to the direction of the applied load, is known as
(A) Diagonal filler weld
(B) End fillet weld
(C) Side fillet weld
(D) All the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 41
In a truss girder of a bridge, a diagonal consists of mild steel flat 4001.S.F. and carries a pull of 80
tonnes. If the gross-diameter of the rivet is 26 mm, the number of rivets required in the splice, is
(A) 6
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 9
Answer: Option C

Question No. 42
When the bolts are subjected to reversal of stresses, the most suitable type of bolt is
(A) Black bolt
(B) Ordinary unfinished bolt
(C) Turned and fitted bolt
(D) High strength bolt
Answer: Option D
Question No. 43
Factor of safety is the ratio of
(A) Yield stress to working stress
(B) Tensile stress to working stress
(C) Compressive stress to working stress
(D) Bearing stress to working stress
Answer: Option A

Question No. 44
The size of a butt weld is specified by the effective throat thickness which in the case of
incomplete penetration, is taken as
(A) ½ of the thickness of thicker part
(B) ¾ of the thickness of thicker part
(C) ¾ of the thickness of thinner part
(D) 7/8 of the thickness of thinner part
Answer: Option D

Question No. 45
The best arrangement to provide unified behaviour in built up steel columns is by
(A) Lacing
(B) Battening
(C) Tie plates
(D) Perforated cover plates
Answer: Option A

Question No. 46
The ratio of shearing stress to shearing strain within elastic limit, is known as
(A) Modulus of elasticity
(B) Shear modulus of elasticity
(C) Bulk modulus of elasticity
(D) Tangent modulus of elasticity
Answer: Option B

Question No. 47
In a built up section carrying a tensile force, the flanges of two channels are turned outward
(A) To simplify the transverse connections
(B) To minimise lacing
(C) To have greater lateral rigidity
(D) All the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 48
The overlap of batten plates with the main members in welded connections should be more than
(A) 3 t
(B) 4 t
 (C) 6 t
(D) 8 t
t
Answer: Option B

Question No. 49
A fillet weld may be termed as
(A) Mitre weld
(B) Concave weld
(C) Convex weld
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 50
Modified moment of inertia of sections with a single web, is equal to moment of inertia of the
section about Y-Y axis at the point of maximum bending moment and is multiplied by the ratio of
(A) Area of compression flange at the minimum bending moment to the corresponding area at
the point of maximum bending moment
(B) Area of tension flange at the minimum bending moment of the corresponding area at the
point of maximum bending moment
(C) Total area of flanges at the maximum bending moment to the corresponding area at the
point of maximum bending moment
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 51
Gantry girders are designed to resist
(A) Lateral loads
(B) Longitudinal loads and vertical loads
(C) Lateral, longitudinal and vertical loads
(D) Lateral and longitudinal loads
Answer: Option C

Question No. 52
The distance between e.g. of compression and e.g. of tension flanges of a plate girder, is known as
(A) Overall depth
(B) Clear depth
(C) Effective depth
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 53
The effective length of a compression member of length L held in position at both ends but not
restrained in direction, is
(A) L
 (B) 0.67 L
(C) 0.85 L
(D) 1.5 L
Answer: Option A

Question No. 54
The live load for a sloping roof with slope 15°, where access is not provided to roof, is taken as
(A) 0.65 kN/m²
(B) 0.75 kN/m²
(C) 1.35 kN/m²
(D) 1.50 kN/m²
Answer: Option A

Question No. 55
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Dead load includes self-weight of the structure and super-imposed loads permanently
attached to the structure
(B) Dead loads change their positions and vary in magnitude
(C) Dead loads are known in the beginning of the design
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 56
Design of a riveted joint is based on the assumption:
(A) Bending stress in rivets is accounted for
(B) Riveted hole is assumed to be completely filled by the rivet
(C) Stress in the plate in not uniform
(D) Friction between plates is taken into account
Answer: Option B

Question No. 57
Steel tanks are mainly designed for
(A) Weight of tank
(B) Wind pressure
(C) Water pressure
(D) Earthquake forces
Answer: Option C

Question No. 58
The cross-section of a standard fillet is a triangle whose base angles are
(A) 45° and 45°
(B) 30° and 60°
(C) 40° and 50°
(D) 20° and 70°
Answer: Option A
Question No. 59
If N is the number of rivets in the joint, the strength of a riveted joint against shearing of rivets, is
given by
(A) Ps = N d2 × Ps
(B) Ps = N × (d × t × ps)
(C) Ps = N × (p - d) × t × Ps
(D) Ps = N × (P + d) × t × ps
Answer: Option A

Question No. 60
The sway bracing is designed to transfer
(A) 2Vi % of the top panel wind load to bottom bracing
(B) 10% of the top panel wind load to bottom bracing
(C) 25% of the top panel wind load to bottom bracing
(D) 50% of the top panel wind load to bottom bracing
Answer: Option D

Question No. 61
Column footing is provided
(A) To spread the column load over a larger area
(B) To ensure that intensity of bearing pressure between the column footing and soil does not
exceed permissible bearing capacity of the soil
(C) To distribute the column load over soil through the column footing
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 62
Cold driven rivets range from
(A) 6 to 10 mm in diameter
(B) 10 to 16 mm in diameter
(C) 12 to 22 mm in diameter
(D) 22 to 32 mm in diameter
Answer: Option C

Question No. 63
The mechanism method of plastic analysis satisfies
(A) Equilibrium and mechanism conditions
(B) Equilibrium and plastic moment conditions
(C) Mechanism and plastic moment conditions
(D) Equilibrium condition only
Answer: Option A

Question No. 64
Rolled steel beams are designated by Indian Standard series and its
(A) Weight per metre and depth of its section
 (B) Depth of section and weight per metre
(C) Width of flange and weight per metre
(D) Weight per metre and flange width
Answer: Option B

Question No. 65
When plates are exposed to weather, tacking rivets are provided at a pitch in line not exceeding
(where t is the thickness of the outside plate).
(A) 8 t
(B) 16 t
(C) 24 t
(D) 32 t
Answer: Option B

Question No. 66
For a compression member with double angle section, which of the following section will give
larger value of minimum radius of gyration?
(A) Equal angles back to back
(B) Unequal legged angles with long legs back to back
(C) Unequal legged angles with short legs back to back
(D) Both (B) and (C)
Answer: Option B

Question No. 67
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The minimum pitch should not be less than 2.5 times the gross diameter of the river
(B) The minimum pitch should not be less than 12 times the gross diameter of the rivet
(C) The maximum pitch should not exceed 10 times the thickness or 150 mm whichever is less in
compression
(D) All the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 68
The gross section of the web of a beam is defined as
(A) Depth of the beam multiplied by its web thickness
(B) Width of the flange multiplied by its web thickness
(C) Sum of the flange width and depth of the beam multiplied by the web thickness
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 69
Pitch of tacking rivets, when double angles connected back to back and acting as tension members
should not be more than
(A) 500 mm
(B) 600 mm
 (C) 1000 mm
(D) 300 mm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 70
For a steel grillage footing to support two unequal column loads
(A) Line of action of the resultant of two column loads, is made to coincide with the centre of
gravity of the base of the footing
(B) Trapezoidal shape is used for the base footing
(C) Projections of beams on either side in lower tier are such that bending moments under
columns are equal
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 71
In a tension member if one or more than one rivet holes are off the line, the failure of the member
depends upon:
(A) Pitch
(B) Gauge
(C) Diameter of the rivet holes
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 72
The heaviest I-section for same depth is
(A) ISMB
(B) ISLB
(C) ISHB
(D) ISWB
Answer: Option C

Question No. 73
The effective length of a compression member of length L, held in position and restrained in
direction at both ends, is
(A) L
(B) 0.67 L
(C) 0.85 L
(D) 1.5 L
Answer: Option B

Question No. 74
Efficiency of a riveted joint is defined as the ratio of
(A) Least strength of a riveted joint to the strength of solid plate
(B) Greatest strength of a riveted joint to the strength of solid plate
(C) Least strength of a riveted plate to the greatest strength of the riveted joint
 (D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 75
By providing sufficient edge distance, which of the following failures of riveted joint can be
avoided?
(A) Tension failure of the plate
(B) Shear failure of the rivet
(C) Shear failure of the plate
(D) Crushing failure of the rivet
Answer: Option C

Question No. 76
The maximum tensile and compressive bending stress in extreme fibres of rolled I-sections and
channels on the effective section, is
(A) 1500 kg/cm2
(B) 1420 kg/cm2
(C) 1650 kg/cm2
(D) 2285 kg/cm2
Answer: Option C

Question No. 77
When the ratio of the moment M to axial load P is greater than L/6, the resultant of the
compressive bearing pressure which acts at a distance Y from one side, is given by
(A) y = (L/3) - (M/P)
(B) y = (L/2) - (P/M)
(C) y = (L/2) + (M/P)
(D) y = (L/3) + (M/P)
Answer: Option B

Question No. 78
A circular column section is generally not used in actual practice because
(A) It is uneconomical
(B) It cannot carry the load safely
(C) It is difficult to connect beams to the round sections
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 79
The safe working pressure for a spherical vessel 1.5 m diameter and having 1.5 cm thick wall not
to exceed tensile stress 50kg/cm2, is
(A) 16 kg/cm2
(B) 18 kg/cm2
(C) 20 kg/cm2
(D) 22 kg/cm2
 Answer: Option C

Question No. 80
Rise of a Jack arch is kept about
(A) 1/2 to 1/3 of the span
(B) 1/3 to 1/4 of the span
(C) 1/4 to 1/8 of the span
(D) 1/8 to 1/12 of the span
Answer: Option D

Question No. 81
Battening is preferable when the
(i) Column carries axial load only
(ii) Space between the two main components is not very large
(iii) Column is eccentrically loaded
The correct answer is
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (iii)
(C) (i) and (ii)
(D) (ii) and (iii)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 82
For a steel member of slenderness ratio 350, the allowable stress is 76 kg/cm2 if it is
(A) HTW grade of thickness exceeding 32 mm
(B) HT grade of thickness exceeding 45 mm
(C) HT grade of thickness not exceeding 45 mm
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 83
The main type of butt joints, is a double cover
(A) Shear riveted joint
(B) Chain riveted joint
(C) Zig-zag riveted joint
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 84
Bearing stiffener in a plate girder is used to
(A) Transfer the load from the top flange to the bottom one
(B) Prevent buckling of web
(C) Decrease the effective depth of web
(D) Prevent excessive deflection
Answer: Option B
Question No. 85
The central deflection of a simply supported steel beam of length L with a concentrated load W at
the centre, is
(A) WL3/3EI
(B) WL4/3EI
(C) WL3/48EI
(D) 5WL4/384EI
Answer: Option C

Question No. 86
If d is the distance between the flange angles,
(A) Vertical stiffeners are provided in steel plate girders if the web is less than d/85
(B) Vertical stiffeners are provided in high tensile steel plate girders if the web is less than d/175
(C) Horizontal stiffeners are provided in steel plate girders if the web is less than d/200
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 87
Area of openings for buildings of large permeability is more than
(A) 10% of wall area
(B) 20% of wall area
(C) 30% of wall area
(D) 50% of wall area
Answer: Option B

Question No. 88
In case horizontal stiffeners are not used, the distance between vertical legs of flange angles at the
top and bottom of a plate girder, is known as
(A) Overall depth
(B) Clear depth
(C) Effective depth
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 89
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The steel beams placed in plain cement concrete, are known as reinforced beams
(B) The filler joists are generally continuous over three-supports only
(C) Continuous fillers are connected to main beams by means of cleat angles
(D) Continuous fillers are supported by main steel beams
Answer: Option D

Question No. 90
The diameter of base of conical flare of a steel stack is
(A) Less than d
 (B) Equal to d
(C) More than d
(D) Any of the above
is the diameter of the cylindrical part
Answer: Option C

Question No. 91
The effective length of a compression member of length L held in position and restrained in
direction at one end and effectively restrained in direction but not held in position at the other
end, is
(A) L
(B) 0.67 L
(C) 0.85 L
(D) 1.5 L
Answer: Option A

Question No. 92
Working shear stress on the gross area of a rivet as recommended by Indian Standards, is
(A) 785 kg/cm2
(B) 1025 kg/cm2
(C) 2360 kg/cm2
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 93
The least dimensio D
(A) 0.5 D
(B) 0.68 D
(C) 0.88 D
(D) D
Answer: Option C

Question No. 94
The critical load for a column of length I hinged at both ends and having flexural rigidity El, is given
by
(A) Pc = ²EI/l²
(B) Pc = /l²
(C) Pc = /I²
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 95
Length of an outstanding leg of a vertical stiffener, may be taken equal to
(A) 1/10th of clear depth of the girder plus 15 mm
(B) 1/20th of clear depth of the girder plus 20 mm
 (C) 1/25th of clear depth of the girder plus 25 mm
(D) 1/30th of clear depth of the girder plus 50 mm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 96
In case of plastic design, the calculated maximum shear capacity of a beam as per IS: 800 shall be
(A) 0.55 Aw.fy
(B) 0.65 Aw.fy
(C) 0.75 Aw.fy
(D) 0.85 Aw.fy
Where, Aw = effective cross-sectional area resisting shear fy = yield stress of the steel
Answer: Option A

Question No. 97
If the depth of two column sections is equal, then the column splice is provided
(A) With filler plates
(B) With bearing plates
(C) With filler and hearing plates
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 98
On steel structures the dead load is the weight of
(A) Steel work
(B) Material fastened to steel work
(C) Material supported permanently
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 99
A steel beam supporting loads from the floor slab as well as from wall is termed as
(A) Stringer beam
(B) Lintel beam
(C) Spandrel beam
(D) Header beam
Answer: Option C

Question No. 100

The area Ap of cover plates in one flange of a built up beam, is given by
(A) Ap = Zreqr + Zbeam/h
(B) Ap = Zreqr + Zbeam/A
(C) Ap = Zreqr × Zbeam/h
(D) Ap = Zreqr - Zbeam/h
Answer: Option D
Question No. 101
The economical depth d of a web plate in which allowable bearing stress is fb, and the maximum
bending moment is M, as suggested by Rawater and Clark, is
(A) d = (M/fb)
(B) d = 1.5 (M/fb)
(C) d = 2.5 (M/fb)
(D) d = 4.5 (M/fb)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 102

Bending compressive and tensile stresses respectively are calculated based on
(A) Net area and gross area
(B) Gross area and net area
(C) Net area in both cases
(D) Gross area in both cases
Answer: Option B

Question No. 103

The thickness t of a single flat lacing should not be less than
(A) 1/30th length between inner end rivets
(B) 1/40th length between inner end rivets
(C) 1/50th length between inner end rivets
(D) 1/60th length between inner end rivets
Answer: Option B

Question No. 104

Minimum pitch of the rivets shall not be less than
(A) 1.5 d
(B) 2.0 d
(C) 2.5 d
(D) 3.0 d
Where d is gross diameter of rivet
Answer: Option C

Question No. 105

Tongue plates are provided in a steel girder at
(A) The upper flange
(B) The lower flange
(C) The upper end of the web
(D) The upper and lower ends of the web
Answer: Option D

Question No. 106

For steel members exposed to weather and not accessible for repainting, the thickness of steel
should not be less than
 (A) 4.5 mm
(B) 6 mm
(C) 8 mm
(D) 10 mm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 107

The slenderness ratio of a column supported throughout its length by a masonry wall is
(A) Zero
(B) 10
(C) 100
(D) Infinity
Answer: Option A

Question No. 108

The main assumption of the method of simple design of steel frame work, is:
(A) Beams are simply supported
(B) All connections of beams, girders and trusses are virtually flexible
(C) Members in compression are subjected to forces applied at appropriate eccentricities
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 109

Outstanding length of a compression member consisting of a channel, is measured as
(A) Half of the nominal width
(B) Nominal width of the section
(C) From the edge to the first row of rivets
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 110

The use of tie plates in laced columns is
(A) Prohibited
(B) Not prohibited
(C) Permitted at start and end of lacing system only
(D) Permitted between two parts of the lacing
Answer: Option C

Question No. 111

According to IS : 800-1962 the permissible bending stress in steel slab plates, is
(A) 1500 kg/cm2
(B) 1420 kg/cm2
(C) 2125 kg/cm2
(D) 1890 kg/cm2
Answer: Option D
Question No. 112
The side thrust T on the tie rods provided at the end beam of jack arch of rise R, is calculated from
the formula
(A) T = WL/4R
(B) T = WR/8L
(C) T = WL/8R
(D) T = WL/2R
Answer: Option C

Question No. 113

Intermediate vertical stiffeners in a plate girder need be provided if the depth of web exceeds
(A) 50 t
(B) 85 t
(C) 200 t
(D) 250 t
t
Answer: Option B

Question No. 114

The minimum pitch of rivet holes of diameter d should not be less than
(A) d
(B) 1.25 d
(C) 1.5 d
(D) 2.5 d
Answer: Option D

Question No. 115

Design of a riveted joint, is based on the assumption:
(A) Load is uniformly distributed among all the rivets
(B) Shear stress on a rivet is uniformly distributed over its gross area
(C) Bearing stress in the rivet is neglected
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 116

For the buildings having a low permeability, the internal wind pressure acting normal to the wall
and roof surfaces is taken as
(A) Zero
(B) ±0.2 p
(C) ± 0.5 p
(D) ±0.7 p
Where p is basic wind pressure
Answer: Option B
Question No. 117
If is the maximum allowable bending stress in a tension member whose radius of gyration
is and depth is 2y, the required cross sectional area is given by
(A) A = My/fr²
(B) A = My²/fr²
(C) A = My/fr
(D) A = My/f²r²
Answer: Option A

Question No. 118

The load on a lintel is assumed as uniformly distributed if the height of the masonry above it, is
upto a height of
(A) The effective span
(B) 1.25 times the effective span
(C) 1.50 times the effective span
(D) 2.0 times the effective span
Answer: Option B

Question No. 119

Maximum pitch of rivets, used in steel stacks, is limited to
(A) 6 t
(B) 10 t
(C) 12 t
(D) 16 t
t
Answer: Option B

Question No. 120

Diameter of a rivet hole is made larger than the diameter of the rivet by
(A) 1.0 mm for rivet diameter upto 12 mm
(B) 1.5 mm for rivet diameter exceeding 25 mm
(C) 2.0 mm for rivet diameter over 25 mm
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 121

According to IS: 800-1962, the coefficient of expansion of steel per degree centigrade per unit
length, is taken as
(A) 0.000008
(B) 0.000010
(C) 0.000012
(D) 0.000014
Answer: Option C
Question No. 122
In case of timber structures, the simple bending formula M = fz may be applied for
(A) Rectangular beams up to 300 mm depth
(B) All rectangular beams
(C) Solid circular beams only
(D) All square cross-section beams
Answer: Option A

Question No. 123

Perforated cover plates are particularly suitable for built up sections consisting of
(A) Channels placed back to back
(B) Channels placed toe to toe
(C) Four angle box section
(D) All the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 124

If R is the reaction on the bearing plate, the minimum moment of. inertia of the bearing stiffener
provided at the support of a plate girder of overall depth D, the maximum thickness of the
compression flange T, carrying total load W, is
(A) (D²/250) × (R/W)
(B) (D3T/250) × (R/W)
(C) (DT/250) × (R/W)
(D) (DT/250) × (W/R)
Answer: Option B

Question No. 125

As per IS: 800, in the plastic design, which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Working Loads Load factor
(i) Dead load 1.7
(ii) Dead Load + imposed load 1.7
(iii) Dead load + load due to wind or 1.3 seismic forces
(iv) Dead load + imposed load + load 1.7 due to wind or seismic forces
Of these statements
(A) (i) and (ii) are correct
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(C) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(D) Only (i) is correct
Answer: Option A

Question No. 126

Effective length of a column effectively held in position and restrained in direction at both ends, is
(A) L
(B) 0.67 L
(C) 0.85 L
 (D) 1.5 L
Answer: Option B

Question No. 127

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The ends of a strut, are connected together with two rivets
(B) The members of strut will have at least two connections spaced equidistant in their length
(C) The members when separated back-to-back, the connecting rivets should pass through solid
washer or packing
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 128

For rivets in tension with countersunk heads, the tensile value shall be
(A) Reduced by 25 %
(B) Reduced by 33.3%
(C) Increased by 25 %
(D) Increased by 33.3 %
Answer: Option B

Question No. 129

Effective length of a column effectively held in position and restrained in direction at one end but
neither held in position nor restrained in direction at the other end, is
(A) 1.5 L
(B) 0.67 L
(C) 0.85 L
(D) 2 L
Answer: Option D

Question No. 130

The equivalent axial load may be defined as the load which produces a stress equal to
(A) Maximum stress produced by the eccentric load
(B) Maximum stressed fibre
(C) Bending stress
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 131

If the thickness of thinnest outside plate is 10 mm, then the maximum pitch of rivets in tension
will be taken as
(A) 120 mm
(B) 160 mm
(C) 200 mm
(D) 300 mm
Answer: Option B
Question No. 132
The connection of one beam to another beam by means of an angle at the bottom and an angle at
the top, is known as
(A) Unstiffened seated connection
(B) Stiffened seated connection
(C) Seated connection
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 133

The channels get twisted symmetrically with regard to its axis
(A) Parallel to flanges
(B) Parallel to web
(C) Perpendicular to flanges
(D) Perpendicular to web
Answer: Option B

Question No. 134

Bolts are most suitable to carry
(A) Shear
(B) Bending
(C) Axial tension
(D) Shear and bending
Answer: Option C

Question No. 135

Rolled steel angle sections are classified as
(A) Equal angles
(B) Unequal angles
(C) Bulb angles
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 136

According to I.S. : 800 - 1871, lacing bars resist transverse shear equal to
(A) 1.0% of the axial load
(B) 2.0% of the axial load
(C) 2.5% of the axial load
(D) 3.0% of the axial load
Answer: Option C

Question No. 137

The effective length of a battened strut effectively held in position at both ends but not restrained
in direction is taken as
(A) 1.8 L
 (B) L
(C) 1.1 L
(D) 1.5 L
Answer: Option C

Question No. 138

The method of design of steel framework for greatest rigidity and economy in weight, is known as
(A) Simply design
(B) Semi-rigid design
(C) Fully rigid design
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 139

For a cantilever beam of length built-in at the support and restrained against torsion at the free
end, the effective projecting length is
(A) l = 0.7 L
(B) l = 0.75 L
(C) l = 0.85 L
(D) l = 0.5 L
Answer: Option B

Question No. 140

Economical depth of a plate girder corresponds to
(A) Minimum weight
(B) Minimum depth
(C) Maximum weight
(D) Minimum thickness of web
Answer: Option A

Question No. 141

Slenderness ratio of a compression member is
(A) Moment of inertia/Radius of gyration
(B) Effective length/Area of cross-section
(C) Radius of gyration/Effective length
(D) Radius of gyration/ Area of cross-section
Answer: Option C

Question No. 142

The least permissible clear dimension of the web of thickness t in the panel of a plate girder, is
restricted to
(A) 150 t
(B) 160 t
(C) 170 t
(D) 180 t
 Answer: Option D

Question No. 143

Bearing stiffeners are provided at
(i) The supports
(ii) The mid span
(iii) The point of application of concentrated loads
The correct answer is
(A) Only (i)
(B) Both (i) and (ii)
(C) Both (i) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 144

Web crippling generally occurs at the point where
(A) Bending moment is maximum
(B) Shearing force is minimum
(C) Concentrated loads act
(D) Deflection is maximum
Answer: Option C

Question No. 145

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The slenderness ratio of lacing bars for compression members should not exceed 145
(B) The minimum width of lacing bar connected with rivets of nominal diameter 16 mm, is kept
50 mm
(C) The minimum thickness of a flat lacing bar is kept equal to one-fortieth of its length between
inner end rivets
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 146

The basic wind speed is specified at a height 'h' above mean ground level in an open terrain. The
value of 'h' is
(A) 10 m
(B) 20 m
(C) 25 m
(D) 50 m
Answer: Option A

Question No. 147

If d is the distance between the flange angles, the vertical stiffeners in plate girders are spaced not
greater than
(A) d
 (B) 1.25 d
(C) 1.5 d
(D) 1.75 d
Answer: Option C

Question No. 148

If d is the distance between the flange angles of a plate girder, vertical stiffeners are provided at a
distance not greater than
(A) d but not less than 0.20 d
(B) 1.25 d but not less than 0.33 d
(C) 1.5 d but not less than 0.33 d
(D) 2.0 d but not less than 0.50 d
Answer: Option B

Question No. 149

The allowable tensile stress in structural mild steel plates for steel tank is assumed as
(A) 95.0 MPa on net area
(B) 105.5 MPa on net area
(C) 105.5 MPa on gross area
(D) 150.0 MPa on gross area
Answer: Option B

Question No. 150

A second horizontal stiffener is always placed at the neutral axis of the girder if the thickness of
the web is less than
(A) d/250 for structural steel
(B) d/225 for high tensile steel
(C) Both (c) and (b)
(D) Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 151

The strength of ISA 125 = 75 × 10 mm used as a tie member with its longer leg connected at the
ends by 27 mm diameter rivets, is
(A) 26,000 kg
(B) 26,025 kg
(C) 26,050 kg
(D) 26,075 kg
Answer: Option D

Question No. 152

The effect of racking forces is considered in the design of
(i) Lateral braces
(ii) Chord members
The correct answer is
 (A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Both (i) and (ii)
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 153

For a column of height fixed in position and direction both at its top and bottom, its effective
length, is
(A) L
(B) L
(C) ½ L
(D) 2L
Answer: Option C

Question No. 154

As per ISI, rolled steel beam sections are classified into
(A) Two series
(B) Three series
(C) Four series
(D) Five series
Answer: Option D

Question No. 155

Shape factor is a property which depends
(A) Only on the ultimate stress of the material
(B) Only on the yield stress of the material
(C) Only on the geometry of the section
(D) Both on the yield stress and ultimate stress of material
Answer: Option C

Question No. 156

A tension member, if subjected to possible reversal of stress due to wind, the slenderness ratio of
the member should not exceed
(A) 180
(B) 200
(C) 300
(D) 350
Answer: Option D

Question No. 157

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Tacking rivets are used if the minimum distance between centres of two adjacent rivets
exceeds 12 t or 200 mm, whichever is less
(B) Tacking rivets are not considered to calculate stress
 (C) Tacking rivets are provided throughout the length of a compression member composed of
two components back to back
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 158

Lug angles
(A) Are used to reduce the length of connection
(B) Are unequal angles
(C) Increases shear lag
(D) All the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 159

The Indian standard code which deals with steel structures, is
(A) IS : 875
(B) IS : 800
(C) IS : 456
(D) IS : 1893
Answer: Option B

Question No. 160

Under a concentrated load, bearing stress fb in a beam is given by (where b is the length of the
bearing plate and h is the depth of the root of the fillet).
(A) fb = W/(b + h tw
(B) fb = W/(b + 2h tw
(C) fb = W/(b + 2h tw
(D) fb = W/(b + h tw
Answer: Option B

Question No. 161

When the axis of load lies in the plane of rivet group, then the rivets are subjected to
(A) Only shear stresses
(B) Only tensile stresses
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 162

For double angles carrying tension, placed back to back and connected to either side of the gusset
plate, the sectional area of the section, is equal to cross sectional area of
(A) The section
(B) The section plus area of rivet holes
(C) The section minus area of rivet holes
(D) The section multiplied by the area of the rivet hole
 Answer: Option C

Question No. 163

The beam outside a wall upto floor level above it, is known as
(A) Rafter
(B) Purlin
(C) Spandrel beam
(D) Lintel
Answer: Option C

Question No. 164

In the cross-section of a weld, throat is the
(A) Minimum dimension
(B) Average dimension
(C) Maximum dimension
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 165

The rivets which are heated and then driven in the field, are known
(A) Power driven shop rivets
(B) Power driven field rivets
(C) Hand driven rivets
(D) Cold driven rivets
Answer: Option B

Question No. 166

If fbt and fc are the co-existent bending tensile stress and shear stress in a member, the equivalent
stress fc is
(A) fbt² + fc²)
(B) fbt² + ½fc²)
(C) fbt² + 3fc²)
(D) fbt² - 3fc²)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 167

According to IS: 800, in the Merchant Rankine formula the value of imperfection index (n) is
(A) 1.0
(B) 1.4
(C) 1.8
(D) 2.0
Answer: Option B

Question No. 168

When a large value of radius of gyration is not required
 (A) Channels are placed back to back
(B) Channel flanges are kept inward
(C) Channel flanges are kept outward
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 169

The ratio of hydrostatic stress to the volumetric strain within the elastic range, is called
(A) Modulus of elasticity
(B) Shear modulus of elasticity
(C) Bulk modulus of elasticity
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 170

Minimum thickness of web in a plate girder, when the plate is accessible and also exposed to
weather, is
(A) 5 mm
(B) 6 mm
(C) 8 mm
(D) 10 mm
Answer: Option B

Question No. 171

If d is the distance between the flange angles, the vertical stiffeners in plate girders without
horizontal stiffeners, are spaced at a distance not less than
(A) 0.15 d
(B) 0.22 d
(C) 0.33 d
(D) 0.44 d
Answer: Option C

Question No. 172

Long column is one
(A) Which is more than 3 m long
(B) Whose lateral dimension is less than 25 cm
(C) Which is free at its top
(D) Which has a ratio of effective length and least lateral dimension more than 15
Answer: Option D

Question No. 173

To minimize the total cost of a roof truss, the ratio of the cost of truss to the cost of purlins shall
be
(A) 1
(B) 2
 (C) 3
(D) 4
Answer: Option B

Question No. 174

When the length of a tension member is too long
(A) A wire rope is used
(B) A rod is used
(C) A bar is used
(D) A single angle is used
Answer: Option C

Question No. 175

In factory buildings, the horizontal beams spanning between the wall columns supporting a wall
covering, are called
(A) Stringers
(B) Trimmers
(C) Girts
(D) Lintels
Answer: Option C

Question No. 176

The minimum thickness of plates in a steel stack should be
(A) 4 mm
(B) 5 mm
(C) 6 mm
(D) 8 mm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 177

To keep the intensity of bearing pressure between the column base and concrete, compressive
throughout the length of the column base, the ratio of the moment M to axial load P should be
(A) < L/3
(B) < L/6
(C) > L/3
(D) > L/6
Answer: Option B

Question No. 178

A structural member subjected to tensile force in a direction parallel to its longitudinal axis, is
generally known as
(A) A tie
(B) A tie member
(C) A tension member
(D) All the above
 Answer: Option D

Question No. 179

Compression force in two end posts, the pin of a rocker bearing in a bridge is designed for
(A) Bearing and shear
(B) Bending and shear
(C) Bearing and bending
(D) Bearing, shear and bending
Answer: Option D

Question No. 180

According to the Unwin's formula, if is thickness of the plate in mm, the nominal diameter of
the rivet, is
(A) d = 1.91 t
(B) d = 1.91 t2
(C) d = 1.91 t
(D) d = 1.91 t
Answer: Option C

Question No. 181

If the area of cross-section of a single angle discontinuous strut is 30 cm2 and allowable working
stress corresponding to its slenderness ratio is 625 kg/cm2, the safe load carrying capacity of the
member, is
(A) 10 tonnes
(B) 12 tonnes
(C) 15 tonnes
(D) 18 tonnes
Answer: Option C

Question No. 182

The ratio of plastic section modulus to elastic section modulus
(A) Is equal to 1
(B) Is always less than 1
(C) Is always greater than 1
(D) Can be less than 1
Answer: Option C

Question No. 183

Bulb angles are used in
(A) Column building
(B) Bridge building
(C) Ship building
(D) Water tank building
Answer: Option C
Question No. 184
The diameter of a bolt hole is taken as the nominal diameter of the bolt plus
(A) 1.0 mm
(B) 1.2 mm
(C) 1.4 mm
(D) 1.6 mm
Answer: Option D

Question No. 185

The minimum thickness of a steel plate, which is directly exposed to weather and is not accessible
for cleaning and repainting, should be:
(A) 4.5 mm
(B) 6 mm
(C) 8 mm
(D) 10 mm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 186

For determination of allowable stress in axial compression, Indian Standard Institution has
adopted
(A) Euler's formula
(B) Rankine formula
(C) Perry Robertson formula
(D) Secant formula
Answer: Option D

Question No. 187

Rolled steel beams are:
(A) Mainly used to resist bending stress
(B) Used as independent sections to resist compressive stress
(C) Used as independent sections to resist tensile stress
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 188

When the axis of load lies in the plane of rivet group, then the most heavily loaded rivet will be
the one which

moment in any rivet.)

(A) Is at the maximum distance from CG of the rivet group
(B) Is at the minimum distance from CG of the rivet group
(C) Gives the maximum angle between the two forces Fa and Fm
(D) Gives the minimum angle between the two forces Fa and Fm
Answer: Option D
Question No. 189
According to IS : 800 - 71, the minimum thickness of a vertically stiffened web plate, shall not be
less than
(A) d/85
(B) d/200
(C) d/225
(D) d/250
Answer: Option D

Question No. 190

A web plate is called unstiffened if the ratio of clear depth to thickness is less than
(A) 35
(B) 50
(C) 65
(D) 85
Answer: Option D

Question No. 191

A butt weld is specified by
(A) Effective throat thickness
(B) Plate thickness
(C) Size of weld
(D) Penetration thickness
Answer: Option A

Question No. 192

The most economical section for a column, is
(A) Rectangular
(B) Solid round
(C) Flat strip
(D) Tubular section
Answer: Option D

Question No. 193

In rolled steel beams, shear force is mostly resisted by
(A) Web only
(B) Flanges only
(C) Web and flanges together
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 194

If the 20 mm rivets are used in lacing bars, then the minimum width of lacing bar should be
(A) 40 mm
(B) 60 mm
 (C) 80 mm
(D) 100 mm
Answer: Option B

Question No. 195

The minimum edge distance of a rivet line connecting two or more plates, is kept equal to 37 mm
plus (where t is the thickness in mm of the thinner outside plate).
(A) 2 t
(B) 4 t
(C) 6 t
(D) 8 t
Answer: Option B

Question No. 196

For simply supported beams, the maximum permitted deflection, is
(A) 1/325 of the span
(B) 1/350 of the span
(C) 1/375 of the span
(D) 1/400 of the span
Answer: Option A

Question No. 197

Minimum spacing of vertical stiffeners is limited to
(A) d/4
(B) d/3
(C) d/2
(D) 2d/3
Where d is the distance between flange angles
Answer: Option B

Question No. 198

The rolled steel I-sections are most commonly used as beams because these provide
(A) Large moment of inertia with less cross-sectional area
(B) Large moment of resistance as compared to other section
(C) Greater lateral stability
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 199

If P is the wind pressure in kg/cm2, v is the velocity in km/hour and K is a constant of
proportionality, then
(A) P = K/v2
(B) v = K/P2
(C) P = Kv2
(D) P = Kv
 Answer: Option C

Question No. 200

As per IS : 875, for the purposes of specifying basic wind velocity, the country has been divided
into
(A) 4 zones
(B) 5 zones
(C) 6 zones
(D) 7 zones
Answer: Option C

Question No. 201

Net sectional area of a tension member, is equal to its gross section area
(A) Plus the area of the rivet holes
(B) Divided by the area of rivet holes
(C) Multiplied by the area of the rivet holes
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 202

For a single section used as a tension member, the given area is assumed
(A) 20% to 30% in excess of the net area
(B) 30% to 40% in excess of the net area
(C) 40% to 50% in excess of the net area
(D) 50% to 60% in excess of the net area
Answer: Option C

Question No. 203

Study the following statements.
(i) Top lateral bracing prevents the sides-way buckling of the chord.
(ii) Sway bracing keeps the rectangular shape of the bridge cross-section.
(iii) Sway bracing transfers the load from top of end posts to bearings.
The correct answer is
(A) Only (i)
(B) Both (i) and (ii)
(C) Both (i) and (iii)
(D) All (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer: Option B

Question No. 204

The effective length of a weld, is taken as the actual length
(A) Minus the size of weld
(B) Minus twice the size of weld
(C) Plus the size of weld
(D) Plus twice the size of weld
 Answer: Option B

Question No. 205

The greatest gauge of long rivets should not exceed (where d is the diameter of the holes).
(A) 2 d
(B) 4 d
(C) 6 d
(D) 8 d
Answer: Option D

Question No. 206

The shape factor of an isosceles triangle for bending about the axis parallel to the base is:
(A) 1.5
(B) 1.7
(C) 2.0
(D) 2.34
Answer: Option D

Question No. 207

Rolled steel Tee-sections are used
(A) As columns
(B) With flat strips to connect plates in steel rectangular tanks
(C) As built up sections to resist axial tension
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 208

Water pressure in a 80 cm water main is 10 kg/cm2. The minimum thickness of the metal required
for the water main, not to be stressed more than 200 kg/cm2, is
(A) 1 cm
(B) 1.5 cm
(C) 2 cm
(D) 2.5 cm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 209

Which of the following types of riveted joint is free from bending stresses?
(A) Lap joint
(B) Butt joint with single cover plate
(C) Butt joint with double cover plates
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 210

The beams supporting the steps of a stair are generally known as
 (A) Headers
(B) Trimmers
(C) Stringers
(D) Spandrel beams
Answer: Option C

Question No. 211

With usual notations of the letters, the shear stress fs at any point of the cross-section is given by
(A) fs =FQ/It
(B) fs =Ft/IQ
(C) fs =It/FQ
(D) fs =IF/Qt
Answer: Option A

Question No. 212

According to IS Specifications, the maximum pitch of rivets in compression is
(A) Lesser of 200 mm and 12 t
(B) Lesser of 200 mm and 16 t
(C) Lesser of 300 mm and 32 t
(D) Lesser of 3 00 mm and 24 t
Where t is thickness of thinnest outside plate or angle
Answer: Option A

Question No. 213

Poisson's ratio for steel within elastic limit, ranges from
(A) 0.15 to 0.20
(B) 0.25 to 0.24
(C) 0.25 to 0.33
(D) 0.33 to 0.35
Answer: Option C

Question No. 214

The minimum width B of a solid casing for a cased beam, is equal to
(A) B = b + 25 mm
(B) B = b + 50 mm
(C) B = b + 75 mm
(D) B = b + 100 mm
Answer: Option D

Question No. 215

Horizontal stiffener in a plate girder is provided to safeguard against
(A) Shear buckling of web plate
(B) Compression buckling of web plate
(C) Yielding
(D) All of the above
 Answer: Option B

Question No. 216

If W and L are the total superimposed load and the span of a plate girder in metres, the
approximate self weight (W) of the girder, is taken as
(A) M = WL/100
(B) M = WL/200
(C) M = WL/300
(D) M = WL/400
Answer: Option C

Question No. 217

Maximum permissible slenderness ratio of a member normally acting as a tie in a roof truss, is
(A) 180
(B) 200
(C) 250
(D) 350
Answer: Option D

Question No. 218

Normally, the angle of roof truss with asbestos sheets should not be less than
(A) 26½°
(B) 30°
(C) 35°
(D) 40°
Answer: Option B

Question No. 219

An imaginary line along which rivets are placed, is known as
(A) Rivet line
(B) Back line
(C) Gauge line
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 220

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Loaded columns are supported on column bases
(B) Column bases transmit the column load to the concrete foundation
(C) Column load is spread over a large area on concrete
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 221

The capacity of the smallest pressed steel tank is
 (A) 1000 litre
(B) 1650 litre
(C) 1950 litre
(D) 2450 litre
Answer: Option C

Question No. 222

The permissible stress to which a structural member can be subjected to, is known as
(A) Bearing stress
(B) Working stress
(C) Tensile stress
(D) Compressive stress
Answer: Option B

Question No. 223

Tacking rivets in tension members, are provided at a pitch in line not exceeding
(A) 25 cm
(B) 50 cm
(C) 75 cm
(D) 100 cm
Answer: Option D

Question No. 224

In case of timber structures, the form factor for solid circular cross-section is taken as
(A) 1.18
(B) 1.414
(C) 1.67
(D) 1.81
Answer: Option A

Question No. 225

The distance between the outer faces of flanges of a plate girder, is known as
(A) Overall depth
(B) Clear depth
(C) Effective depth
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 226

When the depth of a plate girder is at least times the depth of vertical leg of the flange angles,
the girder is known as deep plate girder, if is
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8
 Answer: Option D

Question No. 227

Which of the following conditions is to be satisfied both in elastic and plastic analysis?
(A) Equilibrium condition
(B) Yield condition
(C) Plastic moment condition
(D) Mechanism condition
Answer: Option A

Question No. 228

If the pitch is 6 cm and rivet value is 4 tonnes, the number of rivets required for a riveted
connection carrying an eccentric load of 15 tonnes at a distance of 30 cm from the centre line, is
(A) 6
(B) 8
(C) 10
(D) 15
Answer: Option B

Question No. 229

In a grillage footing, the maximum shear force occurs at the
(A) Edge of grillage beam
(B) Centre of base plate
(C) Centre of grillage beam
(D) Centre of base plate
Answer: Option B

Question No. 230

The difference between gross diameter and nominal diameter for the rivets up to 25 mm diameter
is
(A) 1.0 mm
(B) 1.5 mm
(C) 2.0 mm
(D) 2.5 mm
Answer: Option B

Question No. 231

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Vertical stiffeners may be placed in pairs one on each side of the web
(B) Single vertical stiffeners may be placed alternately on opposite sides of the web
(C) Horizontal stiffeners may be placed alternately on opposite sides of the web
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 232
The greatest permissible clear dimension of the web of thickness t in the panel of a plate girder, is
restricted to
(A) 180 t
(B) 220 t
(C) 230 t
(D) 270 t
Answer: Option D

Question No. 233

The maximum slenderness ratio of a compression member carrying both dead and superimposed
load is
(A) 180
(B) 200
(C) 250
(D) 350
Answer: Option A

Question No. 234

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) The nominal diameter of a rivet is its diameter before driving
(B) The gross diameter of a rivet is the diameter of rivet hole
(C) The gross area of a rivet is the cross-sectional area of the rivet hole
(D) The diameter of a rivet hole is equal to the nominal diameter of the rivet plus 1.5 mm
Answer: Option D

Question No. 235

Effective length of a column effectively held in position at both ends and restrained in direction at
one end, is
(A) L
(B) 0.67 L
(C) 0.85 L
(D) 1.5 L
Answer: Option C

Question No. 236

As per IS : 800, for compression flange, the outstand of flange plates should not exceed
(A) 12 t
(B) 16 t
(C) 20 t
(D) 25 t
t
Answer: Option B
Question No. 237
If the unsupported length of a stanchion is 4 metres and least radius of gyration of its cross-section
is 5, the slenderness ratio of the stanchion, is
(A) 60
(B) 70
(C) 80
(D) 100
Answer: Option C

Question No. 238

For a cantilever beam of length continuous at the support and unrestrained against torsion at
the support and free at the end, the effective length is equal to
(A) l = L
(B) l = 2L
(C) l = 0.5L
(D) l = 3L
Answer: Option D

Question No. 239

Hudson's formula gives the dead weight of a truss bridge as a function of
(A) Bottom chord area
(B) Top chord area
(C) Effective span of bridge
(D) Heaviest axle load of engine
Answer: Option A

Question No. 240

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) When the gauge distance is larger than the pitch, the failure of the section may occur in a
zig-zag line
(B) When the gauge distance is smaller than the pitch, the failure of the section may occur in a
straight right angle section through the centre of rivet holes
(C) When the gauge distance and pitch are both equal, the failure to the section becomes more
likely as the diameter of the holes increases
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 241

The deflection of beams may be decreased by
(A) Increasing the depth of beam
(B) Increasing the span
(C) Decreasing the depth of beam
(D) Increasing the width of beam
Answer: Option A
Question No. 242
The moment-curvature relation at a plastic hinge is
(A) Linear
(B) Parabolic
(C) Constant moment for all curvatures
(D) Constant curvature for all moments
Answer: Option C

Question No. 243

If the depth of the section of an upper column is smaller than the lower column
(A) Filler plates are provided with column splice
(B) Bearing plates are provided with column splice
(C) Filler plates and bearing plates are provided with column splice
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 244

If the thickness of plate to be connected by a rivet is 16 mm, then suitable size of rivet as per
Unwin's formula will be
(A) 16 mm
(B) 20 mm
(C) 24 mm
(D) 27 mm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 245

A major beam in a building structure, is known as
(A) A girder
(B) A floor beam
(C) A main beam
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 246

Angle of inclination of the lacing bar with the longitudinal axis of the column should preferably be
between
(A) 10° to 30°
(B) 30° to 40°
(C) 40° to 70°
(D) 90°
Answer: Option C

Question No. 247

In case of cantilever fillers, the ratio of the span L to depth d, should not exceed
(A) 4
 (B) 8
(C) 12
(D) 16
Answer: Option C

Question No. 248

The internal pressure coefficient on walls for buildings with large permeability is taken as
(A) ± 0.2
(B) ±0.5
(C) ± 0.7
(D) 0
Answer: Option C

Question No. 249

The gross diameter of a rivet is the diameter of
(A) Cold rivet before driving
(B) Rivet after driving
(C) Rivet hole
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 250

The centrifugal force due to curvature of track is assumed to act on the bridge at a height of
(A) 1.23 m above the rail level
(B) 1.50 m above the rail level
(C) 1.83 m above the rail level
(D) 2.13 m above the rail level
Answer: Option C

Question No. 251

The tensile strength of mild steel for bolts and nuts should not be less than
(A) 32 kg/mm2
(B) 36 kg/mm2
(C) 40 kg/mm2
(D) 44 kg/mm2
Answer: Option D

Question No. 252

Efficiency of a riveted joint, having the minimum pitch as per IS : 800, is
(A) 40 %
(B) 50 %
(C) 60 %
(D) 70 %
Answer: Option C
Question No. 253
In double lacing, the thickness t of flat lacing is
(A) t < 1/40 th length between inner end rivets
(B) t < 1/50 th length between inner end rivets
(C) t < 1/60 th length between inner end rivets
(D) t < 1/70 th length between inner end rivets
Answer: Option C

Question No. 254

According to IS Specifications, the effective length of a column effectively held in position at both
ends and restrained in direction at one end is taken as
(A) 0.67 L
(B) 0.8 L
(C) L
(D) 1.5 L
Answer: Option B

Question No. 255

If M is the moment due to a couple in a bearing plate whose width is b and allowable bending
stress is P, the thickness (t) of the bending plate of the column splice, is
(A) t b × p)/6M]
(B) t M/(b × p)]
(C) t = 6M/bp
(D) t M/(b × p)
Answer: Option B

Question No. 256

The web crippling due to excessive bearing stress can be avoided by
(A) Increasing the web thickness
(B) Providing suitable stiffeners
(C) Increasing the length of the bearing plates
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 257

Allowable working stress corresponding to the slenderness ratio of double angles placed back to
back and connected to one side of a gusset plate, is reduced to
(A) 50 %
(B) 60 %
(C) 70 %
(D) 80 %
Answer: Option D

Question No. 258

The number of seismic zones in which the country has been divided is
 (A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 7
Answer: Option B

Question No. 259

The critical stress on a column for elastic buckling given by Euler's formula, is
(A) fc = ²E/(I/r)²
(B) fc = (I/r)²/
(C) fc = (I/r)/
(D) fc = ²E/(I/r)
Answer: Option A

Question No. 260

Load factor is
(A) Always equal to factor of safety
(B) Always less than factor of safety
(C) Always greater than factor of safety
(D) Sometimes greater than factor of safety
Answer: Option C

Question No. 261

When a tension member is made of four angles with a plate as a web, the allowance for holes is
made as
(A) Two holes for each angle and one hole for the web
(B) One hole for each angle and one hole for the web
(C) One hole for each angle and two holes for the web
(D) Two holes for each angle and two holes for the web
Answer: Option C

Question No. 262

The effective length of a battened column is increased by
(A) 5 %
(B) 10 %
(C) 15 %
(D) 20 %
Answer: Option B

Question No. 263

To keep the intensity of bearing pressure between the column base and concrete compressive and
to vary from zero to 2P/BL, the ratio of the moment M to the axial load P should be
(A) L/2
(B) L/3
(C) L/4
 (D) L/6
Answer: Option D

Question No. 264

Minimum pitch provided in riveted steel tanks is
(A) 1.5 d
(B) 2.0 d
(C) 2.5 d
(D) 3.0 d
Where d is diameter of rivets
Answer: Option D

Question No. 265

The spans are considered approximately equal if the longest span does not exceed the shortest
span by more than
(A) 5 %
(B) 10 %
(C) 15 %
(D) 20 %
Answer: Option C

Question No. 266

The mechanism method and the statical method give
(A) Lower and upper bounds respectively on the strength of structure
(B) Upper and lower bounds respectively on the strength of structure
(C) Lower bound on the strength of structure
(D) Upper bound on the strength of structure
Answer: Option B

Question No. 267

When two plates are placed end to end and are joined by two cover plates, the joint is known as
(A) Lap joint
(B) Butt joint
(C) Chain riveted lap joint
(D) Double cover butt joint
Answer: Option D

Question No. 268

For a standard 45° fillet, the ratio of size of fillet to throat thickness is
(A) 1 : 1
(B)
(C)
(D) 2 : 1
Answer: Option C
Question No. 269
The strength of a riveted lap joint is equal to its
(A) Shearing strength
(B) Bearing strength
(C) Tearing strength
(D) Least of (a), (b) and (c)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 270

The maximum spacing of vertical stiffeners is
(A) 1.33 d
(B) 1.25 d
(C) 1.5 d
(D) 1.75 d
Where d is the distance between flange angles
Answer: Option C

Question No. 271

Number of rivets required in a joint, is
(A) Load/Shear strength of a rivet
(B) Load/Bearing strength of a rivet
(C) Load/Tearing strength of a rivet
(D) Load/Rivet value
Answer: Option D

Question No. 272

If the loaded length of span in meters of a railway steel bridge carrying a single track is 6 m, then
impact factor is taken as
(A) 0
(B) 0.5
(C) Between 0.5 and 1.0
(D) 1.0
Answer: Option C

Question No. 273

A riveted joint many experience
(A) Tearing failure of plates
(B) Splitting failure of plates at the edges
(C) Bearing failure of rivets
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 274

Diameter of a bolt hole is usually taken as
(A) Gross diameter of bolt
 (B) Nominal diameter + 1.5 mm
(C) Nominal diameter + 2.0 mm
(D) Nominal diameter of bolt
Answer: Option B

Question No. 275

The effective length of a double angle strut with angles placed back to back and connected to both
the sides of a gusset plate, by not less than two rivets, is
(A) 0.5 L
(B) 0.67 L
(C) 0.85 L
(D) 2 L
Answer: Option C

Question No. 276

The range of economical spacing of trusses varies from
(A) L/3 to L/5
(B) L/4 to 2L/5
(C) L/3 to L/2
(D) 2L/5 to 3L/5, where L is span
Answer: Option A

Question No. 277

Effective sectional area of a compression member is:
(A) Gross sectional area - area of rivet hole
(B) Gross sectional area + area of rivet hole
(C) Gross sectional area × area of rivet hole
(D) Gross sectional area + area of rivet hole
Answer: Option A

Question No. 278

The maximum slenderness ratio of a steel column, the design of which is governed by wind or
seismic forces is
(A) 150
(B) 180
(C) 250
(D) 350
Answer: Option C

Question No. 279

In plastic analysis, the shape factor for circular sections, is
(A) 1.5
(B) 1.6
(C) 1.697
(D) None of these
 Answer: Option C

Question No. 280

The external wind pressure acting on a roof depends on
(A) Degree of permeability of roof
(B) Slope of roof
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 281

The failure of a web plate takes place by yielding if the ratio of the clear depth to thickness of the
web, is less than
(A) 45
(B) 55
(C) 62
(D) 82
Answer: Option D

Question No. 282

The actual thickness of butt weld as compared to the thickness of plate is usually
(A) More
(B) Less
(C) Equal
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 283

The ratio of longitudinal stress to strain within elastic limit, is known as
(A) Modulus of elasticity
(B) Shear modulus of elasticity
(C) Bulk modulus of elasticity
(D) All the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 284

The slenderness ratio of lacing bars should not exceed
(A) 100
(B) 120
(C) 145
(D) 180
Answer: Option C

Question No. 285

In a fillet weld placed on the sides of the base, the metal experiences
 (A) Shear
(B) Tension
(C) Compression
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 286

For steel members not exposed to weather, the thickness of steel should not be less than
(A) 4.5 mm
(B) 6 mm
(C) 8 mm
(D) 10 mm
Answer: Option B

Question No. 187

When a tension member consists of two channel sections, the allowance for rivet hole is made for
two holes from
(A) Each web
(B) Each flange
(C) Each web or one hole from each flange whichever is more
(D) Each web or one hole from each flange whichever is less
Answer: Option D

Question No. 288

If a pair of angles placed back to back in tension are connected by one leg of each angle, the net
effective area of the section, is
(A) a - [b/{1 + 0.35 (b/a)}]
(B) a + [b/{1 + 0.35 (b/a)}]
(C) a - [b/{1 + 0.2 (b/a)}]
(D) a + [b/{1 + 0.2 (b/a)}]
Answer: Option D

Question No. 289

P E to be 25% of the computed value
of P and E respectively, the minimum value of the factor of safety is
(A) 1.00
(B) 0.67
(C) 1.67
(D) 2.67
Answer: Option C

Question No. 290

A beam is defined as a structural member subjected to
(A) Axial loading
(B) Transverse loading
 (C) Axial and transverse loading
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 291

The allowable stress in axial tension for rolled I-sections and channels, is taken as
(A) 1420 kg/cm2
(B) 1500 kg/cm2
(C) 2125 kg/cm2
(D) 1810 kg/cm2
Answer: Option B

Question No. 292

Secant formula for direct stress in compression, is applicable only for slenderness ratio upto
(A) 120
(B) 130
(C) 140
(D) 150
Answer: Option C

Question No. 293

An axial loaded column is supported on a slab base whose projection is 8 cm. If the intensity of
pressure from concrete is 40 kg/cm2 and allowable bending stress in slab base is 1890 kg/cm 2, the
thickness (t) of the slab base, is
(A) t
(B) t
(C) t = 21/64
(D) t = 64/21
Answer: Option B

Question No. 294

A compression member consisting of angle sections may be a
(A) Continuous member
(B) Discontinuous single angle strut
(C) Discontinuous double angle strut
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 295

The main advantage of a steel member, is:
(A) Its high strength
(B) Its gas and water tightness
(C) Its long service life
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 296
A riveted joint may experience
(A) Shear failure
(B) Shear failure of plates
(C) Bearing failure
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 297

IS : 800 - 1971 recommends that in a splice plate the number of rivets carrying calculated shear
stress through a packing greater than 6 mm thick, is to be increased by 2.5% for every
(A) 1.00 mm thickness of packing
(B) 1.50 mm thickness of packing
(C) 2.0 mm thickness of packing
(D) 2.50 mm thickness of packing
Answer: Option C

Question No. 298

To the calculated area of cover plates of a built-up beam, an allowance for rivet holes to be added,
is
(A) 10 %
(B) 13 %
(C) 15 %
(D) 18 %
Answer: Option B

Question No. 299

If the moment of inertia of a section about its axis is and its effective sectional area is , its
radius of gyration r about the axis, is
(A) r = I/A
(B) r I/A)
(C) r = (I/A)
(D) r A/I)
Answer: Option B

Question No. 300

A structural member subjected to compressive stress in a direction parallel to its longitudinal axis,
is generally known as
(A) Column
(B) Stanchion
(C) Post
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 301
The equivalent axial tensile load Pe, which produces an average axial tensile stress in the section
equivalent to the combined stress due to axial tension P and bending M, at the extreme fibre of
the section, is given by (where Z is the section modulus of the section).
(A) Pe = P + MA/Z
(B) Pe = P - MA/Z
(C) Pe = P - Z/MA
(D) Pe = P + Z/MA
Answer: Option A

Question No. 302

Live load
(A) Varies in magnitude
(B) Varies in position
(C) Is expressed as uniformly distributed load
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 303

The maximum permissible slenderness ratio of a member carrying loads resulting from wind, is
(A) 180
(B) 200
(C) 250
(D) 300
Answer: Option C

Question No. 304

The average shear stress for rolled steel beam section, is
(A) 845 kg/cm2
(B) 945 kg/cm2
(C) 1025 kg/cm2
(D) 1500 kg/cm2
Answer: Option B

Question No. 305

For a rectangular section, the ratio of the maximum and average shear stresses, is
(A) 1.5
(B) 2.0
(C) 2.5
(D) 3.5
Answer: Option A

Question No. 306

For the steel member exposed to weather and accessible for repainting, the thickness of steel
should not be less than (accepting the webs of Indian Standard rolled steel joists and channels).
 (A) 4 mm
(B) 6 mm
(C) 8 mm
(D) 10 mm
Answer: Option B

Question No. 307

The permissible stress in bending for rolled steel I-beams and channels, is
(A) 1500 kg/cm2
(B) 1575 kg/cm2
(C) 945 kg/cm2
(D) 1650 kg/cm2
Answer: Option D

Question No. 308

The distance measured along one rivet line from the centre of a rivet to the centre of adjoining
rivet on an adjacent parallel rivet line, is called
(A) Pitch of rivet
(B) Gauge distance of rivet
(C) Staggered pitch
(D) All the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 309

The effective length of a simply supported beam with ends restrained against torsion, and also
the ends of compression flange partially restrained against lateral bending, is given by
(A) L = span
(B) L = 0.85 span
(C) L = 0.75 span
(D) L = 0.7 span
Answer: Option B

Question No. 310

The permissible bearing stress in steel, is
(A) 1500 kg/cm2
(B) 1890 kg/cm2
(C) 2025 kg/cm2
(D) 2340 kg/cm2
Answer: Option B

Question No. 311

Strengths of a rivet in single shearing, in bearing and in tearing are 3425 kg, 4575 kg and 5025 kg
respectively. If the load in the member is 35 tonnes, the number of rivets required, is
(A) 10
(B) 11
 (C) 12
(D) 13
Answer: Option D

Question No. 312

The bending moment for filler joists at the middle of an intermediate span, is
(A) WL²/10
(B) - WL²/10
(C) - WL²/12
(D) WL²/12
Answer: Option D

Question No. 313

A simply supported beam carrying a central load, will be safe in deflection if the ratio of its span to
depth, is
(A) < 19
(B) < 24
(C) > 19
(D) > 24
Answer: Option B

Question No. 314

When a load is transferred through one surface to another surface in contact, the stress is known
as
(A) Tensile stress
(B) Compressive stress
(C) Shearing stress
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 315

If p and d are pitch and gross diameter of rivets, the efficiency ( ) of the riveted joint, is given by
(A) = p/p - d
(B) = p/p + d
(C) = p - d/p
(D) = p + d/p
Answer: Option C

Question No. 316

The slenderness ratio of a column is zero when its length
(A) Is zero
(B) Is equal to its radius of gyration
(C) Is supported on all sides throughout its length
(D) Is between the points of zero moments
Answer: Option D
Question No. 317
A 20 mm dia steel bar which is subjected to an axial tension of 2300 kg/cm2 produces a strain of
0.004 cm. If Young's modulus of steel is 2.1 × 106 kg/cm2, the bar is
(A) In the elastic range
(B) In the plastic range
(C) At yield point
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 318

The maximum axial load which is just sufficient to keep a column in a small deflected shape, is
called
(A) Crippling load
(B) Buckling load
(C) Critical load
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 319

Spans of continuous fillers are considered approximately equal if the longest span does not exceed
the shortest span by more than
(A) 5 %
(B) 10 %
(C) 15 %
(D) 20 %
Answer: Option C

Question No. 320

The ratio of the span L of the filler joists to the depth d from the underside of the joist to the top
of the structural concrete, should not exceed
(A) 60
(B) 45
(C) 35
(D) 25
Answer: Option C

Question No. 321

With a percentage increase of carbon in steel, decreases its
(A) Strength
(B) Hardness
(C) Brittleness
(D) Ductility
Answer: Option D
Question No. 322
The allowable stress in axial tension is generally kept less if thickness of the member is more than
(A) 10 mm
(B) 12 mm
(C) 15 mm
(D) 20 mm
Answer: Option D

Question No. 323

The maximum permissible slenderness ratio of compression member carrying dead and
superimposed load, is
(A) 180
(B) 200
(C) 250
(D) 350
Answer: Option A

Question No. 324

Tacking rivets in compression plates not exposed to the weather, have a pitch not exceeding 300
mm or
(A) 16 times the thickness of outside plate
(B) 24 times the thickness of outside plate
(C) 32 times the thickness of outside plate
(D) 36 times the thickness of outside plate
Answer: Option C

Question No. 325

A single angle in tension is connected by one leg only. If the areas of connecting and outstanding
legs are respectively a and b, net effective area of the angle, is
(A) a - [b/{1 + 0.35 (b/a)}]
(B) a + [b/{1 + 0.35 (b/a)}]
(C) a - [b/{1 + 0.2 (b/a)}]
(D) a + [b/{1 + 0.2 (b/a)}]
Answer: Option B

Question No. 326

If L is the overall length of a combined footing having A as its area, d being the distance between
the centre of gravity of the base and centre of the base, the larger width b is
(A) (A/L) + (3Ad/L²)
(B) (A/L) + (6Ad/L²)
(C) (A/L) - (6Ad/L²)
(D) (A/L) - (3Ad/L²)
Answer: Option B
 Estimating and Costing

Question No. 01
The rate of payment is made for 100 cu m (per % cu m) in case of
(A) Earth work in excavation
(B) Rock cutting
(C) Excavation in trenches for foundation
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 02
The rate of an item of work depends on
(A) Specifications of works
(B) Specifications of materials
(C) Proportion of mortar
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 03
The main factor to be considered while preparing a detailed estimate, is
(A) Quantity of the materials
(B) Availability of materials
(C) Transportation of materials
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 04
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The estimated value of the work excluding the amount for contingencies, work charged
establishment, tool and plants, is called work value
(B) The actual expenditure involved to complete a work including incidental, establishment and
travelling charges, is called actual cost
(C) The formal acceptance by the administrative department for incurring an expenditure on the
work, is called administrative approval
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 05
Brick walls are measured in sq. m if the thickness of the wall is
(A) 10 cm
(B) 15 cm
(C) 20 cm
(D) None of these
 Answer: Option A

Question No. 06
The plinth area of a building not includes
(A) Area of the walls at the floor level
(B) Internal shaft for sanitary installations up to 2 sq m. in area
(C) Lift and wall including landing
(D) Area of cantilevered porch
Answer: Option D

Question No. 07
If the formation level of a highway has a uniform gradient for a particular length, and the ground is
also having a longitudinal slope, the earthwork may be calculated by
(A) Mid-section formula
(B) Trapezoidal formula
(C) Prismoidal formula
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 08
While estimating a reinforced cement structure, the omitted cover of concrete is assumed
(A) At the end of reinforcing bar, not less than 25 mm or twice the diameter of the bar
(B) In thin slabs, 12 mm minimum or diameter of the bar whichever is more
(C) For reinforcing longitudinal bar in a beam 25 mm minimum or diameter of the largest bar
which is more
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 09
A cement concrete road is 1000 m long, 8 m wide and 15 cm thick over the sub-base of 10 cm thick
gravel. The box cutting in road crust is
(A) 500 m3
(B) 1000 m3
(C) 1500 m3
(D) 2000 m3
Answer: Option C

Question No. 10
While estimating the qualities for the construction of a building, the correct metric unit is
(A) Metre for length
(B) Cubic metre for area
(C) Square metres for volume
(D) Litre for capacity
Answer: Option D
Question No. 11
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) In order to check up the average depth of excavation, 'Dead man s' are left at the mid-
widths of borrow pits
(B) The earthwork calculation in excavation is made from the difference in levels obtained with
a level
(C) The earth work in excavation to form the road embankment includes the formation of
correct profile and depositing the soil in layers
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 12
The brick work is not measured in cu m in case of
(A) One or more than one brick wall
(B) Brick work in arches
(C) Reinforced brick work
(D) Half brick wall
Answer: Option D

Question No. 13
Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) Lead is the average horizontal straight distance between the borrow pit and the place of
spreading soil
(B) The lead is calculated for each block of the excavated area
(C) The unit of lead is 50 m for a distance upto 500 m
(D) The unit of lead is 1 km where the lead exceeds 2 km
Answer: Option D

Question No. 14
The assumption on which the trapezoidal formula for volumes is based, is
(A) The end sections are parallel planes
(B) The mid-area of a pyramid is half the average area of the ends
(C) The volume of the Prismoidal is over-estimated and hence a Prismoidal correction is applied
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 15
In the mid-section formula
(A) The mean depth is the average of depths of two consecutive sections
(B) The area of mid-sections is calculated by using mean depth
(C) The volume of the earth work is calculated by multiplying the mid-section area by the
distance between the two original sections
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 16
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The earth work of cutting in trenches or borrow pits in fairly uniform ground is measured
with the help of average depths of the dead men
(B) The earth work in trenches or borrow pits in irregular ground is measured by taking the
difference in levels before and after completion of work
(C) The earth work in trenches or borrow pits, where neither a nor b is feasible, are measured
from the fillings after deduction of voids
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 17
The cross-sections for a highway is taken at
(A) Right angle to the centre line
(B) 30 metres apart
(C) Intermediate points having abrupt change in gradient
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 18
Referring of given figure, pick up the correct statement from the following:

(A) The total length of centre line of four walls is 20 m

(B) Length of long wall out-to-out is 6.80 m
(C) Length of short walls in-to-in is 3.20 m
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 19
Pick up the correct statement regarding the centre line method of estimating a building
(A) Product of the centre line of the walls and area of cross-section of any item, gives total
quantity of the item
(B) The centre line is worked out separately for different sections of walls of a building
(C) The centre line length is reduced by half the layer of main wall joining the partition wall
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 20
According to Indian Standards Institute, the actual size of modular bricks is
(A) 23 cm × 11.5 cm × 7.5 cm
(B) 25 cm × 13 cm × 7.5 cm
(C) 19 cm × 9 cm × 9 cm
(D) 20 cm × 10 cm × 10 cm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 21
The following item of earth work is not measured separately.
(A) Setting out of works
(B) Site clearance
(C) Steps in deep excavation
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 22
The measurement is made in square metre in case of
(A) Cement concrete in foundation
(B) R.C.C. structure
(C) Hollow concrete block wall
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 23
The area of the cross-section of a road fully in banking shown in the given figure, is

(A) [sb² + r² (2bd + sd)²]/(r² - s²)

(B) [sb² + r² (2bd + sd)²]/(r² - s5)
(C) [sb² + r² (2bd + sd)²]/(r - s)
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 24
Cost of fittings and their fixing is specified for the following sanitary fittings
(A) Water closets
(B) Flushing pipes
(C) Lavatory basins
(D) All the above
 Answer: Option D

Question No. 25
The excavation exceeding 1.5 m in width and 10 sq.m in plan area with a depth not exceeding 30
cm, is termed as
(A) Excavation
(B) Surface dressing
(C) Cutting
(D) Surface excavation
Answer: Option D

Question No. 26
For the construction of buildings, the subheads of the estimate are
(A) Earthwork, Concrete work, Brick work
(B) Brickwork, Stone work, Roofing
(C) Brickwork Flooring, Wood work, Steel work
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 27
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Pointing is measured in sq.m
(B) Plastering is measured in sq.m
(C) Glazing is measured in sq.m
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 28
The cross-section of a road partly in banking and partly in cutting is shown in the given figure. The
area of the shaded portion is

(A) b - rd)²/(r - s)
(B) b - rd)²/(r + s)
(C) ½ × (b + rd)²/(r - s)
(D) b - rd)²/(s - r)
Answer: Option A
Question No. 29
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) If the bed level is above N.S.L. the canal is called fully in baking and the berms are designed
as 3 d where d is full supply depth of water (F.S.D.)
(B) Area of canal in cutting = BD + Sd2 where B = bed width, d = depth of cutting and S is the side
slope
(C) If F.S.L. is above N.S.L the canal is called partly in cutting and partly in filling and berms are
designed as 2d where d is full supply depth
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 30
Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) No deduction is made for the volume occupied by reinforcement
(B) No deduction is made for the openings upto 0.1 sq.m
(C) No deduction is made for volumes occupied by pipes, not exceeding 100 sq.cm in cross-
section
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 31
The value of 'B' of Indian type W.C. shown in the given figure is:

(A) 45 cm
(B) 50 cm
(C) 30 cm
(D) 25 cm
Answer: Option A

Question No. 32
Pick up the excavation where measurements are made in square metres for payment.
(A) Ordinary cuttings up to 1 m
(B) Surface dressing up to 15 cm depths
(C) Surface excavation up to 30 cm depths
(D) Both (b) and (c)
Answer: Option D
Question No. 33
As per Indian Standard Specifications, the peak discharge for domestic purposes per capita per
minute, is taken
(A) 1.80 litres for 5 to 10 users
(B) 1.20 litres for 15 users
(C) 1.35 for 20 users
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 34
In long and short wall method of estimation, the length of long wall is the centre to centre
distance between the walls and
(A) Breadth of the wall
(B) Half breadth of wall on each side
(C) One fourth breadth of wall on each side
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 35
The expected out turn of cement concrete 1 : 2 : 4 per mason per day is
(A) 1.5 m3
(B) 2.5 m3
(C) 3.5 m3
(D) 5.0 m3
Answer: Option D

Question No. 36
The value of 'C' of Indian type W.C. shown in the given figure is:

(A) 400 mm
(B) 450 mm
(C) 500 mm
(D) 550 mm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 37
The area is measured correct to the nearest
 (A) 0.01 sqm
(B) 0.02 sqm
(C) 0.03 sqm
(D) 0.04 sqm
Answer: Option A

Question No. 38
The measurement is not made in square metres in case of
(A) D.P.C. (Damp proof course)
(B) Form works
(C) Concrete Jeffries
(D) R.C. Chhajja
Answer: Option D

Question No. 39
The value of 'A' of Indian type W.C. shown in the given figure is:

(A) 25 cm
(B) 30 cm
(C) 40 cm
(D) 45 cm
Answer: Option B

Question No. 40
The trap which is provided to disconnect the house drain from the street sewer is called
(A) Master trap
(B) Intercepting trap
(C) Interception manhole
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 41
Due to change in price level, a revised estimate is prepared if the sanctioned estimate exceeds
(A) 2.0 %
(B) 2.5 %
 (C) 4.0 %
(D) 5.0 %
Answer: Option D

Question No. 42
The cost of the earthwork in excavation for the surface drain of cross-section shown in the given
figure for a total length of 5 metres @ Rs. 450% cum, is

(A) Rs. 400

(B) Rs. 425
(C) Rs. 450
(D) Rs. 500
Answer: Option C

Question No. 43
The expected out turn of 2.5 cm cement concrete floor per mansion per day
(A) 2.5 sqm
(B) 5.0 sqm
(C) 7.5 sqm
(D) 10 sqm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 44
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The bent up bars at a support resist the negative bending moment
(B) The bent up bars at a support resist the sharing force
(C) The bending of bars near supports is generally at 45°
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 45
While preparing a detailed estimate
(A) Dimension should be measured correct to 0.01 m
(B) Area should be measured correct to 0.01 sqm
(C) Volume should be measured correct to 0.01 cum
(D) All the above
 Answer: Option D

Question No. 46
The item of the brick structure measured in sq.m, is
(A) Reinforced brick work
(B) Broken glass coping
(C) Brick edging
(D) Brick work in arches
Answer: Option B

Question No. 47
The most reliable estimate is
(A) Detailed estimate
(B) Preliminary estimate
(C) Plinth area estimate
(D) Cube rate estimate
Answer: Option A

Question No. 48
The reduced levels of points, 30 metres apart along the longitudinal section of a road portion
between chainages 5 and 9 are shown in the given figure. If there is a uniform up-gradient of the
road 120 in 1, the chainage of the point with no filling or cutting is

(A) (6 + 15) chains

(B) (6 + 12) chains
(C) (6 + 18) chains
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 49
According to ISI method of measurement, the order of the sequence is
(A) Length, breadth, height
(B) Breadth, length, height
(C) Height, length, breadth
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 50
Anti-siphonage pipe is connected to
(A) Main soil pipe
(B) Bottom of P trap W.C.
(C) Top of P trap W.C.
(D) Side of water closet
Answer: Option C

Question No. 51
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) In a gully trap, a water seal of 6 to 7.5 cm is provided
(B) The gully trap collects waste water from the kitchen, sink, wash basins, etc.
(C) The gully trap disconnects the sullage drain from the main drainage system
(D) The grating provided over gully traps is 23 cm square
Answer: Option B

Question No. 52
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Bricks are paid per thousand
(B) Cement is paid per 50 kg bag
(C) Lime is paid per quintal
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 53
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) All pipes and fittings are classified according to their diameters
(B) The diameter of the pipes is the nominal diameter of internal bore
(C) All pipes are measured along the centre line of the pipes in metres
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 54
A portion of an embankment having a uniform up-gradient 1 in 500 is circular with radius 1000 m
of the centre line. It subtends 180° at the centre. If the height of the bank is 1 m at the lower end,
and side slopes 2:1, the earth work involved.
(A) 26,000 m3
(B) 26,500 m3
(C) 27,000 m3
(D) 27,500 m3
Answer: Option D

Question No. 55
Pick up the correct statement in case of water supply.
(A) Pipes laid in trenches and pipes fixed to walls are measured separately
 (B) Cutting through walls and floors are included with the item
(C) Pipes are classified according to their sizes and quality
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 56
The concrete work for the following part of the building of specified thickness is measured in
square metres
(A) Root slabs
(B) Floors
(C) Wall panels
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 57
The expected out turn of 12 mm plastering with cement mortar is
(A) 2.5 sq m
(B) 4.0 sq m
(C) 6.0 sq m
(D) 8.0 sq m
Answer: Option D

Question No. 58
The total length of a cranked bar through a distance (d) at 45° in case of a beam of effective
length L, is
(A) L + 0.42 d
(B) L + (2 × 0.42 d)
(C) L - (0.42 d)
(D) L - (2 × 0.4 d)
Answer: Option B

Question No. 59
The measurement is made for stone work in square metre in case of
(A) Wall facing
(B) Columns, lintels, copings
(C) Building work
(D) (a) and (d) of the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 60
Carpet area does not include the area of
(A) The walls along with doors and other openings
(B) Bath room and lavatory
(C) Kitchen and pantry
(D) All the above
 Answer: Option D

Question No. 61
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The incidental expenses of a miscellaneous character which could not be predicted during
preparation of the estimate, is called contingencies
(B) Additional supervising staff engaged at work site, is called work charged establishment
(C) Detailed specifications specify qualities, quantities and the proportions of materials to be
used for a particular item
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 62
The cross-sectional area of the embankment of a canal fully in embankment in the given figure is

(A) ½ ( + ) h
(B) ( + ) h + sb²
(C) ( + ) + 2sh²
(D) 2 [( + ) (b + sh²)]
Answer: Option C

Question No. 63
The correct Prismoidal formula for volume is
(A) D [first area + last area + Even area + 2 odd areas]
(B) D/3 [first area + last area + 4 Even area + 2 odd areas]
(C) D/3 [first area + last area + 2 Even area + 4 odd areas]
(D) D/6 [first area + odd areas]
Answer: Option B

Question No. 64
In case of laying gullies, siphons, intercepting traps, the cost includes
(A) Setting and laying
(B) Bed concreting
(C) Connection to drains
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 65
The inspection pit or chamber is a manhole provided in a base drainage system
(A) At every change of direction
 (B) At every change of gradient
(C) At every 30 m intervals
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 66
Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) Dimensions are measured to the nearest 0.01 m
(B) Areas are measured to the nearest 0.01 sq.m
(C) Cubic contents are measured to the nearest 0.1 cum
(D) Weights are measured to the nearest 0.001 tonnes
Answer: Option C

Question No. 67
The 'centre line method' is specially adopted for estimating
(A) Circular buildings
(B) Hexagonal buildings
(C) Octagonal buildings
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 68
Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) The built up covered area at the floor level of any storey of a building is called plinth area
(B) The usable covered area of the rooms of any storey of a building is called carpet area
(C) The carpet area of a building along with area of its kitchen, pantry, store, lavatory, bath
room and glazed veranda, is called floor area
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 69
The unit of measurement is per quintal for the following:
(A) Collapsible gates with rails
(B) Rolling shutters
(C) Expanded metal wire netting
(D) M.S. reinforcement of R.C.C. works
Answer: Option D

Question No. 70
The diameter of a domestic sewer pipe laid at gradient 1 in 100 is recommended
(A) 100 mm
(B) 150 mm
(C) 200 mm
(D) 175 mm
Answer: Option B
Question No. 71
The order of booking dimensions is
(A) Length, breadth, height
(B) Breadth, length, height
(C) Height, breadth, length
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 72
Pick up the incorrect statement regarding a master trap from the following:
(A) It is provided in between the lower end of the house drain and the street sewer
(B) It is provided a cleaning eye at the top of the trap
(C) The mica flap valve which opens inwards only, is fitted at the top of the inlet pipe
(D) The water seal is less than that of ordinary traps
Answer: Option D

Question No. 73
S: 1 and
length is
(A) d × d × s
(B) d2 × (ds)2]
(C) L.D 1 + s2)
(D) 2 L.D 1 + s2)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 74
The detention period in a septic tank is assumed
(A) 20 minutes
(B) 25 minutes
(C) 30 minutes
(D) 40 minutes
Answer: Option C

Question No. 75
If B is the width of formation, d is the height of the embankment, side slope S : 1, for a highway
with no transverse slope, the area of cross-section is
(A) B + d + Sd
(B) Bd + Sd2
(C) B × d - Sd1/2
(D) ½ (Bd + Sd2)
Answer: Option B

Question No. 76
The ground surface slopes 1 in 50 along a proposed railway embankment 150 m in length. The
height of the embankment at zero chainage is 0.5 m, the width is 11 m and side slopes 2:1. If the
falling gradient of the embankment is 1 in 150, the quantity of the earthwork calculated by
Prismoidal formula, is
(A) 3250 m3
(B) 3225 m3
(C) 3275 m3
(D) 3300 m3
Answer: Option B

Question No. 77
Pick up the item of work not included in the plinth area estimate
(A) Wall thickness
(B) Room area
(C) W.C. area
(D) Courtyard area
Answer: Option D

Question No. 78
The minimum width of a septic tank is taken
(A) 70 cm
(B) 75 cm
(C) 80 cm
(D) 90 cm
Answer: Option B

Question No. 79
Pick up the item whose weight is added to the weight of respective item, is
(A) Cleats
(B) Brackets
(C) Bolts
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 80
The expected out turn for earth work in excavation in ordinary soil per workman per day is
(A) 1.00 cum
(B) 2.00 cum
(C) 3.00 cum
(D) 4.00 cum
Answer: Option C

Question No. 81
The expected out turn of brick work in cement mortar in foundation and plinth per mason per day,
is
(A) 1.00 m3
(B) 1.25 m3
 (C) 1.50 m3
(D) 1.75 m3
Answer: Option B

Question No. 82
The brick work is measured in sq metre, in case of
(A) Honey comb brick work
(B) Brick flat soling
(C) Half brick walls or the partition
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 83
The height of the sink of wash basin above floor level is kept
(A) 60 cm
(B) 70 cm
(C) 75 cm to 80 cm
(D) 80 cm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 84
For 12 mm thick cement plastering 1 : 6 on 100 sq.m new brick work, the quantity of cement
required, is
(A) 0.200 m3
(B) 0.247 m3
(C) 0.274 m3
(D) 0.295 m3
Answer: Option C

Question No. 85
The item of steel work which is measured in sq.m, is
(A) Collapsible gates
(B) Rolling shutters
(C) Ventilators and glazing
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 86
The damp proof course (D.P.C.) is measured in
(A) Cub. m
(B) Sq. m
(C) Metres
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 87
The volume is measured correct to the nearest
(A) 0.01 cum
(B) 0.02 cum
(C) 0.03 cum
(D) 0.04 cum
Answer: Option A

Question No. 88
If tensile stress of a steel rod of diameter is 1400 kg/cm2 and bond stress is 6 kg/cm2, the
required bond length of the rod is
(A) 30 D
(B) 39 D
(C) 50 D
(D) 59 D
Answer: Option D

Question No. 89
For 100 sq. m cement concrete (1 : 2: 4) 4 cm thick floor, the quantity of cement required, is
(A) 0.90 m3
(B) 0.94 m3
(C) 0.98 m3
(D) 1.00 m3
Answer: Option B

Question No. 90
Size, capacity and materials need be specified for
(A) Bib-cocks
(B) Stop-cocks
(C) Ball valves
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 91
The expected out turn of half brick partition wall per mason per day is
(A) 1.5 m3
(B) 2.0 m3
(C) 4.0 m2
(D) 5.0 m2
Answer: Option B

Question No. 92
The floor area includes the area of the balcony up to
(A) 100 %
(B) 75 %
 (C) 50 %
(D) 25 %
Answer: Option C

Question No. 93
The slope of the outlet of 'P trap' below the horizontal is kept
(A) 8°
(B) 10°
(C) 12°
(D) 14°
Answer: Option D

Question No. 94
The weight of an item is measured correct to nearest
(A) 0.25 kg
(B) 0.50 kg
(C) 0.75 kg
(D) 1.00 kg
Answer: Option D

Question No. 95
Berms are provided in canals if these are
(A) Fully in excavation
(B) Partly in excavation and partly in embankment
(C) Fully in embankment
(D) All the above
Answer: Option B
 Water Supply Engineering

Question No. 01
When the reduced level of the water source is higher than the reduced level of the consumer's
place, water is generally supplied
(A) By pumping system
(B) By gravitational system
(C) Both (a) and (b)
(D) All the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 02
Surcharge storage zone of a reservoir, is
(A) Below dead storage
(B) Between dead storage and useful storage
(C) Above useful storage
(D) Also known as valley storage
Answer: Option C

Question No. 03
In pressure supply mains, water hammer pressure is reduced by providing
(A) Sluice valves
(B) Air valves
(C) Pressure relief valves
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 04
Specific capacity or yield of wells, is generally expressed, as
(A) m3 per sec
(B) m3/hour
(C) m3/hour/m2
(D) m3/hour/m2/m
Answer: Option D

Question No. 05
To pump water from a water reservoir 3 m deep and maximum water level at 135 m, a pump is
installed to lift water up to R.L. 175 m at a constant rate of 36,00,000 litres per hour. If the length
of the pipe is 1506 m and f = 0.01, ignoring other minor losses and assuming the economical
diameter from Lea's formula D = 1.2 Q, the water horse power of the pump is
(A) 400
(B) 450
(C) 500
 (D) 600
Answer: Option D

Question No. 06
Turbidity of raw water is a measure of
(A) Suspended solids
(B) Acidity of water
(C) B.O.D.
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 07
If the chosen diameter of a pipe, is less than the economical diameter
(A) Cost of pipe will be less
(B) Head loss will be high
(C) Cost of pumping will be more than saving
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 08
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The water level in a still well, represents the ground water table level
(B) The difference between water table level and the water level in a well after pumping, is
called depression head
(C) The surface of water table surrounding a well during pumping, forms a cone of depression
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 09
The expected discharge to be obtained from an open well sunk in coarse sand is 0.0059 cumec. If
the working depression head of the well is 3 m, the minimum diameter of the well, is
(A) 2 m
(B) 2.25 m
(C) 2.50 m
(D) 3.00 m
Answer: Option D

Question No. 10
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Water with hardness upto 75 ppm is considered soft
(B) Water with hardness more than 200 ppm is considered hard
(C) Water needed for laundries should contain hardness less than 75 ppm
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 11
In centrifugal pump installation,
(A) Pump is properly primed before starting
(B) The diameter of the pipe at inlet as well as at outlet, is kept smaller than the delivery pipe
(C) The motor may burn out if it is started with empty delivery pipe and with open gate valve
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 12
While determining the yield of open wells by the pumping test
(A) Velocity of recharging water, increases with depression head
(B) Depression head resulting at critical velocity, is called critical depression head
(C) Working head is generally limited to
(D) Maximum safe yield of an open well, is expected at critical depression head
Answer: Option D

Question No. 13
The process of passing water through beds of granular materials, is called
(A) Screening
(B) Sedimentation
(C) Filtration
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 14
For the prediction of future population of a city, the factor to be considered, is
(A) Births
(B) Deaths
(C) Migrants
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 15
Mathamoglobinemia or blue baby disease is caused due to
(A) Chlorides
(B) Nitrites
(C) Nitrates
(D) Sulphides
Answer: Option C

Question No. 16
To control the growth of algae in reservoirs, the compound which is used, is
(A) Bleaching powder
(B) Copper sulphate
(C) Lime solution
 (D) Alum solution
Answer: Option B

Question No. 17
The population of a city in 2000 is 50,000. The average increase in population over last 8 decades is
7500 and average incremental increase during 8 decades is 750. The population of the city based
on incremental method, in the year 2020 will be
(A) 55,000
(B) 60,500
(C) 66,500
(D) 72,500
Answer: Option C

Question No. 18
A pressure conduit laid underground, may not be subjected to
(A) Internal pressure of water
(B) Pressure due to external load
(C) Longitudinal temperature stress
(D) Longitudinal stresses due to unbalanced pressure to bends
Answer: Option C

Question No. 19
The bacterias which require free oxygen for their survival, are called
(A) Aerobic bacterias
(B) Anaerobic bacterias
(C) Facultative bacteria
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 20
Gravity conduits are generally in the form of
(A) Canals
(B) Flumes
(C) Aqueduct
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 21
The main disadvantage of hard water, is
(A) Greater soap consumption
(B) Scaling of boilers
(C) Corrosion and incrustation of pipes
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 22
The formula Q = P - K [1.8T + 32] in which Q is runoff, P is annual rain fall in cm, T is mean annual
temperature in centigrade and K is a constant, is known
(A) Justin's formula
(B) Khosla's formula
(C) English formula
(D) Vermule's formula
Answer: Option B

Question No. 23
The bed slope in slow sand filters, is generally kept
(A) 1 in 50
(B) 1 in 75
(C) 1 in 100
(D) 1 : 200
Answer: Option C

Question No. 24
The water level in an open well was depressed by pumping 2.5 m and recuperated 2.87 m in 3
hours and 50 minutes. The yield of the well per minute is
(A) 0.0033
(B) 0.0044
(C) 0.0055
(D) 0.0066
Answer: Option C

Question No. 25
Perched aquifers are generally found
(A) On the surface of the ground
(B) Below the surface of the ground but above water table
(C) Below the water table
(D) All the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 26
Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) The pH value of water indicates the logarithm of reciprocal of hydrogen ion concentration in
water
(B) Higher value of pH means lower hydrogen ion concentration
(C) Lower value of pH means higher hydrogen ion contraction
(D) Lower value of pH gives alkaline solution
Answer: Option D
Question No. 27
Mostly used coagulant, is
(A) Chlorine
(B) Alum
(C) Lime
(D) Bleaching powder
Answer: Option B

Question No. 28
A centrifugal pump is required to be primed before starting if it is located
(A) At higher level than water level of reservoir
(B) At lower level than water level of reservoir
(C) Both (a) and (b)
(D) Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer: Option A

Question No. 29
Suction lift of a pump depends upon
(A) Atmospheric pressure
(B) Water temperature
(C) Velocity of water in suction pipe
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 30
Normal values of overflow rate for plain sedimentation tank, is
(A) 250 to 500 litres/hr/m2
(B) 500 to 750 litres/hr/m2
(C) 750 to 1000 litres/hr/m2
(D) 1000 to 1250 litres/hr/m2
Answer: Option B

Question No. 31
'Shrouding' is essentially provided in
(A) Strainer type wells
(B) Cavity type wells
(C) Slotted type well
(D) All the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 32
The maximum permissible hardness for public supplies is
(A) 95 mg/litre
(B) 105 mg/litre
(C) 115 mg/litre
 (D) 125 mg/litre
Answer: Option C

Question No. 33
Time of concentration
(A) Is the time taken, for precipitation
(B) Duration of rainfall
(C) Time taken for all the ran off to reach the drain
(D) Time taken for the storm water to travel from the most remote point to the drain
Answer: Option D

Question No. 34
The chlorine supply cylinders are generally kept at 38°C to 40°C to prevent
(A) Conversion into crystals
(B) It from burning
(C) It from explosion
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 35
For calculation of economical diameter D of a pipe in metres for a discharge Q to be pumped in
cumecs, Lea suggested the empirical formula
(A) D = 0.22 Q
(B) D = 1.22 Q
(C) D = 2.22 Q
(D) D = 3.22 Q
Answer: Option B

Question No. 36
An earth formation which, although porous and capable of absorbing water does not provide an
appreciable supply to wells, is known as
(A) Aquifer
(B) Aquiclude
(C) Aquifuge
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 37
Property of earth to allow water to pass through it, is known as
(A) Perviousness
(B) Porosity
(C) Permeability
(D) Transmissibility
Answer: Option A
Question No. 38
Plain chlorination is used for water
(A) Obtained from clear lakes
(B) Consumed during emergencies
(C) Supplies to armies during war
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 39
A city supply includes
(A) Domestic water demand
(B) Industrial and commercial water demands
(C) Demand for public uses and fire
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 40
The pH value of water is kept slightly less than 7 so that hydrochloride ions may combine with
ammonia ions to form
(A) Mono-chloramine (NHCl)
(B) Di-chloramine (NH2Cl)
(C) Nitrogen tri-chloramine (NCl3)
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 41
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Copper pipes are highly resistant to acidic and alkaline water
(B) Wrought iron pipes are lighter than cast iron pipes
(C) Wrought iron pipes corrode quickly and are less durable
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 42
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) A hydrograph is a plot of discharge versus time
(B) A mass curve is a plot of accumulated flow versus time
(C) The mass curve continuously rises
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 43
If L, B and D length, breadth and depth of water in a rectangular sedimentation tank of total
discharge Q, the settling velocity, is
(A) Q/H
 (B) Q/D
(C) Q/(D × B)
(D) Q/(L × B)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 44
The difference in the reservoir level and the lowest point of the water mains is 180 m. The
expected pressure due to water hammer is 7.5 kg/cm2 in a pressure conduit of diameter 1 m.
Assuming the efficiency of the riveted joints of the pipe as 0.6 and minimum cover 3 mm for
corrosion, the thickness of the pipe materials, is
(A) 10 mm
(B) 15 mm
(C) 20 mm
(D) 25 mm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 45
If G is the specific gravity of particles of diameter d, the velocity of settlement V in still water
at T°C, according to Stoke's law, is
(A) V = 418 (G - 1) d² [(3T + 70)/100]
(B) V = 418 (G - 1) d [(3T - 70)/100]
(C) V = 418 (G - 1) d² [(2T + 70)/100]
(D) V = 418 (G - 1) d4 [(3T + 70)/100]
Answer: Option A

Question No. 46
Rapid gravity filters
(A) Were developed by G.W. Fuller
(B) Make use of coarser sand with effective size as 0.5 mm
(C) Yield as high as 30 times the yield of slow sand filters
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 47
For 3.25 × 10-2 cumecs discharging from a well, a pump is installed to lift water against a total head
of 30 m. The minimum required horse power, is
(A) 10 H.P.
(B) 15 H.P.
(C) 18 H.P.
(D) 20 H.P.
Answer: Option D

Question No. 48
Distribution mains of any water supply, is normally designed for its average daily requirement
(A) 100 %
 (B) 150 %
(C) 200 %
(D) 225 %
Answer: Option D

Question No. 49
Maximum threshold number permitted for indicating the odour of public water supplies, is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Answer: Option C

Question No. 50
The rate of silting in a reservoir
(A) Is less in the beginning
(B) Remains constant throughout
(C) Is more in the beginning
(D) is more in the beginning and reduces in the end
Answer: Option D

Question No. 51
Corrosion of well pipes may not be reduced by
(A) Reducing the draw down and the pumping rate
(B) Reducing the flow velocity
(C) Using thicker pipes
(D) Using screens having larger area of openings
Answer: Option D

Question No. 52
Recuperation test is carried out to determine
(A) Turbidity of water
(B) pH value of water
(C) Yield of well
(D) Discharge from a well
Answer: Option A

Question No. 53
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Large solids carried along the river bed, is known as bed load
(B) The fine sediment deposits are generally near the face of the dam
(C) Deposition of sediment in the reservoir, reduces the capacity of the reservoir
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 54
Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. The underground sources of water, is from
(A) Wells
(B) Springs
(C) Infiltration wells
(D) Storage reservoirs
Answer: Option D

Question No. 55
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Domestic use of water is 50% of total consumption
(B) Average consumption of commercial use of water is 25% of total consumption
(C) Waste water and leakage is 15% of total consumption
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 56
Most important method for calculating discharge for planning a water supply project, is
(A) Velocity area method
(B) Weir or spillway method
(C) Use of venturi-meter
(D) Using power plant consumption
Answer: Option A

Question No. 57
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The internal pressure within a pipe, is caused due to water head and hammer pressure
(B) In pressure pipes with water at rest, the pressure is equal to water head
(C) Sudden closure of a valve, causes the water hammer pressure
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 58
Pickup the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) The invert of pressure conduit is independent of the grade of the hydraulic gradient line
(B) The pressure conduits may be taken uphill upto a maximum height of 8.3 m
(C) Aqueducts and tunnels sections are generally kept circular
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 59
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The ratio of the total sediment deposited in the reservoir to the total sediment flowing in
the river, is called trap efficiency
(B) Small capacity reservoirs on large rivers generally, silt less
 (C) Large capacity reservoirs on small rivers generally silt more
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 60
Gravity conduits for carrying water from the source are
(A) Canals
(B) Flumes
(C) Aqueducts
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 61
In a rapid sand filter, air binding is caused due to excessive
(A) Negative pressure
(B) Pressure
(C) Turbidity
(D) Water pressure
Answer: Option A

Question No. 62
According to Godrich the ratio of peak demand rate to mean demand is
(A) Max. weekly demand/Average weekly demand = 148%
(B) Max. monthly demand/Average monthly demand = 128%
(C) Max. half yearly demand/Average half yearly demand = 107%
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 63
The best quality of filter material is obtained from quartzite if it does not loose weight when
placed in hydrochloric acid for 24 hours, more than
(A) 5 %
(B) 8 %
(C) 10 %
(D) 12 %
Answer: Option A

Question No. 64
Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) The net amount of water which joins the surface streams in a catchment, is known as
surface run-off
(B) The amount of water which joins the stream from the underground water, is called base
flow
(C) The yearly run off in cm depth over the catchment, is termed as the yield of the drainage
basin
 (D) None of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 65
The factor for the selection of pumping station site, is
(A) Distance of the source of contamination or pollution
(B) Height above the H.F.L. of the river
(C) Future expansion
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 66
One degree of hardness of water means a content of salts of
(A) 10.25 mg/litre
(B) 12.25 mg/litre
(C) 14.25 mg/litre
(D) 16.25 mg/litre
Answer: Option C

Question No. 67
The U.C. (uniformity coefficient) D60/D10 for the best filter media sand should be
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
Answer: Option A

Question No. 68
Manholes are less common in
(A) Cast iron pipes
(B) Steel pipes
(C) Hume steel pipes
(D) R.C.C. pipes
Answer: Option A

Question No. 69
For determining the velocity of flow of underground water, the most commonly used non-
empirical formula is
(A) Darcy's formula
(B) Slichter's formula
(C) Hazen's formula
(D) Lacy's formula
Answer: Option A
Question No. 70
The most commonly used chemical for de-chlorination of water, is
(A) Sodium thiosulphate
(B) Sodium bisulphate
(C) Sodium sulphite
(D) Sulphur-dioxide
Answer: Option C

Question No. 71
To remove very fine suspended particles from water, the method adopted is
(A) Screening
(B) Sedimentation
(C) Boiling
(D) Filtration
Answer: Option D

Question No. 72
Sunlight
(A) Helps growth of bacterias
(B) Impedes growth of algae
(C) Increases dissolved oxygen content
(D) Reduces turbidity
Answer: Option B

Question No. 73
The detention period for plain sedimentation water tanks, is usually
(A) 4 to 8 hours
(B) 8 to 16 hours
(C) 16 to 24 hours
(D) 24 to 36 hours
Answer: Option D

Question No. 74
Air valves are generally provided in pressure pipes of water supply
(A) At pipe junctions
(B) At summits
(C) At low points
(D) Near service pipes
Answer: Option B

Question No. 75
Pick up the correct statement from the following regarding the pressure conduits:
(A) Pressure conduits are permitted to run ¾th full
(B) Pressure conduits are always laid along down grades
(C) The hydraulic gradient line always coincides the invert of the conduit
 (D) None of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 76
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Lime may be used to soften the hard water
(B) Excessive use of lime may kill the bacterias
(C) Excessive lime when added to water, raises its pH value
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 77
The gaseous form of chlorine gets converted into liquid form when subjected to a pressure of
(A) 5 kg/cm2
(B) 6 kg/cm2
(C) 7 kg/cm2
(D) 10 kg/cm2
Answer: Option C

Question No. 78
Flow through period, in sedimentation tanks, is
(A) Equal to detention period
(B) More than detention period
(C) Less than detention period
(D) Detention period divided by displacement efficiency
Answer: Option C

Question No. 79
Turbidity of water may be caused due to
(A) Suspended clay
(B) Suspended silt
(C) Finely divided organic material
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 80
Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) The water entering the slow sand filters should be treated by 9.386 coagulants
(B) The depth of water on the filter should be twice the depth of the filter sand
(C) When the filter head is 0.75 times the depth of filter sand, the water obtained is purest
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 81
The maximum hourly consumption, is generally taken as
(A) 110 %
(B) 120 %
(C) 140 %
(D) 150 %
Answer: Option D

Question No. 82
Hardness of water can be removed by boiling if it is due to
(A) Calcium bicarbonates
(B) Calcium sulphates
(C) Calcium chloride
(D) Calcium nitrates
Answer: Option A

Question No. 83
S1 and S2 are the draw downs in an observation well at times t1 and t2 after pumping. For
discharge Q and coefficient of transmissibility T, the relationship, is
(A) S2 - S1 = (2.3Q/ ) log10 (t2/t1)
(B) S2 - S1 = (2.3Q/4 ) log10 (t2/t1)
(C) S2 - S1 = (2.3Q/4 ) loge (t2/t1)
(D) S2 - S1 = (2.3Q/4 ) loge (t1/t2)
Answer: Option B

Question No. 84
If discharge of a pump is 0.16 cumecs, the economic diameter of pipe, is
(A) 0.488 m
(B) 4.88 cm
(C) 48.8 cm
(D) 4.88 m
Answer: Option A

Question No. 85
Hardness of water is caused by
(A) Presence of soap lather
(B) Presence of chlorides and sulphates of sodium and potassium
(C) Presence of bicarbonates, sulphates or chlorides of calcium and magnesium
(D) Turbidity
Answer: Option C

Question No. 86
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The pH value of neutral water is 7
(B) The maximum acidity is obtained when pH value is zero
 (C) The maximum alkalinity is obtained when pH value is 14
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 87
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The amount of rainfall in 24 hours, is known as daily rainfall
(B) The amount of rainfall in one year, is known as annual rainfall
(C) The rain cycle period in India is taken as 35 years
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 88
Detention period of a settling tank is
(A) Average theoretical time required for water to flow through the tank
(B) Time required for flow of water to fill the tank fully
(C) Average time for which water is retained in tank
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 89
The average domestic consumption under normal conditions in an Indian city per day per person,
is
(A) 105 litres
(B) 115 litres
(C) 125 litres
(D) 135 litres
Answer: Option D

Question No. 90
If d is the diameter of the pipe, p is the total internal pressure, f is the permissible tensile stress
and n is the effective of the joint, the thickness t of metal pipe, is
(A) n (pd/2f)
(B) (1/n) (pd/2f)
(C) (1/n) (pd/3f)
(D) (1/n) (pf/d)
Answer: Option B

Question No. 91
Generally, first portion of a logistic curve for the population growth of a developing city,
represents the growth of
(A) Increasing
(B) Decreasing
(C) Constant
(D) All the above
 Answer: Option A

Question No. 92
A pressure conduit carrying water beneath a stream or a canal, is known as
(A) Sag
(B) Depressed pipe
(C) Inverted syphon
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 93
Most satisfactory formula for an estimate of fire demand Q for a city of population P in thousands
for Indian conditions, is
(A) Q = 1115 (p/5 + 20)
(B) Q = 1640 P (1 - 0.01 P)
(C) Q = 3180 P
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 94
Permanent hardness of water can be removed by
(A) Adding alum
(B) Adding lime
(C) Adding chlorine
(D) Zeolite process
Answer: Option D

Question No. 95
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) If ports are closed, the dry intake towers will not have any water
(B) Even if ports are closed, the wet intake tower will have water filled up to reservoir level
(C) No buoyant force acts on wet intake towers
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 96
The maximum depth of sedimentation tanks is limited to
(A) 2 m
(B) 3 m
(C) 5 m
(D) 6 m
Answer: Option D
Question No. 97
Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. Intake of water supply should
(A) Be nearer to the treatment plant
(B) Receive water from purer zone of the source
(C) Be located downstream of waste water disposal point
(D) Remain easily accessible during floods
Answer: Option C

Question No. 98
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The precipitation during its travel in atmosphere dissolves certain gases
(B) Rain water which percolates through the ground, is free from suspended materials
(C) Underground water may dissolve minerals and salts present in the earth's layers
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 99
The fire demand of a city may be worked out by
(A) Kuichling's formula
(B) Freeman formula
(C) Under Writers formula
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 100

The formula HL = n²V²L/R4/3 for the head loss in conduits is generally known as
(A) Hazen-William's formula
(B) Manning's formula
(C) Darcy-Weisbach formula
(D) Nikuradse formula
Answer: Option B

Question No. 101

The joint used for joining the plain ends of cast iron pipes, is
(A) Flanged joint
(B) Socket and spigot joint
(C) Dresser coupling joint
(D) Flexible joint
Answer: Option C

Question No. 102

Disinfection of water with ozone is not good because
(A) It vanishes before water reaches the consumers
(B) It removes the colour, taste and odour from water as bacterias
(C) It adds taste to the water
 (D) It is more efficient than chlorine in killing bacterias
Answer: Option D

Question No. 103

The prescribed hardness limit of potable water ranges between
(A) 50 to 75 P.P.M.
(B) 75 to 115 P.P.M.
(C) 100 to 150 P.P.M.
(D) 150 to 200 P.P.M.
Answer: Option B

Question No. 104

While designing a water supply of an industrial township, industrial and commercial water
demand of total supply, is assumed
(A) 10 %
(B) 10 to 15 %
(C) 15 to 20 %
(D) 20 to 25 %
Answer: Option D

Question No. 105

After cleaning a slow sand filter, the filtered water is not used for
(A) 6 hours to 12 hours
(B) 12 hours to 18 hours
(C) 18 hours to 24 hours
(D) 24 hours to 36 hours
Answer: Option D

Question No. 106

The efficiency of sedimentation tank does not depend upon
(A) Depth of tank
(B) Length of tank
(C) Detention period
(D) Velocity of water
Answer: Option D

Question No. 107

Velocity of flow of water in plain sedimentation water tank, is normally kept
(A) 3 cm/minute
(B) 10 cm/minute
(C) 20 cm/minute
(D) 30 cm/minute
Answer: Option D
Question No. 108
Hard water contains
(A) Calcium
(B) Magnesium bicarbonates
(C) Magnesium sulphate
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 109

The depth of the water table at a place is 45 m below the general ground level. To lift water from a
deep tube well in such a locality, the type of pump to be installed is
(A) Centrifugal pump
(B) Reciprocating pump
(C) Deep well turbine pump
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 110

In a well planned city, the layout of distribution pipes generally adopted, is
(A) Grid-iron system
(B) Interlaced system
(C) Reticulation system
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 111

A water channel supported above the ground over trestles, is generally called
(A) Flume
(B) Canal
(C) Aqueduct
(D) Tunnel
Answer: Option A

Question No. 112

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) Free surface ground water is subjected to atmospheric pressure
(B) Water table surface rises and falls with seasons
(C) Depth of water table is directly proportional to the rate of drawl of water
(D) Level of water table remains stationary
Answer: Option D

Question No. 113

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) The flow in strainer type wells is radial
(B) The flow in cavity type wells in spherical
 (C) In strainer type wells, area of flow depends upon the length of the strainer pipe
(D) In cavity type wells, area of flow depends upon the size of the cavity
Answer: Option C

Question No. 114

As per IS : 1172-1963, water required per head per day for average domestic purposes, is
(A) 50 litres
(B) 65 litres
(C) 85 litres
(D) 135 litres
Answer: Option D

Question No. 115

Water to the consumers may be supplied from
(A) Infiltration galleries connected to sump well
(B) Infiltration well dug out on the banks of rivers
(C) Ranney wells sunk to the water level
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 116

The duration of contact of chlorine with water before it is served to the first consumer, should be
at least
(A) 10 to 15 minutes
(B) 15 to 20 minutes
(C) 20 to 30 minutes
(D) 30 to 40 minutes
Answer: Option C

Question No. 117

Water supply system includes
(A) Digging a well for water
(B) Construction of dams
(C) Construction of canals
(D) Entire arrangement from source to distribution
Answer: Option D

Question No. 118

The maximum pressure to which a pipe is subjected to during its operation, is known
(A) Working pressure
(B) Design pressure
(C) Test pressure
(D) Pipe pressure
Answer: Option A
Question No. 119
For the same draw down in two observations wells at distances r1 and r2, the times after start of
pumping are t1 and t2 hours respectively. The relation which holds good is
(A) t2 = r2/r1 × t1
(B) t2 = (r2/r1)² × t1
(C) t2 = (r2/r1)3 × t1
(D) t2 = (r2/r1) × t12
Answer: Option B

Question No. 120

Q is the discharge from an unconfined tube well with depression head s through its pipe of
radius rw. If the radius of influence is R, the length of the required strainer, is
(A) 2.3Q log10 (R/rw)2
(B) 2.3Q loge (R/rw)2
(C) 2.3Q loge (R/rw)/2
(D) 2.3Q log10 (R/rw)/2
Answer: Option C

Question No. 121

A slow sand filter is cleaned if its filter head is higher than
(A) 10 cm to 20 cm
(B) 20 cm to 40 cm
(C) 40 cm to 70 cm
(D) 70 cm to 120 cm
Answer: Option D

Question No. 122

The intake opening is generally covered by a screen to prevent entry of debris etc. and its level is
kept
(A) At the level of water of the source
(B) At the bottom of water of the source
(C) At about 2.5 m above the bottom
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 123

If four fires break out in a city of population 40 lakhs and if each hydrant has three streams and
duration of each fire is four hours, the total quantity of water required, is
(A) 1880 kilo litres
(B) 2880 kilo litres
(C) 3880 kilo litres
(D) 4880 kilo litres
Answer: Option B
Question No. 124
Steel pipe are
(A) Suitable for withstanding high internal pressure
(B) Connected by riveted or welded joints
(C) Generally laid underground and no expansion joint is required
(D) Likely to last 100 years under ordinary conditions
Answer: Option D

Question No. 125

When gravity and pumping systems of water distribution are adopted, the type of distribution
reservoir, is
(A) Elevated tank
(B) Ground source reservoir
(C) Intz tank
(D) Stand pipe
Answer: Option A

Question No. 126

The force which develops in a pressure conduit supported on trestles, is
(A) Tension
(B) Compression
(C) Temperature stress
(D) Flexural stress
Answer: Option D

Question No. 127

Standard unit of turbidity of water is in one litre of distilled water, one milligram of finely divided
(A) Silica
(B) Mud
(C) Clay
(D) Organic matter
Answer: Option A

Question No. 128

For complete stabilisation of organic matter in polluted water, it takes
(A) 5 days
(B) 10 days
(C) 20 days
(D) 30 days
Answer: Option D

Question No. 129

If intensity of rainfall in cm per hour is I, percentage coefficient of run-off is P, area of catchment in
square kilometres is A, the total run-off Q, is given by
(A) Q = 1.758 × 102 × API
 (B) Q = 2.758 × 102 × API
(C) Q = 2.758 × 103 × API
(D) Q = 2.758 × 103 × A/PI
Answer: Option C

Question No. 130

The external load per unit length of
(A) A pipe laid on, or projecting above the undisturbed ground and covered with fills, is
proportional to the square of the external diameter of the pipe
(B) A flexible pipe buried in narrow trenches and thoroughly compacted side fills, is proportional
to the product of the width of the trench and diameter of the pipe
(C) A rigid pipe buried in a narrow trenches and thoroughly compacted side fills, is proportional
to the square of the width of the trench
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 131

Shales are
(A) Porous
(B) Permeable
(C) Porous and permeable
(D) Porous but not permeable
Answer: Option D

Question No. 132

The best process of disinfection of public water supply, is by
(A) Boiling
(B) Chlorination
(C) Adding lime
(D) Adding ozone
Answer: Option B

Question No. 133

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Head loss in smaller size pipes at equal velocities, is less
(B) Cost of pumping is less in smaller size pipes
(C) Cost of smaller pipes is comparatively more
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 134

The dilution ratio at which the odour is hardly detectable is generally called threshold odour
number and for public supplies it should not exceed
(A) 3
(B) 5
 (C) 7
(D) 9
Answer: Option A

Question No. 135

Surge tanks are used
(A) For storage water
(B) To increase the velocity in a pipeline
(C) As overflow valves
(D) To guard against water hammer
Answer: Option D

Question No. 136

Normal values of overflow rate for plain sedimentation tanks in litres/hr/m2, generally range
between
(A) 100 to 250
(B) 250 to 500
(C) 500 to 750
(D) 750 to 1000
Answer: Option C

Question No. 137

P.V.C. pipes can withstand pressure bead of water upto
(A) 25 m
(B) 50 m
(C) 75 m
(D) 100 m
Answer: Option D

Question No. 138

Most commonly used pump for lifting water in water supply mains, is
(A) Axial flow pump
(B) Reciprocating pump
(C) Rotary type pump
(D) Centrifugal pumps
Answer: Option A

Question No. 139

The fire demand for a city of 50,000 populations, according to Godrich formula, is
(A) 40 mld
(B) 42 mld
(C) 44 mld
(D) 48 mld
Answer: Option C
Question No. 140
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Due to boiling, the bacterias present in water can be destroyed
(B) Lime may be used for softening hard water
(C) Excess lime when added to water, raises the pH value of water
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 141

If V is total consumption of water in litres for a population of N individuals, per capita
consumption or water allowance for the water supply Q, is given by
(A) Q = V/12N
(B) Q = V/24N
(C) Q = V/265N
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 142

According to Buston's formula, fire demand in litres per minute for a population of P thousands, is
(A) 3182 P
(B) 1136.5 [(P/10) + 10]
(C) 4637 P (1 - 0.01 P)
(D) 5663 P
Answer: Option D

Question No. 143

For controlling algae, the most commonly used chemical, is
(A) Copper sulphate
(B) Alum
(C) Lime
(D) Bleaching powder
Answer: Option A

Question No. 144

For centrifugal pumps
(A) Initial cost is low
(B) Limited space is required
(C) The discharge obtained is steady and non-pulsating
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 145

The storage capacity of a reservoir may be divided into three zones. The lowest zone is
(A) Dead storage
(B) Useful storage
 (C) Surcharge storage
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 146

Economic height of a dam is the height corresponding to which
(A) Cost of the dam per unit of storage is minimum
(B) Amount of silting is less
(C) Cost of dam per unit storage is maximum
(D) Free board provided is least
Answer: Option A

Question No. 147

For maximum alkalinity of water, pH value should be
(A) Zero
(B) Less than 7
(C) More than 7
(D) 14
Answer: Option D

Question No. 148

The efficiency of a pumping set, is generally assumed
(A) 50 %
(B) 55 %
(C) 60 %
(D) 65 %
Answer: Option D

Question No. 149

The population growth curve is
(A) S-shaped curve
(B) Parabolic curve
(C) Circular curve
(D) Straight line
Answer: Option A

Question No. 150

The fire demand for ascertaining the empirical formula 1136.5 [(P/10) + 10] known as
(A) Kuichling's formula
(B) Buston's formula
(C) Freeman formula
(D) Under Writers formula
Answer: Option C
Question No. 151
The bacterias which may survive with or without free oxygen, are called
(A) Aerobic bacterias
(B) Anaerobic bacterias
(C) Facultative bacteria's
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 152

Aeration of water is done to remove
(A) Odour
(B) Colour
(C) Bacterias
(D) Turbidity
Answer: Option A

Question No. 153

The maximum pressure to which cast iron pipes may be subjected to, is
(A) 3 kg/cm2
(B) 5 kg/cm2
(C) 7 kg/cm2
(D) 10 kg/cm2
Answer: Option C

Question No. 154

Water may not contain much impurity if its source is
(A) Reservoirs
(B) Stream flowing in plains
(C) Lakes in lower regions
(D) Spring along hill slopes
Answer: Option D

Question No. 155

If p is total internal pressure, d is diameter of pressure conduit and t is thickness of conduit, the
Hoop's stress is
(A) /t
(B) /2t
(C) dp/2t
(D) dt/2p
Answer: Option C

Question No. 156

Turbidity of water is expressed
(A) In ppm
(B) In numbers in an arbitrary scale
 (C) By pH value
(D) By colour code
Answer: Option A

Question No. 157

In plain sedimentation tanks under normal conditions, impurities are removed upto
(A) 60 %
(B) 70 %
(C) 80 %
(D) 90 %
Answer: Option B

Question No. 158

The equation 0.155
in which Q is yearly run off in cm, P is yearly total
rainfall in cm, H is difference of R.L.s. of lowest and highest points and A is area of catchment in
square metres, is known as
(A) English formula
(B) Khosla's formula
(C) Justin's formula
(D) Vermule's formula
Answer: Option C

Question No. 159

In slow sand filters, the turbidity of raw water can be removed only up to
(A) 60 mg/litre
(B) 75 mg/litre
(C) 100 gm/litre
(D) 150 mg/litre
Answer: Option A

Question No. 160

Pressure relief valves are provided in water mains
(A) To reduce the pressure
(B) At low points
(C) Upstream of sluice
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 161

Quality of water is said to be good if it is
(A) Free from suspended matter
(B) Colourless
(C) Free from pathogenic organism
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 162
Sluice valves in main water supplies
(A) Are used to regulate the flow of water in pipes
(B) Are spaced about 5 km apart
(C) Are usually placed at the summits
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 163

The head against which the motor works for lifting water, is
(A) Maximum depth of water table below ground level
(B) Maximum depression head
(C) Velocity head
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 164

Biochemical Oxygen Demand (B.O.D.) of safe drinking water must be
(A) Nil
(B) 5
(C) 10
(D) 15
Answer: Option A

Question No. 165

Gravity conduits
(A) Carry water under gravity
(B) Follow the hydraulic gradient line
(C) Are carried through tunnels in deep cuttings
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 166

At break point of chlorination,
(A) Chlorine is used to oxidise
(B) Residual chloride is zero
(C) Residual chloride is maximum
(D) Residual chlorine reappears
Answer: Option D

Question No. 167

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Detention period for plain sedimentation tanks ranges between 4 to 8 hours
(B) Detention period for sedimentation tanks, using coagulants usually ranges between 2 to 4
hours
 (C) The horizontally flow velocity in sedimentation tanks, is generally limited to 0.3 m/minute
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 168

The capability of a soil mass of full width and depth to transmit water, is known
(A) Porosity
(B) Permeability
(C) Transmissibility
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 169

The head against which the motor works for lifting water, is
(A) Maximum depth of water table below ground level
(B) Maximum depression head
(C) Velocity head
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 170

By boiling water, hardness can be removed if it is due to
(A) Calcium sulphate
(B) Magnesium sulphate
(C) Calcium nitrate
(D) Calcium bicarbonate
Answer: Option D

Question No. 171

Derivation of Thiem's formula Q = 2 (s1 - s2)/2.3 log10 (r2/r1) is based on the assumption
(A) The aquifer is homogeneous, isotropic and of infinite depth and area
(B) The well is sunk through the full depth of the aquifer
(C) The flow lines are radial and horizontal, and the flow is laminar
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 172

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The volume of underground water extracted by gravity drainage from a saturated soil, is
known as yield
(B) The ratio of volume drained to the total volume of material drained, is known as specific
yield
(C) The sum of specific yield and specific retention, is equal to porosity
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 173
Percussion drilling is unsuitable in
(A) Unconsolidated sand
(B) Unconsolidated gravel
(C) Quick sand
(D) Consolidated rocks
Answer: Option D

Question No. 174

In an artesian aquifer, the draw downs in two observation wells at distances 100 m, and 200 m
were found same after one hour and x hours respectively. The value of x, is
(A) 2 hours
(B) 4 hours
(C) 9 hours
(D) 16 hours
Answer: Option B

Question No. 175

Rapid gravity filters can remove bacterial impurities up to a maximum of
(A) 50 %
(B) 60 %
(C) 70 %
(D) 80 %
Answer: Option D

Question No. 176

Continuous flow of water can be expected from
(A) Gravity springs
(B) Surface springs
(C) Artesian springs
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 177

Reciprocating pumps
(A) Are not suitable for variable heads
(B) Are four times costlier than centrifugal pumps
(C) Are not suitable for pumping water containing sediments
(D) Single stroke produce pulsating flow
Answer: Option A

Question No. 178

Low turbidity of water is detected by
(A) Turbidity tube
(B) Jackson turbidity meter
 (C) Baylis turbidimeter
(D) Hellige turbidimeter
Answer: Option C

Question No. 179

Pick up the correct statement from the following regarding radial flow centrifugal pumps:
(A) These are provided with volute type or turbine type casings
(B) In involute type of radial flow centrifugal pump, the impeller discharges into a gradually
expanding spiral casing
(C) The efficiency of turbine type of radial flow centrifugal pump, is always higher than that of
volute type
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 180

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Deposition of calcium carbonate on the inside of the well pipe, causes incrustation of the
pipe
(B) Incrustation of the pipe reduces the discharge
(C) Acidic waters cause corrosion of the pipes
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 181

Silt storage is the same as
(A) Dead storage
(B) Live storage
(C) Effective storage
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 182

P thousands,
is
(A) 3182 P
(B) 1136.5 (P/10 + 10)
(C) 4637 P [1 - 0.01 P]
(D) 5663 P
Answer: Option A

Question No. 183

The type of pipe commonly used in water supply distribution schemes, is
(A) R.C.C. pipes
(B) Hume pipes
(C) Cast iron pipes
 (D) G.I. pipes
Answer: Option C

Question No. 184

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. The source of surface water is from
(A) Streams and rivers
(B) Storage reservoirs
(C) Springs
(D) Ponds and lakes
Answer: Option C

Question No. 185

Water supply includes
(A) Collection, transportation and treatment of water
(B) Distribution of water to consumers
(C) Provision of hydrants for fire fighting
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 186

The discharge Q = 2 /2.3 log10 (R/rw) for the confined tube well is obtained from
(A) Thiem's formula
(B) Darcy's formula
(C) Tolman's formula
(D) Dupuits formula
Answer: Option D

Question No. 187

m and n are monsoon duration factor and catchment factor respectively. If P is yearly rainfall in
cm, runoff can be calculated by
(A) Velocity area method
(B) Weir or spillway method
(C) Use of venturi-meter
(D) Using power plant consumption
Answer: Option A

Question No. 188

Acidity in water is caused due to
(A) Mineral acids
(B) Free CO2
(C) Iron sulphate
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 189
The cast iron pipes for water supply system are used for
(A) Durability
(B) Strength
(C) Easy connection
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 190

In a rapid gravity filter
(A) Raw water from the source is supplied
(B) Disinfected raw water is supplied
(C) Raw water passed through coagulation tank is supplied
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 191

The maximum permissible nitrites in public water supplies, is
(A) Nil
(B) 0.5 P.P.M.
(C) 1.0. P.P.M.
(D) 1.5 P.P.M.
Answer: Option A

Question No. 192

Most commonly used section in grade aqueducts, is
(A) Circular
(B) Rectangular
(C) Parabolic
(D) Horse shoe section
Answer: Option B

Question No. 193

The most important and widely used tube well in India, is
(A) Strainer well
(B) Cavity well
(C) Slotted well
(D) Perforated pipe well
Answer: Option A

Question No. 194

The R.L. of ground water table on the sides of a valley is 1505 m whereas R.L. of the stream water
is 1475 m. If 60° slope consists of pervious soil between R.L. 1485 m to 1500 m, the gravity spring
may be expected at the point of reduced level
(A) 1500 m
 (B) 1505 m
(C) 1475 m
(D) 1485 m
Answer: Option D

Question No. 195

Critical time for developing a water hammer, is the time required for
(A) Closing the valve
(B) The wave to travel from valve to the reservoir
(C) The wave to travel from the valve to the reservoir and back
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 196

Bacterias which can survive with or without free oxygen, are known
(A) Aerobic bacterias
(B) Anaerobic bacterias
(C) Facultative bacterias
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 197

The standard B.O.D. at 20°C, is taken for the consumption in
(A) 2 days
(B) 3 days
(C) 4 days
(D) 5 days
Answer: Option D

Question No. 198

Distribution of wash water is provided in
(A) Sedimentation tank
(B) Slow sand filter
(C) Rapid gravity filter
(D) All the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 199

If P is population of a city in thousands and Q is fire demand in litres per minute, for proper
estimate of water, the Empirical formula Q = 1135 [(P/5) + 10] is suggested by
(A) National Board of fire under-writers
(B) Freeman
(C) Kuichling
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 200
During treatment of water, sedimentation is done
(A) Before filtration
(B) After filtration
(C) Simultaneously with filtration
(D) Along with chlorination
Answer: Option A

Question No. 201

The ratio of the maximum daily consumption to the average daily demand, is
(A) 1.0
(B) 1.2
(C) 1.4
(D) 1.8
Answer: Option D

Question No. 202

Alkalinity in water may be caused due to
(A) Calcium and magnesium bicarbonates
(B) Sodium carbonate
(C) Potassium carbonate
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 203

The main draw-back of centrifugal pump, is
(A) Necessity of priming
(B) Discharge from pump varies with the load of water
(C) For high heads, efficiency is low up to 50%
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 204

The factor to be considered for the source of city water supply, is
(A) Quantity and quality of the available water
(B) Elevation of the source of water
(C) General terrain intervening the area
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 205

From the surface of reservoir, evaporation may be minimised by sprinkling
(A) Spirit
(B) Hydrochloric acid
(C) Acetyl alcohol
 (D) Methane
Answer: Option C

Question No. 206

The transitional middle portion of a logistic curve follows
(A) A geometric growth
(B) A logarithmic growth
(C) A first over curve
(D) A constant rate
Answer: Option D

Question No. 207

For plain chlorination of water, the quantity of chlorine used, is
(A) 0.1 mg/litre
(B) 0.2 mg/litre
(C) 0.3 mg/litre
(D) 0.5 mg/litre
Answer: Option D

Question No. 208

In distribution pipes, air valves are provided at
(A) Lower points
(B) Junction points
(C) Higher points
(D) Anywhere
Answer: Option C

Question No. 209

Manholes along the mains from the source to a city are provided at 500 m intervals in
(A) Steel pipes
(B) R.C.C. pipes
(C) Hume steel pipes
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 210

The valves provided at low points of pipes to drain off water quickly under gravity, are called
(A) Blow off valves
(B) Drain valves
(C) Sewer valves
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 211
The maximum permissible colour for domestic supplies based on cobalt scale, is
(A) 5 ppm
(B) 10 ppm
(C) 15 ppm
(D) 20 ppm
Answer: Option D

Question No. 212

Increase in population of a rapidly growing city, may be estimated by
(A) Arithmetical mean method
(B) Geometrical method
(C) Incremental increase method
(D) Graphical comparison method
Answer: Option B

Question No. 213

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Air lift pumps are generally used for pumping water from deep wells
(B) Jet pumps are generally used for pumping water from small wells
(C) The hydraulic ram works on the principle of water hammer
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 214

Per capita demand of water is calculated in litres
(A) Per person per day
(B) Per person per month
(C) Per person per year
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 215

Hard water for public water supply is discarded because
(A) It consumes more soap
(B) It contains lot of turbidity
(C) It contains pathogenic bacterias
(D) It possesses bad taste and odour
Answer: Option A

Question No. 216

If the specific capacity of a well is 0.3183 × 10-3 per sec, the discharge from a well of 4 m diameter
under a depression head of 4 m, is
(A) 8 litres/sec
(B) 10 litres/sec
 (C) 12 litres/sec
(D) 16 litres/sec
Answer: Option D

Question No. 217

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) Iron salts produce heavy flocks and hence remove more suspended matter
(B) Iron salts remove hydrogen sulphides
(C) Iron salts can be used over a limited range of pH values
(D) Iron salts impart corrosiveness to water
Answer: Option C

Question No. 218

Asbestos pipes are
(A) Light in weight and easy to transport
(B) Highly resistant to corrosion
(C) High flexible to accommodate deflection upto 12°
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 219

A strainer type well sunk through three previous layers intervened by three impervious
aquicludes, draws water from
(A) Top most pervious layer
(B) Central pervious layer
(C) Lowest pervious layer
(D) All the pervious layers
Answer: Option D

Question No. 220

Runoff is the quantity of water which flows
(A) In sewer pipes
(B) Due to leakage in pipes
(C) In rivers
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 221

The yield of a rapid gravity filter as compared to that of slow sand filter, is
(A) 10 times
(B) 15 times
(C) 20 times
(D) 30 times
Answer: Option D
Question No. 222
The most ideal disinfectant used for drinking water throughout the world, is
(A) Alum
(B) Lime
(C) Chlorine
(D) Nitrogen
Answer: Option C

Question No. 223

Perched aquifers generally occur
(A) Below water table
(B) Above water table
(C) In aquicludes
(D) In artesian aquifers
Answer: Option B

Question No. 224

Check valves are installed
(A) On the delivery side of the pumping set
(B) At the interconnections between polluted water system and a potable water system
(C) Both (a) and (b)
(D) Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 225

If average volume of sediment deposits is one-tenth million cubic metres per year in a reservoir of
total capacity 10 million cubic metres, the dead storage will be filled up, in
(A) 10 years
(B) 15 years
(C) 20 years
(D) 25 years
Answer: Option D

Question No. 226

At break point of chlorination,
(A) Chlorine is used to oxidise
(B) Residual chloride is zero
(C) Residual chloride is maximum
(D) Residual chlorine reappears
Answer: Option D

Question No. 227

If pH value of water is
(A) 7 water it is said to be neutral
(B) Less than 7 it is said to be acidic
 (C) More than 7 it is said to be alkaline
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 228

Dissolved carbon dioxide, can be removed from the supply main by
(A) Sedimentation
(B) Aeration
(C) Chlorination
(D) Coagulation
Answer: Option B

Question No. 229

Grade aqueducts are not allowed to run
(A) Full
(B) ¾th full
(C) ½full
(D) ¼th full
Answer: Option A

Question No. 230

According to IS : 1172-1963, a minimum of 135 litres of water capita per day, is required for
(A) Boarding schools
(B) Nurses home and medical quarters
(C) Hostels
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 231

The temporary hardness of water can be removed by
(A) Boiling
(B) Adding lime
(C) Adding alum
(D) Filtration
Answer: Option A

Question No. 232

The level of underground water is called
(A) Water level
(B) Water table
(C) Negative level
(D) Invert level
Answer: Option B
Question No. 233
The period of cleaning of a slow sand filter, is usually
(A) 5 to 10 days
(B) Two weeks to three weeks
(C) One month to three months
(D) Three months to six months
Answer: Option C

Question No. 234

Specific yield of a well is
(A) Quantity of water than can be drawn from the well
(B) Flow of water per unit time
(C) Total quantity of water available in the well
(D) Quantity of water per unit time per unit draw-down
Answer: Option C

Question No. 235

By adding 1 ml of Orthotolidine solution to 100 ml chlorinated water taken after contact period,
the residual chlorine makes the colour of solution
(A) Yellowish
(B) Greenish
(C) Bluish
(D) Reddish
Answer: Option A

Question No. 236

Rapid gravity filter can only remove turbidity of water upto
(A) 15 to 25 gm/litre
(B) 25 to 30 gm/litre
(C) 30 to 35 cm/litre
(D) 35 to 40 gm/litre
Answer: Option D

Question No. 237

In pumping stations, the type of joint generally used, is
(A) Socket and spigot joint
(B) Flanged joint
(C) Expansion joint
(D) Dresser coupling joint
Answer: Option B

Question No. 238

Rapid sand filter
(A) Should be preceded by coagulation and sedimentation
(B) Uses rapid sand as filter media
 (C) Is used after slow sand filtering has been done
(D) Can combine disinfection also
Answer: Option A

Question No. 239

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following regarding fire hydrants
(A) Fire hydrants are fitted in water mains at 100 m to 150 m apart at fire
(B) The minimum water pressure hydrants, is kept 1.5 kg/cm2
(C) The water at pressure 1 to 1.5 kg/cm2 is made available for 4 to 5 hours for constant use
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 240

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) At a particular speed of operation, the head produced decreases with the increase of
discharge
(B) At zero discharge, discharge valve remaining closed, the head developed is maximum which
is known as shut-off head
(C) At a particular speed the discharge at which efficiency of a pump is maximum, is known as
normal discharge
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 241

De-chlorination is followed by
(A) Post-chlorination
(B) Pre-chlorination
(C) Double-chlorination
(D) Super-chlorination
Answer: Option D

Question No. 242

The least thickness of class B cast iron (spun) pipe, is
(A) 7.2 mm
(B) 7.9 mm
(C) 8.6 mm
(D) 10 mm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 243

Water having pH value as 6, is
(A) Alkaline
(B) Acidic
(C) Neutral
(D) None of these
 Answer: Option B

Question No. 244

Maximum permissible colour for domestic water supplies, based on Cobalt scale, is
(A) 5 P.P.M.
(B) 10 P.P.M.
(C) 15 P.P.M.
(D) 20 P.P.M.
Answer: Option D

Question No. 245

The main process to purify water by filtration, is
(A) Mechanical straining
(B) Flocculation and sedimentation
(C) Biological metabolism
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 246

The approximate diameter of a water mains for supplying 7.2 mld with a velocity 1.2 m/sec, is
(A) 24 cm
(B) 26 cm
(C) 28 cm
(D) 30 cm
Answer: Option D

Question No. 247

For least effect on the water table, the tube wells must be dug one in every
(A) 0.5 sq km
(B) 0.75 sq km
(C) 1.0 sq km
(D) 1.5 sq km
Answer: Option D

Question No. 248

An area is declared drought affected if its mean rainfall is less than
(A) 50 %
(B) 60 %
(C) 75 %
(D) 85 %
Answer: Option D

Question No. 249

A circular gravity aqueduct is not generally preferred to because of
(A) Its maximum hydraulic mean depth
 (B) Maximum area per unit of wetted perimeter
(C) Minimum cost of construction
(D) Its proper support on the ground
Answer: Option D

Question No. 250

Efficiency of removing bacterias from raw water by a slow sand filter, is
(A) 80% to 81%
(B) 85% to 86%
(C) 90% to 97%
(D) 98% to 99%
Answer: Option D

Question No. 251

A high velocity of wash water is required for
(A) Rapid gravity filter with strainers
(B) Rapid gravity filter without strainers
(C) Slow sand filter with strainers
(D) Slow sand filter without strainers
Answer: Option B

Question No. 252

In a reservoir the average volume of sediment deposition is 0.15 million cubic per year. If the dead
storage and total capacity of the reservoir are 8 million cubic metres and 36 million cubic metres
respectively,
(A) The reservoir will theoretically be silted in 240 years
(B) The reservoir will start reducing after 60 years
(C) Both (a) and (b)
(D) Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 253

135 litres of water per person per day, is provided in
(A) Nurses homes
(B) Hostels
(C) Residential schools
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 254

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Excess quantities of iron and manganese in water, cause discolouration of clothes
(B) Lead and barium salts have toxic effect
(C) Higher copper content affects the lungs
(D) All the above
 Answer: Option D

Question No. 255

Disinfection of drinking water is done to remove
(A) Turbidity
(B) Odour
(C) Colour
(D) Bacterias
Answer: Option D

Question No. 256

Capacity of soil to absorb moisture, is generally known as
(A) Permeability
(B) Porosity
(C) Infiltration capacity
(D) Perviousness
Answer: Option C

Question No. 257

Average annual rainfall at any station is the average of annual rainfall over a period of
(A) 7 years
(B) 14 years
(C) 28 years
(D) 35 years
Answer: Option D

Question No. 258

If Q is discharge is cubic metres per sec and D is the economical diameter of the pipe. According to
Lea
(A) D = 0.67 to 0.87 Q
(B) D = 0.77 to 0.97 Q
(C) D = 0.97 to 1.22 Q
(D) D = 1.22 to 1.33 Q
Answer: Option C

Question No. 259

The flow of water gets retarded, in
(A) Settling tank
(B) Sedimentation tank
(C) Clarifier
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 260
At the socket and spigot joint,
(A) Enlarged end of the pipe is called socket
(B) Normal end of the pipe is called spigot
(C) Spigot is fitted into the socket
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 261

Yield of a drainage basin is:
(A) Run off of the area expressed as instantaneous rate
(B) Average run off over a short period
(C) Total volume of water flowing annually
(D) All the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 262

Disappearance of pink colour of water of a well due of KMnO4 indicates that water contains
(A) Acidity
(B) Alkalinity
(C) Turbidity
(D) Organic matter
Answer: Option D

Question No. 263

The specific retention is least in case of
(A) Clay
(B) Sand
(C) Silt
(D) Coarse gravel
Answer: Option D

Question No. 264

If w is the weight of water per cubic metre, Q is the discharge in cubic metres per sec and H is the
total head, the required water horse power of the pump, is
(A) wQH/15
(B) wQH/360
(C) wQH/220
(D) wQH/550
Answer: Option A

Question No. 265

Pipes are laid parallel
(A) To increase the capacity of the water supply
(B) To provide a means of repairing without closing water supply
 (C) To meet the requirement of excessive supply
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 266

The factor affecting per capita demand, is
(A) Size of the city
(B) Climatic conditions
(C) Pressure in water mains
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 267

Filtration of water is done to remove
(A) Colour
(B) Odour
(C) Turbidity
(D) Pathogenic bacteria
Answer: Option C

Question No. 268

An ideal sand for filters should be
(A) Free from dirt and other impurities
(B) Uniform in nature and size
(C) Hard and resistant
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 269

Hardness of water is caused due to
(A) Calcium sulphate
(B) Magnesium sulphate
(C) Calcium nitrates
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 270

Normal values of overflow rate for sedimentation tanks using coagulants in litres/hr/m2, generally
range between
(A) 250 to 500
(B) 500 to 750
(C) 750 to 1000
(D) 1000 to 1250
Answer: Option D
Question No. 271
Cast iron pipes
(A) Are widely used in city water supplies
(B) Resist corrosion satisfactorily
(C) May last for 100 years
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 272

B.O.D. of treated water should be
(A) 10 ppm
(B) 25 ppm
(C) 20 ppm
(D) Nil
Answer: Option D

Question No. 273

The chloride content of treated water for public supplies should not exceed
(A) 100 ppm
(B) 150 ppm
(C) 200 ppm
(D) 250 ppm
Answer: Option D

Question No. 274

Water is distributed to consumers by gravitational system, in
(A) Dehradun
(B) Mumbai
(C) Delhi
(D) Both (a) and (b)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 275

The superimposed load transmitted to the pipe, is generally evaluated by Business formula
(A) pt = 3H3P/2
(B) pt = 3H3P/2 5
(C) pt = 3H3P/2 2
(D) pt = 3H3P2/2 3
Answer: Option B

Question No. 276

If n is porosity, y is specific yield and r is specific retention of any soil, the relationship which holds
good, is
(A) n + y + r = 1
(B) n + y = r
 (C) n + r = y
(D) y + r = n
Answer: Option D

Question No. 277

Estimates of a water supply project depends upon the rate of water supply per capita
consumption and probable population estimated at the end of the design period of
(A) 5 to 10 years
(B) 10 to 15 years
(C) 15 to 20 years
(D) 20 to 30 years
Answer: Option D

Question No. 278

In distribution pipes, drain valves are provided at
(A) Lower point
(B) Higher point
(C) Junction points
(D) Anywhere
Answer: Option A

Question No. 279

Water gets evaporated from water surfaces and land surfaces, get converted into water drops at
lower temperatures, flows over ground surface and finally meets its source, i.e. lake, sea, etc. This
entire process is generally known as
(A) Hydrological cycle
(B) Water cycle
(C) Evaporation and precipitation cycle
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 280

Open channels supported over trestles, are generally known as
(A) Raised canals
(B) Aqueducts
(C) Siphons
(D) Flumes
Answer: Option D

Question No. 281

Corrosion of a pipe
(A) Reduces its life span
(B) Reduces its carrying capacity
(C) Adds colour to water
(D) All the above
 Answer: Option D

Question No. 282

The population of a city in 2000 is 50,000. The average per decade of the previous records of
population is 5000 and average percentage per decade is 20%. The population of the city based on
geometrical increase method, in the year 2020 will be
(A) 56,000
(B) 60,000
(C) 64,000
(D) 72,000
Answer: Option D

Question No. 283

In rapid sand filters the ratio of length and diameter of the lateral, should not be greater than
(A) 10
(B) 15
(C) 20
(D) 25
Answer: Option C

Question No. 284

Disinfection of drinking water, is done to remove
(A) Odour
(B) Bacterias
(C) Turbidity
(D) Colour
Answer: Option B

Question No. 285

A well is considered to be good if it is sunk into
(A) Clay
(B) Sand
(C) Coarse gravel
(D) Silt
Answer: Option C

Question No. 286

Abyssinian tube well is a special type of
(A) Slotted type wells
(B) Cavity type wells
(C) Strainer type well
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 287
Surface water is obtained from
(A) Well
(B) Springs
(C) Artesian well
(D) Rain
Answer: Option D

Question No. 288

The permissible amount of nitrites present in potable water, is
(A) 10 ppm
(B) 15 ppm
(C) 45 ppm
(D) Nil
Answer: Option D

Question No. 289

Detention time for plain sedimentation tank usually ranges from
(A) 2 to 4 hours
(B) 4 to 8 hours
(C) 6 to 10 hours
(D) 8 to 12 hours
Answer: Option B

Question No. 290

The order of existence of three portions of water in a reservoir from the bottom to top is
(A) Useful storage + surcharge storage + dead storage
(B) Useful storage + dead storage + surcharge storage
(C) Dead storage + useful storage + surcharge storage
(D) Surcharge storage + useful storage + dead storage
Answer: Option C

Question No. 291

The maximum non-verticality of the bore of a well 200 m deep, may be permitted up to
(A) 25 cm
(B) 50 cm
(C) 75 cm
(D) 100 cm
Answer: Option D

Question No. 292

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) Porosity of clay sand soil is 45%
(B) Porosity of pure sand is 35%
(C) Porosity of sand stone is up to 15%
 (D) None of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 293

Water may contain
(A) Bicarbonate alkalinity
(B) Carbonate alkalinity
(C) Hydroxide alkalinity
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 294

The total domestic consumption in a city water supply, is assumed
(A) 20 %
(B) 30 %
(C) 40 %
(D) 60 %
Answer: Option D

Question No. 295

Surface water may
(A) Contain large amount of impurities
(B) Be contaminated by impurities
(C) Contain disease producing bacterias
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 296

The ratio of total capacity and dead storage is kept
(A) 8
(B) 6
(C) 4
(D) 3
Answer: Option C

Question No. 297

The maximum permissible chloride content in treated water of public water supplies should not
exceed
(A) 50 P.P.M.
(B) 100 P.P.M.
(C) 150 P.P.M.
(D) 250 P.P.M.
Answer: Option D
Question No. 298
Most important source of water for public water supply, is from
(A) Lakes
(B) Ponds
(C) Streams
(D) Rivers
Answer: Option D

Question No. 299

Air inlet valve in water mains, is generally provided at
(A) Summit of the pipe
(B) Upstream of sluice valve
(C) Downstream of sluice valve
(D) Both (a) and (c) of above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 300

To detect the turbidity of the order of 0 to 1000 P.P.M. the instrument used is
(A) Turbidimeter
(B) Jackson turbidimeter
(C) Baylis turbidimeter
(D) Hellige turbidimeter
Answer: Option C

Question No. 301

Higher yield may be expected from
(A) Gravity springs
(B) Surface springs
(C) Artesian springs
(D) All the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 302

Before constructing a dam, the factor to be considered for controlling sedimentation, is
(A) Selection of dam site
(B) Construction of check dams
(C) Providing vegetation screens
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 303

Chlorination of water does not remove
(A) Ammonia content
(B) B.O.D.
(C) Organic matter content
 (D) Dissolved oxygen
Answer: Option D

Question No. 304

While selecting the location of an intake for collecting surface water, the factor considered, is
(A) The intake point should be near as far as possible to the treatment plant
(B) The intake point should be in purer zone of the water source
(C) The intake point in meandering rivers should be on concave banks
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 305

The diameter of pipes in bath rooms and lavatories in domestic water supply, is
(A) 6 mm
(B) 12 mm
(C) 18 mm
(D) 24 mm
Answer: Option B

Question No. 306

Non-pathogenic bacterias cause the following water borne disease,
(A) Cholera
(B) Typhoid
(C) Infections hepatitis
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 307

Underground water is obtained from
(A) Rains
(B) Rivers
(C) Lakes
(D) Springs
Answer: Option D

Question No. 308

The ensure proper growth of children's teeth, the quantity of fluoride used in water mains, is
(A) 1 mg/litre
(B) 2 mg/litre
(C) 3 mg/litre
(D) 5 mg/litre
Answer: Option A

Question No. 309

For a city developed haphazardly, the layout of distribution pipes preferred to, is
 (A) Ring system
(B) Radial system
(C) Grid iron system
(D) Dead end system
Answer: Option D

Question No. 310

Slow sand filter is used if maximum turbidity of raw water is less than
(A) 10 gm/litre
(B) 20 gm/litre
(C) 30 gm/litre
(D) 50 gm/litre
Answer: Option D

Question No. 311

Raw water treated with only chlorine, is known as
(A) Plain chlorination
(B) Pre-chlorination
(C) First-chlorination
(D) De-chlorination
Answer: Option A

Question No. 312

Total flow in stream is known
(A) Run off
(B) Stream flow
(C) Discharge
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 313

Asbestos pipes are joined by means of
(A) Flanged joint
(B) Flexible joint
(C) Dresser coupling joint
(D) Simplex joint
Answer: Option D

Question No. 314

For estimating the run off of catchments, the mean value of the constant 'K' in the Khosla's
formula Qy = Py - K (1.8 Ty + 32) is
(A) 1.21
(B) 1.23
(C) 1.25
(D) 1.27
 Answer: Option D

Question No. 315

The valve fitted closely in a recess against an opening in a pipe, is generally
(A) Wedge shaped circular disc
(B) Spherical disc
(C) Parallelepiped disc
(D) Conical shaped circular disc
Answer: Option A

Question No. 316

The four major water supply distribution systems, are
(A) Dead end, tree, grid iron and reticulation
(B) Dead end, tree, grid iron and circular
(C) Tree, grid iron, ring and radial
(D) Tree, reticulation, circular and ring
Answer: Option C

Question No. 317

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) For determination of small colour intensities, tintometer is generally used
(B) The odour of water sample is generally measured by a term called odour intensity
(C) The colour of water sample may be detected by Nessler tube
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 318

The type of joint generally used in cast iron pipes, is
(A) Socket and spigot joint
(B) Flanged joint
(C) Dresser coupling joint
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 319

The percentage of chlorine in fresh bleaching powder is roughly
(A) 50 to 60
(B) 30 to 35
(C) 40 to 50
(D) 20 to 25
Answer: Option B

Question No. 320

Normal values of overflow rate for plain sedimentation tank using coagulants, is
(A) 750 to 1000 litres/hr/m2
 (B) 1000 to 1250 litres/hr/m2
(C) 1250 to 1500 litres/hr/m2
(D) 1500 litres/hr/m2
Answer: Option B

Question No. 321

The maximum pressure which the pipe can withstand without any leakage during hydrostatic
pressure test, is called
(A) Working pressure
(B) Design pressure
(C) Test pressure
(D) Hydrostatic pressure
Answer: Option C

Question No. 322

Growth of population can be conveniently represented by
(A) An arithmetical curve
(B) A semi-logarithmic curve
(C) A logistic curve
(D) A straight line curve
Answer: Option C

Question No. 323

An aquiclude is
(A) A non artesian aquifer
(B) An artesian aquifer
(C) A confined bed of impervious material between aquifers
(D) A large water body underground
Answer: Option C

Question No. 324

The pH value of water fit for drinking, is
(A) 13
(B) 11
(C) 9
(D) 7
Answer: Option D

Question No. 325

The coefficient of permeability of soils, is generally expressed in
(A) cm/sec
(B) cm/minute
(C) cm2/sec
(D) cm2/minute
Answer: Option A
Question No. 326
Standard process of chlorination of water, is done by
(A) Plain chlorination
(B) Pre-chlorination
(C) Post-chlorination
(D) Double chlorination
Answer: Option C

Question No. 327

Pressure exerted at 90° bend in a pipe of cross-sectional area A and carrying water with a
velocity V under a pressure p, is
(A) [pA + (w/g) AV]
(B) 2 [pA + (w/g) AV²]
(C) pA + (w/g) AV²]
(D) pA + (w/g) A²V]
Answer: Option C

Question No. 328

Service connections to consumers houses, are generally provided with
(A) Copper pipes
(B) Hume pipes
(C) Galvanised iron pipes
(D) P.V.C. pipes
Answer: Option C

Question No. 329

The permissible pH value for public water supplies may range between
(A) 4.5 to 5.5
(B) 5.5 to 6.5
(C) 6.5 to 8.5
(D) 8.5 to 10.5
Answer: Option C

Question No. 330

In the equation P = PS/[1 + loge-1 (nt)] of a logistic curve of population growth, the constant m is
(A) Ps × P
(B) PS/P
(C) (PS - Po)/Po
(D) KPs
Answer: Option C

Question No. 331

The nitrate concentration in domestic water supplies, is generally limited to
(A) 10 ppm
(B) 15 ppm
 (C) 30 ppm
(D) 45 ppm
Answer: Option D

Question No. 332

Carbonates in water produce
(A) Temporary hardness
(B) Permanent hardness
(C) Acidity
(D) Alkanity
Answer: Option A

Question No. 333

Ground water from artesian wells
(A) Contains no suspended materials
(B) Contains dissolved salts
(C) May be saltish and hard
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 334

Alum is a
(A) Coagulant
(B) Flocculent
(C) Catalyst
(D) Disinfectant
Answer: Option A

Question No. 335

Sluice valves are fitted in a distribution system
(A) Along straight length of pipes at suitable intervals
(B) At the junctions of the pipes
(C) At the branching off points of sub-mains
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 336

The ratio of maximum hourly consumption and average hourly consumption of the maximum day,
is
(A) 1.2
(B) 1.5
(C) 1.8
(D) 2.7
Answer: Option D
Question No. 337
If the average daily demand of a city of 50,000 population, is 20 m.l.d., the maximum daily
demand is
(A) 24 mld
(B) 30 mld
(C) 36 mld
(D) 54 mld
Answer: Option C

Question No. 338

Aqueducts are generally designed
(A) Circular
(B) Rectangular
(C) Horse shoe section
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 339

Water losses in water supply, is assumed as
(A) 5 %
(B) 7.5 %
(C) 10 %
(D) 15 %
Answer: Option D

Question No. 340

The requirement of water per capita per day, is
(A) 90 litres
(B) 150 litres
(C) 250 litres
(D) 400 litres
Answer: Option A

Question No. 341

The maximum permitted loss of head in a rapid sand filter, is
(A) 1 m
(B) 2 m
(C) 3 m
(D) 4 m
Answer: Option C

Question No. 342

Mud balls may be removed by
(A) Breaking and washing
(B) Washing the filter with a solution of caustic soda
 (C) Removing, cleaning and replacing the damaged sand
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 343

The lowest outlet sluice in a dam is provided
(A) Below the dead storage
(B) On the top level of dead storage
(C) On the top level of useful storage
(D) At the centre of the dam
Answer: Option B

Question No. 344

The strainer type tube well, is unsuitable for
(A) Coarse gravels
(B) Fine sandy strata
(C) Clean gravels
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 345

Cast iron pipes are generally preferred to, because
(A) Of moderate cost
(B) Of ease to join
(C) Of longer life
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 346

High pH value of water does not produce
(A) Incrustation
(B) Sediment deposits
(C) Tuberculation
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 347

45 litres of water per person per day, is provided in
(A) Office buildings
(B) Hotels
(C) Hostels
(D) Nurse's homes
Answer: Option A
Question No. 348
The ratio of discharge and plan area of a continuous flow type settling tank, is known
(A) Surface loading
(B) Overflow
(C) Overflow rate
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 349

Pick up the wrong nominal internal diameter of cast iron (spun) pipes in mm from the following:
(A) 300
(B) 400
(C) 550
(D) 650
Answer: Option C

Question No. 350

Dead storage of a reservoir of Q capacity generally provided for silt deposition during its life time,
is generally kept
(A) 1/8th Q
(B) 1/6th Q
(C) 1/5th Q
(D) 1/4th Q
Answer: Option D

Question No. 351

Alum is chemically
(A) Copper sulphate
(B) Aluminium sulphate
(C) Ferrous sulphate
(D) Ferric sulphate
Answer: Option B

Question No. 352

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) Water disinfected with ozone is free from any odour
(B) Ozone removes bacterias as well as colour and odour
(C) Ozonized water becomes tasteless
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 353

Well treated water is generally supplied for
(A) Domestic use
(B) Commercial use
 (C) Public use
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 354

Chemical coagulation of drinking water, is done
(A) To settle suspended materials
(B) To increase rate of settlement of suspended materials
(C) To remove the bacterias
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 355

Demand for public uses in a city, does not include water required for
(A) Watering of public parks
(B) Watering of public gardens
(C) Sprinkling on roads
(D) Drinking purposes
Answer: Option D
 Hydraulics & Fluid Mechanics:

Question No. 01
When a body is placed over a liquid, it will sink down if
(A) Gravitational force is equal to the up-thrust of the liquid
(B) Gravitational force is less than the up-thrust of the liquid
(C) Gravitational force is more than the up-thrust of the liquid
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 02
The property by virtue of which a liquid opposes relative motion between its different layers is
called
(A) Surface tension
(B) Coefficient of viscosity
(C) Viscosity
(D) Osmosis
Answer: Option C

Question No. 03
A weir is said to be narrow-crested weir, if the width of the crest of the weir is __________ half
the height of water above the weir crest.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) More than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 04
Euler's dimensionless number relates the following
(A) Inertial force and gravity
(B) Viscous force and inertial force
(C) Viscous force and buoyancy force
(D) Pressure force and inertial force
Answer: Option D

Question No. 05
When a body floating in a liquid, is displaced slightly, it oscillates about
(A) C.G. of body
(B) Center of pressure
(C) Center of buoyancy
(D) Metacentre
Answer: Option D

Question No. 06
The pressure of the liquid flowing through the divergent portion of a Venturimeter
(A) Remains constant
 (B) Increases
(C) Decreases
(D) Depends upon mass of liquid
Answer: Option C

Question No. 07
When the Mach number is between __________ the flow is called super-sonic flow.
(A) 1 and 2.5
(B) 2.5 and 4
(C) 4 and 6
(D) 1 and 6
Answer: Option D

Question No. 08
In an immersed body, centre of pressure is
(A) At the centre of gravity
(B) Above the centre of gravity
(C) Below be centre of gravity
(D) Could be above or below e.g. depending on density of body and liquid
Answer: Option C

Question No. 09
A vertically immersed surface is shown in the below figure. The distance of its centre of pressure
from the water surface is

(A) (bd²/12) +
(B) (d²/12 ) +
(C) b²/12 +
(D) d²/12 +
Answer: Option B

Question No. 10
The torque required to overcome viscous resistance of a collar bearing is (where R1 andR2 =
External and internal radius of collar)
(A) × -
(B) × -
(C) × -
(D) × -
Answer: Option D
Question No. 11
Steady flow occurs when
(A) The direction and magnitude of the velocity at all points are identical
(B) The velocity of successive fluid particles, at any point, is the same at successive periods of
time
(C) The magnitude and direction of the velocity do not change from point to point in the fluid
(D) The fluid particles move in plane or parallel planes and the streamline patterns are identical
in each plane
Answer: Option B

Question No. 12
A flow is called super-sonic if the
(A) Velocity of flow is very high
(B) Discharge is difficult to measure
(C) Mach number is between 1 and 6
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 13
In a forced vortex, the velocity of flow everywhere within the fluid is
(A) Maximum
(B) Minimum
(C) Zero
(D) Nonzero finite
Answer: Option D

Question No. 14
The depth of centre of pressure (h) for a vertically immersed surface from the liquid surface is
given by (where IG = Moment of inertia of the immersed surface about horizontal axis through its
centre of gravity, A = Area of immersed surface, and x = Depth of centre of gravity of the immersed
surface from the liquid surface)
(A) (IG/ ) -
(B) (IG/ ) -
(C) ( /IG) +
(D) (IG/ ) +
Answer: Option D

Question No. 15
Mach number is significant in
(A) Supersonics, as with projectiles and jet propulsion
(B) Full immersion or completely enclosed flow, as with pipes, aircraft wings, nozzles etc.
(C) Simultaneous motion through two fluids where there is a surface of discontinuity, gravity
force, and wave making effects, as with ship's hulls
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 16
A fluid which obeys the Newton's law of viscosity is termed as
 (A) Real fluid
(B) Ideal fluid
(C) Newtonian fluid
(D) Non-Newtonian fluid
Answer: Option C

Question No. 17
In order that flow takes place between two points in a pipeline, the differential pressure between
these points must be more than
(A) Frictional force
(B) Viscosity
(C) Surface friction
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 18
The error in discharge (dQ/Q) to the error in measurement of head (dH/H) over a triangular notch
is given by
(A) dQ/Q = 3/2 × (dH/H)
(B) dQ/Q = 2 × (dH/H)
(C) dQ/Q = 5/2 × (dH/H)
(D) dQ/Q = 3 × (dH/H)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 19
For similarity, in addition to models being geometrically similar to prototype, the following in both
cases should also be equal
(A) Ratio of inertial force to force due to viscosity
(B) Ratio of inertial force to force due to gravitation
(C) Ratio of inertial force to force due to surface tension
(D) All the four ratios of inertial force to force due to viscosity, gravitation, surface tension, and
elasticity
Answer: Option D

Question No. 20
The value of coefficient of velocity for a sharp edged orifice __________ with the head of water.
(A) Decreases
(B) Increases
(C) Remain same
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 21
If cohesion between molecules of a fluid is greater than adhesion between fluid and glass, then
the free level of fluid in a dipped glass tube will be
 (A) Higher than the surface of liquid
(B) The same as the surface of liquid
(C) Lower than the surface of liquid
(D) Unpredictable
Answer: Option C

Question No. 22
The ratio of the inertia force to the __________ is called Euler's number.
(A) Pressure force
(B) Elastic force
(C) Surface tension force
(D) Viscous force
Answer: Option A

Question No. 23
A one dimensional flow is one which
(A) Is uniform flow
(B) Is steady uniform flow
(C) Takes place in straight lines
(D) Involves zero transverse component of flow
Answer: Option D

Question No. 24
According to Manning's formula, the discharge through an open channel is (where M = Manning's
constant)
(A) A × M × m1/2 × i2/3
(B) A × M × m2/3 × i1/2
(C) A1/2 × M2/3 × m × i
(D) A2/3 × M1/3 × m × i
Answer: Option B

Question No. 25
Dimensions of surface tension are
(A)
(B) ML°T
(C) ML r²
(D) ML²T²
Answer: Option A

Question No. 26
An opening in the side of a tank or vessel such that the liquid surface with the tank is below the
top edge of the opening, is called
(A) Weir
(B) Notch
(C) Orifice
 (D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 27
The property of fluid by virtue of which it offers resistance to shear is called
(A) Surface tension
(B) Adhesion
(C) Cohesion
(D) Viscosity
Answer: Option D

Question No. 28
Coefficient of velocity is defined as the ratio of
(A) Actual velocity of jet at vena contracta to the theoretical velocity
(B) Area of jet at vena contracta to the area of orifice
(C) Actual discharge through an orifice to the theoretical discharge
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 29
A liquid compressed in cylinder has a volume of 0.04 m3 at 50 kg/cm² and a volume of 0.039 m3 at
150 kg/cm². The bulk modulus of elasticity of liquid is
(A) 400 kg/cm²
(B) 4000 kg/cm²
(C)
(D)
Answer: Option B

Question No. 30
The mass of 2.5 m3 of a certain liquid is 2 tonnes. Its mass density is
(A) 200 kg/m3
(B) 400 kg/m3
(C) 600 kg/m3
(D) 800 kg/m3
Answer: Option D

Question No. 31
A fluid in equilibrium can't sustain
(A) Tensile stress
(B) Compressive stress
(C) Shear stress
(D) Bending stress
Answer: Option C
Question No. 32
When a plate is immersed in a liquid parallel to the flow, it will be subjected to a pressure
__________ that if the same plate is immersed perpendicular to the flow.
(A) Less than
(B) More than
(C) Equal to
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 33
An object having 10 kg mass weighs 9.81 kg on a spring balance. The value of 'g' at this place is
(A) 10 m/sec²
(B) 9.81 m/sec²
(C) 9.75 m/sec²
(D) 9 m/sec
Answer: Option A

Question No. 34
A flow is called hyper-sonic, if the Mach number is
(A) Less than unity
(B) Unity
(C) Between 1 and 6
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 35
Liquids
(A) Cannot be compressed
(B) Occupy definite volume
(C) Are not affected by change in pressure and temperature
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 36
When a cylindrical vessel containing liquid is resolved, the surface of the liquid takes the shape of
(A) A triangle
(B) A paraboloid
(C) An ellipse
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 37
Fluid is a substance that
(A) Cannot be subjected to shear forces
(B) Always expands until it fills any container
 (C) Has the same shear stress at a point regardless of its motion
(D) Cannot remain at rest under action of any shear force
Answer: Option D

Question No. 38
The force exerted by a moving fluid on an immersed body is directly proportional to the rate of
change of momentum due to the presence of the body. This statement is called
(A) Newton's law of motion
(B) Newton's law of cooling
(C) Newton's law of viscosity
(D) Newton's law of resistance
Answer: Option D

Question No. 39
The property of a fluid which enables it to resist tensile stress is known as
(A) Compressibility
(B) Surface tension
(C) Cohesion
(D) Adhesion
Answer: Option C

Question No. 40
The loss of pressure head in case of laminar flow is proportional to
(A) Velocity
(B) (Velocity)2
(C) (Velocity)3
(D) (Velocity)4
Answer: Option A

Question No. 41
The surface tension of mercury at normal temperature compared to that of water is
(A) More
(B) Less
(C) Same
(D) More or less depending on size of glass tube
Answer: Option A

Question No. 42
An air vessel is provided at the summit in a siphon to
(A) Avoid interruption in the flow
(B) Increase discharge
(C) Increase velocity
(D) Maintain pressure difference
Answer: Option A
Question No. 43
The unit of viscosity is
(A) Metres² per sec
(B) kg-sec/metre
(C) Newton-sec per metre²
(D) Newton-sec per meter
Answer: Option B

Question No. 44
Select the correct statement
(A) Weber's number is the ratio of inertia force to elastic force.
(B) Weber's number is the ratio of gravity force to surface tension force.
(C) Weber's number is the ratio of viscous force to pressure force.
(D) Weber's number is the ratio of inertia force to surface tension force.
Answer: Option D

Question No. 45
Choose the wrong statement. Alcohol is used in manometer, because
(A) Its vapour pressure is low
(B) It provides suitable meniscus for the inclined tube
(C) Its density is less
(D) It provides longer length for a given pressure difference
Answer: Option A

Question No. 46
When a tank containing liquid moves with an acceleration in the horizontal direction, then the
free surface of the liquid
(A) Remains horizontal
(B) Becomes curved
(C) Falls on the front end
(D) Falls on the back end
Answer: Option C

Question No. 47
A pressure of 25 m of head of water is equal to
(A) 25 kN/ m²
(B) 245 kN/ m²
(C) 2500 kN/m²
(D) 2.5 kN/ m²
Answer: Option B

Question No. 48
The hammer blow in pipes occurs when
(A) There is excessive leakage in the pipe
(B) The pipe bursts under high pressure of fluid
 (C) The flow of fluid through the pipe is suddenly brought to rest by closing of the valve
(D) The flow of fluid through the pipe is gradually brought to rest by closing of the valve
Answer: Option C

Question No. 49
The resultant upward pressure of the fluid on an immersed body is called
(A) Up-thrust
(B) Buoyancy
(C) Center of pressure
(D) All the above are correct
Answer: Option B

Question No. 50
When the water level on the downstream side of a weir is above the top surface of a weir, the
weir is known as
(A) Narrow-crested weir
(B) Broad-crested weir
(C) Ogee weir
(D) Submerged weir
Answer: Option D

Question No. 51
If the surface of liquid is convex, men
(A) Cohesion pressure is negligible
(B) Cohesion pressure is decreased
(C) Cohesion pressure is increased
(D) There is no cohesion pressure
Answer: Option C

Question No. 52
The increase in pressure at the outer edge of a drum of radius (r) completely filled up with liquid

(A) r
2 2

(B) 2 2 r2
(C) r /2
2 2

(D) r /4
2 2

Answer: Option C

Question No. 53
The atmospheric pressure with rise in altitude decreases
(A) Linearly
(B) First slowly and then steeply
(C) First steeply and then gradually
(D) Unpredictable
Answer: Option B
Question No. 54

the oil, N = Speed of the shaft, R = Radius of the shaft, and t = Thickness of the oil film)
(A) 60t
(B) 60t
(C) 60t
(D) 60t
Answer: Option D

Question No. 55
Dynamic viscosity of most of the gases with rise in temperature
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remain unaffected
(D) Unpredictable
Answer: Option A

Question No. 56
According to Bernoulli's equation
(A) Z + p/w + v²/2g = constant
(B) Z + p/w - v²/2g = constant
(C) Z - p/w + v²/2g = constant
(D) Z - p/w - v²/2g = constant
Answer: Option A

Question No. 57
Center of buoyancy is the
(A) Centroid of the displaced volume of fluid
(B) Center of pressure of displaced volume
(C) Does not exist
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 58
The loss of head due to viscosity for laminar flow in pipes is (where d = Diameter of pipe, l =
Length of pipe, v w = Specific
weight of the flowing liquid)
(A) 4
(B) 8
(C) 16
(D) 32
Answer: Option D

Question No. 59
For a body floating in a liquid the normal pressure exerted by the liquid acts at
 (A) Bottom surface of the body
(B) C.G. of the body
(C) Metacentre
(D) All points on the surface of the body
Answer: Option D

Question No. 60
Newton's law of viscosity is a relationship between
(A) Pressure, velocity and temperature
(B) Shear stress and rate of shear strain
(C) Shear stress and velocity
(D) Rate of shear strain and temperature
Answer: Option B

Question No. 61
Differential manometer is used to measure
(A) Pressure in pipes, channels etc.
(B) Atmospheric pressure
(C) Very low pressure
(D) Difference of pressure between two points
Answer: Option D

Question No. 62
When a body is immersed wholly or partially in a liquid, it is lifted up by a force equal to the
weight of liquid displaced by the body. This statement is called
(A) Pascal's law
(B)
(C) Principle of floatation
(D) Bernoulli's theorem
Answer: Option B

Question No. 63
Non uniform flow occurs when
(A) The direction and magnitude of the velocity at all points are identical
(B) The velocity of successive fluid particles, at any point, is the same at successive periods of
time
(C) Velocity, depth, pressure, etc. change from point to point in the fluid flow.
(D) The fluid particles move in plane or parallel planes and the streamline patterns are identical
in each plane
Answer: Option C

Question No. 64
When a tube of smaller diameter is dipped in water, the water rises in the tube with an upward
__________ surface.
(A) Concave
 (B) Convex
(C) Plane
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 65
A piece of metal of specific gravity 7 floats in mercury of specific gravity 13.6. What fraction of its
volume is under mercury?
(A) 0.5
(B) 0.4
(C) 0.515
(D) 0.5
Answer: Option C

Question No. 66
A flow through an expanding tube at constant rate is called
(A) Steady uniform flow
(B) Steady non-uniform flow
(C) Unsteady uniform flow
(D) Unsteady non-uniform flow
Answer: Option B

Question No. 67
Reynolds number is significant in
(A) Supersonics, as with projectile and jet propulsion
(B) Full immersion or completely enclosed flow, as with pipes, aircraft wings, nozzles etc.
(C) Simultaneous motion through two fluids where there is a surface of discontinuity, gravity
forces, and wave making effect, as with ship's hulls
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 68
The loss of head due to friction in a pipe of uniform diameter in which a viscous flow is taking
place, is (where RN = Reynold number)
(A) 1/RN
(B) 4/RN
(C) 16/RN
(D) 64/RN
Answer: Option C

Question No. 69
Practical fluids
(A) Are viscous
(B) Possess surface tension
(C) Are compressible
 (D) Possess all the above properties
Answer: Option D

Question No. 70
A compound pipe of diameter d1, d2 and d3 having lengths l1, l2 and l3 is to be replaced by an
equivalent pipe of uniform diameter d and of the same length (l) as that of the compound pipe.
The size of the equivalent pipe is given by
(A) l/d² = + +
(B) l/d³ = + )+
(C) = + +
(D) = + +
Answer: Option D

Question No. 71
The tendency of a liquid surface to contract is due to the following property
(A) Cohesion
(B) Adhesion
(C) Viscosity
(D) Surface tension
Answer: Option D

Question No. 72
The Newton's law of resistance is based on the assumption that the
(A) Planes of the body are completely smooth
(B) Space around the body is completely filled with the fluid
(C) Fluid particles do not exert any influence on one another
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 73
For manometer, a better liquid combination is one having
(A) Higher surface tension
(B) Lower surface tension
(C) Surface tension is no criterion
(D) High density and viscosity
Answer: Option A

Question No. 74
The flow in a pipe is neither laminar nor turbulent when Reynold number is
(A) Less than 2000
(B) Between 2000 and 2800
(C) More than 2800
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 75
The point in the immersed body through which the resultant pressure of the liquid may be taken
to act is known as
(A) Meta center
(B) Center of pressure
(C) Center of buoyancy
(D) Center of gravity
Answer: Option B

Question No. 76
Stoke is the unit of
(A) Kinematic viscosity in C. G. S. units
(B) Kinematic viscosity in M. K. S. units
(C) Dynamic viscosity in M. K. S. units
(D) Dynamic viscosity in S. I. units
Answer: Option A

Question No. 77
The vapour pressure over the concave surface is
(A) Less man the vapour pressure over the plane surface
(B) Equal to the vapour pressure over the plane surface
(C) Greater than the vapour pressure over the plane surface
(D) Zero
Answer: Option A

Question No. 78
The velocity at which the flow changes from laminar flow to turbulent flow is called
(A) Critical velocity
(B) Velocity of approach
(C) Sub-sonic velocity
(D) Super-sonic velocity
Answer: Option A

Question No. 79
Mercury is often used in barometer because
(A) It is the best liquid
(B) The height of barometer will be less
(C) Its vapour pressure is so low that it may be neglected
(D) Both (B) and (C)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 80
A vertical wall is subjected to a pressure due to one kind of liquid, on one of its sides. Which of the
following statement is correct?
(A) The pressure on the wall at the liquid level is minimum
 (B) The pressure on the bottom of the wall is maximum
(C) The pressure on the wall at the liquid level is zero, and on the bottom of the wall is
maximum
(D) The pressure on the bottom of the wall is zero
Answer: Option C

Question No. 81
Center of pressure compared to e.g. is
(A) Above it
(B) Below it
(C) At same point
(D) Above or below depending on area of body
Answer: Option B

Question No. 82
The centre of gravity of the volume of the liquid displaced by an immersed body is called
(A) Centre of gravity
(B) Centre of pressure
(C) Metacentre
(D) Centre of buoyancy
Answer: Option D

Question No. 83
A tank of uniform cross-sectional area (A) containing liquid upto height (H1) has an orifice of cross-
sectional area (a) at its bottom. The time required to bring the liquid level from H1 to H2 will be
(A) 2A × d×a× 2g)
(B) 2A × d×a× 2g)
(C) 2A × - d×a× 2g)
(D) 2A × 3/2
- 3/2
)/Cd × a × 2g)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 84
Gradually varied flow is
(A) Steady uniform
(B) Non-steady non-uniform
(C) Non-steady uniform
(D) Steady non-uniform
Answer: Option D

Question No. 85
The viscosity of water at 20°C is
(A) One stoke
(B) One centistoke
(C) One poise
(D) One centipoise
 Answer: Option D

Question No. 86
The velocity of jet of water travelling out of opening in a tank filled with water is proportional to
(A) Head of water (h)
(B) h²
(C) V/T
(D) h/2
Answer: Option C

Question No. 87
According to Darcy's formula, the loss of head due to friction in the pipe is (where f = Darcy's
coefficient, l = Length of pipe, v = Velocity of liquid in pipe, and d = Diameter of pipe)
(A) flv²/2gd
(B) flv²/gd
(C) 3flv²/2gd
(D) 4flv²/2gd
Answer: Option D

Question No. 88
According to Bernoulli's equation for steady ideal fluid flow
(A) Principle of conservation of mass holds
(B) Velocity and pressure are inversely proportional
(C) Total energy is constant throughout
(D) The energy is constant along a streamline but may vary across streamlines
Answer: Option D

Question No. 89
The discharge through a convergent mouthpiece is __________ the discharge through an internal
mouthpiece of the same diameter and head of water.
(A) Equal to
(B) One-half
(C) Three fourth
(D) Double
Answer: Option D

Question No. 90
Bernoulli equation deals with the law of conservation of
(A) Mass
(B) Momentum
(C) Energy
(D) Work
Answer: Option C
Question No. 91

surface lies at a distance equal to __________ the centre of gravity.

(A) IG sin² / bellow
(B) IG sin² /
(C) IG sin /
(D) IG sin /
Answer: Option A

Question No. 92
Principle of similitude forms the basis of
(A) Comparing two identical equipments
(B) Designing models so that the result can be converted to prototypes
(C) Comparing similarity between design and actual equipment
(D) Hydraulic designs
Answer: Option B

Question No. 93
The rise of liquid along the walls of a revolving cylinder about the initial level is __________ the
depression of the liquid at the axis of rotation.
(A) Same as
(B) Less than
(C) More than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 94
Hot wire anemometer is used to measure
(A) Pressure in gases
(B) Liquid discharge
(C) Pressure in liquids
(D) Gas velocities
Answer: Option D

Question No. 95
Venturimeter is used to
(A) Measure the velocity of a flowing liquid
(B) Measure the pressure of a flowing liquid
(C) Measure the discharge of liquid flowing in a pipe
(D) Measure the pressure difference of liquid flowing between two points in a pipe line
Answer: Option C

Question No. 96
The two important forces for a floating body are
(A) Buoyancy, gravity
 (B) Buoyancy, pressure
(C) Buoyancy, inertial
(D) Inertial, gravity
Answer: Option A

Question No. 97
The kinematic viscosity of an oil (in stokes) whose specific gravity is 0.95 and viscosity 0.011 poise,
is
(A) 0.0116 stoke
(B) 0.116 stoke
(C) 0.0611 stoke
(D) 0.611 stoke
Answer: Option A

Question No. 98
According to the principle of buoyancy a body totally or partially immersed in a fluid will be lifted
up by a force equal to
(A) The weight of the body
(B) More than the weight of the body
(C) Less than the weight of the body
(D) Weight of the fluid displaced by the body
Answer: Option D

Question No. 99
The pressure measured with the help of a pressure gauge is called
(A) Atmospheric pressure
(B) Gauge pressure
(C) Absolute pressure
(D) Mean pressure
Answer: Option B

Question No. 100

The total pressure force on a plane area is equal to the area multiplied by the intensity of pressure
at the Centroid, if
(A) The area is horizontal
(B) The area is vertical
(C) The area is inclined
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 101

The power absorbed (in watts) in overcoming the viscous resistance of a footstep bearing is
(A) 1800 t
(B) 1800 t
(C) 3600 t
 (D) 3600 t
Answer: Option B

Question No. 102

In order to increase sensitivity of U-tube manometer, one leg is usually inclined by angle .
Sensitivity of inclined tube to sensitivity of U-tube is equal to
(A) Sin
(B) 1/Sin
(C) Cos
(D) 1/Cos
Answer: Option B

Question No. 103

The most economical section of a rectangular channel is one which has hydraulic mean depth or
hydraulic radius equal to
(A) Half the depth
(B) Half the breadth
(C) Twice the depth
(D) Twice the breadth
Answer: Option A

Question No. 104

Capillary action is due to the
(A) Surface tension
(B) Cohesion of the liquid
(C) Adhesion of the liquid molecules and the molecules on the surface of a solid
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 105

The intensity of pressure on an immersed surface __________ with the increase in depth.
(A) Does not change
(B) Increases
(C) Decreases
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 106

Free surface of a liquid behaves like a sheet and tends to contract to smallest possible area due to
the
(A) Force of adhesion
(B) Force of cohesion
(C) Force of friction
(D) Force of diffusion
Answer: Option B
Question No. 107
Which of the following statement is correct?
(A) In a compressible flow, the volume of the flowing liquid changes during the flow
(B) A flow, in which the volume of the flowing liquid does not change, is called incompressible
flow
(C) When the particles rotate about their own axes while flowing, the flow is said to be
rotational flow
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 108

A bucket of water is hanging from a spring balance. An iron piece is suspended into water without
touching sides of bucket from another support. The spring balance reading will
(A) Increase
(B) Decrease
(C) Remain same
(D) Increase/decrease depending on depth of immersion
Answer: Option C

Question No. 109

A flow through a long pipe at constant rate is called
(A) Steady uniform flow
(B) Steady non-uniform flow
(C) Unsteady uniform flow
(D) Unsteady non-uniform flow
Answer: Option A

Question No. 110

Choose the wrong statement
(A) Viscosity of a fluid is that property which determines the amount of its resistance to a
shearing force
(B) Viscosity is due primarily to interaction between fluid molecules
(C) Viscosity of liquids decreases with increase in temperature
(D) Viscosity of liquids is appreciably affected by change in pressure
Answer: Option D

Question No. 111

The unit of dynamic viscosity in S.I. units is
(A) N-m/s2
(B) N-s/m2
(C) Poise
(D) Stoke
Answer: Option B
Question No. 112
A perfect gas
(A) Has constant viscosity
(B) Has zero viscosity
(C) Is in compressible
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 113

In a free nappe,
(A) The pressure below the nappe is atmospheric
(B) The pressure below the nappe is negative
(C) The pressure above the nappe is atmospheric
(D) The pressure above the nappe is negative
Answer: Option A

Question No. 114

In a static fluid
(A) Resistance to shear stress is small
(B) Fluid pressure is zero
(C) Linear deformation is small
(D) Only normal stresses can exist
Answer: Option D

Question No. 115

One litre of water occupies a volume of
(A) 100 cm3
(B) 250 cm3
(C) 500 cm3
(D) 1000 cm3
Answer: Option A

Question No. 116

A balloon lifting in air follows the following principle
(A) Law of gravitation
(B) Archimedes principle
(C) Principle of buoyancy
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 117

The maximum discharge over a broad crested weir is
(A) 0.384 Cd × L × H1/2
(B) 0.384 Cd × L × H3/2
(C) 1.71 Cd × L × H1/2
 (D) 1.71 Cd × L × H3/2
Answer: Option D

Question No. 118

The ratio of absolute viscosity to mass density is known as
(A) Specific viscosity
(B) Viscosity index
(C) Kinematic viscosity
(D) Coefficient of viscosity
Answer: Option C

Question No. 119

Reynold's number is the ratio of inertia force to
(A) Pressure force
(B) Elastic force
(C) Gravity force
(D) Viscous force
Answer: Option D

Question No. 120

Metacentric height is given as the distance between
(A) The center of gravity of the body and the metacentre
(B) The center of gravity of the body and the center of buoyancy
(C) The center of gravity of the body and the center of pressure
(D) Center of buoyancy and metacentre
Answer: Option A

Question No. 121

In a footstep bearing, if the speed of the shaft is doubled, then the torque required to overcome
the viscous resistance will be
(A) Double
(B) Four times
(C) Eight times
(D) Sixteen times
Answer: Option A

Question No. 122

The continuity equation is connected with
(A) Open channel/pipe flow
(B) Compressibility of fluids
(C) Conservation of mass
(D) Steady/unsteady flow
Answer: Option C
Question No. 123
The most economical section of a trapezoidal channel is one which has hydraulic mean depth
equal to
(A) 1/2 × depth
(B) 1/2 × breadth
(C) 1/2 × sloping side
(D) 1/4 × (depth + breadth)
Answer: Option A

Question No. 124

(A) Absolute temperature

(B) Temperature
(C) Density
(D) Modulus of elasticity
Answer: Option A

Question No. 125

The absolute pressure is equal to
(A) Gauge pressure + atmospheric pressure
(B) Gauge pressure - atmospheric pressure
(C) Atmospheric pressure - gauge pressure
(D) Gauge pressure - vacuum pressure
Answer: Option A

Question No. 126

Unit of surface tension is
(A) Energy/unit area
(B) Velocity/unit area
(C) Both of the above
(D) It has no units
Answer: Option A

Question No. 127

A Piezometer tube is used only for measuring
(A) Low pressure
(B) High pressure
(C) Moderate pressure
(D) Vacuum pressure
Answer: Option C

Question No. 128

The capillary rise at 20°C in a clean glass tube of 1 mm bore containing water is approximately
(A) 5 mm
(B) 10 mm
 (C) 20 mm
(D) 30 mm
Answer: Option D

Question No. 129

The Cipoletti weir is a __________ weir.
(A) Rectangular
(B) Triangular
(C) Trapezoidal
(D) Circular
Answer: Option C

Question No. 130

Pressure of the order of 10" torr can be measured by
(A) Bourdon tube
(B) Pirani Gauge
(C) Micro-manometer
(D) Lonisation gauge
Answer: Option D

Question No. 131

The volume of a fluid __________ as the pressure increases.
(A) Remains same
(B) Decreases
(C) Increases
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 132

Buoyant force is
(A) The resultant force acting on a floating body
(B) The resultant force on a body due to the fluid surrounding it
(C) Equal to the volume of liquid displaced
(D) The force necessary to maintain equilibrium of a submerged body
Answer: Option B

Question No. 133

A flow through a long pipe at decreasing rate is called __________ uniform flow.
(A) Steady
(B) Unsteady
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 134
Choose the wrong statement
(A) The center of buoyancy is located at the center of gravity of the displaced liquid
(B) For stability of a submerged body, the center of gravity of body must lie directly below the
center of buoyancy
(C) If C.G. and center of buoyancy coincide, the submerged body must lie at neutral equilibrium
for all positions
(D) All floating bodies are stable
Answer: Option D

Question No. 135

The intensity of pressure at any point, in a liquid, is __________ to the depth of liquid from the
surface.
(A) Equal
(B) Directly proportional
(C) Inversely proportional
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 136

True one-dimensional flow occurs when
(A) The direction and magnitude of the velocity at all points are identical
(B) The velocity of successive fluid particles, at any point, is the same at successive periods of
time
(C) The magnitude and direction of the velocity do not change from point to point in the fluid
(D) The fluid particles move in plane or parallel planes and the streamline patterns are identical
in each plane
Answer: Option A

Question No. 137

The discharge in an open channel corresponding to critical depth is
(A) Zero
(B) Minimum
(C) Maximum
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 138

A piece of wood having weight 5 kg floats in water with 60% of its volume under the liquid. The
specific gravity of wood is
(A) 0.83
(B) 0.6
(C) 0.4
(D) 0.3
Answer: Option B
Question No. 139
A pitot tube is used to measure the
(A) Velocity of flow at the required point in a pipe
(B) Pressure difference between two points in a pipe
(C) Total pressure of liquid flowing in a pipe
(D) Discharge through a pipe
Answer: Option A

Question No. 140

The total energy of each particle at various places in the case of perfect incompressible fluid
flowing in continuous stream
(A) Keeps on increasing
(B) Keeps on decreasing
(C) Remain constant
(D) May increase/decrease
Answer: Option C

Question No. 141

The critical depth meter is used to measure
(A) Velocity of flow in an open channel
(B) Depth of flow in an open channel
(C) Hydraulic jump
(D) Depth of channel
Answer: Option C

Question No. 142

Two pipe systems can be said to be equivalent, when the following quantities are same
(A) Friction loss and flow
(B) Length and diameter
(C) Flow and length
(D) Friction factor and diameter
Answer: Option A

Question No. 143

In a footstep bearing, if the radius of the shaft is doubled, then the torque required to overcome
the viscous resistance will be
(A) Double
(B) Four times
(C) Eight times
(D) Sixteen times
Answer: Option D

Question No. 144

Surface tension has the units of
(A) Newton-sec/m
 (B) Newton-m/sec
(C) Newton/m
(D) Newton
Answer: Option C

Question No. 145

The value of bulk modulus of a fluid is required to determine
(A) Reynold's number
(B) Froude's number
(C) Mach number
(D) Euler's number
Answer: Option C

Question No. 146

Fluid is a substance which offers no resistance to change of
(A) Pressure
(B) Flow
(C) Shape
(D) Volume
Answer: Option C

Question No. 147

The pressure less than atmospheric pressure is known as
(A) Suction pressure
(B) Vacuum pressure
(C) Negative gauge pressure
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 148

The normal stress in a fluid will be constant in all directions at a point only if
(A) It is incompressible
(B) It has uniform viscosity
(C) It has zero viscosity
(D) It is at rest
Answer: Option D

Question No. 149

The power transmitted through a pipe is (where w = Specific weight in N/m3, and Q = Discharge in
m3/s)
(A) w × Q × H
(B) w × Q × hf
(C) w × Q (H - hf)
(D) w × Q (H + hf)
Answer: Option C
Question No. 150
w k
intensity at that point will be
(A) h
(B) wh
(C) w/h
(D) h/w
Answer: Option B

Question No. 151

A compound pipe is required to be replaced by a new pipe. The two pipes are said to be
equivalent, if
(A) Length of both the pipes is same
(B) Diameter of both the pipes is same
(C) Loss of head and discharge of both the pipes is same
(D) Loss of head and velocity of flow in both the pipes is same
Answer: Option C

Question No. 152

The center of gravity of the volume of the liquid displaced by an immersed body is called
(A) Metacentre
(B) Center of pressure
(C) Center of buoyancy
(D) Center of gravity
Answer: Option C

Question No. 153

A flow is called sub-sonic, if the Mach number is
(A) Less than unity
(B) Unity
(C) Between 1 and 6
(D) More than 6
Answer: Option A

Question No. 154

Barometer is used to measure
(A) Pressure in pipes, channels etc.
(B) Atmospheric pressure
(C) Very low pressure
(D) Difference of pressure between two points
Answer: Option B

Question No. 155

The hydraulic gradient line lies over the centre line of the pipe by an amount equal to the
(A) Pressure head
 (B) Velocity head
(C) Pressure head + velocity head
(D) Pressure head - velocity head
Answer: Option A

Question No. 156

The center of pressure of a surface subjected to fluid pressure is the point
(A) On the surface at which resultant pressure acts
(B) On the surface at which gravitational force acts
(C) At which all hydraulic forces meet
(D) Similar to metacentre
Answer: Option A

Question No. 157

The variation in the volume of a liquid with the variation of pressure is called its
(A) Surface tension
(B) Compressibility
(C) Capillarity
(D) Viscosity
Answer: Option B

Question No. 158

A model of torpedo is tested in a towing tank at a velocity of 25 m/sec. The prototype is expected
to attain a velocity of 5 m/sec. What model scale has been used?
(A) 1 : 5
(B) 1 : 2.5
(C) 1 : 25
(D)
Answer: Option A

Question No. 159

The surface tension of mercury at normal temperature is __________ that of water.
(A) Same as
(B) Lower than
(C) Higher than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 160

Flow of water in a pipe about 3 metres in diameter can be measured by
(A) Orifice plate
(B) Venturimeter
(C) Rotameter
(D) Pitot tube
Answer: Option D
Question No. 161
According to Francis formula, the discharge over a rectangular weir is (where n = Number of end
contractions)
(A) (2/3) × Cd (L - nH) ×
(B) (2/3) × Cd (L - 0.1nH) × × H3/2
(C) (2/3) × Cd (L - nH) × × H²
(D) (2/3) × Cd (L - nH) × × H5/2
Answer: Option B

Question No. 162

The equation of continuity holds good when the flow
(A) Is steady
(B) Is one dimensional
(C) Velocity is uniform at all the cross sections
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 163

A thick liquid like syrup has a __________ viscosity than a light liquid like water.
(A) Lesser
(B) Greater
(C) Same
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 164

Cavitation will begin when
(A) The pressure at any location reaches an absolute pressure equal to the saturated vapour
pressure of the liquid
(B) Pressure becomes more than critical pressure
(C) Flow is increased
(D) Pressure is increased
Answer: Option A

Question No. 165

When a liquid is flowing through a pipe, the velocity of the liquid is
(A) Maximum at the centre and minimum near the walls
(B) Minimum at the centre and maximum near the walls
(C) Zero at the centre and maximum near the walls
(D) Maximum at the centre and zero near the walls
Answer: Option A

Question No. 166

Metacentric height is the distance between the metacentre and
(A) Water surface
 (B) Center of pressure
(C) Center of gravity
(D) Center of buoyancy
Answer: Option C

Question No. 167

The velocity through a channel of circular section will be maximum when the depth of water is
__________ the diameter of the circular channel.
(A) 0.34 times
(B) 0.67 times
(C) 0.81 times
(D) 0.95 times
Answer: Option C

Question No. 168

Resultant pressure of the liquid in the case of an immersed body acts through
(A) Centre of gravity
(B) Centre of pressure
(C) Metacentre
(D) Centre of buoyancy
Answer: Option B

Question No. 169

A fluid is said to be ideal, if it is
(A) Incompressible
(B) Viscous and incompressible
(C) Inviscous and compressible
(D) Inviscous and incompressible
Answer: Option D

Question No. 170

In a depressed nappe
(A) The pressure below the nappe is atmospheric
(B) The pressure below the nappe is negative
(C) The pressure above the nappe is atmospheric
(D) The pressure above the nappe is negative
Answer: Option B

Question No. 171

The value of the coefficient of compressibility for water at ordinary pressure and temperature in
kg/cm is equal to
(A) 2100
(B) 2700
(C) 10,000
(D) 21,000
 Answer: Option D

Question No. 172

In one dimensional flow, the flow
(A) Is steady and uniform
(B) Takes place in straight line
(C) Takes place in curve
(D) Takes place in one direction
Answer: Option B

Question No. 173

To avoid vaporisation in the pipe line, the pipe line over the ridge is laid such that it is not more
than
(A) 2.4 m above the hydraulic gradient
(B) 6.4 m above the hydraulic gradient
(C) 10.0 m above the hydraulic gradient
(D) 5.0 above the hydraulic gradient
Answer: Option B

Question No. 174

The loss of head at exit of a pipe is (where v = Velocity of liquid in the pipe)
(A) v²/2g
(B) 0.5v²/2g
(C) 0.375v²/2g
(D) 0.75v²/2g
Answer: Option A

Question No. 175

Metacentre is the point of intersection of
(A) Vertical upward force through e.g. of body and center line of body
(B) Buoyant force and the center line of body
(C) Midpoint between e.g. and center of buoyancy
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 176

The imaginary line drawn in the fluid in such a way that the tangent to any point gives the
direction of motion at that point, is known as
(A) Path line
(B) Stream line
(C) Steak line
(D) Potential line
Answer: Option B
Question No. 177
An open vessel of water is accelerated up an inclined plane. The free water surface will
(A) Be horizontal
(B) Make an angle in direction of inclination of inclined plane
(C) Make an angle in opposite direction to inclination of inclined plane
(D) Any one of above is possible
Answer: Option C

Question No. 178

The discharge over a rectangular notch is
(A) Inversely proportional to H3/2
(B) Directly proportional to H3/2
(C) Inversely proportional to H5/2
(D) Directly proportional to H5/2
Answer: Option B

Question No. 179

The flow in which each liquid particle has a definite path and their paths do not cross each other is
called
(A) One dimensional flow
(B) Streamline flow
(C) Steady flow
(D) Turbulent flow
Answer: Option B

Question No. 180

The magnitude of water hammer depends upon the
(A) Elastic properties of the pipe material
(B) Elastic properties of the liquid flowing through the pipe
(C) Speed at which the valve is closed
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 181

The fluid forces considered in the Navier Stokes equation are
(A) Gravity, pressure and viscous
(B) Gravity, pressure and turbulent
(C) Pressure, viscous and turbulent
(D) Gravity, viscous and turbulent
Answer: Option A

Question No. 182

When the Venturimeter is inclined, then for a given flow it will show __________ reading.
(A) Same
(B) More
 (C) Less
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 183

Cavitation is caused by
(A) High velocity
(B) High pressure
(C) Weak material
(D) Low pressure
Answer: Option D

Question No. 184

A vertical wall is subjected to a pressure due to one kind of liquid, on one of its sides. The total
pressure on the wall acts at a distance __________ from the liquid surface.
(A) H/3
(B) H/2
(C) 2H/3
(D) 3H/4
Answer: Option C

Question No. 185

An ideal flow of any fluid must fulfill the following
(A) Newton's law of motion
(B) Newton's law of viscosity
(C) Pascal' law
(D) Continuity equation
Answer: Option D

Question No. 186

The flow in a pipe or channel is said to be uniform when
(A) The liquid particles at all sections have the same velocities
(B) The liquid particles at different sections have different velocities
(C) The quantity of liquid flowing per second is constant
(D) Each liquid particle has a definite path
Answer: Option A

Question No. 187

Surface tension
(A) Acts in the plane of the interface normal to any line in the surface
(B) Is also known as capillarity
(C) Is a function of the curvature of the interface
(D) Decreases with fall in temperature
Answer: Option A
Question No. 188
Select the wrong statement
(A) An equivalent pipe is treated as an ordinary pipe for all calculations
(B) The length of an equivalent pipe is equal to that of a compound pipe
(C) The discharge through an equivalent pipe is equal to that of a compound pipe
(D) The diameter of an equivalent pipe is equal to that of a compound pipe
Answer: Option D

Question No. 189

Alcohol is used in manometers because
(A) It has low vapour pressure
(B) It is clearly visible
(C) It has low surface tension
(D) It can provide longer column due to low density
Answer: Option D

Question No. 190

The discharge through a wholly drowned orifice is given by (where H1 = Height of water (on the
upstream side) above the top of the orifice, H2 = Height of water (on the downstream side) above
the bottom of the orifice, and H = Difference between two water levels on either side of the
orifice)
(A) Q = Cd × gh)
(B) Q = Cd × bH2 × gh)
(C) Q = Cd × b (H2 - H1) × gh)
(D) Q = Cd × bH × 2gh)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 191

If no resistance is encountered by displacement, such a substance is known as
(A) Fluid
(B) Water
(C) Gas
(D) Ideal fluid
Answer: Option D

Question No. 192

The kinematic viscosity is the
(A) Ratio of absolute viscosity to the density of the liquid
(B) Ratio of density of the liquid to the absolute viscosity
(C) Product of absolute viscosity and density of the liquid
(D) Product of absolute viscosity and mass of the liquid
Answer: Option A

Question No. 193

Choose the correct relationship
 (A) Specific gravity = gravity × density
(B) Dynamic viscosity = kinematic viscosity × density
(C) Gravity = specific gravity × density
(D) Kinematic viscosity = dynamic viscosity × density
Answer: Option B

Question No. 194

The viscosity of water is __________ than that of mercury.
(A) Higher
(B) Lower
(C) Same as
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 195

Surface energy per unit area of a surface is numerically equal to
(A) Atmospheric pressure
(B) Surface tension
(C) Force of adhesion
(D) Force of cohesion
Answer: Option B

Question No. 196

The specific weight of sea water is __________ that of pure water.
(A) Same as
(B) Less than
(C) More than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 197

Which of the following instruments is used to measure flow on the application of Bernoulli's
theorem?
(A) Venturimeter
(B) Orifice plate
(C) Nozzle
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 198

When a cylindrical vessel of radius (r
then depth of parabola which the liquid assumes is
(A)
(B)
(C)
 (D)
Answer: Option B

Question No. 199

The depth of the centre of pressure on a vertical rectangular gate 8 m wide and 6 m high, when
the water surface coincides with the top of the gate, is
(A) 2.4 m
(B) 3.0 m
(C) 4.0 m
(D) 5.0 m
Answer: Option B

Question No. 200

An internal mouthpiece is said to be running free if the length of the mouthpiece is __________
the diameter of the orifice.
(A) Less than twice
(B) More than twice
(C) Less than three times
(D) More than three times
Answer: Option C

Question No. 201

An ideal flow of any fluid must satisfy
(A) Pascal law
(B) Newton's law of viscosity
(C) Boundary layer theory
(D) Continuity equation
Answer: Option D

Question No. 202

The height of a water column equivalent to a pressure of 0.15 MPa is
(A) 15.3 m
(B) 25.3 m
(C) 35.3 m
(D) 45.3 m
Answer: Option A

Question No. 203

The region between the separation streamline and the boundary surface of the solid body is
known as
(A) Wake
(B) Drag
(C) Lift
(D) Boundary layer
Answer: Option A
Question No. 204
The total pressure on the top of a closed cylindrical vessel of radius (r) completely filled up with
liquid of specific weight (w
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 205

Froude number is significant in
(A) Supersonics, as with projectile and jet propulsion
(B) Full immersion or completely enclosed flow, as with pipes, aircraft wings, nozzles etc.
(C) Simultaneous motion through two fluids where there is a surface of discontinuity, gravity
forces, and wave making effect, as with ship's hulls
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 206

The ratio of specific weight of a liquid to the specific weight of pure water at a standard
temperature is called
(A) Density of liquid
(B) Specific gravity of liquid
(C) Compressibility of liquid
(D) Surface tension of liquid
Answer: Option B

Question No. 207

A hydraulic press has a ram of 15 cm diameter and plunger of 1.5 cm. It is required to lift a weight
of 1 tonne. The force required on plunger is equal to
(A) 10 kg
(B) 100 kg
(C) 1000 kg
(D) 1 kg
Answer: Option A

Question No. 208

The total head of a liquid particle in motion is equal to
(A) Pressure head + kinetic head + potential head
(B) Pressure head - (kinetic head + potential head)
(C) Potential head - (pressure head + kinetic head)
(D) Kinetic head - (pressure head + potential head)
Answer: Option A
Question No. 209
The bulk modulus of elasticity with increase in pressure
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remain constant
(D) Increases first up to certain limit and then decreases
Answer: Option A

Question No. 210

The diameter of the nozzle (d) for maximum transmission of power is given by (where D =
Diameter of pipe, f l = Length of pipe)
A) 1/2

B) 1/3

C) 1/4

D) 1/5

Answer: Option C

Question No. 211

Free surface of a liquid tends to contract to the smallest possible area due to force of
(A) Surface tension
(B) Viscosity
(C) Friction
(D) Cohesion
Answer: Option A

Question No. 212

The Metacentric heights of two floating bodies A and B are 1 m and 1.5 m respectively. Select the
correct statement.
(A) The bodies A and B have equal stability
(B) The body A is more stable than body B
(C) The body B is more stable than body A
(D) The bodies A and B are unstable
Answer: Option C

Question No. 213

The rise or depression of liquid in a tube due to surface tension will increase in size of tube will
(A) Increase
(B) Remain unaffected
(C) May increase or decrease depending on the characteristics of liquid
(D) Decrease
Answer: Option D

Question No. 214

A body floats in stable equilibrium
(A) When its meatcentric height is zero
 (B) When the metacentre is above e.g.
(C) When its e.g. is below its center of buoyancy
(D) Metacentre has nothing to do with position of e.g. for determining stability
Answer: Option B

Question No. 215

The total pressure on a horizontally immersed surface is (where w = Specific weight of the
liquid, A = Area of the immersed surface, and x = Depth of the centre of gravity of the immersed
surface from the liquid surface)
(A) wA
(B) wx
(C) wAx
(D) wA/x
Answer: Option C

Question No. 216

The discharge of a depressed nappe is 6 to 7 percent __________ that of a free nappe.
(A) Less than
(B) More than
(C) Equal to
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 217

The line of action of the buoyant force acts through the Centroid of the
(A) Submerged body
(B) Volume of the floating body
(C) Volume of the fluid vertically above the body
(D) Displaced volume of the fluid
Answer: Option D

Question No. 218

The intensity of pressure at any point, in a liquid, is
(A) Directly proportional to the area of the vessel containing liquid
(B) Directly proportional to the depth of liquid from the surface
(C) Directly proportional to the length of the vessel containing liquid
(D) Inversely proportional to the depth of liquid from the surface
Answer: Option B

Question No. 219

During the opening of a valve in a pipe line, the flow is
(A) Steady
(B) Unsteady
(C) Uniform
(D) Laminar
 Answer: Option B

Question No. 220

A manometer is used to measure
(A) Atmospheric pressure
(B) Pressure in pipes and channels
(C) Pressure in Venturimeter
(D) Difference of pressures between two points in a pipe
Answer: Option B

Question No. 221

For hypersonic flow, the Mach number is
(A) Unity
(B) Greater than unity
(C) Greater than 2
(D) Greater than 4
Answer: Option D

Question No. 222

The theoretical velocity of jet at vena contracta is (where H = Head of water at vena contracta)
(A) 2gH
(B) H × g)
(C) 2g × H
(D) 2gh)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 223

For pipes, laminar flow occurs when Reynolds number is
(A) Less than 2000
(B) Between 2000 and 4000
(C) More than 4000
(D) Less than 4000
Answer: Option A

Question No. 224

When the flow in an open channel is gradually varied, the flow is said to be
(A) Steady uniform flow
(B) Steady non-uniform flow
(C) Unsteady uniform flow
(D) Unsteady non-uniform flow
Answer: Option B

Question No. 225

Property of a fluid by which molecules of different kinds of fluids are attracted to each other is
called
 (A) Adhesion
(B) Cohesion
(C) Viscosity
(D) Compressibility
Answer: Option A

Question No. 226

In an internal mouthpiece, if the jet after contraction does not touch the sides of the mouthpiece,
then the mouthpiece is said to be
(A) Running full
(B) Running free
(C) Partially running full
(D) Partially running free
Answer: Option B

Question No. 227

The units of kinematic viscosity are
(A) Metres² per sec
(B) kg sec/metre
(C) Newton-sec per metre
(D) Newton-sec per metre
Answer: Option A

Question No. 228

The length of a liquid stream while flowing over a weir __________ at the ends of the sill.
(A) Expands
(B) Does not change
(C) Contracts
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 229

Newton's law of viscosity is a relationship between
(A) Shear stress and the rate of angular distortion
(B) Shear stress and viscosity
(C) Shear stress, velocity and viscosity
(D) Pressure, velocity and viscosity
Answer: Option A

Question No. 230

The total energy line lies over the hydraulic gradient line by an amount equal to the
(A) Pressure head
(B) Velocity head
(C) Pressure head + velocity head
(D) Pressure head - velocity head
 Answer: Option B

Question No. 231

Choose the wrong statement
(A) The horizontal component of the hydrostatic force on any surface is equal to the normal
force on the vertical projection of the surface
(B) The horizontal component acts through the center of pressure for the vertical projection
(C) The vertical component of the hydrostatic force on any surface is equal to the weight of the
volume of the liquid above the area
(D) The vertical component passes through the center of pressure of the volume
Answer: Option D

Question No. 232

In open channels, the specific energy is the
(A) Total energy per unit discharge
(B) Total energy measured with respect to the datum passing through the bottom of the
channel
(C) Total energy measured above the horizontal datum
(D) Kinetic energy plotted above the free surface of water
Answer: Option B

Question No. 233

For a floating body to be in stable equilibrium, its metacentre should be
(A) Below the center of gravity
(B) Below the center of buoyancy
(C) Above the center of buoyancy
(D) Above the center of gravity
Answer: Option D

Question No. 234

A water tank contains 1.3 m deep water. The pressure exerted by the water per metre length of
the tank is
(A) 2.89 kN
(B) 8.29 kN
(C) 9.28 kN
(D) 28.9 kN
Answer: Option B

Question No. 235

Total pressure on a lmxlm gate immersed vertically at a depth of 2 m below the free water surface
will be
(A) 1000 kg
(B) 4000 kg
(C) 2000 kg
(D) 8000 kg
 Answer: Option A

Question No. 236

If a body floating in a liquid occupies a new position and remains at rest in this new position, when
given a small angular displacement, the body is said to be in __________ equilibrium.
(A) Neutral
(B) Stable
(C) Unstable
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 237

A streamline is defined as the line
(A) Parallel to central axis flow
(B) Parallel to outer surface of pipe
(C) Of equal velocity in a flow
(D) Along which the pressure drop is uniform
Answer: Option C

Question No. 238

The flow in a pipe or channel is said to be non-uniform when
(A) The liquid particles at all sections have the same velocities
(B) The liquid particles at different sections have different velocities
(C) The quantity of liquid flowing per second is constant
(D) Each liquid particle has a definite path
Answer: Option B

Question No. 239

Hydrometer is used to determine
(A) Specific gravity of liquids
(B) Specific gravity of solids
(C) Specific gravity of gases
(D) Relative humidity
Answer: Option A

Question No. 240

The dynamic viscosity of the liquid __________ with rise in temperature.
(A) Remain unaffected
(B) Increases
(C) Decreases
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 241

For pipes, turbulent flow occurs when Reynolds number is
 (A) Less than 2000
(B) Between 2000 and 4000
(C) More than 4000
(D) Less than 4000
Answer: Option C

Question No. 242

The velocity of the liquid flowing through the divergent portion of a Venturimeter
(A) Remains constant
(B) Increases
(C) Decreases
(D) Depends upon mass of liquid
Answer: Option C

Question No. 243

The volumetric change of the fluid caused by a resistance is known as
(A) Volumetric strain
(B) Volumetric index
(C) Compressibility
(D) Adhesion
Answer: Option C

Question No. 244

If the depth of water in an open channel is less than the critical depth, the flow is called
(A) Critical flow
(B) Turbulent flow
(C) Tranquil flow
(D) Torrential flow
Answer: Option D

Question No. 245

Choose the wrong statement
(A) Fluids are capable of flowing
(B) Fluids conform to the shape of the containing vessels
(C) When in equilibrium, fluids cannot sustain tangential forces
(D) When in equilibrium, fluids can sustain shear forces
Answer: Option D

Question No. 246

An orifice is said to be large, if
(A) The size of orifice is large
(B) The velocity of flow is large
(C) The available head of liquid is more than 5 times the height of orifice
(D) The available head of liquid is less than 5 times the height of orifice
Answer: Option D
Question No. 247
A piece of metal of specific gravity 13.6 is placed in mercury of specific gravity 13.6, what fraction
of it volume is under mercury?
(A) The metal piece will simply float over the mercury
(B) The metal piece will be immersed in mercury by half
(C) Whole of the metal piece will be immersed with its top surface just at mercury level
(D) Metal piece will sink to the bottom
Answer: Option C

Question No. 248

The centre of pressure acts __________ the centre of gravity of immersed surface.
(A) At
(B) Above
(C) Below
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 249

Dynamic viscosity of most of the liquids with rise in temperature
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remain unaffected
(D) Unpredictable
Answer: Option B

Question No. 250

The discharge over a right angled notch is (where H = Height of liquid above the apex of notch)
(A) (8/15) Cd. 2g. H
(B) (8/15) Cd. 2g. H3/2
(C) (8/15) Cd. 2g. H²
(D) (8/15) Cd. 2g. H5/2
Answer: Option D

Question No. 251

A square surface 3 m × 3 m lies in a vertical line in water pipe its upper edge at water surface. The
hydrostatic force on square surface is
(A) 9,000 kg
(B) 13,500 kg
(C) 18,000 kg
(D) 27,000 kg
Answer: Option B

Question No. 252

The discharge through a siphon spillway is
(A) Cd × 2gH)
 (B) Cd × a × g) × H3/2
(C) Cd × a × g) × H2
(D) Cd × a × g) × H5/2
Answer: Option A

Question No. 253

Select the correct statement
(A) Local atmospheric pressure depends upon elevation of locality only
(B) Standard atmospheric pressure is the mean local atmospheric pressure a* sea level
(C) Local atmospheric pressure is always below standard atmospheric pressure
(D) A barometer reads the difference between local and standard atmospheric pressure
Answer: Option B

Question No. 254

The shear stress-strain graph for a Newtonian fluid is a
(A) Straight line
(B) Parabolic curve
(C) Hyperbolic curve
(D) Elliptical
Answer: Option A

Question No. 255

The flow in which the particles of a fluid attain such velocities that varies from point to point in
magnitude and direction as well as from instant to instant, is known as
(A) One dimensional flow
(B) Uniform flow
(C) Steady flow
(D) Turbulent flow
Answer: Option D

Question No. 256

For a perfect incompressible liquid, flowing in a continuous stream, the total energy of a particle
remains the same, while the particle moves from one point to another. This statement is called
(A) Continuity equation
(B) Bernoulli's equation
(C) Pascal's law
(D) Archim
Answer: Option B

Question No. 257

Uniform flow occurs when
(A) The direction and magnitude of the velocity at all points are identical
(B) The velocity of successive fluid particles, at any point, is the same at successive periods of
time
(C) The magnitude and direction of the velocity do not change from point to point in the fluid
 (D) The fluid particles move in plane or parallel planes and the streamline patterns are identical
in each pleasure
Answer: Option C

Question No. 258

The critical depth for a channel is given by (where q = Unit discharge (discharge per unit width)
through the channel)
(A) (q/g)1/2
(B) (q²/g)1/3
(C) (q³/g)1/4
(D) 1/5

Answer: Option B

Question No. 259

At the center line of a pipe flowing under pressure where the velocity gradient is zero, the shear
stress will be
(A) Minimum
(B) Maximum
(C) Zero
(D) Could be any value
Answer: Option D

Question No. 260

The discharge through a channel of trapezoidal section is maximum when
(A) Width of channel at the top is equal to twice the width at the bottom
(B) Depth of channel is equal to the width at the bottom
(C) The sloping side is equal to half the width at the top
(D) The sloping side is equal to the width at the bottom
Answer: Option C

Question No. 261

Piezometer is used to measure
(A) Pressure in pipe, channels etc.
(B) Atmospheric pressure
(C) Very low pressures
(D) Difference of pressure between two points
Answer: Option C

Question No. 262

The point at which the resultant pressure on an immersed surface acts, is known as
(A) Centre of gravity
(B) Centre of depth
(C) Centre of pressure
(D) Centre of immersed surface
Answer: Option C
Question No. 263
Choose the wrong statement
(A) Any weight, floating or immersed in a liquid, is acted upon by a buoyant force
(B) Buoyant force is equal to the weight of the liquid displaced
(C) The point through which buoyant force acts, is called the center of buoyancy
(D) Center of buoyancy is located above the center of gravity of the displaced liquid
Answer: Option D

Question No. 264

The centre of pressure for a vertically immersed surface lies at a distance equal to __________ the
centre of gravity.
(A) IG / bellow
(B) IG / above
(C) / IG bellow
(D) / IG above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 265

The pressure in the air space above an oil (sp. gr. 0.8) surface in a tank is 0.1 kg/cm". The pressure
at 2.5 m below the oil surface will be
(A) 2 metres of water column
(B) 3 metres of water column
(C) 3.5 metres of water column
(D) 4 m of water column
Answer: Option B

Question No. 266

The total pressure on the top of a closed cylindrical vessel completely filled up with a liquid is
(A) Directly proportional to (radius)2
(B) Inversely proportional to (radius)2
(C) Directly proportional to (radius)4
(D) Inversely proportional to (radius)4
Answer: Option C

Question No. 267

The flow which neglects changes in a transverse direction is known as
(A) One dimensional flow
(B) Uniform flow
(C) Steady flow
(D) Turbulent flow
Answer: Option A

Question No. 268

Normal depth in open channel flow is the depth of flow corresponding to
(A) Steady flow
 (B) Unsteady flow
(C) Laminar flow
(D) Uniform flow
Answer: Option D

Question No. 269

A moving fluid mass may be brought to a static equilibrium position, by applying an imaginary
inertia force of the same magnitude as that of the accelerating force but in the opposite direction.
This statement is called
(A) Pascal's law
(B)
(C) D-Alembert's principle
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 270

The mass per unit volume of a liquid at a standard temperature and pressure is called
(A) Specific weight
(B) Mass density
(C) Specific gravity
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 271

A large Reynold number is indication of
(A) Smooth and streamline flow
(B) Laminar flow
(C) Steady flow
(D) Highly turbulent flow
Answer: Option D

Question No. 272

Which of the following statement is wrong?
(A) A flow whose streamline is represented by a curve is called two dimensional flow.
(B) The total energy of a liquid particle is the sum of potential energy, kinetic energy and
pressure energy.
(C) The length of divergent portion in a Venturimeter is equal to the convergent portion.
(D) A pitot tube is used to measure the velocity of flow at the required point in a pipe.
Answer: Option C

Question No. 273

Density of water is maximum at
(A) 0° C
(B) 0° K
(C) 4° C
 (D) 100° C
Answer: Option C

Question No. 274

A weir is said to be broad crested weir, if the width of the crest of the weir is ________ half the
height of water above the weir crest.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) More than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 275

The bulk modulus of elasticity
(A) Has the dimensions of 1/pressure
(B) Increases with pressure
(C) Is large when fluid is more compressible
(D) Is independent of pressure and viscosity
Answer: Option B

Question No. 276

A tank of uniform cross-sectional area (A) containing liquid upto height (H1) has an orifice of cross-
sectional area (a) at its bottom. The time required to empty the tank completely will be
(A) d

(B) d
(C) 3/2
)/(Cd
(D) d

Answer: Option A

Question No. 277

Kinematic viscosity is equal to
(A) Dynamic viscosity/density
(B) Dynamic viscosity × density
(C) Density/dynamic viscosity
(D) 1/dynamic viscosity × density
Answer: Option A

Question No. 278

The atmospheric pressure at sea level is
(A) 103 kN/m2
(B) 10.3 m of water
(C) 760 mm of mercury
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 279
The conditions for the stable equilibrium of a floating body are
(A) The metacentre should lie above the center of gravity
(B) The center of buoyancy and the center of gravity must lie on the same vertical line
(C) A righting couple should be formed
(D) All the above are correct
Answer: Option D

Question No. 280

A glass tube of smaller diameter is used while performing an experiment for the capillary rise of
water because
(A) It is easier to see through the glass tube
(B) Glass tube is cheaper than a metallic tube
(C) It is not possible to conduct this experiment with any other tube
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 281

To avoid an interruption in the flow of a siphon, an air vessel is provided
(A) At the inlet
(B) At the outlet
(C) At the summit
(D) At any point between inlet and outlet
Answer: Option C

Question No. 282

When the coefficient of discharge (Cd) is 0.623, then the general equation for discharge over a
rectangular weir is
(A) 1.84(L - 0.1nH)H3/2
(B) 1.84(L - nH)H2
(C) 1.84(L - 0.1nH)H5/2
(D) 1.84(L - nH)H3
Answer: Option A

Question No. 283

In an isothermal atmosphere, the pressure
(A) Decreases linearly with elevation
(B) Remain constant
(C) Varies in the same way as the density
(D) Increases exponentially with elevation
Answer: Option C

Question No. 284

The pressure of a liquid measured with the help of a Piezometer tube is
(A) Vacuum pressure
 (B) Gauge pressure
(C) Absolute pressure
(D) Atmospheric pressure
Answer: Option B

Question No. 285

If the atmospheric pressure on the surface of an oil tank (sp. gr. 0.8) is 0.2 kg/cm", the pressure at
a depth of 50 m below the oil surface will be
(A) 2 meters of water column
(B) 3 meters of water column
(C) 5 meters of water column
(D) 6 meters of water Column
Answer: Option D

Question No. 286

The pressure intensity in kN/m2 (or kPa) at any point in a liquid is (where w = Specific weight of
liquid, and h = Depth of liquid from the surface)
(A) w
(B) wh
(C) w/h
(D) h/w
Answer: Option B

Question No. 287

The resultant upward pressure of a fluid on a floating body is equal to the weight of the fluid
displaced by the body. This definition is according to
(A) Buoyancy
(B) Equilibrium of a floating body
(C) Archimedes' principle
(D) Bernoulli's theorem
Answer: Option C

Question No. 288

The liquid used in manometers should have
(A) Low density
(B) High density
(C) Low surface tension
(D) High surface tension
Answer: Option D

Question No. 289

Which of the following instrument can be used for measuring speed of an aeroplane?
(A) Venturimeter
(B) Orifice plate
(C) Pitot tube
 (D) Rotameter
Answer: Option C

Question No. 290

A jet of water discharging from a 40 mm diameter orifice has a diameter of 32 mm at its vena
contracta. The coefficient of contraction is
(A) 0.46
(B) 0.64
(C) 0.78
(D) 0.87
Answer: Option B

Question No. 291

Buoyant force is
(A) Resultant force acting on a floating body
(B) Equal to the volume of liquid displaced
(C) Force necessary to keep a body in equilibrium
(D) The resultant force on a body due to the fluid surrounding it
Answer: Option D

Question No. 292

In case of flow through parallel pipes,
(A) The head loss for all the pipes is same
(B) The total discharge is equal to the sum of discharges in the various pipes
(C) The total head loss is the sum of head losses in the various pipes
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 293

Rotameter is a device used to measure
(A) Absolute pressure
(B) Velocity of fluid
(C) Flow
(D) Rotation
Answer: Option C

Question No. 294

In a broad-crested weir, the discharge is maximum if the head of water on the downstream side of
weir is __________ the head of water on the upstream side of weir.
(A) Equal to
(B) One-third
(C) Two-third
(D) Three-fourth
Answer: Option C
Question No. 295
When a body, floating in a liquid, is given a small angular displacement, it starts oscillating about a
point known as
(A) Centre of pressure
(B) Centre of gravity
(C) Centre of buoyancy
(D) Metacentre
Answer: Option D

Question No. 296

A nozzle is generally made of
(A) Cylindrical shape
(B) Convergent shape
(C) Divergent shape
(D) Convergent-divergent shape
Answer: Option B

Question No. 297

Pitot tube is used for measurement of
(A) Pressure
(B) Flow
(C) Velocity
(D) Discharge
Answer: Option C

Question No. 298

Coefficient of discharge Cd is equal to (where Cc = Coefficient of contraction, Cv = Coefficient of
velocity, and Cr = Coefficient of resistance)
(A) Cc × Cv
(B) Cc × Cr
(C) Cv × Cr
(D) Cc/Cr
Answer: Option A

Question No. 299

The value of mass density in kg-sec-V-
(A) 1
(B) 1000
(C) 100
(D) 101.9
Answer: Option D

Question No. 300

The shear stress between the two liquid layers is __________ proportional to the distance
between two layers.
 (A) Directly
(B) Inversely
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 301

Viscosity of water in comparison to mercury is
(A) Higher
(B) Lower
(C) Same
(D) Higher/lower depending on temperature
Answer: Option A

Question No. 302

The power transmitted through the pipe is maximum when the head lost due to friction is equal to
(A) One-fourth of the total supply head
(B) One-third of the total supply head
(C) One-half of the total supply head
(D) Two-third of the total supply head
Answer: Option B

Question No. 303

Falling drops of water become spheres due to the property of
(A) Adhesion
(B) Cohesion
(C) Surface tension
(D) Viscosity
Answer: Option C

Question No. 304

A hemispherical tank of radius (R) has an orifice of cross-sectional area (a) at its bottom and is full
of liquid. The time required to empty the tank completely is
(A) 1/2
/15Cd ×
(B) 3/2
/15Cd ×
(C) 5/2
/15Cd ×
(D) 7/2
/15Cd ×
Answer: Option C

Question No. 305

The difference of pressure between the inside and outside of a liquid drop is
(A) p = T × r
(B) p = T/r
(C) p = T/2r
(D) p = 2T/r
 Answer: Option D

Question No. 306

A venturi-flume is used to measure
(A) Pressure of liquid
(B) Discharge of liquid
(C) Pressure difference between two points in a channel
(D) Pressure difference between two points in a pipe
Answer: Option B

Question No. 307

Working principle of dead weight pressure gauge tester is based on
(A) Pascal's law
(B) Dalton's law of partial pressure
(C) Newton's law of viscosity
(D) Avogadro's hypothesis
Answer: Option A

Question No. 308

The meatcentric height of a ship is 0.6 m and the radius of gyration is 4 m. The time of rolling of a
ship is
(A) 4.1 s
(B) 5.2 s
(C) 10.4 s
(D) 14.1 s
Answer: Option C

Question No. 309

The discharge through a channel of rectangular section will be maximum, if
(A) Its depth is twice the breadth
(B) Its breadth is twice the depth
(C) Its depth is thrice the breadth
(D) Its breadth is thrice the depth
Answer: Option B

Question No. 310

The discharge through a channel of circular section will be maximum when the depth of water is
__________ the diameter of the circular channel.
(A) 0.34 times
(B) 0.67 times
(C) 0.81 times
(D) 0.95 times
Answer: Option D
Question No. 311
Uniform flow occurs when
(A) The flow is steady
(B) The flow is streamline
(C) Size and shape of the cross section in a particular length remain constant
(D) Size and cross section change uniformly along length
Answer: Option C

Question No. 312

Bulk modulus of a fluid is the ratio of
(A) Shear stress to shear strain
(B) Increase in volume to the viscosity of fluid
(C) Increase in pressure to the volumetric strain
(D) Critical velocity to the viscosity of fluid
Answer: Option C

Question No. 313

to
(A) 1 Pa
(B) 91 Pa
(C) 981 Pa
(D) 9810 Pa
Answer: Option D

Question No. 314

An average value of coefficient of velocity is
(A) 0.62
(B) 0.76
(C) 0.84
(D) 0.97
Answer: Option D

Question No. 315

A liquid would wet the solid, if adhesion forces as compared to cohesion forces are
(A) Less
(B) More
(C) Equal
(D) Less at low temperature and more at high temperature
Answer: Option B

Question No. 316

When a cylindrical vessel containing liquid is revolved about its vertical axis at a constant angular
velocity, the pressure
(A) Varies as the square of the radial distance
 (B) Increases linearly as its radial distance
(C) Increases as the square of the radial distance
(D) Decreases as the square of the radial distance
Answer: Option A

Question No. 317

Property of a fluid by which its own molecules are attracted is called
(A) Adhesion
(B) Cohesion
(C) Viscosity
(D) Compressibility
Answer: Option B

Question No. 318

According to Bazin's formula, the discharge over a rectangular weir is mL2g x H3/2where m is equal
to
(A) 0.405 + (0.003/H)
(B) 0.003 + (0.405/H)
(C) 0.405 + (H/0.003)
(D) 0.003 + (H/0.405)
Answer: Option A

Question No. 319

Which of the following is the unit of kinematic viscosity?
(A) Pascal
(B) Poise
(C) Stoke
(D) Faraday
Answer: Option C

Question No. 320

The length AB of a pipe ABC in which the liquid is flowing has diameter (d1) and is suddenly
contracted to diameter (d2) at B which is constant for the length BC. The loss of head due to
sudden contraction, assuming coefficient of contraction as 0.62, is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 321

Operation of McLeod gauge used for low pressure measurement is based on the principle of
(A) Gas law
(B) Boyle's law
(C) Charles law
 (D) Pascal's law
Answer: Option B

Question No. 322

Reynold's number is the ratio of the inertia force to the
(A) Surface tension force
(B) Viscous force
(C) Gravity force
(D) Elastic force
Answer: Option B

Question No. 323

A piece weighing 3 kg in air was found to weigh 2.5 kg when submerged in water. Its specific
gravity is
(A) 1
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 6
Answer: Option D

Question No. 324

A differential manometer is used to measure
(A) Atmospheric pressure
(B) Pressure in pipes and channels
(C) Pressure in Venturimeter
(D) Difference of pressures between two points in a pipe
Answer: Option D

Question No. 325

In a lock-gate, the reaction between two gates is (where P = Resultant pressure on the lock gate,

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) 2p/sin
Answer: Option C

Question No. 326

In a venturi-flume, the flow takes place at
(A) Atmospheric pressure
(B) Gauge pressure
(C) Absolute pressure
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 327
The normal stress is same in all directions at a point in a fluid
(A) Only when the fluid is frictionless
(B) Only when the fluid is incompressible and has zero viscosity
(C) When there is no motion of one fluid layer relative to an adjacent layer
(D) Irrespective of the motion of one fluid layer relative to an adjacent layer
Answer: Option C

Question No. 328

The highest efficiency is obtained with a channel of __________ section.
(A) Circular
(B) Square
(C) Rectangular
(D) Trapezoidal
Answer: Option D

Question No. 329

A vertical wall is subjected to a pressure due to one kind of liquid, on one of its sides. The total
pressure on the wall per unit length is (where w = Specific weight of liquid, and H = Height of
liquid)
(A) wH
(B) wH/2
(C) wH2/2
(D) wH2/3
Answer: Option C

Question No. 330

Which of the following manometer has highest sensitivity?
(A) U-tube with water
(B) Inclined U-tube
(C) U-tube with mercury
(D) Micro-manometer with water
Answer: Option D

Question No. 331

The velocity corresponding to Reynold number of 2800, is called
(A) Sub-sonic velocity
(B) Super-sonic velocity
(C) Lower critical velocity
(D) Higher critical velocity
Answer: Option D

Question No. 332

For a floating body to be in equilibrium
(A) Meta centre should be above e.g.
 (B) Centre of buoyancy and e.g. must lie on same vertical plane
(C) A righting couple should be formed
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 333

When an internal mouthpiece is running free, the discharge through the mouthpiece is (where a =
Area of mouthpiece, and H = Height of liquid above the mouthpiece)
(A) 0.5 a. gH
(B) 0.707 a. gH
(C) 0.855 a. gH
(D) a. gH
Answer: Option A

Question No. 334

A uniform body 3 m long, 2 m wide and 1 m deep floats in water. If the depth of immersion is 0.6
m, then the weight of the body is
(A) 3.53 kN
(B) 33.3 kN
(C) 35.3 kN
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 335

The force per unit length is the unit of
(A) Surface tension
(B) Compressibility
(C) Capillarity
(D) Viscosity
Answer: Option A

Question No. 336

When the Mach number is more than 6, the flow is called
(A) Sub-sonic flow
(B) Sonic flow
(C) Super-sonic flow
(D) Hyper-sonic flow
Answer: Option D

Question No. 337

The upper surface of a weir over which water flows is known is
(A) Crest
(B) Nappy
(C) Sill
(D) Weir top
 Answer: Option C

Question No. 338

One cubic metre of water weighs
(A) 100 litres
(B) 250 litres
(C) 500 litres
(D) 1000 litres
Answer: Option D

Question No. 339

Kinematic viscosity is dependent upon
(A) Pressure
(B) Distance
(C) Density
(D) Flow
Answer: Option C

Question No. 340

The discharge through a large rectangular orifice is given by (where H1 = Height of the liquid above
the top of the orifice, H2 = Height of the liquid above the bottom of the orifice, b = Breadth of the
orifice, and Cd = Coefficient of discharge)
(A) Q = (2/3) Cd × b × (2g) × (H2 - H1)
(B) Q = (2/3) Cd × b × (2g) × (H21/2 - H11/2)
(C) Q = (2/3) Cd × b × (2g) × (H23/2 - H13/2)
(D) Q = (2/3) Cd × b × (2g) × (H22 - H12)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 341

An error of 1% in measuring head over the apex of the notch (H) will produce an error of
_________ in discharge over a triangular notch.
(A) 1 %
(B) 1.5 %
(C) 2 %
(D) 2.5 %
Answer: Option D

Question No. 342

The Euler's equation for the motion of liquids is based upon the assumption that
(A) The fluid is non - viscous, homogeneous and incompressible
(B) The velocity of flow is uniform over the section
(C) The flow is continuous, steady and along the stream line
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 343
The ratio of the inertia force to the viscous force is called
(A) Reynold's number
(B) Froude's number
(C) Weber's number
(D) Euler's number
Answer: Option A

Question No. 344

The total energy of a liquid particle in motion is equal to
(A) Pressure energy + kinetic energy + potential energy
(B) Pressure energy - (kinetic energy + potential energy)
(C) Potential energy - (pressure energy + kinetic energy
(D) Kinetic energy - (pressure energy + potential energy)
Answer: Option A

Question No. 345

Which of the following instrument can be used for measuring speed of a submarine moving in
deep sea?
(A) Venturimeter
(B) Orifice plate
(C) Hot wire anemometer
(D) Pitot tube
Answer: Option D

Question No. 346

The force present in a moving liquid is
(A) Inertia force
(B) Viscous force
(C) Gravity force
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 347

A ship whose hull length is 100 m is to travel at 10 m/sec. For dynamic similarity, at what velocity
should a 1:25 model be towed through water?
(A) 10 m/sec
(B) 25 m/sec
(C) 2 m/sec
(D) 50 m/sec
Answer: Option C

Question No. 348

The pressure of liquid at throat in a Venturimeter is __________ than that at inlet.
(A) Higher
 (B) Lower
(C) Same
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 349

The flow in which the velocity vector is identical in magnitude and direction at every point, for any
given instant, is known as
(A) One dimensional flow
(B) Uniform flow
(C) Steady flow
(D) Turbulent flow
Answer: Option B

Question No. 350

The coefficient of discharge for an external mouthpiece depends upon
(A) Velocity of liquid
(B) Pressure of liquid
(C) Area of mouthpiece
(D) Length of mouthpiece
Answer: Option D

Question No. 351

The specific weight of water is 1000 kg/m3
(A) At normal pressure of 760 mm
(B) At 4°C temperature
(C) At mean sea level
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 352

If the depth of water in an open channel is greater than the critical depth, the flow is called
(A) Critical flow
(B) Turbulent flow
(C) Tranquil flow
(D) Torrential flow
Answer: Option C

Question No. 353

When a cylindrical vessel, containing some liquid, is rotated about its vertical axis, the liquid
surface is depressed down at the axis of its rotation and rises up near the walls of the vessel on all
sides. This type of flow is known as
(A) Steady flow
(B) Turbulent flow
(C) Vortex flow
 (D) Uniform flow
Answer: Option C

Question No. 354

The body will sink down if the force of buoyancy is __________ the weight of the liquid displaced.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) More than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 355

The total pressure on the surface of a vertical sluice gate 2 m x 1 m with its top 2 m surface being
0.5 m below the water level will be
(A) 500 kg
(B) 1000 kg
(C) 1500 kg
(D) 2000 kg
Answer: Option D

Question No. 356

The velocity at which the laminar flow stops, is known as
(A) Velocity of approach
(B) Lower critical velocity
(C) Higher critical velocity
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 357

The line of action of the buoyant force acts through the
(A) Centroid of the volume of fluid vertically above the body
(B) Centre of the volume of floating body
(C) Center of gravity of any submerged body
(D) Centroid of the displaced volume of fluid
Answer: Option D

Question No. 358

The buoyancy depends upon the
(A) Weight of the liquid displaced
(B) Pressure with which the liquid is displaced
(C) Viscosity of the liquid
(D) Compressibility of the liquid
Answer: Option A
Question No. 359
A glass tube of small diameter (d) is dipped in fluid. The height of rise or fall in the tube given by
(where w
tension)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 360

Two dimensional flows occurs when
(A) The direction and magnitude of the velocity at all points are identical
(B) The velocity of successive fluid particles, at any point, is the same at successive periods of
time
(C) The magnitude and direction of the velocity do not change from point to point in the fluid
(D) The fluid particles move in plane or parallel planes and the streamline patterns are identical
in each plane
Answer: Option D

Question No. 361

Whenever a plate is held immersed at some angle with the direction of flow of the liquid, it is
subjected to some pressure. The component of this pressure, in the direction of flow of the liquid,
is known as
(A) Lift
(B) Drag
(C) Stagnation pressure
(D) Bulk modulus
Answer: Option B

Question No. 362

Which of the following is dimensionless?
(A) Specific weight
(B) Specific volume
(C) Specific speed
(D) Specific gravity
Answer: Option D

Question No. 363

Coefficient of resistance is the ratio of
(A) Actual velocity of jet at vena-contracta to the theoretical velocity
(B) Area of jet at vena-contracta to the area of orifice
(C) Loss of head in the orifice to the head of water available at the exit of the orifice
(D) Actual discharge through an orifice to the theoretical discharge
Answer: Option C
Question No. 364
Mercury does not wet glass. This is due to property of liquid known as
(A) Adhesion
(B) Cohesion
(C) Surface tension
(D) Viscosity
Answer: Option C

Question No. 365

A flow in which __________ force is dominating over the viscosity is called turbulent flow.
(A) Elastic
(B) Surface tension
(C) Viscous
(D) Inertia
Answer: Option D

Question No. 366

Specific weight of sea water is more that of pure water because it contains
(A) Dissolved air
(B) Dissolved salt
(C) Suspended matter
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 367

In an internal mouthpiece, the absolute pressure head at vena contracta is __________ the
atmospheric pressure head by an amount equal to height of the liquid above the vena contracta.
(A) Less than
(B) More than
(C) Equal to
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 368

An odd shaped body weighing 7.5 kg and occupying 0.01 m3 volume will be completely submerged
in a fluid having specific gravity of
(A) 1
(B) 1.2
(C) 0.8
(D) 0.75
Answer: Option D

Question No. 269

The factional resistance of a pipe varies approximately with __________ of the liquid.
(A) Pressure
 (B) Velocity
(C) Square of velocity
(D) Cube of velocity
Answer: Option C

Question No. 370

For measuring flow by a Venturimeter, if should be installed in
(A) Vertical line
(B) Horizontal line
(C) Inclined line with flow downward
(D) In any direction and in any location
Answer: Option D

Question No. 371

The ratio of the inertia force to the elastic force is called
(A) Reynold's number
(B) Froude's number
(C) Weber's number
(D) Mach number
Answer: Option D

Question No. 372

All the terms of energy in Bernoulli's equation have dimension of
(A) Energy
(B) Work
(C) Mass
(D) Length
Answer: Option D

Question No. 373

The pressure at a point 4 m below the free surface of water is
(A) 19.24 kPa
(B) 29.24 kPa
(C) 39.24 kPa
(D) 49.24 kPa
Answer: Option C

Question No. 374

Specific weight of water in S.I. units is equal to
(A) 1000 N/m3
(B) 10000 N/m3
(C) 9.81 × 103 N/m3
(D) m3
Answer: Option C
Question No. 375
The length AB of a pipe ABC in which the liquid is flowing has diameter (d1) and is suddenly
enlarged to diameter (d2) at B which is constant for the length BC. The loss of head due to sudden
enlargement is
(A) -
(B) -
(C) -
(D) -
Answer: Option C

Question No. 376

In an external mouthpiece, the absolute pressure head at vena contracta is __________ the
atmospheric pressure head by an amount equal to 0.89 times the height of the liquid, above the
vena contracta.
(A) Less than
(B) More than
(C) Equal to
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 377

Poise is the unit of
(A) Surface tension
(B) Capillarity
(C) Viscosity
(D) Shear stress in fluids
Answer: Option C

Question No. 378

Viscous force is the __________ of shear stress due to viscosity and cross-section area of flow.
(A) Sum
(B) Different
(C) Product
(D) Ratio
Answer: Option C

Question No. 379

The siphon will work satisfactorily, if the minimum pressure in the pipe is __________ vapour
pressure of liquid.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) More than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 380
The tangential velocity of the water element having a free vortex is
(A) Directly proportional to its distance from the centre
(B) Inversely proportional to its distance from the centre
(C) Directly proportional to its (distance)2 from the centre
(D) Inversely proportional to its (distance)2 from the centre
Answer: Option B

Question No. 381

The horizontal component of buoyant force is
(A) Negligible
(B) Same as buoyant force
(C) Zero
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 382

A flow in which the quantity of liquid flowing per second is constant, is called __________ flow.
(A) Steady
(B) Streamline
(C) Turbulent
(D) Unsteady
Answer: Option A

Question No. 383

The divergent portion of a Venturimeter is made longer than convergent portion in order to
(A) Avoid the tendency of breaking away the stream of liquid
(B) To minimise frictional losses
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 384

According to Chezy's formula, the discharge through an open channel is (where A = Area of
flow, C = Chezy's constant, m = Hydraulic mean depth, and i = Uniform slope in bed)
(A) A × m × i)
(B) C × m × i)
(C) AC × m × i)
(D) mi × A × C)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 385

In a free vortex motion, the radial component of velocity everywhere is
(A) Maximum
(B) Minimum
 (C) Zero
(D) Nonzero and finite
Answer: Option C

Question No. 386

Coefficient of contraction is the ratio of
(A) Actual velocity of jet at vena contracta to the theoretical velocity
(B) Loss of head in the orifice to the head of water available at the exit of the orifice
(C) Loss of head in the orifice to the head of water available at the exit of the orifice
(D) Area of jet at vena-contracta to the area of orifice
Answer: Option D

Question No. 387

The Bernoulli's equation is based on the assumption that
(A) There is no loss of energy of the liquid flowing
(B) The velocity of flow is uniform across any cross-section of the pipe
(C) No force except gravity acts on the fluid
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 388

The flow in a pipe is turbulent when Reynold number is
(A) Less than 2000
(B) Between 2000 and 2800
(C) More than 2800
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 389

When the flow parameters at any given instant remain same at every point, then flow is said to be
(A) Quasi-static
(B) Steady state
(C) Laminar
(D) Uniform
Answer: Option D

Question No. 390

(A) wA
(B) wx
(C) wAx
(D) wAx
Answer: Option C
Question No. 391
Rain drops are spherical because of
(A) Viscosity
(B) Air resistance
(C) Surface tension forces
(D) Atmospheric pressure
Answer: Option C

Question No. 392

The discharge over the trapezoidal notch is equal to the discharge over the rectangular notch
__________ the discharge over the triangular notch.
(A) Plus
(B) Minus
(C) Divide
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 393

Ratio of inertia force to surface Jension is known as
(A) Mach number
(B) Froude number
(C)
(D) Weber's number
Answer: Option D

Question No. 394

The sheet of water flowing over a notch or a weir is known as
(A) Sill or crest
(B) Nappe or vein
(C) Orifice
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 395

A structure used to dam up a stream or river over which the water flows is called
(A) Orifice
(B) Notch
(C) Weir
(D) Dam
Answer: Option C

Question No. 396

A body floating in a liquid is said to be in neutral equilibrium, if its metacentre
(A) Coincides with its centre of gravity
(B) Lies above its centre of gravity
 (C) Lies below its centre of gravity
(D) Lies between the centre of buoyancy and centre of gravity
Answer: Option A

Question No. 397

General energy equation holds for
(A) Steady flow
(B) Turbulent flow
(C) Laminar flow
(D) Non-uniform flow
Answer: Option D

Question No. 398

The buoyancy depends on
(A) Mass of liquid displaced
(B) Viscosity of the liquid
(C) Pressure of the liquid displaced
(D) Depth of immersion
Answer: Option A

Question No. 399

The centre of gravity of the volume of the liquid displaced is called
(A) Centre of pressure
(B) Centre of buoyancy
(C) Metacentre
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 400

The Reynold's number of a ship is __________ to its velocity and length.
(A) Directly proportional
(B) Inversely proportional
(C) Square root of velocity
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 401

With an increase in size of tube, the rise or depression of liquid in the tube due to surface tension
will
(A) Decrease
(B) Increase
(C) Remain unchanged
(D) Depend upon the characteristics of liquid
Answer: Option A
Question No. 402
Gauge pressure at a point is equal to the absolute pressure __________ the atmospheric pressure.
(A) Plus
(B) Minus
(C) Divide
(D) Multiply
Answer: Option B

Question No. 403

The dynamic viscosity of gases __________ with rise in temperature.
(A) Remain unaffected
(B) Increases
(C) Decreases
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 404

The resultant upward pressure of the fluid on an immersed body due to its tendency to uplift the
submerged body is called
(A) Up-thrust
(B) Reaction
(C) Buoyancy
(D) Metacentre
Answer: Option C

Question No. 405

The purpose of a surge tank is
(A) To control the pressure variations due to rapid changes in the pipe line flow
(B) To eliminate water hammer possibilities
(C) To regulate flow of water to turbines by providing necessary retarding head of water
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 406

Flow occurring in a pipeline when a valve is being opened is
(A) Steady
(B) Unsteady
(C) Laminar
(D) Vortex
Answer: Option B

Question No. 407

The water pressure per metre length on a vertical masonry wall of dam is (where w = Specific
weight of the liquid, and H = Height of the liquid)
(A) wH/2
 (B) wH
(C) wH2/2
(D) wH2/4
Answer: Option C

Question No. 408

Euler's equation in the differential form for the motion of liquids is given by
(A) dp/ + g.dz + v.dv = 0
(B) dp/ - g.dz + v.dv = 0
(C) dp + g.dz + v.dv = 0
(D) dp - g.dz + v.dv = 0
Answer: Option A

Question No. 409

An open tank containing liquid is made to move from rest with a uniform acceleration. The angle 0
which the free surface of liquid makes with the horizontal is such that (where a = Horizontal
acceleration of the tank, and g = Acceleration due to gravity)
(A) a/g
(B) a/g
(C) a/2g
(D) a2/2g
Answer: Option A

Question No. 410

The discharge through a small rectangular orifice is given by (where Cd = Coefficient of discharge
for the orifice, a = Cross-sectional area of the orifice, h = Height of the liquid above the centre of
the orifice)
(A) Q = Cd × a × 2gh
(B) Q = (2/3). Cd × a × h
(C) Q = (Cd × a) gh)
(D) Q = (3Cd × a) h)
Answer: Option A

Question No. 411

When a body is placed over a liquid, it will float if
(A) Gravitational force is equal to the up-thrust of the liquid
(B) Gravitational force is less than the up-thrust of the liquid
(C) Gravitational force is more than the up-thrust of the liquid
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 412

A point, in a compressible flow where the velocity of fluid is zero, is called
(A) Critical point
(B) Vena contracta
 (C) Stagnation point
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 413

For very great pressures, viscosity of moss gases and liquids
(A) Remain same
(B) Increases
(C) Decreases
(D) Shows erratic behaviour
Answer: Option D

Question No. 414

A weir, generally, used as a spillway of a dam is
(A) Narrow crested weir
(B) Broad crested weir
(C) Ogee weir
(D) Submerged weir
Answer: Option C

Question No. 415

The angle of contact in case of a liquid depends upon
(A) The nature of the liquid and the solid
(B) The material which exists above the free surface of the liquid
(C) Both of die above
(D) Any one of the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 416

A flow in which each liquid particle has a definite path, and the paths of individual particles do not
cross each other, is called
(A) Steady flow
(B) Uniform flow
(C) Streamline flow
(D) Turbulent flow
Answer: Option C

Question No. 417

The stability of a dam is checked for
(A) Tension at the base
(B) Overturning of the wall or dam
(C) Sliding of the wall or dam
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 418
Water is __________ liquid.
(A) A compressible
(B) An incompressible
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 419

The unit of kinematic viscosity in S. I. units is
(A) N-m/s
(B) N-s/m2
(C) m2/s
(D) N-m
Answer: Option C

Question No. 420

Bernoulli's equation is applied to
(A) Venturimeter
(B) Orifice meter
(C) Pitot tube
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 421

Manometer is used to measure
(A) Pressure in pipes, channels etc.
(B) Atmospheric pressure
(C) Very low pressure
(D) Difference of pressure between two points
Answer: Option A

Question No. 422

The flow in which conditions do not change with time at any point, is known as
(A) One dimensional flow
(B) Uniform flow
(C) Steady flow
(D) Turbulent flow
Answer: Option C

Question No. 423

A nozzle placed at the end of a water pipe line discharges water at a
(A) Low pressure
(B) High pressure
(C) Low velocity
 (D) High velocity
Answer: Option D

Question No. 424

The pressure of fluid due to hammer blow is
(A) Directly proportional to density of fluid
(B) Inversely proportional to density of fluid
(C) Directly proportional to (density)1/2 of fluid
(D) Inversely proportional to (density)1/2 of fluid
Answer: Option C

Question No. 425

In order to measure the flow with a Venturimeter, it is installed in
(A) Horizontal line
(B) Inclined line with flow upwards
(C) Inclined line with flow downwards
(D) Any direction and in any location
Answer: Option D

Question No. 426

If mercury in a barometer is replaced by water, the height of 3.75 cm of mercury will be following
cm of water
(A) 51 cm
(B) 50 cm
(C) 52 cm
(D) 52.2 cm
Answer: Option A

Question No. 427

According to equation of continuity,
(A) w1a1 = w2a2
(B) w1v1 = w2v2
(C) a1v1 = a2v2
(D) a1/v1 = a2/v2
Answer: Option C

Question No. 428

The discharge over a rectangular weir, considering the velocity of approach, is (whereH1 = H + Ha =
Total height of water above the weir, H = Height of water over the crest of the weir, and Ha =
Height of water due to velocity of approach)
(A) (2/3) Cd × L. 2g [H1 - Ha]
(B) (2/3) Cd × L. 2g [H13/2 - Ha3/2]
(C) (2/3) Cd × L. 2g [H12 - Ha2]
(D) (2/3) Cd × L. 2g [H15/2 - Ha5/2]
Answer: Option B
Question No. 429
The Francis formula for the discharge over Cipoletti weir is
(A) 1.84 LH1/2
(B) 1.84 LH
(C) 1.84 LH3/2
(D) 1.84 LH5/2
Answer: Option C

Question No. 430

One poise is equal to
(A) 0.1 N-s/m2
(B) 1 N-s/m2
(C) 10 N-s/m2
(D) 100 N-s/m2
Answer: Option A

Question No. 431

When a vertical wall is subjected to pressures due to liquid on both sides, the resultant pressure is
the __________ of the two pressures.
(A) Sum
(B) Difference
(C) Arithmetic mean
(D) Geometric mean
Answer: Option B

Question No. 432

The mercury does not wet the glass. This is due to the property of the liquid known as
(A) Cohesion
(B) Adhesion
(C) Viscosity
(D) Surface tension
Answer: Option D

Question No. 433

A channel is said to be of most economical cross-section, if
(A) It gives maximum discharge for a given cross-sectional area and bed slope
(B) It has minimum wetted perimeter
(C) It involves lesser excavation for the designed amount of discharge
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 434

The maximum efficiency of transmission through a pipe is
(A) 50 %
(B) 56.7 %
 (C) 66.67 %
(D) 76.66 %
Answer: Option C

Question No. 435

Ratio of inertia force to elastic force is known as
(A) Mach number
(B) Froude number
(C) Reynolds number
(D) Weber's number
Answer: Option A

Question No. 436

The discharge through an external mouthpiece is given by (where a = Cross-sectional area of the
mouthpiece, and H = Height of liquid above the mouthpiece)
(A) 0.855 a. gH)
(B) 1.855 aH. g)
(C) 1.585 a. gH)
(D) 5.85 aH. g)
Answer: Option A

Question No. 437

If 850 kg liquid occupies volume of one cubic meter, men 0.85 represents its
(A) Specific weight
(B) Specific mass
(C) Specific gravity
(D) Specific density
Answer: Option C

Question No. 438

The discharge over a rectangular notch is (where b = Width of notch, and H = Height of liquid,
above the sill of the notch)
(A) (2/3) Cd × b × gH)
(B) (2/3) Cd × b × g) × H
(C) (2/3) Cd × b × g) × H3/2
(D) (2/3) Cd × b × g) × H2
Answer: Option C

Question No. 439

A metal with specific gravity
(A) Sink to bottom
(B) Float over fluid
(C) Partly immersed
(D) Be fully immersed with top surface at fluid surface
Answer: Option D
Question No. 440
In a short cylindrical external mouthpiece, the vena contracta occurs at a distance __________ the
diameter of the orifice from the outlet of orifice.
(A) Equal to
(B) One-fourth
(C) One-third
(D) One-half
Answer: Option B

Question No. 441

A submerged body is said to be in a stable equilibrium, if its centre of gravity __________ the
centre of buoyancy.
(A) Coincides with
(B) Lies below
(C) Lies above
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 442

The power transmitted through the nozzle is maximum when the head lost due to friction in the
pipe is __________ of the total supply head.
(A) One-half
(B) One-third
(C) Two-third
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 443

In the case of steady flow of a fluid, the acceleration of any fluid particle is
(A) Constant
(B) Variable
(C) Zero
(D) Zero under limiting conditions
Answer: Option C

Question No. 444

The pressure at a point in a fluid will not be same in all the directions when the fluid is
(A) Moving
(B) Viscous
(C) Viscous and static
(D) Viscous and moving
Answer: Option D

Question No. 445

The pressure of air __________ with the increase of height from the surface of the earth.
 (A) Does not change
(B) Decreases
(C) Increases
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 446

Froude's number is the ratio of inertia force to
(A) Pressure force
(B) Elastic force
(C) Gravity force
(D) Surface tension force
Answer: Option C

Question No. 447

The pressure measured with the help of a Piezometer tube is in
(A) N/mm2
(B) N/m2
(C) Head of liquid
(D) All of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 448

The total energy line lies over the centre line of the pipe by an amount equal to
(A) Pressure head
(B) Velocity head
(C) Pressure head + velocity head
(D) Pressure head - velocity head
Answer: Option C

Question No. 449

Water is a __________ fluid.
(A) Real
(B) Ideal
(C) Newtonian
(D) Non-Newtonian
Answer: Option C

Question No. 450

The resultant of all normal pressures acts
(A) At C.G. of body
(B) At center of pressure
(C) Vertically upwards
(D) At metacentre
Answer: Option C
Question No. 451
According to Newton's law of viscosity, the shear stress on a layer of a fluid is __________ to the
rate of shear strain.
(A) Equal to
(B) Directly proportional
(C) Inversely proportional
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 452

A vessel of 4 m3 contains oil which weighs 30 kN. The specific weight of the oil is
(A) 4.5 kN/m3
(B) 6 kN/m3
(C) 7.5 kN/m3
(D) 10 kN/m3
Answer: Option C

Question No. 453

The loss of head at entrance in a pipe is (where v = Velocity of liquid in the pipe)
(A) v²/2g
(B) 0.5v²/2g
(C) 0.375v²/2g
(D) 0.75v²/2g
Answer: Option B

Question No. 454

The increase of temperature results in
(A) Increase in viscosity of gas
(B) Increase in viscosity of liquid
(C) Decrease in viscosity of gas
(D) Decrease in viscosity of liquid
Answer: Option D

Question No. 455

Which of the following is an example of laminar flow?
(A) Underground flow
(B) Flow past tiny bodies
(C) Flow of oil in measuring instruments
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 456

Re-entrant or Borda's mouthpiece is an __________ mouthpiece.
(A) Internal
(B) External
 (C) Both A and B
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 457

The product of mass and acceleration of flowing liquid is called
(A) Inertia force
(B) Viscous force
(C) Gravity force
(D) Pressure force
Answer: Option A

Question No. 458

The top of the weir over which the water flows is known as
(A) Sill or crest
(B) Nappe or vein
(C) Orifice
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 459

The meatcentric height is the distance between the
(A) Centre of gravity of the floating body and the centre of buoyancy
(B) Centre of gravity of the floating body and the metacentre
(C) Metacentre and centre of buoyancy
(D) Original centre of buoyancy and new centre of buoyancy
Answer: Option B

Question No. 460

The time oscillation of a floating body with increase in meatcentric height will be
(A) Same
(B) Higher
(C) Lower
(D) Lower/higher depending on weight of body
Answer: Option C

Question No. 461

The property of a liquid which offers resistance to the movement of one layer of liquid over
another adjacent layer of liquid, is called
(A) Surface tension
(B) Compressibility
(C) Capillarity
(D) Viscosity
Answer: Option D
Question No. 462
An internal mouthpiece is said to be running __________ if the length of the mouthpiece is more
than three times the diameter of the orifice.
(A) Free
(B) Partially
(C) Full
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 463

A manometer is used to measure
(A) Low pressure
(B) Moderate pressure
(C) High pressure
(D) Atmospheric pressure
Answer: Option C

Question No. 464

Which of the following meters is not associated with viscosity?
(A) Red wood
(B) Say bolt
(C) Engler
(D) Orsat
Answer: Option D

Question No. 465

The specific weight of water in S.I. units is taken as
(A) 9.81 kN/m3
(B) 9.81 × 103 N/m3
(C) 9.81 × 10-6 N/mm3
(D) Any one of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 466

The celerity (velocity) of a pressure wave in a fluid is given by (where K
Density of the fluid)
(A) K
(B) K
(C) K
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 467

A fluid having no viscosity is known as
(A) Real fluid
 (B) Ideal fluid
(C) Newtonian fluid
(D) Non-Newtonian fluid
Answer: Option B

Question No. 468

In order to avoid tendency of separation at throat in a Venturimeter, the ratio of the diameter at
throat to the diameter of pipe should be
(A) 1/16 to 1/8
(B) 1/8 to 1/4
(C) 1/4 to 1/3
(D) 1/3 to 1/2
Answer: Option D

Question No. 469

Liquids transmit pressure equally in all the directions. This is according to
(A) Boyle's law
(B) Archimedes principle
(C) Pascal's law
(D) Newton's formula
Answer: Option C

Question No. 470

The discharge over a triangular notch is
A) Inversely proportional to H3/2
B) Directly proportional to H3/2
C) Inversely proportional to H5/2
D) Directly proportional to H5/2
Answer: Option D

Question No. 471

A flow whose streamline is represented by a straight line, is called __________ dimensional flow.
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Answer: Option A

Question No. 472

The body will float if the force of buoyancy is __________ the weight of the liquid displaced.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) More than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 473
The velocity corresponding to Reynold number of 2000 is called
(A) Sub-sonic velocity
(B) Super-sonic velocity
(C) Lower critical velocity
(D) Higher critical velocity
Answer: Option C

Question No. 474

A structure, whose width is __________ the width of the channel, is called a flumed structure.
(A) Less than
(B) More than
(C) Equal
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 475

The force of buoyancy is always __________ the weight of the liquid displaced by the body.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) More than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 476

The density of water is 1000 kg/m3 at
(A) 0° C
(B) 0° K
(C) 4° C
(D) 20° C
Answer: Option C

Question No. 477

Bulk modulus of a fluid __________ as the pressure increases.
(A) Remain same
(B) Decreases
(C) Increases
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 478

The coefficient of viscosity may be determined by
(A) Capillary tube method
(B) Orifice type viscometer
(C) Rotating cylinder method
 (D) All of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 479

Center of pressure on an inclined plane is
(A) At the Centroid
(B) Above the Centroid
(C) Below the Centroid
(D) At metacentre
Answer: Option C

Question No. 480

When the Mach number is less than unity, the flow is called
(A) Sub-sonic flow
(B) Sonic flow
(C) Super-sonic flow
(D) Hyper-sonic flow
Answer: Option A

Question No. 481

When the pressure intensity at a point is more than the local atmospheric pressure, then the
difference of these two pressures is called
(A) Gauge pressure
(B) Absolute pressure
(C) Positive gauge pressure
(D) Vacuum pressure
Answer: Option C

Question No. 482

If the coefficient of discharge is 0.6, then the discharge over a right angled notch is
(A) 0.417 H5/2
(B) 1.417 H5/2
(C) 4.171 H5/2
(D) 7.141 H5/2
Answer: Option B

Question No. 483

The most efficient section of a channel is
(A) Triangular
(B) Rectangular
(C) Square
(D) Trapezoidal
Answer: Option D
Question No. 484
A pipe of length more than double the diameter of orifice fitted externally or internally to the
orifice is called a
(A) Notch
(B) Weir
(C) Mouthpiece
(D) Nozzle
Answer: Option C

Question No. 485

An open tank containing liquid is moving with an acceleration on an inclined plane. The inclination
of the free surface of the liquid will be __________ to the acceleration of the tank.
(A) Equal to
(B) Directly proportional
(C) Inversely proportional
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 486

The coefficient of discharge for an external mouthpiece is
(A) 0.375
(B) 0.5
(C) 0.707
(D) 0.855
Answer: Option D

Question No. 487

The process of diffusion of one liquid into the other through a semi permeable membrane is called
(A) Viscosity
(B) Osmosis
(C) Surface tension
(D) Cohesion
Answer: Option B

Question No. 488

One stoke is equal to
(A) 10-2 m2/s
(B) 10-3 m2/s
(C) 10-4 m2/s
(D) 10-6 m2/s
Answer: Option C

Question No. 489

Falling drops of water become spheres due to the property of
(A) Surface tension of water
 (B) Compressibility of water
(C) Capillarity of water
(D) Viscosity of water
Answer: Option A

Question No. 490

The specific gravity of an oil whose specific weight is 7.85 kN/m3, is
(A) 0.8
(B) 1
(C) 1.2
(D) 1.6
Answer: Option A

Question No. 491

The length of the divergent cone in a Venturimeter is __________ that of the convergent cone.
(A) Equal to
(B) Double
(C) Three to four times
(D) Five to six times
Answer: Option C

Question No. 492

If a body floating in a liquid returns back to its original position, when given a small angular
displacement, the body is said to be in
(A) Neutral equilibrium
(B) Stable equilibrium
(C) Unstable equilibrium
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 493

The stress-strain relation of the Newtonian fluid is
(A) Linear
(B) Parabolic
(C) Hyperbolic
(D) Inverse type
Answer: Option A

Question No. 494

The viscosity of a liquid __________ its rate of flow through a hole in a vessel.
(A) Effects
(B) Does not effect
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 495
The coefficient of discharge in case of internal mouthpiece is __________ that of external
mouthpiece.
(A) Less than
(B) More than
(C) Equal to
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 496

The unit of surface tension is
(A) N/m
(B) N/m2
(C) N/m3
(D) N-m
Answer: Option A

Question No. 497

The units of dynamic or absolute viscosity are
(A) Metres² per sec
(B) kg sec/meter
(C) Newton-sec per meter
(D) Newton-sec² per meter
Answer: Option C

Question No. 498

A notch is used to measure __________ of liquids.
(A) Pressure
(B) Discharge
(C) Velocity
(D) Volume
Answer: Option B

Question No. 499

Euler's number is the ratio of __________ force to pressure force.
(A) Inertia
(B) Gravity
(C) Viscous
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 500

A flow in which the volume of a fluid and its density does not change during the flow is called
_________ flow.
(A) Incompressible
 (B) Compressible
(C) Viscous
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 501

The weight per unit volume of a liquid at a standard temperature and pressure is called
(A) Specific weight
(B) Mass density
(C) Specific gravity
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 502

The efficiency of power transmission through pipe is (where H = Total supply head, and hf = Head
lost due to friction in the pipe)
(A) (H - hf )/H
(B) H/(H - hf )
(C) (H + hf )/H
(D) H/(H + hf )
Answer: Option A

Question No. 503

The error in discharge (dQ/Q) to the error in measurement of head (dH/H) over a rectangular
notch is given by
(A) dQ/Q = (1/2) × (dH/H)
(B) dQ/Q = (3/4) × (dH/H)
(C) dQ/Q = (dH/H)
(D) dQ/Q = (3/2) × (dH/H)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 504

The flow of water through the hole in the bottom of a wash basin is an example of
(A) Steady flow
(B) Uniform flow
(C) Free vortex
(D) Forced vortex
Answer: Option C

Question No. 505

A flow in which the viscosity of fluid is dominating over the inertia force is called
(A) Steady flow
(B) Unsteady flow
(C) Laminar flow
(D) Turbulent flow
 Answer: Option C

Question No. 506

The hydraulic mean depth or the hydraulic radius is the ratio of
(A) Area of flow and wetted perimeter
(B) Wetted perimeter and diameter of pipe
(C) Velocity of flow and area of flow
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 507

A flow whose streamline is represented by a curve, is called
(A) One-dimensional flow
(B) Two-dimensional flow
(C) Three-dimensional flow
(D) Four-dimensional flow
Answer: Option B

Question No. 508

The value of coefficient of discharge is __________ the value of coefficient of velocity.
(A) Less than
(B) Same as
(C) More than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 509

The hydraulic mean depth for a circular pipe of diameter (d) is
(A) d/6
(B) d/4
(C) d/2
(D) d
Answer: Option B

Question No. 510

A fluid whose viscosity does not change with the rate of deformation or shear strain is known as
(A) Real fluid
(B) Ideal fluid
(C) Newtonian fluid
(D) Non-Newtonian fluid
Answer: Option C

Question No. 511

Barometer is used to measure
(A) Velocity of liquid
 (B) Atmospheric pressure
(C) Pressure in pipes and channels
(D) Difference of pressure between two points in a pipe
Answer: Option B

Question No. 512

An error of 1% in measuring head over the crest of the notch (H) will produce an error of
__________ in discharge over a triangular notch,
(A) 1 %
(B) 1.5 %
(C) 2 %
(D) 2.5 %
Answer: Option D

Question No. 513

The coefficient of venturi-flume, generally, lies between
(A) 0.3 to 0.45
(B) 0.50 to 0.75
(C) 0.75 to 0.95
(D) 0.95 to 1.0
Answer: Option D

Question No. 514

A flow in which the quantity of liquid flowing per second is not constant, is called
(A) Streamline flow
(B) Turbulent flow
(C) Steady flow
(D) Unsteady flow
Answer: Option D

Question No. 515

The specific gravity of water is taken as
(A) 0.001
(B) 0.01
(C) 0.1
(D) 1
Answer: Option D
 Fluid Mechanics: Test 01

01. When the pressure intensity at a point is less than the local atmospheric pressure, then the
difference of these two pressures is called vacuum pressure.
A) Agree
B) Disagree

02. The ratio of the inertia force to the gravity force is called Froude number.
A) Agree
B) Disagree

03. If a pitot tube is placed with its nose upstream, downstream or sideways, the reading will be
the same in every case.
A) True
B) False

04. A body floating in a liquid is said to be in a stable equilibrium, if its metacentre coincides with
its centre of gravity.
A) True
B) False

05. The flow in a pipe is laminar, when Reynold number is less than 2000.
A) True
B) False

06. According to Pascal's law, the intensity of pressure at any point in a fluid at rest is the same in
all directions.
A) Agree
B) Disagree

07. The line of action of the force of buoyancy acts through the centre of gravity of the volume of
the liquid displaced.
A) True
B) False

08. The vacuum pressure can be measured with the help of a Piezometer tube.
A) True
B) False

09. According to Bazin, the coefficient of discharge varies with the height of water over the sill of a
weir.
A) Correct
B) Incorrect
10. If the value of coefficient of discharge increases, the discharge through the orifice decreases.
A) True
B) False

11. The D-Alembert's principle is used for changing the dynamic equilibrium of a fluid mass, into a
static equilibrium.
A) Agree
B) Disagree

12. The flow at critical depth in an open channel is called torrential flow.
A) Yes
B) No

13. In a sharp-crested weir, the thickness of the weir is kept less than half of the height of water
above the crest of the weir.
A) True
B) False

14. The velocity of liquid flowing through an orifice varies with the available head of the liquid.
A) Agree
B) Disagree

15. When an internal mouthpiece is running full, the discharge through the mouthpiece is twice
the discharge when it is running free.
A) Correct
B) Incorrect

16. Surface tension force is the product of surface tension per unit length and cross-sectional area
of flow.
A) Correct
B) Incorrect

17. When a body is placed over a liquid, it is subjected to gravitational force and upthrust of the
liquid.
A) True
B) False

18. The property of a liquid which enables it to resist tensile stress is called its surface tension.
A) Agree
B) Disagree

19. In the manufacturing of lead shots, the property of surface tension is utilised.
A) Agree
B) Disagree
20. The coefficient of discharge is the ratio of theoretical discharge to the actual discharge through
an orifice.
A) True
B) False

Answers: Fluid Mechanics Test 01

01. Answer: Option A 02. Answer: Option A 03. Answer: Option B 04. Answer: Option B
05. Answer: Option A 06. Answer: Option A 07. Answer: Option A 08. Answer: Option B
09. Answer: Option A 10. Answer: Option B 11. Answer: Option A 12. Answer: Option B
13. Answer: Option A 14. Answer: Option A 15. Answer: Option B 16. Answer: Option B
17. Answer: Option A 18. Answer: Option A 19. Answer: Option A 20. Answer: Option B

Fluid Mechanics: Test 02

01. Whenever a plate is held immersed at some angle with the direction of flow of the liquid, it is
subjected to some pressure. The component of this pressure, at right angles to the direction of
flow of the liquid is known as lift.
A) True
B) False

02. A flow in which each liquid particle does not have a definite path and the paths of individual
particles also cross each other is called turbulent flow.
A) Agree
B) Disagree

03. If an incompressible liquid is continuously flowing through a pipe, the quantity of liquid
passing per second is different at different sections.
A) True
B) False

04. The total pressure on the bottom of a closed cylindrical vessel completely filled up with a
liquid is the sum of the total centrifugal pressure and the weight of the liquid in the vessel.
A) Correct
B) Incorrect

05. In an internal mouthpiece, if the jet after contraction expands and fills up the whole
mouthpiece, then the mouthpiece is said to be running free.
A) True
B) False
06. A body floating in a liquid is said to be not in equilibrium if its metacentre lies below its centre
of gravity.
A) Agree
B) Disagree

07. A closed tank is completely filled with an oil. If it is made to move with a horizontal
acceleration, then the pressure at the back end will be more than that at the front end.
A) Correct
B) Incorrect

08. The difference between the notch and weir is that the notch is of bigger size and the weir is of
a smaller size.
A) Agree
B) Disagree

09. The rise, in water level, which occurs during the transformation of the unstable shooting flow
to the stable streaming flow is called hydraulic jump.
A) Yes
B) No

10. In an external or internal mouthpiece, the absolute pressure head at vena contracta is zero
when atmospheric pressure head is 10.3 m of water.
A) Correct
B) Incorrect

11. If a body floating in a liquid does not return back to its original position and heels farther
"away when given a small angular displacement, the body is said to be in neutral equilibrium.
A) Yes
B) No

12. The tendency of a liquid to uplift a submerged body, because of the upward thrust of the
liquid, is known as buoyancy.
A) Agree
B) Disagree

13. The centre of buoyancy is the centre of area of the immersed body.
A) Correct
B) Incorrect

14. When the pipes are in series, the total head loss is equal to the sum of the head loss in each
pipe
A) Yes
B) No

15. The hydraulic gradient line may be above or below the centre line of the pipe.
 A) True
B) False

16. When a tube of smaller diameter is dipped in water, the water rises in the tube due to
viscosity of water.
A) True
B) False

17. In a Venturimeter, the velocity of liquid at throat is __________ than at inlet.

A) Higher
B) Lower

18. A flow through an expanding tube at increasing rate is called unsteady non-uniform flow.
A) Yes
B) No

19. The water hammer in pipes occurs due to sudden change in the velocity of flowing liquid
A) Agree
B) Disagree

20. The hydraulic gradient line is always parallel to the centre line of the pipe.
A) Correct
B) Incorrect

Answers: Fluid Mechanics Test 02

01. Answer: Option A 02. Answer: Option A 03. Answer: Option B 04. Answer: Option A
05. Answer: Option B 06. Answer: Option A 07. Answer: Option A 08. Answer: Option B
09. Answer: Option A 10. Answer: Option A 11. Answer: Option B 12. Answer: Option A
13. Answer: Option A 14. Answer: Option A 15. Answer: Option B 16. Answer: Option B
17. Answer: Option A 18. Answer: Option A 19. Answer: Option A 20. Answer: Option B

Fluid Mechanics: Test03

01. In a convergent mouthpiece, the absolute pressure head at vena contracta is the same as that
of the atmosphere.
A) True
B) False

02. The separation of flow occurs when the hydrodynamic boundary layer thickness is reduced to
zero.
A) Agree
 B) Disagree

03. A fluid whose viscosity changes with the rate of deformation or shear strain is known as Non-
Newtonian fluid.
A) True
B) False

04. All the gases are considered to have compressible flow and all the liquids are considered to
have incompressible flow.
A) Correct
B) Incorrect

05. When the end contractions of the weir are suppressed, then number of end contractions (n)
are taken as zero.
A) Agree
B) Disagree

06. The formula for discharge over a sharp-crested weir and Ogee weir is same as that of a
rectangular weir.
A) Agree
B) Disagree

07. The ratio of the inertia force to the surface tension force is called Weber's number.
A) Correct
B) Incorrect

08. The ratio of velocity of fluid in an undisturbed stream to the velocity of sound wave is known
as Mach number.
A) Yes
B) No

09. The loss of head due to an obstruction in a pipe is twice the loss of head at its entrance.
A) Agree
B) Disagree

10. The specific gravity has no units.

A) Agree
B) Disagree

11. The velocity at which the turbulent flow starts is known as higher critical velocity.
A) Yes
B) No

12. Kinematic viscosity is the product of dynamic viscosity and the density of the liquid.
A) Yes
 B) No

13. A venturi flume is a flumed structure constructed across a channel by restricting its width.
A) True
B) False

14. A siphon is used to connect two reservoirs at different levels intervened by a high ridge.
A) True
B) False

15. The depth of water in a channel corresponding to the minimum specific energy is known as
critical depth.
A) Agree
B) Disagree

16. The shear stress-strain graph for a Non-Newtonian fluid is a curve.

A) Correct
B) Incorrect

17. The specific weight of compressible fluids does not remain constant.
A) True
B) False

18. The reciprocal of Euler's number is called Newton number.

A) Yes
B) No

19. The density of a liquid in kg/m3 is numerically equal to its specific gravity.
A) True
B) False

20. The velocity of flow is same at all points in the cross-section of a channel.
A) True
B) False

Answers: Fluid Mechanics Test 03

01. Answer: Option A 02. Answer: Option A 03. Answer: Option A 04. Answer: Option A
05. Answer: Option A 06. Answer: Option A 07. Answer: Option A 08. Answer: Option A
09. Answer: Option A 10. Answer: Option A 11. Answer: Option A 12. Answer: Option B
13. Answer: Option A 14. Answer: Option A 15. Answer: Option A 16. Answer: Option A
17. Answer: Option A 18. Answer: Option A 19. Answer: Option A 20. Answer: Option B
 Hydrology and Water Resources Engineering

Question No. 01
Generally the weir is aligned at right angles to the direction of the main river current because
(A) It ensures less length of the weir
(B) It gives better discharging capacity
(C) It is economical
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 02
A straight glacis type fall with a baffle platform and a baffle wall is called
(A) Vertical drop-fall
(B) Glacis fall
(C) Montague type fall
(D) Inglis fall
Answer: Option D

Question No. 03
The meander pattern of a river is developed by
(A) Average discharge
(B) Dominant discharge
(C) Maximum discharge
(D) Critical discharge
Answer: Option B

Question No. 04
The ratio of the average load to the installed capacity of the plant whose reserve capacity is zero
will be equal to
(A) Load factor
(B) Plant factor
(C) Utilisation factor
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 05
The most suitable chemical which can be applied to the water surface for reducing evaporation is
(A) Methyl alcohol
(B) Ethyl alcohol
(C) Cetyl alcohol
(D) Butyl alcohol
Answer: Option C
Question No. 06
The shape of recession limb of a hydrograph depends upon
(A) Basin characteristics only
(B) Storm characteristics only
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 07
If the critical shear stress of a channel is XC, then the average value of shear stress required to
move the grain on the bank is
(A) 0.5 XC
(B) 0.75 TC
(C) XC
(D) 1.33 TC
Answer: Option B

Question No. 08
The flow of water after spilling over the weir crest in chute spillway and side channel spillway
respectively are
(A) At right angle and parallel to weir crest
(B) Parallel and at right angle to weir crest
(C) Parallel to weir crest in both
(D) At right angle to weir crest in both
Answer: Option A

Question No. 09
Hydrodynamic pressure due to earthquake acts at a height of
(A) 3H/4 above the base
(B) 3H/4 below the water surface
(C) 4H/3 above the base
(D) 4H below the water surface, where H is the depth of water.
Answer: Option C

Question No. 10
Select the correct statement.
(A) A meander increases the river length but a cut off reduces the river length
(B) A cut-off increases the river length but a meander reduces the river length
(C) Both meander and cut-off increase the river length
(D) Both meander and cut-off decrease the river length
Answer: Option A

Question No. 11
Select the incorrect statement.
(A) Intensive irrigation should be avoided in areas susceptible to water logging
 (B) Extensive irrigation should be adopted in areas susceptible to water logging
(C) Lift irrigation increases water logging
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 12
In India, which of the following is adopted as standard recording rain-gauge?
(A) -gauge
(B) Tipping bucket type
(C) Natural syphon type
(D) Weighing bucket type
Answer: Option C

Question No. 13
The flow-mass curve is graphical representation of
(A) Cumulative discharge and time
(B) Discharge and percentage probability of flow being equalled or exceeded
(C) Cumulative discharge, volume and time in chronological order
(D) Discharge and time in chronological order
Answer: Option C

Question No. 14
Main purpose of mean water training for rivers is
(A) Flood control
(B) To provide sufficient depth of water in navigable channels, during low water periods
(C) To preserve the channel in good shape by efficient disposal of suspended and bed load
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 15
A divide wall is provided
(A) At right angle to the axis of weir
(B) Parallel to the axis of weir and upstream of it
(C) Parallel to the axis of weir and downstream of it
(D) At an inclination to the axis of weir
Answer: Option A

Question No. 16
Isohyets are the imaginary lines joining the points of equal
(A) Pressure
(B) Height
(C) Humidity
(D) Rainfall
Answer: Option D
Question No. 17

(A) Directly proportional to average particle size

(B) Inversely proportional to average particle size
(C) Directly proportional to square root of average particle size
(D) Not related to average particle size
Answer: Option C

Question No. 18
The time required by rain water to reach the outlet of drainage basin, is generally called
(A) Time of concentration
(B) Time of overland flow
(C) Concentration time of overland flow
(D) Duration of the rainfall
Answer: Option A

Question No. 19
Which of the following is a flexible outlet?
(A) Submerged pipe outlet
(B)
(C)
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 20
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The specified duration of unit hydrograph, is called unit duration
(B) The rain during specified duration, is called unit storm
(C) The number of unit hydrographs for a given basin, is theoretically infinite
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 21
The drainage water intercepting the canal can be disposed of by passing the canal below the
drainage in
(A) Aqueduct and syphon aqueduct
(B) Aqueduct and super passage
(C) Super passage and canal syphon
(D) Level crossing
Answer: Option C

Question No. 22
River training for depth is achieved by
(A) Groynes
(B) Construction of dykes or leaves
 (C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Groynes and bandalling
Answer: Option D

Question No. 23
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) A confined bed of impervious material laid over an aquifer, is known as an aquiclude
(B) The top most water bearing strata having no aquifer, is known as non-artesian aquifer
(C) The ordinary gravity wells which supply water from the top most water bearing strata, are
called water table wells
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 24
The rate of rainfall for successive 10 minute periods of a 60 minute duration storm, are shown in
the below figure. If the value of index is 3 cm/hour, the runoff will be

(A) 2 cm
(B) 3 cm
(C) 4 cm
(D) 5 cm
Answer: Option B

Question No. 25
A land is known as waterlogged
(A) When the permanent wilting point is reached
(B) When gravity drainage has ceased
(C) Capillary fringe reaches the root zone of plants
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 26
Boston society of Civil Engineer's formula Q = 0.0056 × (D/t) in cumecs/square km is based upon
(A) Rainfall and drainage area
 (B) Total run off and drainage area
(C) Drainage area and its shape
(D) Drainage area
Answer: Option B

Question No. 27
A hyetograph is a graphical representation of
(A) Rainfall intensity and time
(B) Rainfall depth and time
(C) Discharge and time
(D) Cumulative rainfall and time
Answer: Option A

Question No. 28
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Hydrograph is a plot of discharge and time
(B) In hydrographs, time is plotted on X-axis
(C) The maximum flow in the river due to rainfall, is called peak flow
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 29
Which of the following methods is used to estimate flood discharge based on high water marks
left over in the past?
(A) Slope-area method
(B) Area-velocity method
(C) Moving boat method
(D) Ultrasonic method
Answer: Option A

Question No. 30
If the dew point is greater than 0°C
(A) Dew will be formed
(B) Frost will be formed
(C) Vapours will be formed
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 31
For a catchment area of 120 km², the equilibrium discharge in m3/hour of a Scurve obtained by
the summation of 6 hour unit hydro graph is
(A) 0.2 × 106
(B) 0.6 × 106
(C) 2.4 × 106
(D) 7.2 × 106
 Answer: Option A

Question No. 32
The specifications of most commonly used standard gauges in India, are
(A) 200 sq. cm collector and 4 litres bottle
(B) 100 sq. cm collector and 2 litres bottle
(C) 200 sq. cm collector and 10 litres bottle
(D) 100 sq. cm collector and 4 litres bottle
Answer: Option A

Question No. 33
For an annual flood series arranged in descending order of magnitude, the return for a magnitude
in a total is
(A) N/(m + l)
(B) m/(N + l)
(C) m/N
(D) (N + l)/m
Answer: Option D

Question No. 34
A control meter is preferred to a weir because
(A) It measures the discharge even in silt Leiden streams
(B) The velocity of approach of the channel increases above the control, and thus removes the
silt completely
(C) It is not damaged by floating debris
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 35
The uplift pressure on the face of a drainage gallery in a dam is taken as
(A) Hydrostatic pressure at toe
(B) Average of hydrostatic pressure at toe and heel
(C) Two-third of hydrostatic pressure at toe plus one-third of hydrostatic pressure at heel
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 36
The elevation Z of the watershed is: (where letters carry their usual meanings)
(A) Reduced level of the top most point of the basin
(B) Reduced level of the lower most point of the basin
(C) Average elevation of the highest and lowest point of the drainage basin
(D) Obtained by the formula Z = + + + anzn)/A
Answer: Option D
Question No. 37
As compared to gravity dams, earthen dams
(A) Are costlier
(B) Are less susceptible to failure
(C) Require sound rock foundations
(D) Require less skilled labour
Answer: Option D

Question No. 38
The radius of influence is
(A) Radius of the main well
(B) Distance from the wall of main well to the point of zero draw down
(C) Distance from the centre of main well to the point of zero draw down
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 39
In case of non-availability of space due to topography, the most suitable spillway is
(A) Straight drop spillway
(B) Shaft spillway
(C) Chute spillway
(D) Ogee spillway
Answer: Option B

Question No. 40
h flood estimate, is useful only for the catchments in
(A) Southern India
(B) Northern India
(C) Eastern India
(D) Western India
Answer: Option B

Question No. 41
Silt excluders are constructed on the
(A) River bed upstream of head regulator
(B) River bed downstream of head regulator
(C) Canal bed upstream of head regulator
(D) Canal bed downstream of head regulator
Answer: Option A

Question No. 42
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Rivers, lakes, oceans and springs get water from the rains
(B) Rain water is obtained by evaporation from rivers, lakes and oceans
(C) Water remains in atmosphere as vapours
 (D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 43
For a proportional outlet, the flexibility is
(A) Zero
(B) Between zero and 1
(C) 1
(D) Greater than 1
Answer: Option C

Question No. 44
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The portion of pellicular water which remains unutilised, is called hygroscopic water
(B) The moisture content at which permanent wilting of plants takes place, is called the wilting
point
(C) The moisture deficiency will be different at different points
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 45
The aqueduct or super-passage type of works are generally used when
(A) High flood drainage discharge is small
(B) High flood drainage discharge is large and short lived
(C) High flood drainage discharge is large and continues for a long time
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 46
If a gauge is installed perpendicular to the slope, its measurement is reduced by multiplying
(A) Sine of the angle of inclination with vertical
(B) Cosine of the angle of inclination with vertical
(C) Tangent of the angle of inclination with vertical
(D) Calibration coefficient of the gauge
Answer: Option B

Question No. 47
A river training work is generally required when the river is
(A) Aggrading type
(B) Degrading type
(C) Meandering type
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Answer: Option C
Question No. 48
From the Survey of India map, the distance of the critical point is 20 km and difference in elevation
is 193 m. The over land flow time, is
(A) 2 hours
(B) 3 hours
(C) 2 hours and 30 minutes
(D) 4 hours
Answer: Option D

Question No. 49
The maximum average depth due to one day storm over an area of 100 km² is 100 mm. Depth-
Area-Duration (DAD) curves indicate the same area of 100 km² the maximum average depth for a
3 hour storm will be
(A) 100 mm
(B) More than 100 mm
(C) Less than 100 mm
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 50
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Perched aquifer is found in unconfined aquifer
(B) The top surface of the water held in the perched aquifer, is known as perched water table
(C) Perched aquifer is formed in unfined acquirer if an impervious layer exists
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 51
The stream which does not have any base flow contribution is called
(A) Perennial stream
(B) Intermittent stream
(C) Ephemeral stream
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 52
Non-recording rain gauges
(A) Collect the rain whose volume is measured by means of graduated cylinders
(B) Collect the rain which is directly measured by means of graduated cylinders in centimetres
of water depth
(C) Are generally used in hilly terrain
(D) Are cylindrical in shape
Answer: Option B
Question No. 53

method requires the following data pertaining annual flood series

(i) Mean value
(ii) Standard deviation
(iii) Length of record
(iv) Coefficient of skew
The correct answer is
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i),(i) and (iii)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: Option B

Question No. 54
From the pattern of the rainfall shown in the below figure, the total precipitation is

(A) 4 cm
(B) 4.5 cm
(C) 5 cm
(D) 5.5 cm
Answer: Option D

Question No. 55
The uplift pressure on a dam can be controlled by
(i) Constructing cut-off under upstream face
(ii) Constructing drainage channels between the dam and its foundation
(iii) By pressure grouting in foundation
The correct answer is
(A) Only (i)
(B) Both (i) and (ii)
(C) Both (i) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer: Option D
Question No. 56
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The zone below water table, is called zone of saturation
(B) The zone above water table, is called zone of aeration
(C) The water which exists in the zone of saturation, is called ground water
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 57
The most suitable material for the central impervious core of a zoned embankment type dam is
(A) Clay
(B) Coarse sand
(C) Silty clay
(D) Clay mixed with fine sand
Answer: Option D

Question No. 58
Phytometer method is generally used for the measurement of
(A) Interception
(B) Evaporation
(C) Transpiration
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 59
If there are two canals taking off from each flank of a river, then there will be
(A) One divides wall and one under-sluice
(B) One divides wall and two under-sluices
(C) Two divide walls and one under-sluice
(D) Two divide walls and two under-sluices
Answer: Option D

Question No. 60
Knowledge of hydrology is necessary for civil engineers for
(A) Designing and construction of irrigation structures
(B) Designing and construction of bridges and culverts
(C) Flood control works
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 61

(A) 19 m
(B) 38 m
(C) 57 m
 (D) 76 m
Answer: Option B

Question No. 62
The equation P - Q = Te index for determining the infiltration capacity, was suggested by
(A) Horton
(B) Horner
(C) Lloyd
(D) Bernard
Answer: Option A

Question No. 63
Which of the following canal outlets maintains a constant discharge?
(A) Non-modular outlet
(B) Flexible outlet
(C) Rigid module
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 64
Pick up correct statement from the following:
(A) The air from outer portion of cyclones gets lifted for causing precipitation
(B) The air from central portion of cyclone's gets lifted for causing precipitation
(C) The air from entire surface of the cyclones gets lifted for causing precipitation
(D) None of those
Answer: Option B

Question No. 65
Tortuosity of a meandering river is always
(A) Equal to 1
(B) Less than 1
(C) Greater than 1
(D) Less than or equal to 1
Answer: Option C

Question No. 66
Sharp crested weirs are generally used
(A) For large flows
(B) For small flows
(C) For streams carrying high sediment loads
(D) For rivers carrying floating debris
Answer: Option A

Question No. 67
A runoff river plant is
 (A) A low head scheme
(B) A medium head scheme
(C) A high head scheme
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 68
If the axial length of a drainage basin is 35 km and its form factor is 0.2, the total area of the basin
is
(A) 205 sq. km.
(B) 215 sq. km.
(C) 225 sq. km.
(D) 245 sq. km.
Answer: Option D

Question No. 69
Interception losses are due to
(i) Evaporation
(ii) Transpiration
(iii) Stream flow
The correct answer is
(A) Only (i)
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer: Option A

Question No. 70
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The ratio of total volume of voids in soil aggregates to the total volume of aggregate, is
called Porosity
(B) Water retained by the interstices due to molecular attraction, is called pellicular water
(C) Sum of the percentage of specific yield and specific retention is 100
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 71
Instantaneous unit hydrograph is a hydrograph of
(i) Unit duration
(ii) Unit rainfall excess
(iii) Infinitely small duration
(iv) Infinitely small rainfall excess
The correct answer is
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i) and (iv)
 (C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (iii) and (iv)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 72
If the loss due to friction in pipes is 4 m, the total losses in strainer and bends may be taken as
(A) 0.10 m
(B) 0.20 m
(C) 0.5 m
(D) 1.0 m
Answer: Option D

Question No. 73
From the data of the rain storm shown in the below figure, the value of Windex is

(A) 1.5 cm/hour

(B) 2 cm/hour
(C) 2.5 cm/hour
(D) 3 cm/hour
Answer: Option C

Question No. 74
Horizontal acceleration due to earthquake results in
(A) Hydrodynamic pressure
(B) Inertia force into the body of the dam
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 75
Water contains
(A) One hydrogen atom and one oxygen atom
(B) Two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom
(C) One hydrogen atom and two oxygen atoms
 (D) Three hydrogen atoms and two oxygen atoms
Answer: Option B

Question No. 76
For wave action in dams, the maximum height of freeboard is generally taken to be equal to
(A) 0.5 hw
(B) 0.75 hw
(C) 1.25 hw
(D) 1.50 hw

Answer: Option D

Question No. 77
Infiltration capacity of soil depends upon
(A) Number of voids present in the soil
(B) Shape and size of soil particles
(C) Arrangement of soil particles
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 78
Which of the following spillways is least suitable for an earthen dam?
(A) Ogee spillway
(B) Chute spillway
(C) Side channel spillway
(D) Shaft spillway
Answer: Option A

Question No. 79
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Absolute humidity at a given temperature is equal to weight of moisture present in a unit
volume
(B) Relative humidity is the ratio of actual vapour pressure and saturation vapour pressure at
the same temperature
(C) Relative humidity is the ratio of the weight of the vapours present per unit volume to the
weight of vapours which could be contained at the same temperature when fully saturated
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 80
the exit gradient in the absence of a downstream cut-off is
(A) 0
(B) Unity
(C) Infinity
(D) Very large
 Answer: Option C

Question No. 81
In India the recording type rain gauge generally used, is
(A) Weighing type
(B) Tipping type
(C) Float recording type
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 82
Which of the following can be used as a meter fall?
(A) Vertical drop fall
(B) Flumed glacis fall
(C) Unflumed glacis fall
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 83
The critical depth in a channel can be produced
(A) By raising the bottom of the channel
(B) By lowering the bottom of the channel
(C) By decreasing the width of the channel
(D) Both (a) and (c) of above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 84
The main cause of meandering is
(A) Presence of an excessive bed slope in the river
(B) Degradation
(C) The extra turbulence generated by the excess of river sediment during floods
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 85
The run off a drainage basin is
(A) Initial recharge + ground water accretion + precipitation
(B) Precipitation + ground water accretion + initial recharge
(C) Precipitation - ground water accretion + initial recharge
(D) Precipitation - ground water accretion - initial recharge
Answer: Option D

Question No. 86
The net speed under which the turbine reaches its peak efficiency is called
(A) Design speed
 (B) Rated speed
(C) Gross speed
(D) Operating speed
Answer: Option A

Question No. 87
The quantity of water retained by the sub-soil against gravity, is known
(A) Yield
(B) Porosity
(C) Specific yield
(D) Specific retention
Answer: Option D

Question No. 88
To determine the discharge at a section in a stream from its rating curve, the required data are
(i) Slope of water surface at the section
(ii) Stage at the section
(ii) Current meter readings at the section
The correct answer is
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) Only (ii)
(D) Only (iii)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 89
In the derivation of Thiem's formula, Q = (S1 - S2)/[2.3 log10( / )] the following assumption is
not applicable
(A) The aquifer is homogeneous and isotropic
(B) Flow lines are radial and horizontal
(C) The slope of the water surface is too small
(D) The well has been sunk up to the surface of the unconfined aquifer
Answer: Option D

Question No. 90
The peak of a 4 hour flood hydrograph is 240 m3/sec. If the rainfall excess is 80 mm and base flow
which is constant is 40 m3/sec, peak of 4hours unit hydrograph will be
(A) 20 m3/sec
(B) 25 m3/sec
(C) 30 m3/sec
(D) 35 m3/sec
Answer: Option B

Question No. 91
For the estimate of high floods in fan-shaped catchment, the formula used is
 (A) Dicken's formula
(B) Ryve's formula
(C) Inglis formula
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 92
The major resisting force in a gravity dam is
(A) Water pressure
(B) Wave pressure
(C) Self-weight of dam
(D) Uplift pressure
Answer: Option C

Question No. 93
Hydrograph is a graphical representation of
(A) Surface run off
(B) Ground water flow
(C) Rain fall
(D) Discharge flowing in the river
Answer: Option D

Question No. 94
Seepage through embankments in an earthen dam is controlled by
(A) Drainage filters
(B) Relief wells
(C) Drain trenches
(D) Provision of downstream berms
Answer: Option C

Question No. 95
Indian Meteorological department uses the standard gauges whose collectors have apertures of
(A) 50 or 100 sq. cm area
(B) 100 or 150 sq. cm area
(C) 100 or 200 sq. cm area
(D) 250 or 500 sq. cm area
Answer: Option C

Question No. 96
The main function of a divide wall is to
(A) Control the silt entry in the canal
(B) Prevent river floods from entering the canal
(C) Separate the under-sluices from weir proper
(D) Provide smooth flow at sufficiently low velocity
Answer: Option C
Question No. 97
The rainfall at any place is described by
(A) Its intensity
(B) Its duration
(C) Its frequency
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 98
The sensitivity of a rigid module is
(A) Zero
(B) Between zero and one
(C) 1
(D) Infinity
Answer: Option A

Question No. 99
Discharge curve may be extended by logarithmic method if
(A) Cross section of river is uniform
(B) River is broader and shallower
(C) River is of any type
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 100

An aggrading river is a
(A) Silting river
(B) Scouring river
(C) Both silting and scouring river
(D) Neither silting nor scouring river
Answer: Option A

Question No. 101

Izzard formula for the time of concentration in minutes for the plots having no channels, is
(where Lo is the length of overland flow in metres and Kp rainfall intensity in cm/hour)
(A) T = 111 b. L01/3/(Kp)2/3
(B) T = 222 b. L01/2/(Kp)1/3
(C) T = 333 b. L0/Kp
(D) T = 111 b. L01/3/(Kp)2/5
Answer: Option A

Question No. 102

Lining of irrigation channels
(A) Increases the water-logging area
(B) Decreases the water-logging area
 (C) Does not change the water logging area
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 103

The equation V = (1000 ID10²/60) × (1.8T + 42) which is used for determining the velocity of ground
water flow in metres per day is known as
(A) Meinzer's formula
(B) Slichter's formula
(C) Darcy's formula
(D) Hazen formula
Answer: Option D

Question No. 104

The stage of river carrying a discharge of Q m/sec at a point is 10 m and slope of water surface is
(1/4000). The discharge of a flood same point and same stage of 10 m with a water surface slope
of (1/1000) will be
(A) 3
/sec
(B) 0.5 Q m3/sec
(C) 2 Q m3/sec
(D) 4 Q m3/sec
Answer: Option C

Question No. 105

In the estimate of design flood, Dickens assumes that high flood in cumecs, is proportional to
catchment area raised to the power
(A) 1/4
(B) 1/2
(C) 3/4
(D) 2/3
Answer: Option C

Question No. 106

When the reservoir is full, the maximum compressive force in a gravity dam is produced
(A) At the toe
(B) At the heel
(C) Within the middle third of base
(D) At centre of base
Answer: Option A

Question No. 107

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Yield of a drainage basin is the run off at any time
(B) Yield of a drainage basin is the run off over long periods
(C) Yield of a drainage basin is expressed as surface run off per year
 (D) Run off is expressed as total volume per day
Answer: Option B

Question No. 108

For the upstream face of an earthen dam, the most adverse condition for stability of slope is
(A) Sudden drawdown
(B) Steady seepage
(C) During construction
(D) Sloughing of slope
Answer: Option A

Question No. 109

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) If ground water enters the channel, the channel is known as effluent channel
(B) If water goes out of channel to meet ground water, the channel is said to be influent stream
(C) If the water table is at higher level than the water level in channel, ground water flows to
the stream
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 110

Vertical drop fall is satisfactory for a height upto
(A) 0.5 m
(B) 1.5 m
(C) 3.5 m
(D) 5.0 m
Answer: Option B

Question No. 111

Precipitation caused due to striking of air masses with a topographical feature, is called
(A) Orographic precipitation
(B) Convective precipitation
(C) Cyclonic precipitation
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 112

If D is the depth of scour below original bed, then the width of launching apron is generally taken
as
(A) 1.2 D
(B) 1.5 D
(C) 2.0 D
(D) 2.5 D
Answer: Option B
Question No. 113
For efficient working of a control meter, its throat length is approximately kept
(A) Equal to the critical depth
(B) Twice the critical depth
(C) Three times the critical depth
(D) Four times the critical depth
Answer: Option C

Question No. 114

The net head under which the turbine reaches its peak efficiency at synchronous speed is called
(A) Design head
(B) Rated head
(C) Gross head
(D) Operating head
Answer: Option A

Question No. 115

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The unit hydrograph of a specified unit duration obtained from the past data can be used to
obtain the hydrograph of future storms of like duration
(B) To obtain the ordinates of storm hydrograph, the ordinates of unit hydrograph are
multiplied by the multiplying factor
(C) The multiplying factor for storm hydrograph may be obtained by dividing the run off in mm
by 25 mm
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 116

A unit hydro graph has one unit of
(A) Rainfall duration
(B) Rainfall excess
(C) Time base of direct runoff
(D) Discharge
Answer: Option B

Question No. 117

When a constant discharge 2.91 litres/sec. was obtained in a pumping test, the draw downs in the
test wells at 3 m and 6.184 m were 2.6 m and 0.3 m respectively. If over-all depth of the pumping
well was 16 m, the permeability of the soil, is
(A) 0.0005 cm/sec
(B) 0.001 cm/sec
(C) 0.002 cm/sec
(D) 0.01 cm/sec
Answer: Option B
Question No. 118
The maximum permissible eccentricity for no tension at the base of a gravity dam is
(A) B/2
(B) B/3
(C) B/4
(D) B/6
Answer: Option D

Question No. 119

Levees and flood walls,
(A) Are designed to carry unbalanced water load
(B) Are designed with adequate dimensions
(C) Are means of controlling floods
(D) Are never provided free-boards
Answer: Option D

Question No. 120

The ratio of average values of shear stresses produced on the bed and the banks of a channel due
to flowing water is
(A) Less than 1
(B) Equal to 1
(C) Greater than 1
(D) Equal to zero
Answer: Option C

Question No. 121

Unit Hydrograph theory was enunciated by
(A) Merril Bernard
(B) W.W. Horner
(C) Le-Roy K. Shermen
(D) Robert E. Horten
Answer: Option C

Question No. 122

The ratio of rate of change of the discharge of an outlet to the rate of change of the discharge of
distributing channel is called
(A) Proportionality
(B) Flexibility
(C) Setting
(D) Sensitivity
Answer: Option B

Question No. 123

Pick up the correct equation from the following:
(A) Run off = Surface run off + Ground water flow
 (B) Run off = Surface run off - Ground water flow
(C) Run off = Surface run off / Ground water flow
(D) Run off = Surface run off x Ground water flow
Answer: Option A

Question No. 124

A repelling groyne is aligned
(A) Pointing upstream
(B) Pointing downstream
(C) Perpendicular to bank
(D) Parallel to bank
Answer: Option A

Question No. 125

Precipitation caused by lifting of an air mass due to the pressure difference, is called
(A) Cyclonic precipitation
(B) Convective precipitation
(C) Orographic precipitation
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 126

A 6 hours storm had 4 cm of rainfall and the resulting runoff was 2 cm. If <j) index remains at the
same value, the runoff due to 10 cm rainfall in 12 hours in the catchment is
(A) 4.5 cm
(B) 6.0 cm
(C) 7.5 cm
(D) 9.0 cm
Answer: Option B

Question No. 127

The deficiency in rain catch due to vertical acceleration of air forced upward over the gauge, is
(A) Greater for heavy rain
(B) Greater for lighter rain
(C) Greater for large drops
(D) Lesser for small rain drops
Answer: Option B

Question No. 128

Presence of tail water in a gravity dam
(i) Increases the principal stress
(ii) Decreases the principal stress
(iii) Increases the shear stress
(iv) Decreases the shear stress
The correct answer is
 (A) (i) and (iii)
(B) (i) and (iv)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (ii) and (iv)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 129

If y is the depth of water at any section, then the mean velocity is
(A) 0.1 y
(B) 0.2 y
(C) 0.3 y
(D) 0.6 y
Answer: Option D

Question No. 130

As compared to crest of the normal portion of the weir, the crest of the under sluice portion of
weir is kept at
(A) Lower level
(B) Higher level
(C) Same level
(D) Any of the above depending on the design
Answer: Option A

Question No. 131

If S is the potential infiltration, P is rainfall in cm in a drainage of a soil with fair pasture cover, the
direct run off Q in cm is given by
(A) Q = (P - 0.1 S)²/(P + 0.4 S)
(B) Q = (P - 0.2 S)²/(P + 0.6 S)
(C) Q = (P - 0.2 S)²/(P + 0.8 S)
(D) Q = (P - 0.2 S)²/(P + 0.2 S)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 132

In a Sarda type fall, rectangular crest is used for discharge upto
(A) 6 cumecs
(B) 10 cumecs
(C) 14 cumecs
(D) 20 cumecs
Answer: Option C

Question No. 133

A well penetrates to 30 m below the static water table. After 24 hours of pumping at 31.40
litres/minute, the water level in a test well at a distance of 80 m is lowered by 0.5 m and in a well
20 m away water is lowered by 1.0 m. The transmissibility of the aquifer, is
(A) 1.185 m2/minute
 (B) 1.285 m2/minute
(C) 1.385 m2/minute
(D) 1.485 m2/minute
Answer: Option C

Question No. 134

A hydroelectric scheme operating under a head of 80 m will be classified as
(A) Low head scheme
(B) Medium head scheme
(C) High head scheme
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 135

In nature water may occur as
(A) Liquid
(B) Solid
(C) Vapours
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 136

Seepage through foundation in an earthen dam is controlled by providing
(A) Rock toe
(B) Horizontal blanket
(C) Impervious cut off
(D) Chimney drain
Answer: Option C

Question No. 137

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Central portion of a cyclone acts as a chimney through which air gets lifted
(B) Cyclonic precipitation caused by a warm front is generally continuous
(C) Greatest amount of orographic precipitation falls in the windward side of the barrier
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 138

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) At two meteorologically homogeneous stations, the average annual precipitation is same
(B) If the average annual precipitation at two places is same these are meteorologically
homogeneous stations
(C) Neither (a) nor (b)
(D) Both (a) and (b)
Answer: Option B
Question No. 139
A unit hydrograph is a hydrograph of a rain storm of a specified duration resulting from a run-off
of
(A) 15 mm
(B) 20 mm
(C) 25 mm
(D) 30 mm
Answer: Option B

Question No. 140

Evaporation losses depend upon
(A) Area of the water surface and depth of the water
(B) Nature of precipitation and type of vegetation
(C) Humidity and wind velocity
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 141

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Run off and surface run off are the same
(B) Run off includes the water flowing over the surface
(C) Run off is sometimes called discharge of the river
(D) Surface run off is sometimes called stream flow
Answer: Option C

Question No. 142

Which of the following canal structures is used to remove surplus water from an irrigation channel
into a natural drain?
(A) Canal fall
(B) Canal outlet
(C) Canal escape
(D) Canal regulator
Answer: Option C

Question No. 143

Pressure exerted by fully saturated air, is known
(A) Partial pressure
(B) Saturation pressure
(C) Saturation vapour pressure
(D) Both (c) and (d) of the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 144

Study the following statements.
(i) Levees are constructed parallel to river flow
 (ii) Spurs are constructed parallel to river flow
(iii) Levees are constructed transverse to river flow
(iv) Spurs are constructed transverse to river flow
The correct answer is
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i) and (iv)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (iii) and (iv)
Answer: Option B

Question No. 145

Precipitation caused due to upward movement of warmer air as compared to surrounding air, is
called
(A) Cyclonic precipitation
(B) Convective precipitation
(C) Orographic precipitation
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 146

The run off is affected by
(A) Size of the basin
(B) Shape of the basin
(C) Elevation of the water shed
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 147

The coefficients of permeability of soils of an unconfined aquifer and another confined aquifer
were determined by pumping water from the wells and observing the effect of water table in two
test wells at equal distances was found to be equal. The total height of confined aquifer H is given
by
(A) H = h2 - h1
(B) H = h1 - h2
(C) H = h2 + h1
(D) ½ (h1 + h2)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 148

If the demand line drawn from a ridge in a flow mass curve does not intersect the curve again, it
indicates that
(A) Demand cannot be met by inflow
(B) Reservoir was not full at the beginning
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
 Answer: Option A

Question No. 149

Ryve's formula for flood estimate in cumecs, is
(A) Q = CA3/4
(B) Q = CA2/3
(C) Q = CA1/2
(D) Q = CA1/4
Answer: Option B

Question No. 150

Coefficient of discharge of an ogee spillway
(A) Depends on depth of approach and upstream slope
(B) Depends on downstream apron interference and downstream submergence
(C) Remains constant
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 151

The theory of infiltration capacity was given by
(A) Merrill Bernard
(B) W.W. Horner
(C) Le-Roy K. Shermen
(D) Robert E. Horten
Answer: Option D

Question No. 152

respectively, then cross drainage work will be

(A) aqueduct
(B) Super-passage
(C) Syphon
(D) Syphon aqueduct
Answer: Option C

Question No. 153

Absolute humidity in air
(A) Decreases at higher altitudes
(B) Increases at higher altitudes
(C) Remains constant at all altitudes
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 154

A hydraulic jump in a control meter will be formed above the control, if its original
 (A) Depth is more than critical depth
(B) Depth is less than the critical depth
(C) Depth is equal to critical depth
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 155

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) The rate of flow of water through a unit cross-sectional area under a unit hydraulic gradient,
is called coefficient of permeability
(B) The rate of flow of water through a vertical strip of the aquifer of unit width and full depth
under a unit hydraulic gradient, is called coefficient of transmissibility
(C) The flow of water through aquifers, is governed by the Darcy's law
(D) The term 'transmissibility' was introduced by Meinzer
Answer: Option D

Question No. 156

Variability of rainfall is
(i) Largest in regions of high rainfall
(ii) Largest in coastal areas
(iii) Largest in regions of scanty rainfall
The correct answer is
(A) Only (i)
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) Only (iii)
(D) (ii) and (iii)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 157

For calculating the evaporation rate over a reservoir surface
E = 0.771 (1.465 - 0.00732B) (0.44 - 0.007375 V) (pe - pa), the equation is given by
(A) Roohwer's, formula in M.K.S.
(B) Roohwer's formula in F.P.S.
(C) Dalton's formula in F.P.S.
(D) Dalton's formula in M.K.S.
Answer: Option A

Question No. 158

In a chute spillway, the flow is usually
(A) Uniform
(B) Subcritical
(C) Critical
(D) Super critical
Answer: Option D
Question No. 159
The polythene bottles are used for collecting rain water and. their capacities is
(A) 2 litres
(B) 4 litres
(C) 10 litres
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 160

Tortuosity of a meandering river is the ratio of
(A) Meander belt to meander length
(B) Meander length to meander belt
(C) Curved length along the channel to the direct axial length of the river reach
(D) Direct axial length of the river reach to curved length along the channel
Answer: Option C

Question No. 161

The best instrument for measuring the velocity of a stream flow is
(A) Pitot tube
(B) Price's current meter
(C) Surface float
(D) Sub-surface float
Answer: Option B

Question No. 162

Time of overland flow, is affected by
(A) Slope of the basin
(B) Type of the ground surface
(C) Length of the flow path
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 163

For high flood estimates the average value of the constant C in Dicken's formula Q =CA3/4, is
(A) 6.5
(B) 8.5
(C) 9.5
(D) 11.5
Answer: Option D

Question No. 164

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The amount of water retained on the surface of soil grains by molecular attraction, is known
as pellicular water
 (B) The degree of resistance to movement of the pellicular water generally expressed by the
surface tension
(C) The pellicular water held in any soil, is called field capacity
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 165

A runoff river plant
(A) Is a medium head scheme
(B) Generates power during peak hours only
(C) Is suitable only on a perennial river
(D) Has no pondage at all
Answer: Option C

Question No. 166

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Higher the gauge, more deficient will be the rain catch
(B) Heavier the rain, lesser will be the rain catch
(C) The trees serving as wind brakes in the vicinity of the gauge, should not subtend angles
greater than 45°
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 167

Runoff is measured in
(A) Cubic metres
(B) Cubic metres per sec.
(C) Cubic metres per minute
(D) Cubic metres per hour
Answer: Option B

Question No. 168

T S
R
(A) 4 RS
(B) 11 RS
(C) 7 RS
(D) 15 RS
Answer: Option B

Question No. 169

If h is the loss due to friction in a pipe. Total losses in strainer and bends may be taken as
(A) 0.01 h
(B) 0.45 h
(C) 0.20 h
 (D) 0.25 h
Answer: Option D

Question No. 170

Hydrology helps in
(A) Predicting maximum flows
(B) Deciding the minimum reservoir capacity
(C) Forecasting the availability of quantity of water at reservoir site
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 171

Which of the following types of falls use parabolic glacis for energy dissipation?
(A) Vertical drop fall
(B) Glacis fall
(C) Montague type fall
(D) Inglis fall
Answer: Option C

Question No. 172

In India, rain fall is generally recorded at
(A) 8 A.M.
(B) 12 Noon
(C) 4 P.M.
(D) 8 P.M.
Answer: Option A

Question No. 173

The initial basin recharge is equal to
(A) Interception
(B) Depression storage
(C) Rain absorbed by the moisture deficiency
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 174

Shrouding is provided in
(A) Cavity type tube wells
(B) Slotted type tube wells
(C) Strainer type tube wells
(D) Perforated type tube wells
Answer: Option B

Question No. 175

Rain simulators are used for the determination of
 (A) Evaporation
(B) Precipitation
(C) Run off
(D) Infiltration capacity
Answer: Option D

Question No. 176

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The throat of the section of a control meter is either rectangular or trapezoidal
(B) The floor of the control meter throat is almost level
(C) The floor of the expanding outlet of the control meter is given a steep slope
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 177

The Dupuit formula is based on
(A) One observation well
(B) Two observation wells
(C) Three observation wells
(D) No observation well
Answer: Option D

Question No. 178

A river bend characterized by silting
(A) Scouring on concave side
(B) Silting on convex side
(C) Scouring on convex side and on concave side
(D) Scouring on concave side and silting on convex side
Answer: Option D

Question No. 179

Run off includes
(A) Precipitation over catchment area of the stream and its attributaries
(B) Surface run off
(C) Ground water flow
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 180

The respective storm totals at three surrounding stations A, B and C are 110, 90 and 70 mm. If the
normal annual precipitation amounts at stations X, A, B and C are respectively 1000, 1100, 1200
and 1250 mm, the estimated storm precipitation at X is
(A) 75 mm
(B) 77 mm
(C) 79 mm
 (D) 81 mm
Answer: Option B

Question No. 181

Bernard's distribution graph is a plot of time on X-axis and
(A) Run off on the y-axis
(B) Total run off on the y-axis
(C) Percentage of total surface run off on y-axis
(D) Percentage of total surface run off during uniform time intervals on y-axis
Answer: Option D

Question No. 182

The rate of evaporation from reservoirs may be determined by
(A) Pan-measurement method
(B) Empirical formulae
(C) Storage equation method
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 183

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Rain which is intercepted by buildings, vegetations and other objects, is generally known as
rainfall interception
(B) The difference between the total rainfall and intercepted rainfall, is generally called ground
rainfall
(C) When rainfall exceeds the interception rainfall, water reaches the ground and infiltration
starts
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 184

The standard height of a standard rain gauge, is
(A) 10 cm
(B) 20 cm
(C) 30 cm
(D) 50 cm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 185

The runoff is affected by
(A) Type of precipitation
(B) Rain intensity and duration of rainfall
(C) Rain distribution and soil moisture deficiency
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 186
With the usual meanings of letters, the equation V = 400 I (D10²/4) is used for determining the
velocity of ground water flow in metres per day. It is known as
(A) Meinzer's formula
(B) Slichter's formula
(C) Darcy's formula
(D) Hazen's formula
Answer: Option B

Question No. 187

Hydrology is the science which deals with
(A) Rain water
(B) River water
(C) Sea water
(D) Surface and underground water
Answer: Option D

Question No. 188

Symon's rain gauge is
(A) Tipping-bucket gauge
(B) Weighing type gauge
(C) Float recording gauge
(D) Non-recording gauge
Answer: Option D

Question No. 189

If P and A are the perimeter and area of a drainage basin, its compactness coefficient, is
(A) P²/2
(B) P/2
(C) P
(D) P3/ 3A
Answer: Option C

Question No. 190

Pettis formula Q = C (P.B)5/4 cumecs, is based upon
(A) Rainfall and drainage area
(B) Run off and drainage area
(C) Drainage area and its shape
(D) Drainage area
Answer: Option A

Question No. 191

A volume of air at constant barometric pressure may be brought to dew point by
(A) Increasing the temperature
(B) Decreasing the temperature
 (C) Neither (a) nor (b)
(D) Both (a) and (b)
Answer: Option B

Question No. 192

The form factor of a drainage basin is obtained by dividing
(A) Area of the basin by the axial length
(B) Average width of the basin by the axial basin
(C) Area of the basin by the square of the axial length
(D) Both (b) and (c)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 193

If is unit weight of water, Q the discharge in cumecs, H
the pump, the H.P. of the motor is
(A) H.P. = /75
(B) H.P. = /4500
(C) H.P. = /75 H
(D) H.P. = /4500 H
Answer: Option A

Question No. 194

The surface Run-off is the quantity of water
(A) Absorbed by soil
(B) Intercepted by buildings and vegetative cover
(C) Required to fill surface depressions
(D) That reaches the stream channels
Answer: Option D

Question No. 195

A recording type rain gauge
(A) Produces a mass curve of rain fall
(B) Records the cumulative rain
(C) Is sometimes called integrating rain gauge or continuous rain gauge
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 196

For computing the run off volumes of large areas, numbers of infiltrations used are
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
Answer: Option A
Question No. 197
The efficiency of a pump may be taken as
(A) 0.55
(B) 0.60
(C) 0.65
(D) 0.70
Answer: Option C

Question No. 198

The infiltration capacity during rain storm, is considerably reduced due to
(A) Surface detention
(B) Soil moisture
(C) Compaction due to rain
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 199

The average mean velocity of a stream having depth h, may be obtained by taking the average of
the readings of a current meter at a depth of
(A) 0.1 h and 0.9 h
(B) 0.2 h and 0.8 h
(C) 0.3 h and 0.7 h
(D) 0.4 h and 0.6 h
Answer: Option B

Question No. 200

A well is sunk in an unconfined aquifer having a saturated depth of 100 m. Assuming the
equilibrium flow conditions and a homogeneous aquifer and radius of influence to be same, the
ratio of discharges at 20 m and 40 m draw downs, is
(A) 2/3
(B) 5/4
(C) 4/5
(D) 8/7
Answer: Option D

Question No. 201

A soil strata may consist of
(A) Soil zone
(B) Intermediate zone
(C) Capillary zone
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 202

A river is said to be of uniform section if in its section
 (A) A segment of a circle can be fitted
(B) A parabolic section can be fitted
(C) A rectangular section can be fitted
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 203

Isopiestic lines are the contours
(A) Drawn to represent water table
(B) Drawn to represent piezometric heads
(C) Drawn to piezometric surface
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 204

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) When rainfall rate exceeds the infiltration capacity, the water enters the soil at full capacity
rate
(B) When rainfall rate is less than the infiltration capacity, the infiltration rate is approximately
equal to the rainfall rate
(C) The actual infiltration rate at any time may be equal to or less than the infiltration capacity
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 205

While calculating the average depth of annual precipitation in a catchment basin, importance to
individual rain-gauge station is given in
(A) Arithmetical method
(B) Thiessen's mean method
(C) Isohyetal method
(D) Both (b) and (c)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 206

If the viscosity of ground water is 1.00, the Slitcher's constant is 400, the effective size of soil
particles in aquifer is 0.5 mm and hydraulic gradient is 1 in 80, the velocity of flow is
(A) 0.25 m/day
(B) 0.50 m/day
(C) 1.00 m/day
(D) 1.25 m/day
Answer: Option D

Question No. 207

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Index of wetness = actual rainfall in a year at a place/normal rainfall of that place
 (B) Normal annual rainfall is obtained by taking the mean of the annual rainfall over a period of
35 years
(C) Index of wetness gives an idea of the wetness of the year
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 208

If total run off of a basin of 50 hectares is 0.8 cm, the ordinate of Bernard's distribution graph, may
be calculated by the formula (where Q is the discharge in cumecs at the given time)
(A) y = 50 Q
(B) y = 100 Q
(C) y = 200 Q
(D) y = 250 Q
Answer: Option D

Question No. 209

Water is useful for
(A) Running hydroelectric turbines
(B) Floating the boats and ships
(C) Providing steam for running locomotives
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 210

The recurrence interval (R.I.) of 20 cm rain storm at a place is 5 years.
(A) The place will definitely have 20 cm rain storm after every five years
(B) The place may have 20 cm rain storm after every five years
(C) The place may have 20 cm rain storm within a set of 5 years twice
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 211

The main factor which affects the infiltration capacity, is
(A) Thickness of saturated layer
(B) Depth of surface detention
(C) Soil moisture
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 212

If the area of storm hydrograph is equal to 102 cm, the ordinates of a unit hydrograph may be
obtained by dividing the ordinates of the storm hydrograph by
(A) 0.5
(B) 1
(C) 2
 (D) 4
Answer: Option D

Question No. 213

The surface run off is due to
(A) Initial rain
(B) Residual rain
(C) Rain in the net supply interval
(D) All the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 214

If the velocities of flow of a stream of 10 m depth recorded by a current meter at depths of 2 m
and 8 m are 0.7 m and 0.3 m respectively, the discharge per unit width of the stream in cubic
metres, is
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
Answer: Option D

Question No. 215

The earthen embankments constructed parallel to the river banks at some suitable distance for
flood control, are known as
(A) Floods walls
(B) Dikes
(C) Levees
(D) Both (b) and (c)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 216

The area of a drainage basin whose axial length is 100 km is 2500 sq. km. Its form factor is
(A) 0.10
(B) 0.20
(C) 0.25
(D) 0.35
Answer: Option C

Question No. 217

According to Robert E. Horton, the equation of infiltration capacity curve, is (where letters carry
their usual meanings)
(A) f = fc (fo - fc) ekt
(B) f = ft - (fo - fc) e-kt
(C) f = ft + (fo - fc) e-kt
(D) f = f + (fo - fc) ekt
 Answer: Option C

Question No. 218

Consumptive use of a crop during growth, is the amount of
(A) Interception
(B) Transpiration
(C) Evaporation
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 219

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The intensity of rain is the rate at which it falls
(B) The duration of rain is the time for which it falls with a given intensity
(C) The frequency of rain is the number of times, if falls
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 220

If the slope of a line for infiltration capacity curve is 1/1.737, the value of constant k in Horton's
equation of infiltration capacity curve, is
(A) 2.0
(B) 2.5
(C) 4.0
(D) 5.0
Answer: Option C

Question No. 221

If the grain size of soil increases
(A) Surface area decreases
(B) Specific retention decreases
(C) Water supply in well increases
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 222

For determination of average annual precipitation in a catchment basin, the best method is
(A) Arithmetical method
(B) Thiessen's mean method
(C) Isohyetal method
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 223

Prof. Running suggested the method for extending the discharge curve. It is known as
 (A) Logarithmic method
(B) method
(C) General method
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 224

If the potential infiltration of a water shed having a soil with fair pasture cover, is 10 cm and
rainfall is 12 cm, the direct run off is :
(A) 2 cm
(B) 3 cm
(C) 5 cm
(D) 7 cm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 225

Burge formula Q = 19.6 (A/L2/3) cumecs is based upon
(A) Rainfall and drainage area
(B) Run off and drainage area
(C) Drainage area and its shape
(D) Drainage area
Answer: Option C

Question No. 226

Precipitation includes
(A) Rain
(B) Snow
(C) Hail
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 227

The rainfall cycle period in India is taken as
(A) 15 years
(B) 20 years
(C) 25 years
(D) 35 years
Answer: Option D

Question No. 228

The best unit period of a unit hydrograph, is equal to basin lag divided by
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
 Answer: Option C

Question No. 229

For predicting floods of a given frequency, the best reliable method is
(A) Unit hydrograph method
(B) Gumbel's analytical method
(C) California method
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 230

Humidity refers to
(A) Temperature of the air
(B) Pressure of the air
(C) Moisture content of the air
(D) Volume of the air
Answer: Option C

Question No. 231

Relative humidity is the ratio of actual vapour pressure to the saturation vapour pressure
(A) At the same temperature
(B) At the same pressure
(C) In the same volume
(D) In the atmosphere
Answer: Option A

Question No. 232

An intense rain is falling at a uniform rate of 7.5 cm/hour for a period of 60 minutes on a basin
whose area is 500 hectares. If the average infiltration capacity during the entire rain period is
assumed to be 1.5 cm/hr, the maximum run-off rate based on 10 minute peak percentage of 16%
from distributing graph of the basin, is
(A) 40 cumecs
(B) 60 cumecs
(C) 80 cumecs
(D) 100 cumecs
Answer: Option C
 Irrigation Engineering

Question No. 01
The consumptive use of water for a crop
(A) Is measured as the volume of water per unit area
(B) Is measured as depth of water on irrigated area
(C) May be supplied partly by precipitation and partly by irrigation
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 02
Canals taken off from ice-fed perennial rivers, are known
(A) Permanent canals
(B) Ridge canals
(C) Perennial canals
(D) Inundation canals
Answer: Option C

Question No. 03
In gravity canals, F.S.L. is
(A) Always at the ground level
(B) Always below the ground level
(C) Generally 4 to 5 metres above the ground level
(D) Only a few cm above the ground level
Answer: Option D

Question No. 04
The field capacity of a soil is 25%, its permanent wilting point is 15% and specific dry unity weight
is 1.5. If the depth of root zone of a crop, is 80 cm, the storage capacity of the soil, is
(A) 8 cm
(B) 10 cm
(C) 12 cm
(D) 14 cm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 05
If water table is comparatively high, the irrigation canal becomes useless, due to
(A) Large amount of seepage
(B) Water logging of the cultivated areas
(C) Uncertain water demand
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 06
If A is the area of the surface,
density of water, then
(A) Total pressure on the surface is e
(B) Depth of the point at which total pressure acts is equal to its moment of inertia divided
by
(C) Depth of the centre of pressure is 2/3H vertically below the surface
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 07
In a syphon aqueduct
(A) Drainage passes over the canal and F.S.L. of the canal is below the bottom of the drainage
trough
(B) Drainage passes over the canal and F.S.L. of the canal is above the bottom of the drainage
trough
(C) Canal passes over the drainage and H.F.L. of the drainage is above the bottom of the canal
trough
(D) Canal passes over the drainage and H.F.L. of the drainage is below the bottom of the canal
trough
Answer: Option C

Question No. 08
If the height of the hydraulic gradient line above the floor of thickness t is h and the specific
gravity of the material of the floor is G, the minimum thickness t of the floor downstream of the
crest-wall, is given by the equation
(A) t = (h + 1)/(G + t)
(B) t = (h - 1)/(G + t)
(C) t = (h - 1)/(G - t)
(D) t = (h + 1)/G
Answer: Option C

Question No. 09
To hold hydraulic jumps, baffle walls are provided in
(A) Sarda type falls
(B) English type falls
(C) Montague type falls
(D) Vertical type falls
Answer: Option B

Question No. 10
Pick up the correct sequence of the part of a canal system from the following
(A) Head work-distributary-branch canal-minor
(B) Head works-main canal-branch canal-distributary-minor
(C) Head works-main canal-branch canal-minor-distributary
 (D) Heads works-branch canal-main canal distributary, minor
Answer: Option B

Question No. 11
The field capacity of a soil depends upon
(A) Capillary tension in soil
(B) Porosity of soil
(C) Both (a) and (b)
(D) Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 12
The water face of the guide banks, is protected by
(A) One men stone pitching
(B) Two man stone pitching
(C) Three man stone pitching
(D) Four man stone pitching
Answer: Option A

Question No. 13
Pick up the correct statement from the following
(A) Escapes are essential safety valves in a canal system
(B) The escapes must lead the surplus water to natural drainages
(C) The escapes are aligned to take advantage of contours of lower values
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 14
For a unique design of a channel by Kennedy's theory
(A) Its breadth must only be known
(B) Its depth must only be known
(C) Its breadth and depth ratio must only be known
(D) All the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 15
The structure constructed to allow drainage water to flow under pressure through an inverted
syphon below a canal, is called
(A) Syphon
(B) Super passage
(C) Super-aqueduct
(D) Syphon aqueduct
Answer: Option D
Question No. 16
The main cause of silting up a channel,
(A) Non-regime section
(B) Inadequate slope
(C) Defective head regulator
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 17
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Gravity water is harmful to crops
(B) Hygroscopic water remains attached to soil molecules by chemical bond
(C) Capillary moisture held in the soil pores against gravity by surface tension, is utilised by
plants
(D) All the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 18
A river training work is generally required when the river is
(A) Meandering
(B) Aggrading
(C) Degrading
(D) All the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 19
When a canal flowing under pressure is carried below a natural drainage such that its F.S.L. does
not touch the underside of the supporting structure, the structure so provided, is called
(A) Syphon
(B) Aqueduct
(C) Super passage
(D) Syphon-aqueduct
Answer: Option C

Question No. 20
Pick up the correct statement from the following
(A) In a level crossing, a crest with its top at the canal F.S.L. is provided across the drainage at its
up-stream junction with canal
(B) In a level crossing a regulator is provided across the drainage at its down-stream
(C) In a level crossing, a cross regulator is provided on the canal below the crossing
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 21
In a Sarda type fall, the rectangular crest, may be used for discharge upto
(A) 6 cumecs
(B) 10 cumecs
(C) 14 cumecs
(D) 20 cumecs
Answer: Option C

Question No. 22
The measure to remove water logging of land, is
(A) To reduce percolation from canals and water courses
(B) To increase outflow from the ground water reservoir
(C) Both (a) and (b)
(D) Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 23
Borrow pits should preferably be located in
(A) Field on the left side of the canal
(B) Field on the right side of the canal
(C) Fields on both sides of the canal
(D) Central half width of the section of the canal
Answer: Option D

Question No. 24
The sinuosity of a meander is the ratio of
(A) Meander length and the width of meander
(B) Meander length and half width of the river
(C) Curved length and the straight distance
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 25
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) If the flexibility is more than one, the outlet is hyper-proportional
(B) If the setting of an outlet is higher than that required for proportionality, the outlet is hyper-
proportional
(C) If the flexibility is zero, it is a rigid module
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 26
According to Khosla, the exits gradient of surface flow
(A) Depends upon the b/d ratio
(B) Is independent of the b/d ratio
 (C) Is independent of the depths of d/s cut off walls
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 27
A hydraulic structure is designed to withstand
(A) Seepage forces
(B) Hydraulic jump
(C) Hydraulic pressure
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 28
If the optimum depth of kor watering for a crop is 15.12 cm, the outlet factor for the crop for four
week period in hectares per cumec, is
(A) 1000
(B) 1200
(C) 1400
(D) 1600
Answer: Option D

Question No. 29
In Montague type fall
(A) A straight glacis is provided
(B) A circular glacis is provided
(C) A parabolic glacis is provided
(D) No glacis is provided
Answer: Option C

Question No. 30
Cross regulators in main canals are provided
(A) To regulate water supply in the distributaries
(B) To increase water head upstream when a main canal is running with low supplies
(C) To overflow excessive flow water
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 31
According to Lacey, depth of scour in a river depends upon the straightness of the reach. If D is the
depth of scour in regime flow in a right angled bend, it is
(A) 1.25 D
(B) 1.50 D
(C) 1.75 D
(D) 2.00 D
Answer: Option D
Question No. 32
According to Lacey, in regime conditions
(A) Silt is kept in suspension by vertical components of eddies
(B) Entire cross-section of the channel is generated at all points by the forces normal to the
wetted perimeter
(C) Both (a) and (b)
(D) Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 33
The most suitable section of a lined canal, is
(A) Triangular section with circular bottom for small canals
(B) Trapezoidal section with rounded corners for large canals
(C) Both (a) and (b)
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 34
An outlet is said to be proportional if its flexibility, is
(A) Zero
(B) Less than one
(C) More than one
(D) One
Answer: Option D

Question No. 35
The level of the floor of a syphon aqueduct can be obtained
(A) By subtracting the depth of the culvert from the canal bed level
(B) By subtracting the thickness of culvert plus the depth of the culvert from the canal bed level
(C) Both (a) and (b)
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 36
If the straight sides of a triangular section of a lined canal with circular bottom of radius D, make
th horizontal, the hydraulic mean depth is
(A) D
(B) D/2
(C) D/3
(D) D/5
Answer: Option B

Question No. 37
According to Bligh's creep theory, percolating water flows along
(A) Straight path under the foundation of the dam
 (B) Circular path under the foundation of the dam
(C) The outline of the base of the foundation of the dam
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 38
For a standing crop, the consumptive use of water is equal to the depth of water
(A) Transpired by the crop
(B) Evaporated by the crop
(C) Transpired and evaporated by the crop
(D) Used by the crop in transpiration, evaporation and also the quantity of water evaporated
from adjacent soil
Answer: Option D

Question No. 39
Bed bars in a canal are provided
(A) To watch the general behaviour of canal
(B) To measure the discharge
(C) To raise the supply level
(D) To control the silting
Answer: Option A

Question No. 40
The velocity of drainage water in the barrels of a syphon-aqueduct, is normally limited to
(A) 1 to 2 m per second
(B) 2 to 3 m per second
(C) 3 to 4 m per second
(D) 4 to 5 m per second
Answer: Option B

Question No. 41
For the design of major hydraulic structures on the canals, the method generally preferred to, is
based on
(A) Bligh's theory
(B) Electrical analogy method
(C) The relaxation method
(D) Khosla's method of independent variables
Answer: Option D

Question No. 42
Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) In free flooding irrigation, water is admitted at one corner of a field and is allowed to spread
over the entire area
(B) In check method of irrigation, the field is divided into smaller compartments and water is
admitted to each in turn
 (C) In furrow irrigation water is admitted between the rows of plants in the field
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 43
Pick up the incorrect statement from the following
(A) Side walls of a venturi head flume are splayed out from the end of the throat at 1 : 10 for a
length of 4.5 m
(B) Length of side walls should be such that the width of the flume is made equal to 2/3rd the
bed width of the distributary
(C) Once the width of the flume becomes 2/3rd of the width of the distributary, the splayed
walls are increased to 1 in 3 to get full bed width
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 44
Irrigation canals are generally aligned along
(A) Ridge line
(B) Contour line
(C) Valley line
(D) Straight line
Answer: Option A

Question No. 45
In a canal syphon, the flow is
(A) Under atmospheric pressure
(B) Pipe flow
(C) With critical velocity
(D) Under negative pressure
Answer: Option B

Question No. 46
Pick up the correct statement from the following
(A) Approach of the water line in a flumed channel section should not be steeper than 22½°
(B) Departure of the water line from a flumed channel section should not be steeper than 30°
(C) Approach of the water line should not be steeper than 30° and departure line not steeper
than 22½° in a flumed channel section
(D) Approach and departure of the water line in a flumed channel section, should not be steeper
than 22½°
Answer: Option C

Question No. 47
The main function of a diversion head works of a canal from a river, is
(A) To remove silt
(B) To control floods
 (C) To store water
(D) To raise water level
Answer: Option D

Question No. 48
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The full supply level of a canal should be above ground level
(B) According to Lacey, regime conditions require a particular slope for a given discharge and silt
factor
(C) In case the ground slope is less than the required bed slope, the silt factor must be reduced
by permitting the entry of coarse silt
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 49
If d1 is the depth of cutting, d2 is the height of the bank from bed level r2 : 1 and r1 : 1 are the
slopes in filling and cutting respectively, the horizontal distance n between the bed and bank, is
(A) x = r1 d1
(B) x = r2 d2
(C) x = d1 / r1
(D) x = d2 / r2
Answer: Option B

Question No. 50
If V0 is the critical velocity of a channel, its silt transporting power, according to Kennedy, is
proportional to
(A) V01/2
(B) V03/2
(C) V05/2
(D) V07/2
Answer: Option C

Question No. 51
Regime conditions in a channel may occur if
(A) Discharge is constant
(B) Channel flows uniformly in incoherent alluvium as that transported in suspension
(C) Silt grade and silt charge are constant
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 52
A river is said to be of
(A) Aggrading type if it builds up its bed to a certain slope
(B) Degrading type if it cuts its bed to a certain slope
(C) Meandering type if it flows in sinuous curve
 (D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 53
The ratio of the rate of change of discharge of an outlet and parent channel, is known as
(A) Efficiency
(B) Sensitivity
(C) Flexibility
(D) Modular limit
Answer: Option C

Question No. 54
The width of a dowla is generally kept between 30 to 60 cm and its height above the road level
should invariably be more than
(A) 10 cm
(B) 20 cm
(C) 30 cm
(D) 40 cm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 55
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Water table generally follows the ground surface above it with a few exceptions
(B) Static level of water in an open well indicates the position of the water table
(C) At water table, hydrostatic pressure is zero
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 56
Lacey's equation for calculating flood discharge in rivers, is
(A) V = 10.8 R1/2 S1/2
(B) V = 10.8 R2/3 S1/2
(C) V = 10.8 R2/3 S1/3
(D) V = 10.8 R1/3 S2/3
Answer: Option C

Question No. 57
A deficit of sediments in flowing water may cause a river
(A) Meandering type
(B) Aggrading type
(C) Degrading type
(D) Sub-critical type
Answer: Option C
Question No. 58
Side slopes generally kept for canals in loam soil, are:
(A) 1 : 1 in cutting and 1½ : 1 in filling
(B) 1½ : 1 in cutting and 2 : 1 in filling
(C) Neither (a) nor (b)
(D) Both (a) and (b)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 59
For the stability of a structure against seepage pressure according to Khosla's creep theory, the
critical gradient is
(A) Zero
(B) 0.25
(C) 0.50
(D) 1.00
Answer: Option D

Question No. 60
If B and d are the bed width and depth of a channel in metres, the combined losses due to
evaporation and seepage in cumecs per kilometre length of the channel, is
(A) (1/50) × (B + d)2/3
(B) (1/100) × (B + d)2/3
(C) (1/150) × (B + d)2/3
(D) (1/200) × (B + d)2/3
Answer: Option D

Question No. 61
The length of a meander is the distance along the river between the tangent point of one curve to
the tangent point of
(A) Reverse curve
(B) Next curve of the same order
(C) Reverse curve plus the width of the river
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 62
The top of the capillary zone
(A) Lies below the water table at every point
(B) Lies above the water table at every point
(C) Coincides the water table at every point
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 63
The depth of rice root zone, is
(A) 50 cm
(B) 60 cm
(C) 80 cm
(D) 90 cm
Answer: Option D

Question No. 64
If the irrigation efficiency is 80%, conveyance losses are 20% and the actual depth of watering is 16
cm, the depth of water required at the canal outlet, is
(A) 10 cm
(B) 15 cm
(C) 20 cm
(D) 25 cm
Answer: Option D

Question No. 65
In a barrage, the crest level is kept
(A) Low with large gates
(B) High with large gates
(C) High with no gates
(D) Low with no gates
Answer: Option A

Question No. 66
An outlet which maintains a constant discharge irrespective of fluctuation in the water levels of
the supplying channel or water course, is known as
(A) Non-modular outlet
(B) Semi-modular outlet
(C) Flexible modular outlet
(D) Right modular outlet
Answer: Option D

Question No. 67
In case of a trapezoidal notch fall
(A) Top length of the piers should not be less than their thickness
(B) Splay upstream from the notch section is 45°
(C) Splay downstream from the notch section is 22½°
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 68
Finally formed berms in canals are provided for
(A) Protection of banks erosion by the waves
 (B) Control of seepage losses
(C) Strengthening of banks
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 69
Process of meandering is due to
(A) Sediment load of streams
(B) Discharge and hydraulic properties of streams
(C) Relative erodibility of the bed and banks
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 70
The ratio of the rate of change of discharge of an outlet to the rate of change in level of water
surface in a distributary at its normal depth, is known as
(A) Efficiency
(B) Sensitivity
(C) Flexibility
(D) Modular limit
Answer: Option B

Question No. 71
The ratio of the head recovered to the head put in, is known as
(A) Efficiency
(B) Sensitivity
(C) Flexibility
(D) Modular limit
Answer: Option A

Question No. 72
If H and d are the water depth and drop in the bed level at a Sarda fall, the width B of the
trapezoidal crest, is given by
(A) B = 0.22 (H + d)
(B) B = 0.33 (H + d)
(C) B = 0.44 (H + d)
(D) B = 0.55 (H + d)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 73
The scour depth D of a river during flood, may be calculated from the Lacey's equation
(A) D = 0.47 (Q/f)
(B) D = 0.47 (Q/f)1/2
(C) D = 0.47 (Q/f)1/3
(D) D = 0.47 (Q/f)2/3
 Answer: Option C

Question No. 74
For the conditions enumerated to provide a crossing at C1 You will probably provide
(A) An aqueduct
(B) A super-passage
(C) A syphon aqueduct
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 75
When a canal and a drainage approach each other at the same level, the structure so provided, is
(A) An aqueduct
(B) A syphon
(C) A level crossing
(D) Inlet and outlet
Answer: Option C

Question No. 76
The difference in level between the top of a bank and supply level in a canal, is called
(A) Berm
(B) Free board
(C) Height of bank
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 77
If L is total length of a canal in kilometres, P is total perimeter of its lining in metres and C is the
cost of lining per square metre, the additional expenditure involved on lining, is
(A) 100 PLC
(B) PLC/1000
(C) PL/1000C
(D) PC/100L
Answer: Option A

Question No. 78
The crest level of a canal diversion head work, depends upon
(A) F.S.L. of the canal
(B) Discharge perimeters
(C) Pond level
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 79
The most suitable location of a canal head work, is
(A) Boulders stage of the river
(B) Delta stage of the river
(C) Rock stage of the river
(D) Trough stage of the river
Answer: Option D

Question No. 80
The length and width of a meander and also the width of the river, vary roughly as
(A) Square root of the discharge
(B) Discharge
(C) Square of the discharge
(D) Cube of the discharge
Answer: Option A

Question No. 81
A land is said to be water-logged if its soil pores within
(A) A depth of 40 cm are saturated
(B) A depth of 50 cm are saturated
(C) Root zone of the crops are saturated
(D) All the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 82
V and R are the regime mean velocity and hydraulic mean depth respectively in metres. Lacey's
silt factor f is
(A) 2V² R
(B) 3V²/4R
(C) 5V²/2R
(D) 2V²/5R
Answer: Option C

Question No. 83
A counter berm is
(A) A horizontal benching provided on the inside slope
(B) A horizontal benching provided on the outside slope
(C) A vertical benching provided on the outer edge of the bank
(D) A vertical benching provided on the inner edge of the bank
Answer: Option B

Question No. 84
While deciding the alignment of a proposed canal taking off from a river at B, three alignments of
approximately equal lengths are available. These cross a drainages at C1, C2and C3 where drainage
bed levels C1 > C2 > C3, you will provide at site C3
 (A) An aqueduct
(B) A syphon aqueduct
(C) A super passage
(D) A syphon
Answer: Option A

Question No. 85
Canals constructed for draining off water from water logged areas, are known
(A) Drains
(B) Inundation canals
(C) Valley canals
(D) Contour canals
Answer: Option A

Question No. 86
The Lacey's regime velocity is proportional to
(A) R1/2 S3/4
(B) Q3/4 S1/3
(C) R3/4 S1/3
(D) R2/3 S1/2
Answer: Option C

Question No. 87
A fall in a canal bed is generally provided, if
(A) Ground slope exceeds the designed bed slope
(B) Designed bed slope exceeds the ground slope
(C) Ground slope is practically the same as the designed bed slope
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 88
If the straight sides of a triangular section of a lined canal with circular bottom of radius R, make

(A) R
(B) 2R
(C) R
(D) 2R
Answer: Option D

Question No. 89
According to G.W. Pickles the effect of confining the flood water of a river between levee, is to
increase
(A) Rate of flood wave
(B) Water surface elevation during floods
(C) Maximum discharge
 (D) Surface slope of streams above the levied portion
Answer: Option D

Question No. 90
F.S.L. of a canal at its head with respect to parent channel is kept
(A) At the same level
(B) 15 cm lower
(C) 15 cm higher
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 91
The depth of the crest of a scouring sluice below the crest of a head regulator, is generally kept
(A) 0.20 m
(B) 1.20 m
(C) 2.20 m
(D) 3.20 m
Answer: Option B

Question No. 92
Bligh's theory of seepage assumes
(A) Equal weightage to the horizontal and vertical creep
(B) More weightage to horizontal creep than vertical creep
(C) Less weightage to horizontal creep than vertical creep
(D) Loss of head follows the sine curve
Answer: Option A

Question No. 93
If D1 and D2 are depths of water upstream and downstream of a hydraulic jump, the loss of head at
the jump, is
(A) (D - D 3/D D
(B) (D - D 3/2D D
(C) (D - D 3/3D D
(D) (D - D 3/4D D
Answer: Option D

Question No. 94
Garnett's diagrams are used for graphical solution of design equations of a canal by
(A) Lacey's theory
(B) Kennedy's theory
(C) Gibb's theory
(D) Lindlay theory
Answer: Option B
Question No. 95
To control the silt entry into a distributary at head regulator, King's vanes are provided which are
the walls
(A) Of R.C.C. or steel plate 8 cm thick
(B) th the depth of water in the main canal
(C) Spaced at interval of 1½ times their heights
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 96
Effective precipitation for a crop may be defined as
(A) Total precipitation minus the loss due to evaporation
(B) Total precipitation minus the loss due to infiltration
(C) Total precipitation during the crop period
(D) Available water stored in soil within root zone of the crop
Answer: Option D

Question No. 97
If straight sides of a triangular section of a lined canal with circular bottom of radius R, make an
-section, is
(A) R
(B) R
(C) R2
(D) R2
Answer: Option D

Question No. 98
The state of the soil when plants fail to extract sufficient water for their requirements, is
(A) Maximum saturated point
(B) Permanent wilting point
(C) Ultimate utilisation point
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 99
The useful moisture of soil, is equal to its
(A) Field capacity
(B) Saturation capacity
(C) Moisture content at permanent wilting point
(D) Difference between filed capacity and permanent wilting point within the root zone of
plants
Answer: Option D
Question No. 100
Groynes are generally built
(A) Perpendicular to the bank
(B) Inclined up stream up to 30°
(C) Inclined downstream upto 30°
(D) All the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 101

Useful soil moisture for plant growth, is
(A) Capillary water
(B) Gravity water
(C) Hygroscopic water
(D) Chemical water
Answer: Option A

Question No. 102

A minimum of 90 cm free board is provided if the discharge in the canal is between
(A) 30 to 33 cumecs
(B) 30 to 60 cumecs
(C) Over 60 cumecs
(D) Over 100 cumecs
Answer: Option C

Question No. 103

According to Kennedy, the critical velocity (V0) in metres in a channel is the mean velocity which
keeps the channel free from silting or scouring. Its value is given by (where m is critical velocity
ratio and D is the depth of the channel).
(A) V0 = 0.84 mD0.64
(B) V0 = 0.55 mD0.64
(C) V0 = 0.84 mD0.54
(D) V0 = 0.55 mD0.54
Answer: Option B

Question No. 104

For diversion of flood water of rivers, the type of canal constructed, is
(A) Ridge canal
(B) Perennial canal
(C) Inundation canal
(D) Canal
Answer: Option C

Question No. 105

Lane's weighted creep theory assumes
(A) Equal weightage to horizontal and vertical creeps
 (B) Double weightage to horizontal creep and one weightage to vertical creep
(C) Triple weightage to horizontal creep and one weightage to vertical creep
(D) Triple weightage to vertical creep and one weightage to horizontal creep
Answer: Option D

Question No. 106

Solution of Laplacian equation in three dimensions d² /dx² + d² /dy² + d² /dz² = 0 of water in a
syphon, is done by
(A) Analytical method
(B) Khosla's method
(C) Method of relaxation
(D) Unwin's method
Answer: Option C

Question No. 107

In north Indian Plains, optimum depth of kor watering for wheat, is
(A) 23.0 cm
(B) 19.0 cm
(C) 17.5 cm
(D) 13.5 cm
Answer: Option D

Question No. 108

A water-logged land is found suitable for cultivation due to
(A) Ease of tillage for preparation of the field for optimum condition of germination
(B) Absence of aeration of soil from root zone of the plant
(C) Regular supply of water to plants from the water table by capillary action
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 109

Attracting groynes are built
(A) Perpendicular to the bank
(B) Inclined down stream
(C) Inclined up stream
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 110

The optimum depth of kor watering for a rice crop, is
(A) 23.0 cm
(B) 19.0 cm
(C) 17.5 cm
(D) 13.5 cm
Answer: Option B
Question No. 111
Which one of the following statements is correct?
(A) The canal system and the drainage system are complementary
(B) The canal system runs on ridges, gets divided into smaller channels and spreads its water on
the land
(C) The drainage system runs along the lowest line, collects drainage water from the slopes and
joins the main stream
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 112

For cereal crops the most commonly adopted method of irrigation, is
(A) Free flowing method
(B) Check method
(C) Furrow method
(D) Sprinkling method
Answer: Option B

Question No. 113

If D is the depth of water upstream of the throat above its sill, B is the width of the throat, to
achieve critical flow in an open venturi flume, the theoretical maximum flow Q, is
(A) Q = 1.71 BD1/2
(B) Q = 1.71 BD
(C) Q = 1.71 BD3/2
(D) Q = 1/71 BD2/3
Answer: Option C

Question No. 114

The intensity of irrigation means
(A) Percentage of culturable commanded area to be irrigated annually
(B) Percentage of gross commanded area to be irrigated annually
(C) Percentage of the mean of culturable commanded area and the gross commanded area to
be irrigated annually
(D) Total depth of water supplied by the number of waterings
Answer: Option A

Question No. 115

Retrogression of the bed level of a river downstream a weir, occurs due to
(A) Heavy impact of water
(B) Increase of the bed level
(C) Less percentage of silt
(D) Soft soil strata
Answer: Option C
Question No. 116
Meandering of a river generally occurs, in
(A) Rocky stage
(B) Delta stage
(C) Boulder stage
(D) Trough stage
Answer: Option D

Question No. 117

For designing the venturi head,
(A) Width of the throat should not be less than one-third of the bed width of main canal
(B) Length of the throat should be 2.5 times the depth measured to F.S.L. in the main canal
(C) Minimum throat width should not be less than 60 cm
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 118

Disposal of extra excavated earth of canals, is utilised to provide a spoil bank on
(A) Left side
(B) Right side
(C) Both sides
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 119

In a concrete canal the approximate permissible velocity of water should not exceed
(A) 0.5 m/sec
(B) 1 m/sec
(C) 1.5 m/sec
(D) 2 m/sec
Answer: Option D

Question No. 120

Lacy's regime condition is obtained if
(A) Silt grade in the channel is variable
(B) Discharge in the channel is variable
(C) Silt charge in the channel is variable
(D) Channel flows in unlimited, incoherent alluvium of the same character as that transported
material
Answer: Option D

Question No. 121

A hydraulic jump is generally formed when a stream moving with
(A) A hyper-critical velocity meets a stream moving with a critical velocity
(B) A hyper-critical velocity meets a stream moving with a hyper-critical velocity
 (C) A hyper-critical velocity meets a stream moving with a sub-critical velocity
(D) A sub-critical velocity meets a stream moving with a hyper-critical velocity
Answer: Option C

Question No. 122

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. Culturable commanded area is the gross area
of an irrigation canal system less
(A) Populated area
(B) Alkaline area
(C) Forest area
(D) Fallow land
Answer: Option D

Question No. 123

The downstream expansion head of a guide bank is extended to subtend an angle at the centre,
equal to
(A) 30°
(B) 45°
(C) 60°
(D) 90°
Answer: Option B

Question No. 124

A fall which maintains its depth, is
(A) A trapezoidal notch fall
(B) A low weir fall
(C) A rectangular notch fall
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 125

A current meter measures the velocity of flow, if it is held
(A) On the surface of water
(B) At the bottom of channel
(C) At any point within the cross-section
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 126

The width of a meander belt is the transverse distance between
(A) Apex point of one curve and apex point of the reserve curve
(B) Apex point and the crossing
(C) Two banks of meandering river
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 127
When a canal is carried over a natural drainage, the structure provided, is known as
(A) Syphon
(B) Aqueduct
(C) Super passage
(D) Syphon-aqueduct
Answer: Option B

Question No. 128

For smooth entry of water in a canal, the angle between head regulator and water is generally
kept
(A) 80°
(B) 90°
(C) 110°
(D) 120°
Answer: Option C

Question No. 129

In rigid module, the discharge
(A) Is independent of water levels in the distributary and water course
(B) Depends upon the water level in distributary
(C) Depends upon the water level in the water course
(D) Depends upon the water levels of both, i.e. distributary and water course
Answer: Option A

Question No. 130

For standing crops in undulating sandy fields, the best method of irrigation, is
(A) Sprinkler irrigation
(B) Free flooding
(C) Check method
(D) Furrow method
Answer: Option A

Question No. 131

The saturation line is the line up to which banks get saturated after the canal runs for some time.
The saturation gradient in ordinary loam soil, is generally
(A) 2 : 1
(B) 3 : 1
(C) 4 : 1
(D) 5 : 1
Answer: Option C
Question No. 132
Fundamental momentum equation for a hydraulic jump, is
(A) D - D q/g) × (V - V
(B) ² - ² = (2q/g) × (V - V
(C) D - D q/g) × ( - )
(D) D D q/g) × ( - )
Answer: Option B

Question No. 133

The uplift pressure on the roof of an inverted syphon, is maximum when
(A) Drain in running dry
(B) Canal is running dry
(C) Canal is running with F.S.L.
(D) Drain is running with H.F.L.
Answer: Option D

Question No. 134

The ratio of the discharge over a trapezoidal crest to a rectangular crest of Sarda falls of identical
parameters, is
(A) 1.084
(B) 1.074
(C) 1.064
(D) 1.054
Answer: Option A

Question No. 135

B is the number of days of base period and D is the duty in
hectare/cumec, the relationship which holds good, is
(A) D D/B)
(B) B B/D)
(C) D B)
(D) = (8.6 B/D)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 136

The top soil of a water logged field becomes more alkaline and infertile if its pH value is
(A) 5
(B) 7
(C) 9
(D) 11
Answer: Option D
Question No. 137
If average particle size of the silt in millimetres is m, the Lacey's silt factor f is proportional to
(A) m3
(B) m1/2
(C) m1/3
(D) m2/3
Answer: Option B

Question No. 138

The sensitivity of a rigid module, is
(A) 2.00
(B) 1.50
(C) 1.00
(D) Zero
Answer: Option D
 Railway Engineering

Question No. 01

(A) Will be more in the direction of B to A

(B) Will be more in the direction of A to B
(C) Will be maximum at the middle of A and B
(D) Cannot be determined from the given data
Answer: Option B

Question No. 02
A triangle is used for
(A) Changing the direction of engine
(B) Transferring wagons to and from parallel tracks without shunting
(C) Separating all the sidings and shunting lines from main lines
(D) Preventing the vehicles from running off the track
Answer: Option A

Question No. 03
Heel divergence is
(A) Always less than flange-way clearance
(B) Equal to flange-way clearance
(C) Always greater than flange-way clearance
(D) Sometimes greater than flange-way clearance
Answer: Option C

Question No. 04
Stretcher bar is provided
(A) To permit lateral movement of the tongue rail
(B) To maintain the two tongue rails at the exact distance
(C) To ensure exact gauge at the toe of the switch as well as the nose of crossing
(D) To prevent any vertical movement between the wing rail and nose of crossing
Answer: Option B

Question No. 05
Cant deficiency occurs when a vehicle travels around a curve at
(A) Equilibrium speed
(B) Speeds higher than equilibrium speed
(C) Speeds lower than equilibrium speed
(D) Booked speed
Answer: Option B
Question No. 06
The type of spike used for fixing chairs of bull headed rails to wooden sleepers is
(A) Dog spike
(B) Rail screw
(C) Elastic spike
(D) Round spike
Answer: Option D

Question No. 07
Flat mild steel bearing plates are used
(A) For points and crossings in the lead portion
(B) With wooden sleepers at locations where creep is likely to be developed
(C) On all joints and curves
(D) On all the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 08
Composite sleeper index is the index of
(A) Hardness and strength
(B) Strength and toughness
(C) Toughness and wear resistance
(D) Wear resistance and hardness
Answer: Option A

Question No. 09
Staggered joints are generally provided
(A) On curves
(B) On straight track
(C) When two different rail sections are required to be joined
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 10
Creep is the
(A) Longitudinal movement of rail
(B) Lateral movement of rail
(C) Vertical movement of rail
(D) Difference in level of two rails
Answer: Option A

Question No. 11
Due to battering action of wheels over the end of the rails, the rails get bent down and are
deflected at ends. These rails are called
(A) Roaring rails
(B) Hogged rails
 (C) Corrugated rails
(D) Buckled rails
Answer: Option B

Question No. 12
The main function of a fish plate is
(A) To join the two rails together
(B) To join rails with the sleeper
(C) To allow rail to expand and contract freely
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 13
The purpose of providing fillet in a rail section is to
(A) Increase the lateral strength
(B) Increase the vertical stiffness
(C) Avoid the stress concentration
(D) Reduce the wear
Answer: Option C

Question No. 14
Two important constituents in the composition of steel used for rail are
(A) Carbon and silicon
(B) Manganese and phosphorous
(C) Carbon and manganese
(D) Carbon and sulphur
Answer: Option C

Question No. 15
Flange-way clearance is the distance
(A) Between the adjoining faces of the running rail and the check rail near the crossing
(B) Between the gauge faces of the stock rail and the tongue rail
(C) Through which the tongue rail moves laterally at the toe of the switch
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 16
Which of the following types of sleepers is preferred on joints?
(A) CST-9 sleeper
(B) Steel trough sleeper
(C) Wooden sleeper
(D) Concrete sleeper
Answer: Option C
Question No. 17
Total effective bearing area of both the bowls of a pot sleeper, is
(A) Slightly more than that of a wooden sleeper
(B) Slightly less than that of a wooden sleeper
(C) Equal to that of a wooden sleeper
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 18
Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) Sleepers hold the rails at proper gauge on straights
(B) Sleepers provide stability to the permanent way
(C) Sleepers act as an elastic cushion between rails and ballast
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 19
On Indian Railways, number of a crossing is defined as
(A) Sine of angle of crossing
(B) Cosine of angle of crossing
(C) Tangent of angle of crossing
(D) Contingent of angle of crossing
Answer: Option D

Question No. 20
Pandrol clips cannot be used with
(A) Wooden sleepers
(B) Concrete sleepers
(C) CST-9 sleepers
(D) Steel trough sleepers
Answer: Option C

Question No. 21
For providing the required tilt of rails, adazing of wooden sleepers, is done for
(A) Bull headed rails
(B) Double headed rails
(C) Flat footed rails
(D) Any type of rails
Answer: Option C

Question No. 22
If n is length of a rail in metres, the number of sleepers per rail length generally varies from
(A) n to (n + 2)
(B) (n + 2) to (n + 4)
(C) (n + 3) to (n + 6)
 (D) (n + 4) to (n + 5)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 23
Normally maximum cant permissible in Meter Gauge is
(A) 75 mm
(B) 90 mm
(C) 140 mm
(D) 165 mm
Answer: Option B

Question No. 24
Type of switch rails generally adopted for modern track, is
(A) Straight switch
(B) Curved switch
(C) Loose heel switch
(D) Bent switch
Answer: Option B

Question No. 25
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) An extra width of 7.5 cm ballast is provided on outside a curve if track is laid with short
welded rails
(B) An extra width of 7.5 cm ballast is provided on outside a curve sharper than 3° on B.G. and
M.G. tracks
(C) An extra width of 15 cm ballast is provided on each shoulder if the track is laid with welded
rails
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 26
Lead of crossing is the distance from the
(A) Heel of the switch to the toe of the switch
(B) Heel of the switch to the theoretical nose of the crossing
(C) Toe of the switch to the theoretical nose of crossing
(D) Toe of the switch to the actual nose of crossing
Answer: Option B

Question No. 27
The place where a railway line and a road cross each other at the same level, is known as
(A) Cross over
(B) Railway junction
(C) Road junction
(D) Level crossing
Answer: Option D
Question No. 28
If the stock rails are B.H. rails, the type of switch generally provided, is
(A) Articulated
(B) Undercut
(C) Over riding
(D) Straight cut
Answer: Option D

Question No. 29
The object of providing a point lock is
(A) To ensure that each switch is correctly set
(B) To ensure that the point may not be operated while the train is on it
(C) To detect any obstruction between and tongue rail
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 30
Minimum composite sleeper index for wooden sleepers used in cross-overs, is
(A) 1152
(B) 1252
(C) 1352
(D) 1452
Answer: Option C

Question No. 31
The rails get out of their original positions due to insufficient expansion gap. This phenomenon is
known
(A) Hogging
(B) Buckling
(C) Creeping
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 32
When semaphore and warner are installed on the same post, then the stop indication is given
when
(A) Both arms are horizontal
(B) Semaphore arm lowered but warner arm horizontal
(C) Both semaphore and warner arms lowered
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 33
The standard dimensions of a wooden sleeper for M.G. railway track are
(A) 2.74 m × 25 cm × 13 cm
 (B) 1.83 m × 20 cm × 11 cm
(C) 1.52 m × 15 cm × 10 cm
(D) 1.75 m × 20 cm × 12 cm
Answer: Option B

Question No. 34
To avoid the damage of nose of crossing, the wing rails are ramped so that nose of crossing
remains at a lower level by
(A) 3 mm
(B) 4 mm
(C) 5 mm
(D) 6 mm
Answer: Option A

Question No. 35
Wear of rails is maximum in weight of
(A) Tangent track
(B) Sharp curve
(C) Tunnels
(D) Coastal area
Answer: Option B

Question No. 36
Degree of a railway curve is defined as number of degrees subtended at the centre of a curve by
an arc of
(A) 10 m
(B) 15 m
(C) 20 m
(D) 30.5 m
Answer: Option D

Question No. 37
For even distribution of load through ballast, load dispersal is assumed as
(A) 30° to the vertical
(B) 45° to the vertical
(C) 60° to the vertical
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 38
For a sleeper density of (n + 5), the number of sleepers required for constructing a broad gauge
railway track of length 650 m is
(A) 975
(B) 918
(C) 900
 (D) 880
Answer: Option C

Question No. 39
Mr. W. Simms, the consulting Engineer to the Government of India recommended the gauge for
Indian railways
(A) 1.435 m as adopted in England
(B) 1.800 m as per Indian conditions
(C) 1.676 m as a compromise gauge
(D) 1.000 m as a standard gauge
Answer: Option C

Question No. 40
The distance between theoretical nose of crossing and actual nose of crossing for practical
purposes, is
(A) Nose thickness ×
(B) Nose thickness ×
(C) Nose thickness ×
(D) Nose thickness ×
Answer: Option B

Question No. 41
The rail is designated by its
(A) Length
(B) Weight
(C) Cross-section
(D) Weight per unit length
Answer: Option D

Question No. 42
Best ballast contains stones varying in size from
(A) 1.5 cm to 3 cm
(B) 2.0 cm to 4 cm
(C) 2.0 cm to 5 cm
(D) 2.5 cm to 6 cm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 43
A turn-in-curve is defined as
(A) A curve introduced between two straights
(B) A reverse curve
(C) A reverse curve introduced in continuity of a turn out
(D) A spiral transition curve
Answer: Option C
Question No. 44
Ordinary rails are made of
(A) Mild steel
(B) Cast iron
(C) Wrought iron
(D) High carbon steel
Answer: Option D

Question No. 45
In India the rails are manufactured by
(A) Open hearth process
(B) Duplex process
(C) Both (a) and (b)
(D) Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 46
Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. Required tilt of 1 in 20 is provided
(A) To the tops of rails
(B) At rail seats in bearing plates
(C) At rail seats in chairs
(D) At rail seats in metal sleepers
Answer: Option A

Question No. 47
The formation width for a railway track depends on the
(i) Type of gauge
(ii) Number of tracks to be laid side by side
(iii) Slope of sides of embankment or cutting
The correct answer is
(A) Only (i)
(B) Both (i) and (ii)
(C) Both (i) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer: Option B

Question No. 48
If a 0.7% upgrade meets a 0.65% downgrade at a summit and the permissible rate of change of
grade per chain length is 0.10%, the length of the vertical curve, is
(A) 10 chains
(B) 12 chains
(C) 14 chains
(D) 16 chains
Answer: Option C
Question No. 49
Main disadvantage of steel sleepers, is:
(A) It gets rusted quickly
(B) Its lugs sometimes get broken
(C) Its lugs sometimes get split
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 50
For a Broad Gauge route with (M + 7) sleeper density, number of sleepers per rail length is
(A) 18
(B) 19
(C) 20
(D) 21
Answer: Option C

Question No. 51
Bearing plates are used to fix
(A) Flat footed rails to the wooden sleepers
(B) Double headed rails to the wooden sleepers
(C) Bull headed rails to the wooden sleepers
(D) Flat footed rails to the cast iron sleepers
Answer: Option A

Question No. 52
On a single line track, 10 goods trains loaded with iron ore run from A to B and empty wagons
return from B to A daily. Amount of creep of the rails will be
(A) Zero
(B) More in the direction A to B
(C) More in the direction B to A
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 53
The desirable rate of change of cant deficiency in case of Metre Gauge is
(A) 20 mm/sec
(B) 35 mm/sec
(C) 55 mm/sec
(D) 65 mm/sec
Answer: Option B

Question No. 54
At a rail joint, the ends of adjoining rails, are connected with a pair of fish plates and
(A) 2 fish bolts
(B) 4 fish bolts
 (C) 6 fish bolts
(D) 8 fish bolts
Answer: Option B

Question No. 55
If the standard length of a B.G. crossing is 597 cm, the number of crossing, is
(A) 1 in 8½
(B) 1 in 12
(C) 1 in 16
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 56
Switch angle is the angle between
(A) The gauge face of the stock rail and tongue rail
(B) The outer face of the stock rail and tongue rail
(C) The gauge face of the stock rail and outer face of the tongue rail
(D) The outer face of the stock rail and the gauge face of the tongue rail
Answer: Option A

Question No. 57
Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) Sleepers transfer the load of moving locomotive to the girders of the bridges
(B) Sleepers act as a non-elastic medium between the rails and ballast
(C) Sleepers hold the rails at 1 in 20 tilt inward
(D) Sleepers hold the rails loose on curve
Answer: Option B

Question No. 58
On Broad Gauge main lines with maximum traffic loads, the rail section preferred to, is
(A) 29.8 to 37.3 kg/m
(B) 32.5 to 42.5 kg/cm
(C) 44.7 to 56.8 kg/m
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 59
The treadle bar is provided
(A) In the middle of the track a little in front of the toes of the tongue rail
(B) Near and parallel to inner side of one of the rails
(C) At right angle to the rail
(D) Near and parallel to inner side of both the rails
Answer: Option B
Question No. 60
Heel of crossing is the line joining
(A) Ends of splice rail and point rail
(B) Ends of lead rails butting the crossing
(C) Ends of wing rails
(D) Throat and actual nose of crossing
Answer: Option A

Question No. 61
The main advantage of a cement concrete sleeper, is:
(A) Its heavy weight which improves the track modulus
(B) Its capacity to maintain gauge
(C) Its suitability for track circuiting
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 62
For laying the railway track, materials required are
(A) Rails
(B) Fish-Plates
(C) Fish Bolts
(D) Bearing Plates
The quantities required for one kilometer of Broad Gauge track will be
Answer: Option B

Question No. 63
Stock rails are
(A) Parts of crossing
(B) Fitted against check rails
(C) Fitted against tongue rails
(D) Laid between heel of switch and nose of crossing
Answer: Option C

Question No. 64
Continuity of electric current across welded rail joints, is maintained by
(A) Welding ends of a wire to each rail
(B) Placing an insulated plate underneath the rails
(C) Placing insulation in expansion gaps
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 65
Consider the following statements about concrete sleepers.
1. They improve the track modulus.
2. They have good scrap value.
 3. They render transportation easy.
4. They maintain the gauge quite satisfactorily. Of these statements
(A) 1 and 2 are correct
(B) 2 and 3 are correct
(C) 3 and 4 are correct
(D) 1 and 4 are correct
Answer: Option D

Question No. 66
The arrangement of rails which permit trains to cross another track and also to divert to the other
track, is called
(A) Diamond crossing
(B) Diamond crossing with single slip
(C) Diamond crossing with double slip
(D) Cross over
Answer: Option C

Question No. 67
On either side of the centre line of rails, a cant of 1 in 20 in the sleeper is provided for a distance of
(A) 150 mm
(B) 165 mm
(C) 175 mm
(D) 185 mm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 68
In a B.G. railway track, the specified ruling gradient is 1 in 250. The horizontal curve of 3° on a
gradient of 1 in 250 will have the permissible gradient of
(A) 1 in 257
(B) 1 in 357
(C) 1 in 457
(D) 1 in 512
Answer: Option B

Question No. 69
A CST-9 sleeper consists of
(A) Two inverted triangular pots on either side of rail seat
(B) A central plate with a projected key and box on the top of plate
(C) A tie bar and 4 cotters to connect two cast iron plates
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 70
Staggered rail joints are generally provided
(A) On curves
 (B) On tangents
(C) On bridges
(D) In tunnels
Answer: Option A

Question No. 71
The following tests are conducted for rails:
(i) Falling weight test
(ii) Tensile test
(iii) Hammer test
The compulsory tests are
(A) Only (i)
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i) and (iii)
Answer: Option B

Question No. 72
Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) Fish plates fit the underside of the rail head
(B) Fish plates fit the top of the rail foot
(C) Fish plates fit the web of the rail section
(D) Cross sectional area of fish plates, is normally the same as that of the rail section
Answer: Option C

Question No. 73
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Length of tongue rail should be greater than rigid wheel base of vehicle
(B) Stock rail should be longer than tongue rail
(C) Length of stock rail ahead of the toe should be a minimum of 1.65 m
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 74
Fish plate is in contact with rail at
(A) Web of rail
(B) Fishing plane
(C) Head of rail
(D) Foot of rail
Answer: Option B

Question No. 75
In railways a triangle is mainly provided for
(A) Diverting trains from the main line to branch line
(B) Crossing over between parallel tracks
 (C) Changing direction of engines through 180°
(D) Shunting wagons in yards
Answer: Option C

Question No. 76
Minimum gradient in station yards is generally limited to
(A) 1 in 1000
(B) 1 in 750
(C) 1 in 500
(D) Zero
Answer: Option D

Question No. 77
The formation width for a single line meter gauge track in embankment as adopted on Indian
Railways is
(A) 4.27 m
(B) 4.88 m
(C) 5.49 m
(D) 6.10 m
Answer: Option B

Question No. 78
If L1 and L2 are actual and theoretical lengths of a tongue rail, d is heel divergence and t is thickness

(A) sin 1 (d - t/
(B) tan 1 (d - t/
(C) sin 1 (d - t/
(D) tan 1 (d - t/
Answer: Option A

Question No. 79
If a is average number of peaks more than 10 mm of unevenness per kilometre, b is average
number peaks more than 6 mm for gauge variation per kilometre and c is average number of
peaks more than 2 mm twist per metre, then composite current recording index (I c), as
recommended by Indian Northern Railways, is
(A) Ic = 10 - a - b - c/4
(B) Ic = 20 - a - b - c/4
(C) Ic = 30 - a - b - c/4
(D) Ic = 40 - a - b - c/4
Answer: Option D

Question No. 80
Minimum depth of ballast cushion for a Broad Gauge wooden sleeper of size 275 × 25 × 13 cm with
75 cm sleeper spacing is
(A) 15 cm
 (B) 20 cm
(C) 25 cm
(D) 30 cm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 81
On a straight railway track, absolute levels at point A on two rails are 100.550 m and 100.530 m
and the absolute levels at point B 100 m apart are 100.585 m and 100.515 m respectively, the
value of twist of rails per metre run, is
(A) 0.4 mm
(B) 0.5 mm
(C) 0.7 mm
(D) 0.8 mm
Answer: Option B

Question No. 82
If D gle of crossing, the distance
between the noses of crossing measured parallel to the main track, is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 83
The sleepers resting directly on girder are fastened to the top flange of girder by
(A) Hook bolts
(B) Dog spikes
(C) Fang bolts
(D) Rail screws
Answer: Option A

Question No. 84
The sleepers which satisfy the requirements of an ideal sleeper, are
(A) Cast iron sleepers
(B) R.C.C. sleepers
(C) Steel sleepers
(D) Wooden sleepers
Answer: Option D

Question No. 85
The side of a rail diamond may be obtained by dividing the gauge of track by
(A) Sine of acute crossing
(B) Cosine of acute crossing
(C) Tangent of acute crossing
 (D) Cotangent of acute crossing
Answer: Option A

Question No. 86
The standard length of rail for Broad Gauge and Meter Gauge are respectively
(A) 12 m and 12 m
(B) 12 m and 13 m
(C) 13 m and 12 m
(D) 13 m and 13 m
Answer: Option C

Question No. 87
Coning of wheels is provided
(A) To check lateral movement of wheels
(B) To avoid damage to inner faces of rails
(C) To avoid discomfort to passengers
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 88
On Indian Railways, angle of crossing between gauge faces of Vee, is generally calculated by
(A) Cole's method
(B) Centre line method
(C) Isosceles triangle method
(D) Both (a) and (b)
Answer: Option A

Question No. 89
Which of the following factors govern the choice of the gauge?
(i) Volume and nature of traffic
(ii) Speed of train
(iii) Physical features of the country
The correct answer is
(A) Only (i)
(B) Both (i) and (ii)
(C) Both (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 90
Ballast packed below and around the sleepers to transfer the load from sleepers to formation,
generally consists of
(A) Broken stones
(B) Gravels
(C) Moorum
 (D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 91
On Indian Railways, the approximate weight of a rail section is determined from the formula
(A) Weight of the rail/axial load of locomotive = 1/10
(B) Weight of the rail/axial load of locomotive = 1/410
(C) Weight of the rail/axial load of locomotive = 1/510
(D) Weight of the rail/axial load of locomotive = 1/610
Answer: Option C

Question No. 92
The maximum degree of curvature for Meter Gauge is limited to
(A) 10°
(B) 16°
(C) 30°
(D) 40°
Answer: Option B

Question No. 93
The grade compensation on B.G. tracks on Indian Railways, is
(A) 0.02 %
(B) 0.03 %
(C) 0.04 %
(D) 0.05 %
Answer: Option C

Question No. 94
The factor for deciding the type of sleeper, is
(A) Easy fixing and removal of rails
(B) Provision of sufficient bearing area for rails
(C) Initial and maintenance costs
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 95
Number of keys used in CST-9 sleeper is
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option A
Question No. 96
Wheels of a rolling stock are provided flanges on
(A) Outer side
(B) Inner side
(C) Both sides
(D) Neither side
Answer: Option B

Question No. 97
For inspection and packing of ballast, each pot sleeper is provided with
(A) One hole
(B) Two holes
(C) Three holes
(D) Four holes
Answer: Option B

Question No. 98
The compensation for curvature on gradient for Meter Gauge is given by
(A) 70/R
(B) 52.5/R
(C) 35/R
(D) 105/R
R
Answer: Option B

Question No. 99
To design a cross-over between parallel tracks, the required components are:
(A) Two switch points, two acute angle crossings and two check rails
(B) Two switch points, two acute angle crossings and four check rails
(C) Two switch points, two acute angle crossings and six check rails
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 100

The standard width of ballast for M.G. track in Indian Railways, is kept
(A) 3.35 m
(B) 3.53 m
(C) 2.30 m
(D) 2.50 m
Answer: Option C

Question No. 101

The correct relation between curve lead (CL), switch lead (SL) and lead of crossing (L) is given by
(A) CL = L - SL
(B) L =CL - SL
 (C) SL = L + CL
(D) L = (CL + SL)/2
Answer: Option B

Question No. 102

Pot sleepers are in the form of
(A) A number of bowls connected together with a tie bar
(B) Two bowls placed under each rail and connected together with a tie bar
(C) Two bowls placed under two rails and the one between the rails
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 103

Bending of rail ends due to loose packing under a joint and loose fish Bolts, is known
(A) Buckling
(B) Hogging
(C) Creeping
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 104

In a shunting signal if the red band is inclined at 45° it indicates
(A) Stop
(B) Proceed
(C) Proceed cautiously
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 105

If D is distance between centres of two parallel track of gauge G, then, total length of cross-over
(from the point of commencement to the point of termination) with an intermediate straight
portion and N crossing, is given by
(A) DN + G [N + N2)]
(B) DN + G [2N + N2)]
(C) DN + G [3N + N2)]
(D) DN + G [4N + N2)]
Answer: Option C

Question No. 106

Rail tops of a track are placed
(A) Horizontal
(B) At an inward slope of 1 in 20
(C) At an outward slope of 1 in 20
(D) At an outward slope of 1 in 30
Answer: Option B
Question No. 107
A train is hauled by 2-8-2 locomotive with 22.5 tonnes and on each driving axle. Assuming the
coefficient of rail-wheel friction to be 0.25, what would be the hauling capacity of the locomotive?
(A) 15.0 tonnes
(B) 22.5 tonnes
(C) 45.0 tonnes
(D) 90.0 tonnes
Answer: Option B

Question No. 108

The type of switch generally used for B.G. and M.G. tracks, is
(A) Articulated
(B) Undercut
(C) Over riding
(D) Straight cut
Answer: Option C

Question No. 109

For an effective administration, Indian railway system has been divided into
(A) Four railway zones
(B) Six railway zones
(C) Seven railway zones
(D) Nine railway zones
Answer: Option D

Question No. 110

If 'A' is the angle formed by two gauge faces, the crossing number will be
(A) tan A
(B) cot A
(C) sec A
(D) A rad
Answer: Option B

Question No. 111

Heel divergency, the distance between the running faces of stock rail and gauge face of tongue
rail, as recommended for Indian B.G. tracks, is
(A) 100 mm
(B) 119 mm
(C) 125 mm
(D) 135 mm
Answer: Option D

Question No. 112

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) Ends of adjoining rails should be in true alignment
 (B) Rail joints should be as strong as the rail section itself
(C) Rail joints should be elastic laterally as well as vertically
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 113

Tensile strength of steel used in rails should not be less than
(A) 450 MPa
(B) 500 MPa
(C) 700 MPa
(D) 850 MPa
Answer: Option C

Question No. 114

On Indian Railways standard length of rails for B.G. track, is
(A) 33 ft (10.06 m)
(B) 36 ft (10.97 m)
(C) 39 ft (11.89 m)
(D) 42 ft (12.8 m)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 115

Wing rails are provided
(A) Near tongue rails
(B) Near check rails
(C) Near stock rails
(D) In crossing
Answer: Option D

Question No. 116

The side slope of embankments for a railway track is generally taken as
(A) 1 : 1
(B) 1.5 : 1
(C) 2 : 1
(D) 1 : 2
Answer: Option C

Question No. 117

If S and H are strength and hardness index of a timber at 12% moisture content, the composite
sleeper index, is
(A) (H + 10S)/20
(B) (S + 10H)/20
(C) (20S + H)/10
(D) (S + 20H)/10
Answer: Option B
Question No. 118
If D is the distance between parallel tracks G
between theoretical noses of two crossings measured parallel to tracks, is
(A) (D - G - G )
(B) (D - G + G )
(C) (D - G - G )
(D) (D + G + G )
Answer: Option A

Question No. 119

Minimum composite sleeper index prescribed on Indian Railways for a track sleeper is
(A) 552
(B) 783
(C) 1352
(D) 1455
Answer: Option B

Question No. 120

To achieve best performance, the type of switch preferred to, is
(A) Undercut switch
(B) Straight-cut switch
(C) Overriding switch
(D) Both (a) and (b)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 121

On B.G. tracks the distance of outer signal from station limit is kept
(A) 510 m
(B) 520 m
(C) 530 m
(D) 540 m
Answer: Option D

Question No. 122

The limiting value of cant deficiency for Meter Gauge routes is
(A) 40 mm
(B) 50 mm
(C) 75 mm
(D) 100 mm
Answer: Option B

Question No. 123

The weight of the rails depends upon
(A) Gauge of the tracks
(B) Speed of trains
 (C) Spacing of sleepers
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 124

The main advantage of a long rail over short one, is
(A) It requires less number of rail fastenings
(B) It provides smooth running of trains
(C) It involves less maintenance cost
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 125

In a scissors crossover, the crossings provided are
(i) 2 obtuse angle crossings
(ii) 4 obtuse angle crossings
(iii) 4 acute angle crossings
(iv) 6 acute angle crossings
The correct answer is
(A) (i) and (iii)
(B) (i) and (iv)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (ii) and (iv)
Answer: Option B

Question No. 126

Rail section first designed on Indian railways, was
(A) Double headed
(B) Bull headed
(C) Flat footed
(D) (a) and (b) simultaneously
Answer: Option A

Question No. 127

The lengths of the standard crossings in India for Broad gauge and Metre gauge tracks is same for
(A) 1 in 8½ B.G. and, in 12 M.G.
(B) 1 in 12 B.G. and, 1 in 16 M.G.
(C) 1 in 12 B.G. and 1 in 8½ M.G.
(D) 1 in 16 B.G. and 1 in 12 M.G.
Answer: Option A

Question No. 128

For the purpose of track maintenance, the number of turn out equivalent to one track km is
(A) 1
(B) 2
 (C) 5
(D) 10
Answer: Option D

Question No. 129

Dimensions of a plate girder are:
(A) 851 mm × 851 mm
(B) 255 mm × 254 mm
(C) 851 mm × 254 mm
(D) 551 mm × 254 mm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 130

The check rails are placed opposite the crossing so that
(A) It is symmetrically placed opposite nose of crossing
(B) Its one-third length is ahead of the nose of crossing
(C) Its two-third length is ahead of the nose of crossing
(D) Its three fourth length is ahead of the nose of crossing
Answer: Option C

Question No. 131

Consider the following surveys.
1. Reconnaissance survey
2. Preliminary survey
3. Traffic survey
4. Location survey
The correct sequence in which these surveys are conducted before the alignment of a track is
finalised is
(A) 1, 3, 2, 4
(B) 1, 3, 4, 2
(C) 3, 1, 4, 2
(D) 3, 1, 2, 4
Answer: Option D

Question No. 132

The difference in the lengths of two diagonals of a rail diamond is
(A)
(B) -
(C) -
(D) (2G/si -
Answer: Option A

Question No. 133

Check rails are provided on inner side of inner rails if sharpness of a B.G. curve, is more than
(A) 3°
 (B) 5°
(C) 6°
(D) 8°
Answer: Option D

Question No. 134

Largest percentage of material in the rail is in its
(A) Head
(B) Web
(C) Foot
(D) Head and foot both
Answer: Option A

Question No. 135

The spread between the point and splice rails at a distance of 4.25 m is 50 cm. The size of the
crossing is
(A) 1 in 6
(B) 1 in 8½
(C) 1 in 12
(D) 1 in 16
Answer: Option B

Question No. 136

Packing of ballast is done
(A) Near the ends of sleepers
(B) On the shoulders
(C) Under sleepers
(D) Between two rails
Answer: Option C

Question No. 137

The total gap on both sides between the inside edges of wheel flanges and gauge faces of the rail
is kept as
(A) 10 mm
(B) 13 mm
(C) 16 mm
(D) 19 mm
Answer: Option D

Question No. 138

The rail section which is not used on Indian Broad Gauge tracks, is
(A) 35 R
(B) 40 R
(C) 45 R
(D) 55 R
 Answer: Option B

Question No. 139

In a diamond crossing, numbers of noses are
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 6
Answer: Option D

Question No. 140

Number of cotters used in CST-9 sleepers is
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
Answer: Option C

Question No. 141

In Indian railways, plate laying is usually done by
(A) Side method
(B) Telescopic method
(C) American method
(D) All the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 142

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The line which connects a number of parallel tracks, and also provides an access to main
track, is called a gathering line
(B) With a diagonal gathering line, the length of the siding decreases with increase of its
distance from main track
(C) To have sidings of same length, a diagonal line is laid at one end and a parallel gathering line
at the other end
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 143

A Broad Gauge branch line takes off as a contrary flexure from a main line. If the super-elevation
required for branch line is 10 mm and cant deficiency is 75 mm, the super-elevation to be actually
provided on the branch line will be
(A) 10 mm
(B) 64 mm
(C) 85 mm
(D) 65 mm
 Answer: Option D

Question No. 144

The angle between the gauge faces of the stock rail and tongue rail, is called
(A) Switch angle
(B) Angle of crossing
(C) Angle of turnout
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 145

In permanent way, ballast
(A) Transfers load from sleepers to the formation
(B) Provides an elastic bed to the track
(C) Provides a drainage of track
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 146

Which of the following devices is used to transfer the wagons or locomotives to and from parallel
tracks without any necessity of shunting?
(A) Triangle
(B) Turntable
(C) Traverser
(D) Scotch block
Answer: Option C

Question No. 147

If absolute levels of rails at the consecutive axles A, B, and C separated by 1.8 metres are 100.505
m, 100.530 m, and 100.525 m respectively, the unevenness of rails, is
(A) 0.065 m
(B) 0.055 m
(C) 0.045 m
(D) 0.035 m
Answer: Option A

Question No. 148

Spacing of sleepers
(A) Throughout the length of a rail is kept uniform
(B) Near rail joints, is kept closer
(C) At the middle of rails, is kept closer
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 149
For a 8° curve track diverging from a main curve of 5° in an opposite direction in the layout of a
broad gauge yard, the cant to be provided for the branch track for maximum speed of 45 km/h on
the main line and 'G' = 1.676 m is (Permitted cant deficiency for the main line = 7.6 cm)
(A) 0.168 cm
(B) -0.168 cm
(C) 7.432 cm
(D) 7.768 cm
Answer: Option B

Question No. 150

Distance between the inner rail and check rail provided on sharp curve, is
(A) 40 mm
(B) 42 mm
(C) 44 mm
(D) 46 mm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 151

30 m long rails are used in
(A) India
(B) U.K.
(C) Russia
(D) U.S.A.
Answer: Option D

Question No. 152

The load on each axle of a locomotive is 22 tonnes. If the coefficient of friction is 0.2, then the
hauling capacity due to 3 pairs of driving wheels will be
(A) 26.41
(B) 19.81
(C) 13.21
(D) 6.61
Answer: Option C

Question No. 153

Overall depth of a dog spike, is
(A) 120.6 mm
(B) 155.90 mm
(C) 135 mm
(D) 150 mm
Answer: Option A
Question No. 154
To prevent creep in rails, the steel sleepers are fixed with rails by clips, bolts and
(A) One key
(B) Two keys
(C) Three keys
(D) Four keys
Answer: Option D

Question No. 155

52 kg rails are mostly used in
(A) Broad Gauge
(B) Metre Gauge
(C) Narrow Gauge
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Answer: Option A

Question No. 156

Safe speed (V) on a curve of radius 970 metres provided with two transition curves on Board
Gauge track, is
(A) 112 km/hour
(B) 122 km/hour
(C) 132 km/hour
(D) 142 km/hour
Answer: Option C

Question No. 157

Widening of gauge is provided if degree of the curve, is
(A) 3° or less
(B) 3° to 4½°
(C) More than 4½°
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 158

The height of the rail for 52 kg rail section is
(A) 143 mm
(B) 156 mm
(C) 172 mm
(D) 129 mm
Answer: Option B

Question No. 159

The life of a wooden sleeper depends upon
(A) Quality of its timber
(B) Ability to resist decay
 (C) Resistance to weathering
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 160

Anti-creep anchors are fixed to rails by
(A) Wedging
(B) Spring grip
(C) Clamping
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 161

Sleeper density in India is normally kept as
(A) (M + 2) to (M + 7)
(B) M to (M + 2)
(C) (M + 5) to (M + 10)
(D) M
M
Answer: Option A

Question No. 162

Composite sleeper index determines
(A) Number of sleepers per rail length
(B) Suitability of wooden sleepers
(C) Permissible stresses in steel sleepers
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 163

If G is gauge distance and a is crossing, the distance between the nose of acute crossing and nose
of obtuse crossing of a rail diamond, measured along the rail not forming the diamond, is
(A) G
(B) G
(C) G
(D) G
Answer: Option A

Question No. 164

Loose jaws of steel trough sleepers are made of
(A) Cast steel
(B) Mild steel
(C) Cast iron
(D) Spring steel
Answer: Option D
Question No. 165
Regional Indian railways use different types of sleepers according to their
(A) Availability
(B) Economy
(C) Suitability
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 166

In Indian railways, the ratio of axle load and weight of rail, is
(A) 312
(B) 412
(C) 512
(D) 600
Answer: Option C

Question No. 167

Maximum value of 'throw of switch' for Broad Gauge track is
(A) 89 mm
(B) 95 mm
(C) 100 mm
(D) 115 mm
Answer: Option D

Question No. 168

Top surface of steel sleepers, is
(A) Kept level throughout
(B) Provided a cant of 1 in 20 inward
(C) Provided a cant of 1 in 20 outward
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 169

If D
distance between the noses of crossing measured parallel to the main track, is
(A) D
(B) D
(C) D
(D) D
Answer: Option B

Question No. 170

Metal sleepers are superior to wooden sleepers with respect to
(A) Cost
(B) Life
 (C) Track circuiting
(D) Fastening
Answer: Option B

Question No. 171

Charles Blacker Vignoles invented the flat footed rails in
(A) 1814
(B) 1836
(C) 1846
(D) 1856
Answer: Option B

Question No. 172

A triangle of railway consists of
(A) Three turn outs
(B) One turn out and two diamonds
(C) Two turn outs and one split
(D) One turn out, one split and one diamond
Answer: Option C

Question No. 173

A treadle bar is used for
(A) Interlocking points and signal
(B) Setting points and crossings
(C) Setting marshalling yard signals
(D) Track maintenance
Answer: Option A

Question No. 174

If L is length of a rail and R is the radius of a curve, the versine h for the curve, is
(A) a = L/4R
(B) a = L²/4R
(C) h = L²/8R
(D) h = L²/16R
Answer: Option C

Question No. 175

For metal sleepers with rounded edges, maximum size of ballast, is
(A) 50 mm
(B) 40 mm
(C) 30 mm
(D) 25 cm
Answer: Option B
Question No. 176
Head width of 52 kg rail section is
(A) 61.9 mm
(B) 66.7 mm
(C) 67 mm
(D) 72.33 mm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 177

Rail joint supported on a single sleeper, is known
(A) Suspended rail joint
(B) Bridge rail joint
(C) Supported rail joint
(D) Square rail joint
Answer: Option C

Question No. 178

Each block of a two-block concrete sleeper is
(A) 722 mm × 295 mm × 271 mm and 215 kg in weight
(B) 250 mm × 154 mm × 196 mm and 260 kg in weight
(C) 525 mm × 350 mm × 275 mm and 280 kg in weight
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 179

The formation width for a double line Broad Gauge track in cutting (excluding drains) as adopted
on Indian Railways is
(A) 6.10 m
(B) 8.84 m
(C) 10.21 m
(D) 10.82 m
Answer: Option C

Question No. 180

Arrangement made to divert the trains from one track to another, is known as
(A) Railway point
(B) Railway crossing
(C) Turnout
(D) Railway junction
Answer: Option C

Question No. 181

The standard dimensions of a wooden sleeper for a B.G. railway track are
(A) 2.74 m × 25 cm × 13 cm
(B) 1.83 m × 20 cm × 11 cm
 (C) 1.52 m × 15 cm × 10 cm
(D) 1.75 cm × 20 cm × 12 cm
Answer: Option A

Question No. 182

The limiting value of cant excess for Broad Gauge is
(A) 55 mm
(B) 65 mm
(C) 75 mm
(D) 100 mm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 183

Indian Railways detects the rail flow by
(A) Mitsubishi Rail flow dector
(B) Soni Rail flow dector
(C) Audi-gauge Rail flow detector
(D) Kraut Kramer Rail flow detector
Answer: Option D

Question No. 184

The gradient on which an additional engine is required to negotiate the gradient, is called
(A) Momentum gradient
(B) Pusher gradient
(C) Ruling gradient
(D) Steep gradient
Answer: Option B

Question No. 185

One degree of curve is equivalent to
(A) 1600/R
(B) 1700/R
(C) 1750/R
(D) 1850/R
R
Answer: Option C

Question No. 186

If D
between the noses of crossing measured parallel to the gathering line, is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Answer: Option B
Question No. 187
If D is distance between centres of two parallel tracks of gauge G with entire curved leads and
equal angles of crossing, total length of crossover, is
(A) D (4R - 2G - D)]
(B) D (3R - 2G -D)]
(C) D (3R + 2G - D)]
(D) D (4 + 2G - D)]
Answer: Option A

Question No. 188

Which of the following mechanical devices is used to ensure that route cannot be changed while
the train is on the point even after putting back the signal?
(A) Detectors
(B) Point lock
(C) Iock bar
(D) Stretcher bar
Answer: Option C

Question No. 189

Pot sleepers are used if degree of the curve does not exceed
(A) 4°
(B) 5°
(C) 6°
(D) 7°
Answer: Option A

Question No. 190

Burnettising is done for the preservation of
(A) Wooden sleepers
(B) Rails
(C) Ballast
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 191

Consider the following statements:
Automatic signalling system results in
1. Greater risk
2. Higher efficiency
3. Avoidance of block instruments
4. Higher operating cost
Of these statements
(A) 1 and 2 are correct
(B) 3 and 4 are correct
(C) 1 and 4 are correct
 (D) 2 and 3 are correct
Answer: Option D

Question No. 192

A kink is made in stock rails, ahead of the toe of switch at a distance of
(A) 10 cm
(B) 15 cm
(C) 20 cm
(D) 30 cm
Answer: Option B

Question No. 193

Rails are fixed on steel sleepers
(A) By bearing plates
(B) By dog spikes
(C) By keys in lugs or jaws
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 194

Largest dimension of a rail is its
(A) Height
(B) Foot width
(C) Head width
(D) Any of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 195

The rail section which is not used on Indian metre gauge tracks, is
(A) 25 R
(B) 30 R
(C) 35 R
(D) 40 R
Answer: Option D

Question No. 196

Advantage of automatic signalling, is:
(A) Increased safety
(B) Reduction in delays
(C) Increase in track capacity
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 197
For developing thinly populated areas, the correct choice of gauge is
(A) Broad Gauge
(B) Meter Gauge
(C) Narrow Gauge
(D) Any of the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 198

Coning of wheels
(A) Prevent lateral movement of wheels
(B) Provide smooth running of trains
(C) Avoid excessive wear of inner faces of rail
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 199

An extra 7.5 cm ballast width is not provided on outer side on a curve, if its degree is
(A) 6°
(B) 5°
(C) 4°
(D) 3°
Answer: Option D

Question No. 200

Standard size of wooden sleeper for Broad Gauge track is
(A) 275 × 25 × 13 cm
(B) 180 × 20 × 11.5 cm
(C) 225 × 23 × 13 cm
(D) 250 × 26 × 12 cm
Answer: Option A

Question No. 201

By interchanging gibs and cotters of a pot sleeper, gauge may be slackened by
(A) 1.2 mm
(B) 2.2 mm
(C) 3.2 mm
(D) 4.2 mm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 202

The main function of sleepers, is
(A) To support rails
(B) To hold rails at correct gauge
(C) To distribute load from the rails to ballast
 (D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 203

The limiting value of cant gradient for all gauges is
(A) 1 in 360
(B) 1 in 720
(C) 1 in 1000
(D) 1 in 1200
Answer: Option B

Question No. 204

The spike commonly used to fix rails to wooden sleepers in Indian railways, is
(A) Dog spike
(B) Screw spike
(C) Round spike
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 205

Track construction involves preparation of
(A) Sub-grade
(B) Plate laying
(C) Ballasting
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 206

Study the following statements regarding creep.
(i) Creep is greater on curves than on tangent railway track,
(ii) Creep in new rails is more than that in old rails,
(iii) Creep is more on steep gradients than on level track. The correct answer is
(A) Only (i)
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer: Option B

Question No. 207

According to Indian Railway Board, no diamond crossing should be flatter than
(A) 1 in 6
(B) 1 in 8½
(C) 1 in 12
(D) 1 in 16
Answer: Option B
Question No. 208
Smith diamond is provided if the angle of diamond is less than
(A) 2°
(B) 4°
(C) 6°
(D) 8°
Answer: Option C

Question No. 209

60 R rails are mostly used in
(A) Broad Gauge
(B) Metre Gauge
(C) Narrow Gauge
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 210

A welded rail joint is generally
(A) Supported on a sleeper
(B) Supported on a metal plate
(C) Suspended
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 211

If the standard length of a crossing is 480 cm, the number of crossing is
(A) 1 in 8½ of B.G.
(B) 1 in 8½ of M.G.
(C) Both (a) and (b)
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 212

Width of ballast section for Broad Gauge is
(A) 1.83 m
(B) 2.25 m
(C) 3.35 m
(D) 4.30 m
Answer: Option C

Question No. 213

Minimum length of a transition curve required for
(A) 2° curves for a maximum permissible speed of 135 km/hr, is 220 metres
(B) 4° curves for a maximum permissible speed of 95 km/hr, is 220 metres
(C) 6° curves for a maximum permissible speed of 80 km/hr, is 220 metres
 (D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 214

For points and crossings, maximum size of ballast, is
(A) 50 mm
(B) 40 mm
(C) 30 mm
(D) 25 mm
Answer: Option D

Question No. 215

Which of the following methods of designation of crossing is mostly used in India?
(A) Center line method
(B) Right angle method
(C) Isosceles angle method
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 216

For calculating the length of curve lead (C.L.), the correct formula is
(A) C.L. = G. /2
(B) C.L. = IG)
(C) C.L. = 2 GN
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 217

In a railway track, permissible gauge with tolerance under loaded condition, is
(A) G + 0.1 mm
(B) G + 1.5 mm
(C) G - 1.0 mm
(D) G - 1.5 mm
Answer: Option B

Question No. 218

Yellow light-hand signal indicates
(A) Stop
(B) Proceed
(C) Proceed cautiously
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option C
Question No. 219
The first Indian railway was laid in
(A) 1775
(B) 1804
(C) 1825
(D) 1853
Answer: Option D

Question No. 220

Sand may be used as ballast for
(A) Wooden sleepers
(B) Steel sleepers
(C) Cast iron sleepers
(D) All the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 221

What will be the curve lead for a 1 in 8.5 turnout taking off from a straight broad gauge track?
(A) 28.49 m
(B) 21.04 m
(C) 14.24 m
(D) 7.45 m
Answer: Option A

Question No. 222

A scissors cross-over consists of
(A) Two pairs of points, four acute angle crossings and two obtuse angle crossings
(B) Four pairs of points, four acute angle crossings and four obtuse angle crossings
(C) Four pairs of points, six acute angle crossings and two obtuse angle crossings
(D) Two pairs of points, six acute angle crossings and four obtuse angle crossings
Answer: Option C

Question No. 223

The effective bearing area of all types of sleepers, is
(A) 0.40 m2
(B) 0.42 m2
(C) 0.44 m2
(D) 0.46 m2
Answer: Option D

Question No. 224

The cross-sectional area of 52 kg flat footed rail is
(A) 6155 mm²
(B) 6615 mm²
(C) 7235 mm²
 (D) 7825 mm²
Answer: Option B

Question No. 225

angle and R is radius of the turnout, the length of the tongue rail, is
(A) R
(B) R
(C) /2
(D) /2
Answer: Option D

Question No. 226

Steel sleepers are
(A) Rectangular is cross section throughout
(B) Hollow circular pipes
(C) 6 mm thick steel sheets with ends bent down
(D) 6 mm thick steel sheets with ends bent up
Answer: Option C

Question No. 227

Number of dog spikes normally used per rail seat on curved track is
(A) One on either side
(B) Two outside and one inside
(C) One outside and two inside
(D) Two outside and two inside
Answer: Option B

Question No. 228

If sleeper density is M + 7 for 13 m rails, the minimum depth of ballast under wooden sleepers (25
cm × 13 cm), is
(A) 15 cm
(B) 20 cm
(C) 25 cm
(D) 30 cm
Answer: Option B

Question No. 229

Minimum composite sleeper index for wooden sleepers used over bridge girders, is
(A) 1455
(B) 1355
(C) 1255
(D) 1155
Answer: Option A
Question No. 230
The shape of transition curve used by Indian Railways is
(A) Cubic parabola
(B) Spiral
(C) Sine curve
(D) Lemniscates of Bernoulli
Answer: Option A

Question No. 231

Gauge of a permanent way, is
(A) Minimum distance between running faces of rails
(B) Minimum distance between outer faces of rails
(C) Distance between centres of rails
(D) Width of formation
Answer: Option A

Question No. 232

If w is width of sleepers, s is sleeper spacing and d is depth of ballast then
(A) d = (s - w)/2
(B) d = (s - w)/3
(C) d = (s - w)/4
(D) d = (s - w)/5
Answer: Option A

Question No. 233

The reception signal is
(i) Outer signal
(ii) Home signal
(iii) Starter
(iv) Advanced starter
The correct answer is
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i) and (iv)
Answer: Option A

Question No. 234

The standard width of ballast for B.G. Track in Indian Railways, is kept
(A) 3.35 m
(B) 3.53 m
(C) 2.35 m
(D) 2.53 m
Answer: Option A
Question No. 235
In India, metre gauge permanent way was adopted in
(A) 1855
(B) 1860
(C) 1866
(D) 1871
Answer: Option D

Question No. 236

Which one of the following rail failures is caused by loose fish bolts at expansion joints?
(A) Crushed head
(B) Angular break
(C) Split head
(D) Transverse fissures
Answer: Option A

Question No. 237

Best wood for wooden sleepers is
(A) Chir
(B) Deodar
(C) Sal
(D) Teak
Answer: Option D

Question No. 238

Bull headed rails are generally provided on
(A) Points and crossing
(B) Straight tangents
(C) Curved tracks
(D) Metre gauge tracks
Answer: Option A

Question No. 239

The type of bearing plate used in all joints and on curves to give better bearing area to the rails is
(A) Flat mild steel bearing plate
(B) Mild steel canted bearing plate
(C) Cast iron anti-creep bearing plate
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 240

For holding a rail in position, no chairs are used for
(A) Flat footed rails
(B) Bull headed rails
(C) Double headed rails
 (D) Both (a) and (b)
Answer: Option A

Question No. 241

Cast iron sleeper, is
(A) Pot sleeper
(B) Box sleeper
(C) Duplex sleeper
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 242

Gauge is the distance between
(A) Center to center of rails
(B) Running faces of rails
(C) Outer faces of rails
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 243

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Rails are directly laid over hard wooden sleepers and fixed with spikes
(B) Adzing is done on hard wooden sleepers
(C) Bearing plates are used on soft wooden sleepers
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 244

Rail section is generally designated by its
(A) Total weight
(B) Total length
(C) Weight per metre length
(D) Area of its cross-section
Answer: Option C

Question No. 245

At points and crossings, the total number of sleepers for 1 in 12 turnouts in Broad Gauge is
(A) 51
(B) 62
(C) 70
(D) 78
Answer: Option C
Question No. 246
The quantity of stone ballast required per metre tangent length, is
(A) 1.15 m3
(B) 1.14 m3
(C) 1.13 m3
(D) 1.11 m3
Answer: Option D

Question No. 247

Weight and cross section of the rails are decided on
(A) Gauge of tracks
(B) Speed of trains
(C) Spacing of sleepers
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 248

Number of switches provided on a Gaunt-letted track is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 249

If S is cant deficiency in centimetres and V is maximum permissible speed in kmph, the maximum
length of transition curves, is
(A) SV/13.6
(B) SV/19.8
(C) SV/127
(D) SV/16.8
Answer: Option A

Question No. 250

A train is hauled by 4-8-2 locomotive. The number of driving wheels in this locomotive is
(A) 4
(B) 8
(C) 12
(D) 14
Answer: Option B

Question No. 251

Maximum cant deficiency prescribed on Indian Board Gauge Railways, is
(A) 40 mm
(B) 50 mm
 (C) 75 mm
(D) 100 mm
Answer: Option D

Question No. 252

Vertical curves are provided where algebraic difference between grades is equal to or
(A) Less than 2 mm/m
(B) More than 2 mm/m
(C) Less than 4 mm/m
(D) More than 4mm/m
Answer: Option D

Question No. 253

A scissors cross over consists of one diamond and
(A) one turn out
(B) Two turn outs
(C) Three turn outs
(D) Four turn outs
Answer: Option D

Question No. 254

The slipping of driving wheels of locomotives on the rail surface causes
(A) Wheel burns
(B) Hogging of rails
(C) Scabbing of rails
(D) Corrugation of rails
Answer: Option A

Question No. 255

Wooden sleepers used on the girders of bridges, are generally made of
(A) Sal
(B) Chir
(C) Teak
(D) Deodar
Answer: Option C

Question No. 256

To ensure exact gauge, the gauge tie plates are provided at
(A) Toe of the switch
(B) Nose of crossing
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option C
Question No. 257
If G is gauge is metres, V is speed of trains in km/hour and R is radius of a curve in metres, the
equilibrium super elevation is
(A) GV²/R
(B) GV²/17R
(C) GV²/127R
(D) GV²/130R
Answer: Option C

Question No. 258

The height of the center of arm of a semaphore signal above the ground is
(A) 5.5 m
(B) 6.5 m
(C) 7.5 m
(D) 8.5 m
Answer: Option C

Question No. 259

A wing rail is renewed or reconditioned if its maximum vertical wear is
(A) 9.5 m
(B) 7.5 m
(C) 5.5 m
(D) 5.0 m
Answer: Option A

Question No. 260

The steepest gradient permissible on a 2.5° curve for Broad Gauge line having ruling gradient of 1
in 200 is
(A) 1 in 250
(B) 1 in 222
(C) 1 in 235
(D) 1 in 275
Answer: Option A

Question No. 261

The tread of wheels is provided an outward slope of
(A) 1 in 10
(B) 1 in 15
(C) 1 in 20
(D) 1 in 25
Answer: Option C

Question No. 262

When the rail ends rest on a joint sleeper, the joint is termed as
(A) Supported rail joint
 (B) Suspended rail joint
(C) Bridge joint
(D) Base joint
Answer: Option A

Question No. 263

To prevent percolation of water into formation, moorum is used as a blanket for
(A) Black cotton soil
(B) Sandy soil
(C) Clayey soil
(D) All the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 264

Number of fish bolts per fish plate is
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
Answer: Option B

Question No. 265

For flat bottom sleepers, maximum size of ballast, is
(A) 50 mm
(B) 40 mm
(C) 33 mm
(D) 25 mm
Answer: Option A

Question No. 266

Which of the following turnouts is most commonly used for goods train on Indian Railways?
(A) 1 in 8'/2
(B) 1 in 12
(C) 1 in 16
(D) 1 in 20
Answer: Option A

Question No. 267

On Indian Railways standard length of rails for M.G. track, is
(A) 33 ft (10.06 m)
(B) 36 ft (10.97 m)
(C) 39 ft (11.89 m)
(D) 42 ft (12.8 m)
Answer: Option C
Question No. 268
The nominal size of ballast used for points and crossings is
(A) 25 mm
(B) 40 mm
(C) 50 mm
(D) 10 mm
Answer: Option A

Question No. 269

The overall length of a turn out is the distance between the end of stock rail and
(A) Heel of crossing
(B) Actual nose of crossing
(C) Throat of crossing
(D) Toe of crossing
Answer: Option A

Question No. 270

The width of foot for 90 R rail section is
(A) 100 mm
(B) 122.2 mm
(C) 136.5 mm
(D) 146.0 mm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 271

Monnier, the inventor of R.C.C., suggested the introduction of reinforced cement concert sleepers
for the railways in
(A) 1857
(B) 1867
(C) 1877
(D) 1887
Answer: Option C

Question No. 272

Switch angle depends on
(i) Heel divergence
(ii) Length of tongue rail
(iii) Flange-way clearance
(iv) Throw of switch
The correct answer is
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i) and (iv)
Answer: Option A
Question No. 273
Minimum packing space provided between two sleepers, is between
(A) 20 to 25 cm
(B) 25 to 30 cm
(C) 30 to 35 cm
(D) 35 to 40 cm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 274

Dog spikes are used for fixing rail to the
(A) Wooden sleepers
(B) CST-9 sleepers
(C) Steel trough sleepers
(D) Concrete sleepers
Answer: Option A

Question No. 275

Distance between inner faces of the flanges, is kept
(A) Equal to the gauge distance
(B) Slightly less than the gauge distance
(C) Slightly more than the gauge distance
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 276

Anti-creep bearing plates are provided on
(A) Bridges and approaches
(B) Joints
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 277

A mono-block sleeper has
(A) Square section
(B) Rectangular section
(C) Trapezoidal section
(D) Semi-circular section
Answer: Option C

Question No. 278

The distance through which the tongue rail moves laterally at the toe of the switch for movement
of trains is called
(A) Flange-way clearance
(B) Heel divergence
 (C) Throw of the switch
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 279

Coal ash (or cinder) is used in initial stages of a new construction of railway for
(A) Wooden sleepers
(B) Steel sleepers
(C) Cast iron sleepers
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 280

Normally the limiting value of cant is
(A) G/8
(B) G/10
(C) G/12
(D) G/15
G
Answer: Option B

Question No. 281

Width of the top portion of a flat footed, rail, is
(A) 69.85 mm
(B) 63.50 mm
(C) 66.77 mm
(D) 136.52 mm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 282

Rails are bent to correct curvature if the degree of curve, is more than
(A) 1°
(B) 2°
(C) 3°
(D) 4°
Answer: Option D

Question No. 283

Minimum depth of ballast prescribed of B.G. trunk lines of Indian Railways, is
(A) 20 cm
(B) 15 cm
(C) 25 cm
(D) 30 cm
Answer: Option C
Question No. 284
Boxing of ballast is done
(A) Under rails
(B) At the rails
(C) In between two rails
(D) In between two sleepers
Answer: Option B

Question No. 285

Maximum wheel base distance provided on Indian B.G. tracks, is
(A) 4.096 m
(B) 5.096 m
(C) 6.096 m
(D) 7.096 m
Answer: Option C

Question No. 286

A triangle used for turning the face of locomotives, consists of
(A) Three turn outs
(B) One turn out and two splits
(C) Two turn outs and one split
(D) Three splits
Answer: Option C
 RCC Structures Design

Question No. 01
An R.C.C. beam of 6 m span is 30 cm wide and has a lever arm of 55 cm. If it carries a U.D.L. of 12 t
per m and allowable shear stress is 5 kg/cm2, the beam
(A) Is safe in shear
(B) Is safe with stirrups
(C) Is safe with stirrups and inclined bars
(D) Needs revision of section
Answer: Option D

Question No. 02
According to I.S. : 456, slabs which span in two directions with corners held down, are assumed to
be divided in each direction into middle strips and edge strips such that the width of the middle
strip, is
(A) Half of the width of the slab
(B) Two-third of the width of the slab
(C) Three-fourth of the width of the slab
(D) Four-fifth of the width of the slab
Answer: Option C

Question No. 03
The load stress of a section can be reduced by
(A) Decreasing the lever arm
(B) Increasing the total perimeter of bars
(C) Replacing larger bars by greater number of small bars
(D) Replacing smaller bars by greater number of greater bars
Answer: Option C

Question No. 04
The diameter of the column head support a flat slab, is generally kept
(A) 0.25 times the span length
(B) 0.25 times the diameter of the column
(C) 4.0 cm larger than the diameter of the column
(D) 5.0 cm larger than the diameter of the column
Answer: Option A

Question No. 05
If is the uniformly distributed load on a circular slab of radius fixed at its ends, the
maximum positive radial moment at its centre, is
(A) 3WR²/16
(B) 2WR²/16
(C) WR²/16
 (D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 06
The maximum ratio of span to depth of a slab simply supported and spanning in one direction, is
(A) 35
(B) 25
(C) 30
(D) 20
Answer: Option C

Question No. 07
If the width of the foundation for two equal columns is restricted, the shape of the footing
generally adopted, is
(A) Square
(B) Rectangular
(C) Trapezoidal
(D) Triangular
Answer: Option B

Question No. 08
The floor slab of a building is supported on reinforced cement floor beams. The ratio of the end
and intermediate spans is kept
(A) 0.7
(B) 0.8
(C) 0.9
(D) 0.6
Answer: Option C

Question No. 09
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Lateral reinforcement in R.C.C. columns is provided to prevent the longitudinal
reinforcement from buckling
(B) Lateral reinforcement prevents the shearing of concrete on diagonal plane
(C) Lateral reinforcement stops breaking away of concrete cover, due to buckling
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 10
In case the factor of safety against sliding is less than 1.5, a portion of slab is constructed
downwards at the end of the heel slab, which is known as
(A) A key
(B) A cut-off wall
(C) A rib
(D) All the above
 Answer: Option D

Question No. 11
Lapped splices in tensile reinforcement are generally not used for bars of size larger than
(A) 18 mm diameter
(B) 24 mm diameter
(C) 30 mm diameter
(D) 36 mm diameter
Answer: Option D

Question No. 12
Minimum spacing between horizontal parallel reinforcement of the same size should not be less
than
(A) One diameter
(B) 2.5 diameters
(C) 3 diameters
(D) 3.5 diameters
Answer: Option A

Question No. 13
For a ribbed slab
(A) Clear spacing between ribs shall not be greater than 4.5 cm
(B) Width of the rib shall not be less than 7.5 cm
(C) Overall depth of the slab shall not exceed four times the breadth of the rib
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 14
A very comfortable type of stairs is
(A) Straight
(B) Dog legged
(C) Geometrical
(D) Open newel
Answer: Option D

Question No. 15
Columns may be made of plain concrete if their unsupported lengths do not exceed their least
lateral dimension
(A) Two times
(B) Three times
(C) Four times
(D) Five times
Answer: Option C
Question No. 16
The width of the flange of a L-beam, should be less than
(A) One-sixth of the effective span
(B) Breadth of the rib + four times thickness of the slab
(C) Breadth of the rib + half clear distance between ribs
(D) Least of the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 17
A pre-stressed concrete member is preferred because
(A) Its dimensions are not decided from the diagonal tensile stress
(B) Large size of long beams carrying large shear force need not be adopted
(C) Removal of cracks in the members due to shrinkage
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 18
If the ratio of the span to the overall depth does not exceed 10, the stiffness of the beam will
ordinarily be satisfactory in case of a
(A) Simply supported beam
(B) Continuous beam
(C) Cantilever beam
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 19
A pile of length carrying a uniformly distributed load per metre length is suspended at two
points, the maximum, B.M. at the centre of the pile or at the points of suspension, is
(A) WL/8
(B) WL²/24
(C) WL²/47
(D) WL²/16
Answer: Option C

Question No. 20
If is the net upward pressure on a square footing of side for a square column of side , the
maximum bending moment is given by
(A) B.M = pb (c - a)/4
(B) B.M = pb (b - a)²/4
(C) B.M = pb (b - a)²/8
(D) B.M = pb (b + a)/8
Answer: Option C

Question No. 21
To ensure uniform pressure distribution, the thickness of the foundation, is
 (A) Kept uniform throughout
(B) Increased gradually towards the edge
(C) Decreased gradually towards the edge
(D) Kept zero at the edge
Answer: Option C

Question No. 22

longitudinal bars and lateral stirrups, is

(A) Stress in concrete × area of concrete
(B) Stress in steel × area of steel
(C) Stress in concrete × area of concrete + Stress in steel × area of steel
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 23
If p1 and p2 are mutually perpendicular principal stresses acting on a soil mass, the normal stress
to the principal plane carrying the principal stress p1, is:
(A) [(p - p p p sin 2
(B) [(p - p p p cos 2
(C) [(p p p -p cos 2
(D) [(p p p - p /2] sin 2
Answer: Option C

Question No. 24
The maximum permissible size of aggregates to be used in casting the ribs of a slab, is
(A) 5 mm
(B) 7.5 mm
(C) 10 mm
(D) 15 mm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 25
Pick up the incorrect statement from the following: Tensile reinforcement bars of a rectangular
beam
(A) Are curtailed if not required to resist the bending moment
(B) Are bent up at suitable places to serve as shear reinforcement
(C) Are bent down at suitable places to serve as shear reinforcement
(D) Are maintained at bottom to provide at least local bond stress
Answer: Option C

Question No. 26
Steel bars are generally connected together to get greater length than the standard length by
providing
(A) Straight bar splice
 (B) Hooked splice
(C) Dowel splice
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 27
The minimum thickness of the cover at the end of a reinforcing bar should not be less than twice
the diameter of the bar subject to a minimum of
(A) 10 mm
(B) 15 mm
(C) 20 mm
(D) 25 mm
Answer: Option D

Question No. 28
Top bars are extended to the projecting parts of the combined footing of two columns Ldistance
apart for a distance of
(A) 0.1 L from the outer edge of column
(B) 0.1 L from the centre edge of column
(C) Half the distance of projection
(D) One-fourth the distance of projection
Answer: Option B

Question No. 29
For M 150 grade concrete (1:2:4) the moment of resistance factor is
(A) 0.87
(B) 8.50
(C) 7.50
(D) 5.80
Answer: Option B

Question No. 30
is the pre-stressed force applied to tendon of a rectangular pre-stressed beam whose area of
cross section is and sectional modulus is . The minimum stress on the beam subjected to a
maximum bending moment is
(A) f = (P/A) - (Z/M)
(B) f = (A/P) - (M/Z)
(C) f = (P/A) - (M/Z)
(D) f = (P/A) - (M/6Z)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 31
If C is creep coefficient, f is original pre-stress in concrete, m is modular ratio, E is Young's modulus
of steel and e is shrinkage strain, the combined effect of creep and shrinkage is:
(A) (1 - C)mf - eE
 (B) (C - 1)mf + eE
(C) (C - 1)mf - eE
(D) (1 - C)mf + eE
Answer: Option B

Question No. 32
In a pre-stressed member it is advisable to use
(A) Low strength concrete only
(B) High strength concrete only
(C) Low strength concrete but high tensile steel
(D) High strength concrete and high tensile steel
Answer: Option D

Question No. 33
An R.C.C. lintel is spanning an opening of 2 m span in a brick wall. The height of the roof is 2.9 m
above the floor level and that of the opening is 2.1 m above the floor level. The lintel is to be
designed for self weight plus
(A) Triangular load of the wall
(B) UDL of wall
(C) UDL of wall + load from the roof
(D) Triangular load + load from the roof
Answer: Option C

Question No. 34
The minimum clear cover for R.C.C. columns shall be
(A) Greater of 40 mm or diameter
(B) Smaller of 40 mm or diameter
(C) Greater of 25 mm or diameter
(D) Smaller of 25 mm or diameter
Answer: Option C

Question No. 35
The minimum thickness of a flat slab is taken
(A) L/32 for end panels without drops
(B) L/36 for end panels without drops
(C) L/36 for interior panels without drop
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 36
The design of heel slab of a retaining wall is based on the maximum bending moment due to:
(A) Its own weight
(B) Weight of the soil above it
(C) Load of the surcharge, if any
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 37
An R.C.C beam of 25 cm width has a clear span of 5 metres and carries a U.D.L. of 2000 kg/m
inclusive of its self weight. If the lever arm of the section is 45 cm., the beam is
(A) Safe in shear
(B) Is safe with stirrups
(C) Is safe with stirrups and inclined members
(D) Needs revision of the section
Answer: Option A

Question No. 38
The neutral axis of a T-beam exists
(A) Within the flange
(B) At the bottom edge of the slab
(C) Below the slab
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 39
A pre-cast pile generally used, is
(A) Circular
(B) Square
(C) Octagonal
(D) Square with corners chamfered
Answer: Option D

Question No. 40
The spacing of transverse reinforcement of column is decided by the following consideration.
(A) The least lateral dimension of the column
(B) Sixteen times the diameter of the smallest longitudinal reinforcing rods in the column
(C) Forty-eight times the diameter of transverse reinforcement
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 41
The self-weight of the footing, is
(A) Not considered for calculating the upward pressure on footing
(B) Also considered for calculating the upward pressure on footing
(C) Not considered for calculating the area of the footing
(D) Both (b) and (c)
Answer: Option A

Question No. 42
Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
 (A) In the stem of a retaining wall, reinforcement is provided near the earth side
(B) In the toe slab of a retaining wall, reinforcement is provided at the bottom of the slab
(C) In the heel slab of a retaining wall, reinforcement is provided at the top of the slab
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 43
If the bearing capacity of soil is 10 tonnes/cm2 and the projection of plain concrete footing from
walls, is a cm, the depth D of footing is
(A) D = 0.0775 a
(B) D = 0.775 a
(C) D = 0.775 a
(D) D = 0.775 a2
Answer: Option B

Question No. 44
After pre-stressing process is completed, a loss of stress is due to
(A) Shrinkage of concrete
(B) Elastic shortening of concrete
(C) Creep of concrete
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 45
In a simply supported slab, alternate bars are curtailed at
(A) 1/4th of the span
(B) 1/5th of the span
(C) 1/6th of the span
(D) 1/7th of the span
Answer: Option D

Question No. 46
If R and T are rise and tread of a stair spanning horizontally, the steps are supported by a wall on
one side and by a stringer beam on the other side, the steps are designed as beams of width
(A) R + T
(B) T - R
(C) 2
+ T2)
(D) R - T
Answer: Option C

Question No. 47
If p1 and P2 are effective lateral loadings at the bottom and top exerted by a level earth subjected
to a super-load on the vertical face of height h of a retaining wall, the horizontal pressure p per
unit length of the wall, is
(A) [( - )/2] h
 (B) [( + )/4] h
(C) [( + )/2] h
(D) ( - h
Answer: Option C

Question No. 48
In the zone of R.C.C. beam where shear stress is less than 5 kg/cm 2, nominal reinforcement is
provided at a pitch of
(A) One-half lever arm of the section
(B) One-third lever arm of the section
(C) Lever arm of the section
(D) One and half lever arm of the section
Answer: Option C

Question No. 49
The transverse reinforcements provided at right angles to the main reinforcement
(A) Distribute the load
(B) Resist the temperature stresses
(C) Resist the shrinkage stress
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 50
Long and short spans of a two way slab are ly and lx and load on the slab acting on strips parallel
to lx and ly be wx and wy respectively. According to Rankine Grashoff theory
(A) (wx/wy) = (ly/lx)
(B) (wx/wy) = (ly/lx)²
(C) (wx/wy) = (ly/lx)4
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 51
The pitch of the main bars in a simply supported slab, should not exceed its effective depth by
(A) Three times
(B) Four times
(C) Five times
(D) Six times
Answer: Option D

Question No. 52
High strength concrete is used in pre-stressed member
(A) To overcome high bearing stresses developed at the ends
(B) To overcome bursting stresses at the ends
(C) To provide high bond stresses
(D) All the above
 Answer: Option D

Question No. 53
If is the load on a circular slab of radius , the maximum radial moment at the centre of the
slab, is
(A) WR²/16
(B) 2WR²/16
(C) 3WR²/16
(D) 5WR²/16
Answer: Option C

Question No. 54
If A is the area of the foundation of a retaining wall carrying a load W and retaining earth of
weight w per unit volume, the minimum depth (h) of the foundation from the free surface of the
earth, is
(A) h = (W/Aw) [(1 - )/(1 + sin )]
(B) h = (W/Aw) [(1 + )/(1 + sin )]
(C) h = (W/Aw) [(1 - )/(1 + sin )]²
(D) h W/Aw) [(1 - )/(1 + sin )]²
Answer: Option C

Question No. 55
If the permissible compressive and tensile stresses in a singly reinforced beam are 50 kg/cm2 and
1400 kg/cm2 respectively and the modular ratio is 18, the percentage area At of the steel required
for an economic section, is
(A) 0.496 %
(B) 0.596 %
(C) 0.696 %
(D) 0.796 %
Answer: Option C

Question No. 56
The modular ratio m of a concrete whose permissible compressive stress is C, may be obtained
from the equation.
(A) m = 700/3C
(B) m = 1400/3C
(C) m = 2800/3C
(D) m = 3500/3C
Answer: Option C

Question No. 57
Enlarged head of a supporting column of a flat slab is technically known as
(A) Supporting end of the column
(B) Top of the column
(C) Capital
 (D) Drop panel
Answer: Option C

Question No. 58
Thickened part of a flat slab over its supporting column, is technically known as
(A) Drop panel
(B) Capital
(C) Column head
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 59
If is the sectional area of a pre-stressed rectangular beam provided with a tendon pre-stressed
by a force through its centroidal longitudinal axis, the compressive stress in concrete, is
(A) P/A
(B) A/P
(C) P/2A
(D) 2A/P
Answer: Option A

Question No. 60
Side face reinforcement shall be provided in the beam when depth of the web in a beam exceeds
(A) 50 cm
(B) 75 cm
(C) 100 cm
(D) 120 cm
Answer: Option B

Question No. 61
A pre-stressed rectangular beam which carries two concentrated loads W at L/3 from either end, is
provided with a bent tendon with tension P such that central one-third portion of the tendon
remains parallel to the longitudinal axis, the maximum dip h is
(A) WL/P
(B) WL/2P
(C) WL/3P
(D) WL/4P
Answer: Option C

Question No. 62
The minimum head room over a stair must be
(A) 200 cm
(B) 205 cm
(C) 210 cm
(D) 230 cm
Answer: Option C
Question No. 63
If q is the punching shear resistance per unit area a, is the side of a square footing for a column of
side b, carrying a weight W including the weight of the footing, the depth (D) of the footing from
punching shear consideration, is
(A) D = W (a - b)/4a²bq
(B) D = W (a² - b²)/4a²bq
(C) D = W (a² - b²)/8a²bq
(D) D = W (a² - b²)/4abq
Answer: Option B

Question No. 64
For initial estimate for a beam design, the width is assumed
(A) 1/15th of span
(B) 1/20th of span
(C) 1/25th of span
(D) 1/30th of span
Answer: Option D

Question No. 65
In a slab, the pitch of the main reinforcement should not exceed its effective depth
(A) Three times
(B) Four times
(C) Five times
(D) Two times
Answer: Option

Question No. 66
If the length of a combined footing for two columns l metres apart is L and the projection on the
left side of the exterior column is x, then the projection y on the right side of the exterior column,
in order to have a uniformly distributed load, is (where is the distance of centre of gravity of
column loads).
(A) y = L - (l - )
(B) y = L/2 + (l - )
(C) y = L/2 - (l + )
(D) y = L/2 - (l - )
Answer: Option D

Question No. 67
Total pressure on the vertical face of a retaining wall of height h acts parallel to free surface and
from the base at a distance of
(A) h/4
(B) h/3
(C) h/2
(D) 2h/3
Answer: Option B
Question No. 68
If the tendon is placed at an eccentricity e below the centroidal axis of the longitudinal axis of a
rectangular beam (sectional modulus Z and stressed load P in tendon) the stress at the extreme
top edge
(A) Is increased by PZ/e
(B) Is increased by Pe/Z
(C) Is decreased by Pe/Z
(D) Remains unchanged
Answer: Option C

Question No. 69
The Young's modulus of elasticity of steel, is
(A) 150 KN/mm2
(B) 200 KN/mm2
(C) 250 KN/mm2
(D) 275 KN/mm2
Answer: Option D

Question No. 70
Design of a two way slab simply supported on edges and having no provision to prevent the
corners from lifting, is made by
(A) Rankine formula
(B) Marcus formula
(C) Rankine Grashoff formula
(D) Grashoff formula
Answer: Option C

Question No. 71
Spacing of stirrups in a rectangular beam, is
(A) Kept constant throughout the length
(B) Decreased towards the centre of the beam
(C) Increased at the ends
(D) Increased at the centre of the beam
Answer: Option D

Question No. 72
As per IS : 456, the reinforcement in a column should not be less than
(A) 0.5% and not more than 5% of cross-sectional area
(B) 0.6% and not more than 6% of cross-sectional area
(C) 0.7% and not more than 7% of cross-sectional area
(D) 0.8% and not more than 8% of cross-sectional area
Answer: Option D

Question No. 73
The allowable tensile stress in mild steel stirrups, reinforced cement concrete, is
 (A) 1400 kg/cm2
(B) 190 kg/cm2
(C) 260 kg/cm2
(D) 230 kg/cm2
Answer: Option A

Question No. 74
Bottom bars under the columns are extended into the interior of the footing slab to a distance
greater than
(A) 42 diameters from the centre of the column
(B) 42 diameters from the inner edge of the column
(C) 42 diameters from the outer edge of the column
(D) 24 diameters from the centre of the column
Answer: Option C

Question No. 75
Pick up the assumption for the design of a pre-stressed concrete member from the following:
(A) A transverse plane section remains a plane after bending
(B) During deformation limits, Hook's law is equally applicable to concrete as well as to steel
(C) Variation of stress in reinforcement due to changes in external loading is negligible
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 76
The advantage of reinforced concrete, is due to
(A) Monolithic character
(B) Fire-resisting and durability
(C) Economy because of less maintenance cost
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 77
An R.C.C. column is treated as short column if its slenderness ratio is less than
(A) 30
(B) 35
(C) 40
(D) 50
Answer: Option D

Question No. 78
The zone in which transverse bending is likely to occur may be obtained by drawing a line from the

(A) 30°
(B) 45°
(C) 60°
 (D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 79
The thickness of the topping of a ribbed slab, varies between
(A) 3 cm to 5 cm
(B) 5 cm to 8 cm
(C) 8 cm to 10 cm
(D) 12 cm to 15 cm
Answer: Option B

Question No. 80
If the length of an intermediate span of a continuous slab is 5m, the length of the end span is kept
(A) 4.5 m
(B) 4.0 m
(C) 3.5 m
(D) 3.0 m
Answer: Option A

Question No. 81
If L is the effective span of a R.C.C. beam which is subjected to maximum shear qmax at the ends,
the distance from either end over which stirrups for the shear, are provided, is
(A) (L/2) (1 - 3/qmax)
(B) (L/3) (1 - 5/qmax)
(C) (L/2) (1 - 5/qmax)
(D) (L/2) (1 - 2/qmax)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 82
The angle of internal friction of soil mass is the angle whose
(A) Tangent is equal to the rate of the maximum resistance to sliding on any internal inclined
plane to the normal pressure acting on the plane
(B) Sine is equal to the ratio of the maximum resistance to sliding on any internal inclined plane
to the normal pressure acting on the plane
(C) Cosine is equal to the ratio of the maximum resistance sliding on any internal inclined plane
to the normal pressure acting on the plane
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 83
The maximum ratio of span to depth of a slab simply supported and spanning in two directions, is
(A) 25
(B) 30
(C) 35
(D) 40
 Answer: Option C

Question No. 84
If T and R are the tread and rise of a stair which carries a load w per square metre on slope, the
corresponding load per square metre of the horizontal area, is
(A) w (R + T)/T
(B) w (R² + T²)/T
(C) w (R + T)/T
(D) w (R/T)
Answer: Option B

Question No. 85
If the loading on a pre-stressed rectangular beam, is uniformly distributed, the tendon to be
provided should be.
(A) Straight below centroidal axis
(B) Parabolic with convexity downward
(C) Parabolic with convexity upward
(D) Straight above centroidal axis
Answer: Option B

Question No. 86
For normal cases, stiffness of a simply supported beam is satisfied if the ratio of its span to its
overall depth does not exceed
(A) 10
(B) 15
(C) 20
(D) 25
Answer: Option C

Question No. 87
If the maximum dip of a parabolic tendon carrying tension P is h and the effective length of the
pre-stressed beam is L, the upward uniform pressure will be
(A) 8hp/l
(B) 8hp/l²
(C) 8hl/p
(D) 8hl/p²
Answer: Option B

Question No. 88
If depth of slab is 10 cm, width of web 30 cm, depth of web 50 cm, centre to centre distance of
beams 3 m, effective span of beams 6 m, the effective flange width of the beam, is
(A) 200 cm
(B) 300 cm
(C) 150 cm
(D) 100 cm
 Answer: Option C

Question No. 89
The steel generally used in R.C.C. work, is
(A) Stainless
(B) Mild steel
(C) High carbon steel
(D) High tension steel
Answer: Option B

Question No. 90
If the ratio of long and short spans of a two way slab with corners held down is r, the actual
reduction of B.M. is given by
(A) (5/6) (r/1 + r²) M
(B) (5/6) (r²/1 + r²) M
(C) (5/6) (r²/1 + r3) M
(D) (5/6) (r²/1 + r4) M
Answer: Option D

Question No. 91
A part of the slab may be considered as the flange of the T-beam if
(A) Flange has adequate reinforcement transverse to beam
(B) It is built integrally with the beam
(C) It is effectively bonded together with the beam
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 92
By over-reinforcing a beam, the moment of resistance can be increased not more than
(A) 10 %
(B) 15 %
(C) 20 %
(D) 25 %
Answer: Option D

Question No. 93
Total pressure on the vertical face of a retaining wall of height per unit run exerted by the
retained earth weighing per unit volume, is
(A) wh [(1 - )/(1 + sin )]
(B) wh² [(1 - )/(1 + sin )]
(C) wh² [(1 - )/2(1 + sin )]
(D) wh² [(1 - )/3(1 + sin )]
Answer: Option C
Question No. 94
A singly reinforced beam has breadth b, effective depth d, depth of neutral axis n and critical
neutral axis n1. If fc and ft are permissible compressive and tensile stresses, the moment to
resistance of the beam, is
(A) bn (fc/2) (d - n/3)
(B) Atft (d - n/3)
(C) ½ n1 (1 - n1/3) cbd²
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 95
According to I.S.: 456, 1978 the thickness of reinforced concrete footing on piles at its edges, is
kept less than
(A) 5 cm
(B) 10 cm
(C) 15 cm
(D) 20 cm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 96
If l1 and l2 are the lengths of long and short spans of a two way slab simply supported on four
edges and carrying a load w per unit area, the ratio of the loads split into w1 and w2acting on strips
parallel to l2 and l1 is
(A) w1/w2 = l2/l1
(B) w1/w2 = (l2/l1)²
(C) w1/w2 = (l2/l1)3
(D) w1/w2 = (l2/l1)4
Answer: Option D

Question No. 97
The live load to be considered for an accessible roof, is
(A) Nil
(B) 75 kg/m3
(C) 150 kg/m2
(D) 200 kg/cm2
Answer: Option C

Question No. 98
If Ac, Asc and A are areas of concrete, longitudinal steel and section of a R.C.C. column and m and
c are the modular ratio and maximum stress in the configuration of concrete, the strength of
column is
(A) cAc + m cAsc
(B) c(A - Asc) + m cAsc
(C) c[A + (m - 1)ASC]
(D) All the above
 Answer: Option D

Question No. 99
On an absolutely rigid foundation base, the pressure will
(A) Be more at the edges of the foundation
(B) Be uniform
(C) Not be uniform
(D) Be zero at the centre of the foundation
Answer: Option C

Question No. 100

The diameter of transverse reinforcement of columns should be equal to one-fourth of the
diameter of the main steel rods but not less than
(A) 4 mm
(B) 5 mm
(C) 6 mm
(D) 7 mm
Answer: Option D

Question No. 101

If longitudinally spanning stairs are casted along with their landings, the maximum bending
moment per metre width, is taken as
(A) wl²/4
(B) wl²/8
(C) wl²/10
(D) wl²/12
Answer: Option B

Question No. 102

If P kg/m2 is the upward pressure on the slab of a plain concrete footing whose projection on
either side of the wall is a cm, the depth of foundation D is given by
(A) D = 0.00775 aP
(B) D = 0.0775 aP
(C) D = 0.07775 aP
(D) D = 0.775 Pa
Answer: Option A

Question No. 103

If the shear stress in a R.C.C. beam is
(A) Equal or less than 5 kg/cm2, no shear reinforcement is provided
(B) Greater than 4 kg/cm2, but less than 20 kg/cm2, shear reinforcement is provided
(C) Greater than 20 kg/cm2, the size of the section is changed
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 104
For a continuous floor slab supported on beams, the ratio of end span length and intermediate
span length, is
(A) 0.6
(B) 0.7
(C) 0.8
(D) 0.9
Answer: Option D

Question No. 105

In a singly reinforced beam
(A) Compression is borne entirely by concrete
(B) Steel possesses initial stresses when embedded in concrete
(C) Plane sections transverse to the centre line of the beam before bending remain plane after
bending
(D) Elastic moduli for concrete and steel have different values within the limits of deformation
of the beam
Answer: Option C

Question No. 106

The ratio of the breadth to effective depth of a beam is kept
(A) 0.25
(B) 0.50
(C) 0.70
(D) 0.75
Answer: Option B

Question No. 107

In a cantilever retaining wall without a heel slab
(A) Thickness of the stem is kept same throughout
(B) Base slab is made 10 cm thicker than the stem
(C) Width of the base slab is kept 0.7 time the total height of the wall
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 108

is the pre-stressed force applied to the tendon of a rectangular pre-stressed beam whose area
of cross section is and sectional modulus is . The maximum stress in the beam, subjected
to a maximum bending moment , is
(A) f = (P/A) + (Z/M)
(B) f = (A/P) + (M/Z)
(C) f = (P/A) + (M/Z)
(D) f = (P/A) + (M/6Z)
Answer: Option C
Question No. 109
A T-beam behaves as a rectangular beam of a width equal to its flange if its neutral axis
(A) Remains within the flange
(B) Remains below the slab
(C) Coincides the geometrical centre of the beam
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 110

For the design of a simply supported T-beam the ratio of the effective span to the overall depth of
the beam is limited to
(A) 10
(B) 15
(C) 20
(D) 25
Answer: Option C

Question No. 111

A reinforced concrete cantilever beam is 3.6 m long, 25 cm wide and has its lever arm 40 cm. It
carries a load of 1200 kg at its free end and vertical stirrups can carry 1800 kg. Assuming concrete
to carry one-third of the diagonal tension and ignoring the weight of the beam, the number of
shear stirrups required, is
(A) 30
(B) 35
(C) 40
(D) 45
Answer: Option C

Question No. 112

The width of the rib of a T-beam, is generally kept between
(A) 1/7 to 1/3 of rib depth
(B) 1/3 to 1/2 of rib depth
(C) 1/2 to 3/4 of rib depth
(D) 1/3 to 2/3 of rib depth
Answer: Option D

Question No. 113

A ribbed slab is provided for
(A) A plain ceiling
(B) Thermal insulation
(C) Acoustic insulation
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 114
To ensure that the hogging bending moment at two points of suspension of a pile of
length L equals the sagging moment at its centre, the distances of the points of suspension from
either end, is
(A) 0.107 L
(B) 0.207 L
(C) 0.307 L
(D) 0.407 L
Answer: Option B

Question No. 115

The stresses developed in concrete and steel in reinforced concrete beam 25 cm width and 70 cm
effective depth, are 62.5 kg/cm2 and 250 kg/cm2 respectively. If m = 15, the depth of its neutral
axis is
(A) 20 cm
(B) 25 cm
(C) 30 cm
(D) 35 cm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 116

If the depth of actual neutral axis of a doubly reinforced beam
(A) Is greater than the depth of critical neutral axis, the concrete attains its maximum stress
earlier
(B) Is less than the depth of critical neutral axis, the steel in the tensile zone attains its maximum
stress earlier
(C) Is equal to the depth of critical neutral axis; the concrete and steel attain their maximum
stresses simultaneously
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 117

If the modular ratio is , steel ratio is and overall depth of a beam is , the depth of the
critical neutral axis of the beam, is
(A) [m/(m - r)] d
(B) [m/(m + r)] d
(C) [(m + r)/m] d
(D) [(r - m)/m] d
Answer: Option B

Question No. 118

The maximum diameter of a bar used in a ribbed slab, is
(A) 12 mm
(B) 6 mm
(C) 20 mm
 (D) 22 mm
Answer: Option D

Question No. 119

A column is regarded as long column if the ratio of its effective length and lateral dimension,
exceeds
(A) 10
(B) 15
(C) 20
(D) 25
Answer: Option B

Question No. 120

According to the steel beam theory of doubly reinforced beams
(A) Tension is resisted by tension steel
(B) Compression is resisted by compression steel
(C) Stress in tension steel equals the stress in compression steel
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 121

The breadth of a ribbed slab containing two bars must be between
(A) 6 cm to 7.5 cm
(B) 8 cm to 10 cm
(C) 10 cm to 12 cm
(D) 12 cm to 15 cm
Answer: Option B

Question No. 122

The stem of a cantilever retaining wall which retains earth level with top is 6 m. If the angle of
repose and weight of the soil per cubic metre are 30° and 2000 kg respectively, the effective width
of the stem at the bottom, is
(A) 51.5
(B) 52.5
(C) 53.5
(D) 54.5
Answer: Option C

Question No. 123

If the diameter of the main reinforcement in a slab is 16 mm, the concrete cover to main bars is
(A) 10 mm
(B) 12 mm
(C) 14 mm
(D) 16 mm
Answer: Option D
Question No. 124
Minimum spacing between horizontal parallel reinforcement of different sizes, should not be less
than
(A) One diameter of thinner bar
(B) One diameter of thicker bar
(C) Twice the diameter of thinner bar
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 125

For a number of columns constructed in a rcjw, the type of foundation provided, is
(A) Footing
(B) Raft
(C) Strap
(D) Strip
Answer: Option D

Question No. 126

A singly reinforced concrete beam of 25 cm width and 70 cm effective depth is provided with
18.75 cm2 steel. If the modular ratio (m) is 15, the depth of the neutral axis, is
(A) 20 cm
(B) 25 cm
(C) 30 cm
(D) 35 cm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 127

In testing a pile by load test, pile platform is loaded with one and half times the design load and a
maximum settlement is noted. The load is gradually removed and the consequent rebound is
measured. For a safe pile, the net settlement (i.e. total settlement minus rebound) per tonne of
test load should not exceed
(A) 10 mm
(B) 15 mm
(C) 20 mm
(D) 25 mm
Answer: Option D

Question No. 128

The diameter of main bars in R.C.C. columns, shall not be less than
(A) 6 mm
(B) 8 mm
(C) 10 mm
(D) 12 mm
Answer: Option D
Question No. 129
If d is the diameter of a bar, ft is allowable tensile stress and fb, is allowable bond stress, the bond
length is given by
(A) ft .d/4fb
(B) ( /4). (ft .d/fb)
(C) ft .d²/fb
(D) ( /4). (ft .d3/fb)
Answer: Option A

Question No. 130

An intermediate T-beam reinforced with two layers of tensile steel with clear cover 13 cm
encasted with the floor of a hall 12 metres by 7 metres, is spaced at 3 metres from adjoining
beams and if the width of the beam is 20 cm, the breadth of the flange is
(A) 300 cm
(B) 233 cm
(C) 176 cm
(D) 236 cm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 131

The length of lap in tension reinforcement should not be less than the bar diameter × (actual
tension / four times the permissible average bond stress) if it is more than
(A) 18 bar diameters
(B) 24 bar diameters
(C) 30 bar diameters
(D) 36 bar diameters
Answer: Option C

Question No. 132

As the percentage of steel increases
(A) Depth of neutral axis decreases
(B) Depth of neutral axis increases
(C) Lever arm increases
(D) Lever arm decreases
Answer: Option B

Question No. 133

The effective width of a column strip of a flat slab, is
(A) One-fourth the width of the panel
(B) Half the width of the panel
(C) Radius of the column
(D) Diameter of the column
Answer: Option B
Question No. 134
As per IS : 1343, total shrinkage for a pre-tensioned beam, is
(A) 3.0 × 10-2
(B) 3.0 × 10-3
(C) 3.0 × 10-5
(D) 3.5 × 10-5
Answer: Option D

Question No. 135

Dimensions of a beam need be changed if the shear stress is more than
(A) 10 kg/cm2
(B) 15 kg/cm2
(C) 20 kg/cm2
(D) 25 kg/cm2
Answer: Option C

Question No. 136

Based on punching shear consideration, the overall depth of a combined footing under a
column A, is
(A) (Area of the column A × Safe punching stress)/Load on column A
(B) (Perimeter of column A × Safe punching stress)/(Load on column A + Upward pressure ×
Area of the column)
(C) (Perimeter of column A × Safe punching stress)/(Load on column A × Upward pressure ×
Area of the column)
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 137

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) A pile is a slender member which transfers the load through its lower end on a strong strata
(B) A pile is a slender member which transfers its load to the surrounding soil
(C) A pile is a slender member which transfers its load by friction
(D) A pile is a cylindrical body of concrete which transfers the load at a depth greater than its
width
Answer: Option B

Question No. 138

In a combined footing if shear stress exceeds 5 kg/cm2, the nominal stirrups provided are:
(A) 6 legged
(B) 8 legged
(C) 10 legged
(D) 12 legged
Answer: Option D
Question No. 139
The weight of reinforced concrete, is generally taken as
(A) 2200 kg/m3
(B) 2300 kg/m3
(C) 2400 kg/m3
(D) 2500 kg/m3
Answer: Option C

Question No. 140

If W is the load on a circular slab of radius R, the maximum circumferential moment at the centre
of the slab, is
(A) WR²/16
(B) 2WR²/16
(C) 3WR²/16
(D) Zero
Answer: Option C

Question No. 141

If is weight of a retaining wall and is the horizontal earth pressure, the factor of safety
against sliding, is
(A) 1.0
(B) 1.25
(C) 1.5
(D) 2.0
Answer: Option C

Question No. 142

The effective span of a simply supported slab, is
(A) Distance between the centres of the bearings
(B) Clear distance between the inner faces of the walls plus twice the thickness of the wall
(C) Clear span plus effective depth of the slab
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 143

In a beam the local bond stress Sb, is equal to
(A) Shear force/(Leaver arm × Total perimeter of reinforcement)
(B) Total perimeter of reinforcement/(Leaver arm × Shear force)
(C) Leaver arm/(Shear force × Total perimeter of reinforcement)
(D) Leaver arm/(Bending moment × Total perimeter of reinforcement)
Answer: Option A

Question No. 144

A continuous beam shall be deemed to be a deep beam if the ratio of effective span to overall
depth, is
 (A) 2.5
(B) 2.0
(C) Less than 2
(D) Less than 2.5
Answer: Option A

Question No. 145

With usual notations the depth of the neutral axis of a balanced section, is given by
(A) mc/t = (d - n)/n
(B) t/mc = (d - n)/n
(C) t/mc = (d + n)/n
(D) mc/t = n/(d - n)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 146

Pick up the true statement from the following:
(A) Plain ceiling provides the best property diffusing light
(B) In the absence of beams, it is easier to install piping
(C) In the absence of beams, it is easier to paint
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 147

If the maximum shear stress at the end of a simply supported R.C.C. beam of 16 m effective span is
10 kg/cm2, the length of the beam having nominal reinforcement, is
(A) 8 cm
(B) 6 m
(C) 8 m
(D) 10 m
Answer: Option C

Question No. 148

If the length of a wall on either side of a lintel opening is at least half of its effective span L, the
load W carried by the lintel is equivalent to the weight of brickwork contained in an equilateral
triangle, producing a maximum bending moment
(A) WL/2
(B) WL/4
(C) WL/6
(D) WL/8
Answer: Option C

Question No. 149

The section of a reinforced beam where most distant concrete fibre in compression and tension in
steel attains permissible stresses simultaneously, is called
(A) Balanced section
 (B) Economic section
(C) Critical section
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 150

The length of the lap in a compression member is kept greater than bar diameter x (Permissible
stress in bar / Five times the bond stress) or
(A) 12 bar diameters
(B) 18 bar diameters
(C) 24 bar diameters
(D) 30 bar diameters
Answer: Option C

Question No. 151

The system in which high tensile alloy steel bars (silica manganese steel) are used as prestressing
tendons, is known as
(A) Freyssinet system
(B) Magnel-Blaton system
(C) C.C.L. standard system
(D) Lee-McCall system
Answer: Option D

Question No. 152

An under-reinforced section means
(A) Steel is provided at the underside only
(B) Steel provided is insufficient
(C) Steel provided on one face only
(D) Steel will yield first
Answer: Option D

Question No. 153

The angle of repose of a soil is the maximum angle which the outer face of the soil mass makes
(A) With the horizontal
(B) With the vertical
(C) With the perpendicular to the inclined plane of the soil
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 154

In a doubly-reinforced beam if and is
the effective depth and is depth of critical neutral axis, the following relationship holds good
(A) mc/t = n/(d - n)
(B) (m + c)/t = n/(d + n)
(C) (t + c)/n = (d + n)/n
 (D) mc/t = (d - n)/t
Answer: Option A

Question No. 155

A raft foundation is provided if its area exceeds the plan area of the building by
(A) 10 %
(B) 20 %
(C) 40 %
(D) 50 %
Answer: Option D

Question No. 156

In favourable circumstances a 15 cm concrete cube after 28 days, attains a maximum crushing
strength
(A) 100 kg/cm2
(B) 200 kg/cm2
(C) 300 kg/cm2
(D) 400 kg/cm2
Answer: Option D

Question No. 157

If p1 is the vertical intensity of pressure at a depth h on a block of earth weighing w per unit
p2 is
(A) wh (1 - cos )/(1 + )
(B) wh (1 - sin )/(1 + )
(C) wh (1 - tan )/(1 + )
(D) w (1 - cos )/h (1 + sin )
Answer: Option B

Question No. 158

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. The intensity of horizontal shear stress at the
elemental part of a beam section, is directly proportional to
(A) Shear force
(B) Area of the section
(C) Distance of the C.G. of the area from its neutral axis
(D) Moment of the beam section about its neutral axis
Answer: Option D

Question No. 159

According to I.S.: 456, 1978 the thickness of reinforced concrete footing on piles at its edges, is
kept less than
(A) 20 cm
(B) 30 cm
(C) 40 cm
(D) 75 cm
 Answer: Option B

Question No. 160

An R.C.C. beam of 25 cm width and 50 cm effective depth has a clear span of 6 metres and carries
a U.D.L. of 3000 kg/m inclusive of its self weight. If the lever arm constant for the section is 0.865,
the maximum intensity of shear stress, is
(A) 8.3 kg/cm2
(B) 7.6 kg/cm2
(C) 21.5 kg/cm2
(D) 11.4 kg/cm2
Answer: Option A

Question No. 161

The percentage of minimum reinforcement of the gross sectional area in slabs, is
(A) 0.10 %
(B) 0.12 %
(C) 0.15 %
(D) 0.18 %
Answer: Option C

Question No. 162

If the permissible compressive stress for a concrete in bending is C kg/m2, the modular ratio is
(A) 2800/C
(B) 2300/2C
(C) 2800/3C
(D) 2800/C2
Answer: Option C

Question No. 163

An R.C.C. beam not provided with shear reinforcement may develop cracks in its bottom inclined
roughly to the horizontal at
(A) 25°
(B) 35°
(C) 45°
(D) 55°
Answer: Option C

Question No. 164

Cantilever retaining walls can safely be used for a height not more than
(A) 3 m
(B) 4 m
(C) 5 m
(D) 6 m
Answer: Option D
Question No. 165
The maximum area of tension reinforcement in beams shall not exceed
(A) 0.15 %
(B) 1.5 %
(C) 4 %
(D) 1 %
Answer: Option C

Question No. 166

The width of the flange of a T-beam should be less than
(A) One-third of the effective span of the T-beam
(B) Distance between the centres of T-beam
(C) Breadth of the rib plus twelve times the thickness of the slab
(D) Least of the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 167

For a circular slab carrying a uniformly distributed load, the ratio of the maximum negative to
maximum positive radial moment, is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 5
Answer: Option B

Question No. 168

According to I.S. : 456 specifications, the safe diagonal tensile stress for M 150 grade concrete, is
(A) 5 kg/cm2
(B) 10 kg/cm2
(C) 15 kg/cm2
(D) 20 kg/cm2
Answer: Option A

Question No. 169

The width of the flange of a T-beam, which may be considered to act effectively with the rib
depends upon
(A) Breadth of the rib
(B) Overall thickness of the rib
(C) Centre to centre distance between T-beams
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 170

The maximum shear stress (qmax) in a rectangular beam is
(A) 1.25 times the average
 (B) 1.50 times the average
(C) 1.75 times the average
(D) 2.0 times the average
Answer: Option B

Question No. 171

If the sides of a slab simply supported on edges and spanning in two directions are equal, the
maximum bending moment is multiplied by
(A) 0.2
(B) 0.3
(C) 0.4
(D) 0.5
Answer: Option D

Question No. 172

If K is a constant depending upon the ratio of the width of the slab to its effective span l, x is the
distance of the concentrated load from the nearer support, bw is the width of the area of contact
of the concentrated load measured parallel to the supported edge, the effective width of the
slab be is
(A) K/x (1 + x/d) + bw
(B) Kx (1 - x/l) + bw
(C) Kx (1 + x/l) + bw
(D) All the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 173

The length of the straight portion of a bar beyond the end of the hook, should be at least
(A) Twice the diameter
(B) Thrice the diameter
(C) Four times the diameter
(D) Seven times the diameter
Answer: Option D

Question No. 174

If the maximum bending moment of a simply supported slab is M Kg.cm, the effective depth of the
slab is (where Q is M.R. factor)
(A) M/100Q
(B) M/ Q
(C) M/Q)
(D) (M/100Q)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 175

If is the overall height of a retaining wall retaining a surcharge, the width of the base slab
usually provided, is
 (A) 0.3 H
(B) 0.4 H
(C) 0.5 H
(D) 0.7 H
Answer: Option D

Question No. 176

If Sb, is the average bond stress on a bar of diameter subjected to maximum stress , the
length of the embedment is given by
(A) l = dt/Sb
(B) l = dt/2Sb
(C) l = dt/3Sb
(D) l = dt/4Sb
Answer: Option D

Question No. 177

If diameter of a reinforcement bar is d, the anchorage value of the hook is
(A) 4d
(B) 8d
(C) 12d
(D) 16d
Answer: Option D

Question No. 178

As per I.S. 456 - 1978, the pH value of water shall be
(A) Less than 6
(B) Equal to 6
(C) Not less than 6
(D) Equal to 7
Answer: Option C

Question No. 179

For M 150 mix concrete, according to I.S. specifications, local bond stress, is
(A) 5 kg/cm2
(B) 10 kg/cm2
(C) 15 kg/cm2
(D) 20 kg/cm2
Answer: Option B

Question No. 180

The minimum cube strength of concrete used for a pre-stressed member, is
(A) 50 kg/cm2
(B) 150 kg/cm2
(C) 250 kg/cm2
(D) 350 kg/cm2
 Answer: Option D

Question No. 181

If d and n are the effective depth and depth of the neutral axis respectively of a singly reinforced
beam, the lever arm of the beam, is
(A) d
(B) n
(C) d + n/3
(D) d - n/3
Answer: Option D

Question No. 182

The weight of a foundation is assumed as
(A) 5% of wall weight
(B) 7% of wall weight
(C) 10% of wall weight
(D) 12% of wall weight
Answer: Option C

Question No. 183

An R.C.C. column of 30 cm diameter is reinforced with 6 bars 12 mm placed symmetrically along
the circumference. If it carries a load of 40, 000 kg axially, the stress is
(A) 49.9 kg/cm2
(B) 100 kg/cm2
(C) 250 kg/cm2
(D) 175 kg/cm2
Answer: Option A

Question No. 184

If the diameter of longitudinal bars of a square column is 16 mm, the diameter of lateral ties
should not be less than
(A) 4 mm
(B) 5 mm
(C) 6 mm
(D) 8 mm
Answer: Option B

Question No. 185

Design of R.C.C. cantilever beams, is based on the resultant force at
(A) Fixed end
(B) Free end
(C) Mid span
(D) Mid span and fixed support
Answer: Option A
Question No. 186
In a combined footing if shear stress does not exceed 5 kg/cm2, the nominal stirrups provided are
(A) 6 legged
(B) 8 legged
(C) 10 legged
(D) 12 legged
Answer: Option B

Question No. 187

The maximum shear stress (q) in concrete of a reinforced cement concrete beam is
(A) Shear force/(Lever arm × Width)
(B) Lever arm/(Shear force × Width)
(C) Width/(Lever arm × Shear force)
(D) (Shear force × Width)/Lever arm
Answer: Option A

Question No. 188

An R.C.C. column is treated as long if its slenderness ratio is greater than
(A) 30
(B) 35
(C) 40
(D) 50
Answer: Option D

Question No. 189

The thickness of base slab of a retaining wall generally provided, is
(A) One half of the width of the stem at the bottom
(B) One-third of the width of the stem at the bottom
(C) One fourth of the width of the steam at the bottom
(D) Width of the stem at the bottom
Answer: Option D

Question No. 190

Design of R.C.C. simply supported beams carrying U.D.L. is based on the resultant B.M. at
(A) Supports
(B) Mid span
(C) Every section
(D) Quarter span
Answer: Option B

Question No. 191

If the maximum shear stress at the end of a simply supported R.C.C. beam of 6 m effective span is
10 kg/cm2, the share stirrups are provided for a distance from either end where, is
(A) 50 cm
(B) 100 cm
 (C) 150 cm
(D) 200 cm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 192

Distribution reinforcement in a simply supported slab, is provided to distribute
(A) Load
(B) Temperature stress
(C) Shrinkage stress
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 193

Distribution of shear intensity over a rectangular section of a beam, follows:
(A) A circular curve
(B) A straight line
(C) A parabolic curve
(D) An elliptical curve
Answer: Option C

Question No. 194

In a singly reinforced beam, if the permissible stress in concrete reaches earlier than that in steel,
the beam section is called
(A) Under-reinforced section
(B) Over reinforced section
(C) Economic section
(D) Critical section
Answer: Option B

Question No. 195

If the size of a column is reduced above the floor, the main bars of the columns, are
(A) Continued up
(B) Bent inward at the floor level
(C) Stopped just below the floor level and separate lap bars provided
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 196

The minimum number of main steel bars provided in R.C.C.
(A) Rectangular columns is 4
(B) Circular columns is 6
(C) Octagonal columns is 8
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 197
A short column 20 cm × 20 cm in section is reinforced with 4 bars whose area of cross section is 20
sq. cm. If permissible compressive stresses in concrete and steel are 40 kg/cm2 and 300 kg/cm2,
the Safe load on the column, should not exceed
(A) 4120 kg
(B) 41,200 kg
(C) 412,000 kg
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 198

If T and R are tread and rise respectively of a stair, then
(A) 2R + T = 60
(B) R + 2T = 60
(C) 2R + T = 30
(D) R + 2T = 30
Answer: Option A

Question No. 199

For stairs spanning l metres longitudinally between supports at the bottom and top of a flight
carrying a load w per unit horizontal area, the maximum bending moment per metre width, is
(A) wl²/4
(B) wl²/8
(C) wl²/12
(D) wl²/16
Answer: Option D

Question No. 200

In a singly reinforced beam, the effective depth is measured from its compression edge to
(A) Tensile edge
(B) Tensile reinforcement
(C) Neutral axis of the beam
(D) Longitudinal central axis
Answer: Option B

Question No. 201

Though the effective depth of a T-beam is the distance between the top compression edge to the
centre of the tensile reinforcement, for heavy loads, it is taken as
(A) 1/8th of the span
(B) 1/10th of the span
(C) 1/12th of the span
(D) 1/16th of the span
Answer: Option C
Question No. 202
If jd
stress at the section having Q shear force, is
(A) Q/2
(B) Q/3
(C) Q/
(D) 2 × Q/
Answer: Option C

Question No. 203

On piles, the drop must be at least
(A) 80 cm
(B) 100 cm
(C) 120 cm
(D) 140 cm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 204

Steel beam theory is used for
(A) Design of simple steel beams
(B) Steel beams encased in concrete
(C) Doubly reinforced beams ignoring compressive stress in concrete
(D) Beams if shear exceeds 4 times allowable shear stress
Answer: Option C

Question No. 205

In a pre-stressed beam carrying an external load W with a bent tendon is having angle of
-stressed load P. The net downward load at the centre is
(A) W - 2P
(B) W - P
(C) W - P
(D) W - 2P
Answer: Option D

Question No. 206

To have pressure wholly compressive under the base of a retaining wall of width b, the resultant
of the weight of the wall and the pressure exerted by the retained, earth should have eccentricity
not more than
(A) b/3
(B) b/4
(C) b/5
(D) b/6
Answer: Option D
Question No. 207
The diameter of longitudinal bars of a column should never be less than
(A) 6 mm
(B) 8 mm
(C) 10 mm
(D) 12 mm
Answer: Option D

Question No. 208

Post tensioning system
(A) Was widely used in earlier days
(B) Is not economical and hence not generally used
(C) Is economical for large spans and is adopted now a days
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 209

The number of treads in a flight is equal to
(A) Risers in the flight
(B) Risers plus one
(C) Risers minus one
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 210

The amount of reinforcement for main bars in a slab, is based upon
(A) Minimum bending moment
(B) Maximum bending moment
(C) Maximum shear force
(D) Minimum shear force
Answer: Option B

Question No. 211

The shear reinforcement in R.C.C. is provided to resist
(A) Vertical shear
(B) Horizontal shear
(C) Diagonal compression
(D) Diagonal tension
Answer: Option D

Question No. 212

A simply supported beam 6 m long and of effective depth 50 cm, carries a uniformly distributed
load 2400 kg/m including its self weight. If the lever arm factor is 0.85 and permissible tensile
stress of steel is 1400 kg/cm2, the area of steel required, is
(A) 14 cm2
 (B) 15 cm2
(C) 16 cm2
(D) 17 cm2
Answer: Option C

Question No. 213

The anchorage value of a hook is assumed sixteen times the diameter of the bar if the angle of the
bend, is
(A) 30°
(B) 40°
(C) 45°
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 214

A circular slab subjected to external loading, deflects to form a
(A) Semi-hemisphere
(B) Ellipsoid
(C) Paraboloid
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 215

If a rectangular pre-stressed beam of an effective span of 5 meters and carrying a total load 3840
kg/m, is designed by the load balancing method, the central dip of the parabolic tendon should be
(A) 5 cm
(B) 10 cm
(C) 15 cm
(D) 20 cm
Answer: Option B

Question No. 216

The radius of a bar bend to form a hook, should not be less than
(A) Twice the diameter
(B) Thrice the diameter
(C) Four times the diameter
(D) Five times the diameter
Answer: Option A

Question No. 217

The reinforced concrete beam which has width 25 cm, lever arm 40 cm, shear force 6t/cm 2, safe
shear stress 5 kg/cm2 and B.M. 24 mt,
(A) Is safe in shear
(B) Is unsafe in shear
(C) Is over safe in shear
 (D) Needs redesigning
Answer: Option B

Question No. 218

If a bent tendon is required to balance a concentrated load W at the centre of the span L, the
central dip h must be at least
(A) WL/P
(B) WL/2P
(C) WL/3P
(D) WL/4P
Answer: Option D

Question No. 219

If the effective length of a 32 cm diameter R.C.C. column is 4.40 m, its slenderness ratio, is
(A) 40
(B) 45
(C) 50
(D) 55
Answer: Option D

Question No. 220

If W is total load per unit area on a panel, D is the diameter of the column head, L is the span in
two directions, then the sum of the maximum positive bending moment and average of the
negative bending moment for the design of the span of a square flat slab, should not be less than
(A) WL/12 (L - 2D/3)²
(B) WL/10 (L + 2D/3)²
(C) WL/10 (L - 2D/3)²
(D) WL/12 (L - D/3)²
Answer: Option C

Question No. 221

Piles are usually driven by
(A) Diesel operated hammer
(B) Drop hammer
(C) Single acting steam hammer
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 222

In a combined footing for two columns carrying unequal loads, the maximum hogging bending
moment occurs at
(A) Less loaded column
(B) More loaded column
(C) A point of the maximum shear force
(D) A point of zero shear force
 Answer: Option D

Question No. 223

If the average bending stress is 6 kg/cm2 for M 150 grade concrete, the length of embedment of a
bar of diameter d according to I.S. 456 specifications, is
(A) 28 d
(B) 38 d
(C) 48 d
(D) 58 d
Answer: Option D

Question No. 224

The live load to be considered for an inaccessible roof, is
(A) Nil
(B) 75 kg/m2
(C) 150 kg/cm2
(D) 200 kg/m2
Answer: Option B

Question No. 225

A pile of length carrying a uniformly distributed load per metre length is suspended at the
centre and from other two points 0.15 L from either end ; the maximum hogging moment will be
(A) WL²/15
(B) WL²/30
(C) WL²/60
(D) WL²/90
Answer: Option D

Question No. 226

An R.C.C. roof slab is designed as a two way slab if
(A) It supports live loads in both directions
(B) The ratio of spans in two directions is less than 2
(C) The slab is continuous over two supports
(D) The slab is discontinuous at edges
Answer: Option B

Question No. 227

The design of a retaining wall assumes that the retained earth
(A) Is dry
(B) Is free from moisture
(C) Is not cohesive
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 228
A foundation rests on
(A) Base of the foundation
(B) Sub-grade
(C) Foundation soil
(D) Both (b) and (c)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 229

The advantage of a concrete pile over a timber pile, is
(A) No decay due to termites
(B) No restriction on length
(C) Higher bearing capacity
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 230

For stairs spanning horizontally, the minimum waist provided is
(A) 4 cm
(B) 6 cm
(C) 8 cm
(D) 12 cm
Answer: Option D

Question No. 231

The toe projection of foundation slabs is taken
(A) As one third of the base
(B) As one sixth of overall height of the wall
(C) Equal to heel slab
(D) Below ground surface
Answer: Option A

Question No. 232

The horizontal portion of a step in a stairs case, is known as
(A) Rise
(B) Flight
(C) Winder
(D) Tread
Answer: Option D

Question No. 233

The maximum ratio of span to depth of a cantilever slab, is
(A) 8
(B) 10
(C) 12
 (D) 16
Answer: Option C

Question No. 234

[A + (m - 1)ASC] known as equivalent concrete area of R.C.C. is given by
(A) Modular ratio method
(B) Load factor method
(C) Ultimate load method
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 235

If permissible working stresses in steel and concrete are respectively 1400 kg/cm 2 and 80
kg/cm2 and modular ratio is 18, in a beam reinforced in tension side and of width 30 cm and
having effective depth 46 cm, the lever arms of the section, is
(A) 37 cm
(B) 38 cm
(C) 39 cm
(D) 40 cm
Answer: Option D

Question No. 236

A pre-stressed concrete member
(A) Is made of concrete
(B) Is made of reinforced concrete
(C) Is stressed after casting
(D) Possesses internal stresses
Answer: Option D

Question No. 237

A flat slab is supported
(A) On beams
(B) On columns
(C) On beams and columns
(D) On columns monolithically built with slab
Answer: Option D

Question No. 238

A foundation is called shallow if its depth, is
(A) One-fourth of its width
(B) Half of its width
(C) Three-fourth of its width
(D) Equal to its width
Answer: Option D
 Structural Analysis

Question No. 01
If in a pin-jointed plane frame (m + r) > 2j, then the frame is
(A) Stable and statically determinate
(B) Stable and statically indeterminate
(C) Unstable
(D) None of the above
m r j
Answer: Option B

Question No. 02
Principle of superposition is applicable when
(A) Deflections are linear functions of applied forces
(B) Material obeys Hooke's law
(C) The action of applied forces will be affected by small deformations of the structure
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 03
The Castigliano's second theorem can be used to compute deflections
(A) In statically determinate structures only
(B) For any type of structure
(C) At the point under the load only
(D) For beams and frames only
Answer: Option B

Question No. 04
When a uniformly distributed load, longer than the span of the girder, moves from left to right,
then the maximum bending moment at mid section of span occurs when the uniformly distributed
load occupies
(A) Less than the left half span
(B) Whole of left half span
(C) More than the left half span
(D) Whole span
Answer: Option D

Question No. 05
For stable structures, one of the important properties of flexibility and stiffness matrices is that
the elements on the main diagonal
(i) Of a stiffness matrix must be positive
(ii) Of a stiffness matrix must be negative
(iii) Of a flexibility matrix must be positive
 (iv) Of a flexibility matrix must be negative
The correct answer is
(A) (i) and (iii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i) and (iv)
(D) (ii) and (iv)
Answer: Option A

Question No. 06
When a load crosses a through type Pratt truss in the direction left to right, the nature of force in
any diagonal member in the left half of the span would
(A) Change from compression to tension
(B) Change from tension to compression
(C) Always be compression
(D) Always be tension
Answer: Option A

Question No. 07
Which of the following methods of structural analysis is a force method?
(A) Slope deflection method
(B) Column analogy method
(C) Moment distribution method
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 08
Which of the following is not the displacement method?
(A) Equilibrium method
(B) Column analogy method
(C) Moment distribution method
(D) Kani's method
Answer: Option B

Question No. 09
For a two-hinged arch, if one of the supports settles down vertically, then the horizontal thrust
(A) Is increased
(B) Is decreased
(C) Remains unchanged
(D) Becomes zero
Answer: Option C

Question No. 10
The deflection at any point of a perfect frame can be obtained by applying a unit load at the joint
in
(A) Vertical direction
 (B) Horizontal direction
(C) Inclined direction
(D) The direction in which the deflection is required
Answer: Option D

Question No. 11
The principle of virtual work can be applied to elastic system by considering the virtual work of
(A) Internal forces only
(B) External forces only
(C) Internal as well as external forces
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 12
If in a rigid-jointed space frame, (6m + r) < 6j, then the frame is
(A) Unstable
(B) Stable and statically determinate
(C) Stable and statically indeterminate
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 13
The three moments equation is applicable only when
(A) The beam is prismatic
(B) There is no settlement of supports
(C) There is no discontinuity such as hinges within the span
(D) The spans are equal
Answer: Option C

Question No. 14
Which of the following methods of structural analysis is a displacement method?
(A) Moment distribution method
(B) Column analogy method
(C) Three moment equation
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 15
The fixed support in a real beam becomes in the conjugate beam a
(A) Roller support
(B) Hinged support
(C) Fixed support
(D) Free end
Answer: Option D
Question No. 16
For a symmetrical two hinged parabolic arch, if one of the supports settles horizontally, then the
horizontal thrust
(A) Is increased
(B) Is decreased
(C) Remains unchanged
(D) Becomes zero
Answer: Option B

Question No. 17
To generate the jth column of the flexibility matrix
(A) A unit force is applied at coordinate j and the displacements are calculated at all coordinates
(B) A unit displacement is applied at coordinate j and the forces are calculated at all coordinates
(C) A unit force is applied at coordinate j and the forces are calculated at all coordinates
(D) j
coordinates
Answer: Option A

Question No. 18
A load 'W T
maximum bending moment at 0.4 1 from the left support is
(A) 0.16 WL
(B) 0.20 WL
(C) 0.24 WL
(D) 0.25 WL
Answer: Option C

Question No. 19
In the displacement method of structural analysis, the basic unknowns are
(A) Displacements
(B) Force
(C) Displacements and forces
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 20
A rigid-jointed plane frame is stable and statically determinate if
(A) (m + r) = 2j
(B) (m + r) = 3j
(C) (3m + r) = 3j
(D) (m + 3r) = 3j
Where m is number of members, r is reaction components and j is number of joints
Answer: Option C
Question No. 21
In moment distribution method, the sum of distribution factors of all the members meeting at any
joint is always
(A) Zero
(B) Less than 1
(C) 1
(D) Greater than 1
Answer: Option C

Question No. 22
When a uniformly distributed load, shorter than the span of the girder, moves from left to right,
then the conditions for maximum bending moment at a section is that
(A) The head of the load reaches the section
(B) The tail of the load reaches the section
(C) The load position should be such that the section divides it equally on both sides
(D) The load position should be such that the section divides the load in the same ratio as it
divides the span
Answer: Option D

Question No. 23
The width of the analogous column in the method of column analogy is
(A) 2/EI
(B) 1/EI
(C) 1/2 EI
(D) 1/4 EI
Answer: Option B

Question No. 24
Muller Breslau's principle for obtaining influence lines is applicable to
(i) Trusses
(ii) Statically determinate beams and frames
(iii) Statically indeterminate structures, the material of which is elastic and follows Hooke's law
(iv) Any statically indeterminate structure
The correct answer is
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(C) (i) and (ii)
(D) Only (i)
Answer: Option A

Question No. 25
L
EI
(A) L/EI
(B) L/2EI
 (C) L/3EI
(D) L/4EI
Answer: Option A

Question No. 26
The degree of static indeterminacy of a rigid-jointed space frame is
(A) m + r - 2j
(B) m + r - 3j
(C) 3m + r - 3j
(D) 6m + r - 6j
Where m, r and j have their usual meanings
Answer: Option D

Question No. 27
Degree of kinematic indeterminacy of a pin-jointed plane frame is given by
(A) 2j - r
(B) j - 2r
(C) 3j - r
(D) 2j + r
Answer: Option A

Question No. 28
The number of independent equations to be satisfied for static equilibrium of a plane structure is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 6
Answer: Option C

Question No. 29
The degree of static indeterminacy of a pin-jointed space frame is given by
m r j
number of joints)
(A) m + r - 2j
(B) m + r - 3j
(C) 3m + r - 3j
(D) m + r + 3j
Answer: Option B

Question No. 30
While using three moments equation, a fixed end of a continuous beam is replaced by an
additional span of
(A) Zero length
(B) Infinite length
(C) Zero moment of inertia
 (D) None of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 31
Select the correct statement
(A) Flexibility matrix is a square symmetrical matrix
(B) Stiffness matrix is a square symmetrical matrix
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 32
W L
x x
(A) 0.211 L
(B) 0.25 L
(C) 0.234 L
(D) 0.5 L
Answer: Option A

Question No. 33
Study the following statements.
(i) The displacement method is more useful when degree of kinematic indeterminacy is greater
than the degree of static indeterminacy.
(ii) The displacement method is more useful when degree of kinematic indeterminacy is less than
the degree of static indeterminacy.
(iii) The force method is more useful when degree of static indeterminacy is greater than the
degree of kinematic indeterminacy.
(iv) The force method is more useful when degree of static indeterminacy is less than the degree
of kinematic indeterminacy.
The correct answer is
(A) (i) and (iii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i) and (iv)
(D) (ii) and (iv)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 34
Bending moment at any section in a conjugate beam gives in the actual beam
(A) Slope
(B) Curvature
(C) Deflection
(D) Bending moment
Answer: Option C
Question No. 35
The number of independent displacement components at each joint of a rigid-jointed space frame
is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 6
Answer: Option D

Question No. 36
Independent displacement components at each joint of a rigid-jointed plane frame are
(A) Three linear movements
(B) Two linear movements and one rotation
(C) One linear movement and two rotations
(D) Three rotations
Answer: Option B

Question No. 37
If there are m unknown member forces, r unknown reaction components and j number of
joints, then the degree of static indeterminacy of a pin-jointed plane frame is given by
(A) m + r + 2j
(B) m - r + 2j
(C) m + r - 2j
(D) m + r - 3j
Answer: Option C

Question No. 38
The carryover factor in a prismatic member whose far end is fixed is
(A) 0
(B) 1/2
(C) 3/4
(D) 1
Answer: Option B

Question No. 39
Effects of shear force and axial force on plastic moment capacity of a structure are respectively to
(A) Increase and decrease
(B) Increase and increase
(C) Decrease and increase
(D) Decrease and decrease
Answer: Option D

Question No. 40
The degree of kinematic indeterminacy of a pin-jointed space frame is
(A) 2j - r
 (B) 3j - r
(C) j - 2r
(D) j - 3r
Where j is number of joints and r is reaction components
Answer: Option B

Question No. 41
The maximum bending moment due to a train of wheel loads on a simply supported girder
(A) Always occurs at centre of span
(B) Always occurs under a wheel load
(C) Never occurs under a wheel load
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 42
Consider the following statements:
Sinking of an intermediate support of a continuous beam
1. Reduces the negative moment at support.
2. Increases the negative moment at support.
3. Reduces the positive moment at support.
4. Increases the positive moment at the centre of span.
Of these statements
(A) 1 and 4 are correct
(B) 1 and 3 are correct
(C) 2 and 3 are correct
(D) 2 and 4 are correct
Answer: Option A

Question No. 43
When a series of wheel loads crosses a simply supported girder, the maximum bending moment
under any given wheel load occurs when
(A) The centre of gravity of the load system is midway between the centre of span and wheel
load under consideration
(B) The centre of span is midway between the centre of gravity of the load system and the
wheel load under consideration
(C) The wheel load under consideration is midway between the centre of span and the centre of
gravity of the load system
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 44
Castigliano's first theorem is applicable
(A) For statically determinate structures only
(B) When the system behaves elastically
(C) Only when principle of superposition is valid
 (D) None of the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 45
Number of unknown internal forces in each member of a rigid jointed plane frame is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 6
Answer: Option C

Question No. 46
The number of independent equations to be satisfied for static equilibrium in a space structure is
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 6
Answer: Option D

Question No. 47
A simply supported beam deflects by 5 mm when it is subjected to a concentrated load of 10 kN at
its centre. What will be deflection in a 1/10 model of the beam if the model is subjected to a 1 kN
load at its centre?
(A) 5 mm
(B) 0.5 mm
(C) 0.05 mm
(D) 0.005 mm
Answer: Option A

Question No. 48
A pin-jointed plane frame is unstable if
(A) (m + r) < 2j
(B) (m + r) = 2j
(C) (m + r) > 2j
(D) None of the above
Where m is number of members, r is reaction components and j is number of joints
Answer: Option A

Question No. 49
Degree of static indeterminacy of a rigid-jointed plane frame having 15 members, 3 reaction
components and 14 joints is
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 6
(D) 8
 Answer: Option C

Question No. 50
The degree of static indeterminacy up to which column analogy method can be used is
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) Unrestricted
Answer: Option B

Question No. 51
In the slope deflection equations, the deformations are considered to be caused by
(i) Bending moment
(ii) Shear force
(iii) Axial force
The correct answer is
(A) Only (i)
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer: Option A

Question No. 52
A single rolling load of 8 kN rolls along a girder of 15 m span. The absolute maximum bending
moment will be
(A) 8 kN.m
(B) 15 kN.m
(C) 30 kN.m
(D) 60 kN.m
Answer: Option C

Question No. 53
The deformation of a spring produced by a unit load is called
(A) Stiffness
(B) Flexibility
(C) Influence coefficient
(D) Unit strain
Answer: Option B
 Soil Mechanics and Foundation Engineering

Question No. 01
A plane inclined at an angle to the horizontal at which the soil is expected to stay in the
absence of any lateral support, is known as
(A) Natural slope line
(B) Repose line
(C) The line
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 02
Rise of water table above the ground surface causes
(A) Equal increase in pore water pressure and total stress
(B) Equal decrease in pore water pressure and total stress
(C) Increase in pore water pressure but decrease in total stress
(D) Decrease in pore water pressure but increase in total stress
Answer: Option A

Question No. 03

(A) Soil is homogeneous and fully saturated

(B) Water and soil particles are incompressible
(C) Deformation of the soil, is entirely due to change in volume
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 04
If the material of the base of the Casagrande liquid limit device on which the cup containing soil
paste drops is softer than the standard hard rubber, then
(A) The liquid limit of soil always increases
(B) The liquid limit of soil always decreases
(C) The liquid limit of soil may increase
(D) The liquid limit of soil may decrease
Answer: Option A

Question No. 05
A triaxial shear test is preferred to direct shear test, because
(A) It can be performed under all three drainage conditions with complete control
(B) Precise measurement of pore pressure and change in volume during test, is not possible
(C) Stress distribution on the failure plane, is non uniform
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 06
The average coefficient of permeability of natural deposits
(A) Parallel to stratification is always greater than that perpendicular to stratification
(B) Parallel to stratification is always less than that perpendicular to stratification
(C) Is always same in both directions
(D) Parallel to stratification may or may not be greater than that perpendicular to stratification
Answer: Option A

Question No. 07
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The dry density reduces by addition of water after attaining optimum moisture content
(B) The line joining the peak of three moisture content graphs obtained by using three
compactive energies, is called line of optimus
(C) Well graded coarse grained soils can be compacted to a very high density as compared to
fine grained soils
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 08
The shear strength of a soil
(A) Is directly proportional to the angle of internal friction of the soil
(B) Is inversely proportional to the angle of internal friction of the soil
(C) Decreases with increase in normal stress
(D) Decreases with decrease in normal stress
Answer: Option D

Question No. 09
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The object of classifying soils is to arrange them into groups according to their properties
and behaviour
(B) A soil classification system is meant to provide an accepted and systematic method of
describing the various types of soils eliminating personal factors
(C) The first category of soil classification is based on grain size of the soil
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 10
The major principal stress in an element of cohesion-less soil within the backfill of a retaining wall
is
(A) Vertical if the soil is in an active state of plastic equilibrium
(B) Vertical if the soil is in a passive state of plastic equilibrium
(C) Inclined at 45° to the vertical plane
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option A
Question No. 11
A grillage foundation
(A) Is provided for heavily loaded isolated columns
(B) Is treated as spread foundation
(C) Consists of two sets of perpendicularly placed steel beams
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 12
Effective stress on soil
(A) Increases voids ratio and decreases permeability
(B) Increases both voids ratio and permeability
(C) Decreases both voids ratio and permeability
(D) Decreases voids ratio and increases permeability
Answer: Option C

Question No. 13
Hydrometer readings are corrected for:
(A) Temperature correction
(B) Meniscus correction
(C) Dispersing agent correction
(D) Temperature, meniscus and dispersing agent corrections
Answer: Option D

Question No. 14
The ultimate consolidation settlement of a structure resting on a soil
(A) Decreases with the increase in the initial voids ratio
(B) Decreases with the decrease in the plastic limit
(C) Increases with the increase in the initial voids ratio
(D) Increases with the decrease in the porosity of the soil
Answer: Option A

Question No. 15
Select the incorrect statement.
(A) In a direct shear box test, the plane of shear failure is predetermined
(B) Better control is achieved on the drainage of the soil in a triaxial compression test
(C) Stress distribution on the failure plane in the case of triaxial compression test is uniform
(D) Unconfined compression test can be carried out on all types of soils
Answer: Option D

Question No. 16
Factor of safety against sliding of a slope, is the ratio of
(A) Actual cohesion to that required to maintain stability of slope
(B) Shear strength to shear stress along the surface
(C) Neither (a) nor (b)
 (D) Both (a) and (b)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 17
The angle of internal friction, is least for
(A) Angular-grained loose sand
(B) Angular -grained dense sand
(C) Round-grained loose sand
(D) Clays
Answer: Option D

Question No. 18
Dispersed type of soil structure is an arrangement comprising particles having
(A) Face to face or parallel orientation
(B) Edge to edge orientation
(C) Edge to face orientation
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 19
The neutral stress in a soil mass is
(A) Force per neutral area
(B) Force per effective area
(C) Stress taken up by the pore water
(D) Stress taken up by solid particles
Answer: Option C

Question No. 20
The coefficient of compressibility of soil, is the ratio of
(A) Stress to strain
(B) Strain to stress
(C) Stress to settlement
(D) Rate of loading to that of settlement
Answer: Option B

Question No. 21
A clay subjected to pressure in excess to its present over-burden, is said to be
(A) Pre-compressed
(B) Pre-consolidated
(C) Over-consolidated
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 22
Physical properties of a permeant which influence permeability are
 (A) Viscosity only
(B) Unit weight only
(C) Both viscosity and unit weight
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 23
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The range of water content between the liquid limit and plastic limit is called plasticity index
(B) The ratio of the liquid limit minus the natural water content to the plasticity index of soils, is
called consistency index
(C) The ratio of natural water content minus its plastic limit to its plasticity index is
called liquidity index
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 24
Rankine's theory of active earth pressure assumes
(A) Soil mass is homogeneous, dry and cohesionless
(B) Ground surface is a plane which may be horizontal or inclined
(C) Back of the wall is vertical and smooth
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 25
For testing a saturated clay for shear strength, the test recommended, is
(A) Direct shear test
(B) Triaxial compression test
(C) Unconfined compression test
(D) All the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 26
Coefficient of permeability of soil
(A) Does not depend upon temperature
(B) Increases with the increase in temperature
(C) Increases with the decrease in temperature
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 27
The ratio of volume of air voids to the volume of total voids, is known as
(A) Air content
(B) Percentage air voids
(C) Percentage voids
 (D) Porosity
Answer: Option A

Question No. 28
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) In soils, the flow index indicates variation in shear strength with water content
(B) Liquid limit minus plastic limit, is known as plasticity index of the soil
(C) Plastic limit minus shrinkage limit, is known as shrinkage index of the soil
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 29
The triaxial apparatus is usually used for
(A) Unconsolidated-undrained test
(B) Consolidated-undrained test
(C) Drained test
(D) All the above tests
Answer: Option D

Question No. 30
Which one of the following clays behaves like a dense sand?
(A) Over-consolidated clay with a high over-consolidation ratio
(B) Over-consolidated clay with a low over-consolidation ratio
(C) Normally consolidated clay
(D) Under-consolidated clay
Answer: Option A

Question No. 31
During seepage through a soil, direction of seepage is always
(A) Parallel to equipotential lines
(B) Perpendicular to stream lines
(C) Perpendicular to equipotential lines
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 32
The seepage force in a soil, is
(A) Perpendicular to the equipotential lines
(B) Proportional to the exit gradient
(C) Proportional to the head loss
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 33
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
 (A) Coefficient of compressibility is the decrease in void ratio per unit increase of pressure
(B) The percent settlement at any time is called degree of consolidation
(C) Time factor is a dimensionless quantity
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 34
Direct measurement of permeability of the specimen at any stage of loading can be made
(A) Only in fixed ring type consolidometer
(B) Only in floating ring type consolidometer
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 35
The property of a soil which allows it to be deformed rapidly without rupture, elastic rebound and
also a volume change, is known
(A) Porosity
(B) Plasticity
(C) Permeability
(D) Ductility
Answer: Option B

Question No. 36
Failure of the stability of slopes, generally occurs along
(A) Slip plane
(B) A horizontal surface
(C) A curved surface
(D) All the surfaces
Answer: Option C

Question No. 37
The shearing force acting along the slice of a curved surface of slippage, causes the soil to slide
(A) Down at the centre
(B) Down at the toe
(C) Upward at the centre
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 38
With the increase in the amount of compaction energy
(A) Optimum water content increases but maximum dry density decreases
(B) Optimum water content decreases but maximum dry density increases
(C) Both optimum water content and maximum dry density increase
(D) Both optimum water content and maximum dry density decrease
 Answer: Option B

Question No. 39
Soils containing organic matters
(A) Are of spongy nature
(B) Swell with decrease of moisture
(C) Shrink with increase of moisture content
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 40
Buoyant unit weight equals the saturated density
(A) Multiplied by unit weight of water
(B) Divided by unit weight of water
(C) Plus unit weight of water
(D) Minus unit weight of water
Answer: Option D

Question No. 41
The change of moisture content of soils, changes the
(A) Value of the angle of repose
(B) Amount of compaction required
(C) Cohesive strength of soil
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 42
Skempton's pore pressure coefficient B for saturated soil is
(A) 1
(B) Zero
(C) Between 0 and 1
(D) Greater than 1
Answer: Option A

Question No. 43
The density of soil can be increased
(A) By reducing the space occupied by air
(B) By elastic compression of soil grains
(C) By expelling water from pores
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 44
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Kaolinite is most stable clay
 (B) Kaolinite shows a very little sign of swelling on wetting
(C) Kaolinite is also called China clay
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 45
Pick up the correct definition from the following:
(A) The lateral pressure exerted by the soil when the retaining wall moves away from the back
fill, is generally known as active earth pressure of the soil
(B) The lateral pressure exerted by the soil when the retaining wail moves towards the soil, is
generally known as 'Passive earth pressure of the soil
(C) The lateral pressure exerted by the soil when the retaining wall has no movement relative to
the back fill, is known as 'earth pressure at rest of the soil
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 46
Shear strength of a soil is a unique function of
(A) Effective stress only
(B) Total stress only
(C) Both effective stress and total stress
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 47
Laplacian fundamental equation for a non-compressible flow in three dimensions, is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 48
260 g of wet soil was taken in a pycnometer jar of weight 400 g in order to find the moisture
content in the soil, with specific gravity of soil particles 2.75. The weight of soil and remaining
water filled in pycnometer without air bubbles was 1415 g and the weight of pycnometer filled
with water alone was 1275 g. The moisture content in the soil is
(A) 24.2 %
(B) 18.2 %
(C) 53.8 %
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 49
The method of the slices is applicable to
 (A) Homogenous soils
(B) Stratified soils
(C) Saturated soils
(D) Non-uniform slopes
Answer: Option A

Question No. 50
The angle that Coulomb's failure envelope makes with the horizontal is called
(A) Cohesion
(B) Angle of internal friction
(C) Angle of repose
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 51
A flow net may be utilised for the determination of
(A) Exit gradient
(B) Seepage
(C) Hydrostatic pressure
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 52
The compression index of a soil
(A) Decreases with an increase in the liquid limit
(B) Increases with an increase in the liquid limit
(C) Decreases with an increase in the plastic limit
(D) Is not related with plastic limit
Answer: Option B

Question No. 53
If the coefficient of the active pressure Ka is 1/3, the coefficient of passive pressure Kp, is
(A) 1/3
(B) 2/3
(C) 1
(D) 3
Answer: Option D

Question No. 54
Sensitivity of a soil can be defined as
(A) Percentage of volume change of soil under saturated condition
(B) Ratio of compressive strength of unconfined undisturbed soil to that of soil in a remoulded
state
(C) Ratio of volume of voids to volume of solids
(D) None of the above
 Answer: Option B

Question No. 55
The intensity of active earth pressure at a depth of 10 metres in dry cohesionless sand with an
angle of internal friction of 30° and with a weight of 1.8 t/m3, is
(A) 4 t/m2
(B) 5 t/m2
(C) 6 t/m2
(D) 7 t/m2
Answer: Option C

Question No. 56
The soil moisture driven off by heat, is called
(A) Free water
(B) Hydroscopic water
(C) Gravity water
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 57
Plasticity index is defined as the range of water content between
(A) Liquid and plastic limit
(B) Plastic limit and semi solid limit
(C) Semi-solid limit and liquid limit
(D) Liquid limit and solid limit
Answer: Option A

Question No. 58
Bishop's method of stability analysis
(A) Is more conservative
(B) Neglects the effect of forces acting on the sides of the slices
(C) Assumes the slip surface as an arc of a circle
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 59
If the natural moisture content, the liquid limit and plastic limit of a soil sample are stated as
30.5%, 42.5% and 22.5% respectively, the ratio of liquidity index and plastic index, is
(A)
(B) ½
(C) 2
(D) 2½
Answer: Option C
Question No. 60
You are given a sample of soil containing coarse grains to determine its water content, you will use
(A) Pycnometer
(B) Oven-drying method
(C) Calcium carbide method
(D) Alcohol method
Answer: Option A

Question No. 61
Pick up the incorrect definition from the following:
(A) Ratio of the compressive strength of unconfined undisturbed soil to that of remoulded soil,
is known as the sensitivity of the soil sample
(B) The rotation of soil particles into stable state while remoulding, is known as the thiostropy of
soil
(C) The water content at which a soil flows, is known plastic limit of the soil
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 62
A 600 mm square bearing plate settles by 15 mm in plate load test on a cohesion-less soil under an
intensity of loading of 0.2 N/ram². The settlement of a prototype shallow footing 1 m square
under the same intensity of loading is
(A) 15 mm
(B) Between 15 mm and 25 mm
(C) 25 mm
(D) Greater than 25 mm
Answer: Option B

Question No. 63
According to Rankine's formula, the minimum depth of foundation
(A) h = (P/W) [(1 - sin )/(1 + sin )]²
(B) h = (w/P) [(1 - sin )/(1 + sin )]²
(C) h = (P/w) [(1 - sin )/(1 + tan )]²
(D) h = (P/w) [(1 - tan )/(1 + tan )]²
Answer: Option A

Question No. 64
The angle between the directions of the failure and the major principal plane, is equal to
(A) 90° + effective angle of shearing resistance
(B) 90° + half of the angle of shearing resistance
(C) 45° - half of the angle of shearing resistance
(D) 45° + half of the angle of shearing resistance
Answer: Option D
Question No. 65
In active state of plastic equilibrium in a non cohesive soil with horizontal ground surface
(A) Major principal stress is horizontal
(B) Minor principal stress is vertical
(C) Major principal stress is vertical
(D) Minor and major principal stresses are equally inclined to horizontal
Answer: Option C

Question No. 66
Residual soils are formed by
(A) Glaciers
(B) Wind
(C) Water
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 67
A soil not fully consolidated under the existing over-burden pressure, is called
(A) Pre-consolidated
(B) Normally consolidated
(C) Over-consolidated
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 68
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Illite bond is weaker than Kaolinite bond
(B) Illite bond is stronger than montmorillonite bond
(C) Illite does not swell when wet
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 69
If Cv is the coefficient of consolidation, is the time and is drainage path of one dimensional
consolidation of soil, the time factor Tv, is given by
(A) Tv = d²/Cvt
(B) Tv = t²/d²Cv
(C) Tv = Cv3/d²t
(D) Tv = Cvt/dt²
Answer: Option D

Question No. 70
Select the correct statement.
(A) Unit weight of dry soil is greater than unit weight of wet soil
(B) For dry soils, dry unit weight is less than total unit weight
 (C) Unit weight of soil increases due to submergence in water
(D) Unit weight of soil decreases due to submergence in water
Answer: Option D

Question No. 71
The bearing capacity of a soil depends upon
(A) Size of the particles
(B) Shape of the particles
(C) Cohesive properties of particles
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 72
Fundamental relationship between dry density ( d), bulk density ( ) and water content ( ), is:
(A) = d/1 +
(B) d = /1 +
(C) = /1 + d
(D) = - d
Answer: Option B

Question No. 73
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The void ratio in soils is defined as the ratio of the volume of voids to the volume of solids
(B) The bulk density of a soil is defined as the unit weight of the soil
(C) The dry density of a soil is defined as weight of solids to the total volume of the soil
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 74
If the water content of a fully saturated soil mass is 100%, then the voids ratio of the sample is
(A) Less than specific gravity of soil
(B) Equal to specific gravity of soil
(C) Greater than specific gravity of soil
(D) Independent of specific gravity of soil
Answer: Option B

Question No. 75
If water content of a soil is 40%, G is 2.70 and void ratio is 1.35, the degree of saturation is
(A) 70 %
(B) 75 %
(C) 80 %
(D) 85 %
Answer: Option C
Question No. 76
If the back fill is having a uniform surcharge of intensity per unit area, the lateral pressure will
be
(A) q times the lateral pressure within the surface
(B) 1/q times the lateral pressure within the surface
(C) Equal to a fill of height Z equal to q/r, where r is the density of the backfill
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 77
The angle of internal friction of clays, is usually
(A) 0° to 5°
(B) 5° to 20°
(C) 20° to 30°
(D) 30° to 45°
Answer: Option B

Question No. 78
Stoke's law is valid only if the size of particle is
(A) Less than 0.0002 mm
(B) Greater than 0.2 mm
(C) Between 0.2 mm and 0.0002 mm
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 79
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) When stress decreases, void, ratio decreases
(B) When stress decreases, coefficient of permeability decreases
(C) When stress decreases, coefficient of volume change decreases
(D) When stress decreases void ratio, coefficients of permeability and volume change decrease
Answer: Option D

Question No. 80
Pick up the correct statement applicable to plate load test
(A) Width of the test pit for plate load test is made five times the width of the plate
(B) At the centre of the test pit, a hole is dug out whose size is kept equal to the size of the test
plate
(C) Bottom level of the hole dug at the centre of the test pit, is kept at the level of the actual
formation
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 81
Failure of a slope occurs only when total shear force is
 (A) Equal to total shearing strength
(B) Greater than total shearing strength
(C) Less than total shearing strength
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 82
If the natural water content of soil mass lies between its liquid limit and plastic limit, the soil mass
is said to be in
(A) Liquid state
(B) Plastic state
(C) Semisolid state
(D) Solid state
Answer: Option B

Question No. 83
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The permeability of the coarse-grained soils may be reduced by grouting
(B) The process of injecting fluids (i.e. grouts) into the pores space of the soil is called grouting
(C) The grouting increases the soil strength
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 84
Negative skin friction on piles
(A) Is caused due to relative settlement of the soil
(B) Is caused in soft clays
(C) Decreases the pile capacity
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 85
Select the correct statement.
(A) A uniform soil has more strength and stability than a nonuniform soil
(B) A uniform soil has less strength and stability than a nonuniform soil
(C) Uniformity coefficient does not affect strength and stability
(D) Uniformity coefficient of a poorly graded soil is more than that of a well graded soil
Answer: Option B

Question No. 86
The slip at critical angle, is generally known
(A) -line
(B) Rupture plane
(C) Slip plane
(D) All the above
 Answer: Option D

Question No. 87
If a soil undergoes a change in shape and volume by application of external loads over it, but
recovers its shape and volume immediately after removal of the load, the property of the soil is
said to be
(A) Resilience of soils
(B) Elasticity of soils
(C) Compressibility of soils
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 88
The water content in a soil sample when it continues to loose weight without loosing the volume,
is called
(A) Shrinkage limit
(B) Plastic limit
(C) Liquid limit
(D) Semi-solid limit
Answer: Option A

Question No. 89
Effective stress is
(A) The stress at particles contact
(B) A physical parameter that can be measured
(C) Important because it is a function of engineering properties of soil
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 90
The angle of internal friction is maximum for
(A) angular-grained loose sand
(B) angular-grained dense sand
(C) round-grained dense sand
(D) round-grained loose sand
Answer: Option B

Question No. 91
If the coefficients of volume change and compressibility of a soil sample are 6.75 × 10-2 and 3 × 10-2
respectively, the void ratio of the soil sample, is
(A) 1.10
(B) 1.15
(C) 1.20
(D) 1.30
Answer: Option D
Question No. 92
When a cohesionless soil attains quick condition, it looses
(A) Shear strength
(B) Bearing capacity
(C) Both (a) and (b)
(D) Neither (a) nor (6)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 93
Select the correct statement.
(A) The greater the viscosity, the greater is permeability
(B) The greater the unit weight, the greater is permeability
(C) The greater the unit weight, the smaller is permeability
(D) Unit weight does not affect permeability
Answer: Option B

Question No. 94
A direct shear test possesses the following disadvantage:
(A) A relatively thin thickness of sample permits quick drainage
(B) A relatively thin thickness of sample permits quick dissipation of pore pressure developed
during the test
(C) As the test progresses the area under shear, gradually changes
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 95
A stratum of clay 2 m thick will get consolidated 80% in 10 years. For the 80% consolidation of 8 m
thick stratum of the same clay, the time required is
(A) 100 years
(B) 120 years
(C) 140 years
(D) 160 years
Answer: Option D

Question No. 96
When the seepage pressure becomes equal to the pressure due to submerged weight of a soil, the
effective pressure is reduced to zero and the soil particles have a tendency to move up in the
direction of flow. This phenomenon is generally known
(A) Quick condition
(B) Boiling condition
(C) Quick sand
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 97
The most suitable method for drainage of fine grained cohesive soils is
(A) Well point system
(B) Vacuum method
(C) Deep well system
(D) Electro-osmosis method
Answer: Option D

Question No. 98
Which one of the following statements is true for Mohr-Coulomb envelope?
(A) Coulomb suggests that the relationship between shear strength and normal stress, is
adequately represented by the straight line
(B) The generalised Mohr theory suggests that, though the shear stress depends on the normal
stress, the relation is not linear
(C) Coulomb and Mohr suggest that a definite relationship exists among the principal stress and
the angle of internal friction
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 99
Fundamental relationship between dry density ( d), specific gravity (G), water content ( ) and
percentage of air voids (na) is:
(A) d = (1 - na) G (1 + )
(B) d = (1 + na) G (1 + )
(C) d = (1 + na) G (1 - )
(D) d = (1 - na) G (1 - )
Answer: Option A

Question No. 100

If drainage is permitted throughout the test, during the application of both normal, and shear
stresses so that full consolidation occurs and no excess pore pressure is set up at any stage of the
test, is known as
(A) Quick test
(B) Drained test
(C) Consolidated undrained test
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 101

Degree of consolidation is
(A) Directly proportional to time and inversely proportional to drainage path
(B) Directly proportional to time and inversely proportional to square of drainage path
(C) Directly proportional to drainage path and inversely proportional to time
(D) Directly proportional to square of drainage path and inversely proportional to time
Answer: Option B
Question No. 102
Terzaghi's theory of one dimensional consolidation assumes
(A) Load is applied in one direction
(B) Coefficient of permeability is constant
(C) Excess pore water drains out only in the vertical direction
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 103

The shear resistance of a soil is constituted basically of the following component.
(A) The frictional resistance to translocation between the individual soil particles at their contact
point
(B) To the structural relation to displacement of the soil because of the interlocking of the
particles
(C) Cohesion and adhesion between the surfaces of the soil particles
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 104

The consolidation time for soils
(A) Increases with increasing compressibility
(B) Decreases with increasing permeability
(C) Increases rapidly with increasing size of soil mass
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 105

Coefficient of compressibility is
(A) Constant for any type of soil
(B) Different for different types of soils and also different for a soil under different states of
consolidation
(C) Different for different types of soils but same for a soil under different states of
consolidation
(D) Independent of type of soil but depends on the stress history of soil
Answer: Option B

Question No. 106

The ratio of the weight of water to the weight of solids in a given mass of soil, is known
(A) Porosity
(B) Specific gravity
(C) Void ratio
(D) Water content
Answer: Option D
Question No. 107
In a liquid limit test, the moisture content at 10 blows was 70% and that at 100 blows was 20%.
The liquid limit of the soil, is
(A) 35 %
(B) 50 %
(C) 65 %
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 108

In a purely cohesive soil, the critical centre lies at the intersection of
(A) Perpendicular bisector of slope and the locus of the centre
(B) Perpendicular drawn at 1/3rd slope from toe and the locus of the centre
(C) Perpendicular drawn at 2/3rd slope from toe and the locus of the centre
(D) Directional angles
Answer: Option D

Question No. 109

Select the incorrect statement.
(A) Effective cohesion of a soil can never have a negative value.
(B) Effective angle of internal friction for coarse grained soils is rarely below 30°.
(C) Effective angle of internal friction for a soil increases as state of compactness increases.
(D) Effective angle of internal friction is a complicated function of mineralogy and clay size
content.
Answer: Option A

Question No. 110

If is specific gravity of sand particles, is porosity, the critically hydraulic gradient
(A) ic = (G + 1)/(1 - e)
(B) ic = (G + 1)/(1 + e)
(C) ic = (G - 1)/(1 + e)
(D) ic = (G - 1)/(1 - e)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 111

The quantity of seepage of water through soils is proportional to
(A) Coefficient of permeability of soil
(B) Total head loss through the soil
(C) Neither (a) nor (b)
(D) Both (a) and (b)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 112

The weight of a container is and that of container with soil simple, is . If the weight of the
container and oven dried soil sample is W3, the moisture content of the soil, is
 (A) [( - W3)/(W3 - )] × 100
(B) [(W3 - )/( - )] × 100
(C) [( - )/( - W3)] × 100
(D) [( - )/( - W3)] × 100
Answer: Option A

Question No. 113

A cylindrical specimen of saturated soil failed under an axial vertical stress of 100kN/m² when it
was laterally unconfmed. The failure plane was inclined to the horizontal plane at an angle of 45°.
The values of cohesion and angle of internal friction for the soil are respectively
(A) 0.5 N/mm² and 30°
(B) 0.05 N/mm² and 0°
(C) 0.2 N/mm² and 0°
(D) 0.05 N/mm² and 45°
Answer: Option B

Question No. 114

The pressure that builds up in pore water due to load increment on the soil, is termed
(A) Excess pore pressure
(B) Excess hydrostatic pressure
(C) Hydrodynamic pressure
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 115

1 2 with the normal to the interface of the soils having
permeabilities k1, k2 before and after deflection. According to the law of deflection of the flow
lines at the interface of the dissimilar soils
(A) 1 2 = k1/k2

(B) 1 2 = k1/k2
(C) 1 2 = k1/k2
(D) 2 1 = k1/k2
Answer: Option C

Question No. 116

The critical exist gradient of seepage water in soils, increases with
(A) An increase in specific gravity
(B) A decrease in specific gravity
(C) A decrease in void ratio
(D) Both (a) and (c)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 117

Rankine's theory of earth pressure assumes that the back of the wall is
(A) Plane and smooth
 (B) Plane and rough
(C) Vertical and smooth
(D) Vertical and rough
Answer: Option C

Question No. 118

The Mohr's straight theory is based on the following fact:
(A) Material fails essentially by shear
(B) Ultimate strength of the material is determined by the stress in the plane of slip
(C) Failure criterion is independent of the intermediate principal stress
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 119

According to Coulomb's wedge theory, the active earth pressure slides the wedge
(A) Down and outwards on a slip surface
(B) Up and inwards on a slip surface
(C) Horizontal upward and parallel to base
(D) Horizontal inward and parallel to base
Answer: Option A

Question No. 120

Pile foundations are generally preferred to for
(A) Bridge foundations
(B) Sky scrapper buildings
(C) Residential buildings
(D) Runways
Answer: Option B

Question No. 121

The rise of water table below the foundation influences the bearing capacity of soil mainly by
reducing
(A) Cohesion and effective angle of shearing resistance
(B) Cohesion and effective unit weight of soil
(C) Effective unit weight of soil and effective angle of shearing resistance
(D) Effective angle of shearing resistance
Answer: Option B

Question No. 122

A soil mass is said to be in plastic equilibrium if
(A) It is stressed to maximum
(B) It is on the verge of failure
(C) It is in plastic stage
(D) It starts flowing
Answer: Option B
Question No. 123
Stoke's law states that the velocity at which a grain settles out of suspension, the other factors
remaining constant, is dependent upon
(A) Shape of grain
(B) Weight of grain
(C) Size of grain
(D) Shape, size and weight of grain
Answer: Option D

Question No. 124

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) A soil having pH value more than 7 is an acidic soil
(B) A soil having pH value less than 7 is an acidic soil
(C) A soil having pH value more than 7 is an alkaline soil
(D) A soil containing chemicals for the manufacture of Portland cement is preferred
Answer: Option B

Question No. 125

Contact pressure beneath a rigid footing resting on cohesive soil is
(A) Less at edges compared to middle
(B) More at edges compared to middle
(C) Uniform throughout
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 126

The plasticity of fine soils may be assessed by means of
(A) Dry strength test
(B) Toughness test
(C) Dilatancy test
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 127

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Sandy clayloam contains highest percentage of sand
(B) Silty clayloam contains highest percentage of silt
(C) Stiff boulder clay offers maximum shear strength
(D) Soft chalk carries least safe load
Answer: Option B

Question No. 128

For general engineering purposes, soils are classified by
(A) Particle size classification system
(B) Textural classification system
 (C) High Way Research Board (HRB), classification system
(D) Unified soil classification system
Answer: Option D

Question No. 129

Water content of soil can
(A) Never be greater than 100 %
(B) Take values only from 0 % to 100 %
(C) Be less than 0 %
(D) Be greater than 100 %
Answer: Option D

Question No. 130

Through a point in a loaded soil mass, there exists typical planes mutually orthogonal on which
the stress is wholly normal and no shear stress acts, if is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Answer: Option C

Question No. 131

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Failure plane carries maximum shear stress
(B) Failure plane does not carry maximum shear stress
(C) Failure plane carries shear stress equal to maximum shear stress
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 132

The phreatic line in an earth dam may be
(A) Circular
(B) Elliptical
(C) Parabolic
(D) A straight line
Answer: Option C

Question No. 133

If the voids of a soil mass are full of air only, the soil is termed as
(A) Air entrained soil
(B) Partially saturated soil
(C) Dry soil
(D) Dehydrated soil
Answer: Option C
Question No. 134
On wetting, cohesive soils,
(A) Loose permeability
(B) Gain shear strength
(C) Loose elasticity
(D) Decrease their shear strength
Answer: Option D

Question No. 135

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) An unconfined compression test is a special case of triaxial compression test
(B) An unconfined compression test is a special case of direct shear test
(C) The confining pressure is maximum during an unconfined compression test
(D) The cylindrical specimen of a soil is subjected to major principal stress till it fails due to
shearing along the plane of the failure
Answer: Option A

Question No. 136

A soil sample of mass specific gravity 1.92 has moisture content 30%. If the specific gravity of
solids is 2.75, the degree of saturation, is
(A) 95.4 %
(B) 95.5 %
(C) 95.6 %
(D) 95.7 %
Answer: Option D

Question No. 137

Select the correct range of density index, ID
(A) ID > 0
(B) ID < 0
(C) 0 < ID < 1
(D) 0 < ID < 1
Answer: Option D

Question No. 138

A soil sample of mass specific gravity 1.92 has moisture content 30%. If the specific gravity of
solids is 2.75, the void ratio, is
(A) 0.858
(B) 0.860
(C) 0.862
(D) 0.864
Answer: Option C

Question No. 139

If the specific gravity and voids in soil sample are G and e respectively, the hydraulic gradient i, is
 (A) (G - 1)/(1 + e)
(B) (G + 1)/(1 - e)
(C) (1 - G)/(1 + e)
(D) (1 + G)/(1 + e)
Answer: Option A

Question No. 140

In a flow net
(A) Flow lines and equipotential lines cross each other at right angles
(B) Fields are rectangles whose length is twice the breadth
(C) Smaller the dimensions of the field, smaller will be the hydraulic gradient and velocity of
flow through it
(D) For homogeneous soil, the curves are smooth and circular
Answer: Option A

Question No. 141

Which of the following methods is most accurate for the determination of the water content of
soil?
(A) Oven drying method
(B) Sand bath method
(C) Calcium carbide method
(D) Pycnometer method
Answer: Option A

Question No. 142

The earth pressure of a soil at rest, is proportional to (where is the angle of internal friction of
the soil)
(A) tan (45° - )
(B) tan (45° + )
(C) tan2 (45° - )
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 143

The reduction in volume of soil due to squeezing out of water from the voids, is termed
(A) Primary consolidation
(B) Primary compression
(C) Primary time effect
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 144

Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) Uniformity coefficient represents the shape of the particle size distribution curve.
 (B) For a well graded soil, both uniformity coefficient and coefficient of curvature are nearly
unity.
(C) A soil is said to be well graded if it has most of the particles of about the same size
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 145

'Talus' is the soil transported by
(A) Wind
(B) Water
(C) Glacier
(D) Gravitational force
Answer: Option D

Question No. 146

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The void space between the soil grains, is filled partly with air and partly with water
(B) In perfectly saturated soil, the voids are completely filled with water
(C) In dry soil, the voids are completely filled with air
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 147

If e0, e 0' have their usual meanings, the coefficient of compressibility (ac), is given by
(A) ac = (e - e0)/(e' + e0')
(B) ac = (e0 - e)/( - 0')
(C) ac = ( - 0')/(e0 - e)
(D) ac = ( 0' - )/(e - e0)
Answer: Option B

Question No. 148

The water content of soil, which represents the boundary between plastic state and liquid state, is
known as
(A) Liquid limit
(B) Plastic limit
(C) Shrinkage limit
(D) Plasticity index
Answer: Option A

Question No. 149

The specific gravity of Calcite is
(A) 2.65
(B) 2.72
(C) 2.85
(D) 2.90
 Answer: Option B

Question No. 150

The direct shear test suffers from the following disadvantage:
(A) Drain condition cannot be controlled
(B) Pore water pressure cannot be measured
(C) Shear stress on the failure plane is not uniform
(D) The area under the shear and vertical loads does not remain constant throughout the test
Answer: Option C

Question No. 151

If the bulk density of the soil is and water content , then dry density of the soil, is
(A) 1 + /
(B) (1 + )/
(C) /(1 + )
(D) /(1 + )
Answer: Option C

Question No. 152

The clay mineral with the largest swelling and shrinkage characteristics is
(A) Kaolinite
(B) Illite
(C) Montmorillonite
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 153

The length/diameter ratio of cylindrical specimens used in triaxial test, is generally
(A) 1
(B) 1.5
(C) 2
(D) 2.5
Answer: Option C

Question No. 154

The maximum load carried by a pile, when it continues to sink without further increase of load, is
known as
(A) Ultimate load carrying capacity
(B) Ultimate bearing capacity
(C) Ultimate bearing resistant
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 155

The seepage exit gradient in a soil is the ratio of
 (A) Total head to the length of seepage
(B) Flow line to slope
(C) Head upstream to that at downstream
(D) Head loss to the length of the seepage
Answer: Option D

Question No. 156

Which of the following methods is more suitable for the determination of permeability of clayey
soil?
(A) Constant head method
(B) Falling head method
(C) Horizontal permeability test
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 157

A structure is erected on an impervious clay whose thickness is 12 m. Drainage is possible both at
upper and lower surfaces. Coefficient of consolidation is 0.015 cm 2 per minute. For attaining 50%
consolidation with a time factor 0.20, the number of days required
(A) 3233
(B) 3123
(C) 33331
(D) 3313
Answer: Option C

Question No. 158

The ratio of the difference between the void ratio of the soil in its loosest state and its natural void
ratio (e) to the difference between the void ratios in the loosest and fully dense state, is generally
termed as
(A) Degree of density
(B) Relativity
(C) Density index
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 159

For determining the ultimate bearing capacity of soil, the recommended size of a square bearing
plate to be used in load plate test should be 30 to 75 cm square with a minimum thickness of
(A) 5 mm
(B) 10 mm
(C) 15 mm
(D) 25 mm
Answer: Option D
Question No. 160
Within the consolidation process of a saturated clay
(A) A gradual increase in neutral pressure and a gradual decrease in effective pressure take
place and sum of the two is constant
(B) A gradual decrease in neutral pressure and a gradual increase in effective pressure take
place and sum of the two is constant
(C) Both neutral pressure and effective pressure decrease
(D) Both neutral pressure and effective pressure increase
Answer: Option B

Question No. 161

An unsaturated 100 cm3 sample of soil weighs 190 g. If its dried weight is 160 g, water content of
the soil, is
(A) 0.188
(B) 0.288
(C) 0.388
(D) 0.588
Answer: Option A

Question No. 162

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) If the ratio of depth to width is less than 2, it is shallow foundation
(B) If the ratio of depth to width is more than 2, it is deep foundation
(C) If the ratio of the length to width is between 1 and 2, it is spread foundation
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 163

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) A maximum value of dry density is obtained at optimum water content
(B) At low value of water content most soils tend to be stiff
(C) At high water content, the dry density decreases with an increase of water content
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 164

Select the correct statement.
(A) Coefficient of compressibility of an over-consolidated clay is less than that of a normally
consolidated clay
(B) Coefficient of compressibility of an over-consolidated clay is greater than that of a normally
consolidated clay
(C) Coefficient of compressibility is constant for any clay
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option A
Question No. 165
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Isotropic consolidation of clay can be obtained in the triaxial apparatus under equal all-
round pressure
(B) If the present effective stress is the maximum to which the clay has ever been subjected, it is
called normally consolidated clay
(C) If the present effective stress in the past was more than present effective stress, it is called
over-consolidated clay
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 166

Compression of soil occurs rapidly if voids are filled with
(A) Air
(B) Water
(C) Partly with air and partly with water
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 167

For better strength and stability, the fine grained soils and coarse grained soils are compacted
respectively as
(A) Dry of OMC and wet of OMC
(B) Wet of OMC and dry of OMC
(C) Wet of OMC and wet of OMC
(D) Dry of OMC and dry of OMC where OMC is optimum moisture content
Answer: Option B

Question No. 168

Chemical weathering of soil is caused due to
(A) Oxidation
(B) Carbonation
(C) Hydration
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 169

Terzaghi's analysis assumes:
(A) Soil is homogeneous and isotropic
(B) Elastic zone has straight boundaries inclined at = to the horizontal and plastic zones fully
developed
(C) Failure zones do not extend above the horizontal plane through the base of the footing
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 170
According to IS : 2720 - 1965, the composition of a dispersing solution used in pipette analysis for
determining the size of particles, is
(A) sodium-hexametaphosphate 33 g, sodium carbonate 7 g and distilled water one litre
(B) sodium-hexametaphosphate 7 g, sodium carbonate 33 g and distilled water one litre
(C) sodium-hexametaphosphate 23 g, sodium carbonate 17 g and distilled water one litre
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 171

If the shearing stress is zero on two planes, then the angle between the two planes is
(A) 45°
(B) 90°
(C) 135°
(D) 225°
Answer: Option B

Question No. 172

A suspended particle falls through a height minutes. If the viscosity of water
is and specific gravity of the particle is , the diameter of the particle is (where M is a constant
factor)
(A) 103M (H/t)
(B) 104M (H/t)
(C) 105M (H/t)
(D) 102M (H/t)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 173

The ultimate bearing capacity of a soil, is
(A) Total load on the bearing area
(B) Safe load on the bearing area
(C) Load at which soil fails
(D) Load at which soil consolidates
Answer: Option C

Question No. 174

The minimum depth of building foundations on
(A) Sandy soils is 80 cm to 100 cm
(B) Clay soils is 90 cm to 160 cm
(C) Rocky soils is 5 cm to 50 cm
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 175

The effect of cohesion on a soil is to
 (A) Reduce both the active earth pressure intensity and passive earth pressure intensity
(B) Increase both the active earth pressure intensity and passive earth pressure intensity
(C) Reduce the active earth pressure intensity but to increase the passive earth pressure
intensity
(D) Increase the active earth pressure intensity but to reduce the passive earth pressure
intensity
Answer: Option C

Question No. 176

If voids ratio is 0.67, water content is 0.188 and specific gravity is 2.68, the degree of saturation of
the soil, is
(A) 25 %
(B) 40 %
(C) 60 %
(D) 75 %
Answer: Option D

Question No. 177

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) The smaller the size of the pores, the higher the water can rise above the water table
(B) Below the water table, the pore water may be static
(C) The hydrostatic pressure depends on the depth below the water level
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 178

A soil mass coated with a thin layer of paraffin weighs 460 g. When immersed, it displaces 299 cc
of water. The weight of paraffin is 10 g. If specific gravity of solids is 2.5 and that of paraffin 0.9,
the void ratio of soil, is
(A) 0.55
(B) 0.60
(C) 0.65
(D) 0.70
Answer: Option B

Question No. 179

Select the incorrect statement.
(A) Bearing capacity of a soil depends upon the amount and direction of load
(B) Bearing capacity of a soil depends on the type of soil
(C) Bearing capacity of a soil depends upon shape and size of footing
(D) Bearing capacity of a soil is independent of rate of loading
Answer: Option A

Question No. 180

The ratio of emax and emin of silty sand, is
 (A) 2.0
(B) 2.5
(C) 3.0
(D) 3.5
Answer: Option C

Question No. 181

Over-consolidation of soils is caused due to
(A) Erosion of over burden
(B) Melting of ice sheets after glaciations
(C) Permanent rise of water table
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 182

The consistency index of a soil is defined as the ratio of
(A) Liquid limit plus the natural water content to the plasticity index of the soil
(B) Liquid limit minus the natural water content to the plasticity index of the soil
(C) Natural water content of a soil minus plastic limit to the plasticity index of the soil
(D) Natural water content of a soil plus its plastic limit to the plasticity index of the soil
Answer: Option B

Question No. 183

Which of the following types of soil is transported by gravitational forces?
(A) Loess
(B) Talus
(C) Drift
(D) Dune sand
Answer: Option B

Question No. 184

Soil classification of composite soils, exclusively based on the particle size distribution, is known
(A) Particle classification
(B) Textural classification
(C) High Way Research Board classification
(D) Unified soil classification
Answer: Option B

Question No. 185

The coefficient ka of the active earth pressure, is given by
(A) ka = (1 - )/(1 + )
(B) ka = (1 + )/(1 - )
(C) ka = (1 + )/(1 - )
(D) ka = (1 - )/(1 + )
Answer: Option D
Question No. 186
When the degree of saturation is zero, the soil mass under consideration represents
(A) One phase system
(B) Two phase system with soil and air
(C) Two phase system with soil and water
(D) Three phase system
Answer: Option B

Question No. 187

The active earth pressure of a soil is proportional to (where is the angle of friction of the soil)
(A) tan (45° - )
(B) tan2 (45° + /2)
(C) tan2 (45° - /2)
(D) tan (45° + )
Answer: Option C

Question No. 188

Pick up the cohesive soil from the following:
(A) Red earth
(B) Clay
(C) Black cotton soil
(D) Compacted ground
Answer: Option C

Question No. 189

For proper field control, which of the following methods is best suited for quick determination of
water content of a soil mass?
(A) Oven drying method
(B) Sand bath method
(C) Alcohol method
(D) Calcium carbide method
Answer: Option D

Question No. 190

The internal molecular attraction of a soil, the cohesion
(A) Decreases as the moisture content increases
(B) Increases as the moisture content decreases
(C) Is more in well compacted clays
(D) Depends upon the external applied load
Answer: Option C

Question No. 191

Which of the following is a measure of particle size range?
(A) Effective size
(B) Uniformity coefficient
 (C) Coefficient of curvature
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 192

If Nf, Nd and H are total number flow channels, total number of potential drops and total hydraulic
head differences respectively, the discharge q through the complete flow is given by (where K is a
constant)
(A) q = (Nf/Nd)
(B) q = KH (Nd/(Nf)
(C) q = KH (Nf/Nd)
(D) q = KH Nf/Nd)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 193

A failure wedge develops if a retaining wall
(A) Moves away from the backfill
(B) Moves towards the backfill
(C) Sinks downwards
(D) Stresses equally by vertical and horizontal forces
Answer: Option A

Question No. 194

The admixture of coarser particles like sand or silt to clay causes
(A) Decrease in liquid limit and increase in plasticity index
(B) Decrease in liquid limit and no change in plasticity index
(C) Decrease in both liquid limit and plasticity index
(D) Increase in both liquid limit and plasticity index
Answer: Option C

Question No. 195

A partially saturated sample of soil has a unit weight of 2.0 g/cm3 and specific gravity of soil
particles is 2.6. If the moisture content in the soil is 20%, the degree of saturation is
(A) 20 %
(B) 77 %
(C) 92 %
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 196

The shearing strength of a cohesion-less soil depends upon
(A) Dry density
(B) Rate of loading
(C) Confining pressure
(D) Nature of loading
 Answer: Option C

Question No. 197

Sand particles are made of
(A) Rock minerals
(B) Kaolinite
(C) Illite
(D) Montmorillonite
Answer: Option A

Question No. 198

The water content of soil is defined as the ratio of
(A) Volume of water to volume of given soil
(B) Volume of water to volume of voids in soil
(C) Weight of water to weight of air in voids
(D) Weight of water to weight of solids of given mass of soil
Answer: Option D

Question No. 199

A critical hydraulic gradient may occur when
(A) Flow is in upward direction
(B) Seepage pressure is in upward direction
(C) Effective pressure is zero
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 200

Which of the following methods is best suited for determination of permeability of coarse-grained
soils?
(A) Constant head method
(B) Falling head method
(C) Both the above
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 201

Back fill with a sloping surface exerts a total active pressure Pa on the wall of height H and acts at
(A) H/4 above the base parallel to base
(B) H/2 above the base parallel to base
(C) H/3 above the base parallel to base
(D) H/5 above the base parallel to base
Answer: Option C

Question No. 202

The slope of isochrone at any point at a given time indicates the rate of change of
 (A) Effective stress with time
(B) Effective stress with depth
(C) Pore water pressure with depth
(D) Pore water pressure with time
Answer: Option C

Question No. 203

The ratio of the volume of water present in a given soil mass to the total volume of its voids, is
known
(A) Porosity
(B) Void ratio
(C) Percentage voids
(D) Degree of saturation
Answer: Option D

Question No. 204

A soil has bulk density 2.30 g/cm3 and water content 15 per cent, the dry density of the sample, is
(A) 1.0 g/cm2
(B) 1.5 g/cm3
(C) 2.0 g/cm3
(D) 2.5 g/cm3
Answer: Option C

Question No. 205

The total active earth pressure due to dry back fill with no surcharge, acts at H/3 above the base of
the wall and is directly proportional to
(A) H
(B) H
(C) H2
(D) H3
Answer: Option C

Question No. 206

Coefficient of consolidation for clays normally
(A) Decreases with increase in liquid limit
(B) Increases with increase in liquid limit
(C) First increases and then decreases with increase in liquid limit
(D) Remains constant at all liquid limits
Answer: Option A

Question No. 207

Geologic cycle for the formation of soil, is
(A)
(B)
(C)
 (D)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 208

The area of cross-section at failure or during any stage of Triaxial Compression Test and its
initial length (L) and volume (V), are related by the equation
(A) A = (V + /(L -
(B) A = (V - /(V +
(C) A = (V - /(L -
(D) A = (V + /(L +
Answer: Option C

Question No. 209

The maximum dry density upto which any soil can be compacted depends upon
(A) Moisture content only
(B) Amount of compaction energy only
(C) Both moisture content and amount of compaction energy
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 210

For determine the specific gravity of soil solids, using a pycnometer of 500 cc., the following data is
available : Weight of dry empty pycnometer = 125 g Weight of dried soil and pycnometer = 500 g
Weight of dried soil and distilled = 850 g water filled in pycnometer up to top The specific gravity
of soil solids, is
(A) 2.0
(B) 2.25
(C) 2.50
(D) 2.75
Answer: Option C

Question No. 211

If there is no impervious boundary at the bottom of a hydraulic structure, stream lines tend to
follow:
(A) A straight line
(B) A parabola
(C) A semi-ellipse
(D) A semi-circle
Answer: Option C

Question No. 212

If a cohesive soil specimen is subjected to a vertical compressive load, the inclination of the cracks
to the horizontal is
(A) 90°
(B) 45°
 (C) 22.5°
(D) 0°
Answer: Option B

Question No. 213

The Westergaard analysis is used for
(A) Sandy soils
(B) Cohesive soils
(C) Stratified soils
(D) Clayey soils
Answer: Option C

Question No. 214

Cohesive soils are generally
(A) Plastic and also compressible
(B) Elastic and also compressible
(C) Plastic but incompressible
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 215

Coefficient of earth pressure at rest is
(A) Less than active earth pressure but greater than passive earth pressure
(B) Greater than active earth pressure but less than passive earth pressure
(C) Greater than both the active earth pressure and passive earth pressure
(D) Less than both the active and passive earth pressures
Answer: Option B

Question No. 216

The ratio of the volume of voids to the total volume of the given soil mass, is known
(A) Porosity
(B) Specific gravity
(C) Void ratio
(D) Water content
Answer: Option A

Question No. 217

The total weight of a pycnometer with water and oven dried soil 20 (g) is 1600 g. The pycnometer
filled with water alone weighs 1500 g. The specific gravity of the soil, is
(A) 1.0
(B) 1.5
(C) 2.0
(D) 2.5
Answer: Option C
Question No. 218
In the plate loading test for determining the bearing capacity of soil, the size of square bearing
plate should be
(A) Less than 300 mm
(B) Between 300 mm and 750 mm
(C) Between 750 mm and 1 m
(D) Greater than 1 m
Answer: Option B

Question No. 219

If the specific gravity of a soil particle of 0.05 cm diameter is 2.67, its terminal velocity while
settling in distilled water of viscosity, 0.01 poise, is
(A) 0.2200 cm/sec
(B) 0.2225 cm/sec
(C) 0.2250 cm/sec
(D) 0.2275 cm/sec
Answer: Option D

Question No. 220

The shear strength in plastic undrained clay, is due to
(A) Inter-granular friction
(B) Internal friction
(C) Cohesion
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 221

A fully saturated soil is said to be
(A) One phase system
(B) Two phase system with soil and air
(C) Two phase system with soil and water
(D) Three phase system
Answer: Option C

Question No. 222

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) Compaction has no effect on the structure of a soil
(B) Permeability decreases with increase in the dry density of a compacted soil
(C) A wet side compacted soil is more compressible than a dry side compacted soil
(D) Dry side compaction soils swell more when given access to moisture
Answer: Option A

Question No. 223

A pycnometer is used to determine
(A) Voids ratio
 (B) Dry density
(C) Water content
(D) Density index
Answer: Option C

Question No. 224

If the volume of voids is equal to the volume of solids in a soil mass, then the values of porosity
and voids ratio respectively are
(A) 1.0 and 0.0
(B) 0.0 and 1.0
(C) 0.5 and 1.0
(D) 1.0 and 0.5
Answer: Option C

Question No. 225

The compressibility of clays is caused due to:
(A) Expulsion of double layer water from in between the grains
(B) Sliping of particles to new positions of greater density
(C) Bending of particles as elastic sheets
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 226

Sedimentation analysis is based on the assumption:
(A) Soil particles are spherical
(B) Particles settle independent of other particles
(C) Walls of the jar do not affect the settlement
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 227

A pycnometer is used to determine
(A) Water content and voids ratio
(B) Specific gravity and dry density
(C) Water content and specific gravity
(D) Voids ratio and dry density
Answer: Option C

Question No. 228

The vane shear test is used for the in-situ determination of the undrained strength of the intact
fully saturated
(A) Sands
(B) Clays
(C) Gravels
(D) Highly organic soils
 Answer: Option B

Question No. 229

The intensity of vertical pressure at a depth directly below the point load on its axis of
loading is:
(A) 0.4775 Q/Z
(B) 0.4775 Q/Z²
(C) 0.4775 Q/Z3
(D) 0.4775 Q Z
Answer: Option B

Question No. 230

When the plastic limit of a soil is greater than the liquid limit, then the plasticity index is reported
as
(A) Negative
(B) Zero
(C) Non-plastic (NP)
(D) 1
Answer: Option B

Question No. 231

Flow net is used for the determination of
(A) Quantity of seepage
(B) Hydrostatic pressure
(C) Seepage pressure
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 232

The inventor of the term soil mechanics, was
(A) Kray
(B) Dr. Karl Terzaghi
(C) Leygue
(D) Fellenius
Answer: Option B

Question No. 233

Highway Research Board (HRB) classification of soils is based on
(A) Particle size composition
(B) Plasticity characteristics
(C) Both particle size composition and plasticity characteristics
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option C
Question No. 234
The fundamental equation of air content (ac), degree of saturation (Sr) and void ratio (e), is
(A) ac = e (1 - Sr)/(1 - e)
(B) ac = e (1 + Sr)/(1 + e)
(C) ac = e (1 - Sr)/(1 + e)
(D) ac = e (1 + Sr)/(1 - e)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 235

Stoke's law does not hold good if the size of particle is smaller than
(A) 0.0002 mm
(B) 0.002 mm
(C) 0.02 mm
(D) 0.2 mm
Answer: Option A

Question No. 236

Quick sand is a
(A) Type of sand
(B) Flow condition occurring in cohesive soils
(C) Flow condition occurring in cohesion-less soils
(D) Flow condition occurring in both cohesive and cohesion-less soils
Answer: Option A

Question No. 237

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) O.M.C. refers to the moisture corresponding to the maximum point on the moisture content
dry density curve
(B) The line which shows moisture content dry density relation for soil containing a constant
percentage of air voids, is known as air void line
(C) The free fall of hammer for compaction is 30.5 cm
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 238

A saturated soil sample has water content of 40% and specific gravity of soil particles 2.7. The void
ratio of the soil, is
(A) 0.4
(B) 0.52
(C) 1.08
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 239

The total discharge from two wells situated near to each other is
 (A) Sum of the discharges from individual wells
(B) Less than the sum of the discharges from individual wells
(C) Greater than the sum of the discharges from individual wells
(D) Equal to larger of the two discharges from individual wells
Answer: Option B

Question No. 240

A sample of saturated soil has 30% water content and the specific gravity of soil grains is 2.6. The
dry density of the soil mass in g/cm3, is
(A) 1.47
(B) 1.82
(C) 1.91
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 241

Compressibility of sandy soils is
(A) Almost equal to that of clayey soils
(B) Much greater than that of clayey soils
(C) Much less than that of clayey soils
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 242

Depending upon the properties of a material, the failure envelope may
(A) Be either straight or curved
(B) Pass through the origin of stress
(C) Intersect the shear stress axis
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 243

The maximum pressure which a soil can carry without shear failure, is called
(A) Safe bearing capacity
(B) Net safe bearing capacity
(C) Net ultimate bearing capacity
(D) Ultimate bearing capacity
Answer: Option A

Question No. 244

In a deposit of normally consolidated clay
(A) Effective stress increases with depth but water content of soil and undrained strength
decrease with depth
(B) Effective stress and water content increase with depth but undrained strength decreases
with depth
 (C) Effective stress and undrained strength increase with depth but water content decreases
with depth
(D) Effective stress, water content and undrained strength decrease with depth
Answer: Option C

Question No. 245

A moist soil sample weighing 108 g has a volume of 60 cc. If water content is 25% and value of G =
2.52, the void ratio is
(A) 0.55
(B) 0.65
(C) 0.75
(D) 0.80
Answer: Option C

Question No. 246

For slopes of limited extent the surface of slippage, is usually along
(A) A parabolic arc
(B) An elliptical arc
(C) A straight line
(D) A circular arc
Answer: Option D

Question No. 247

A retaining wall 6m high supports a backfill with a surcharge angle of 10°. The back of the wall is
inclined to the vertical at a positive batter angle of 5°. If the angle of wall friction is 7°, then the
resultant active earth pressure will act at a distance of 2 m above the base and inclined to the
horizontal at an angle of
(A) 7°
(B) 10°
(C) 12°
(D) 17°
Answer: Option C

Question No. 248

The minimum water content at which the soil just begins to crumble when rolled into threads 3
mm in diameter, is known
(A) Liquid limit
(B) Plastic limit
(C) Shrinkage limit
(D) Permeability limit
Answer: Option B

Question No. 249

Valid range for S, the degree of saturation of soil in percentage is
(A) S > 0
 (B) S < 0
(C) 0 < S < 100
(D) 0 < S < 100
Answer: Option D

Question No. 250

The minimum water content at which the soil retains its liquid state and also possesses a small
shearing strength against flowing, is known
(A) Liquid limit
(B) Plastic limit
(C) Shrinkage limit
(D) Permeability limit
Answer: Option A

Question No. 251

'Drift' is the material picked up, mixed, disintegrated, transported and redeposited by
(A) Wind
(B) Gravitational force
(C) Glaciated water
(D) All the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 252

The ratio of volume of voids to the total volume of soil mass is called
(A) Air content
(B) Porosity
(C) Percentage air voids
(D) Voids ratio
Answer: Option B

Question No. 253

The ratio of the volume of voids to the volume of soil solids in a given soil mass, is known
(A) Porosity
(B) Specific gravity
(C) Void ratio
(D) Water content
Answer: Option C

Question No. 254

The specific yield of soil depends upon
(A) Compaction of stratum
(B) Distribution of pores
(C) Shape and size of particles
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 255
The hydrometer method of sedimentation analysis differs from the pipette analysis mainly in
(A) The principle of test
(B) The method of taking observations
(C) The method of preparation of soil suspension
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 256

Degree of saturation of a natural soil deposit having water content 15%, specific gravity 2.50 and
void ratio 0.5, is
(A) 50 %
(B) 60 %
(C) 75 %
(D) 80 %
Answer: Option C

Question No. 257

Cohesionless soil is
(A) Sand
(B) Silt
(C) Clay
(D) Clay and silt
Answer: Option A

Question No. 258

At liquid limit, all soils possess
(A) Same shear strength of small magnitude
(B) Same shear strength of large magnitude
(C) Different shear strengths of small magnitude
(D) Different shear strengths of large magnitude
Answer: Option A

Question No. 259

The ratio of the weight of given volume of soil solids to the weight of an equal volume of distilled
water at the given temperature, is known
(A) Porosity
(B) Specific gravity
(C) Void ratio
(D) Water content
Answer: Option B

Question No. 260

For a base failure of a slope, depth factor
(A) Df = 1
 (B) Df < 1
(C) Df > 1
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 261

If the water table rises upto ground surface, then the
(A) Effective stress is reduced due to decrease in total stress only but pore water pressure does
not change
(B) Effective stress is reduced due to increase in pore water pressure only but total stress does
not change
(C) Total stress is reduced due to increase in pore water pressure only but effective stress does
not change
(D) Total stress is increased due to decrease in pore water pressure but effective stress does not
change
Answer: Option B

Question No. 262

A coarse-grained soil has a voids ratio 0.75, and specific gravity as 2.75. The critical gradient at
which quick sand condition occurs, is
(A) 0.25
(B) 0.50
(C) 0.75
(D) 1.00
Answer: Option D

Question No. 263

The shear strength of a soil
(A) Increases with an increase in the normal stress
(B) Is proportional to the cohesion of the soil
(C) Is generally known as the strength of the soil
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 264

Total number of stress components at a point within a soil mass loaded at its boundary is
(A) 3
(B) 6
(C) 9
(D) 16
Answer: Option C

Question No. 265

A partially saturated soil is classified as
(A) One phase soil
 (B) Two phase soil
(C) Three phase soil
(D) Four phase soil
Answer: Option C

Question No. 266

The ratio of the undrained strength in the undrained state to the undrained strength, at the same
water content, in the remoulded state, is called the sensivity of the clay. Its value for quick clays is
(A) 4
(B) 8
(C) 12
(D) 20
Answer: Option D

Question No. 267

The ultimate consolidation settlement of a soil is
(A) Directly proportional to the voids ratio
(B) Directly proportional to the compression index
(C) Inversely proportional to the compression index
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 268

The ratio of settlement at any time 't' to the final settlement, is known as
(A) Co-efficient of consolidation
(B) Degree of consolidation
(C) Consolidation index
(D) Consolidation of undisturbed soil
Answer: Option B

Question No. 269

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) In hydrometer method, weight Wd per ml of suspension is found directly
(B) In pipette analysis, weight Wd per ml of suspension is found indirectly
(C) In pipette analysis, weight Wd per ml of suspension is found directly
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 270

Unconfmed compressive strength test is
(A) Undrained test
(B) Drained test
(C) Consolidated undrained test
(D) Consolidated drained test
Answer: Option A
Question No. 271
For shear strength, triaxial shear test is suitable because
(A) It can be performed under all three drainage conditions
(B) Precise measurement of the pore pressure and volume change during the test is possible
(C) Stress distribution on the failure plane, is uniform
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 272

The zero atmospheric pressure is at
(A) Sea level
(B) Water table
(C) Phreatic surface
(D) Both (B) and (C) of the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 273

Terzaghi's bearing capacity factors Nc, Nq and Nr are functions of
(A) Cohesion only
(B) Angle of internal friction only
(C) Both cohesion and angle of internal friction
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 274

The general relationship between specific gravity (G), weight of water ( ), degree of saturation
(Sr), void ratio (e) and bulk density ( ), is
(A) = (S - eSr) /(1 + e)
(B) = (G + eSr) /(1 + e)
(C) = (1 + e) /(G + Sr)
(D) = (1 - Sr) e/(G + Sr)
Answer: Option B

Question No. 275

'Loess' is silty clay formed by the action of
(A) Water
(B) Glacier
(C) Wind
(D) Gravitational force
Answer: Option C

Question No. 276

Rise of water table in cohesion-less soils upto ground surface reduces the net ultimate bearing
capacity approximately by
(A) 25 %
 (B) 50 %
(C) 75 %
(D) 90 %
Answer: Option B

Question No. 277

A decrease in water content results in a reduction of the volume of a soil in
(A) Liquid state
(B) Plastic state
(C) Semi solid state
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 278

In non-cohesive soil in passive state of plastic equilibrium
(A) Major principal stress is horizontal
(B) Minor principal stress is vertical
(C) Major principal stress is vertical
(D) Minor and major principal stresses are equally inclined to the horizontal
Answer: Option B

Question No. 279

A soil has a bulk density of 22 kN/m3 and water content 10 %. The dry density of soil is
(A) 18.6 kN/m3
(B) 20.0 kN/m3
(C) 22.0 kN/m3
(D) 23.2 kN/m3
Answer: Option B

Question No. 280

Through a point in a loaded soil, the principal stress is maximum on
(A) Minor principal plane
(B) Intermediate principal plane
(C) Major principal plane
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 281

The expression [Gs/(1 + Gs)] is used for
(A) Dry density
(B) Bulk density
(C) Degree of saturation
(D) Optimum water content
Answer: Option A
Question No. 282
If the sand in-situ is in its densest state, then the relative density of sand is
(A) Zero
(B) 1
(C) Between 0 and 1
(D) Greater than 1
Answer: Option B

Question No. 283

If dry density, water density and specific gravity of solids of a given soil sample are 1.6 g/cc, 1.84
g/cc and 2.56 respectively, the porosity of the soil sample, is
(A) 0.375
(B) 0.370
(C) 0.380
(D) 0.390
Answer: Option A

Question No. 284

The property of a soil which permits water to percolate through it, is called
(A) Moisture content
(B) Permeability
(C) Capillarity
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 285

Toughness index is defined as the ratio of
(A) Plasticity index to consistency index
(B) Plasticity index to flow index
(C) Liquidity index to flow index
(D) Consistency index to liquidity index
Answer: Option B

Question No. 286

A moist soil sample of volume 60 cc. weighs 108 g and its dried weight is 86.4 g. If its absolute
density is 2.52, the degree of saturation is
(A) 54 %
(B) 64 %
(C) 74 %
(D) 84 %
Answer: Option D

Question No. 287

The hydraulic head that would produce a quick condition in a sand stratum of thickness 1.5 m,
specific gravity 2.67 and voids ratio 0.67 is equal to
 (A) 1.0 m
(B) 1.5 m
(C) 2.0 m
(D) 3 m
Answer: Option B

Question No. 288

The maximum water content at which a reduction in water content does not cause a decrease in
volume of a soil mass, is known
(A) Liquid limit
(B) Plastic limit
(C) Shrinkage limit
(D) Permeability limit
Answer: Option C

Question No. 289

A inage and coefficient of consolidation Cv takes 6 months to achieve
B
and coefficient of consolidation Cv/2 to achieve the same degree of consolidation is
(A) 3 months
(B) 6 months
(C) 12 months
(D) 24 months
Answer: Option A

Question No. 290

The factor which affects the compaction, is
(A) Moisture content
(B) Compacting content
(C) Method of compaction
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 291

In a consolidated drained test on a normally consolidated clay, the volume of the soil sample
during shear
(A) Decreases
(B) Increases
(C) Remains unchanged
(D) First increases and then decreases
Answer: Option A

Question No. 292

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The rise of the ground surface due to frost action is called frost heave
 (B) The freezing of water is accompanied by a volume increase of 9%
(C) Below freezing point, higher soil suction develops
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 293

During the first stage of triaxial test when the cell pressure is increased from 0.10 N/mm² to 0.26
N/mm², the pore water pressure increases from 0.07 N/mm² to 0.15 N/mm². Skempton's pore
B
(A) 0.5
(B) -0.5
(C) 2.0
(D) -2.0
Answer: Option A

Question No. 294

The maximum value of effective stress in the past divided by the present value is defined as over
consolidation ratio (OCR). The O.C.R. of an over consolidated clay is
(A) Less than 1
(B) 1
(C) More than 1
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 295

A 300 mm square bearing plate settles by 15 mm in a plate load test on a cohesive soil when the
intensity of loading is 0.2 N/mm². The settlement of a prototype shallow footing 1 m square under
the same intensity of loading is
(A) 15 mm
(B) 30 mm
(C) 50 mm
(D) 167 mm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 296

The effective size of particles of soil is denoted by
(A) D10
(B) D20
(C) D30
(D) D60
Answer: Option A

Question No. 297

Valid range for n, the percentage voids, is
(A) 0 < n < 100
 (B) 0 < n < 100
(C) n > 0
(D) n < 0
Answer: Option A

Question No. 298

If S, L and R are the arc length, long chord and radius of the sliding circle then the perpendicular
distance of the line of the resultant cohesive force, is given by
(A) a = S.R/L
(B) a = L.S/R
(C) a = L.R/S
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 299

Uniformity coefficient of a soil is
(A) Always less than 1
(B) Always equal to 1
(C) Equal to or less than 1
(D) Equal to or greater than 1
Answer: Option D

Question No. 300

The fluid generally used for grouting is
(A) Cement and water mix
(B) Clay suspension
(C) Sodium silicate
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 301

The total and effective stresses at a depth of 5 m below the top level of water in a swimming pool
are respectively
(A) Zero and zero
(B) 0.5 kg/cm² and zero
(C) 0.5 kg/cm² and 0.5 kg/cm²
(D) 1.0 kg/cm² and 0.5 kg/cm²
Answer: Option B

Question No. 302

Pick up the in-correct statement from the following: The soils which contain montmorillonite
minerals
(A) Swell more when wet
(B) Shrink more when dry
(C) Possess high plasticity
 (D) Possess high coefficient of internal coefficient
Answer: Option D

Question No. 303

Time factor for a clay layer is
(A) A dimensional parameter
(B) Directly proportional to permeability of soil
(C) Inversely proportional to drainage path
(D) Independent of thickness of clay layer
Answer: Option B

Question No. 304

The critical exist gradient of seepage water in soils, is
(A) Directly proportional to the voids ratio
(B) Inversely proportional to the specific gravity
(C) Directly proportional to the specific gravity
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 305

In the triaxial compression test, the application of additional axial stress (i.e. deviator stress) on
the soil specimen produces shear stress on
(A) Horizontal plane only
(B) Vertical plane only
(C) Both horizontal and vertical planes
(D) All planes except horizontal and vertical planes
Answer: Option D

Question No. 306

For a clay slope of height of 10 m, the stability number is 0.05, = 2.0 t/m3, C = 2.5 t/m2, the
critical height of the slope of the soil, is
(A) 4.0 m
(B) 12.5 m
(C) 25.0 m
(D) 15.0 m
Answer: Option C

Question No. 307

Allowable bearing pressure for a foundation depends upon
(A) Allowable settlement only
(B) Ultimate bearing capacity of soil only
(C) Both allowable settlement and ultimate bearing capacity
(D) None of above
Answer: Option C
Question No. 308
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The property of a soil that enables it to become stiff in a relatively short time on standing is
called thixotropy
(B) The ratio of shear strength in natural state to the remoulded shear strength under
undrained conditions is called degree of sensitivity
(C) The difference between the undisturbed shear strength and remoulded shear strength is
known remoulding loss
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 309

Voids ratio of a soil mass can
(A) Never be greater than unity
(B) Be zero
(C) Take any value greater than zero
(D) Take values between 0 and 1 only
Answer: Option C

Question No. 310

If the cohesive force (c), is 1.5 t/m2, the density ) of the soil is 2.0 t/m3, factor of safety (F) is 1.5
and stability factor (Sn) is 0.05, the safe height of a slope, is
(A) 5 metres
(B) 8 metres
(C) 10 metres
(D) 12 metres
Answer: Option C

Question No. 311

If the plasticity index of a soil mass is zero, the soil is
(A) Sand
(B) Silt
(C) Clay
(D) Clayey silt
Answer: Option A

Question No. 312

Coulomb's wedge theory assumes that
(A) Back fill is dry, cohesionless, homogeneous and isotropic
(B) Slip surface is the plane which passes through the heel of the wall
(C) Position and direction of the resultant earth pressure are known
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 313
Due to a rise in temperature, the viscosity and the unit weight of the percolating fluid are reduced
to 60% and 90% respectively. If other things remain constant, the coefficient of permeability
(A) Increases by 25 %
(B) Increases by 50 %
(C) Increases by 33.3 %
(D) Decreases by 33.3 %
Answer: Option B

Question No. 314

Transporting and re-depositing soils, is done by
(A) Water
(B) Glacier
(C) Gravity
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 315

For a loose sand sample and a dense sand sample consolidated to the same effective stress
(A) Ultimate strength is same and also peak strength is same
(B) Ultimate strength is different but peak strength is same
(C) Ultimate strength is same but peak strength of dense sand is greater than that of loose sand
(D) Ultimate strength is same but peak
Answer: Option C

Question No. 316

The void ratio of a soil sample decreases from 1.50 to 1.25 when the pressure is increased from 25
tonnes/m2 to 50 tonnes/m2, the coefficient of compressibility is
(A) 0.01
(B) 0.02
(C) 0.05
(D) 0.001
Answer: Option A

Question No. 317

The coefficient of active earth pressure for a loose sand having an angle of internal friction of 30°
is
(A) 1/3
(B) 3
(C) 1
(D) 1/2
Answer: Option A

Question No. 318

The maximum net pressure intensity causing shear failure of soil, is known
 (A) Safe bearing capacity
(B) Net safe bearing capacity
(C) Net ultimate bearing capacity
(D) Ultimate bearing capacity
Answer: Option C

Question No. 319

If the degree of saturation of a partially saturated soil is 60%, then air content of the soil is
(A) 40 %
(B) 60 %
(C) 80 %
(D) 100 %
Answer: Option A

Question No. 320

Which one of the following statements is true?
(A) Clays are more porous than sands
(B) Pressure of organic matter in a soil decreases the bearing capacity of the soil
(C) Aluminous cement is used for foundations in soils with chemical deposits
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 321

According to IS classification, the range of silt size particles is
(A) 4.75 mm to 2.00 mm
(B) 2.00 mm to 0.425 mm
(C) 0.425 mm to 0.075 mm
(D) 0.075 mm to 0.002 mm
Answer: Option D

Question No. 322

Pick up the clay soil group which does not swell when wet from the following:
(A) Kaolinite group
(B) Mite group
(C) Vermiculite group
(D) Montrorillonite group
Answer: Option B

Question No. 323

Coefficient of consolidation of a soil is affected by
(A) Compressibility
(B) Permeability
(C) Both compressibility and permeability
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option C
Question No. 324
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) When water table is above the base of a footing, the dry weight m should be used for soil
below water table
(B) When water table is located somewhat below the base of a footing, the elastic wedge is
partly of moist soil and partly of submerged soil, and a suitable reduction factor is used
(C) When water table is just at the base of the footing, no reduction factor is used
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 325

Select the incorrect statement.
Effective angle of shearing resistance
(A) Increases as the size of particles increases
(B) Increases as the soil gradation improves
(C) Is limited to a maximum value of 45°
(D) Is rarely more than 30° for fine grained soil
Answer: Option C

Question No. 326

The relationship between void ratio (e) and porosity ratio (n) is:
(A) n = (1 + e )/(1 - e)
(B) e = (1 + n)/(1 - e)
(C) n = e/(1 - e)
(D) e = n/(1 - n)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 327

Relative density of a compacted dense sand is approximately equal to
(A) 0.4
(B) 0.6
(C) 0.95
(D) 1.20
Answer: Option C

Question No. 328

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) To an agriculturist, soil is the substance existing on the earth's surface, which grows and
develops plants
(B) To a geologist, soil is the material in a relatively thin surface zone within which roots occur,
and rest of the crust is termed as rock irrespective of hardness
(C) To an engineer, soil is the unaggregated and uncemented deposits of minerals and organic
particles covering the earth's crust
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 329
Inorganic soils with low compressibility are represented by
(A) MH
(B) SL
(C) ML
(D) CH
Answer: Option C

Question No. 330

W is the weight of soil having a moisture content w. If V is the volume of proctor's mould, the dry
density of the soil is
(A) WV/(1 + w)
(B) V/w (1 + w)
(C) W/V(1 + w)
(D) V (1 + w)/W
Answer: Option C

Question No. 331

If is cohesion, is factor of safety, is the maximum height of
embankment, the stability number, is
(A) F/
(B) C/
(C) H/
(D) /CFH
Answer: Option B

Question No. 332

In a triaxial compression test when drainage is allowed during the first stage (i. e. application of
cell pressure) only and not during the second stage (i.e. application of deviator stress at constant
cell pressure), the test is known as
(A) Consolidated drained test
(B) Consolidated undrained test
(C) Unconsolidated drained test
(D) Unconsolidated undrained test
Answer: Option B

Question No. 333

The specific gravity of quartz, is
(A) 2.65
(B) 2.72
(C) 2.85
(D) 2.90
Answer: Option A
Question No. 334
In hydrometer analysis for a soil mass
(A) Both meniscus correction and dispersing agent correction are additive
(B) Both meniscus correction and dispersing agent correction are subtractive
(C) Meniscus correction is additive and dispersing agent correction is subtractive
(D) Meniscus correction is subtractive and dispersing agent correction is additive
Answer: Option C

Question No. 335

The capillary rise of water
(A) Depends upon the force responsible
(B) Increases as the size of the soil particles increases
(C) Decreases as the size of the soil particles decreases
(D) Is less in wet soil than in dry soil
Answer: Option A

Question No. 336

The value of compression index for a remoulded sample whose liquid limit is 50% is
(A) 0.028
(B) 0.28
(C) 036
(D) 0.036
Answer: Option B

Question No. 337

Fine sand possesses
(A) Good plasticity
(B) Limited plasticity
(C) Reasonable plasticity
(D) Clay
Answer: Option D

Question No. 338

Coarse grained soils are best compacted by a
(A) Drum roller
(B) Rubber tyred roller
(C) Sheep's foot roller
(D) Vibratory roller
Answer: Option D

Question No. 339

Darcy's law is applicable to seepage if a soil is
(A) Homogeneous
(B) Isotropic
(C) Incompressible
 (D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 340

According to Atterberg, the soil is said to be of medium plasticity if the plasticity index PI is
(A) 0 < PI < 7
(B) 7< PI < 17
(C) 17 < PI <27
(D) PI > 27
Answer: Option B

Question No. 341

The coefficient of curvature for a well graded soil, must be between
(A) 0.5 to 1.0
(B) 1.0 to 3.0
(C) 3.0 to 4.0
(D) 4.0 to 5.0
Answer: Option B

Question No. 342

A normally consolidated clay settled 10 mm when effective stress was increased from 100 kN/m²
to 200 kN/m². If the effective stress is further increased from 200 kN/m² to 400 kN/m², then the
settlement of the same clay is
(A) 10 mm
(B) 20 mm
(C) 40 mm
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 343

The lateral earth pressure on a retaining wall
(A) Is equal to mass of the soil retained
(B) Proportional to the depth of the soil
(C) Proportional to the square of the depth of the soil
(D) Proportional to the internal friction of the soil
Answer: Option D

Question No. 344

If the permeability of a soil is 0.8 mm/sec, the type of soil is
(A) Gravel
(B) Sand
(C) Silt
(D) Clay
Answer: Option B
Question No. 345
A compacted soil sample using 10% moisture content has a weight of 200 g and mass unit weight
of 2.0 g/cm3. If the specific gravity of soil particles and water are 2.7 and 1.0, the degree of
saturation of the soil is
(A) 11.1 %
(B) 55.6 %
(C) 69.6 %
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 346

Which of the following soils has more plasticity index?
(A) Sand
(B) Silt
(C) Clay
(D) Gravel
Answer: Option C

Question No. 347

The liquid limit and plastic limit exist in
(A) Sandy soils
(B) Silty soils
(C) Gravel soils
(D) Clay soils
Answer: Option D

Question No. 348

For determining the moisture content of a soil sample, the following data is available Weight of
container = 260 g, Weight of soil sample and = 320 g container, Weight of soil sample (dried) and =
310 g container. The moisture content of the soil sample, is
(A) 15 %
(B) 18 %
(C) 20 %
(D) 25 %
Answer: Option C

Question No. 349

For a homogeneous earth dam 50 m high having 2 m free broad, a flow net was constructed and
the results were : Number of potential drops = 2.4 Number of flow channels = 0.4. If co-efficiency
of permeability of the dam material is 3 × 10-3 cm3/sec, the discharge per metre length of dam, is
(A) 12 × 10-5 m3/sec
(B) 24 × 10-3 m3/sec
(C) 6 × 10-5 m3/sec
(D) 24 × 10-5 m3/sec
Answer: Option D
Question No. 350
The soil which contains finest grain particles, is
(A) Coarse sand
(B) Fine sand
(C) Silt
(D) Clay
Answer: Option D

Question No. 351

Si particles
(A) Show dilatancy
(B) Swell when moist
(C) Possess high strength when dry
(D) Disintegrate easily
Answer: Option A

Question No. 352

The fundamental equation of specific gravity (G), dry density ( d), unit weight of water ) and
void ratio (e), is
(A) e = G /(1 + )
(B) G = /(1 + e)
(C) = G. /(1 + e)
(D) = G. /(1 + e)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 353

The minimum centre to centre distance of friction piles of 1 m diameter, is
(A) 2 m
(B) 2 m to 3 m
(C) 3 m to 4 m
(D) 5 m
Answer: Option C

Question No. 354

When drainage is permitted under initially applied normal stress only and full primarily
consolidation is allowed to take place, the test is known as
(A) Quick test
(B) Drained test
(C) Consolidated undrained test
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 355

If the failure of a finite slope occurs through the toe, it is known as
(A) Slope failure
 (B) Face failure
(C) Base failure
(D) Toe failure
Answer: Option D

Question No. 356

The liquidity index is defined as a ratio expressed as percentage of
(A) Plastic limit minus the natural water content, to its plasticity index
(B) Natural water content minus its plastic limit to its plasticity index
(C) Natural water content plus its plastic limit to its plasticity index
(D) Liquid limit minus the natural water content to the plasticity index
Answer: Option B

Question No. 357

Number of piles required to support a column, is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Answer: Option C

Question No. 358

According to the Indian Standards the specific gravity is the ratio of the unit weight of soil solids to
that of water at a temperature of
(A) 17°C
(B) 23°C
(C) 27°C
(D) 30°C
Answer: Option C

Question No. 359

Maximum size of clay particles is:
(A) 0.002 mm
(B) 0.04 mm
(C) 0.06 mm
(D) 0.08 mm
Answer: Option A

Question No. 360

The passive earth pressure of a soil is proportional to (where is the angle of internal friction of
the soil.)
(A) tan (45° - )
(B) tan (45° + )
(C) tan2 (45° - )
(D) tan2 (45° + )
 Answer: Option D

Question No. 361

The compression resulting from a long term static load and consequent escape of pore water, is
known as
(A) Compaction
(B) Consolidation
(C) Swelling
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 362

Minimum size of the particles of silt soil, is
(A) 0.002 mm
(B) 0.04 mm
(C) 0.06 mm
(D) 0.08 mm
Answer: Option A

Question No. 363

The ultimate Settlement of a soil is directly proportional to:
(A) Depth of the compressible soil strata
(B) Compressive index
(C) Both (a) and (b)
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 364

A pile is being driven with a drop hammer weighing 1800 kg and having a free fall of 1.00 m. If the
penetration with last blow is 5 mm, the load carrying capacity of the pile, -according to the
Engineering News formula, is
(A) 100 tonnes
(B) 50 tonnes
(C) 20 tonnes
(D) 10 tonnes
Answer: Option D

Question No. 365

0 e0 and e void ratios corresponding to initial
and increased pressure ; and C0 the compression index (dimensionless), then, the virgin

(A) e = e0 + Cc log10 / 0'

(B) e = e0 - Cc log10 / 0'
(C) e0 = e - Cc log10 / 0'
(D) e0 = e + Cc log10 / 0'
 Answer: Option B

Question No. 366

Water formed transported soil is
(A) Alluvial
(B) Marine
(C) Lacustrine
(D) Loess
Answer: Option D

Question No. 367

If the unit weight of sand particles is 2.696 g/cc. and porosity in loose state is 44%, the critical
hydraulic gradient for quick sand condition, is
(A) 0.91
(B) 0.92
(C) 0.93
(D) 0.95
Answer: Option D

Question No. 368

An infinite slope is inclined at angle i , the stability
number Sa
(A) cos² i/(tan i - tan
(B) sin² i/(tan i - tan
(C) (tan i - 2
i
(D) (tan i - 2
i
Answer: Option C

Question No. 369

Under-reamed piles are generally
(A) Driven piles
(B) Bored piles
(C) Precast piles
(D) All the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 370

The weight of a pycnometer containing 400 g sand and water full to the top is 2150 g. The weight
of pycnometer full of clean water is 1950 g. If specific gravity of the soil is 2.5, the water content is
(A) 5 %
(B) 10 %
(C) 15 %
(D) 20 %
Answer: Option D
Question No. 371
A phreatic line is defined as the line within a dam section below which there are
(A) Positive equipotential lines
(B) Positive hydrostatic pressure
(C) Negative hydrostatic pressure
(D) Negative equipotential lines
Answer: Option B

Question No. 372

The coefficient of curvature is defined
(A) D60/D10
(B) D10/D60
(C) D30²/D60 D10
(D) D10²/ D30 D60
Answer: Option C

Question No. 373

Accurate determination of water content, is made by
(A) Calcium carbide method
(B) Sand bath method
(C) Alcohol method
(D) Oven-drying method
Answer: Option D

Question No. 374

The clay soil mainly consists of
(A) Kaolinite
(B) Montmorillonite
(C) Vermiculite
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 375

The maximum shear stress occurs on the filament which makes an angle with the horizontal plane
equal to
(A) 30°
(B) 45°
(C) 60°
(D) 90°
Answer: Option B

Question No. 376

A fundamental equation of void ratio (e), specific gravity (G), water content and degree of
saturation (Sr) is
(A) e = /Sr
 (B) = eG/Sr
(C) G = /S
(D) Sr = /G
Answer: Option A

Question No. 377

Water content of a soil sample is the difference of the weight of the given sample at the given
temperature and the weight determined after drying it for 24 hours at temperature ranging from
(A) 80° to 90°C
(B) 90° to 95°C
(C) 103° to 105°C
(D) 105° to 110°C
Answer: Option D

Question No. 378

The equation = C + is given by
(A) Rankine
(B) Coulomb
(C) Coleman
(D) Mohr
Answer: Option B

Question No. 379

Determination of water content of a soil sample suspected to contain gypsum is made by drying
the sample for longer period at a temperature not more than
(A) 60°C
(B) 80°C
(C) 100°C
(D) 110°C
Answer: Option B

Question No. 380

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The phenomenon of quicksand generally occurs in the cohesionless soil
(B) At critical hydraulic gradient, the saturated sand becomes quick
(C) The critical gradient depends on the void ratio and the specific gravity
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 381

A soil sample has passing 0.075 mm sieve = 60% liquid limit = 65% and plastic limit = 40%. The
group index of the soil, is
(A) 5
(B) 20
(C) 40
 (D) None of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 382

The plasticity index is the numerical difference between
(A) Liquid limit and plastic limit
(B) Plastic limit and shrinkage limit
(C) Liquid limit and shrinkage limit
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 383

The specific gravity of sands, is approximately
(A) 1.6
(B) 2.0
(C) 2.2
(D) 2.6
Answer: Option D
 Strength of Materials

Question No. 01
According to Lami's theorem
(A) Three forces acting at a point will be in equilibrium
(B) Three forces acting at a point can be represented by a triangle, each side being proportional
to force
(C) If three forces acting upon a particle are represented in magnitude and direction by the
sides of a triangle, taken in order, they will be in equilibrium
(D) If three forces acting at a point are in equilibrium, each force is proportional to the sine of
the angle between the other two
Answer: Option D

Question No. 02
A number of forces acting at a point will be in equilibrium if
(A) Their total sum is zero
(B) Two resolved parts in two directions at right angles are equal
(C) Sum of resolved parts in any two perpendicular directions are both zero
(D) All of them are inclined equally
Answer: Option C

Question No. 03
The center of gravity of a triangle lies at the point of
(A) Concurrence of the medians
(B) Intersection of its altitudes
(C) Intersection of bisector of angles
(D) Intersection of diagonals
Answer: Option A

Question No. 04
Angle of friction is the
(A) Angle between normal reaction and the resultant of normal reaction and the limiting friction
(B) Ratio of limiting friction and normal reaction
(C) The ratio of minimum friction force to the friction force acting when the body is just about
to move
(D) The ratio of minimum friction force to friction force acting when the body is in motion
Answer: Option A

Question No. 05
Limiting force of friction is the
(A) Tangent of angle between normal reaction and the resultant of normal reaction and limiting
friction
(B) Ratio of limiting friction and normal reaction
 (C) The friction force acting when the body is just about to move
(D) The friction force acting when the body is in motion
Answer: Option C

Question No. 06
The necessary condition for forces to be in equilibrium is that these should be
(A) Coplanar
(B) Meet at one point
(C) Both (A) and (B) above
(D) All be equal
Answer: Option C

Question No. 07
Which of the following is the example of lever of first order?
(A) Arm of man
(B) Pair of scissors
(C) Pair of clinical tongs
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 08
A cable with a uniformly distributed load per horizontal metre run will take the following shape
(A) Straight line
(B) Parabola
(C) Hyperbola
(D) Elliptical
Answer: Option B

Question No. 09
In determining stresses in frames by methods of sections, the frame is divided into two parts by an
imaginary section drawn in such a way as not to cut more than
(A) Two members with unknown forces of the frame
(B) Three members with unknown forces of the frame
(C) Four members with unknown forces of the frame
(D) Three members with known forces of the frame
Answer: Option B

Question No. 10
According to principle of transmissibility of forces, the effect of a force upon a body is
(A) Maximum when it acts at the center of gravity of a body
(B) Different at different points in its line of action
(C) The same at every point in its line of action
(D) Minimum when it acts at the C.G. of the body
Answer: Option C
Question No. 11
Which of the following do not have identical dimensions?
(A) Momentum and impulse
(B) Torque and energy
(C) Torque and work
(D) Moment of a force and angular momentum
Answer: Option D

Question No. 12
If a number of forces act simultaneously on a particle, it is possible
(A) Not a replace them by a single force
(B) To replace them by a single force
(C) To replace them by a single force through C.G.
(D) To replace them by a couple
Answer: Option B

Question No. 13
Two coplanar couples having equal and opposite moments
(A) Balance each other
(B) Produce a couple and an unbalanced force
(C) Are equivalent
(D) Produce a moment of couple
Answer: Option D

Question No. 14
If a suspended body is struck at the centre of percussion, then the pressure on die axis passing
through the point of suspension will be
(A) Maximum
(B) Minimum
(C) Zero
(D) Infinity
Answer: Option C

Question No. 15
Kinetic friction is the
(A) Tangent of angle between normal reaction and the resultant of normal reaction and the
limiting friction
(B) Ratio of limiting friction and normal reaction
(C) The friction force acting when the body is just about to move
(D) The friction force acting when the body is in motion
Answer: Option D

Question No. 16
The center of gravity of a uniform lamina lies at
(A) The center of heavy portion
 (B) The bottom surface
(C) The midpoint of its axis
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 17
The bending moment at E for the structure shown in below figure, is

(A) Zero
(B) 10 Tm
(C) 20 Tm
(D) 40 Tm
Answer: Option A

Question No. 18
The maximum twisting moment a shaft can resist, is the product of the permissible shear stress
and
(A) Moment of inertia
(B) Polar moment of inertia
(C) Polar modulus
(D) Modulus of rigidly
Answer: Option C

Question No. 19
The deflection of any rectangular beam simply supported, is
(A) Directly proportional to its weight
(B) Inversely proportional to its width
(C) Inversely proportional to the cube of its depth
(D) Directly proportional to the cube of its length
Answer: Option C

Question No. 20
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The point through which the resultant of the shear stresses passes is known as shear centre
 (B) In the standard rolled channels, the shear centre is on the horizontal line passing through
and away from the C.G. beyond web
(C) In equal angles, the shear centre is on the horizontal plane and away from the C.G., outside
of the leg projection
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 21
A heavy string attached at two ends at same horizontal level and when central dip is very small
approaches the following curve
(A) Catenary
(B) Parabola
(C) Hyperbola
(D) Elliptical
Answer: Option B

Question No. 22
A beam is said to be of uniform strength, if
(A) B.M. is same throughout the beam
(B) Deflection is same throughout the beam
(C) Bending stress is same throughout the beam
(D) Shear stress is same throughout the beam
Answer: Option C

Question No. 23
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The distance of the eccentric axial load from the C.G. beyond which tension develops, is
known as kern distance
(B) In visco-elastic material, stress-strain relation is dependent on time
(C) An orthotropic material has different properties in three mutually perpendicular directions
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 24
The ratio of limiting friction and normal reaction is known as
(A) Coefficient of friction
(B) Angle of friction
(C) Angle of repose
(D) Sliding friction
Answer: Option A

Question No. 25
If a three hinged parabolic arch carries a uniformly distributed load on its entire span, every
section of the arch resists.
(A) Compressive force
 (B) Tensile force
(C) Shear force
(D) Bending moment
Answer: Option A

Question No. 26
The under mentioned type is simple strain
(A) Tensile strain
(B) Compressive strain
(C) Shear strain
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 27
If rain is falling in the opposite direction of the movement of a pedestrian, he has to hold his
umbrella
(A) More inclined when moving
(B) Less inclined when moving
(C) More inclined when standing
(D) Less inclined when standing
Answer: Option D

Question No. 28
The reaction at support A of the beam shown in below figure, is

(A) Zero
(B) 5 T
(C) 10 T
(D) 1 T
Answer: Option A

Question No. 29
In a solid arch, shear force acts
(A) Vertically upwards
(B) Along the axis of the arch
(C) Perpendicular to the axis of arch
(D) Tangentially to the arch
Answer: Option C
Question No. 30
The maximum frictional force which comes into play when a body just begins to slide over another
surface is called
(A) Limiting friction
(B) Sliding friction
(C) Rolling friction
(D) Kinematic friction
Answer: Option A

Question No. 31
An arch with three hinges, is a structure
(A) Statically determinate
(B) Statically indeterminate
(C) Geometrically unstable
(D) Structurally sound but indeterminate
Answer: Option A

Question No. 32
Beams of uniform strength are preferred to those of uniform section because these are
economical for
(A) Large spans
(B) Heavy weights
(C) Light weights
(D) Short spans
Answer: Option A

Question No. 33
The M.I. of hollow circular section about a central axis perpendicular to section as compared to its
M.I. about horizontal axis is
(A) Same
(B) Double
(C) Half
(D) Four times
Answer: Option B

Question No. 34
The tensile force required to cause an elongation of 0.045 mm in a steel rod of 1000 mm length
and 12 mm diameter, is (where E = 2 × 106 kg/cm2)
(A) 166 kg
(B) 102 kg
(C) 204 kg
(D) 74 kg
Answer: Option B
Question No. 35
A long vertical member, subjected to an axial compressive load, is called
(A) A column
(B) A strut
(C) A tie
(D) A stanchion
Answer: Option A

Question No. 36
In ideal machines
(A) Mechanical advantage is greater than velocity ratio
(B) Mechanical advantage is equal to velocity ratio
(C) Mechanical advantage is less than velocity ratio
(D) Mechanical advantage is unity
Answer: Option B

Question No. 37
The nature of the stress in horizontal members of the truss shown in below figure may be

(A) Compressive
(B) Tensile
(C) Shear
(D) Zero
Answer: Option B

Question No. 38
The property of a material by which it can be drawn to a smaller section, due to tension, is called
(A) Plasticity
(B) Ductility
(C) Elasticity
(D) Malleability
Answer: Option B

Question No. 39
The unit of force in S.I. units is
(A) Kilogram
(B) Newton
(C) Watt
 (D) Dyne
Answer: Option B

Question No. 40
A bending moment may be defined as:
(A) Arithmetic sum of the moments of all the forces on either side of the section
(B) Arithmetic sum of the forces on either side of the section
(C) Algebraic sum of the moments of all the forces on either side of the section
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 41
If a circular beam of diameter d experiences a longitudinal strain P/E and a lateral strain 2P/mE,
the volumetric strain is
(A) (P/E) + (2P/mE)
(B) (P/E) - (2P/mE)
(C) (P/E) + (mE/2P)
(D) (P/E) - (mE/2P)
Answer: Option B

Question No. 42
The resolved part of the resultant of two forces inclined at an angle in a given direction is equal
to
(A) The algebraic sum of the resolved parts of the forces in the given direction
(B) The sum of the resolved parts of the forces in the given direction
(C) The difference of the forces multiplied by the cosine of
(D) The sum of the forces multiplied by the sine of
Answer: Option A

Question No. 43
For structural analysis, Maxwell's reciprocal theorem can be applied to:
(A) Plastic structures
(B) Elastic structures
(C) Symmetrical structures
(D) All the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 44
If all the dimensions of a bar are increased in the proportion n : 1, the proportion with which the
maximum stress produced in the prismatic bar by its own weight, will increase in the ratio
(A) 1 : n
(B) n : 1
(C) 1 : (1/n)
(D) 1 : n
Answer: Option B
Question No. 45
Which of the following is a vector quantity?
(A) Energy
(B) Mass
(C) Momentum
(D) Angle
Answer: Option C

Question No. 46
Pick up the incorrect statement
(A) The cross-sectional area of the welded member is effective
(B) A welded joint develops strength of its parent metal
(C) Welded joints provide rigidity
(D) Welding takes more time than riveting
Answer: Option D

Question No. 47
A 8 metre long simply supported rectangular beam which carries a distributed load 45 kg/m.
experiences a maximum fibre stress 160 kg/cm2. If the moment of inertia of the beam is 640 cm4,
the overall depth of the beam is
(A) 10 cm
(B) 12 cm
(C) 15 cm
(D) 18 cm
Answer: Option A

Question No. 48
A heavy ladder resting on floor and against a vertical wall may not be in equilibrium, if
(A) The floor is smooth, the wall is rough
(B) The floor is rough, the wall is smooth
(C) The floor and wall both are smooth surfaces
(D) The floor and wall both are rough surfaces
Answer: Option C

Question No. 49
A triangular section having base b, height h, is placed with its base horizontal. If the shear stress at
a depth y from top is q, the maximum shear stress is
(A) 3S/bh
(B) 4S/bh
(C) 4b/Sh
(D) 3b/bS
Answer: Option A
Question No. 50
Maximum deflection of a
(A) Cantilever beam carrying a concentrated load W at its free end is WL3/3EI
(B) Simply supported beam carrying a concentrated load W at mid-span is WL3/48EI
(C) Cantilever beam, carrying a uniformly distributed load over span is WL3/8EI
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 51
From a circular plate of diameter 6 cm is cut out a circle whose diameter is a radius of the plate.
Find the e.g. of the remainder from the center of circular plate
(A) 0.5 cm
(B) 1.0 cm
(C) 1.5 cm
(D) 2.5 cm
Answer: Option A

Question No. 52
If a rectangular beam measuring 10 × 18 × 400 cm carries a uniformly distributed load such that
the bending stress developed is 100 kg/cm2. The intensity of the load per metre length, is
(A) 240 kg
(B) 250 kg
(C) 260 kg
(D) 270 kg
Answer: Option B

Question No. 53
If two tensile forces mutually perpendicular act on a rectangular parallelepiped bar are equal, the
resulting elongation of the pipe, is
(A) (P/E) (1 - m)
(B) (E/P) (m -1)
(C) (E/P) (1 - m)
(D) (P/E) (1 + m)
Answer: Option A

Question No. 54
On a ladder resting on smooth ground and leaning against vertical wall, the force of friction will be
(A) Towards the wall at its upper end
(B) Away from the wall at its upper end
(C) Upwards at its upper end
(D) Downwards at its upper end
Answer: Option C
Question No. 55
If the rivets in adjacent rows are staggered and outermost row has only one rivet, the
arrangement of the rivets, is called
(A) Chain riveting
(B) Zig-zag riveting
(C) Diamond riveting
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 56
The bending moment at C of a portal frame shown in below figure is

(A) 8 t-m
(B) 4 t-m
(C) 28 t-m
(D) Zero
Answer: Option D

Question No. 57
If three forces acting in one plane upon a rigid body, keep it in equilibrium, then they must either
(A) Meet in a point
(B) Be all parallel
(C) At least two of them must meet
(D) All the above are correct
Answer: Option D

Question No. 58
In a three hinged arch, the shear force is usually
(A) Maximum at crown
 (B) Maximum at springing
(C) Maximum at quarter points
(D) Varies with slope
Answer: Option B

Question No. 59
If Z and I are the section modulus and moment of inertia of the section, the shear force F and
bending moment M at a section are related by
(A) F = My/I
(B) F = M/Z
(C) F = dM/dx
(D) F Mdx
Answer: Option C

Question No. 60
A pair of smith's tongs is an example of the lever of
(A) Zeroth order
(B) First order
(C) Second order
(D) Third order
Answer: Option C

Question No. 61
The direction of the reaction at support B of a truss shown in below figure will be

(A) East of North

(B) West of North
(C) East of South
(D) West of South
Answer: Option A

Question No. 62
A beam of length L supported on two intermediate rollers carries a uniformly distributed load on
its entire length. If sagging B.M. and hogging B.M. of the beam are equal, the length of each
overhang, is
(A) 0.107 L
(B) 0.207 L
(C) 0.307 L
 (D) 0.407 L
Answer: Option B

Question No. 63
The unit of work or energy in S.I. units is
(A) Newton
(B) Pascal
(C) Kilogram meter
(D) Joule
Answer: Option D

Question No. 64
The shear force on a simply supported beam is proportional to
(A) Displacement of the neutral axis
(B) Sum of the forces
(C) Sum of the transverse forces
(D) Algebraic sum of the transverse forces of the section
Answer: Option D

Question No. 65
Shear deflection of a cantilever of length L, cross sectional area A and shear modulus G, subjected
to w/m u.d.l., is
(A) (3/4) (L²w/GA)
(B) (3/2) (L²w/GA)
(C) (2/3) (L3w/GA)
(D) (3/2) (Lw/GA²)
Answer: Option A

Question No. 66
Which of the following is not the unit of distance?
(A) Angstrom
(B) Light year
(C) Micron
(D) Milestone
Answer: Option D

Question No. 67
In a bar of large length when held vertically and subjected to a load at its lower end, its own-
weight produces additional stress. The maximum stress will be
(A) At the lower cross-section
(B) At the built-in upper cross-section
(C) At the central cross-section
(D) At every point of the bar
Answer: Option B
Question No. 68
The value of Poisson's ratio always remains
(A) Greater than one
(B) Less than one
(C) Equal to one
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 69
The B.M. diagram of the beam shown in below figure, is

(A) A rectangle
(B) A triangle
(C) A trapezium
(D) A parabola
Answer: Option A

Question No. 70
Which of the following is not a vector quantity?
(A) Weight
(B) Velocity
(C) Acceleration
(D) Force
Answer: Option A

Question No. 71
The greatest eccentricity which a load W can have without producing tension on the cross-section
of a short column of external diameter D and internal diameter d, is
(A) 4W/ (D² - d²)
(B) (D² - d²)/32D
(C) (D² + d²)/8D
(D) (D² - d²)/8D
Answer: Option C

Question No. 72
If is the shear force at a section of an I-joist, having web depth and moment of inertia
about its neutral axis, the difference between the maximum and mean shear stresses in the
web is,
(A) Sd²/8I
(B) Sd²/12I
(C) Sd²/16I
 (D) Sd²/24I
Answer: Option D

Question No. 73
Center of gravity of a thin hollow cone lies on the axis at a height of
(A) One-fourth of the total height above base
(B) One-third of the total height above base
(C) One-half of the total height above base
(D) Three-eighth of the total height above the base
Answer: Option B

Question No. 74
A rectangular bar of width b and height h is being used as a cantilever. The loading is in a plane
parallel to the side b. The section modulus is
(A) bh3/12
(B) bh²/6
(C) b²h/6
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 75
A beam is said to be of uniform strength, if
(A) B.M. is same throughout the beam
(B) Shear stress is same throughout the beam
(C) Deflection is same throughout the beam
(D) Bending stress is same at every section along its longitudinal axis
Answer: Option D

Question No. 76
The coefficient of friction depends on
(A) Area of contact
(B) Shape of surfaces
(C) Strength of surfaces
(D) Nature of surface
Answer: Option D

Question No. 77
A closely coiled helical spring of radius R, contains n turns and is subjected to an axial loadW. If the
radius of the coil wire is r and modulus of rigidity of the coil material is C, the stress developed in
the helical spring is
(A) WR/ 3
(B) 2WR/ 3
(C) 2WR/ 2
(D) 4WR/ 2
Answer: Option B
Question No. 78
The intensity of direct longitudinal stress in the cross-section at any point distant r from the
neutral axis, is proportional to
(A) r
(B) 1/r
(C) r2
(D) 1/r²
Answer: Option A

Question No. 79
The coefficient of friction depends upon
(A) Nature of surfaces
(B) Area of contact
(C) Shape of the surfaces
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 80
The force in member U2L2 of the truss shown in below figure, is

(A) 10 T tension
(B) 10 T compression
(C) Zero
(D) 15 T compression
Answer: Option B

Question No. 81
The ratio of the moments of resistance of a solid circular shaft of diameter D and a hollow shaft
(external diameter D and internal diameter d), is
(A) D4/(D4 - d4)
(B) D3/(D3 - d3)
(C) (D4 - d4)/D4
(D) (D3 - d3)/D3
Answer: Option A

Question No. 82
The angle which an inclined plane makes with the horizontal when a body placed on it is about to
move down is known as angle of
 (A) Friction
(B) Limiting friction
(C) Repose
(D) Kinematic friction
Answer: Option C

Question No. 83
When loads are applied proportionately to a frame structure containing its members in one plane,
the structure is called
(A) Grid frame
(B) Plane frame
(C) Space frame
(D) Truss frame
Answer: Option C

Question No. 84
The maximum stress intensity due to a suddenly applied load is x-times the stress intensity
produced by the load of the same magnitude applied gradually. The value of x is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 1/2
Answer: Option B

Question No. 85
The unit of power in S.I. units is
(A) Newton meter
(B) Watt
(C) Joule
(D) Kilogram meter/sec
Answer: Option B

Question No. 86
The maximum bending moment due to a moving load on a simply supported beam, occurs
(A) At the mid span
(B) At the supports
(C) Under the load
(D) Anywhere on the beam
Answer: Option C

Question No. 87
Which of the following is not the unit of pressure?
(A) kg/cm
(B) atm
(C) kg/cm²
 (D) Newton
Answer: Option D

Question No. 88
The force in BD of the truss shown in below figure is:

(A) 500 kg compressive

(B) 500 kg tensile
(C) 1500 kg tensile
(D) 1500 kg compressive
Answer: Option A

Question No. 89
The maximum resistance against rotation, is offered by the weld at a point
(A) Most distant
(B) Least distant
(C) At either end
(D) Centrally located
Answer: Option A

Question No. 90
During a tensile test on a ductile material
(A) Nominal stress at fracture is higher than the ultimate stress
(B) True stress at fracture is higher than the ultimate stress
(C) True stress at fracture is the same as the ultimate stress
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 91
A framed structure is perfect if it contains members equal to
(A) 2n3
(B) nl
(C) 2nl
(D) 3n²
Where n = number of joints in a frame
Answer: Option A
Question No. 92
When equal and opposite forces applied to a body, tend to elongate it, the stress so produced, is
called
(A) Shear stress
(B) Compressive stress
(C) Tensile stress
(D) Transverse stress
Answer: Option C

Question No. 93
A joint of a frame is subjected to three tensile forces P, Q and R equally inclined to each other.
If P is 10 tonnes, the other forces will be
(A) Q = 10 tonnes and R = zero
(B) R + 10 tonnes and Q = zero
(C) Q + R = 10 tonnes
(D) Q and R each is equal to 10 tonnes
Answer: Option D

Question No. 94
In the equation of virtual work, following force is neglected
(A) Reaction of any smooth surface with which the body is in contact
(B) Reaction of a rough surface of a body which rolls on it without slipping
(C) Reaction at a point or an axis, fixed in space, around which a body is constrained to turn
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 95
The structure shown in below figure is stable, if

(A) x y/2
(B) x = 2y
(C) =y
(D) x) = y
Answer: Option D

Question No. 96
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The rate of change of bending moment is equal to rate of shear force
(B) The rate of change of shear force is equal to rate of loading
(C) Neither (a) nor (b)
 (D) Both (a) and (b)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 97
Tangent of angle of friction is equal to
(A) Kinetic friction
(B) Limiting friction
(C) Angle of repose
(D) Coefficient of friction
Answer: Option D

Question No. 98
The type of butt joints in common use, is:
(A) Single inverted V-butt joint
(B) Double V-butt joint
(C) Double U-butt joint
(D) Single V-butt joint
Answer: Option A

Question No. 99
For keeping the stress wholly compressive the load may be applied on a circular column anywhere
within a concentric circle of diameter
(A) d/2
(B) d/3
(C) d/4
(D) d/8
Answer: Option C

Question No. 100

The C.G. of a solid hemisphere lies on the central radius 3r
(A) At distance from the plane base 3r
(B) At distance from the plane base 3r
(C) At distance from the plane base 3r
(D) At distance from the plane base or
Answer: Option D

Question No. 101

In a loaded beam, the point of contraflexure occurs at a section where
(A) Bending moment is minimum
(B) Bending moment is zero or changes sign
(C) Bending moment is maximum
(D) Shearing force is maximum
Answer: Option B
Question No. 102
In actual machines
(A) Mechanical advantage is greater than velocity ratio
(B) Mechanical advantage is equal to velocity ratio
(C) Mechanical advantage is less than velocity ratio
(D) Mechanical advantage is unity
Answer: Option C

Question No. 103

In the given below figure, the rivets with maximum stress, are:

(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 2 and 4
Answer: Option D

Question No. 104

If two forces acting at a joint are not along the straight line, then for the equilibrium of the joint
(A) One of the forces must be zero
(B) Each force must be zero
(C) Forces must be equal and of the same sign
(D) Forces must be equal in magnitude but opposite in sign
Answer: Option B

Question No. 105

Shear deflection of a cantilever of length L, cross sectional area A and shear modulus G, under a
concentrated load W at its free end, is
(A) (2/3) (WL/AG)
(B) (1/3) (WL²/EIA)
(C) (3/2) (WL/AG)
 (D) (3/2) (WL²/AG)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 106

Forces are called concurrent when their lines of action meet in
(A) One point
(B) Two points
(C) Plane
(D) Perpendicular planes
Answer: Option A

Question No. 107

The ratio of the maximum deflections of a beam simply supported at its ends with an isolated
central load and that of with a uniformly distributed load over its entire length, is
(A) 3/2
(B) 15/24
(C) 24/15
(D) 2/3
Answer: Option C

Question No. 108

At either end of a plane frame, maximum number of possible bending moments, are
(A) Zero
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
Answer: Option A

Question No. 109

Which of the following is not the unit of work, energy and heat?
(A) kcal
(B) kg m
(C) kWhr
(D) hp
Answer: Option D

Question No. 110

If a shaft is rotating N revolutions per minute with an applied torque T kg-m, the horse power
being transmitted by the shaft, is
(A) 2 /550
(B) 2 /750
(C) 2 /4500
(D) 2 /55
Answer: Option C
Question No. 111
In a shaft shear stress intensity at a point is not
(A) Directly proportional to the distance from the axis
(B) Inversely proportional to the distance from the axis
(C) Inversely proportional to the polar moment of inertia
(D) Directly proportional to the applied torque
Answer: Option B

Question No. 112

Center of gravity of a solid cone lies on the axis at the height
(A) One-fourth of the total height above base
(B) One-third of the total height above base
(C) One-half of the total height above base
(D) Three-eighth of the total height above the base
Answer: Option A

Question No. 113

The force in DB of the truss shown in below figure is

(A) W compression
(B) W tension
(C) 2 W compression
(D) 5 W tension
Answer: Option B

Question No. 114

A diagram which shows the variations of the axial load for all sections of the span of a beam, is
called
(A) Bending moment diagram
(B) Shear force diagram
(C) Thrust diagram
(D) Stress diagram
Answer: Option C

Question No. 115

The resultant of the following three couples 20 kg force, 0.5 m arm, +ve sense 30 kg force, 1 m
arm, -ve sense 40 kg force, 0.25 m arm, +ve sense having arm of 0.5 m will be
(A) 20 kg, -ve sense
 (B) 20 kg, +ve sense
(C) 10 kg, +ve sense
(D) 10 kg, -ve sense
Answer: Option A

Question No. 116

A cantilever beam rectangular in cross-section is subjected to an isolated load at its free end. If the
width of the beam is doubled, the deflection of the free end will be changed in the ratio of
(A) 8
(B) 1/8
(C) 1/2
(D) 3
Answer: Option C

Question No. 117

In rectangular columns (cross-section b × h), the core is a
(A) Rectangle of lengths b/2 and h/2
(B) Square of length b/2
(C) Rhombus of length h/2
(D) Rhombus of diagonals b/3 and h/3
Answer: Option D

Question No. 118

Pick up the correct assumption of the theory of simple bending
(A) The value of the Young's modulus is the same in tension as well as in compression
(B) Transverse section of a beam remains plane before and after bending
(C) The material of the beam is homogeneous and isotropic
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 119

Dynamic friction as compared to static friction is
(A) Same
(B) More
(C) Less
(D) May be less of more depending on nature of surfaces and velocity
Answer: Option C

Question No. 120

The property of a material by which it can be beaten or rolled into thin plates, is called
(A) Malleability
(B) Ductility
(C) Plasticity
(D) Elasticity
Answer: Option A
Question No. 121
A closely coiled helical spring of radius R, contains n turns and is subjected to an axial load W. If
the radius of the coil wire is r and modulus of rigidity of the coil material is C, the deflection of the
coil is
(A) WR3n/Cr4
(B) 2WR3n/Cr4
(C) 3WR3n/Cr4
(D) 4WR3n/Cr4
Answer: Option D

Question No. 122

In the lever of third order, load W, effort P and fulcrum F are oriented as follows
(A) W between P and F
(B) F between W and P
(C) P between W and F
(D) W, P and F all on one side
Answer: Option A

Question No. 123

In the cantilever truss as shown in below figure, the horizontal component of the reaction at A, is

(A) 30 tonnes
(B) 60 tonnes
(C) 90 tonnes
(D) 120 tonnes
Answer: Option A

Question No. 124

The property by which a body returns to its original shape after removal of the force, is called
(A) Plasticity
(B) Elasticity
(C) Ductility
(D) Malleability
Answer: Option B
Question No. 125
Forces are called coplanar when all of them acting on body lie in
(A) One point
(B) One plane
(C) Different planes
(D) Perpendicular planes
Answer: Option B

Question No. 126

The slenderness ratio of a vertical column of a square cross-section of 2.5 cm sides and 300 cm
length, is
(A) 200
(B) 240
(C) 360
(D) 416
Answer: Option D

Question No. 127

The stress necessary to initiate yielding, is considerably
(A) More than that necessary to continue it
(B) Less than that necessary to continue it
(C) More than that necessary to stop it
(D) Less than that necessary to stop it
Answer: Option A

Question No. 128

Which of the following is not a scalar quantity?
(A) Time
(B) Mass
(C) Volume
(D) Acceleration
Answer: Option D

Question No. 129

Influence lines are drawn for structures
(A) Of any type
(B) Statically determinate
(C) Pin-jointed truss
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 130

A cast iron T section beam is subjected to pure bending. For maximum compressive stress to be
three times the maximum tensile stress, centre of gravity of the section from flange side is
(A) h/4
 (B) h/3
(C) h/2
(D) 2/3 h
Answer: Option A

Question No. 131

The units of moment of inertia of an area are
(A) kg m²
(B) m4
(C) kg/m²
(D) m3
Answer: Option B

Question No. 132

The radius of gyration of a rectangular section is not proportional to
(A) Square root of the moment of inertia
(B) Square root of the inverse of the area
(C) Square root of the moment of inertia divided by area of the section
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 133

Ties are load carrying members of a frame, which are subjected to
(A) Transverse loads
(B) Axial tension loads
(C) Axial compressive loads
(D) Torsional loads
Answer: Option B

Question No. 134

On the ladder resting on the ground and leaning against a smooth vertical wall, the force of
friction will be
(A) Downwards at its upper end
(B) Upwards at its upper end
(C) Perpendicular to the wall at its upper end
(D) Zero at its upper end
Answer: Option D

Question No. 135

The phenomenon of slow extension of materials having constant load, i.e. increasing with the time
is called
(A) Creeping
(B) Yielding
(C) Breaking
(D) None of these
 Answer: Option A

Question No. 136

The maximum deflection of
(A) A simply supported beam carrying a uniformly increasing load from either end and having
the apex at the mid span is WL3/60EI
(B) A fixed ended beam carrying a distributed load over the span is WL3/384EI
(C) A fixed ended beam carrying a concentrated load at the mid span is WL3/192EI
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 137

A flywheel on a motor goes from rest to 1000 rpm in 6 sec. The number of revolutions made is
nearly equal to
(A) 25
(B) 50
(C) 100
(D) 250
Answer: Option B

Question No. 138

The B.M. of a cantilever beam shown in below figure at A, is

(A) Zero
(B) 8 Tm
(C) 12 Tm
(D) 20 Tm
Answer: Option A

Question No. 139

A cantilever carries is uniformly distributed load W over its whole length and a force W acts at its
free end upward. The net deflection of the free end will be
(A) Zero
(B) (5/24) (WL3/EI) upward
(C) (5/24) (WL3/EI) downward
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 140
The C.G. of a plane lamina will not be at its geometrical centre in the case of a
(A) Right angled triangle
(B) Equilateral triangle
(C) Square
(D) Circle
Answer: Option A

Question No. 141

Struts are load carrying members of a frame structure which are subjected to
(A) Axial tension loads
(B) Axial compressive loads
(C) Torsional loads
(D) Transverse loads
Answer: Option B

Question No. 142

Strain energy of a member may be equated to
(A) Average resistance × displacement
(B) ½ stress × strain × area of its cross-section
(C) ½ stress × strain × volume of the member
(D) ½ (stress)2 × volume of the member + Young's modulus E
Answer: Option D

Question No. 143

A force acting on a body may
(A) Introduce internal stresses
(B) Balance the other forces acting on it
(C) Retard its motion
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 144

A simply supported beam (l + 2a) with equal overhangs (a) carries a uniformly distributed load
over the whole length, the B.M. changes sign if
(A) l > 2a
(B) l < 2a
(C) l = 2a
(D) l = 4a
Answer: Option A

Question No. 145

The stress in the wall of a cylinder in a direction normal to its longitudinal axis, due to a force
acting along the circumference, is known as
(A) Yield stress
 (B) Longitudinal stress
(C) Hoop stress
(D) Circumferential stress
Answer: Option C

Question No. 146

According to principle of moments
(A) If a system of coplanar forces is in equilibrium, then their algebraic sum is zero
(B) If a system of coplanar forces is in equilibrium, then the algebraic sum of their moments
about any point in their plane is zero
(C) The algebraic sum of the moments of any two forces about any point is equal to moment of
their resultant about the same point
(D) Positive and negative couples can be balanced
Answer: Option B

Question No. 147

The ratio of strengths of solid to hollow shafts, both having outside diameter D and hollow having
inside diameter D/2, in torsion, is
(A) 1/4
(B) 1/2
(C) 1/16
(D) 15/15
Answer: Option D

Question No. 148

Along the neutral axis of a simply supported beam
(A) Fibres do not undergo strain
(B) Fibres undergo minimum strain
(C) Fibres undergo maximum strain
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 149

A trolley wire weighs 1.2 kg per meter length. The ends of the wire are attached to two poles 20
meters apart. If the horizontal tension is 1500 kg find the dip in the middle of the span
(A) 2.5 cm
(B) 3.0 cm
(C) 4.0 cm
(D) 5.0 cm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 150

In case of an eccentric loading on a bracket subjected to moment M, the tangential force
developed in any rivet, at right angles to its radius vector r is
(A) Mr/ r²
 (B) r²/Mr
(C) Mr²/ r²
(D) Mr/ r²
Answer: Option A

Question No. 151

A composite member shown in below figure was formed at 25°C and was made of two
materials a and b. If the coefficient of thermal expansion of a is more than that of b and the
composite member is heated upto 45°C, then

(A) a will be in tension and b in compression

(B) Both will be in compression
(C) Both will be in tension
(D) a will be in compression and b in tension
Answer: Option D

Question No. 152

Coulomb friction is the friction between
(A) Bodies having relative motion
(B) Two dry surfaces
(C) Two lubricated surfaces
(D) Solids and liquids
Answer: Option A

Question No. 153

The ratio of the moment of inertia of a circular plate and that of a square plate for equal depth, is
(A) Less than one
(B) Equal to one
(C) More than one
(D) Equal
Answer: Option D

Question No. 154

The principal stresses at a point are 100, 100 and -200 kgf/cm2, the octahedral shear stress at the
point is:
(A) 100 kg/cm2
(B) 200 kg/cm2
(C) 300 kg/cm2
 (D) 400 kg/cm2
Answer: Option A

Question No. 155

A sample of metal weighs 219 gms in air, 180 gms in water, 120 gms in an unknown fluid. Then
which is correct statement about density of metal
(A) Density of metal can't be determined
(B) Metal is twice as dense as water
(C) Metal will float in water
(D) Metal is twice as dense as unknown fluid
Answer: Option A

Question No. 156

The energy stored in a beam of length subjected to a constant B.M. is
(A) M²L/2EI
(B) ML²/2EI
(C) M²L/EI
(D) ML²/EI
Answer: Option A

Question No. 157

In a simply supported beam L with a triangular load W varying from zero at one end to the
maximum value at the other end, the maximum bending moment is
(A) WL/3
(B) WL
(C) WL/4
(D) WL3
Answer: Option D

Question No. 158

Which is the correct statement about law of polygon of forces?
(A) If any number of forces acting at a point can be represented by the sides of a polygon taken
in order, then the forces are in equilibrium
(B) If any number of forces acting at a point can be represented in direction and magnitude by
the sides of a polygon, then the forces are in equilibrium
(C) If a polygon representing forces acting at a point is closed then forces are in equilibrium
(D) If any number of forces acting at a point can be represented in direction and magnitude by
the sides of a polygon taken in order, then the forces are in equilibrium
Answer: Option D

Question No. 159

If a member carries a tensile force P on its area of cross-section A, the normal stress introduced on

(A) (P/A
(B) (P/A
 (C) (P/A
(D) (P/2A
Answer: Option B

Question No. 160

Failure of riveted joints is due to
(A) Tearing of the plates between the rivet hole and the edge of the plate
(B) Tearing of plates between rivets
(C) Shearing of rivets
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 161

Two non-collinear parallel equal forces acting in opposite direction
(A) Balance each other
(B) Constitute a moment
(C) Constitute a couple
(D) Constitute a moment of couple
Answer: Option C

Question No. 162

A simply supported wooden beam 150 cm long and having a cross section 16 cm × 24 cm carries a
concentrated load, at the centre. If the permissible stress ft = 75 kg/cm2 and fs= 10 kg/cm2 the safe
load is
(A) 3025 kg
(B) 3050 kg
(C) 3075 kg
(D) 3100 kg
Answer: Option C

Question No. 163

If a steel rod of 20 mm diameter and 5 metres long elongates by 2.275 mm when subjected to an
axial pull of 3000 kg, the stress developed, is
(A) 9.5541 kg/cm2
(B) 95.541 kg/cm2
(C) 955.41 kg/cm2
(D) 9554.1 kg/cm2
Answer: Option C

Question No. 164

Least force required to draw a body up the inclined plane is W sin (plane inclination + friction
angle) applied in the direction
(A) Along the plane
(B) Horizontally
(C) Vertically
 (D) At an angle equal to the angle of friction to the inclined plane
Answer: Option D

Question No. 165

If a constant section beam is subjected to a uniform bending moment throughout, its length bends
to
(A) A circular arc
(B) A parabolic arc
(C) A catenary
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 166

The width b and depth d of a beam cut from a wooden cylindrical log of 100 cm diameter for
maximum strength are:
(A) b = 57.73 cm d = 81.65 cm
(B) b = 81.65 cm d = 57.73 cm
(C) b = 50.00 cm d = 50.00 cm
(D) b = 40.00 cm d = 80.00 cm
Answer: Option A

Question No. 167

Which of the following is the locus of a point that moves in such a manner that its distance from a
fixed point is equal to its distance from a fixed line multiplied by a constant greater than one
(A) Ellipse
(B) Hyperbola
(C) Parabola
(D) Circle
Answer: Option B

Question No. 168

As compared to uniaxial tension or compression, the strain energy stored in bending is only
(A) 1/8
(B) 1/4
(C) 1/3
(D) 1/2
Answer: Option C

Question No. 169

Strain energy of any member may be defined as work done on it
(A) To deform it
(B) To resist elongation
(C) To resist shortening
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 170
Effect of a force on a body depends upon
(A) Magnitude
(B) Direction
(C) Position or line of action
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 171

If n is the ratio of internal and external diameters of a hollow shaft, the ratio of the weight of the
hollow shaft and that of solid shaft of same strength, will be
(A) (1 - n²)/(1 - n²)1/2
(B) (1 - n²)/(1 - n4)2/3
(C) (1 + n3)/(1 + n4)1/2
(D) (1 + n1)/(1 + n4)2/3
Answer: Option B

Question No. 172

The effect of arching a beam, is
(A) To reduce the bending moment throughout
(B) To increase the bending moment throughout
(C) Nothing on the bending throughout
(D) All the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 173

D' Alembert's principle is used for
(A) Reducing the problem of kinetics to equivalent statics problem
(B) Determining stresses in the truss
(C) Stability of floating bodies
(D) Designing safe structures
Answer: Option A

Question No. 174

The range within which a load can be applied on a rectangular column, to avoid any tensile stress,
is
(A) One-half of the base
(B) One-fifth of the base
(C) One-fourth of the base
(D) One-fifth of the base
Answer: Option B

Question No. 175

For the same height, the bottom width for no tension,
(A) For triangular section is more than rectangular section
 (B) For rectangular section is more than triangular section
(C) For triangular section is same as that of a rectangular section
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 176

Coefficient of friction is the
(A) Angle between normal reaction and the resultant of normal reaction and the limiting friction
(B) Ratio of limiting friction and normal reaction
(C) The friction force acting when the body is just about to move
(D) The friction force acting when the body is in motion
Answer: Option B

Question No. 177

An arch may be subjected to
(A) Shear and axial force
(B) Bending moment and shear force
(C) Bending moment and axial force
(D) Thrust, shear force and bending moment
Answer: Option D

Question No. 178

The shape of the bending moment diagram over the length of a beam, carrying a uniformly
increasing load, is always
(A) Linear
(B) Parabolic
(C) Cubical
(D) Circular
Answer: Option C

Question No. 179

The C.G. of a right circular solid cone of height h lies at the following distance from the base
(A) h/2
(B) J/3
(C) h/6
(D) h/4
Answer: Option D

Question No. 180

For a channel section, the shear centre lies at a distance of
(A) dbt/2I
(B) d²bt/3I
(C) d²b²t/4I
(D) db²t/5I
Answer: Option C
Question No. 181
For the beam shown in below figure, the maximum positive bending moment is nearly equal to
negative bending moment when L1 is equal to

(A) 1.0 L
(B) 0.7 L
(C) 0.5 L
(D) 0.35 L
Answer: Option D

Question No. 182

A force is completely defined when we specify
(A) Magnitude
(B) Direction
(C) Point of application
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 183

In a three hinged arch, the third hinge is generally kept at
(A) Crown of the arch
(B) Midpoint of the crown and left support hinge
(C) Midpoint of the crown and right support hinge
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 184

The stiffness factor for a prismatic beam of length L and moment of inertia I, is
(A) IE/L
(B) 2EI/L
(C) 3EI/L
(D) 4EI/L
Answer: Option A

Question No. 185

Center of percussion is
(A) The point of C.G.
(B) The point of metacentre
 (C) The point of application of the resultant of all the forces tending to cause a body to rotate
about a certain axis
(D) Point of suspension
Answer: Option C

Question No. 186

The weakest section of a diamond riveting, is the section which passes through
(A) First row
(B) Second row
(C) Central row
(D) One rivet hole of end row
Answer: Option A

Question No. 187

If a solid shaft is subjected to a torque at its end such that maximum shear stress does not
exceed fs the diameter of the shaft will be
(A) 16T/ fs
(B) T/ fs)
(C) (16T/ fs)
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 188

Pick up wrong statement about friction force for dry surfaces. Friction force is
(A) Proportional to normal load between the surfaces
(B) Dependent on the materials of contact surface
(C) Proportional to velocity of sliding
(D) Independent of the area of contact surfaces
Answer: Option C

Question No. 189

The shape of the bending moment diagram over the length of a beam, carrying a uniformly
distributed load is always
(A) Linear
(B) Parabolic
(C) Cubical
(D) Circular
Answer: Option B

Question No. 190

The maximum load to which a fillet joint of length can be subjected to, is
(A) 0.7 × S × fillet size × L
(B) 2 × S × fillet size × L
(C) Permissible shear stress × fillet size × L
(D) (S × fillet size × L)/3
 Answer: Option A

Question No. 191

Which of the following is not the unit of energy?
(A) kg m
(B) kcal
(C) watt
(D) watt hours
Answer: Option C

Question No. 192

In a beam, the neutral plane
(A) May be its centre
(B) Passes through the C.G. of the area of cross-section
(C) Does not change during deformation
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 193

The moment diagram for a cantilever whose free end is subjected to a bending moment, will be a
(A) Triangle
(B) Rectangle
(C) Parabola
(D) Cubic parabola
Answer: Option B

Question No. 194

The algebraic sum of the resolved parts of a number of forces in a given direction is equal to the
resolved part of their resultant in the same direction. This is as per the principle of
(A) Forces
(B) Independence of forces
(C) Dependence of forces
(D) Resolution of forces
Answer: Option D

Question No. 195

The law which states, "Within elastic limits strain produced is proportional to the stress producing
it", is known as
(A) Bernoulli's law
(B) Stress law
(C) Hooke's law
(D) Poisson's law
Answer: Option C
Question No. 196
For a beam of uniform strength keeping its depth constant, the width will vary in proportion to
(A) Bending moment (M)
(B)
(C) M2
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 197

The product of either force of couple with the arm of the couple is called
(A) Resultant couple
(B) Moment of the forces
(C) Resulting couple
(D) Moment of the couple
Answer: Option D

Question No. 198

While testing a cast iron beam (2.5 cm × 2.5 cm) in section and a metre long simply supported at
the ends failed when a 100 kg weight is applied at the centre. The maximum stress induced is:
(A) 960 kg/cm2
(B) 980 kg/cm2
(C) 1000 kg/cm2
(D) 1200 kg/cm2
Answer: Option A

Question No. 199

Simple bending equation is
(A) M/I = R/E = F/Y
(B) I/M = E/R = Y/F
(C) M/I = E/R = F/Y
(D) M/I = R/E = Y/F
Answer: Option C

Question No. 200

The algebraic sum of moments of the forces forming couple about any point in their plane is
(A) Equal to the moment of the couple
(B) Constant
(C) Both of above are correct
(D) Both of above are wrong
Answer: Option A

Question No. 201

and are numbers of members and joints in a frame. It contains redundant members if
(A) n = 2j - 3
(B) n = 3j - 2
 (C) n < 2j - 3
(D) n > 2j - 3
Answer: Option D

Question No. 202

The equivalent length of a column fixed at both ends, is
(A) 0.5 l
(B) 0.7 l
(C) l
(D) 1.5 l
Answer: Option A

Question No. 203

Which of the following is not the unit of power?
(A) kW (kilowatt)
(B) hp (horse power)
(C) kcal/sec
(D) kcal/kg sec
Answer: Option D

Question No. 204

The ratio of elongations of a conical bar due to its own weight and that of a prismatic bar of the
same length, is
(A) 1/2
(B) 1/3
(C) 1/4
(D) 1/5
Answer: Option B

Question No. 205

The force in the member DE of the truss shown in below figure will be

(A) Zero
(B) 2 W tensile
(C) 2 W compressive
(D) 4 W compressive
Answer: Option C
Question No. 206
The possible loading in various members of framed structures are
(A) Compression or tension
(B) Buckling or shear
(C) Shear or tension
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 207

A simply supported beam of span L carries a concentrated load W at its mid-span. The maximum
bending moment M is
(A) WL/2
(B) WL/4
(C) WL/8
(D) WL/12
Answer: Option B

Question No. 208

The following assumption is not true in the theory of pure torsion:
(A) The twist along the shaft is uniform
(B) The shaft is of uniform circular section throughout
(C) Cross-section of the shaft, which is plane before twist remains plane after twist
(D) All radii get twisted due to torsion
Answer: Option D

Question No. 209

If three forces acting in different planes can be represented by a triangle, these will be in
(A) Non-equilibrium
(B) Partial equilibrium
(C) Full equilibrium
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 210

A simply supported beam carrying a uniformly distributed load over its whole span, is propped at
the centre of the span so that the beam is held to the level of the end supports. The reaction of
the prop will be
(A) Half the distributed load
(B) 3/8th the distributed load
(C) 5/8th the distributed load
(D) Distributed load
Answer: Option C
Question No. 211
Shear force for a cantilever carrying a uniformly distributed load over its length, is
(A) Triangle
(B) Rectangle
(C) Parabola
(D) Cubic parabola
Answer: Option B

Question No. 212

The weight of a body is due to
(A) Centripetal force of earth
(B) Gravitational pull exerted by the earth
(C) Forces experienced by body in atmosphere
(D) Gravitational force of attraction towards the centre of the earth
Answer: Option D

Question No. 213

For structural analysis of forces, the method refers to
(A) Moment-area-theorem
(B) Three-moment equation
(C) Maxwell's reciprocal theorem
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 214

The section modulus of a rectangular section is proportional to
(A) Area of the section
(B) Square of the area of the section
(C) Product of the area and depth
(D) Product of the area and width
Answer: Option A

Question No. 215

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) The C.G. of a circle is at its center
(B) The C.G. of a triangle is at the intersection of its medians
(C) The C.G. of a rectangle is at the intersection of its diagonals
(D) The C.G. of a semicircle is at a distance of r/2 from the center
Answer: Option D

Question No. 216

According to Unwin's formula, the diameter of a rivet of plate of thickness is :
(A) d = 6.05 t
(B) d = 1.5 t + 4
(C) d = t
 (D) d = t + 1.5
Answer: Option A

Question No. 217

For a beam having fixed ends, the unknown element of the reactions, is
(A) Horizontal components at either end
(B) Vertical components at either end
(C) Horizontal component at one end and vertical component at the other
(D) Horizontal and vertical components at both the ends
Answer: Option D

Question No. 218

If a rigid body is in equilibrium under the action of three forces, then
(A) These forces are equal
(B) The lines of action of these forces meet in a point
(C) The lines of action of these forces are parallel
(D) Both (B) and (C) above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 219

The materials which have the same elastic properties in all directions, are called
(A) Isotropic
(B) Brittle
(C) Homogeneous
(D) Hard
Answer: Option A

Question No. 220

A solid circular shaft of diameter d is subjected to a torque T. The maximum normal stress induced
in the shaft, is
(A) Zero
(B) 16T/ 3
(C) 32T/ 3
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 221

Frictional force encountered after commencement of motion is called
(A) Post friction
(B) Limiting friction
(C) Kinematic friction
(D) Dynamic friction
Answer: Option D
Question No. 222
A three-hinged arch is said to be:
(A) Statically determinate structure
(B) Statically indeterminate structure
(C) A bent beam
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 223

The areas of cross-section of a square beam and a circular beam subjected to equal bending
moments, are same.
(A) Circular beam is more economical
(B) Square beam is more economical
(C) Both the beams are equally strong
(D) Both the beams are equally economical
Answer: Option B

Question No. 224

A single force and a couple acting in the same plane upon a rigid body
(A) Balance each other
(B) Cannot balance each other
(C) Produce moment of a couple
(D) Are equivalent
Answer: Option B

Question No. 225

If the shear force along a section of a beam is zero, the bending moment at the section is
(A) Zero
(B) Maximum
(C) Minimum
(D) Average of maximum-minimum
Answer: Option B

Question No. 226

The moment diagram for a cantilever carrying a concentrated load at its free end, will be
(A) Triangle
(B) Rectangle
(C) Parabola
(D) Cubic parabola
Answer: Option A

Question No. 227

The forces, which meet at one point, but their lines of action do not lie in a plane, are called
(A) Coplanar non-concurrent forces
(B) Non-coplanar concurrent forces
 (C) Non-coplanar non-concurrent forces
(D) Intersecting forces
Answer: Option B

Question No. 228

The shear stress at any section of a shaft is maximum
(A) At the centre of the section
(B) At a distance r/2 from the centre
(C) At the top of the surface
(D) At a distance 3/4 r from the centre
Answer: Option C

Question No. 229

If the width b and depth d of a beam simply supported with a central load are interchanged, the
deflection at the centre of the beam will be changed in the ratio of
(A) b/d
(B) d/b
(C) (d/b)2
(D) (b/d)2
Answer: Option D

Question No. 230

The centre of percussion of a solid cylinder of radius r resting on a horizontal plane will be
(A) r/2
(B) 2r/3
(C) r/A
(D) 3r/2
Answer: Option D

Question No. 231

A three hinged parabolic arch hinged at the crown and springing, has a horizontal span of 4.8 m
and a central rise of 1 m. It carries a uniformly distributed load of 0.75 tonne per metre over half
left hand span. The horizontal thrust at the support will be
(A) 10.8 tonnes
(B) 1.08 tonnes
(C) 1.8 tonnes
(D) 0.8 tonnes
Answer: Option B

Question No. 232

A member which is subjected to reversible tensile or compressive stress may fail at a stress lower
than the ultimate stress of the material. This property of metal, is called
(A) Plasticity of the metal
(B) Elasticity of the metal
(C) Fatigue of the metal
 (D) Workability of the metal
Answer: Option C

Question No. 233

A body moves, from rest with a constant acceleration of 5 m per sec. The distance covered in 5 sec
is most nearly
(A) 38 m
(B) 62.5 m
(C) 96 m
(D) 124 m
Answer: Option B

Question No. 234

Stress in a beam due to simple bending, is
(A) Directly proportional
(B) Inversely proportional
(C) Curvilinearly related
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 235

The ratio of the tensile stress developed in the wall of a boiler in the circumferential direction to
the tensile stress in the axial direction, is
(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 1
Answer: Option C

Question No. 236

According to law of triangle of forces
(A) Three forces acting at a point will be in equilibrium
(B) Three forces acting at a point can be represented by a triangle, each side being proportional
to force
(C) If three forces acting upon a particle are represented in magnitude and direction by the
sides of a triangle, taken in order, they will be in equilibrium
(D) If three forces acting at a point are in equilibrium, each force is proportional to the sine of
the angle between the other two
Answer: Option C

Question No. 237

The deflection due to couple M at the free end of a cantilever length L is
(A) ML/EI
(B) 2ML/EI
(C) ML²/2EI
 (D) M²L/2EI
Answer: Option C

Question No. 238

The bending moment is maximum on a section where shearing force
(A) Is maximum
(B) Is minimum
(C) Is equal
(D) Changes sign
Answer: Option D

Question No. 239

Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(A) The tangent of the angle of friction is equal to coefficient of friction
(B) The angle of repose is equal to angle of friction
(C) The tangent of the angle of repose is equal to coefficient of friction
(D) The sine of the angle of repose is equal to coefficient to friction
Answer: Option D

Question No. 240

For a simply supported beam with a central load, the bending moment is
(A) Least at the centre
(B) Least at the supports
(C) Maximum at the supports
(D) Maximum at the centre
Answer: Option D

Question No. 241

A member is balanced at its end by two inclined members carrying equal forces. For equilibrium
the angle between the inclined bars must be
(A) 3°
(B) 45°
(C) 90°
(D) 120°
Answer: Option D

Question No. 242

When trying to turn a key into a lock, following is applied
(A) Coplanar force
(B) Non-coplanar forces
(C) Couple
(D) Moment
Answer: Option C
Question No. 243
A reinforced concrete beam is assumed to be made of
(A) Homogeneous material
(B) Heterogeneous material
(C) Isotropic material
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 244

For a stable frame structure, number of members required, is
(A) Three times the number of joints minus three
(B) Twice the number of joints minus three
(C) Twice the number of joints minus two
(D) Twice the number of joints minus one
Answer: Option B

Question No. 245

The units of moment of inertia of mass are
(A) kg m²
(B) m4
(C) kg/m²
(D) kg/m
Answer: Option A

Question No. 246

The reaction at the supports will be vertical to the plane of the support if the frame structure rests
on
(A) Roller supports
(B) Free supports
(C) Hinged supports
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 247

If the stress produced by a prismatic bar is equal to the working stress, the area of the cross-
section of the prismatic bar, becomes
(A) Zero
(B) Infinite
(C) Maximum
(D) Minimum
Answer: Option B

Question No. 248

(A) L/2
 (B) L/3
(C) 3L/4
(D) 2L/3
Answer: Option D

Question No. 249

A beam of length L is pinned at both ends and is subjected to a concentrated bending couple of
moment M at its centre. The maximum bending moment in the beam is
(A) M
(B) M/2
(C) M/3
(D) ML/2
Answer: Option A

Question No. 250

If b is the width of a plate joined by diamond riveting of diameter d, the efficiency of the joint is
given by
(A) (b + d)/b
(B) (b - d)/b
(C) (d - b)/d
(D) (b - d)/d
Answer: Option B

Question No. 251

A projectile is fired at an angle to the vertical. Its horizontal range will be maximum when is
(A) 0°
(B) 30°
(C) 45°
(D) 60°
Answer: Option C

Question No. 252

For a simply supported beam of length , the bending moment is described as M = a (x- x3/L2),
x < L; where is a constant. The shear force will be zero at
(A) The supports
(B) x = L/2
(C) x = L
(D) x = L/3
Answer: Option C

Question No. 253

A column is said to be of medium size if its slenderness ratio is between
(A) 20 and 32
(B) 32 and 120
(C) 120 and 160
 (D) 160 and 180
Answer: Option B

Question No. 254

The length of a column, having a uniform circular cross-section of 7.5 cm diameter and whose ends
are hinged, is 5 m. If the value of E for the material is 2100 tonnes/cm2, the permissible maximum
crippling load will be
(A) 1.288 tonnes
(B) 12.88
(C) 128.8 tonnes
(D) 288.0
Answer: Option B

Question No. 255

The moment diagram for a cantilever which is subjected to a uniformly distributed load will be a
(A) Triangle
(B) Rectangle
(C) Parabola
(D) Cubic parabola
Answer: Option C

Question No. 256

If the normal cross-section of a member is subjected to tensile force , the resulting normal

(A) (P/A
(B) (P/A
(C) (P/2A
(D) (P/2A
Answer: Option B

Question No. 257

In a shaft rotated by a couple, the shear force varies
(A) From zero at the centre to a maximum at the circumference
(B) From minimum at the centre of maximum at the circumference
(C) From maximum at the centre to zero at the circumference
(D) Equally throughout the section
Answer: Option A

Question No. 258

The shape of the bending moment diagram over the length of a beam, having no external load, is
always
(A) Linear
(B) Parabolic
(C) Cubical
(D) Circular
 Answer: Option A

Question No. 259

The stress at which extension of a material takes place more quickly as compared to the increase
in load, is called
(A) Elastic point
(B) Plastic point
(C) Breaking point
(D) Yielding point
Answer: Option D

Question No. 260

A shaft turning 150 r.p.m. is subjected to a torque of 150 kgm. Horse power transmitted by the
shaft is
(A)
(B) 10
(C) ²
(D) 1/
Answer: Option B

Question No. 261

In a simply supported beam (l + 2a) with equal overhangs (a) and carrying a uniformly distributed
load over its entire length, B.M. at the middle point of the beam will be zero if
(A) l = 2a
(B) l = 4a
(C) l < 2a
(D) l > a
Answer: Option A

Question No. 262

A simply supported beam of span carries a uniformly distributed load . The maximum
bending moment is
(A) WL/2
(B) WL/4
(C) WL/8
(D) WL/12
Answer: Option C

Question No. 263

A member which does not regain its original shape after removed of load producing deformation
is said
(A) Plastic
(B) Elastic
(C) Rigid
(D) None of these
 Answer: Option A

Question No. 264

A solid cube is subjected to equal normal forces on all its faces. The volumetric strain will be x-
times the linear strain in any of the three axes when
(A) x = 1
(B) x = 2
(C) x = 3
(D) x = 4
Answer: Option C

Question No. 265

A three hinged arch is loaded with an isolated load 1000 kg at a horizontal distance of 2.5 m from
the crown, 1 m above the level of hinges at the supports 10 metres apart. The horizontal thrust is
(A) 1250 kg
(B) 125 kg
(C) 750 kg
(D) 2500 kg
Answer: Option A

Question No. 266

A uniform girder simply supported at its ends is subjected to a uniformly distributed load over its
entire length and is propped at the centre so as to neutralise the deflection. The net B.M. at the
centre will be
(A) WL
(B) WL/8
(C) WL/24
(D) WL/32
Answer: Option D

Question No. 267

When a rectangular beam is loaded transversely, the maximum compressive stress develops on
(A) Bottom fibre
(B) Top fibre
(C) Neutral axis
(D) Every cross-section
Answer: Option B

Question No. 268

In a tension test, the yield stress is 300 kg/cm2, in the octahedral shear stress at the point is:
(A) 100 kg/cm2
(B) 150 kg/cm2
(C) 200 kg/cm
(D) 250 kg/cm2
Answer: Option A
Question No. 269
Columns of given length, cross-section and material have different values of buckling loads for
different end conditions. The strongest column is one whose
(A) One end is fixed and other end is hinged
(B) Both ends are hinged or pin jointed
(C) One end is fixed and the other end entirely free
(D) Both the ends are fixed
Answer: Option D

Question No. 270

A cantilever carrying a uniformly distributed load W over its full length is propped at its free end
such that it is at the level of the fixed end. The bending moment will be zero at its free end also at
(A) Midpoint of the cantilever
(B) Fixed point of the cantilever
(C) 1/4th length from free end
(D) 3/4th length from free end
Answer: Option D

Question No. 271

If the depth of a simply supported beam carrying an isolated load at its centre, is doubled, the
deflection of the beam at the centre will be changed by a factor of
(A) 2
(B) 1/2
(C) 8
(D) 1/8
Answer: Option D

Question No. 272

The minimum number of rivets for the connection of a gusset plate, is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Answer: Option B

Question No. 273

The cross sections of the beams of equal length are a circle and a square whose permissible
bending stress is same under same maximum bending. The ratio of their flexural weights is,
(A) 1.118
(B) 1.338
(C) 1.228
(D) 1.108
Answer: Option A
Question No. 274
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) A ductile material has large plastic zone
(B) A brittle material has no plastic zone
(C) A rigid material has no plastic zone
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 275

The section modulus of a rectangular light beam 25 metres long is 12.500 cm3. The beam is simply
supported at its ends and carries a longitudinal axial tensile load of 10 tonnes in addition to a
point load of 4 tonnes at the centre. The maximum stress in the bottom most fibre at the mid span
section, is
(A) 13.33 kg/cm2 tensile
(B) 13.33 kg/cm2 compressive
(C) 26.67 kg/cm2 tensile
(D) 26.67 kg/cm2 compressive
Answer: Option C

Question No. 276

Stress in members of statically determinate simple frames, can be determined by
(A) Method of joints
(B) Method of sections
(C) Graphical solution
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 277

The point of contraflexure occurs in
(A) Cantilever beams only
(B) Continuous beams only
(C) Over hanging beams only
(D) All types of beams
Answer: Option C

Question No. 278

A rectangular beam 20 cm wide is subjected to a maximum shearing force of 10,000 kg, the
corresponding maximum shearing stress being 30 kg/cm2. The depth of the beam is
(A) 15 cm
(B) 20 cm
(C) 25 cm
(D) 30 cm
Answer: Option C
Question No. 279
If a member is subjected to a tensile force P, having its normal cross-section A, the resulting shear

(A) (P/A
(B) (P/2A
(C) (P/2A
(D) (P/A
Answer: Option B

Question No. 280

If a shaft is simultaneously subjected to a toque T and a bending moment M, the ratio of
maximum bending stress and maximum shearing stress is
(A) M/T
(B) T/M
(C) 2M/T
(D) 2T/M
Answer: Option C

Question No. 281

The ratio of the effective length of a column and minimum radius of gyration of its cross-sectional
area, is known
(A) Buckling factor
(B) Slenderness ratio
(C) Crippling factor
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 282

The region of the cross-section of a column in which compressive load may be applied without
producing any tensile stress, is known as the core of the cross-section. In circular columns the
radius of the core, is
(A) One-half of the radius
(B) One-third of the radius
(C) One-quarter of the radius
(D) One-fifth of the radius
Answer: Option C

Question No. 283

If the width of a simply supported beam carrying an isolated load at its centre is doubled, the
deflection of the beam at the centre is changed by
(A) 2 times
(B) 4 times
(C) 8 times
(D) 1/2 times
Answer: Option C
Question No. 284
A cylinder is said to be thin if the ratio of its thickness and diameter, is less than
(A) 1/25
(B) 1/20
(C) 1/15
(D) 1/10
Answer: Option D

Question No. 285

As the elastic limit reaches, tensile strain
(A) Increases more rapidly
(B) Decreases more rapidly
(C) Increases in proportion to the stress
(D) Decreases in proportion to the stress
Answer: Option A

Question No. 286

For a given material Young's modulus is 200 GN/m2 and modulus of rigidity is 80 GN/m2. The value
of Poisson's ratio is
(A) 0.15
(B) 0.20
(C) 0.25
(D) 0.30
Answer: Option C

Question No. 287

The rise of a parabolic arch at quarter points, is equal to
(A) 1/3 times the rise of the crown
(B) 1/4 times the rise of the crown
(C) 1/2 times the rise of the crown
(D) 3/4 times the rise of the crown
Answer: Option D

Question No. 288

The number of points of contraflexure in a simple supported beam carrying uniformly distributed
load, is
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
Answer: Option A

Question No. 289

When two plates butt together and are riveted with two cover plates with two rows of rivets, the
joint is known as
 (A) Lap joint
(B) Butt joint
(C) Single riveted single cover butt joint
(D) Double riveted double cover butt joint
Answer: Option D

Question No. 290

If the width of a simply supported beam carrying an isolated load at its centre is doubled, the
deflection of the beam at the centre is changed by
(A) 1/2
(B) 1/8
(C) 2
(D) 8
Answer: Option A

Question No. 291

The moment diagram for a cantilever carrying linearly varying load from zero at its free end and to
maximum at the fixed end will be a
(A) Triangle
(B) Rectangle
(C) Parabola
(D) Cubic parabola
Answer: Option D

Question No. 292

When a rectangular beam is loaded longitudinally, shear develops on
(A) Bottom fibre
(B) Top fibre
(C) Middle fibre
(D) Every-horizontal plane
Answer: Option D

Question No. 293

For a simply supported beam carrying uniformly distributed load W on it entire length L, the
maximum bending moment is
(A) WL/4
(B) WL/8
(C) WL/2
(D) WL/3
Answer: Option B

Question No. 294

Along the principal plan subjected to maximum principal stress
(A) Maximum shear stress acts
(B) Minimum shear stress acts
 (C) No shear stress acts
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 295

The width of a beam of uniform strength having a constant depth d length L, simply supported at
the ends with a central load W is
(A) 2WL/3fd²
(B) 3WL/2fd²
(C) 2fL/3Wd4
(D) 3fL²/2Wd
Answer: Option B

Question No. 296

The distance between the centres of adjacent rivets in the same row, is called
(A) Pitch
(B) Lap
(C) Gauge
(D) Staggered pitch
Answer: Option A

Question No. 297

Hooke's law states that stress and strain are
(A) Directly proportional
(B) Inversely proportional
(C) Curvilinearly related
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 298

For a beam, if fundamental equations of statics are not sufficient to determine all the reactive
forces at the supports, the structure is said to be
(A) Determinate
(B) Statically determinate
(C) Statically indeterminate
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 299

The tension coefficient of any member is
(A) Force divided by the length
(B) Tension divided by the length
(C) Tension per unit area
(D) Tension in the member
Answer: Option B
Question No. 300
Rankine-Golden formula accounts for direct as well as buckling stress and is applicable to
(A) Very long columns
(B) Long columns
(C) Short columns
(D) Intermediate columns
Answer: Option D

Question No. 301

The neutral axis of a beam cross-section must
(A) Pass through the centroid of the section
(B) Be equidistant from the top of bottom films
(C) Be an axis of symmetry of the section
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 302

In a continuous bending moment curve the point where it changes sign, is called
(A) Point of inflexion
(B) Point of contraflexure
(C) Point of virtual hinge
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 303

The equivalent length of a column fixed at one end and free at the other end, is
(A) 0.5 l
(B) 0.7 l
(C) 2 l
(D) 1.5 l
Answer: Option C

Question No. 304

For a given material, if E, C, K and m are Young's modulus, shearing modulus, bulk modulus and
Poisson ratio, the following relation does not hold good
(A) E = 9KC/3K + C
(B) E = 2K (1 + 2/m)
(C) E = 2C (1 + 1/m)
(D) E = 3C (1 - 1/m)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 305

A short masonry pillar is 60 cm x 60 cm in cross-section, the core of the pillar is a square whose
side is
(A) 17.32 cm
 (B) 14.14 cm
(C) 20.00 cm
(D) 22.36 cm
Answer: Option B

Question No. 306

The ratio of the maximum deflection of a cantilever beam with an isolated load at its free end and
with a uniformly distributed load over its entire length, is
(A) 1
(B) 24/15
(C) 3/8
(D) 8/3
Answer: Option D

Question No. 307

The slenderness ratio of a vertical column of square cross- section of 10 cm side and 500 cm long,
is
(A) 117.2
(B) 17.3
(C) 173.2
(D) 137.2
Answer: Option C

Question No. 308

A steel rod of 2 cm diameter and 5 metres long is subjected to an axial pull of 3000 kg. If E = 2.1 ×
106, the elongation of the rod will be
(A) 2.275 mm
(B) 0.2275 mm
(C) 0.02275 mm
(D) 2.02275 mm
Answer: Option B

Question No. 309

A rectangular log of wood is floating in water with a load of 100 N at its centre. The maximum
shear force in the wooden log is
(A) 50 N at each end
(B) 50 N at the centre
(C) 100 N at the centre
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 310

The maximum compressive stress at the top of a beam is 1600 kg/cm2 and the corresponding
tensile stress at its bottom is 400 kg/cm2. If the depth of the beam is 10 cm, the neutral axis from
the top, is
 (A) 2 cm
(B) 4 cm
(C) 6 cm
(D) 8 cm
Answer: Option D

Question No. 311

At either end of a plane frame, maximum number of possible transverse shear forces, are
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Answer: Option A

Question No. 312

In a square beam loaded longitudinally, shear develops
(A) On middle fibre along horizontal plane
(B) On lower fibre along horizontal plane
(C) On top fibre along vertical plane
(D) Equally on each fibre along horizontal plane
Answer: Option D

Question No. 313

Reactions at the supports of a structure can be determined by equating the algebraic sum of
(A) Horizontal forces to zero
(B) Vertical forces to zero
(C) Moment about any point to zero
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 314

The phenomenon of slow growth of strain under a steady tensile stress, is called
(A) Yielding
(B) Creeping
(C) Breaking
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 315

If the stress in each cross-section of a pillar is equal to its working stress, it is called
(A) Body of equal
(B) Body of equal section
(C) Body of equal strength
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 316
Maximum deflection of a cantilever due to pure bending moment M at its free end, is
(A) ML²/3EI
(B) ML²/4EI
(C) ML²/6EI
(D) ML²/2EI
Answer: Option D

Question No. 317

The maximum deflection of a simply supported beam of length L with a central load W, is
(A) WL²/48EI
(B) W²L/24EI
(C) WL3/48EI
(D) WL²/8EI
Answer: Option C

Question No. 318

An open-ended cylinder of radius and thickness is subjected to internal pressure . The
Young's modulus for the material is and Poisson's ratio is . The longitudinal strain is
(A) Zero
(B) pr/TE
(C) pr/2TE
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 319

Euler's formula states that the buckling load for a column of length , both ends hinged and
whose least moment of inertia and modulus of elasticity of the material of the column
are and respectively, is given by the relation
(A) P = ²EI/l²
(B) P = /EI
(C) P = /l²
(D) P = ²EI/l3
Answer: Option A

Question No. 320

In a three hinged arch, the bending moment will be zero
(A) At right hinge only
(B) At left hinge only
(C) At both right and left hinges
(D) At all the three hinges
Answer: Option D
Question No. 321
A simply supported beam carries two equal concentrated loads W at distances L/3 from either
support. The maximum bending moment
(A) WL/3
(B) WL/4
(C) 5WL/4
(D) 3WL/12
Answer: Option A

Question No. 322

If the beam is supported so that there are only three unknown reactive elements at the supports.
These can be determined by using the following fundamental equation of statics
(A) H = 0
(B) V = 0
(C) H H=0
(D) H V M=0
Answer: Option D

Question No. 323

For a cantilever with a uniformly distributed load W over its entire length L, the maximum bending
moment is
(A) WL
(B) ½ WL
(C) WL
(D) ½ WL2
Answer: Option B

Question No. 324

To ascertain the maximum permissible eccentricity of loads on circular columns, the rule generally
followed, is
(A) Middle half rule of columns
(B) Middle third rule of columns
(C) Middle fourth rule of columns
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 325

A shaft 9 m long is subjected to a torque 30 t-m at a point 3 m distant from either end. The
reactive torque at the nearer end will be
(A) 5 tonnes metre
(B) 10 tonnes metre
(C) 15 tonnes metre
(D) 20 tonnes metre
Answer: Option D
Question No. 326
Every material obeys the Hooke's law within its
(A) Elastic limit
(B) Plastic point
(C) Limit of proportionality
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 327

If the length of a cantilever carrying an isolated load at its free end is doubled, the deflection of
the free end will increase by
(A) 8
(B) 1/8
(C) 1/3
(D) 2
Answer: Option B

Question No. 328

If is the internal pressure in a thin cylinder of diameter and thickness , the developed hoop
stress, is
(A) pd/2t
(B) pd/4t
(C) pd/t
(D) 2pd/t
Answer: Option A
 Surveying and Levelling

Question No. 01
To avoid large centering error with very short legs, observations are generally made
(A) To chain pins
(B) By using optical system for centering the theodolite
(C) To a target fixed on theodolite tripod on which theodolite may be fitted easily
(D) All the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 02
Different grades are joined together by a
(A) Compound curve
(B) Transition curve
(C) Reverse curve
(D) Vertical curve
Answer: Option D

Question No. 03
Which of the following methods of theodolite traversing is suitable for locating the details which
are far away from transit stations?
(A) Measuring angle and distance from one transit station
(B) Measuring angles to the point from at least two stations
(C) Measuring angle at one station and distance from other
(D) Measuring distance from two points on traverse line
Answer: Option B

Question No. 04
The line of collimation method of reduction of levels, does not provide a check on
(A) Intermediate sights
(B) Fore sights
(C) Back sights
(D) Reduced levels
Answer: Option A

Question No. 05
Which of the following methods of contouring is most suitable for a hilly terrain?
(A) Direct method
(B) Square method
(C) Cross-sections method
(D) Tachometric method
Answer: Option D
Question No. 06
The chord of a curve less than peg interval, is known as
(A) Small chord
(B) Sub-chord
(C) Normal chord
(D) Short chord
Answer: Option B

Question No. 07
The size of a plane table is
(A) 750 mm × 900 mm
(B) 600 mm × 750 mm
(C) 450 mm × 600 mm
(D) 300 mm × 450 mm
Answer: Option B

Question No. 08
If the reduced bearing of a line AB is N60°W and length is 100 m, then the latitude and departure
respectively of the line AB will be
(A) +50 m, +86.6 m
(B) +86.6 m, -50 m
(C) +50 m, -86.6 m
(D) +70.7 m, -50 m
Answer: Option B

Question No. 09
A lemniscate curve between the tangents will be transitional throughout if the polar deflection
angle of its apex, is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 10
Contour interval is
(A) Inversely proportional to the scale of the map
(B) Directly proportional to the flatness of ground
(C) Larger for accurate works
(D) Larger if the time available is more
Answer: Option A

Question No. 11
The smaller horizontal angle between the true meridian and a survey line, is known
(A) Declination
 (B) Bearing
(C) Azimuth
(D) Dip
Answer: Option C

Question No. 12
Contour interval is
(A) The vertical distance between two consecutive contours
(B) The horizontal distance between two consecutive contours
(C) The vertical distance between two points on same contour
(D) The horizontal distance between two points on same contour
Answer: Option A

Question No. 13
Check lines (or proof lines) in Chain Surveying, are essentially required
(A) To plot the chain lines
(B) To plot the offsets
(C) To indicate the accuracy of the survey work
(D) To increase the out-turn
Answer: Option C

Question No. 14
After fixing the plane table to the tripod, the main operations which are needed at each plane
table station are
(i) Levelling
(ii) Orientation
(iii) Centering
The correct sequence of these operations is
(A) (i), (ii), (iii)
(B) (i), (iii), (ii)
(C) (iii), (i), (ii)
(D) (ii), (iii), (i)
Answer: Option B

Question No. 15
There are two stations A and B. Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) The fore bearing of AB is AB
(B) The back bearing of AB is BA
(C) The fore and back bearings of AB differ by 180°
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 16
The Random errors tend to accumulate proportionally to
(A) Numbers of operations involved
 (B) Reciprocal of operations involved
(C) Square root of the number of operation involved
(D) Cube root of the number of operation involved
Answer: Option C

Question No. 17
In direct method of contouring, the process of locating or identifying points lying on a contour is
called
(A) Ranging
(B) Centring
(C) Horizontal control
(D) Vertical control
Answer: Option D

Question No. 18
The conventional sign shown in below figure represents a

(A) Road bridge

(B) Railway bridge
(C) Canal bridge
(D) Aquaduct
Answer: Option A

Question No. 19
Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) While measuring a distance with a tape of length 100.005 m, the distance to be increasing
by 0.005 m for each tape length
(B) An increase in temperature causes a tape to increase in length and the measured distance is
too large
(C) The straight distance between end points of a suspended tape is reduced by an amount
called the sag correction
(D) A 100 m tape of cross section 10 mm × 0.25 mm stretches about 10 mm under 5 kg pull
Answer: Option B

Question No. 20
For the construction of highway (or railway)
(A) Longitudinal sections are required
(B) Cross sections are required
(C) Both longitudinal and cross sections are required
(D) None of these
 Answer: Option C

Question No. 21
Detailed plotting is generally done by
(A) Radiation
(B) Traversing
(C) Resection
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 22
If the smallest division of a vernier is longer than the smallest division of its primary scale, the
vernier is known as
(A) Direct vernier
(B) Double vernier
(C) Retrograde vernier
(D) Simple vernier
Answer: Option C

Question No. 23
The method of reversal
(A) Is usually directed to examine whether a certain part is truly parallel or perpendicular to
another
(B) Makes the erroneous relationship between parts evident
(C) Both (a) and (b)
(D) Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 24
The line normal to the plumb line is known as
(A) Horizontal line
(B) Level line
(C) Datum line
(D) Vertical line
Answer: Option B

Question No. 25
In levelling operation
(A) When the instrument is being shifted, the staff must not be moved
(B) When the staff is being carried forward, the instrument must remain stationary
(C) Both (a) and (b)
(D) Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer: Option C
Question No. 26
The two point problem and three point problem are methods of
(A) Resection
(B) Orientation
(C) Traversing
(D) Resection and orientation
Answer: Option D

Question No. 27
Ramsden eye-piece consists of
(A) Two convex lenses short distance apart
(B) Two concave lenses short distance apart
(C) One convex lens and one concave lens short distance apart
(D) Two Plano-convex lenses short distance apart, with the convex surfaces facing each other
Answer: Option D

Question No. 28
The line of sight is kept as high above ground surface as possible to minimise the error in the
observed angles due to
(A) Shimmering
(B) Horizontal refraction
(C) Vertical refraction
(D) Both shimmering and horizontal refraction
Answer: Option D

Question No. 29
If is the stadia distance, is the focal length and is the distance between the objective and
vertical axis of the techeometer, the multiplying constant, is
(A) f/i
(B) i/f
(C) (f + d)
(D) f/d
Answer: Option A

Question No. 30
The desired sensitivity of a bubble tube with 2 mm divisions is 30". The radius of the bubble tube
should be
(A) 13.75 m
(B) 3.44 m
(C) 1375 m
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 31
Subtense bar is an instrument used for
 (A) Levelling
(B) Measurement of horizontal distances in plane areas
(C) Measurement of horizontal distances in undulated areas
(D) Measurement of angles
Answer: Option C

Question No. 32
Volume of the earth work may be calculated by
(A) Mean areas
(B) End areas
(C) Trapezoidal
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 33
Tacheometric formula for horizontal distances using horizontal sights can also suitable be

(A) The constants by sin2

(B) The constants by cos2
(C)
(D) The multiplying constant by cos2
Answer: Option D

Question No. 34
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The directions of plumb lines suspended at different points in a survey are not strictly
parallel
(B) In surveys of small extent, the effect of curvature may be ignored and the level surface of
the earth is assumed as horizontal
(C) In surveys of large extent, the effect of curvature of the earth must be considered
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 35
In levelling operation
(A) If second reading is more than first, it represents a rise
(B) If first reading is more than second, it represents a rise
(C) If first reading is less than second, it represents a fall
(D) Both (b) and (c)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 36
Over-turning of vehicles on a curve can be avoided by using
(A) Compound curve
(B) Vertical curve
 (C) Reverse curve
(D) Transition curve
Answer: Option D

Question No. 37
Which of the following introduces an error of about 1 in 1000 if 20 m chain is used?
(A) Length of chain 20 mm wrong
(B) One end of the chain 0.9 m off the line
(C) One end of chain 0.9 m higher than the other
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 38
Chain surveying is well adopted for
(A) Small areas in open ground
(B) Small areas with crowded details
(C) Large areas with simple details
(D) Large areas with difficult details
Answer: Option A

Question No. 39
Two contour lines, having the same elevation
(A) Cannot cross each other
(B) Can cross each other
(C) Cannot unite together
(D) Can unite together
Answer: Option D

Question No. 40
The conventional sign shown in below figure represents a

(A) Bridge carrying railway below road

(B) Bridge carrying road below railway
 (C) Bridge carrying road and railway at the same level
(D) A level crossing
Answer: Option A

Question No. 41
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(A) Error due to refraction may not be completely eliminated by reciprocal levelling
(B) Tilting levels are commonly used for precision work
(C) The last reading of levelling is always a foresight
(D) All of the above statements are incorrect
Answer: Option D

Question No. 42
In levelling operation,
(A) The first sight on any change point is a back sight
(B) The second sight on any change point is a fore sight
(C) The line commences with a fore sight and closes with a back sight
(D) The line commences with a back sight and closes with a foresight
Answer: Option D

Question No. 43
The length of a traverse leg may be obtained by multiplying the latitude and
(A) Secant of its reduced bearing
(B) Sine of its reduced bearing
(C) Cosine of its reduced bearing
(D) Tangent of its reduced bearing
Answer: Option A

Question No. 44
While working on a plane table, the correct rule is:
(A) Draw continuous lines from all instrument stations
(B) Draw short rays sufficient to contain the points sought
(C) Intersection should be obtained by actually drawing second rays
(D) Take maximum number of sights as possible from each station to distant objects
Answer: Option B

Question No. 45
The vertical angle between longitudinal axis of a freely suspended magnetic needle and a
horizontal line at its pivot, is known
(A) Declination
(B) Azimuth
(C) Dip
(D) Bearing
Answer: Option C
Question No. 46
In the cross-section method of indirect contouring, the spacing of cross-sections depends upon
(i) Contour interval
(ii) Scale of plan
(iii) Characteristics of ground
The correct answer is
(A) Only (i)
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 47
Transition curves are introduced at either end of a circular curve, to obtain
(A) Gradually decrease of curvature from zero at the tangent point to the specified quantity at
the junction of the transition curve with main curve
(B) Gradual increase of super-elevation from zero at the tangent point to the specified amount
at the junction of the transition curve with main curve
(C) Gradual change of gradient from zero at the tangent point to the specified amount at the
junction of the transition curve with main curve
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 48
A and B
sextant. The correct horizontal angle is
(A) cos -
(B) cos -
(C) cos -
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 49
Tilt of the staff in stadia tacheometry increases the intercept if it is
(A) Away from the telescope pointing down hill
(B) Towards the telescope pointing up-hill
(C) Away from the telescope pointing up-hill
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 50
Three point problem can be solved by
(A) Tracing paper method
(B)
(C)
 (D) all of the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 51
A dumpy level is set up with its eye-piece vertically over a peg . The height from the top of
peg to the centre of the eye-piece is 1.540 m and the reading on peg is 0.705 m. The level is
then setup over . The height of the eye-piece above peg is 1.490 m and a reading on is
2.195 m. The difference in level between and is
(A) 2.900 m
(B) 3.030 m
(C) 0.770 m
(D) 0.785 m
Answer: Option C

Question No. 52
In a lemniscate curve the ratio of the angle between the tangent at the end of the polar ray and
the straight, and the angle between the polar ray and the straight, is
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4/3
(D) 3/2
Answer: Option D

Question No. 53
The bellow figure is a conventional sign of

(A) Mosque
(B) Temple
(C) Church
(D) Idgah
Answer: Option D

Question No. 54
A level when set up 25 m from peg A and 50 m from peg B reads 2.847 on a staff held on A and
3.462 on a staff held on B, keeping bubble at its centre while reading. If the reduced levels
of A and B are 283.665 m and 284.295 m respectively, the collimation error per 100 m is
(A) 0.015 m
(B) 0.030 m
(C) 0.045 m
(D) 0.060 m
Answer: Option D
Question No. 55
Hydrographic surveys deal with the mapping of
(A) Large water bodies
(B) Heavenly bodies
(C) Mountainous region
(D) Canal system
Answer: Option A

Question No. 56
Bowditch rule is applied to
(A) An open traverse for graphical adjustment
(B) A closed traverse for adjustment of closing error
(C) Determine the effect of local attraction
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 57
Angles to a given pivot station observed from a number of traverse stations when plotted, the
lines to the pivot station intersect at a common point
(A) Angular measurements are correct and not the linear measurements
(B) Linear measurements are correct and not the angular measurements
(C) Angular and linear measurements are correct and not the plotting of traverse
(D) Angular and linear measurements and also plotting of the traverse are correct
Answer: Option D

Question No. 58
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The horizontal angle between magnetic meridian and true meridian at a place is
called magnetic declination or variance of the compass
(B) The imaginary lines which pass through points at which the magnetic declinations are equal
at a given time are called isogonic lines
(C) The isogonic lines through places at which the declination is zero are termedagonic lines
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 59
Straight, parallel and widely spaced contours represent
(A) A steep surface
(B) A flat surface
(C) An inclined plane surface
(D) Curved surface
Answer: Option C

Question No. 60
The real image of an object formed by the objective must lie
 (A) In the plane of cross hairs
(B) At the centre of the telescope
(C) At the optical centre of the eye-piece
(D) Anywhere inside the telescope
Answer: Option A

Question No. 61
For a tachometer the additive and multiplying constants are respectively
(A) 0 and 100
(B) 100 and 0
(C) 0 and 0
(D) 100 and 100
Answer: Option A

Question No. 62
Correct distance obtained by an erroneous chain is:
(A) (Erroneous chain length/Correct chain length) × Observed distance
(B) (Correct chain length/Erroneous chain length) × Observed distance
(C) (Correct chain length/Observed distance) × Erroneous chain length
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 63
An imaginary line lying throughout on the surface of the earth and preserving a constant
inclination to the horizontal, is called
(A) Contour line
(B) Contour gradient
(C) Level line
(D) Line of gentle scope
Answer: Option B

Question No. 64
The constant vertical distance between two adjacent contours, is called
(A) Horizontal interval
(B) Horizontal equivalent
(C) Vertical equivalent
(D) Contour interval
Answer: Option D

Question No. 65
If a 30 m chain diverges through a perpendicular distance d from its correct alignment, the error in
length, is
(A) (d²/60) m
(B) (d²/30) m
(C) (d²/40) m
 (D) (d/30) m
Answer: Option A

Question No. 66
The sensitivity of a bubble tube can be increased by
(A) Increasing the diameter of the tube
(B) Decreasing the length of bubble
(C) Increasing the viscosity of liquid
(D) Decreasing the radius of curvature of tube
Answer: Option A

Question No. 67
A standard steel tape of length 30 m and cross-section 15 × 1.0 mm was standardised at 25°C and
at 30 kg pull. While measuring a base line at the same temperature, the pull applied was 40 kg. If
the modulus of elasticity of steel tape is 2.2 × 106 kg/cm2, the correction to be applied is
(A) - 0.000909 m
(B) + 0.0909 m
(C) 0.000909 m
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 68
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) It is difficult to eliminate an error completely at first trial
(B) Instability of the instrument makes it almost impossible to adjust it satisfactorily
(C) Adjustment screws must be left bearing firmly but should never be forced
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 69
The properties of autogenous curve for automobiles are given by
(A) True spiral
(B) Cubic parabola
(C) Bernoulli's Lemniscate
(D) Clothoid spiral
Answer: Option C

Question No. 70
In chain surveying field work is limited to
(A) Linear measurements only
(B) Angular measurements only
(C) Both linear and angular measurements
(D) All the above
Answer: Option A
Question No. 71
The difference of levels between two stations A and B is to be determined. For best results, the
instrument station should be
(A) Equidistant from A and B
(B) Closer to the higher station
(C) Closer to the lower station
(D) As far as possible from the line AB
Answer: Option A

Question No. 72
The curve composed of two arcs of different radii having their centres on the opposite side of the
curve, is known
(A) A simple curve
(B) A compound curve
(C) A reverse curve
(D) A vertical curve
Answer: Option C

Question No. 73
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) An observation or the resulting reading with the level on a levelling staff is called sight
(B) A back sight is the first sight taken after setting up the instrument in any position
(C) The first sight on each change point is a fore sight
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 74
The angle of intersection of a curve is the angle between
(A) Back tangent and forward tangent
(B) Prolongation of back tangent and forward tangent
(C) Forward tangent and long chord
(D) Back tangent and long chord
Answer: Option A

Question No. 75
If is the perimete D is the closing error in departure, the correction for
the departure of a traverse side of length , according to Bowditch rule, is
(A) D × L/l
(B) D × l²/L
(C) L × l D
(D) D × l/L
Answer: Option D

Question No. 76
Select the correct statement.
 (A) Contour interval on any map is kept constant.
(B) Direct method of contouring is cheaper than indirect method.
(C) Intervisibility of points on a contour map cannot be ascertained.
(D) Slope of a hill cannot be determined with the help of contours.
Answer: Option A

Question No. 77
In tacheometrical observations, vertical staff holding is generally preferred to normal staffing, due
to
(A) Ease of reduction of observations
(B) Facility of holding
(C) Minimum effect of careless holding on the result
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 78
Whole circle bearing of a line is preferred to a quadrantal bearing merely because
(A) Bearing is not completely specified by an angle
(B) Bearing is completely specified by an angle
(C) Sign of the correction of magnetic declination is different in different quadrants
(D) Its Trigonometrical values may be extracted from ordinary tables easily
Answer: Option B

Question No. 79
It is more difficult to obtain good results while measuring horizontal distance by stepping
(A) Up-hill
(B) Down-hill
(C) In low undulations
(D) In plane areas
Answer: Option A

Question No. 80
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The apparent error on reversal is twice the actual error
(B) The correction may be made equal to half the observed discrepancy
(C) The good results may be obtained from a defective instrument by reversing and taking the
mean of two erroneous results
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 81
Which of the following methods of plane table surveying is used to locate the position of an
inaccessible point?
(A) Radiation
(B) Intersection
 (C) Traversing
(D) Resection
Answer: Option B

Question No. 82
Imaginary line passing through points having equal magnetic declination is termed as
(A) Isogon
(B) Agonic line
(C) Isoclinic line
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 83
Which one of the following statements is correct?
(A) When the axes of rotation of the graduated circle and the verniers are not coincident, the
instrument possesses eccentricity
(B) The mean of the readings of the two verniers gives correct reading free from the eccentricity
(C) One Vernier may be used if the readings of two verniers differ by a constant
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 84
In geodetic surveys higher accuracy is achieved, if
(A) Curvature of the earth surface is ignored
(B) Curvature of the earth surface is taken into account
(C) Angles between the curved lines are treated as plane angles
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 85
The bearings of the lines AB and BC are 146° 30' and 68° 30'. The included angle ABC is
(A) 102°
(B) 78°
(C) 45°
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 86
Transit rule of adjusting the consecutive coordinates of a traverse is used where
(A) Linear and angular measurements of the traverse are of equal accuracy
(B) Angular measurements are more accurate than linear measurements
(C) Linear measurements are more accurate than angular measurements
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option B
Question No. 87
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The lines of sight while observing back sight and fore sight lie in the same horizontal plane
(B) The staff readings are measurements made vertically downwards from a horizontal plane
(C) The horizontal plane with reference to which staff readings are taken, coincides with the
level surface through the telescope axis
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 88
The operation of resection involves the following steps
1. Rough orientation of the plane table
2. The three lines form a triangle of error
3. Drawing lines back through the three control points
4. Select a point in the triangle of error such that each ray is equally rotated either clockwise or
anti clockwise
5. The points obtained by three rays are the correct location.
The correct sequence is
(A) 1, 3, 2, 4, 5
(B) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
(C) 1, 4, 3, 2, 5
(D) 1, 3, 2, 4, 5
Answer: Option A

Question No. 89
The lens equation 1/f = 1/ + 1/ is applicable
(A) When the thickness of the lens is small
(B) Only to conjugate distances along the principal axis
(C) The computed quantities are accurate enough for geometrical optics of simple distances
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 90
For true difference in elevations between two points and , the level must be set up
(A) At any point between A and B
(B) At the exact midpoint of A and B
(C) Near the point A
(D) Near the point B
Answer: Option B

Question No. 91
If the focal length of the object glass is 25 cm and the distance from object glass to the trunnion
axis is 15 cm, the additive constant
(A) 0.1
(B) 0.4
 (C) 0.6
(D) 1.33
Answer: Option B

Question No. 92
Diurnal variation of magnetic declination is
(A) Greater at equator than nearer the poles
(B) Less at equator than nearer the poles
(C) Less in summer than in winter
(D) Same at all latitudes and during different months
Answer: Option B

Question No. 93
Rankine's deflection angle in minutes is obtained by multiplying the length of the chord by
(A) Degree of the curve
(B) Square of the degree of the curve
(C) Inverse of the degree of the curve
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 94
In case of a double line river, contours are
(A) Stopped at the banks of the river
(B) Stopped at the edge of the river
(C) Drawn across the water
(D) Drawn by parabolic curves having their vertex at the centre of the water
Answer: Option B

Question No. 95
The branch of surveying in which both horizontal and vertical positions of a point, are determined
by making instrumental observations, is known
(A) Tacheometry
(B) Tachemetry
(C) Telemetry
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 96
Refraction correction
(A) Completely eliminates curvature correction
(B) Partially eliminates curvature correction
(C) Adds to the curvature correction
(D) Has no effect on curvature correction
Answer: Option B
Question No. 97
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) In the earth's magnetic field, a magnetic needle rests in magnetic meridian
(B) The angle between the true meridian and the magnetic meridian is called magnetic variation
(C) One end of the magnetic needle supported at its centre of gravity tends to dip down
towards the nearer magnetic pole of the earth
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 98
If the plane table is not horizontal in a direction at right angles to the alidade, the line of sight is
parallel to the fiducial edge only for
(A) Horizontal sights
(B) Inclined sights upward
(C) Inclined sight downward
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 99
The conventional sign shown in below figure represents a

(A) Bridge carrying railway below road

(B) Bridge carrying road below railway
(C) Bridge carrying road and railway at the same level
(D) A level crossing
Answer: Option B

Question No. 100

In optical reading instruments
(A) The vertical circle is usually continuous from 0° to 359°
(B) The readings increase when the telescope is elevated in the face left position
(C) The readings decrease when the telescope is elevated in the face right position
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 101

Select the correct statement.
(A) A contour is not necessarily a closed curve.
 (B) A contour represents a ridge line if the concave side of lower value contour lies towards the
higher value contour
(C) Two contours of different elevations do not cross each other except in case of an
overhanging cliff
(D) All of the above statements are correct
Answer: Option C

Question No. 102

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) If the slope of the curve of a mass diagram in the direction of increasing abscissa is
downward, it indicates an embankment
(B) The vertical distance between a maximum ordinate and the next forward maximum ordinate
represents the whole volume of the embankment
(C) The vertical distance between a minimum ordinate and the next forward maximum ordinate
represents the whole volume of a cutting
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 103

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The diaphragm is placed between eyepiece and the objective but nearer to the former
(B) The diaphragm is placed between the eyepiece and objective but nearer to the later
(C) The outer component of the objective is a double-convex lens of crown glass
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 104

If the whole circle bearing of a line is 270°, its reduced bearing is
(A) N 90° W
(B) S 90° W
(C) W 90°
(D) 90° W
Answer: Option C

Question No. 105

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The length of the brass handle is included in the length of chain
(B) The handles are on swivel joints to prevent twisting of the chain
(C) The fifth tag from either end of the chain is numbered 5
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 106

The process of determining the locations of the instrument station by drawing re sectors from the
locations of the known stations is
 (A) Radiation
(B) Intersection
(C) Resection
(D) Traversing
Answer: Option C

Question No. 107

Surveys which are carried out to depict mountains, rivers, water bodies, wooded areas and other
cultural details, are known as
(A) Cadastral surveys
(B) City surveys
(C) Topographical surveys
(D) Guide map surveys
Answer: Option C

Question No. 108

The operation of revolving a plane table about its vertical axis so that all lines on the sheet
become parallel to corresponding lines on the ground, is known
(A) Levelling
(B) Centering
(C) Orientation
(D) Setting
Answer: Option C

Question No. 109

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) With both handles in his left hand, the chain man throws out the chain with his right hand
and the second chain man assists him to free it from knots
(B) The follower of the chaining operation should be more experienced than the leader
(C) At the end of the tenth chain length, the two chain men meet and the ten arrows are
handed over to the leader
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 110

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) In astronomical telescope, the rays from the object after refraction at the objective are
brought to a focus before entering the eyepiece to produce a real inverted image in front of
the eye piece
(B) In Galileo's telescope, the rays from the object get refracted at the objective and are
intercepted by the eyepiece before a real image is formed
(C) A line passing through the optical centre of the objective traversing through the eyepiece, is
called line of sight
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 111
The number of horizontal cross wires in a stadia diaphragm is
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Answer: Option C

Question No. 112

Total latitude of a point is positive if it lies
(A) North of the reference parallel
(B) South of the reference parallel
(C) East of the reference parallel
(D) West of the reference parallel
Answer: Option A

Question No. 113

If the length of a transition curve to be introduced between a straight and a circular curve of
radius 500 m is 90 m, the maximum deflection angle to locate its junction point, is
(A) 1°43' 08"
(B) 1°43' 18"
(C) 1°43' 28"
(D) 1°43' 38"
Answer: Option C

Question No. 114

Under ordinary conditions, the precision of a theodolite traverse is affected by
(A) Systematic angular errors
(B) Accidental linear errors
(C) Systematic linear errors
(D) Accidental angular errors
Answer: Option C

Question No. 115

The sum of the interior angles of a geometrical figure laid on the surface of the earth differs from
that of the corresponding plane figure only to the extent of one second for every
(A) 100 sq. km of area
(B) 150 sq. km of area
(C) 200 sq. km of area
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 116

 (A) 94.80 m
(B) 99.71 m
(C) 100.29 m
(D) 105.20 m
Answer: Option D

Question No. 117

An angle of deflection right, may be directly obtained by setting the instrument to read
(A) Zero on back station
(B) 180° on back station
(C) 90°
(D) 270° on back station
Answer: Option A

Question No. 118

The bellow picture is the conventional sign of

(A) Temple
(B) Mosque
(C) Fort
(D) Church
Answer: Option A

Question No. 119

Location of contour gradient for a high way is best set out from
(A) Ridge down the hill
(B) Saddle down the hill
(C) Bottom to the ridge
(D) Bottom to the saddle
Answer: Option B

Question No. 120

Setting out a curve by two theodolite method, involves
(A) Linear measurements only
(B) Angular measurements only
(C) Both linear and angular measurements
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 121

Direct method of contouring is
(A) A quick method
(B) Adopted for large surveys only
 (C) Most accurate method
(D) Suitable for hilly terrains
Answer: Option C

Question No. 122

A lemniscate curve will not be transitional throughout, if its deflection angle, is
(A) 45°
(B) 60°
(C) 90°
(D) 120°
Answer: Option A

Question No. 123

If vertical angles of inclined sights do not exceed 10° and non-verticality of the staff remains within
1°, stadia system of tacheometric observations are made on
(A) Staff normal
(B) Staff vertical
(C) Staff normal as well as vertical
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 124

The staff reading at a distance of 80 m from a level with the bubble at its centre is 1.31 m. When
the bubble is moved by 5 divisions out of the centre, the reading is 1.39 m. The angular value of
the one division of the bubble, is
(A) 28.8 sec
(B) 41.25 sec
(C) 14.52 sec
(D) 25.05
Answer: Option B

Question No. 125

On a diagonal scale, it is possible to read up to
(A) One dimension
(B) Two dimensions
(C) Three dimensions
(D) Four dimensions
Answer: Option C

Question No. 126

The methods used for locating the plane table stations are
(i) Radiation
(ii) Traversing
(iii) Intersection
(iv) Resection
 The correct answer is
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (iii) and (iv)
(C) (ii) and (iv)
(D) (i) and (iii)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 127

Reduced bearing of a line is an angle between
(A) North line and given line measured clockwise
(B) North line and given line measured anticlockwise
(C) East or west and the given line
(D) Given line and the part of the meridian whether N end or S end, lying adjacent to it
Answer: Option D

Question No. 128

In horizontal angles, the error due to imperfect levelling of the plate bubble is
(A) Large when sights are nearly level
(B) Large for long sights
(C) Less for steeply inclined sights
(D) Large for steeply inclined sights
Answer: Option D

Question No. 129

If the chain line which runs along N-S direction is horizontal and the ground in E-W direction is
sloping
(A) It is possible to set offsets correctly on east side
(B) It is possible to set offsets correctly on east side
(C) It is not possible to set offsets correctly on west side
(D) It is possible to set offsets correctly on both sides
Answer: Option D

Question No. 130

If is the difference in level between end points separated by , then the slope correction
is [(h²/2l) + (h4/8l3)]. The second term may be neglected if the value of in a 20 m distance is less
than
(A) ½ m
(B) 1 m
(C) 2 m
(D) 3 m
Answer: Option D

Question No. 131

With the rise of temperature, the sensitivity of a bubble tube
(A) Decreases
 (B) Increases
(C) Remains unaffected
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 132

Flint glass
(A) Has slightly the greater refracting power than crown glass
(B) Has roughly double refracting power than that of crown
(C) And crown glass proportions yield the required focal length and neutralise the dispersion
produced by the convex lens at the emergence from the concave
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 133

The imaginary line passing through the intersection of cross hairs and the optical centre of the
objective, is known as
(A) Line of sight
(B) Line of collimation
(C) Axis of the telescope
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 134

During levelling if back sight is more than foresight
(A) The forward staff is at lower point
(B) The back staff is at lower point
(C) The difference in level, cannot be ascertained
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 135

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The tangent screw enables to give small movement under conditions of smooth and positive
control
(B) Standing on the tripod is the levelling head or trib arch
(C) The levelling screws are used to tilt the instrument so that its rotation axis is truly vertical
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 136

Closed contours, with higher value inwards, represent a
(A) Depression
(B) Hillock
(C) Plain surface
 (D) None of the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 137

If is the difference in height between end points of a chain of length , the required slope
correction is
(A) h²/2l
(B) h/2l
(C) h²/l
(D) 2h²/2l
Answer: Option A

Question No. 138

The instrument which is used in plane tabling for obtaining horizontal and vertical distances
directly without resorting to chaining, is known as
(A) Plane alidade
(B) Telescopic alidade
(C) Clinometer
(D) Tacheometer
Answer: Option B

Question No. 139

Pick up the correct statement from the following
(A) The contour lines having the same elevation cannot unite and continue as one line
(B) A contour can not end abruptly, but must ultimately close itself not necessarily within the
limits of map
(C) The direction of steepest slope at a point on a contour is at right angles to the contour
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 140

An imaginary line joining the points of equal elevation on the surface of the earth, represents
(A) Contour surface
(B) Contour gradient
(C) Contour line
(D) Level line
Answer: Option C

Question No. 141

If in a closed traverse, the sum of the north latitudes is more than the sum of the south latitudes
and also the sum of west departures than the sum of the east departures, the bearing of the
closing line is in the
(A) NE quadrant
(B) SE quadrant
(C) NW quadrant
 (D) SW quadrant
Answer: Option B

Question No. 142

The ratio of the angles subtended at the eye, by the virtual image and the object, is known as
telescopes
(A) Resolving power
(B) Brightness
(C) Field of view
(D) Magnification
Answer: Option D

Question No. 143

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Mistakes arise from inattention, inexperience or carelessness
(B) Systematic errors persist and have regular effects in the survey performances
(C) Accidental errors occur inspite of every precaution is taken
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 144

To orient a plane table at a point with two inaccessible points, the method generally adopted, is
(A) Intersection
(B) Resection
(C) Radiation
(D) Two point problem
Answer: Option D

Question No. 145

In quadrantal bearing system, back bearing of a line may be obtained from its forward bearing, by
(A) Adding 180°, if the given bearing is less than 180°
(B) Subtracting 180°, if the given bearing, is more than 180°
(C) Changing the cardinal points, i.e. substituting N for S and E for W and vice-versa
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 146

due to curvature of earth is proportional

(A) d
(B) 1/d
(C) d²
(D) 1/d²
Answer: Option C
Question No. 147
Back bearing of a line is equal to
(A) Fore bearing ± 90°
(B) Fore bearing ± 180°
(C) Fore bearing ± 360°
(D) Fore bearing ± 270°
Answer: Option B

Question No. 148

To orient a plane table at a point roughly south of the mid-point of two inaccessible conical hill
stations and in the plains, a point is selected in line with AB and table is oriented at by
bringing ab in line with AB. A ray is then drawn towards and at the table is oriented by back
ray method. The orientation so obtained, is
(A) Unique and correct
(B) Incorrect
(C) Manifold and correct
(D) Not reliable
Answer: Option C

Question No. 149

While setting a plane table at a station it was found that the error in centering was 30 cm away
from the ray of length 40 m drawn from the station. If the scale of the plan is 1 cm = 2 cm, the
displacement of the end of the ray in plan from the true position will be
(A) 0.02 cm
(B) 0.15 cm
(C) 0.2 cm
(D) 0.1 cm
Answer: Option B

Question No. 150

is the measured distance, the correction is
(A) 2l sin
2

(B) 2l cos2
(C) 2l tan2
(D) 2l cot2
Answer: Option A

Question No. 151

The type of surveying which requires least office work is
(A) Tachometry
(B) Trigonometrical levelling
(C) Plane table surveying
(D) Theodolite surveying
Answer: Option C
Question No. 152
The main plate of a transit is divided into 1080 equal divisions. 60 divisions of the Vernier coincide
exactly with 59 divisions of the main plate. The transit can read angles accurate upto
(A) 5"
(B) 10"
(C) 15"
(D) 20"
Answer: Option D

Question No. 153

The ratio of the length of long chord and the tangent length of a circular curve of radius R

(A) sin
(B) cos
(C) 2 sin
(D) 2 cos
Answer: Option D

Question No. 154

(A) - 1) m
(B) - 1) m
(C) - 1) m
(D) - 1) m
Answer: Option A

Question No. 155

For a closed traverse the omitted measurements may be calculated
(A) Length of one side only
(B) Bearing of one side only
(C) Both length and bearing of one side
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 156

Horizontal distances obtained by thermometric observations
(A) Require slope correction
(B) Require tension correction
(C) Require slope and tension corrections
(D) Do not require slope and tension corrections
Answer: Option D

Question No. 157

A clinometer is used for
(A) Measuring angle of slope
 (B) Correcting line of collimation
(C) Setting out right angles
(D) Defining natural features
Answer: Option A

Question No. 158

If L is the specified length of a tape, L1 its actual length and S the measured distance, then, the true
distance is given by the formula,
(A) /L) × S
(B) (L/ × S
(C) (L - /L × S
(D) /L)² × S
Answer: Option A

Question No. 159

In a perfect prismatic compass
(A) Magnetic axis and geometric axis of the needle coincide
(B) Ends of the needle and pivot are in same vertical and horizontal planes
(C) Pivot is vertically over the centre of the graduated circle
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 160

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Box sextant is used for the measurement of horizontal angles
(B) Cross staff is used for setting out right angles
(C) Gradiometer is used for setting out any required gradient
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 161

Sensitiveness of a level tube is designated by
(A) Radius of level tube
(B) Length of level tube
(C) Length of bubble of level tube
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 162

The formula for the horizontal distances for inclined sights, on staff held normalis
(f/i) s f+d h
(A) Minus sign is used for angle of depression
(B) Plus sign is used for angle of depression
(C) Minus sign is used for angle of elevation
(D) None of these
 Answer: Option A

Question No. 163

Accidental or compensating errors of length are proportional to
(A) L
(B)
(C) L
(D) L
Answer: Option B

Question No. 164

The latitude of a traverse leg is obtained by multiplying its length by
(A) Tangent of its reduced bearing
(B) Sign of its reduced bearing
(C) Cosine of its reduced bearing
(D) Cosecant of its reduced bearing
Answer: Option

Question No. 165

If D is the degree of the curve of radius R, the exact length of its specified chord, is
(A) Radius of the curve × sine of half the degree
(B) Diameter of the curve × sine of half the degree
(C) Diameter of the curve × cosine of half the degree
(D) Diameter of the curve × tangent of half the degree
Answer: Option B

Question No. 166

Benchmark is established by
(A) Hypsometry
(B) Barometric levelling
(C) Spirit levelling
(D) Trigonometrical levelling
Answer: Option C

Question No. 167

If a tacheometer is fitted with an anal-latic lens
(A) Additive constant is 100, multiplying constant is zero
(B) Multiplying constant is 100, additive constant is zero
(C) Both multiplying and additive constants are 100
(D) Both multiplying and additive constants are 50
Answer: Option B

Question No. 168

Short offsets are measured with
(A) An ordinary chain
 (B) An invar tape
(C) A metallic tape
(D) A steel tape
Answer: Option A

Question No. 169

The representation of general topography of a very flat terrain is possible only
(A) By drawing contours at large interval
(B) By drawing contours at small interval
(C) By giving spot levels at large interval
(D) By giving spot levels to salient features at close interval
Answer: Option D

Question No. 170

True meridian of different places
(A) Converge from the South Pole to the North Pole
(B) Converge from the North Pole to the South Pole
(C) Converge from the equator to the poles
(D) Run parallel to each other
Answer: Option C

Question No. 171

The angle between the prolongation of the preceding line and the forward line of a traverse is
called
(A) Deflection angle
(B) Included angle
(C) Direct angle
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 172

To set out a parallel from a given inaccessible point to a given line AB, the following observations
are made:
Distance AB and angle PAM = a and angle PBA = b are measured where M is a point on the
line BA produced. The perpendicular to the desired parallel line from A and B are:
(A) AB/(cot b - cot a)
(B) AB/(cos b - cos a)
(C) AB/(cot a - cot b)
(D) AB/(cot a - cos b)
Answer: Option A

Question No. 173

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) A refracting telescope consists optically of two lenses
(B) The principal axes of both the lenses coincide the optical axis of the telescope
 (C) The lens nearer the object to be viewed is convex and is called objective
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 174

In case of a direct vernier scale
(A) Graduations increase in opposite direction in which graduations of the main scale increase
(B) Smallest division is longer than smallest division of the main scale
(C) Graduations increase in the same direction in which graduations of the main scale increase
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 175

The operation of making the algebraic sum of latitudes and departures of a closed traverse, each
equal to zero, is known
(A) Balancing the sights
(B) Balancing the departures
(C) Balancing the latitudes
(D) Balancing the traverse
Answer: Option D

Question No. 176

Dumpy level is most suitable when
(A) The instrument is to be shifted frequently
(B) Fly levelling is being done over long distance
(C) Many readings are to be taken from a single setting of the instrument
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 177

Magnetic declination at any place
(A) Remains constant
(B) Does not remain constant
(C) Fluctuates
(D) Changes abruptly
Answer: Option B

Question No. 178

l, the required slope correction is
(A) 2l cos2

(B) 2l sin2
(C) l tan2
(D) l cos2
Answer: Option B
Question No. 179
The combined effect of curvature and refraction over a distance kilometres is
(A) 67.2 L2 mm
(B) 76.3 L2 mm
(C) 64.5 L2 mm
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 180

The systematic errors which persist and have regular effects in the performance of a survey
operation are due to
(A) Carelessness
(B) Faulty instrument
(C) Inattention
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 181

The instrument used for accurate centering in plane table survey is
(A) Spirit level
(B) Alidade
(C) Plumbing fork
(D) Trough compass
Answer: Option C

Question No. 182

Accuracy of elevation of various points obtained from contour map is limited to
(A) ½ of the contour interval
(B) ¼ th of the contour interval
(C) rd of the contour interval
(D) th of the contour interval
Answer: Option A

Question No. 183

The curvature of the earth's surface, is taken into account only if the extent of survey is more than
(A) 100 sq km
(B) 160 sq km
(C) 200 sq km
(D) 260 sq km
Answer: Option D

Question No. 184

The theodolites used for making tacheometric observations by optical wedge system, are
(A) Provided with stadia hairs in front of eye piece
(B) Not provided with stadia hairs at all
 (C) Fitted with a glass wedge inside the telescope
(D) Fitted with a glass wedge in front of telescope
Answer: Option D

Question No. 185

When the bubble of the level tube of a level, remains central
(A) Line of sight is horizontal
(B) Axis of the telescope is horizontal
(C) Line of collimation is horizontal
(D) Geometrical axis of the telescope is horizontal
Answer: Option A

Question No. 186

An imaginary line lying throughout the surface of ground and preserving a constant inclination to
the horizontal is known as
(A) Contour line
(B) Horizontal equivalent
(C) Contour interval
(D) Contour gradient
Answer: Option D

Question No. 187

Accurate measurement of deflection angles with a transit not properly adjusted may be made by
(A) Setting the Vernier A at zero at back station and then plunging the telescope
(B) Setting the Vernier A at zero at back station and turning the instrument to the forward
station
(C) Taking two back sights one with the telescope normal and the other with telescope inverted
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 188

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The framework which consists of a series of connected lines, the lengths and directions of
which are found from measurements, is called a traverse
(B) The system of a series of lines which forms a circuit which ends at the starting point, is called
a closed traverse
(C) The traverse that starts from a point already fixed in some survey system and ends on
another such point, is called a controlled traverse
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 189

The reduced level of a floor is 99.995 m, the staff reading on the floor is 1.505 m. If the inverted
staff reading against the roof is 1.795 m, the floor level below the slab, is
(A) 3.290 m
 (B) 3.300 m
(C) 3.275 m
(D) 2.790 m
Answer: Option B

Question No. 190

Probable systematic error in precise levelling as recommended by International Geodetic
Association should not exceed (where is in kilometers.)
(A) ± 0.1 k mm
(B) ± 0.2 k mm
(C) ± 0.1 k
(D) 0.2 k mm
Answer: Option D

Question No. 191

The resection by two point problem as compared to three point problem
(A) Gives more accurate problem
(B) Takes less time
(C) Requires more labour
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 192

The co-ordinate of a point measured perpendicular to the parallel, is called
(A) Total latitude
(B) Meridian distance
(C) Total departure
(D) Consecutive co-ordinate
Answer: Option A

Question No. 193

The bearing of C from A is N 30° E and from B, 50 metres east of A, is N 60° W. The departure
of C from A is
(A) 50 m
(B) 50 m
(C) 25 m
(D) 25 m
Answer: Option D

Question No. 194

If h1 and h2 are the differences in level between ground and the formation levels, m is the slope of
the sloping sides. D is the distance between the cross sections then, Prismoidal correction for a
level section is
(A) D/2m(h1 - h2)
(B) D/3m(h1 - h2)
 (C) D/6m(h1 - h2)2
(D) D/6m(h1 - h2)3
Answer: Option C

Question No. 195

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The eyepiece plays no part in defining the line of sight
(B) The diaphragm plays no part in defining the line of sight
(C) The optical centre of the objective plays no part in defining the line of sight
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 196

The suitable contour interval for a map with scale 1 : 10000 is
(A) 2 m
(B) 5 m
(C) 10 m
(D) 20 m
Answer: Option A

Question No. 197

In an adjusted level, when the bubble is central, the axis of the bubble tube becomes parallel to
(A) Line of sight
(B) Line of collimation
(C) Axis of the telescope
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 198

Ranging is an operation of
(A) Reconnaissance
(B) Judging the distance
(C) Determination of slope
(D) Establishing intermediate points between terminals
Answer: Option D

Question No. 199

Locating the position of a plane table station with reference to three known points, is known as
(A) Intersection method
(B) Radiation method
(C) Resection method
(D) Three point problem
Answer: Option D
Question No. 200
If f1 and f2 are the distances from the optical centre of a convex lens of focal length to conjugate
two points P1 and P2 respectively, the following relationship holds good
(A) f = f1 + f2
(B) f = ½ (f1 + f2)
(C) 1/f = 1/f1 + 1/f2
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 201

If the intercept on a vertical staff is observed as 0.75 m from a tachometer, the horizontal distance
between tachometer and staff
(A) 7.5 m
(B) 25 m
(C) 50 m
(D) 75 m
Answer: Option D

Question No. 202

Simpson's rule for calculating areas states that the area enclosed by a curvilinear figure divided
into an even number of strips of equal width, is equal to
(A) Half the width of a strip, multiplied by the sum of two extreme offsets, twice the sum of
remaining odd offsets, and thrice the sum of the even offsets
(B) One-third the width of a strip, multiplied by the sum of two extreme offsets, twice the sum
of remaining odd offsets and four times the sum of the even offsets
(C) One-third the width of a strip, multiplied by the sum of two extreme offsets, four times the
sum of the remaining odd offsets, and twice the sum of the even offsets
(D) One-sixth the width of a strip, multiplied by the sum of the two extreme offsets, twice the
sum of remaining odd offsets and four times the sum of the even offsets
Answer: Option B

Question No. 203

The ratio of the distances at which a stated length can be distinguished by the telescope and the
human eye, respectively, is called
(A) Brightness of telescope
(B) Magnification of telescope
(C) Resolving power of telescope
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 204

The radius of a simple circular curve is 300 m and length of its specified chord is 30 m. The degree
of the curve is
(A) 5.73°
(B) 5.37°
 (C) 3.57°
(D) 3.75°
Answer: Option A

Question No. 205

If the shift and the length of
the transition curve, then, total tangent length of the curve, is
(A) (R - S - L/2
(B) (R + S - L/2
(C) (R + S L/2
(D) (R - S L/2
Answer: Option C

Question No. 206

A series of closely spaced contour lines represents a
(A) Steep slope
(B) Gentle slope
(C) Uniform slope
(D) Plane surface
Answer: Option A

Question No. 207

In an internal focusing telescope
(A) The objective is at a fixed distance from the diaphragm
(B) The focusing is done by the sliding of a divergent lens
(C) The focusing divergent lens is situated at about the middle of the tube
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 208

During secular variation of magnetic meridian at different places
(A) Range of oscillations is constant
(B) Period of oscillation is constant
(C) Range and period of oscillation both vary
(D) Period of oscillation only varies
Answer: Option C

Question No. 209

(A) 100 2
(B) 100
(C) 100 3
(D) 100 -1
Answer: Option B
Question No. 210
While viewing through a level telescope and moving the eye slightly, a relative movement occurs
between the image of the levelling staff and the cross hairs. The instrument is
(A) Correctly focussed
(B) Not correctly focussed
(C) Said to have parallax
(D) Free from parallax
Answer: Option C

Question No. 211

Intersection method of detailed plotting is most suitable for
(A) Forests
(B) Urban areas
(C) Hilly areas
(D) Plains
Answer: Option C

Question No. 212

While measuring a chain line between two stations and intervened by a raised ground
(A) Vision gets obstructed
(B) Chaining gets obstructed
(C) Both vision and chaining get obstructed
(D) All the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 213

Mistakes which may produce a very serious effect upon the final results arise due to
(A) In attention
(B) In experience
(C) Carelessness
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 214

Numbers of links per metre length of a chain are
(A) 2
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 10
Answer: Option B

Question No. 215

Offsets are measured with an accuracy of 1 in 40. If the point on the paper from both sources of
error (due to angular and measurement errors) is not to exceed 0.05 cm on a scale of 1 cm = 20 m,
the maximum length of offset should be limited to
 (A) 14.14 m
(B) 28.28 m
(C) 200 m
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 216

The 'point of curve' of a simple circular curve, is
(A) Point of tangency
(B) Point of commencement
(C) Point of intersection
(D) Mid-point of the curve
Answer: Option B

Question No. 217

Prolongation of chain line across an obstruction in chain surveying, is done by
(A) Making angular measurements
(B) Drawing perpendiculars with a chain
(C) Solution of triangles
(D) All the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 218

Resolving power of a telescope depends on
(A) The diameter of the aperture
(B) The pupil aperture of the eye
(C) The diameter of the object glass
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 219

ABCD is a regular parallelogram plot of land whose angle BAD is 60°. If the bearing of the line AB is
30°, the bearing of CD, is
(A) 90°
(B) 120°
(C) 210°
(D) 270°
Answer: Option C

Question No. 220

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) If the image of the object does not fall on the plane of the cross-lines, parallax exists
(B) Parallax has nothing to do with the eyepiece
(C) The eyepiece is adjusted for clear vision of the cross hairs
(D) All the above
 Answer: Option D

Question No. 221

The Huygens telescope eye piece
(A) Is aplanatic
(B) Achromatic
(C) Both (a) and (b)
(D) Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 222

The bearing of lines OA and OB are 16° 10' and 332° 18', the value of the included angle BOA is
(A) 316° 10'
(B) 158° 28'
(C) 348° 08'
(D) 43° 52'
Answer: Option D

Question No. 223

For a curve of radius 100 m and normal chord 10 m, the Rankine's deflection angle, is
(A) 0°25'.95
(B) 0°35'.95
(C) 1°25'.53
(D) 2°51'.53
Answer: Option D

Question No. 224

The reduced bearing of a line is N 87° W. Its whole circle bearing is
(A) 87°
(B) 273°
(C) 93°
(D) 3°
Answer: Option B

Question No. 225

While surveying a plot of land by plane tabling, the field observations
(A) And plotting proceed simultaneously
(B) And plotting do not proceed simultaneously
(C) And recorded in field books to be plotted later
(D) All the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 226

The back staff reading on a B.M. of R.L. 500.000 m is 2.685 m. If foresight reading on a point is
1.345 m, the reduced level of the point, is
 (A) 502.685 m
(B) 501.345 m
(C) 501.340 m
(D) 504.030 m
Answer: Option C

Question No. 227

Let angular value of one graduation of a tube of length be the radius of
its internal curved surface, then
(A) = x/206265 R
(B) = R/206265 x
(C) = 206265/x. R
(D) = x. R/206265
Answer: Option A

Question No. 228

If is in kilometres, the curvature correction is
(A) 58.2 L2 mm
(B) 64.8 L2 mm
(C) 74.8 L2 mm
(D) 78.4 L2 mm
Answer: Option D

Question No. 229

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) To locate a gross error in bearing that may exist in controlled theodolite traverse, we may
plot the traverse from each end. The traverse station having the same coordinates by each
route is the one where the error lies
(B) To locate a gross error in bearing, in a controlled traverse, we plot the traverse and the
station through which perpendicular to sector of the closing line passes is the station at
which the error was made
(C) To locate a gross error due to taping in a controlled traverse, we plot the traverse to a
convenient scale. The bearing of the closing error will be approximately the same as that of
the leg in which the gross error consists
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 230

Permanent adjustments of a level are
(A) 2 in number
(B) 3 in number
(C) 4 in number
(D) 6 in number
Answer: Option A
Question No. 231
Orientation of a plane table by solving two point problems is only adopted when
(A) Saving of time is a main factor
(B) Better accuracy is a main factor
(C) Given points are inaccessible
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 232

If is the speed of a locomotive in km per hour, g is the acceleration due to gravity, is the
distance between running faces of the rails and is the radius of the circular curve, the required
super elevation is
(A) gV²/GR
(B) Rg/GV²
(C) GR/gV²
(D) GV²/gR
Answer: Option D

Question No. 233

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Spherical aberration may be reduced by diminishing the aperture
(B) Spherical aberration may be minimised by replacing the single lens by a combination of the
lenses
(C) In telescope objectives, a combination of convex lens and concave lens is used
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 234

The method generally preferred to for contouring an undulating area, is
(A) Chain surveying
(B) Plane table surveying
(C) Tacheometrical surveying
(D) Compass surveying
Answer: Option C

Question No. 235

Measuring with a 30 m chain, 0.01 m too short, introduces
(A) Positive compensating error
(B) Negative compensating error
(C) Positive cumulative error
(D) Negative cumulative error
Answer: Option C
Question No. 236
The ratio of the radius and apex distance of a curve deflecting
(A) -1
(B) 1 -
(C) -1
(D) -1
Answer: Option A

Question No. 237

In setting up a plane table at any station
(A) Levelling is done first
(B) Centering is done first
(C) Both levelling and centering are done simultaneously
(D) Orientation is done first
Answer: Option C

Question No. 238

Staff readings on pegs x and y from X station are 1.755 m and 2.850 m, and from station Y on staff
head at Y and X are 0.655 m and 1.560 m. If reduced level of X is 105.5 m, the reduced level of Y is
(A) 104.0 m
(B) 104.5 m
(C) 105.0 m
(D) 105.5 m
Answer: Option B

Question No. 239

Metric chains are generally available in
(A) 10 m and 20 m length
(B) 15 m and 20 m length
(C) 20 m and 30 m length
(D) 25 m and 100 m length
Answer: Option C

Question No. 240

The bearing of AB is 190° and that of CB is 260° 30'. The included angle ABC, is
(A) 80° 30'
(B) 99° 30'
(C) 70° 30'
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 241

Pick up the correct statement from the following
(A) 1 second of arc corresponds to a displacement ratio of 1:206, 300
(B) 1 degree of arc corresponds to a displacement ratio of 1:57
 (C) The angular errors tend to propagate themselves along a traverse as the square root of the
number of stations
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 242

Planimeter is used for measuring
(A) Volume
(B) Area
(C) Contour gradient
(D) Slope angle
Answer: Option B

Question No. 243

An ideal vertical curve to join two gradients, is
(A) Circular
(B) Parabolic
(C) Elliptical
(D) Hyperbolic
Answer: Option B

Question No. 244

The bubble tube is nearly filled with
(A) Alcohol or chloroform
(B) A liquid which is very mobile
(C) A liquid having low freezing point
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 245

Perpendicular offset from a tangent to the junction of a transition curve and circular curve is equal
to
(A) Shift
(B) Twice the shift
(C) Thrice the shift
(D) Four times the shift
Answer: Option D

Question No. 246

Determining the difference in elevation between two points on the surface of the earth, is known
as
(A) Levelling
(B) Simple levelling
(C) Differential levelling
(D) Longitudinal levelling
 Answer: Option C

Question No. 247

If arithmetic s and closing error in latitude is , the
correction for a side whose latitude is , as given by Transit Rule, is
(A) l ×
(B) l ×
(C) Lat × (dx/l)
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 248

In case of reduction of levels by the height of instrument method,
(A) B.S. -
(B) (R.L. + I + F.S.) -
(C) Both (a) and (b) above
(D) Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 249

The distance between terminal points computed from a subsidiary traverse run between them, is
generally known, as
(A) Traverse leg
(B) A base
(C) Traverse base
(D) All the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 250

The bearing of line AB is 152° 30' and angle ABC measured clockwise is 124° 28'. The bearing
of BC is
(A) 27° 52'
(B) 96° 58'
(C) 148° 08'
(D) 186° 58'
Answer: Option B

Question No. 251

The limiting length of an offset does not depend upon
(A) Accuracy of the work
(B) Method of setting out perpendiculars
(C) Scale of plotting
(D) Indefinite features to be surveyed
Answer: Option D
Question No. 252
Which one of the following procedures for getting accurate orientation is the most distinctive
feature of the art of plane tabling?
(A) Radiation
(B) Intersection
(C) Traversing
(D) Resection
Answer: Option D

Question No. 253

In a closed traverse, sum of south latitudes exceeds the sum of north latitudes and the sum of east
departures exceeds the sum of west departures, then, the closing line will lie in
(A) North-west quadrant
(B) North-east quadrant
(C) South-east quadrant
(D) South-west quadrant
Answer: Option A

Question No. 254

If the declination of the needle is 10° W
(A) Each of the whole circle reckoning has to be micros by 10°
(B) In the quadrantal method, the correction is positive in the 1st and 3rd quadrants
(C) In the quadrantal method, the corrections is negative in 2nd and 4th quadrants
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 255

The most reliable method of plotting a theodolite traverse, is
(A) By consecutive co-ordinates of each station
(B) By independent co-ordinates of each station
(C) By plotting included angles and scaling off each traverse leg
(D) By the tangent method of plotting
Answer: Option B

Question No. 256

The distance between steps for measuring downhill to obtain better accuracy
(A) Decreases with decrease of slope
(B) Increases with increase of slope
(C) Decreases with increase of slope
(D) Decreases with decrease of weight of the chain
Answer: Option C

Question No. 257

The boundary of water of a still lake represents
(A) Level surface
 (B) Horizontal surface
(C) Contour line
(D) A concave surface
Answer: Option C

Question No. 258

The 10 mm markings on a levelling staff placed at 20 m are separated by
(A) 1/1000 radian
(B) 1/1500 radian
(C) 1/2000 radian
(D) 1/2500 radian
Answer: Option C

Question No. 259

The sensitiveness of a level tube decreases if
(A) Radius of curvature of its inner surface is increased
(B) Diameter of the tube is increased
(C) Length of the vapour bubble is increased
(D) Both viscosity and surface tension are increased
Answer: Option D

Question No. 260

The orthographical projection of a traverse leg upon the reference meridian, is known as
(A) Departure of leg
(B) Latitude to the leg
(C) Co-ordinate of the leg
(D) Bearing of the leg
Answer: Option B

Question No. 261

The distances AC and BC are measured from two fixed points A and B whose distance AB is known.
The point C is plotted by intersection. This method is generally adopted in
(A) Chain surveying
(B) Traverse method of surveys
(C) Triangulation
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 262

The defect of a lens whereby rays of white light proceeding from a point get dispersed into their
components and conveyed to various foci, forming a blurred and coloured image is known as
(A) Chromatic aberration
(B) Spherical aberration
(C) Astigmatism
(D) Coma
 Answer: Option A

Question No. 263

A uniform slope was measured by the method of stepping. If the difference in level between two
points is 1.8 m and the slope distance between them is 15 m, the error is approximately equal to
(A) Cumulative, + 0.11 m
(B) Compensating, ± 0.11 m
(C) Cumulative, - 0.11 m
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 264

Systematic errors are those errors
(A) Which cannot be recognised
(B) Whose character is understood
(C) Whose effects are cumulative and can be eliminated
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 265

A dumpy level was set up at mid-point between pegs A and B, 80 m apart and the staff readings
were 1.32 and 1.56. When the level was set up at a point 10 m from A on BA produced, the staff
readings obtained at A and B were 1.11 and 1.39. The correct staff reading from this set up
at S should be
(A) 1.435
(B) 1.345
(C) 1.425
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 266

A transit is oriented by setting its vernier A to read the back azimuth of the preceding line. A back
sight on the preceding transit station taken and transit is rotated about its vertical axis. The
vernier A reads
(A) Azimuth of the forward line
(B) Bearing of the forward line
(C) Back bearing of the forward line
(D) Equal to 360°-azimuth of the forward line
Answer: Option A

Question No. 267

Two hill tops and 20 km apart are intervened by a third top . If the top most contour of
the three hill tops are of the same value, state whether the line of sight AB
(A) Passes clear of hill top C
(B) Passes below the hill top C
 (C) Grazes the hill top C
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 268

The bearings of two traverse legs AB and BC are N52° 45' E and N34° 30' E respectively. The
deflection angle is
(A) 18° 15' E
(B) 18° 15' N
(C) 18° 15' W
(D) 18° 15' L
Answer: Option D

Question No. 269

In a theodolite
(A) The telescope axis is perpendicular to transit axis
(B) The axis of rotation is perpendicular to transit axis
(C) The telescope axis, the transit axis and the rotation axis pass through the centre of
theodolite
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 270

For taking offsets with an optical square on the right hand side of the chain line, it is held
(A) By right hand upside down
(B) By left hand upright
(C) By right hand upright
(D) By left hand upside down
Answer: Option B

Question No. 271

, the error over the whole
length of the traverse of lines of length is
(A) l n
(B) n
(C) n
(D) n
Answer: Option A

Question No. 272

The magnetic meridian at any point, is the direction indicated by a freely suspended
(A) Magnetic needle
(B) And properly balanced magnetic needle
(C) Properly balanced and uninfluenced by local attractive force
(D) Magnetic needle over an iron pivot
 Answer: Option C

Question No. 273

Bergschrund is a topographical feature in
(A) Plains
(B) Water bodies
(C) Hills
(D) Glaciated region
Answer: Option B

Question No. 274

R, the distance between the mid-point of
the curve and long chord, is
(A) R (1 -
(B) R
(C) R
(D) R (1 -
Answer: Option D

Question No. 275

A relatively fixed point of known elevation above datum, is called
(A) Bench mark
(B) Datum point
(C) Reduced level
(D) Reference point
Answer: Option A

Question No. 276

The power of a lens
(A) Is reciprocal of its focal length
(B) Is positive if it is a convex lens
(C) Is negative if it is a concave lens
(D) Is measured in Diopter
Answer: Option D

Question No. 277

The approximate formula for radial or perpendicular offsets from the tangent, is
(A) x/2R
(B) x²/2R
(C) x/R
(D) x²/R
Answer: Option B

Question No. 278

The included angles of a theodolite traverse, are generally measured
 (A) Clockwise from the forward station
(B) Anti-clockwise from the back station
(C) Anti-clockwise from the forward station
(D) Clockwise from the back station
Answer: Option D

Question No. 279

The intercept of a staff
(A) Is maximum if the staff is held truly normal to the line of sight
(B) Is minimum if the staff is held truly normal to the line of sight
(C) Decreases if the staff is tilted away from normal
(D) Increases if the staff is tilted towards normal
Answer: Option B

Question No. 280

In a constant level tube, size of the bubble remains constant because upper wall is
(A) Of relatively larger radius
(B) Of relatively smaller radius
(C) Flat
(D) Convex downwards
Answer: Option A

Question No. 281

While measuring the distance between two points along upgrade with the help of a 20 m chain,
the forward end of the chain is shifted forward through a distance
(A) 20 (sin - 1)
(B) 20 (cos - 1)
(C) 20 (sec - 1)
(D) 20 (cosec - 1)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 282

Contours of different elevations may cross each other only in the case of
(A) An overhanging cliff
(B) A vertical cliff
(C) A saddle
(D) An inclined plane
Answer: Option A

Question No. 283

Diopter is the power of a lens having a focal length of
(A) 25 cm
(B) 50 cm
(C) 75 cm
(D) 100 cm
 Answer: Option D

Question No. 284

A theodolite is said to be in perfect adjustment if
(A) Rotation axis is vertical to the transit axis
(B) Transit axis is perpendicular to line of collimation
(C) Line of collimation sweeps out a vertical plane while the telescope is elevated or depressed
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 285

In chain surveying, perpendiculars to the chain line are set out by
(A) A theodolite
(B) A prismatic compass
(C) A level
(D) An optical square
Answer: Option D

Question No. 286

A lens or combination of lenses in which the following defect is completely eliminated is
called aplanatic
(A) Spherical aberration
(B) Chromatic aberration
(C) Coma
(D) Astigmatism
Answer: Option A

Question No. 287

Pick up the method of surveying in which field observations and plotting proceed simultaneously
from the following
(A) Chain surveying
(B) Compass surveying
(C) Plan table surveying
(D) Tacheometric surveying
Answer: Option C

Question No. 288

For orientation of a plane table with three points A, B and C, Bessel's drill is
(A) Align B through A and draw a ray towards C, align A through B and draw A ray towards C,
finally align C through the point of intersection of the previously drawn rays
(B) Align C through A and draw a ray towards B, align A through C and draw A ray towards B,
finally align B through the point of intersection of the previously drawn rays
(C) Align c through B and draw a ray towards A, align B through C and draw A ray towards A,
finally align A, through the point of intersection of the previously, drawn rays
 (D) In the first two steps any two of the points may be used and a ray drawn towards the third
point, which is sighted through the point of intersection of previously drawn rays in the final
step.
Answer: Option D

Question No. 289

Probable accidental error in precise levelling as recommended by International Geodetic
Association should not exceed (where k is in kilometers.)
(A) ± 0.1 k mm
(B) ± 0.5 k mm
(C) ± 1 k mm
(D) ± 5 k mm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 290

In a telescope the object glass of focal length 14 cm, is located at 20 cm from the diaphragm. The
focussing lens is midway between them when a staff 16.50 m away is focussed. The focal length of
the focussing lens, is
(A) 5.24 cm
(B) 6.24 cm
(C) 7.24 cm
(D) 8.24 cm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 291

The main principle of surveying is to work
(A) From part to the whole
(B) From whole to the part
(C) From higher level to the lower level
(D) From lower level to higher level
Answer: Option B

Question No. 292

T1 and T2 are its points of tangencies, the angle between
the tangent at T1 and long chord T1 T2 will be
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 293

The rise and fall method of reduction of levels, provides a check on
(A) Back sights
(B) Fore sights
 (C) Intermediate sights
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 294

The surface of zero elevation around the earth, which is slightly irregular and curved, is known as
(A) Mean sea level
(B) Geoid surface
(C) Level surface
(D) Horizontal surface
Answer: Option B

Question No. 295

If the rate of gain of radial acceleration is 0.3 m per sec3 and full centrifugal ratio is developed. On
the curve the ratio of the length of the transition curve of same radius on road and railway, is
(A) 2.828
(B) 3.828
(C) 1.828
(D) 0.828
Answer: Option A

Question No. 296

The apparent error on reversal is
(A) Equal to the actual error
(B) Twice the actual error
(C) Thrice the actual error
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 297

If the long chord and tangent length of a circular curve of radius R are equal the angle of
deflection, is
(A) 30°
(B) 60°
(C) 90°
(D) 120°
Answer: Option D

Question No. 298

In precision theodolite traverse if included angles are read twice and the mean reading accepted
using both verniers having a least count of 30". Assuming the instrument to be in perfect
adjustment, linear measurements correct to 6 mm per 30 metre tape duly corrected for
temperature, slope and sag, the angular error of closure not to exceed (where n is the number of
traverse legs)
(A) 50" n
 (B) 30" n
(C) 60" n
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 299

The diaphragm of a stadia theodolite is fitted with two additional
(A) Horizontal hairs
(B) Vertical hairs
(C) Horizontal and two vertical hairs
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 300

Magnetic bearing of a survey line at any place
(A) Remains constant
(B) Changes systematically
(C) Varies differently in different months of the year
(D) Is always greater than true bearing
Answer: Option C

Question No. 301

The chaining on sloping ground is
(A) Easier along the falling gradient
(B) Easier along the up gradient
(C) Equally convenient along falling as well as up gradient
(D) All the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 302

The additional lines which are measured to show the correctness of the chain surveying are called:
(A) Check clines
(B) Proof lines
(C) Tie lines
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 303

The best method of interpolation of contours, is by
(A) Estimation
(B) Graphical means
(C) Computation
(D) All of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 304
Greater accuracy in linear measurements, is obtained by
(A) Tacheometry
(B) Direct chaining
(C) Direct taping
(D) All the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 305

If the whole circle bearing of a line is 180°, its reduced bearing is
(A) S 0° E
(B) S 0° W
(C) S
(D) N
Answer: Option C

Question No. 306

s R, the length of its long chord, is
(A) R cos
(B) 2R cos
(C) R sin
(D) 2R sin
Answer: Option D

Question No. 307

Cross hairs in surveying telescopes, are fitted
(A) In the objective glass
(B) At the centre of the telescope
(C) At the optical centre of the eye piece
(D) In front of the eye piece
Answer: Option D

Question No. 308

Prismatic compass is considered more accurate than a surveyor's compass, because
(A) It is provided with a better magnetic needle
(B) It is provided with a sliding glass in the object vane
(C) Its graduations are in whole circle bearings
(D) It is provided with a prism to facilitate reading of its graduated circle
Answer: Option D

Question No. 309

For high sensivity of the bubble tube
(A) A liquid of low viscosity is used
(B) A liquid of low surface tension is used
(C) The bubble space should be long
 (D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 310

If 50 m point of a 100 m tape is 50 cm off line, and 50 m sections are straight, an error is generated
equal to
(A) 1/10,000
(B) 1/15,000
(C) 1/20,000
(D) 1/25,000
Answer: Option C

Question No. 311

The radius of curvature of the arc of the bubble tube is generally kept
(A) 10 m
(B) 25 m
(C) 50 m
(D) 100 m
Answer: Option D

Question No. 312

The direction of steepest slope on a contour, is
(A) Along the contour
(B) At an angle of 45° to the contour
(C) At right angles to the contour
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 313

The difference in the lengths of an arc and its subtended chord on the earth surface for a distance
of 18.2 km, is only
(A) 1 cm
(B) 5 cm
(C) 10 cm
(D) 100 cm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 314

If deflection angles are measured in a closed traverse, the difference between the sum of the
right-hand and that of the left hand angles should be equal to
(A) 0°
(B) 90°
(C) 180°
(D) 360°
Answer: Option D
Question No. 315
The accuracy of measurement in chain surveying, does not depend upon
(A) Length of the offset
(B) Scale of the plotting
(C) Importance of the features
(D) General layout of the chain lines
Answer: Option D

Question No. 316

The true meridian of a place is the line in which earth's surface is intersected by a plane through
(A) East and west points
(B) Zenith and nadir points
(C) North and south geographical poles
(D) North and south magnetic poles
Answer: Option C

Question No. 317

The area of any irregular figure of the plotted map is measured with
(A) Pentagraph
(B) Sextant
(C) Clinometer
(D) Planimeter
Answer: Option D

Question No. 318

If is the pull applied at the ends of tape in kg, is the length of tape between end marks in
metres, is the weight of the tape in kg per metre run, then sag correction
(A) C = w²l3/24F²
(B) C = w3l²/24F²
(C) C = w²l3/24F3
(D) C = 24w²l3/80F3
Answer: Option A

Question No. 319

(A) E = 1 -
(B) E = 1 -
(C) E = 1 -
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 320

The construction of optical square is based, on the principle of optical
(A) Reflection
(B) Refraction
 (C) Double refraction
(D) Double reflection
Answer: Option D

Question No. 321

R, the length of the curve is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Answer: Option B

Question No. 322

(A) 1.5 /100

(B) 1.5 /100
(C) 1.5 3/100
(D) 1.5 3
Answer: Option A

Question No. 323

The difference of level between a point below the plane of sight and one above, is the sum of two
staff readings and an error would be produced equal to
(A) The distance between the zero of gradient and the foot of the staff
(B) Twice the distance between the zero of graduation and the foot of the staff
(C) Thrice the distance between the zero of graduation and the foot of the staff
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 324

lemniscate curve, the equation of the curve, is

(A) l =
(B) l =
(C) l =
(D) l =
Answer: Option A

Question No. 325

In tangential tacheometry, an ordinary level staff is used
(A) Leaning towards the instrument for inclined sights upward
(B) Leaning away from the instrument for inclined sights downwards
(C) Vertical in all cases
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 326
Stadia techeometry was discovered by James Watt in the year.
(A) 1670
(B) 1770
(C) 1870
(D) 1900
Answer: Option B

Question No. 327

Keeping the instrument height as 1.5 m, length of staff 4 m, the slope of the ground as 1 in 10, the
sight on the down-slope, must be less than
(A) 30 m
(B) 25 m
(C) 20 m
(D) 15 m
Answer: Option B

Question No. 328

The distance between the point of intersection of an upgrade +g1% and downgrade % and the
highest point of the vertical curve of length L, is
(A) - /400
(B) + /400
(C) + /800
(D) - /800
Answer: Option D

Question No. 329

Surveys which are carried out to provide a national grid of control for preparation of accurate
maps of large areas are known
(A) Plane surveys
(B) Geodetic surveys
(C) Geographical surveys
(D) Topographical surveys
Answer: Option B

Question No. 330

If +0.8% grade meets -0.7% grade and the rate of change of grade for 30 m distance is 0.05, the
length of the vertical curve will be
(A) 600 m
(B) 700 m
(C) 800 m
(D) 900 m
Answer: Option D
Question No. 331
The angle between two plane mirrors of optical square, is
(A) 20°
(B) 30°
(C) 45°
(D) 60°
Answer: Option C

Question No. 332

With usual notations, the expression V²/gR represents
(A) Centrifugal force
(B) Centrifugal ratio
(C) Super elevation
(D) Radial acceleration
Answer: Option B

Question No. 333

Profile levelling is usually done for determining
(A) Contours of an area
(B) Capacity of a reservoir
(C) Elevations along a straight line
(D) Boundaries of property
Answer: Option C

Question No. 334

Keeping the instrument height as 1½ m, length of staff 4 m, the up gradient of the ground 1 in 10,
the sight on the up slope must be less than
(A) 25 cm
(B) 20 m
(C) 45 m
(D) 10 m
Answer: Option C

Question No. 335

Perpendicularity of an offset may be judged by eye, if the length of the offset is
(A) 5 m
(B) 10 m
(C) 15 m
(D) 20 m
Answer: Option C

Question No. 336

You have to observe an included angle with better accuracy than what is achievable by a vernier,
you will prefer the method of
(A) Repetition
 (B) Reiteration
(C) Double observations
(D) Exactness
Answer: Option A

Question No. 337

If the sight distance (S) is equal to the length of the vertical-curve (2l) joining two grades g1% and -
g2%, the height of the apex will be
(A) (S - l)/400 × -
(B) - /400
(C) - /1600l
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 338

If the radius of a simple curve is 600 m, the maximum length of the chord for calculating offsets, is
taken
(A) 15 m
(B) 20 m
(C) 25 m
(D) 30 m
Answer: Option D

Question No. 339

Subtense tacheometry is generally preferred to if ground is
(A) Flat
(B) Undulating
(C) Mountainous
(D) Deserts
Answer: Option B

Question No. 340

The area of a plane triangle ABC, having its base AC and perpendicular height , is
(A) ½ bh
(B) ½ ba sin C
(C) ½ bc sin A
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 341

In reciprocal levelling, the error which is not completely eliminated, is due to
(A) Earth's curvature
(B) Non-adjustment of line of collimation
(C) Refraction
(D) Non-adjustment of the bubble tube
 Answer: Option C

Question No. 342

The first reading from a level station is
(A) Foresight
(B) Intermediate sight
(C) Back-sight
(D) Any sight
Answer: Option C

Question No. 343

If is the length of a sub-chord and is the radius of simple curve, the angle of deflection
between its tangent and sub-chord, in minutes, is equal to
(A) 573 S/R
(B) 573 R/S
(C) 1718.9 R/S
(D) 1718.9 S/R
Answer: Option D

Question No. 344

While rotating the theodolite in the horizontal plane, the bubble of the bubble tube takes up the
same position in its tube, it indicates
(A) The rotation axis is vertical
(B) The trunnion axis is horizontal
(C) The line of collimation is perpendicular to vertical axis
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 345

The slope correction for a 3° slope for a length of 100 m, is
(A) -0.11 m
(B) -0.12 m
(C) -1.87 m
(D) -0.137 m
Answer: Option D

Question No. 346

Two concave lenses of 60 cm focal length are cemented on either side of a convex lens of 15 cm
focal length. The focal length of the combination is
(A) 10 cm
(B) 20 cm
(C) 30 cm
(D) 40 cm
Answer: Option C
Question No. 347
Cross-staff is used for
(A) Setting out right angles
(B) Measuring contour gradient
(C) Taking levels
(D) Measuring distances
Answer: Option A

Question No. 348

The staff intercept will be
(A) Greater farther off the staff is held
(B) Smaller, farther off the staff is held
(C) Smaller, nearer the staff is held
(D) Same, wherever the staff is held
Answer: Option B

Question No. 349

A bearing of a line is also known as
(A) Magnetic bearing
(B) True bearing
(C) Azimuth
(D) Reduced bearing
Answer: Option B

Question No. 350

ABCD is a rectangular plot of land. If the bearing of the side AB is 75°, the bearing of DC is
(A) 75°
(B) 255°
(C) 105°
(D) 285°
Answer: Option A

Question No. 351

For indirect ranging, number of ranging rods required, is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Answer: Option D

Question No. 352

An ideal transition curve is
(A) Cubic parabola
(B) Cubic spiral
(C) Clothoid spiral
 (D) True spiral
Answer: Option C

Question No. 353

Ranging in chain survey means
(A) Looking at an isolated point not on the line
(B) Establishing an intermediate point on the line
(C) Determining the distance between end points
(D) Determining the offset distance
Answer: Option B

Question No. 354

A well conditioned triangle has no angle less than
(A) 20°
(B) 30°
(C) 45°
(D) 60°
Answer: Option B

Question No. 355

Geodetic surveying is undertaken
(A) For production of accurate maps of wide areas
(B) For developing the science of geodesy
(C) Making use of most accurate instruments and methods of observation
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 356

For preparation of a contour plan for a route survey
(A) Method of squares is used
(B) Method of trace contour is used
(C) Method of cross profile is used
(D) Indirect method of contouring is used
Answer: Option C

Question No. 357

A sewer is laid from a manhole to a manhole , 250 m away along a gradient of 1 in 125. If the
reduced level of the invert at is 205.75 m and the height of the boning rod is 3 m, the reduced
level of the sight rail at , is
(A) 208.75 m
(B) 202.75 m
(C) 206.75 m
(D) 211.75 m
Answer: Option C
Question No. 358
A back sight
(A) Is always taken on a point of known elevation or can be computed
(B) Is added to the known level to obtain the instrument height
(C) Taken on an inverted staff is treated as negative
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 259

Removal of parallax, may be achieved by focussing
(A) The objective
(B) The eye-piece
(C) The objective and the eye-piece
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 360

The angle of intersection of a contour and a ridge line, is
(A) 30°
(B) 45°
(C) 60°
(D) 90°
Answer: Option D

Question No. 361

Deviation of the actual road gradient from the proposed contour gradient uphill side, involves
(A) Embankment on the centre line
(B) Excavation on the centre line
(C) Earth work on the centre line
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 362

The 'fix' of a plane table from three known points, is good, if
(A) Middle station is nearest
(B) Middle station is farthest
(C) Either the right or left station is nearest
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 363

An angle of 45° with a chain line may be set out with
(A) Optical square
(B) Open cross staff
(C) French cross staff
 (D) Prismatic square
Answer: Option C

Question No. 364

One of the Lehmann's rules of plane tabling, is
(A) Location of the instrument station is always distant from each of the three rays from the
known points in proportion to their distances
(B) When looking in the direction of each of the given points, the instrument station will be on
the right side of one and left side of the other ray
(C) When the instrument station is outside the circumscribing circle its location is always on the
opposite side of the ray to the most distant point as the inter-section of the other two rays
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 365

Which one of the following mistakes/errors may be cumulative + or - :
(A) Bad ranging
(B) Bad straightening
(C) Erroneous length of chain
(D) Sag
Answer: Option C

Question No. 366

Correction per chain length of 100 links along a slope having a rise of 1 unit in horizontal units,
is
(A) 100/n²
(B) 100 n2
(C) 100/n3
(D) 100/n
Answer: Option A

Question No. 367

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The theodolite in which telescope can be rotated in vertical plane is called a transmit
(B) When the vertical circle is to the left of the telescope during observation, it is called to be in
left face
(C) When the vertical circle is to the right of the telescope during observation, it is called to be
in right face
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 368

Grid lines are parallel to
(A) Magnetic meridian of the central point of the grid
(B) Line representing the central true meridian of the grid
 (C) Geographical equator
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 369

Number of subdivisions per metre length of a levelling staff is
(A) 100
(B) 200
(C) 500
(D) 1000
Answer: Option B

Question No. 370

The slope correction for a length of 30 m along a gradient of 1 in 20, is
(A) 3.75 cm
(B) 0.375 cm
(C) 37.5 cm
(D) 2.75 cm
Answer: Option A

Question No. 371

From any point on the surface with a given inclination
(A) Only one contour gradient is possible
(B) Two contour gradients are possible
(C) Indefinite contour gradients are possible
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 372

In a precision traverse, included angles are measured by setting the vernier
(A) To read zero exactly on back station
(B) To read 5° exactly on back station
(C) Somewhere near zero and reading both verniers on back station
(D) All the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 373

A dumpy level was set up at the midpoint between two pegs A and B, 50 m apart and the staff
readings at and were 1.22 and 1.06. With the level set up at , the readings at
and were 1.55 and 1.37. The collimation error per 100 m length of sight is
(A) 0.02 m inclined upwards
(B) 0.04 m inclined downwards
(C) 0.04 m inclined upward
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 374
The zero of the graduated circle of a prismatic compass is located at
(A) North end
(B) East end
(C) South end
(D) West end
Answer: Option C

Question No. 375

Horizontal distances obtained tacheometerically are corrected for
(A) Slope correction
(B) Temperature correction
(C) Refraction and curvature correction
(D) All the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 376

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The power of a lens is the reciprocal of its focal length
(B) The unit of power of the lens is Diopter
(C) The power of two or more thin lenses in contact is the power of the combination of the
lenses
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 377

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) A level surface is perpendicular at all points to the direction of gravity
(B) A level line lies in level surface
(C) A horizontal surface is normal to the direction of gravity at only one point
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 378

Designation of a curve is made by:
(A) Angle subtended by a chord of any length
(B) Angle subtended by an arc of specified length
(C) Radius of the curve
(D) Curvature of the curve
Answer: Option C

Question No. 379

In chain surveying tie lines are primarily provided
(A) To check the accuracy of the survey
(B) To take offsets for detail survey
 (C) To avoid long offsets from chain lines
(D) To increase the number of chain lines
Answer: Option C

Question No. 380

The minimum range for sliding the focusing lens in the internal focusing telescope for focusing at
all distances beyond 4 m is
(A) 5 mm
(B) 10 mm
(C) 15 mm
(D) 20 mm
Answer: Option D

Question No. 381

An internal focussing type surveying telescope, may be focussed by the movement of
(A) Objective glass of the telescope
(B) Convex-lens in the telescope
(C) Concave lens in the telescope
(D) Plano-convex lens in the telescope
Answer: Option C

Question No. 382

True meridians are generally preferred to magnetic meridians because
(A) These converge to a point
(B) These change due to change in time
(C) These remain constant
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 383

The total change in level along the line is equal to total back sights
(A) Minus total fore sights
(B) The total rises minus total falls
(C) The reduced level of last point minus reduced level of the first point
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 384

The magnetic bearing of a line is 32° and the magnetic declination is 10° 15' W. The true bearing is
(A) 21° 45'
(B) 42° 15'
(C) 42° 15' W
(D) 21° 45' W
Answer: Option A
Question No. 385
If the angular measurements of a traverse are more precise than its linear measurements,
balancing of the traverse, is done by
(A) Bowditch's rule
(B) Transit rule
(C) Empirical rule
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 386

While measuring with a metallic tape of 30 m length pull should be applied
(A) 1 kg
(B) 2 kg
(C) 3 kg
(D) 4 kg
Answer: Option C

Question No. 387

If a linear traverse follows a sharp curve round a large lake where it is difficult to have long legs,
the accuracy of the traverse may be improved by
(A) Taking short legs
(B) Making repeated observations of angular and linear measurements
(C) Making a subsidiary traverse to determine the length of a long leg
(D) All the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 388

Pick up the correct specification of Ramsden eyepiece from the following:
(A) It consists of two equal piano convex lenses
(B) The curved surfaces of Plano-convex lenses face each other
(C) The distance between the diaphragm and the front lens of the eyepiece is kept equal to 1/4
th of the focal length of a lens so that rays from a point on the diaphragm enter the eye as a
parallel beam
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 389

The method of finding out the difference in elevation between two points for eliminating the
effect of curvature and refraction, is
(A) Reciprocal levelling
(B) Precise levelling
(C) Differential levelling
(D) Flying levelling
Answer: Option A
Question No. 390
Diaphragm of a surveying telescope is held inside
(A) Eye-piece
(B) Objective
(C) Telescope tube at its mid point
(D) Telescope at the end nearer the eye-piece
Answer: Option D

Question No. 391

Closed contours of decreasing values towards their centre, represent
(A) A hill
(B) A depression
(C) A saddle or pass
(D) A river bed
Answer: Option B

Question No. 392

If whole circle bearing of a line is 120°, its reduced bearing is
(A) S 20° E
(B) S 60° E
(C) N 120° E
(D) N 60° E
Answer: Option B

Question No. 393

For locating a distant object visible from two transit stations, the method usually preferred to, is
(A) Angles and distances from transit stations
(B) Angles from two transit stations
(C) Distance from two transit stations
(D) Angle from one transit station and distance from the other
Answer: Option B

Question No. 394

Accuracy of 'fix' by two point problem, is
(A) Bad
(B) Good
(C) Not reliable
(D) Unique
Answer: Option C

Question No. 395

Pantograph is used for
(A) Measuring distances
(B) Measuring areas
(C) Enlarging or reducing plans
 (D) Setting out right angles
Answer: Option C

Question No. 396

A tape of length and weight kg/m is suspended at its ends with a pull of kg, the sag
correction is
(A) l3W²/24P²
(B) l²W3/24P²
(C) l²W²/24P3
(D) lW²/24P
Answer: Option A

Question No. 397

Contour lines of different elevations can unite to form one line, only in the case of
(A) A vertical cliff
(B) A saddle
(C) A water shed line
(D) A hill top
Answer: Option A

Question No. 398

The sag of 50 m tape weighing 4 kg under 5 kg tension is roughly
(A) 0.043 m
(B) 0.053 m
(C) 0.063 m
(D) 0.083 m
Answer: Option D

Question No. 399

If the length of a transition curve to be introduced between a straight and a circular curve of
radius 500 m is 90 m, the maximum perpendicular offset for the transition curve, is
(A) 0.70 m
(B) 1.70 m
(C) 2.70 m
(D) 3.70 m
Answer: Option C

Question No. 400

The longitudinal section of the surface of bubble tube is
(A) Straight
(B) Circular
(C) Parabolic
(D) Elliptic
Answer: Option B
Question No. 401
A traverse deflection angle is
(A) Less than 90°
(B) More than 90° but less than 180°
(C) The difference between the included angle and 180°
(D) The difference between 360° and the included angle
Answer: Option C

Question No. 402

The least count of a Vernier scale is
(A) Sum of the smallest divisions of main and Vernier scales
(B) Value of one division of the primary scale divided by total number of divisions of Vernier
scale
(C) Value of one division of Vernier scale divided by total number of divisions of primary scale
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 403

The tangent to the liquid surface in a level tube, is parallel to the axis of the level tube at
(A) Every point of the bubble
(B) Either end of the bubble
(C) The mid-point of the bubble
(D) No where
Answer: Option C

Question No. 404

The slope correction may be ignored if
(A) The slope of the ground is less than 3°
(B) To slope of the ground is say 1 in 19
(C) Both (a) and (b)
(D) Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 405

The whole circle bearing of a line is 290°. Its reduced bearing is
(A) N 20° E
(B) N 20° W
(C) N 70° W
(D) S 70° E
Answer: Option C

Question No. 406

The horizontal angle between true meridian and magnetic meridian, is known
(A) Bearing
(B) Magnetic declination
 (C) Dip
(D) Convergence
Answer: Option B

Question No. 407

The 'fix' of a plane table station with three known points, is bad if the plane table station lies
(A) In the great triangle
(B) Outside the great triangle
(C) On the circumference of the circumscribing circle
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 408

One of the tacheometric constants is additive, the other constant, is
(A) Subtractive constant
(B) Multiplying constant
(C) Dividing constant
(D) Indicative constant
Answer: Option B

Question No. 409

The probable error of the adjusted bearing at the middle is
(A) ½
(B) r
(C) ¼
(D)
Answer: Option A

Question No. 410

If the radius of a simple curve is R, the length of the chord for calculating offsets by the method of
chords produced, should not exceed.
(A) R/10
(B) R/15
(C) R/20
(D) R/25
Answer: Option C

Question No. 411

For setting out a simple curve, using two theodolites.
(A) Offsets from tangents are required
(B) Offsets from chord produced are required
(C) Offsets from long chord are required
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 412
Centering error of a theodolite produces an error
(A) In all angles equally
(B) Which does not vary with the direction or pointing
(C) Which varies with the direction of pointing and inversely with the length of sight
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 413

If the area calculated form the plan plotted with measurements by an erroneous chain, accurate
area of the plan is
(A) Measured area × (Length of chain used/Nominal chain length)
(B) Measured area × (Nominal chain length/ Length of chain used)
(C) Measured area × (Nominal chain length/ Length of chain used)²
(D) Measured area × (Length of chain used/Nominal chain length)²
Answer: Option D
 Theory of Structures

Question No. 01
P EI/L² is the equation of Euler's crippling load if
(A) Both the ends are fixed
(B) Both the ends are hinged
(C) One end is fixed and other end is free
(D) One end is fixed and other end is hinged
Answer: Option A

Question No. 02
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The structural member subjected to compression and whose dimensions are small as
compared to its length, is called a stmt
(B) The vertical compression members are generally known as columns or stanchions
(C) Deflection in lateral direction of a long column, is generally known as buckling
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 03
For calculating the allowable stress of long columns 0 y/n [1 - a (1/r)²]is the empirical formula,
known as
(A) Straight line formula
(B) Parabolic formula
(C) Perry's formula
(D) Rankine's formula
Answer: Option B

Question No. 04
Maximum principal stress theory for the failure of a material at elastic point, is known
(A) Guest's or Trecas' theory
(B) St. Venant's theory
(C) Rankine's theory
(D) Von Mises' theory
Answer: Option C

Question No. 05
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The moment of inertia is calculated about the axis about which bending takes place
(B) If tensile stress is less than axial stress, the section experiences compressive stress
(C) If tensile stress is equal to axial stress, the section experiences compressive stress
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 06
A composite beam is composed of two equal strips one of brass and other of steel. If the
temperature is raised
(A) Steel experiences tensile force
(B) Brass experiences compressive force
(C) Composite beam gets subjected to a couple
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 07
A shaft subjected to a bending moment M and a torque T, experiences
(A) Maximum bending stress = 32M d3
(B) Maximum shear stress = 16 T d3
(C) Both (a) and (b)
(D) Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 08
A two hinged parabolic arch of span l and rise h carries a load varying from zero at the left end to
thrust is
(A) /4h
(B) /8h
(C) /12h
(D) /16h
Answer: Option D

Question No. 09
The horizontal thrust on the ends of a two hinged semicircular arch of radius carrying
(A)
(B) A uniforml 4
/3
(C)
end, is
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 10
Maximum strain theory for the failure of a material at the elastic limit, is known as
(A) Guest's or Trecas' theory
(B) St. Venant's theory
(C) Rankine's theory
(D) Haig's theory
Answer: Option B
Question No. 11
Slenderness ratio of a long column, is
(A) Area of cross-section divided by radius of gyration
(B) Area of cross-section divided by least radius of gyration
(C) Radius of gyration divided by area of cross-section
(D) Length of column divided by least radius of gyration
Answer: Option D

Question No. 12
A close coil helical spring when subjected to a moment M having its axis along the axis of the helix
(A) It is subjected to pure bending
(B) Its mean diameter will decrease
(C) Its number of coils will increase
(D) All the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 13
The ratio of the stresses produced by a suddenly applied load and by a gradually applied load on a
bar, is
(A) 1/4
(B) 1/2
(C) 1
(D) 2
Answer: Option D

Question No. 14
Maximum shear stress theory for the failure of a material at the elastic limit, is known
(A) Guest's or Trecas' theory
(B) St. Venant's theory
(C) Rankine's theory
(D) Haig's theory
Answer: Option A

Question No. 15
A cantilever of length is subjected to a bending moment at its free end. If EI is the flexural
rigidity of the section, the deflection of the free end, is
(A) ML/EI
(B) ML/2EI
(C) ML²/2EI
(D) ML²/3EI
Answer: Option D

Question No. 16
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) For channels, the shear centre does not coincide its centroid
 (B) The point of intersection of the bending axis with the cross section of the beam, is called
shear centre
(C) For I sections, the shear centre coincides with the centroid of the cross section of the beam
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 17
Keeping breadth constant, depth of a cantilever of length of uniform strength loaded with
uniformly distributed load varies from zero at the free end and
(A) 2w l at the fixed end
(B) w l) at the fixed end
(C) w l) at the fixed end
(D) 3w l at the fixed end
Answer: Option B

Question No. 18
If a three hinged parabolic arch, (span l, rise h) is carrying a uniformly distributed load w/unit
length over the entire span,
(A) Horizontal thrust is wl2/8h
(B) S.F. will be zero throughout
(C) B.M. will be zero throughout
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 19
The force in BC of the truss shown in the given figure, is

(A) 3.0 t compression

(B) 3.0 t tension
(C) t tension
(D) t compression
Answer: Option C

Question No. 20
P= /L² is the equation for Euler's crippling load if
(A) Both the ends are fixed
(B) Both the ends are hinged
(C) One end is fixed and other end is free
(D) One end is fixed and other end is hinged
 Answer: Option B

Question No. 21
The degree of indeterminacy of the frame in the given figure, is

(A) Zero
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
Answer: Option B

Question No. 22
The forces in the members of simple trusses, may be analysed by
(A) Graphical method
(B) Method of joints
(C) Method of sections
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 23
A simply supported beam A carries a point load at its mid span. Another identical beam B carries
the same load but uniformly distributed over the entire span. The ratio of the maximum
deflections of the beams A and B, will be
(A) 2/3
(B) 3/2
(C) 5/8
(D) 8/5
Answer: Option D

Question No. 24
A road of uniform cross-section A and length L
force P. The Young's Modulus E of the material, is
(A) E = /A. L
(B) E = /P. L
(C) E = P. L/
(D) E = P. A/
Answer: Option C
Question No. 25
In case of a simply supported I-section beam of span L and loaded with a central load W, the
length of elasto-plastic zone of the plastic hinge, is
(A) L/2
(B) L/3
(C) L/4
(D) L/5
Answer: Option D

Question No. 26
The yield moment of a cross section is defined as the moment that will just produce the yield
stress in
(A) The outer most fibre of the section
(B) The inner most fibre of the section
(C) The neutral fibre of the section
(D) The fibre everywhere
Answer: Option A

Question No. 27
If Ix and Iy are the moments of inertia of a section about X and Y axes, the polar moment of inertia
of the section, is
(A) (IX + IY)/2
(B) (IX - IY)/2
(C) IX + IY
(D) (IX/IY)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 28
A simply supported beam carries varying load from zero at one end and w at the other end. If the
length of the beam is a, the maximum bending moment will be
(A) wa/27
(B) wa²/27
(C) w²a
(D) wa²
Answer: Option D

Question No. 29
If E, N, K and 1/m are modulus of elasticity, modulus of rigidity. Bulk modulus and Poisson ratio of
the material, the following relationship holds good
(A) E = 3K (1 - 2/m)
(B) E = 2N (1 + 1/m)
(C) (3/2)K (1 - 2/m) = N (1 + 1/m)
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 30
The forces acting on the bar as shown in the given figure introduce

(A) Compressive stress

(B) Tensile stress
(C) Shear stress
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 31
Gradually applied static loads do not change with time their
(A) Magnitude
(B) Direction
(C) Point of application
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 32
The tangential component of stre
obtained by multiplying the normal stress by
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) sin2
Answer: Option D

Question No. 33
A body is said to be in equilibrium if
(A) It moves horizontally
(B) It moves vertically
(C) It rotates about its C.G.
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 34
Pick up the incorrect statement from the following: The torsional resistance of a shaft is directly
proportional to
(A) Modulus of rigidity
 (B) Angle of twist
(C) Reciprocal of the length of the shaft
(D) Moment of inertia of the shaft section
Answer: Option D

Question No. 35
The forces acting normally on the cross section of a bar shown in the given figure introduce

(A) Compressive stress

(B) Tensile stress
(C) Shear stress
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 36
The ratio of circumferential stress to the longitudinal stress in the walls of a cylindrical shell, due
to flowing liquid, is
(A) ½
(B) 1
(C) 1½
(D) 2
Answer: Option D

Question No. 37
The load on a spring per unit deflection, is called
(A) Stiffness
(B) Proof resilience
(C) Proof stress
(D) Proof load
Answer: Option A

Question No. 38
A compound bar consists of two bars of equal length. Steel bar cross-section is 3500 mm2and that
of brass bar is 3000 mm2. These are subjected to a compressive load 100,000 N. If Eb = 0.2
MN/mm2 and Eb = 0.1 MN/mm2, the stresses developed are:
 (A) b = 10 N/mm2 s = 20 N/mm2
(B) b = 8 N/mm2 s = 16 N/mm2
(C) b = 6 N/mm2 s = 12 N/mm2
(D) b = 5 N/mm2 s = 10 N/mm2
Answer: Option A

Question No. 39
A close coil helical spring of mean diameter D consists of n coils of diameter d. If it carries an axial
load W, the energy stored in the spring, is
(A) 4WD²n/d4N
(B) 4W²Dn/d4N
(C) 4W²D3n/d4N
(D) 4W²D3n²/d4N
Answer: Option C

Question No. 40
The degree of indeterminacy of the frame in the given figure, is

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) Zero
Answer: Option C

Question No. 41
1 2respectively, the

(A) 1 2
(B) 1 2
2 cos
2

(C) 1 - 2
(D) 1 2) si
Answer: Option B

Question No. 42
The moment of inertia of a triangular section (height h, base b) about its base, is
(A) bh²/12
(B) b²h/12
(C) bh3/12
 (D) b3h/12
Answer: Option C

Question No. 43
Shear centre of a half circular section of radius and of constant thickness, lies at a distance
of from the centre where is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 44
The assumption in the theory of bending of beams is:
(A) Material is homogeneous
(B) Material is isotropic
(C) Young's modulus is same in tension as well as in compression
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 45
For determining the force in the member AB of the truss shown in the given figure by method of
sections, the section is made to pass through AB, AD and ED and the moments are taken about

(A) Joint C
(B) Joint B
(C) Joint D
(D) Joint A
Answer: Option C

Question No. 46
A concentrated load P is supported by the free end of a quadrantal ring AB whose end B is fixed.
The ratio of the vertical to horizontal deflections of the end A, is
(A)
(B) /2
(C) /3
(D) /4
 Answer: Option B

Question No. 47
The ratio of crippling loads of a column having both the ends fixed to the column having both the
ends hinged, is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Answer: Option D

Question No. 48
A load of 1960 N is raised at the end of a steel wire. The minimum diameter of the wire so that
stress in the wire does not exceed 100 N/mm2 is:
(A) 4.0 mm
(B) 4.5 mm
(C) 5.0 mm
(D) 5.5 mm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 49

of th
(A) 45°
(B) 30°
(C) 60°
(D) 90°
Answer: Option A

Question No. 50
The maximum deflection due to a uniformly distributed load w/unit length over entire span of a
cantilever of length l and of flexural rigidly EI, is
(A) wl3/3EI
(B) wl4/3EI
(C) wl4/8EI
(D) wl4/12EI
Answer: Option C

Question No. 51
A compound truss may be formed by connecting two simple rigid frames, by
(A) Two bars
(B) Three bars
(C) Three parallel bars
(D) Three bars intersecting at a point
Answer: Option B
Question No. 52
The forces acting normally on the cross section of a bar shown in the given figure introduce

(A) Compressive stress

(B) Tensile stress
(C) Shear stress
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 53
A spring of mean radius 40 mm contains 8 action coils of steel (N = 80000 N/mm2), 4 mm in
diameter. The clearance between the coils being 1 mm when unloaded, the minimum compressive
load to remove the clearance, is
(A) 25 N
(B) 30 N
(C) 35 N
(D) 40 N
Answer: Option C

Question No. 54
If a solid shaft (diameter 20 cm, length 400 cm, N = 0.8 × 105 N/mm2) when subjected to a twisting
moment, produces maximum shear stress of 50 N/mm2, the angle of twist in radians, is
(A) 0.001
(B) 0.002
(C) 0.0025
(D) 0.003
Answer: Option C

Question No. 55
The strain energy stored in a spring when subjected to greatest load without being permanently
distorted, is called
(A) Stiffness
(B) Proof resilience
(C) Proof stress
(D) Proof load
Answer: Option B
Question No. 56
To determine the force in BD of the truss shown in the given figure a section is passed
through BD, CD and CE, and the moments are taken about

(A) A joint
(B) B joint
(C) C joint
(D) D joint
Answer: Option C

Question No. 57
The strain energy due to volumetric strain
(A) Is directly proportional to the volume
(B) Is directly proportional to the square of exerted pressure
(C) Is inversely proportional to Bulk modulus
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 58
A simply supported uniform rectangular bar breadth b, depth d and length L carries an isolated
load W at its mid-span. The same bar experiences an extension e under same tensile load. The
ratio of the maximum deflection to the elongation, is
(A) L/d
(B) L/2d
(C) (L/2d)²
(D) (L/3d)²
Answer: Option C

Question No. 59
A simply supported beam which carries a uniformly distributed load has two equal overhangs. To
have maximum B.M. produced in the beam least possible, the ratio of the length of the overhang
to the total length of the beam, is
(A) 0.207
(B) 0.307
(C) 0.407
(D) 0.508
Answer: Option A
Question No. 60
In the truss shown in given figure the force in member DC is

(A) 100 t compressive

(B) 100 t tensile
(C) Zero
(D) Indeterminate
Answer: Option C

Question No. 61
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) A wire wound in spiral form, is called a helical spring
(B) The pitch of a close coil spring, is very small
(C) The angle made by the coil with horizontal, is called the angle of helix
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 62
The ratio of lateral strain to axial strain of a homogeneous material, is known
(A) Yield ratio
(B) Hooke's ratio
(C) Poisson's ratio
(D) Plastic ratio
Answer: Option C

Question No. 63
A short column (30 cm × 20 cm) carries a load P1 at 4 cm on one side and another load P2at 8 cm on
the other side along a principal section parallel to longer dimension. If the extreme intensity on
either side is same, the ratio of P1 to P2 will be
(A) 2/3
(B) 3/2
(C) 8/5
(D) 5/8
Answer: Option C
Question No. 64
The force in BF of the truss shown in given figure, is

(A) 4t tension
(B) 4t compression
(C) 4.5t tension
(D) 4.5t compression
Answer: Option D

Question No. 65
For beams breadth is constant,
(A) Depth d M
(B) Depth d
(C) Depth d 3
(D) Depth d 1/M
Answer: Option B

Question No. 66
The ratio of maximum shear stress to average shear stress of a circular beam, is
(A) 2/3
(B) 3/2
(C) 3/4
(D) 4/3
Answer: Option D

Question No. 67
For calculating the permissible stress 0 y /[(1 + a(l/r)²] is the empirical formula, known as
(A) Straight line formula
(B) Parabolic formula
(C) Perry's formula
(D) Rankine's formula
Answer: Option D

Question No. 68
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) In a loaded beam, the moment at which the first yield occurs is called yield moment
 (B) In a loaded beam, the moment at which the entire section of the beam becomes fully
plastic, is called plastic moment
(C) In a fully plastic stage of the beam, the neutral axis divides the section in two sections of
equal area
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 69
For a strongest rectangular beam cut from a circular log, the ratio of the width and depth, is
(A) 0.303
(B) 0.404
(C) 0.505
(D) 0.707
Answer: Option D

Question No. 70
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Mcg = M M2 + r2) where letters carry their usual meanings
(B) Tcp = m2 + T2)where letters carry their usual meanings
(C) The torque which when acting alone would produce maximum shear stress equal to the
maximum shear stress caused by the combined bending and torsion, is called equivalent
torque
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 71
m1 and m2 are the members of two individual simple trusses of a compound truss. The compound
truss will be rigid and determinate if
(A) m = m1 + m2
(B) m = m1 + m2 + 1
(C) m = m1 + m2 + 2
(D) m = m1 + m2 + 3
Answer: Option D

Question No. 72
The maximum B.M. due to an isolated load in a three hinged parabolic arch, (span l and rise h)
having one of its hinges at the crown, occurs on either side of the crown at a distance
(A) l/4
(B) h/4
(C) l
(D) l
Answer: Option C
Question No. 73
The greatest load which a spring can carry without getting permanently distorted, is called
(A) Stiffness
(B) Proof resilience
(C) Proof stress
(D) Proof load
Answer: Option D

Question No. 74
The force in AC of the truss shown in the given figure, is

(A) 5t tension
(B) 4t tension
(C) 4t compression
(D) 5t compression
Answer: Option B

Question No. 75
A bar L metre long and having its area of cross-section A, is subjected to a gradually applied tensile
load W. The strain energy stored in the bar is
(A) WL/2AE
(B) WL/AE
(C) W²L/AE
(D) W²L/2AE
Answer: Option D

Question No. 76
The maximum bending moment for a simply supported beam with a uniformly distributed
load w/unit length, is
(A) WI/2
(B) WI²/4
(C) WI²/8
(D) WI²/12
Answer: Option C

Question No. 77
An isolated load W is acting at a distance a from the left hand support, of a three hinged arch of
span 2l and rise h hinged at the crown, the horizontal reaction at the support, is
(A) Wa/h
 (B) Wa/2h
(C) 2W/ha
(D) 2h/Wa
Answer: Option B

Question No. 78
The force in CD of the truss shown in given figure, is

(A) 3t compression
(B) 3t tension
(C) Zero
(D) 1.5t compression
Answer: Option C

Question No. 79
At any point of a beam, the section modulus may be obtained by dividing the moment of inertia of
the section by
(A) Depth of the section
(B) Depth of the neutral axis
(C) Maximum tensile stress at the section
(D) Maximum compressive stress at the section
Answer: Option B

Question No. 80
The ratio of the area of cross-section of a circular section to the area of its core, is
(A) 4
(B) 8
(C) 12
(D) 16
Answer: Option D

Question No. 81
The ratio of maximum and average shear stresses on a rectangular section, is
(A) 1
(B) 1.25
(C) 1.5
(D) 2.5
Answer: Option C
Question No. 82
In the truss shown in the given figure, the force in member BC is

(A) 100 t compressive

(B) 100 t tensile
(C) Zero
(D) Indeterminate
Answer: Option C

Question No. 83
If a concrete column 200 × 200 mm in cross-section is reinforced with four steel bars of 1200
mm2 total cross-sectional area. Calculate the safe load for the column if permissible stress in
concrete is 5 N/mm2 and Es is 15 Ec
(A) 264 MN
(B) 274 MN
(C) 284 MN
(D) 294 MN
Answer: Option C

Question No. 84
In plastic analysis, the shape factor for rectangular section, is
(A) 1.4
(B) 1.5
(C) 1.6
(D) 1.7
Answer: Option B

Question No. 85
A masonry dam (density = 20,000 N/m3) 6 m high, one metre wide at the top and 4 m wide at the
base, has vertical water face. The minimum stress at the base of the dam when the reservoir is
full, will be
(A) 75 N/m2
(B) 750 N/m2
(C) 7500 N/m2
(D) 75000 N/m2
Answer: Option C
Question No. 86
A material is said to be perfectly elastic if
(A) It regains its original shape on removal of the load
(B) It regains its original shape partially on removal of the load
(C) It does not regain its original shape at all
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 87
A shaft rotating N.R.M. under a torque T, transmits a power
(A) /30 Newton metres/sec
(B) /30 Newton metres/min
(C) /60 Newton metres/min
(D) /60 Newton metres/sec
Answer: Option A

Question No. 88
If Q is load factor, S is shape factor and F is factor of safety in elastic design, the following:
(A) Q = S + F
(B) Q = S - F
(C) Q = F - S
(D) Q = S × F
Answer: Option D

Question No. 89
The maximum deflection due to a load W at the free end of a cantilever of length L and having
flexural rigidity EI, is
(A) WL²/2EI
(B) WL²/3EI
(C) WL3/2EI
(D) WL3/3EI
Answer: Option D

Question No. 90
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) For a uniformly distributed load, the shear force varies linearly
(B) For a uniformly distributed load, B.M. curve is a parabola
(C) For a load varying linearly, the shear force curve is a parabola
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 91
The ratio of the length and depth of a simply supported rectangular beam which experiences
maximum bending stress equal to tensile stress, due to same load at its mid span, is
(A) 1/2
 (B) 2/3
(C) 1/4
(D) 1/3
Answer: Option B

Question No. 92
A simply supported rolled steel joist 8 m long carries a uniformly distributed load over it span so
that the maximum bending stress is 75 N/mm². If the slope at the ends is 0.005 radian and the
value of E = 0.2 × 106 N/mm2, the depth of the joist, is
(A) 200 mm
(B) 250 mm
(C) 300 mm
(D) 400 mm
Answer: Option D

Question No. 93
The force in EC of the truss shown in the given figure, is

(A) Zero
(B) 5t tension
(C) 5t compression
(D) 4t tension
Answer: Option C

Question No. 94
The area of the core of a column of cross sectional area A, is
(A) (1/3) A
(B) (1/6) A
(C) (1/12) A
(D) (1/18) A
Answer: Option D

Question No. 95
If and are external and internal diameters of a circular shaft respectively, its polar moment
of inertia, is
(A) D4 - d4)
(B) D4 - d4)
 (C) D4 - d4)
(D) D4 - d4)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 96
The force in AD of the truss shown in given figure, is

(A) 4.0t compression

(B) 3.0t compression
(C) 0.5t compression
(D) 0.5t tension
Answer: Option C

Question No. 97
The equivalent length of a column of length L, having one end fixed and other end hinged, is
(A) 2L
(B) L
(C) L/2
(D) L
Answer: Option D

Question No. 98
By applying the static equations i.e. H V M = 0, to a determinate structure, we may
determine
(A) Supporting reactions only
(B) Shear forces only
(C) Bending moments only
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 99
A lift of weight W is lifted by a rope with an acceleration f. If the area of cross-section of the rope
is A, the stress in the rope is
(A) [W (1 + f/G)]/A
(B) (1 - g/f)/A
(C) [W (2 + f/G)]/A
(D) [W (2 + g/f)]/A
 Answer: Option A

Question No. 100

Co-efficient of wind resistance of a circular surface, is
(A) 1/2
(B) 1/3
(C) 2/3
(D) 3/2
Answer: Option C

Question No. 101

The equation of a parabolic arch of span and rise , is given by
(A) y = h/l² × (1 - x)
(B) y = 2h/l² × (1 - x)
(C) y = 3h/l² × (1 - x)
(D) y = 4h/l² × (1 - x)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 102

A rectangular column shown in the given figure carries a load P having eccentricities ex
and ey along X and Y axes. The stress at any point (x, y) is

(A) (p/bd) [1 + (12ey. y/d²) + (12ex. x/d²)]

(B) p [1 + (6ey. y/b) + (6ex. x/b)]
(C) (p/bd) [1 + (6ey. y/d) + (6ex. x/b)]
(D) (p/bd) [1 + (ey. y/d) + (ex. x/d)]
Answer: Option A

Question No. 103

In case of principal axes of a section
(A) Sum of moment of inertia is zero
(B) Difference of moment inertia is zero
(C) Product of moment of inertia is zero
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 104
A simply supported beam carries a varying load from zero at one end and w at the other end. If
the length of the beam is a, the shear force will be zero at a distance x from least loaded point
where x is
(A) a/2
(B) a/3
(C) a
(D) a
Answer: Option C

Question No. 105

The locus of the end point of the resultant of the normal and tangential components of the stress
on an inclined plane, is
(A) Circle
(B) Parabola
(C) Ellipse
(D) Straight line
Answer: Option C

Question No. 106

The shape factor of standard rolled beam section varies from
(A) 1.10 to 1.20
(B) 1.20 to 1.30
(C) 1.30 to 1.40
(D) 1.40 to 1.50
Answer: Option A

Question No. 107

In the cable shown in the given figure, the minimum tension occurs at

(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) Between A and C
Answer: Option C

Question No. 108

Principal planes are subjected to
(A) Normal stresses only
(B) Tangential stresses only
 (C) Normal stresses as well as tangential stresses
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 109

Ab and Ac are the cross sections of bronze and copper bars of equal lengt b c are their
respective stresses due to load P. If Pb and Pc are the loads shared by them, (where Eb and Ec are
their modulii).
(A) b c = Eb /Ec
(B) P = Pb + Pc
(C) P = Ab b + Ac b
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 110

A rolled steel joist is simply supported at its ends and carries a uniformly distributed load which
causes a maximum deflection of 10 mm and slope at the ends of 0.002 radian. The length of the
joist will be,
(A) 10 m
(B) 12 m
(C) 14 m
(D) 16 m
Answer: Option D

Question No. 111

If the strain energy stored per unit volume in a hollow shaft subjected to a pure torque
when t attains maximum shear stress fs the ratio of inner diameter to outer diameter, is 17/64
(fs/N)
(A) 1/2
(B) 1/3
(C) 1/4
(D) 1/5
Answer: Option C

Question No. 112

H V are the algebraic sums of the forces resolved horizontally and vertically respectively,
M is the algebraic sum of the moments of forces about any point, for the equilibrium of the
body acted upon
(A) H = 0
(B) V = 0
(C) M = 0
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 113
The eccentricity (e) of a hollow circular column, external diameter 25 cm, internal diameter 15 cm
for an eccentric load 100 t for non-development of tension, is
(A) 2.75 cm
(B) 3.00 cm
(C) 3.50 cm
(D) 4.25 cm
Answer: Option D

Question No. 114

A steel rod of sectional area 250 sq. mm connects two parallel walls 5 m apart. The nuts at the
ends were tightened when the rod was heated to 100°C. If steel = 0.000012/C°, Esteel = 0.2
MN/mm2, the tensile force developed at a temperature of 50°C, is
(A) 80 N/mm2
(B) 100 N/mm2
(C) 120 N/mm2
(D) 150 N/mm2
Answer: Option C

Question No. 115

In the truss shown in given figure, the force in member BD is

(A) 100 t compressive

(B) 100 t tensile
(C) Zero
(D) Indeterminate
Answer: Option A

Question No. 116

P= /4L² is the equation of Euler's crippling load, if
(A) Both the ends are fixed
(B) Both the ends are hinged
(C) One end is fixed and other end is free
(D) One end is fixed and other end is hinged
Answer: Option C
Question No. 117
The moment of inertia of a circular section about any diameter D, is
(A) /64
(B) 4
/32
(C) 3
/64
(D) 4
/64
Answer: Option D

Question No. 118

The S.F. diagram of a loaded beam shown in the given figure is that of

(A) A simply supported beam with isolated central load

(B) A simply supported beam with uniformly distributed load
(C) A cantilever with an isolated load at the free end
(D) A cantilever with a uniformly distributed load
Answer: Option D

Question No. 119

If M, I, R, E, F, and Y are the bending moment, moment of inertia, radius of curvature, modulus of
elasticity stress and the depth of the neutral axis at section, then
(A) M/I = R/E = F/Y
(B) I/M = R/E = F/Y
(C) M/I = E/R = E/Y
(D) M/I = E/R = Y/F
Answer: Option C

Question No. 120

Shear strain energy theory for the failure of a material at elastic limit, is due to
(A) Rankine
(B) Guest or Trecas
(C) St. Venant
(D) Von Mises
Answer: Option D

Question No. 121

1 2respectively,
the tangent
(A) 1 2
(B) 1 2 cos2
(C) 1 - 2
 (D) 1 2
Answer: Option C

Question No. 122

The radius of gyration of a section of area A and least moment of inertia I about the centroidal
axis, is
(A) A/I
(B) I/A
(C) /A)
(D) /I)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 123

The locus of the moment of inertia about inclined axes to the principal axis, is
(A) Straight line
(B) Parabola
(C) Circle
(D) Ellipse
Answer: Option D

Question No. 124

Beams composed of more than one material, rigidly connected together so as to behave as one
piece, are known as
(A) Compound beams
(B) Indeterminate beams
(C) Determinate beams
(D) Composite beams
Answer: Option D

Question No. 125

A steel plate d × b is sandwiched rigidly between two timber joists each D × B/2 in section. The

steel will be (where Young's modulus of steel is m times that of the timber).
(A) BD² + mbd²)/6D]
(B) BD3 + mbd3)/6D]
(C) BD² + mbd3)/4D]
(D) BD² + mbd²)/4D]
Answer: Option B

Question No. 126

The general expression for the B.M. of a beam of length l is the beam carries M = (wl/2) x - (wx²/2)
(A) A uniformly distributed load w/unit length
(B) A load varying linearly from zero at one end to w at the other end
(C) An isolated load at mid span
(D) None of these
 Answer: Option A

Question No. 127

In a shaft, the shear stress is not directly proportional to
(A) Radius of the shaft
(B) Angle of twist
(C) Length of the shaft
(D) Modulus of rigidity
Answer: Option C

Question No. 128

In the truss, the force in the member AC is

(A) 6.25 t compressive

(B) 8.75 t tensile
(C) t tensile
(D) t compressive
Answer: Option D

Question No. 129

The maximum deflection of a simply supported beam of span L, carrying an isolated load at the
centre of the span; flexural rigidity being EI, is
(A) WL3/3EL
(B) WL3/8EL
(C) WL3/24EL
(D) WL3/48EL
Answer: Option D

Question No. 130

The point of contraflexure is the point where
(A) B.M. changes sign
(B) B.M. is maximum
(C) B.M. is minimum
(D) S.F. is zero
Answer: Option A
Question No. 131
A steel bar 20 mm in diameter simply-supported at its ends over a total span of 40 cm carries a
load at its centre. If the maximum stress induced in the bar is limited to N/mm2, the bending
strain energy stored in the bar, is
(A) 411 N mm
(B) 511 N mm
(C) 611 N mm
(D) 711 N mm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 132

Keeping the depth d constant, the width of a cantilever of length l of uniform strength loaded with
a uniformly distributed load w varies from zero at the free end and
(A) (2w/ × l² at the fixed end
(B) (3w/ × l² at the fixed end
(C) (3w/ × l² at the fixed end
(D) (5w/ × l² at the fixed end
Answer: Option C

Question No. 133

The equivalent length is of a column of length having both the ends fixed, is
(A) 2L
(B) L
(C) L/2
(D) L
Answer: Option C

Question No. 134

For calculating the allowable stress of long columns. The empirical formula 0 y/n) (1 - a l/r), is
known as
(A) Straight line formula
(B) Parabolic formula
(C) Perry's formula
(D) Rankine's formula
Answer: Option A

Question No. 135

The equivalent length of a column of length L having one end fixed and the other end free, is
(A) 2L
(B) L
(C) L/2
(D) L
Answer: Option A
Question No. 136
For determining the support reactions at A and B of a three hinged arch, points B and Care joined
and produced to intersect the load line at D and a line parallel to the load line through A at D'.
Distances AD, DD' and AD' when measured were 4 cm, 3 cm and 5 cm respectively. The angle
between the reactions at A and B is
(A) 30°
(B) 45°
(C) 60°
(D) 90°
Answer: Option D

Question No. 137

The deflection of a uniform circular bar of diameter d and length , which extends by an
amount under a tensile pull , when it carries the same load at its mid-span, is
(A) el/2d
(B) e²l/3d²
(C) el²/3d²
(D) e²l²/3d²
Answer: Option C

Question No. 138

The ratio of the maximum deflections of a simply supported beam with a central load W and of a
cantilever of same length and with a load W at its free end, is
(A) 1/8
(B) 1/10
(C) 1/12
(D) 1/16
Answer: Option D

Question No. 139

The radius of gyration of a rectangular section (depth D, width B) from a centroidal axis parallel to
the width is
(A) D/2
(B) D
(C) D
(D) D
Answer: Option C

Question No. 140

A square column carries a load P at the centroid of one of the quarters of the square. If a is the
side of the main square, the combined bending stress will be
(A) p/a²
(B) 2p/a²
(C) 3p/a²
(D) 4p/a²
 Answer: Option C

Question No. 141

The moment of inertia of a rectangular section of width and depth about an axis passing
through C.G. and parallel to its width is
(A) BD²/6
(B) BD3/6
(C) BD3/12
(D) B²D/6
Answer: Option C

Question No. 142

The normal component of a force inclined thro
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 143

The ratio of the section modulus of a square section of side B and that of a circular section of
diameter D, is
(A) 2 /15
(B) 3 /16
(C) 3 /8
(D) /16
Answer: Option B

Question No. 144

A material may fail if
(A) 0
(B) Maximum strain exceeds 0/E
(C) Maximum shear stress exceeds 0/2
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 145

The ratio of tangential and normal compone
direction of the force is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Answer: Option C
Question No. 146
A shaft is subjected to bending moment M and a torque T simultaneously. The ratio of the
maximum bending stress to maximum shear stress developed in the shaft, is
(A) M/T
(B) T/M
(C) 2M/T
(D) 2T/M
Answer: Option C

Question No. 147

The maximum height of a masonry dam of a triangular section whose base width is b and specific
gravity s, is
(A)
(B) b.s
(C)
(D) s b
Answer: Option A

Question No. 148

A bar of square section of area a2 is held such that its one of its diameters is vertical. The
maximum shear stress will develop at a depth h where h is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Answer: Option B

Question No. 149

A cantilever of length 2 cm and depth 10 cm tapers in plan from a width 24 cm to zero at its free
end. If the modulus of elasticity of the material is 0.2 × 106 N/mm2, the deflection of the free end,
is
(A) 2 mm
(B) 3 mm
(C) 4 mm
(D) 5 mm
Answer: Option D

Question No. 150

The locus of reaction of a two hinged semi-circular arch, is
(A) Straight line
(B) Parabola
(C) Circle
(D) Hyperbola
Answer: Option A
Question No. 151
0. At its elastic limit, the following
statement is true,
(A) Strain is equal to 0/E
(B) Maximum shear stress = 0/2
(C) Strain energy = 0²/2E × volume
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 152

A truss containing j joints and m members, will be a simple truss if
(A) m = 2j - 3
(B) j = 2m - 3
(C) m = 3j - 2
(D) j = 3m - 2
Answer: Option A

Question No. 153

In plastic analysis, the shape factor for a triangular section, is
(A) 1.5
(B) 1.34
(C) 2.34
(D) 2.5
Answer: Option C

Question No. 154

A three hinged arch is generally hinged at its supports and
(A) At one quarter span
(B) At the crown
(C) Anywhere in the rib
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 155

A steel bar 5 m × 50 mm is loaded with 250,000 N. If the modulus of elasticity of the material is 0.2
MN/mm2 and Poisson's ratio is 0.25, the change in the volume of the bar is:
(A) 1.125 cm3
(B) 2.125 cm3
(C) 3.125 cm3
(D) 4.125 cm2
Answer: Option C

Question No. 156

Stress may be defined as
(A) Force per unit length
 (B) Force per unit volume
(C) Force per unit area
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 157

A steel rod 1 metre long having square cross section is pulled under a tensile load of 8 tonnes. The
extension in the rod was 1 mm only. If Esteel = 2 × 106 kg/cm2, the side of the rod, is
(A) 1 cm
(B) 1.5 cm
(C) 2 cm
(D) 2.5 cm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 158

The equivalent length of a column of length L, having both the ends hinged, is
(A) 2L
(B) L
(C) L/2
(D) L
Answer: Option B

Question No. 159

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The bending stress in a section is zero at its neutral axis and maximum at the outer fibres
(B) The shear stress is zero at the outer fibres and maximum at the neutral axis
(C) The bending stress at the outer fibres, is known as principal stress
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 160

Total strain energy theory for the failure of a material at elastic limit, is known
(A) Guest's or Trecas' theory
(B) St. Venant's theory
(C) Rankine's theory
(D) Haig's theory
Answer: Option D

Question No. 161

There are two hinged semicircular arches A, B and C of radii 5 m, 7.5 m and 10 m respectively and
each carries a concentrated load W at their crowns. The horizontal thrust at their supports will be
in the ratio of
(A) 1 : 1½ : 2
(B) 2 : 1½ : 1
(C) 1 : 1 : 2
 (D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 162

The horizontal deflection of a parabolic curved beam of span 10 m and rise 3 m when loaded with
a uniformly distributed load l t per horizontal length is (where Ic is the M.I. at the crown, which
varies as the slope of the arch).
(A) 50/EIc
(B) 100/EIc
(C) 150/EIc
(D) 200/EIc
Answer: Option D

Question No. 163

For beams of uniform strength, if depth is constant,
(A) Width b M
(B) Width b M
(C) Width b 3 M
(D) Width b 1/M
Answer: Option A

Question No. 164

Stress may be expressed in Newtons
(A) Per millimetre square (N/mm2)
(B) Per centimetre square (N/cm2)
(C) Per metre square (N/m2)
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 165

The maximum magnitude of shear stress due to shear force F on a rectangular section of area A at
the neutral axis, is
(A) F/A
(B) F/2A
(C) 3F/2A
(D) 2F/3A
Answer: Option C

Question No. 166

The vertical reaction for the arch is
(A) wa/2l
(B) wl/a
(C) wa/l
(D) wa²/2l
Answer: Option A
Question No. 167
Flat spiral springs
(A) Consist of uniform thin strips
(B) Are supported at outer end
(C) Are wound by applying a torque
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 168

In plastic analysis, the shape factor for a circular section, is
(A) 1.5
(B) 1.6
(C) 1.7
(D) 1.75
Answer: Option C

Question No. 169

In case of a simply supported rectangular beam of span L and loaded with a central load W, the
length of elasto-plastic zone of the plastic hinge, is
(A) L/2
(B) L/3
(C) L/4
(D) L/5
Answer: Option B

Question No. 170

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Hoop strain of the walls of a cylinder due to liquid is (pd/2tE) (1 - 1/2m)
(B) Longitudinal strain in the walls of a cylinder due to liquid is (pd/2tE) (1/2 - 1/m)
(C) Volumetric change in the cylinder due to liquid is (pd/2tE) (5/2 - 2/m)
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 171

The stiffness of the close coil helical spring is
(A) d4N/8D3n
(B) d4N/4D3n
(C) 4D3N/d4n
(D) 8D3N/d4n
Answer: Option A

Question No. 172

The ratio of the deflections of the free end of a cantilever due to an isolated load at 1/3rd and
2/3rd of the span, is
(A) 1/7
 (B) 2/7
(C) 3/7
(D) 2/5
Answer: Option B

Question No. 173

The ratio of the length and diameter of a simply supported uniform circular beam which
experiences maximum bending stress equal to tensile stress due to same load at its mid span, is
(A) 1/8
(B) 1/4
(C) 1/2
(D) 1/3
Answer: Option C

Question No. 174

The ratio of moments of inertia of a triangular section about its base and about a centroidal axis
parallel to its base, is
(A) 1.0
(B) 1.5
(C) 2.0
(D) 3.0
Answer: Option D

Question No. 175

The ratio of shear stress and shear strain of an elastic material, is
(A) Modulus of Rigidity
(B) Shear Modulus
(C) Modulus of Elasticity
(D) Both (a) and (b)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 176

For permissible shear stress fs, the torque transmitted by a thin tube of mean diameter D and wall
thickness t, is
(A) ( /2) t fs
(B) ( /2) t fs
(C) D2t fs
(D) ( /4) fs
Answer: Option A

Question No. 177

At yield point of a test piece, the material
(A) Obeys Hooke's law
(B) Behaves in an elastic manner
(C) Regains its original shape on removal of the load
 (D) Undergoes plastic deformation
Answer: Option D

Question No. 178

For the close coil helical spring of the maximum deflection is
(A) WD3n/d4N
(B) 2WD3n/d4N
(C) 4W²D3n/d4N
(D) 8WD3n/d4N
Answer: Option D
 Highway Engineering

Question No. 01
Group index method of design of flexible pavement is
(A) A theoretical method
(B) An empirical method based on physical properties of sub-grade soil
(C) An empirical method based on strength characteristics of sub-grade soil
(D) A semi empirical method
Answer: Option B

Question No. 02
Which of the following is considered to be the highest quality construction in the group of black
top pavements?
(A) Mastic asphalt
(B) Sheet asphalt
(C) Bituminous carpet
(D) Bituminous concrete
Answer: Option D

Question No. 03
Los Angeles testing machine is used to conduct
(A) Abrasion test
(B) Impact test
(C) Attrition test
(D) Crushing strength test
Answer: Option A

Question No. 04
When the width of car parking space and width of street are limited, generally preferred parking
system is
(A) Parallel parking
(B) 45° angle parking
(C) 65° angle parking
(D) 90° angle parking
Answer: Option A

Question No. 05
When the bituminous surfacing is done on already existing black top road or over existing cement
concrete road, the type of treatment given is
(A) Seal coat
(B) Tack coat
(C) Prime coat
(D) Spray of emulsion
 Answer: Option B

Question No. 06
In the penetration macadam construction, the bitumen is
(A) Sprayed after the aggregates are spread and compacted
(B) Premixed with aggregates and then spread
(C) Sprayed before the aggregates are spread and compacted
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 07
The drain which is provided parallel to roadway to intercept and divert the water from hill slopes
is known as
(A) Sloping drain
(B) Catch-water drain
(C) Side drain
(D) Cross drain
Answer: Option B

Question No. 08
The function of an expansion joint in rigid pavements is to
(A) Relieve warping stresses
(B) Relieve shrinkage stresses
(C) Resist stresses due to expansion
(D) Allow free expansion
Answer: Option D

Question No. 09
Select the correct statement.
(A) More the value of group index, less thickness of pavement will be required
(B) More the value of CBR, greater thickness of pavement will be required
(C) Minimum and maximum values of group index can be 0 and 20 respectively
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 10
Penetration test on bitumen is used for determining its
(A) Grade
(B) Viscosity
(C) Ductility
(D) Temperature susceptibility
Answer: Option A

Question No. 11
In soils having same values of plasticity index, if liquid limit is increased, then
 (A) Compressibility and permeability decrease and dry strength increases
(B) Compressibility, permeability and dry strength decrease
(C) Compressibility, permeability and dry strength increase
(D) Compressibility and permeability increase and dry strength decreases
Answer: Option D

Question No. 12
The maximum limit of water absorption for aggregate suitable for road construction is
(A) 0.4 %
(B) 0.6 %
(C) 0.8 %
(D) 1.0 %
Answer: Option B

Question No. 13
The critical combination of stresses for corner region in cement concrete roads is
(A) Load stress + warping stress frictional stress
(B) Load stress + warping stress + frictional stress
(C) Load stress + warping stress
(D) Load stress + frictional stress
Answer: Option C

Question No. 14
In highway construction, rolling starts from
(A) Sides and proceed to center
(B) Center and proceed to sides
(C) One side and proceed to other side
(D) Any of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 15
The most economical lighting layout which is suitable for narrow roads is
(A) Single side lighting
(B) Staggered system
(C) Central lighting system
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 16
The ideal shape of a transition curve, is
(A) Clothoid
(B) Cubic spiral
(C) Cubic parabola
(D) Lamniscate
Answer: Option A
Question No. 17
The full width of land acquired before finalising a highway, alignment is known
(A) Width of formation
(B) Right of way
(C) Carriage way
(D) Roadway
Answer: Option B

Question No. 18
Tyre pressure influences the
(A) Total depth of pavement
(B) Quality of surface course
(C) Both the above
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 19
Any gradient on a road is said to be an exceptional gradient, if it is
(A) More than ruling gradient
(B) Less than average gradient
(C) More than floating gradient
(D) Less than minimum gradient or more than maximum gradient
Answer: Option D

Question No. 20
During last phase of the reconnaissance, details of the grade line is recorded on 2 metre poles to
indicate
(A) Direction of the proposed alignment
(B) Distance between the previous and forward pegs
(C) Relative elevations of pegs
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 21
The most suitable equipment for compacting clayey soils is a
(A) Smooth wheeled roller
(B) Pneumatic tyred roller
(C) Sheep foot roller
(D) Vibrator
Answer: Option C

Question No. 22
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Seasonal cycle of traffic volume during April and November, is usually near the annual
average
 (B) Mid-winter seasonal cycle of traffic is least
(C) Mid-summer seasonal cycle of traffic is highest
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 23
Three points A, B and C 500 m apart on a straight road have 500 m, 505 m and 510 m as their
reduced levels. The road is said to have
(A) No gradient between A and C
(B) A positive gradient between A and C
(C) A negative gradient between A and C
(D) A negative gradient between A and B
Answer: Option D

Question No. 24
Select the correct statement.
(A) Quantity of binder required for tack coat is less than that required for prime coat
(B) Prime coat treatment is given for plugging the voids in water bound macadam during
bituminous road construction
(C) Seal coat is the final coat over certain previous bituminous pavements
(D) A bitumen primer is a high viscosity cutback
Answer: Option D

Question No. 25
The minimum design speed of various types of highways in plain terrain is the same as the ruling
design speed of
(A) Rolling terrain
(B) Mountainous terrain
(C) Steep terrain
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 26
Excessive camber on pavements may cause
(A) Deterioration of central portion
(B) Slip of the speedy vehicles towards the edges
(C) Erosion of the berms
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 27
In hill roads the side drains arc provided
(A) Only on the hill side of road
(B) Only on the opposite side of hill
(C) On both sides of road
 (D) None of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 28
Selection of the routes, of highways depends upon
(A) Feasibility of attaining ruling gradient
(B) Avoidance of cutting hard rocks
(C) Minimum number of bridges
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 29
Maximum number of vehicles that can pass a given point on a lane during one hour without
creating unreasonable delay, is known as
(A) Traffic density of lane
(B) Basic capacity of lane
(C) Probable capacity of lane
(D) Practical capacity of lane
Answer: Option D

Question No. 30
A traffic rotary is justified where
(A) Number of intersecting roads is between 4 and 7
(B) Space is limited and costly
(C) When traffic volume is less than 500 vehicles per hour
(D) When traffic volume is more than 5000 vehicles per hour
Answer: Option A

Question No. 31
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Minimum desirable width of medians on rural highways is 5 metres
(B) Minimum width of medians should be 3 metres
(C) On long bridges and viaducts, the width of medians should be 1.5 m
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 32
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The cross fall of the shoulder should be at least 0.5% steeper than camber
(B) On super-elevated sections, the shoulders should be provided a cross fall equal to camber
(C) Earthen roads in general are provided steepest cross-fall
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 33
If aggregate impact value is 20 to 30 percent, then it is classified as
(A) Exceptionally strong
(B) Strong
(C) Satisfactory for road surfacing
(D) Unsuitable for road surfacing
Answer: Option C

Question No. 34
Design of horizontal curves on highways, is based on
(A) Design speed of vehicles
(B) Permissible friction on the road surface
(C) Permissible centrifugal ratio
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 35
Set-back distance is the distance between
(A) Road land boundary and building line
(B) Road land boundary and control line
(C) Building line and control line
(D) Road land boundary and control line
Answer: Option A

Question No. 36
RC-2, MC-2 and SC-2 correspond to
(A) Same viscosity
(B) Viscosity in increasing order from RC-2 to SC-2
(C) Viscosity in decreasing order from RC-2 to SC-2
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 37
Speed regulations on roads is decided on the basis of
(A) 60 percentile cumulative frequency
(B) 75 percentile cumulative frequency
(C) 80 percentile cumulative frequency
(D) 85 percentile cumulative frequency
Answer: Option D

Question No. 38
At intersection of roads, the traffic volume study is carried out to ascertain the number of vehicles
(A) Moving along straights
(B) Turning left
(C) Turning right
 (D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 39
Flexible pavement distribute the wheel load
(A) Directly to sub-grade
(B) Through structural action
(C) Through a set of layers to the sub-grade
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 40
The most commonly adopted method to provide super-elevation on roads, is by pivoting the road
surface about
(A) Outer edge so that the inner edge is lowered
(B) Crown so that outer edge is raised and inner edge is lowered
(C) Inner edge so that outer edge is raised
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 41
When load is applied on concrete pavement
(A) Away from edges, the maximum bending moment is negative
(B) Away from edges, the maximum bending moment cause compression
(C) On the edges, the maximum stress is parallel to the edge of the slab
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 42
The fundamental factor in the selection of pavement type is
(A) Climatic condition
(B) Type and intensity of traffic
(C) Sub-grade soil and drainage conditions
(D) Availability of funds for the construction project
Answer: Option B

Question No. 43
If the coefficient of friction on the road surface is 0.15 and a maximum super-elevation 1 in 15 is
provided, the maximum speed of the vehicles on a curve of 100 metre radius, is
(A) 32.44 km/hour
(B) 42.44 kg/hour
(C) 52.44 km/hour
(D) 62.44 km/hour
Answer: Option C
Question No. 44
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Various geometric design features and generally guided by ruling design speed
(B) The design speed for a given highway should preferably be uniform
(C) Abrupt change in the design speed should not be permitted
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 45
For the construction of water bound macadam roads, the correct sequence of operations after
spreading coarse aggregates is
(A) Dry rolling, wet rolling, application of screening and application of filler
(B) Dry rolling, application of filler, wet rolling and application of screening
(C) Dry rolling, application of screening, wet rolling and application of filler
(D) Dry rolling, application of screening, application of filler and wet rolling
Answer: Option C

Question No. 46
In case of a multi-lane road, overtaking is generally permitted
(A) From right
(B) From left
(C) From both sides right and left
(D) Not at all
Answer: Option C

Question No. 47
If degree of a road curve is defined by assuming the standard length of an arc as 30 metres, the
radius of 1° curve is equal
(A) 1719 m
(B) 1146 m
(C) 1046 m
(D) 1619 m
Answer: Option A

Question No. 48
The walls which are necessary on the hill side of roadway where earth has to be retained from
slipping is known as
(A) Retaining wall
(B) Breast wall
(C) Parapet wall
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 49
If cross slope of a country is greater than 60%, the terrain is classified as
 (A) Rolling
(B) Mountainous
(C) Steep
(D) Plain
Answer: Option C

Question No. 50
The length of a transition curve, is governed by
(A) Rate of change of radial acceleration
(B) Rate of change of super-elevation
(C) Both (a) and (b)
(D) Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 51
When a number of roads are meeting at a point and only one of the roads is important, then the
suitable shape of rotary is
(A) Circular
(B) Tangent
(C) Elliptical
(D) Turbine
Answer: Option B

Question No. 52
A gradient along which the vehicle does not require any tractive effort to maintain a specified
speed, is known as
(A) Ruling gradient
(B) Pushing gradient
(C) Floating gradient
(D) Minimum gradient
Answer: Option C

Question No. 53
In welded wire mesh, the longitudinal wire is placed at
(A) 10 cm centres
(B) 15 cm centres
(C) 20 cm centres
(D) 25 cm centres
Answer: Option B

Question No. 54
Percentage of free carbon in bitumen is
(A) More than that in tar
(B) Less than that in tar
(C) Equal to that in tar
 (D) None of the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 55
Pavement is said to be flexible if it contains
(A) Water bound macadam surface
(B) Stabilised soil base constructed of lime cement or tar
(C) Bitumen-bound stone layer of varying aggregates
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 56
Hill roads are
(A) Provided camber along spur curves
(B) Provided camber along valley curves
(C) Seldom provided a camber
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 57
The method of design of flexible pavement as recommended by IRC is
(A) Group index method
(B) CBR method
(C) Westergaard method
(D) Benkelman beam method
Answer: Option B

Question No. 58
A district road with a bituminous pavement has a horizontal curve of 1000 m for a design speed of
75 km ph. The super-elevation is
(A) 1 in 40
(B) 1 in 50
(C) 1 in 60
(D) 1 in 70
Answer: Option A

Question No. 59
The head of public works department of any Indian state, is
(A) Transport Minister
(B) Chief Engineer
(C) Superintending Engineer
(D) Executive Engineer
Answer: Option B
Question No. 60
Tie bars in cement concrete pavements are at
(A) Expansion joints
(B) Contraction joints
(C) Warping joints
(D) Longitudinal joints
Answer: Option D

Question No. 61
As per recommendations of I.R.C., traffic volume study is carried out for rural roads for 7 days
continuously during
(A) Harvesting
(B) Lean season
(C) Harvesting and lean season
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 62
Formation width of a hill road is the distance between
(A) Outer end of side drain to outer end of parapet wall
(B) Outer end of side drain to inner end of parapet wall
(C) Inner end of side drain to outer end of parapet wall
(D) Inner end of side drain to inner end of parapet wall
Answer: Option A

Question No. 63
The camber of shoulders in water bound macadam roads is
(A) Equal to the cross slope of pavement
(B) Less than the cross slope of pavement
(C) Greater than the cross slope of pavement
(D) Zero
Answer: Option A

Question No. 64
Traffic surveys are carried out
(A) To know the type of traffic
(B) To determine the facilities to traffic regulations
(C) To design proper drainage system
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 65
The difference in gradients after full super-elevation and the initial alignment of a road, is known
as
(A) Ruling gradient
 (B) Rising gradient
(C) Compensated gradient
(D) Differential gradient
Answer: Option D

Question No. 66
The camber for hill roads in case of bituminous surfacing is adopted as
(A) 2 %
(B) 2.5 %
(C) 3 %
(D) 4 %
Answer: Option B

Question No. 67
If C is basic capacity per lane, V is velocity in km/hour, S is stopping distance plus length of the
vehicles in metres, the formula C = 1000V/S is applicable to
(A) District roads
(B) Two lane roads
(C) Two lane roads in one direction
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 68
To prevent movement of moisture from sub-grade to road pavement on embankments about 0.6
m to 1 m higher than water table, the thickness of cut off layer of coarse sand used, is
(A) 15 cm
(B) 20 cm
(C) 30 cm
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 69
The direct interchange ramp involves
(A) Diverging to the right side and merging from left
(B) Diverging to the left side and merging from right
(C) Diverging to the right side and merging from right
(D) Diverging to the left side and merging from left
Answer: Option C

Question No. 70
Design of flexible pavements is based on
(A) Mathematical analysis
(B) Empirical formulae
(C) A compromise of pure theory and pure empirical formula
(D) None of these
 Answer: Option C

Question No. 71
The total value of extra widening required at a horizontal curve on a two lane hill road of radius 42
m for a design speed of 50 kmph and for vehicles with wheel base 6 m, is
(A) 0.500 m
(B) 0.589 m
(C) 1.089 m
(D) 0.089 m
Answer: Option C

Question No. 72
Which of the following represents hardest grade of bitumen?
(A) 30/40
(B) 60/70
(C) 80/100
(D) 100/120
Answer: Option A

Question No. 73
The weight of vehicles affects
(A) Pavement thickness
(B) Ruling gradient
(C) Limiting gradient
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 74
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The height of head light above road surface, is taken as 0.75 m
(B) The beam of head light is up to one degree upwards from the grade of road
(C) While designing the valley curve, the height of the object is assumed nil
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 75
The number of repetitions, which the pavement thickness designed for a given wheel load should
be able to support during the life pavement is
(A) 1000
(B) 10,000
(C) 1,00,000
(D) 10,00,000
Answer: Option D
Question No. 76
According to the recommendations of Nagpur Conference, the width formation of an ideal
National Highway in hard rock cutting, is
(A) 8.9 m
(B) 7.9 m
(C) 6.9 m
(D) 6.5 m
Answer: Option B

Question No. 77
Setting out of Lemniscate transition curves, is done with
(A) Perpendicular offsets
(B) Radial offsets
(C) Deflection angles
(D) Polar deflection angles
Answer: Option D

Question No. 78
Maximum daily traffic capacity of bituminous pavements is
(A) 500 tonnes per day
(B) 1000 tonnes per day
(C) 1500 tonnes per day
(D) 2000 tonnes per day
Answer: Option C

Question No. 79
The head light of vehicles should be such that its lower beam illuminates objects at
(A) 10 m
(B) 20 m
(C) 30 m
(D) 40 m
Answer: Option C

Question No. 80
The gradients of trace cuts for hilly roads, are kept
(A) Equal to ruling gradient
(B) 10 to 20 per cent easier than ruling gradients
(C) 10 to 20 per cent steeper than ruling gradients
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 81
Which of the following represents a carpet of sand-bitumen mix without coarse aggregates?
(A) Mastic asphalt
(B) Sheet asphalt
 (C) Bituminous carpet
(D) Bituminous concrete
Answer: Option B

Question No. 82
Reinforcement in cement concrete slab of road pavements, is placed
(A) Longitudinally
(B) Transversely
(C) Longitudinally and transversely
(D) In the form of welded wire mesh
Answer: Option D

Question No. 83
The ability of a driver to stop the vehicle moving with the designed speed, depends upon:
(A) Perception time
(B) Brake reaction time
(C) Efficiency of the brakes
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 84
Maximum number of vehicles can be parked with
(A) Parallel parking
(B) 30° angle parking
(C) 45° angle parking
(D) 90° angle parking
Answer: Option D

Question No. 85
On concrete roads, the camber generally provided, is
(A) 1 in 20 to 1 in 24
(B) 1 in 30 to 1 in 48
(C) 1 in 36 to 1 in 48
(D) 1 in 60 to 1 in 72
Answer: Option D

Question No. 86
If d is the economic designed depth of a slab, the thickness of the cement concrete pavement slab
at interior, is kept
(A) 1.275 d
(B) 1.125 d
(C) 0.85 d
(D) 0.75 d
Answer: Option C
Question No. 87
The ductility value of bitumen for suitability in road construction should not be less than
(A) 30 cm
(B) 40 cm
(C) 50 cm
(D) 60 cm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 88
If L is the length of a moving vehicle and R is the radius of curve, the extra mechanical width b to
be provided on horizontal curves,
(A) L/R
(B) L/2R
(C) L²/2R
(D) L/3R
Answer: Option C

Question No. 89
Interior thickness of concrete road slab for design wheel load 6300 kg and permissible flexural
stress 21 kg/cm2, is
(A) 17.0 cm
(B) 25.5 cm
(C) 34.0 cm
(D) 42.5 cm
Answer: Option B

Question No. 90
For rapid curing cutbacks, the oil used is
(A) Gasoline
(B) Kerosene oil
(C) Light diesel
(D) Heavy diesel
Answer: Option A

Question No. 91
The width of different roads as recommended in Nagpur plan by the Indian Road Conference for
hilly region, is
(A) Same for National Highways
(B) Different for National Highways
(C) Same for State Highways
(D) Same for Major District roads
Answer: Option B

Question No. 92
To prevent a head-on-collision of vehicles travelling in opposite directions along four-lane roads
 (A) Markings on the road are provided
(B) Physical dividers are provided
(C) Area dividers are provided
(D) Medians of wide area are provided
Answer: Option D

Question No. 93
The maximum thickness of expansion joint in rigid pavements is
(A) 0
(B) 25 mm
(C) 50 mm
(D) 100 mm
Answer: Option B

Question No. 94
Length of vehicles does not affect
(A) Extra widening
(B) Minimum radius of turning
(C) Passing sight distance
(D) Width of shoulders
Answer: Option D

Question No. 95
The type of curves generally provided on highways, is
(A) Critical curve
(B) Transition curve
(C) Vertical curve
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 96
The thickness of bituminous carpet varies from
(A) 20 to 25 mm
(B) 50 to 75 mm
(C) 75 to 100 mm
(D) 100 to 120 mm
Answer: Option A

Question No. 97
The advantage of providing super-elevation on roads, is
(A) Higher speed of vehicles
(B) Increased volume of traffic
(C) Reduced maintenance cost of the roads
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 98
Gradient resistance of moving vehicles along down slopes, is
(A) + 7 kg/tonne
(B) + 9 kg/tonne
(C) - 9 kg/tonne
(D) - 7 kg/tonne
Answer: Option C

Question No. 99
As per IRC recommendations, the average level of illumination on important roads carrying fast
traffic is
(A) 10 Lux
(B) 15 Lux
(C) 20 Lux
(D) 30 Lux
Answer: Option D

Question No. 100

Camber in pavements is provided by
(A) Straight line method
(B) Parabola method
(C) Straight at the edges and parabolic at the crown
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 101

Over taking time required for a vehicle with design speed 50 km ph and overtaking acceleration
1.25 m/sec2 to overtake a vehicle moving at a speed 30 km ph, is
(A) 5.0 secs
(B) 6.12 secs
(C) 225.48 secs
(D) 30 secs
Answer: Option B

Question No. 102

The group index for a soil, whose liquid limit is 40 percent, plasticity index is 10 percent and
percentage passing 75 micron IS sieve
(A) 0
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 7
Answer: Option A

Question No. 103

According to Indian Road Congress, the width of carriageway, is
 (A) 3.75 m for single lane
(B) 7.0 m for two lanes without raised kerbs
(C) 7.5 m for two lanes with raised kerbs
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 104

For night travel, the length of a valley curve should be such that the head light beam distance is
the same as
(A) Stopping sight distance
(B) Overtaking sight distance
(C) Sum of (a) and (b)
(D) Difference of (a) and (b)
Answer: Option A

Question No. 105

The binder normally used in flexible pavement construction is
(A) Cement
(B) Lime
(C) Bitumen
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 106

Intermediate catch water drains are provided only, if
(A) Catchment area of the watershed above road is large
(B) Intensity of rainfall is heavy
(C) Single catch water drain is inadequate
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 107

In retaining and breast walls, weep holes are provided at
(A) 50 cm vertical height and 50 cm centre to centre horizontally
(B) 100 cm vertical height and 100 cm centre to centre horizontally
(C) 100 cm vertical height and 120 cm centre to centre horizontally
(D) 120 cm vertical height and 100 cm centre to centre horizontally
Answer: Option C

Question No. 108

In highway construction on super-elevated curves, the rolling shall proceed from
(A) Sides towards the centre
(B) Centre towards the sides
(C) Lower edge towards the upper edge
(D) Upper edge towards the lower edge
 Answer: Option C

Question No. 109

An upgrade g1% is followed by a downgrade g2%. The equation of the parabolic curve of
length L to be introduced, is given by
(A) y = g [(g - g L] x²
(B) y = [(g g L] x²
(C) y = [(g - g L] x²
(D) y = [(g g L] x²
Answer: Option B

Question No. 110

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Borrow pits are located outside the right of way
(B) Borrow pits may be located on either side of the right of way
(C) Spoil bank is located on one side of the right of way
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 111

Which of the following tests measures the toughness of road aggregates?
(A) Crushing strength test
(B) Abrasion test
(C) Impact test
(D) Shape test
Answer: Option C

Question No. 112

Reconnaissance is best done with the help of
(A) Aerial photographic survey
(B) Cadastral surveys
(C) Topographical surveys
(D) Triangulation surveys
Answer: Option A

Question No. 113

To ensure that bullock carts may not overturn on curves, the maximum value of super-elevation,
recommended by I.R.C., is
(A) 1 in 10
(B) 1 in 12
(C) 1 in 15
(D) 1 in 20
Answer: Option C
Question No. 114
If the group index value of sub-grade is between 5 and 9, then the sub-grade is treated as
(A) Good
(B) Fair
(C) Poor
(D) Very poor
Answer: Option C

Question No. 115

An Executive Engineer of roads, executes works under direct control of
(A) Superintending Engineer
(B) Secretary to the Govt
(C) Chief Engineer
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 116

The distance travelled by revolving the wheel of a vehicle more than its circumferential
movement, is known as
(A) Slip
(B) Skid
(C) Neither (a) nor (b)
(D) Both (a) and (b)
Answer: Option B

Question No. 117

The suitable surfacing material for a bridge deck slab is
(A) Sheet asphalt
(B) Bituminous carpet
(C) Mastic asphalt
(D) Rolled asphalt
Answer: Option C

Question No. 118

If the velocity of moving vehicles on a road is 24 km/per hour, stopping distance is 19 metres and
average length of vehicles is 6 metres, the basic capacity of lane, is
(A) 500 vehicles per hour
(B) 700 vehicles per hour
(C) 1000 vehicles per hour
(D) 1250 vehicles per hour
Answer: Option C

Question No. 119

Traffic census is carried out for
(A) Speed and delay study
 (B) Road parking study
(C) Traffic volume study
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 120

In CBR test the value of CBR is calculated at
(A) 2.5 mm penetration only
(B) 5.0 mm penetration only
(C) 7.5 mm penetration only
(D) Both 2.5 mm and 5.0 mm penetrations
Answer: Option D

Question No. 121

If the radii of a compound curve and a reverse curve are respectively the same, the length of
common tangent
(A) Of compound curve will be more
(B) Of reverse curve will be more
(C) Of both curves will be equal
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 122

The best compromise between the increase of the length of a highway and reduction in its load
carrying capacity, is the ruling gradient
(A) 1 in 10
(B) 1 in 15
(C) 1 in 20
(D) 1 in 25
Answer: Option C

Question No. 123

Bottom most layer of pavement is known as
(A) Wearing course
(B) Base course
(C) Sub-base course
(D) Sub-grade
Answer: Option D

Question No. 124

The number of vehicles moving in a specified direction on a roadway that pass a given point during
specified unit of time, is called
(A) Traffic volume
(B) Traffic density
(C) Basic capacity
 (D) Traffic capacity
Answer: Option A

Question No. 125

Ruling gradient on hill roads 300 m above M.S.L. is kept
(A) 4 %
(B) 5 %
(C) 7 %
(D) 8 %
Answer: Option B

Question No. 126

The aggregates required for one kilometre length of water bound macadam road per meter width
and for 10 mm thickness is
(A) 8 cubic meter
(B) 10 cubic meter
(C) 12 cubic meter
(D) 15 cubic meter
Answer: Option C

Question No. 127

The minimum value of camber provided for thin bituminous surface hill roads, is
(A) 2.2 %
(B) 2.5 %
(C) 3.0 %
(D) 3.5 %
Answer: Option B

Question No. 128

Roundabouts are not suitable if number of vehicles exceed
(A) 3000
(B) 4000
(C) 5000
(D) 6000
Answer: Option A

Question No. 129

The minimum design speed for hairpin bends in hill roads is taken as
(A) 20 kmph
(B) 30 kmph
(C) 40 kmph
(D) 50 kmph
Answer: Option A
Question No. 130
Thickness of a pavement may be reduced considerably by
(A) Compaction of soil
(B) Stabilisation of soil
(C) Drainage of soil
(D) Combination of all the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 131

To compensate the loss of tractive force of vehicles along curves of radius R, the percentage
reduction of gradient, is
(A) 50/R
(B) 75/R
(C) 100/R
(D) 125/R
Answer: Option B

Question No. 132

The maximum allowable Los Angeles abrasion value for high quality surface course is
(A) 10 %
(B) 20 %
(C) 30 %
(D) 45 %
Answer: Option C

Question No. 133

The minimum ratio of the radii of two circular curves of a compound curve, is kept
(A) 1.25
(B) 1.5
(C) 1.75
(D) 2.0
Answer: Option B

Question No. 134

The distance travelled by a moving vehicle during perception and brake reaction times, is known
as
(A) Sight distance
(B) Stopping distance
(C) Lag distance
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 135

Rigidity factor for a tyre pressure greater than 7 kg/cm² is
(A) Equal to 1
 (B) Less than 1
(C) Greater than 1
(D) Zero
Answer: Option B

Question No. 136

The formula for calculating the depth of concrete pavements suggested by Gold beck, is
(A) d = 3W/ max
(B) d W/ max)
(C) d W/ max)
(D) d W/ max)
Answer: Option B

Question No. 137

polar angle is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 138

Most suitable material for highway embankments is
(A) Granular soil
(B) Organic soil
(C) Silts
(D) Clays
Answer: Option A

Question No. 139

The road foundation for modern highways construction, was developed by
(A) Tresguet
(B) Telford
(C) Tresguet and Telford simultaneously
(D) Telford and Macadam simultaneously
Answer: Option D

Question No. 140

Longitudinal pavement lines marked broken in white paint
(A) Are for the guidance of the drivers
(B) Are not to be crossed over
(C) May be crossed over at the discretion of the driver
(D) All the above
Answer: Option C
Question No. 141
The recommended grade of tar for grouting purpose is
(A) RT-1
(B) RT-2
(C) RT-3
(D) RT-5
Answer: Option D

Question No. 142

According to Highway Research Board of U.S.A. practical land width, is
(A) 2.7 m
(B) 3.0 m
(C) 3.3 m
(D) 3.6 m
Answer: Option D

Question No. 143

If the radius of a main curve is 300 m and length of the transition curve is 100 m, the angle with
tangent to locate the junction point, is
(A) 1° 11'
(B) 2° 11'
(C) 3° 11'
(D) 4° 11'
Answer: Option C

Question No. 144

Which of the following premix methods is used for base course?
(A) Bituminous carpet
(B) Mastic asphalt
(C) Sheet asphalt
(D) Bituminous bound macadam
Answer: Option D

Question No. 145

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) During reconnaissance, the general route of the alignment is selected
(B) After reconnaissance, a trace is cut for the alignment
(C) Last stage is the detailed surveys for desired geometries' of the highway
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 146

The statement, regarding the size of stones used at the wearing surface. "The size of a stone used
on a road must be in due proportion to the space occupied by a wheel of ordinary dimensions on a
smooth level surface. The point of contact will be found to be longitudinal about 2.5 cm and every
piece of stone put into the road which exceeds 2.5 cm in any of its dimension is mischievous" was
made by
(A) Telford
(B) Macadam
(C) Tresguet
(D) Sully
Answer: Option B

Question No. 147

Bitumen of grade 80/100 means
(A) Its penetration value is 8 mm
(B) Its penetration value is 10 mm
(C) Its penetration value is 8 to 10 mm
(D) Its penetration value is 8 to 10 cm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 148

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Safety fences are provided on either side of a roadway if embankments are in excess of 6
metres
(B) Safety fences are provided on outside of the curves of radii less than 750 m if the
embankments are between 3 metres and 6 metres
(C) Guard stones are provided at 2.5 metres intervals if embankments are between 1.6 metres
to 3 metres
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 149

I.R.T.D.A. (Indian Roads and Transport Development Association) was set up at Bombay in
(A) 1907
(B) 1917
(C) 1027
(D) 1937
Answer: Option C

Question No. 150

The maximum spacing of contraction joints in rigid pavements is
(A) 2.5 m
(B) 3.5 m
(C) 4.5 m
(D) 5.5 m
Answer: Option C

Question No. 151

If N is deviation angle, the length L, of a parabolic vertical curve for safe stopping distance S, is
 (A) NS²/4.4 if L > S
(B) 2S - 4.4/N if L < S
(C) 2S - 4.4/N if L > S
(D) Both (a) and (b)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 152

A single lane carriage way whenever changes to two-lane carriage way, is affected through a taper
of
(A) 1 in 10
(B) 1 in 15
(C) 1 in 20
(D) 1 in 15 to 1 in 20
Answer: Option D

Question No. 153

Softening point of bitumen to be used for read construction at a place where maximum
temperature is 40°C should be
(A) Less than 40°C
(B) Greater than 40°C
(C) Equal to 40°C
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 154

According to IRC : 52-1973, for a single lane National Highway in hilly region,
(A) Width of the carriageway must be 3.75 m
(B) Shoulders on either side must be 1.25 m
(C) Total width of the road-way must be 6.25 m
(D) Total of the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 155

If a Lemniscate curve of transition throughout is introduced to connect two parallel roads, the
maximum polar angle of the curve, is
(A) 10°
(B) 15°
(C) 20°
(D) 30°
Answer: Option D

Question No. 156

Minimum thickness of a layer of fine sand required to cut off capillary rise of water completely,
should be
(A) 40 cm
 (B) 52 cm
(C) 64 cm
(D) 76 cm
Answer: Option D

Question No. 157

The standard equation of a cubical spiral transition curve provided on roads, is
(A) y = l²/6RL
(B) y = x3/6RL
(C) y = x2/6RL
(D) y = x/6RL
Answer: Option B

Question No. 158

If N is the algebraic difference of grades, S is the head light beam distance in metres, the length (L)
of a valley curve, is
(A) NS²/4
(B) NS²/6
(C) NS²/9.6
(D) NS²/4.8
Answer: Option A

Question No. 159

To prevent compressive stresses in a rigid concrete pavement, the joint provided, is
(A) Expansion joint
(B) Contraction joint
(C) Hinged joint
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 160

Along high ways confirmatory route markers are generally fixed
(A) Before the crossing on the left side
(B) After the crossing on the left side
(C) Before the crossing on the right side
(D) After the crossing on the right side
Answer: Option B

Question No. 161

If the width of carriage way is 12.5 metres, outer edge 50 cm higher than the inner edge, the
required super elevation is
(A) 50 cm
(B) 1 in 25
(C) 1 in 400
(D) 1 in 40
 Answer: Option B

Question No. 162

If N is the net difference of grades, S is the minimum overtaken sight distance in metres, the
length (L) of a summit curve, is
(A) NS/4
(B) NS²/4
(C) NS²/4.8
(D) NS²/9.6
Answer: Option D

Question No. 163

Super-elevation on roads in snow bound areas, should generally not exceed
(A) 15 %
(B) 12 %
(C) 10 %
(D) 7 %
Answer: Option D

Question No. 164

Passing zones are generally not provided on
(A) Summit curves
(B) Horizontal curves
(C) Two lane highways
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 165

In a braking test, a vehicle travelling at 36 km ph was stopped at a braking distance of 8.0 m. The
average value of the vehicle's skid resistance (friction coefficient) is
(A) 0.64
(B) 6.25
(C) 0.16
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 166

The first stage of deciding the alignment of a hill road, is
(A) Reconnaissance
(B) Detailed survey
(C) Trace-out
(D) Preliminary survey
Answer: Option A
Question No. 167
The normal road land width for a National or State highway, in open areas should be
(A) 45 m
(B) 30 m
(C) 24 m
(D) 20 m
Answer: Option A

Question No. 168

Floating gradients are generally provided
(A) Along maximum gradients
(B) Along minimum gradients
(C) At summit curves
(D) At valley curves
Answer: Option C

Question No. 169

If cross slope of a country is upto 10% the terrain is classified as
(A) Plain
(B) Rolling
(C) Mountainous
(D) Steep
Answer: Option A

Question No. 170

Area of steel required per metre width of pavement for a length of 20 m for design wheel load
6300 kg and permissible stress in steel 1400 kg/cm2, is
(A) 70 kg/sq cm
(B) 80 kg/sq cm
(C) 90 kg/sq cm
(D) 100 kg/sq cm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 171

In case of a hair pin bend of a highway,
(A) Minimum radius of inner curve is 14 m
(B) Minimum radius of transition is 15 m
(C) Circular compound curve may be provided
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 172

The minimum vertical clearance of overhanging cliffs or any other structure above the surface of a
hill road, should be
(A) 3 m
 (B) 4 m
(C) 5 m
(D) 6 m
Answer: Option C

Question No. 173

The camber on pavements, is provided by
(A) Straight line method
(B) Parabolic method
(C) Straight line and parabolic at crown
(D) Elliptical method
Answer: Option C

Question No. 174

One-way streets are generally provided in crowded cities as, these
(A) Are inexpensive means of traffic flow
(B) Reduce delays to vehicles
(C) Permit higher speed
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 175

The width of the right of way, is influenced by
(A) Formation width
(B) Shoulders or berms
(C) Classification of road
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 176

The maximum distance of the apex of a vertical curve of length L from the point of intersection of
two grades + g1%, and - g2% (g1 > g2), is
(A) L(g - g
(B) L(g - g
(C) L(g g
(D) L(g - g
Answer: Option C

Question No. 177

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. On highways circular curves may be
(A) Simple curves
(B) Compound curves
(C) Reverse curves
(D) Vertical curves
Answer: Option D
Question No. 178
The desirable camber for straight roads with thin bituminous surfacing, is
(A) 1 in 33 to 1 in 25
(B) 1 in 40 to 1 in 33
(C) 1 in 150 to 1 in 140
(D) 1 in 160 to 1 in 140
Answer: Option C

Question No. 179

If brakes of vehicles are effective, the vehicle-running at 30 km/hour comes to a stop in
(A) 10 metres
(B) 12 metres
(C) 15 metres
(D) 18 metres
Answer: Option B

Question No. 180

From the point of tangency before an intersection, the route markers are fixed at a distance of
(A) 15 m to 30 m
(B) 20 m to 35 m
(C) 40 m to 50 m
(D) 100 m to 150
Answer: Option D

Question No. 181

The minimum super-elevation in rolling terrain in plains, is limited to
(A) 4 %
(B) 5 %
(C) 6 %
(D) 7 %
Answer: Option D

Question No. 182

In ideal pavement is constructed with
(A) Bricks
(B) Hard soil
(C) Portland cement concrete
(D) Tar
Answer: Option C

Question No. 183

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. If water cement ratio is
(A) Increased, strength of concrete increases
(B) Decreased, strength of concrete increases
(C) Increased, strength of concrete is not affected
 (D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 184

Design of horizontal and vertical alignments, super-elevation, sight distance and grades, is worst
affected by
(A) Width of the vehicle
(B) Length of the vehicle
(C) Height of the vehicle
(D) Speed of the vehicle
Answer: Option D

Question No. 185

For a comfortable travel on Highways, the centrifugal ratio should not exceed
(A) 0.10
(B) 0.15
(C) 0.20
(D) 0.25
Answer: Option D

Question No. 186

Border Roads Organisation for hilly regions (India), was formed in
(A) 1947
(B) 1954
(C) 1958
(D) 1960
Answer: Option D

Question No. 187

For a poorly graded sub-grade soil, thickness of sub-base, is
(A) 10 cm
(B) 15 cm
(C) 20 cm
(D) 30 cm
Answer: Option D

Question No. 188

The usual width of parapet walls along Highways in hilly region, is
(A) 50 cm
(B) 60 cm
(C) 70 cm
(D) 80 cm
Answer: Option B
Question No. 189
In scanty rainfall regions, the camber provided will be
(A) Nil
(B) Flatter
(C) Steeper
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 190

In water bound macadam roads, binding material, is
(A) Sand
(B) Stone dust
(C) Cement
(D) Brick dust
Answer: Option B

Question No. 191

Design of flexible pavement, involves
(A) Wheel loads
(B) Intensity of traffic
(C) Climate of the region
(D) Sub-grade conditions
Answer: Option C

Question No. 192

Increase in traffic volume, due to increase in transport vehicles, is known as
(A) Development traffic
(B) Normal traffic growth
(C) Generated traffic growth
(D) Current traffic
Answer: Option C

Question No. 193

Width of a rotary round should be equal to
(A) Twice the width of narrowest radial road
(B) Width of the widest road
(C) Width of the widest road plus the width of one lane
(D) Width of the widest road plus 2 metres
Answer: Option C

Question No. 194

Volume of traffic which would immediately use a new road or an improved one when opened to
traffic, is known
(A) Development traffic
(B) Current traffic
 (C) General traffic
(D) Normal traffic growth
Answer: Option D

Question No. 195

Volume of traffic which is due to improvement carried out in adjacent area, is known as
(A) Development traffic
(B) Generated traffic growth
(C) Normal traffic growth
(D) Current traffic
Answer: Option A

Question No. 196

Maximum number of passenger cars that can pass a given point on a road during one hour under
the most ideal road way and traffic conditions, is known as
(A) Traffic density
(B) Basic capacity of traffic lane
(C) Possible capacity of traffic lane
(D) All the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 197

Reference pillars fixed on the centre line of a proposed road, provide the following information:
(A) Reduced distance (R.D.)
(B) Horizontal distance of road from the centre line
(C) Reduced level at the top of pillar
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 198

In an ideal transition curve, the radius of curvature
(A) Is constant
(B) At any point is directly proportional to its distance from the point of commencement
(C) Is inversely proportional to the radius of main curve
(D) Is directly proportional to the radius of main curve
Answer: Option C

Question No. 199

Alignment of highways in hilly regions, is decided on
(A) Long stretch of very hard cutting
(B) Number of river crossings
(C) Natural unstable areas
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 200
The desirable camber for straight cement concrete roads, is
(A) 1 in 33 to 1 in 25
(B) 1 in 40 to 1 in 33
(C) 1 in 150 to 1 in 140
(D) 1 in 160 to 1 in 140
Answer: Option D

Question No. 201

In case of cement concrete pavements, pick up the incorrect statement
(A) Tractive resistance is low
(B) Initial cost of construction is high
(C) Initial cost of construction is low
(D) Visibility during nights is high
Answer: Option C

Question No. 202

If D is the degree of a curve, the percentage reduction of gradient, is
(A) 0.01 D
(B) 0.02 D
(C) 0.03 D
(D) 0.04 D
Answer: Option D

Question No. 203

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) Highways are always constructed in straight line
(B) Highways may be provided horizontal curves
(C) Highways may be provided vertical curves
(D) Highways may be provided both horizontal and vertical curves
Answer: Option A

Question No. 204

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Long tangent sections exceeding 3 km in length should be avoided
(B) Curve length should be at least 150 metres for a deflection angle of 5 degree
(C) For every degree decrease in the deflection angle, 30 metre length of curve to be increased
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 205

Minimum number of 50 kg cement bags per cubic metre of concrete for a mix corresponding to
crushing strength 280 kg/cm2 at 28 days, are
(A) 5.0
(B) 6.5
 (C) 7.0
(D) 7.5
Answer: Option B

Question No. 206

For Indian conditions, the water bound macadam roads, are suitable if daily traffic does not
exceed
(A) 2000 tonnes
(B) 2500 tonnes
(C) 3000 tonnes
(D) 3500 tonnes
Answer: Option A

Question No. 207

Indian Road Congress (I.R.C.) was founded and constituted with its head quarters at New Delhi, in
(A) 1924
(B) 1927
(C) 1930
(D) 1934
Answer: Option D

Question No. 208

The steepest gradient permitted on roads which, in ordinary conditions, does not exceed, is
known
(A) Ruling gradient
(B) Maximum gradient
(C) Exceptional gradient
(D) Floating gradient
Answer: Option B

Question No. 209

When each particle of aggregates is thinly coated with cement paste, a heterogeneous solid is
formed, which is known as
(A) Hydration
(B) Gel
(C) Concrete
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 210

Width of the shoulders of carriage way is generally kept
(A) 100 cm
(B) 125 cm
(C) 150 cm
(D) 250 cm
 Answer: Option D

Question No. 211

Reduction of load capacity in a ruling gradient of
(A) 1 in 10, is 10%
(B) 1 in 15, is 15%
(C) 1 in 20, is 10%
(D) 1 in 25, is 25%
Answer: Option C

Question No. 212

The width of road pavements, depends upon
(A) Width of traffic lane
(B) Number of traffic
(C) Width of median strip
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 213

While calculating the overtaking sight distance, the height of the object above road surface, is
assumed
(A) 50 cm
(B) 75 cm
(C) 100 cm
(D) 120 cm
Answer: Option D

Question No. 214

Minimum thickness of the base of a flexible pavement, is
(A) 10 cm
(B) 15 cm
(C) 20 cm
(D) 25 cm
Answer: Option A

Question No. 215

Widening of the roads on curves in hilly region, is done
(A) On the outer side
(B) On the inner side
(C) On the outer and inner sides equally
(D) Less on outer side and more on inner side
Answer: Option B

Question No. 216

Side drains on both sides of a hill road, are essential when the road is
 (A) Along the spur curves
(B) Along the re-entrant curves
(C) In cutting
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 217

The wall constructed for the stability of a back filling portion of a road on the downhill side, is
known as
(A) Retaining wall
(B) Breast wall
(C) Parapet wall
(D) All the above
Answer: Option A

Question No. 218

If V is speed of a moving vehicle, r is radius of the curve, g is the acceleration due to gravity, W is
the width of the carriageway, the super elevation is
(A) WV/gr
(B) W²V/gr
(C) WV²/gr
(D) WV/gr²
Answer: Option C

Question No. 219

In a right angle bend of a road provided with a transition throughout, the maximum polar angle
will be
(A) 10°
(B) 15°
(C) 20°
(D) 30°
Answer: Option B

Question No. 220

If V is the design speed in km/hour and R is the radius of the curve of a hill road, the super-
elevation
(A) e = V / 127 R
(B) e = V² / 127 R
(C) e = V ²/ 225 R
(D) e = V / 225 R
Answer: Option C

Question No. 221

Along a hill road, a side drain is provided on
(A) Outer side of a spur curve
 (B) Outer side of a re-entrant curve
(C) Outer side of both (a) and (b)
(D) Inner side of both (a) and (b)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 222

The total length of a valley formed by two gradients - 3% and + 2% curve between the two tangent
points to provide a rate of change of centrifugal acceleration 0.6 m/sec 2, for a design speed 100
kmph, is
(A) 16.0 m
(B) 42.3 m
(C) 84.6 m
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 223

If V is speed in km/hour and R is radius of the curve, the super-elevation e is equal to
(A) V²/125 R
(B) V²/225 R
(C) V²/325 R
(D) V²/25 R
Answer: Option B

Question No. 224

The weaving length of a roadway is the distance
(A) Between the channelizing islands
(B) Equal to half circumference
(C) Equal to total width of adjoining radial roads
(D) Equal to diameter of rotary
Answer: Option A

Question No. 225

Following type of pavement is generally known as flexible pavement
(A) Water-bound macadam roads
(B) Stabilised soil roads
(C) Road constructed with various layers of building material well compacted
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 226

First operation during the detailed survey of a hill road, is
(A) Hydrological and soil surveys
(B) Adjustment of alignment along with curves
(C) Derivation of longitudinal and cross-sections
(D) Fixation of Bench Marks
 Answer: Option D

Question No. 227

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. The width of the right-of-way is decided so as
to accommodate
(A) Formation width
(B) Side slopes
(C) Horizontal curve
(D) Vertical curve
Answer: Option D

Question No. 228

The type of transition curves generally provided on hill roads, is
(A) Circular
(B) Cubic parabola
(C) Lemniscate
(D) Spiral
Answer: Option D

Question No. 229

When a number of hair pin bends are introduced, a minimum intervening distance in between is
kept
(A) 20 m
(B) 40 m
(C) 60 m
(D) 100 m
Answer: Option C

Question No. 230

If cross slope of a country is 10% to 25%, the terrain is classified as
(A) Rolling
(B) Mountainous
(C) Steep
(D) Plain
Answer: Option A

Question No. 231

For the design of cement concrete pavement for corner loading, Indian Road Congress
recommends the use of
(A) Westergaard's formula
(B) Kelly's formula
(C) Goldbeck's formula
(D) Picker's formula
Answer: Option D
Question No. 232
On the recommendations of Indian Road Congress, the ruling gradient in plains, is
(A) 1 in 15
(B) 1 in 20
(C) 1 in 30
(D) 1 in 45
Answer: Option C

Question No. 233

The tangent length of a simple circular curve of radius R
(A) R tan
(B) R tan
(C) R sin
(D) R sin
Answer: Option B

Question No. 234

While calculating the sight distances, the driver's eye above road surface, is assumed
(A) 90 cm
(B) 100 cm
(C) 110 cm
(D) 120 cm
Answer: Option D

Question No. 235

On earth roads, the camber should preferably be
(A) 1 in 20 to 1 in 24
(B) 1 in 30 to 1 in 48
(C) 1 in 15 to 1 in 20
(D) 1 in 10 to 1 in 15
Answer: Option A

Question No. 236

At a road junction, 7 cross conflict points are severe if
(A) Both are one-way roads
(B) Both are two-way roads
(C) One is two-way road and other is one-way road
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 237

The safe length L of a valley curve for night travel is
(A) 2S - (1.50 + 0.035 S)/N if L < S
(B) NS²/(1.50 + 0.035 S) if L > S
(C) Neither (a) nor (b)
 (D) Both (a) and (b)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 238

Road width 8.8 m of two lane National highways or State highways in mountainous terrain
(A) Excludes the width of parapet (0.6 m)
(B) Excludes the width of side drain (0.6 m)
(C) Excludes the width of parapet and side drain
(D) Includes the width of parapet and side drain
Answer: Option C

Question No. 239

The radius of curvature provided along a transition curve, is
(A) Minimum at the beginning
(B) Same throughout its length
(C) Equal to the radius of circular curve
(D) Varying from infinity to the radius of circular curve
Answer: Option D

Question No. 240

The normal road width of National and State highways
(A) Is kept 45 m
(B) In plain and rolling terrain built-up area, is 30 m
(C) In mountainous built-up area is 20 m
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 241

If R
angle of any point, its radial distance is
(A) 3 R
(B) 3 R
(C) 3 R
(D) 3 R
Answer: Option A

Question No. 242

Raising of outer edge of a road with respect to inner edge, is known
(A) Super elevation
(B) Cant
(C) Banking
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 243
The G.T. road from Lahore to Calcutta in undivided India, was constructed during
(A) 3495-3500 BC
(B) 265-270 BC
(C) 1540-1545 AD
(D) 1440-1450 AD
Answer: Option C

Question No. 244

Endoscope is used to determine
(A) Spot speed
(B) Average speed
(C) Travel time
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 245

The minimum road width is taken
(A) 9 m
(B) 12 m
(C) 16 m
(D) 20 m
Answer: Option A

Question No. 246

Newly constructed pavement with ordinary Portland cement attains its working strength after
(A) 7 days
(B) 14 days
(C) 21 days
(D) 28 days
Answer: Option D

Question No. 247

The maximum comfortable retardation applied to moving vehicles, is
(A) 3.42 m/sec2
(B) 4.42 m/sec2
(C) 5.56 m/sec2
(D) 7.80 m/sec2
Answer: Option A

Question No. 248

For a vehicle moving with a speed of 80 km per hour, the brake reaction time, in ordinary cases, is
(A) 1 sec
(B) 1.5 sec
(C) 2.0 sec
 (D) 2.5 sec
Answer: Option D

Question No. 249

Horizontal curves on highways are provided
(A) To break the monotony of driving
(B) To discourage the tendency to increase speed
(C) To decrease the mental strain on drivers
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 250

Bottom-most component of a flexible pavement, is
(A) Sub-grade
(B) Sub-base
(C) Base
(D) Base course
Answer: Option A

Question No. 251

For a properly designed vehicle, the resistance generally ignored, is
(A) Wind resistance
(B) Rolling resistance
(C) Grade resistance
(D) Axle resistance
Answer: Option D

Question No. 252

If the difference in elevation of an edge of the pavement 9 m wide and its crown is 15 cm, the
camber of the pavement, is
(A) 1 in 60
(B) 1 in 45
(C) 1 in 30
(D) 1 in 15
Answer: Option C

Question No. 253

A subsidiary area in a carriageway placed so as to control the movement of the traffic, is
(A) Median strip
(B) Island
(C) Flower bed
(D) Refuge
Answer: Option B
Question No. 254
Traffic engineering only includes
(A) Planning of regulatory measures
(B) Design and application of control devices
(C) Analysis of traffic characteristics
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 255

The traffic manoeuvre means
(A) Diverging
(B) Merging
(C) Crossing
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 256

If A is the projected area of a vehicle in square metres, V is speed of the vehicles in kilometres per
hour and C is a constant, then the wind resistance R to the moving vehicles, is given by
(A) R = CAV
(B) R = CAV2
(C) R = CAV3
(D) R = C2AV
Answer: Option B

Question No. 257

If the radius of curvature of a hill road is 50 m, the percentage grade compensation should be
(A) 60/R
(B) 70/R
(C) 75/R
(D) 80/R
Answer: Option C

Question No. 258

The efficiency of the brakes of a vehicle depends upon
(A) Condition of road surface
(B) Condition of the tyres
(C) Presence of the show moisture
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 259

On a pavement with parabolic camber, the angle of inclination of the vehicles will be
(A) More at the crown
(B) Less at the edges
 (C) More at the edges
(D) Same at the edges as well as at the crown
Answer: Option C

Question No. 260

Deviation of the alignment of a trace cut may be permitted in areas involving
(A) Land slides
(B) Sand dunes
(C) Dens
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 261

For a 6.6 m wide two lane pavement, berms are provided on either side having a width of
(A) 1.00 m
(B) 1.25 m
(C) 1.50 m
(D) 1.75 m
Answer: Option C

Question No. 262

The wall constructed for the stability of an excavated portion of a road on the hill side, is known as
(A) Retaining wall
(B) Breast wall
(C) Parapet wall
(D) All the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 263

Which one of the following transportation systems is not used for the conveyance of passengers in
India?
(A) Railways
(B) Roads
(C) Shipping
(D) Pipe lines
Answer: Option D

Question No. 264

If W is the weight of a vehicle negotiating an upgrade 1 : S along a track having co-efficient of
T is given by
(A) T = p / ( + S)
(B) p = T / ( + S)
(C) S = p / ( + T)
(D) = p / (T + S)
Answer: Option D
Question No. 265
The normal road land width for a major district road in open area, is
(A) 45 m
(B) 25 m
(C) 15 m
(D) 12 m
Answer: Option B

Question No. 266

Driving vehicles on wet surfaced roads, is dangerous because it may
(A) Skid
(B) Slip
(C) Overturn
(D) All the above
Answer: Option B

Question No. 267

If the rate of change of the super-elevation along a curved portion of a 7 metre wide road is 1 in
150 and the maximum super-elevation allowed is 1 in 15, the maximum length of the transition
curve to be provided at either end, is
(A) 65 m
(B) 70 m
(C) 75 m
(D) 80 m
Answer: Option B

Question No. 268

Transverse joints are provided at distances varying from
(A) 10 m to 15 m
(B) 12 m to 18 m
(C) 16 m to 24 m
(D) 17 m to 27 m
Answer: Option D

Question No. 269

Concrete pavement is provided if daily traffic per lane exceeds
(A) 500 tonnes
(B) 750 tonnes
(C) 1000 tonnes
(D) 1250 tonnes
Answer: Option C

Question No. 270

While designing hair pin bends on highways, the minimum
(A) Designed speed is 20 km/hour
 (B) Gradient is 1 in 40
(C) Gradient is 1 in 200
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 271

If the width of a pavement slab is 7.5 m, thickness 20 cm and working stress 1400 kg/cm2, spacing
of 10 mm tie bars for the longitudinal joint, is
(A) 10 cm
(B) 20 cm
(C) 30 cm
(D) 40 cm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 272

If no super elevation is provided on a road along curves, pot holes may develop at
(A) Inner edge of the road
(B) Outer edge of the road
(C) Centre of the road
(D) Nowhere on the road
Answer: Option B

Question No. 273

The safe stopping sight distance D, may be computed from the equation
(A) D = 0.278 Vt + V²/254f
(B) D = 0.254 Vt + V²/278f
(C) D = 0.254 Vt + V²/225f
(D) D = 0.225 Vt + V²/254f
Answer: Option A

Question No. 274

Normal formation width of a hill road for one-way traffic, is
(A) 3.6 m
(B) 4.8 m
(C) 6.6 m
(D) 7.2 m
Answer: Option B

Question No. 275

Before providing super-elevation on roads, the portion of the carriageway between the crown and
the outer edge is made
(A) To have a reduced fall
(B) Horizontal
(C) To have slope of the camber on the other half of the carriageway
(D) None of these
 Answer: Option C

Question No. 276

If the rate of change of grade permitted along a vertical curve is r and total change of grade is g%,
the length L of the curve to be provided, is
(A) L = (r × 100/g) m
(B) L = (g × 100/r) m
(C) L = (r + g) × 100m
(D) L = [100/(r + g)] m
Answer: Option B

Question No. 277

The standard equation of a cubic parabolic transition curve provided on roads, is
(A) y = x3/6 RL
(B) y = x/6 RL
(C) y = l²/6 RL
(D) y = l3/6 RL
Answer: Option A

Question No. 278

The traffic carrying capacity of a single lane, depends on
(A) Type of the vehicles
(B) Level crossings
(C) Road intersections
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 279

In complex situations, total time required for a driver to form a judgement and to act, may be
taken as
(A) 1.0 sec
(B) 1.5 sec
(C) 2.0 sec
(D) 3.0 sec
Answer: Option D

Question No. 280

Full amount of extra width of a pavement on the curve, is provided at
(A) Beginning of the transition curve
(B) Centre of the transition curve
(C) Beginning of the circular curve
(D) Centre of the circular curve
Answer: Option C
Question No. 281
For the movement of vehicles at an intersection of two roads, without any interference, the type
of grade separator generally preferred to, is
(A) Delta
(B) Trumpet
(C) Diamond interchange
(D) Clover leaf
Answer: Option D

Question No. 282

Minimum radius of curvature of National Highways or State highways in hill region free from
snow, is kept
(A) 60 m
(B) 50 m
(C) 33 m
(D) 30 m
Answer: Option B

Question No. 283

Width of vehicles affects the width of
(A) Lanes
(B) Shoulders
(C) Parking spaces
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 284

The width formation of a road means the width of
(A) Carriageway
(B) Pavement and shoulders
(C) Embankment at ground level
(D) Embankment at the top level
Answer: Option D

Question No. 285

The maximum safe speed on roads, depends on the
(A) Type of road surface
(B) Type of curves
(C) Sight distance
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 286

An exceptional grade may be provided upto 1 in 12 along hill roads, if the length does not exceed
(A) 45 m per km
 (B) 60 m per km
(C) 75 m per km
(D) 90 m per km
Answer: Option B

Question No. 287

Shoulders for high traffic volume roads, should
(A) Be stable throughout the year to be used by vehicles in the case of emergency
(B) Support and protect the ends of carriage ways
(C) Not allow entrance of water to sub-grade
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 288

If the designed speed on a circular curve of radius 1400 m is 80 km/hour, no super-elevation is
provided, if the camber, is
(A) 4 %
(B) 3 %
(C) 2 %
(D) 1.7 %
Answer: Option C

Question No. 289

If d is the thickness of a concrete pavement, the equivalent radius b of resisting section for an
interior loading, is
(A) b = d2) - 0.675 d
(B) b = d2) + 0.675 d
(C) b = d2) - 3.675 d
(D) b = d2) - 0.675 d
Answer: Option D

Question No. 290

Roughness index of roads, is expressed as
(A) Size of the stone on the pavement
(B) Number of patches on the pavement
(C) Cumulative deformation of surface per horizontal distance
(D) Type of the road surface
Answer: Option C

Question No. 291

To indicate proper control of consistency of a freshly mixed concrete for pavement construction,
the slump should be between
(A) 3 to 5 cm
(B) 4 to 6 cm
(C) 5 to 7 cm
 (D) 7 to 10 cm
Answer: Option D

Question No. 292

If the cross slope of a country is 25% to 60%, the terrain is classified as
(A) Plain
(B) Rolling
(C) Steep
(D) Mountainous
Answer: Option D

Question No. 293

To prevent movement of moisture from sub-grade to road pavement at the same level as that of
water-table, thickness of a cut off layer of coarse sand, is
(A) 15 cm
(B) 20 cm
(C) 30 cm
(D) 45 cm
Answer: Option A

Question No. 294

Retaining walls are generally constructed with dry rubble stones with 60 cm top width and
(A) 1 : 2 front batter
(B) 1 : 3 front batter
(C) 1 : 4 front batter
(D) 1 : 5 front batter
Answer: Option B

Question No. 295

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) Tresguet did not provide the top camber for the drainage of surface water
(B) Tresguet provided the top camber for the drainage of surface water
(C) Telford provided two layers of stones in the central 5.4 m width and one layer was provided
on the sides
(D) Macadam provided a camber to the formation at the dug-up state, to drain percolated water
Answer: Option A

Question No. 296

In cement concrete pavements, tensile stress is due to:
(A) Bending or deflection under wheel loads
(B) Difference in temperature of the top and bottom of pavement
(C) Contraction of slab during falling temperature
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 297
If L is the length of vehicles in metres, C is the clear distance between two consecutive vehicles
(stopping sight distance), V is the speed of vehicles in km/hour, the maximum number N of
vehicles/hour, is
(A) N = 1000 V / (L + C)
(B) N = (L + C) / 1000 V
(C) N = 1000 L / (C + V)
(D) N = 1000 C / (L + V)
Answer: Option A

Question No. 298

Extra widening required at a horizontal curve on a single lane hill road of radius 80 m for a design
speed of 50 km ph and for a vehicle with wheel base 6.0 m is
(A) 0.225 m
(B) 0.589 m
(C) 1.250 m
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 299

When an up gradient of a highway meets a downgrade, the vertical curve provided, is known as
(A) Valley curve
(B) Sag curve
(C) Summit curve
(D) All the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 300

Customers prefer parking of their vehicles at
(A) 90° to aisles
(B) 85° to aisles
(C) 80° to aisles
(D) 75° to aisles
Answer: Option D

Question No. 301

Parapet walls along hill roads, are provided
(A) To retain the back filling
(B) To prevent the hill from sliding
(C) To prevent the wheels of the vehicle from coming on the retaining wall
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 302

An ideal vertical curve is
 (A) True spiral
(B) Cubic spiral
(C) Cubic parabola
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 303

For calculating the tractive force along an upgrade of an asphalt road, the most probable value of
the co-efficient of traction resistance is assumed
(A) 1/10
(B) 1/20
(C) 1/30
(D) 1/100
Answer: Option D

Question No. 304

If the ruling gradient on any highway is 3%, the gradient provided on the curve of 300 metre
radius, is
(A) 2.00 %
(B) 2.25 %
(C) 2.50 %
(D) 2.75 %
Answer: Option D

Question No. 305

If P is the number of vehicles per day at last census, r is the increase in traffic and n is the number
of years passed after last census, number of vehicles A per day for design, is
(A) P (1 + r)n
(B) P (1 - r)n
(C) P (1 + r)-n+5
(D) P (1 + r)5n
Answer: Option C

Question No. 306

The period of long term plan for the development of roads in India, known as Bombay Plan (Aug.
1958), is
(A) 5 years
(B) 10 years
(C) 15 years
(D) 20 years
Answer: Option D

Question No. 307

California Bearing Ratio method of designing flexible pavements is more accurate as it involves
(A) Characteristics of soils
 (B) Traffic intensities
(C) Character of the road making materials
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C

Question No. 308

The absolute minimum radius of horizontal curve for a design speed 60 kmph is
(A) 131 m
(B) 210 m
(C) 360 m
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 309

If V is the design speed of vehicles in km/hour, the change of radial acceleration in metres/sec 3, is
(A) 65/(70 + V)
(B) 60/(70 + V)
(C) 70/(65 + V)
(D) 70/(60 + V)
Answer: Option C

Question No. 310

If the number of lanes on the carriageway of a road is more than two, the total width of lane ways
is equal to 3.0 m
(A) + 0.60 m
(B) + 0.70 m
(C) + 0.90 m
(D) + 1.50 m
Answer: Option B

Question No. 311

The convexity provided to the carriageway between the crown and edge of the pavement, is
known as
(A) Super-elevation
(B) Camber
(C) Height of the pavement
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 312

If N is the algebraic difference of grades, S is the minimum sight distance in metres, the length (L)
of a summit curve is
(A) NS/4
(B) NS²/4
(C) N²S/4
 (D) (NS)²/4
Answer: Option B

Question No. 313

If the elevations along a road increase, the slope of the road along the longitudinal direction, is
known as
(A) Gradient
(B) Grade
(C) Positive grade
(D) Negative grade
Answer: Option A

Question No. 314

Cement grouted pavement is classified as
(A) Rigid pavement
(B) Semi-rigid pavement
(C) Flexible pavement
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 315

Non-passing sight distance along a road is the longest distance at which the driver of a moving
vehicle, may see an obstacle on the pavement
(A) 10 cm high
(B) 25 cm high
(C) 50 cm high
(D) 100 cm high
Answer: Option A

Question No. 316

The perpendicular offset from the tan-get to the central point of the circular curve, is
(A)
(B)
(C) R (1 -
(D) R (1 -
Answer: Option C

Question No. 317

The width of pavement in addition to a gravelled berm 1 m on either side for a two directional
traffic recommended by Nagpur Conference of Chief Engineers, is
(A) 4.7 m
(B) 5.7 m
(C) 6.7 m
(D) 7.7 m
Answer: Option C
Question No. 318
Minimum stopping distance for moving vehicles on road with a design speed of 80 km/hour, is
(A) 80 m
(B) 100 m
(C) 120 m
(D) 150 m
Answer: Option C

Question No. 319

The top height of a route marker above crown level is
(A) 1.50 m
(B) 1.75 m
(C) 2.00 m
(D) 2.25 m
Answer: Option D

Question No. 320

Along horizontal curves, if centrifugal force exceeds lateral friction, vehicles may
(A) Skid
(B) Slip
(C) Not be affected
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 321

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. The super-elevation on roads is
(A) Directly proportional to width of pavement
(B) Directly proportional to velocity of vehicles
(C) Inversely proportional to acceleration due to gravity
(D) Inversely proportional to the radius of curvature
Answer: Option B

Question No. 322

For clear distinct vision, images of obstructions should fall on the retina with a cone of
(A) 2°
(B) 3°
(C) 4°
(D) 5°
Answer: Option D

Question No. 323

The basic formula for determination of pavement thickness was first suggested by
(A) Spangler
(B) Picket
(C) Kelly
 (D) Goldbeck
Answer: Option D

Question No. 324

If metres is the distance between extreme axles of a vehicle, its gross load should not exceed
(A) 1525 (L + 4.3) - 14.7 L2
(B) 1526 (L + 5.3) - 14.7 L2
(C) 1525 (L + 6.3) - 14.7 L2
(D) 1525 (L + 7.3) - 14.7 L2
Answer: Option D

Question No. 325

If x% is the gradient of an alignment and y% is the gradient after proper super-elevation along a
curved portion of a highway, the differential grade along the curve, is
(A) (x + y) %
(B) (x - y) %
(C) (y - x) %
(D) (y + x) %
Answer: Option C

Question No. 326

If At is the area of steel cross-section, t is working stress, L is width of road and W is weight of slab
per square metre, the spacing of the tie bars for a longitudinal joint, is
(A) (100 At × t)/WL
(B) 100 At/tWL
(C) (100 WAt × t)/tL
(D) 100 WL/Att
Answer: Option D

Question No. 327

The shape of a vertical curve, is
(A) Parabolic
(B) Elliptical
(C) Circular
(D) Spiral
Answer: Option A

Question No. 328

If L is the length of the transition curves provided on either side of a circular curve of radius R, the
maximum angle of deflection with tangent for the junctions of the transition curve and circular
curve, is
(A) L/R
(B) L/2R
(C) L/3R
(D) None of these
 Answer: Option D

Question No. 329

The inventor of road making as a building science, was
(A) Sully
(B) Tresguet
(C) Telford
(D) Macadam
Answer: Option A

Question No. 330

The desirable camber for straight roads with water bound macadam or gravel surface, is
(A) 1 in 33 to 1 in 25
(B) 1 in 40 to 1 in 33
(C) 1 in 150 to 1 in 140
(D) 1 in 160 to 1 in 140
Answer: Option B

Question No. 331

The pavement width of a road depends upon
(A) Terrain
(B) Type of traffic
(C) Number of lanes
(D) All the above
Answer: Option C

Question No. 332

At a road junction, 16 cross conflict points are severe, if
(A) Both are one-way roads
(B) Both are two-way roads
(C) One is two-way road and other is one-way road
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B

Question No. 333

Road makers along roads from the edge of a kerb should not be less than
(A) 40 cm
(B) 45 cm
(C) 50 cm
(D) 60 cm
Answer: Option D

Question No. 334

In India the modes of transportation, in the order of their importance, are
(A) Air transport, shipping, roads, railways
 (B) Shipping, roads, railways, air transport
(C) Roads, railways, air transport, shipping
(D) Railways, roads, shipping, air transport
Answer: Option D

Question No. 335

The absolute minimum sight distance required for stopping a vehicle moving with a speed of 80
kmph, is
(A) 120 m
(B) 200 m
(C) 640 m
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A

Question No. 336

The usual width of side drains along Highways in hilly region, is
(A) 50 cm
(B) 60 cm
(C) 70 cm
(D) 100 cm
Answer: Option B

Question No. 337

Design of highways is based on
(A) Axle loads
(B) Axle spacings
(C) Wheel bases
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 338

The width of the right of way in urban area, is kept between 24 m to 60 m for
(A) National Highways
(B) State Highways
(C) Both (a) and (b)
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D

Question No. 339

Thickness of broken centre line markings for a four lane road, is generally kept
(A) 10 cm
(B) 12 cm
(C) 15 cm
(D) 18 cm
Answer: Option C
Question No. 340
On the recommendations of Nagpur Conference, the minimum width of a village road may be
(A) 2.45 m
(B) 2.75 m
(C) 3.66 m
(D) 4.90 m
Answer: Option A

Question No. 341

If N is deviation angle the length L of a parabolic vertical curve for overtaking sight distance S, is
(A) NS²/9.6 if L > S
(B) NS²/9.6 if L < S
(C) 2S - 9.6/N if L < S
(D) Both (A) and (C)
Answer: Option D

Question No. 342

Maximum super-elevation on hill roads should not exceed
(A) 5 %
(B) 7 %
(C) 8 %
(D) 10 %
Answer: Option D

Question No. 343

If R is the radius of a main curve and L is the length of the transition curve, the shift of the curve, is
(A) L/24 R
(B) L2/24 R
(C) L3/24 R
(D) L4/24 R
Answer: Option B

Question No. 344

The length of the side of warning sign boards of roads is
(A) 30 cm
(B) 40 cm
(C) 45 cm
(D) 50 cm
Answer: Option C

Question No. 345

Minimum permissible speed on high speed roads, is decided on the basis of
(A) 15 percentile cumulative frequency
(B) 20 percentile cumulative frequency
(C) 30 percentile cumulative frequency
 (D) 40 percentile cumulative frequency
Answer: Option A

Question No. 346

For the administration of road transport, a Motor Vehicle Act was enacted in
(A) 1927
(B) 1934
(C) 1939
(D) 1947
Answer: Option C

Question No. 347

For maximum strength and durability minimum percentage of cement, by weight is
(A) 15 %
(B) 20 %
(C) 25 %
(D) 30 %
Answer: Option D

Question No. 348

Stability of hill slopes depends upon
(A) Nature of the slope
(B) Angle of the slope
(C) Geological conditions
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 349

The correct formula for calculating super-elevation for the hill roads, is
(A) e = V²/254 R
(B) e = V²/225 R
(C) e = V²/278 R
(D) e = V²/114 R
Answer: Option B

Question No. 350

Curves in the same direction separated by short tangents, are called
(A) Simple circular curves
(B) Compound curves
(C) Transition curves
(D) Broken-back curves
Answer: Option D

Question No. 351

The minimum width of the pavement of a National Highway should be
 (A) 4.7 m
(B) 5.7 m
(C) 6.7 m
(D) 7.7 m
Answer: Option B

Question No. 352

On most smooth hard surfaced roads, rolling resistance to moving vehicles, ranges from
(A) 5 kg to 7 kg/tonne
(B) 7 kg to 9 kg/tonne
(C) 9 kg to 11 kg/tonne
(D) 11 kg to 13 kg/tonne
Answer: Option C

Question No. 353

Minimum radius of a simple circular curve deflecting through 5°, is
(A) 1618.9 m
(B) 1816.9 m
(C) 1718.9 m
(D) 1817.9 m
Answer: Option C

Question No. 354

Depth of reinforcement below the surface of a concrete pavement, is generally kept
(A) 5 cm
(B) 6 cm
(C) 7 m
(D) 9 m
Answer: Option A

Question No. 355

Degree of a road curve is defined as the angle in degrees subtended at the centre by an arc of
(A) 10 metres
(B) 20 metres
(C) 25 metres
(D) 30 metres
Answer: Option B

Question No. 356

Thickness of broken line markings on multi-lane road for lanes is generally kept
(A) 10 cm
(B) 12 cm
(C) 15 cm
(D) 18 cm
Answer: Option A
Question No. 357
If V is the velocity in kmph, t
the stopping distance S of the vehicle, is
(A) 0.28V²t + V/0.01
(B) 0.28Vt + V²/0.1
(C) 0.28Vt + 0.01
(D) 0.28Vt + 0.01 V²/
Answer: Option C

Question No. 358

If present A.D.T. is 5000 vehicles and annual increase is 10%, the average future flow after 5 years
will be
(A) 6050 vehicles
(B) 7050 vehicles
(C) 8050 vehicles
(D) 9050 vehicles
Answer: Option C

Question No. 359

Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Detailed survey is carried out for a strip of land about 30 m at sharp curves
(B) Levels are taken along the trace cut at an interval of 20 m
(C) Contour interval is generally adopted at 2 metres vertical interval
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D

Question No. 360

The maximum radial distance of a Lemniscate curve, having maximum polar angle a, is
(A) 3 R
(B) 3 R sin2
(C) 3 R
(D) 3 R
Answer: Option C

Question No. 361

The minimum cross fall of shoulders is kept
(A) 0.5 %
(B) 1.0 %
(C) 1.5 %
(D) 3 %
Answer: Option D

Question No. 362

The ratio of maximum deviation angle and maximum polar deflection angle of a Lemniscate curve,
is
 (A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
Answer: Option B

Question No. 363

Roadway width for a National highways and State highways (two-lanes) is
(A) 12 m
(B) 9 m
(C) 9.5 m
(D) 15 m
Answer: Option A