AIRLAW, RULES & REGULATION - ATPL

1. What period of time must a person be hospitalized before an injury may be defined by
the NTSB as a "serious injury"?
A) 72 hours; commencing within 10 days after date of injury.
B) 48 hours; commencing within 7 days after date of the injury.
C) 10 days, with no other extenuating circumstances.

2. Which of the following constitutes "substantial damage" according to NTSB Part 830?
A) Ground damage to landing gear, wheels, or tires.
B) Damage to wingtips (or rotor blades, in the case of a helicopter.
C) Failure of a component which would adversely affect the performance, and which
would require replacement.

3. Which incident requires an immediate notification to NTSB?

A) Aircraft colliding on the ground.
B) Flight control system malfunction.
C) Damage to property, other than the aircraft, estimated to exceed $10,000.

4. Within what time period should the nearest NTSB field office be notified when an aircraft
is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage?
A) Immediately.
B) 7 calendar days.
C) 10 days.

5. Within how many days must the operator of an aircraft involved in an accident file a
report to the NTSB?
A) 3 days.
B) 7 days.
C) 10 days.

6. What is the name of a plane beyond the end of a runway which does not contain
obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance of turbine-
powered aircraft?
A) Clearway.
B) Stopway.
C) Obstruction clearance plane.

7. Which is a definition of the term "crewmember"?

A) Only a pilot, flight engineer, or flight navigator assigned to duty in an aircraft
during flight time.
B) A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time.
C) Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or flight
engineer.

8. Regulations concerning the operational control of a flight refer to

A) the specific duties of any required crewmember.
B) exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight.
C) exercising the privileges of pilot in command of an aircraft.

9. What is an area identified by the term "stopway"?

A) An area, at least the same width as the runway, capable of supporting an
airplane during a normal takeoff.
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B) An area designated for use in decelerating an aborted takeoff.

C) An area, not as wide as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during a
normal takeoff.

10. How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be
reported to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division?
A) No later than 30 working days after the motor vehicle action.
B) No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.
C) Required to be reported upon renewal of medical certificate.

11. An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate,
in an approved flight simulator, is
A) Required to have at least a current third-class medical certificate.
B) not required to have a medical certificate.
C) required to have a first-class medical certificate.

12. When a type rating is to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate, and the
practical test is scheduled in an approved flight training device and/or approved flight
simulator, the applicant is
A) required to have at least a third-class medical certificate.
B) is not required to have a medical certificate.
C) required to have a first-class medical certificate.

13. When a temporary replacement is received for an airman's medical certificate, for what
maximum time is this document valid?
A) 30 days.
B) 60 days.
C) 90 days.

14. Unless otherwise authorized, when is the pilot in command required to hold a type
rating?
A) When operating an aircraft that is certificated for more than one pilot.
B) When operating an aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds.
C) When operating a multiengine aircraft having a gross weight of more than 6,000
pounds.

15. When a type rating is to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate, and the
practical test is scheduled in an approved flight simulator and an aircraft, the applicant is
A) required to have at least a current third-class medical certificate.
B) required to have a current first-class medical certificate.
C) not required to hold a medical certificate.

16. What instrument flight time may be logged by a second in command of an aircraft
requiring two pilots?
A) All of the time the second in command is controlling the airplane solely by
reference to flight instruments.
B) One-half the time the flight is on an IFR flight plan.
C) One-half the time the airplane is in actual IFR conditions.
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17. To satisfy the minimum required instrument experience for IFR operations, a pilot must
accomplish during the past 6 months at least
A) six instrument approaches, holding, intercepting, and tracking courses through
the use of navigation systems in an approved flight training device/simulator or in
the category of aircraft to be flown.
B) six instrument approaches, three of which must be in the same category and
class of aircraft to be flown, plus holding, intercepting, and tracking courses in
any aircraft.
C) six instrument approaches and 6 hours of instrument time, three of which may be
in a glider.

18. What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original
issue of a Category II authorization?
A) Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown manually to the Category
I DH.
B) Within the previous 12 calendar months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an
approach coupler to theCategory I or Category II DH.
C) Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown
to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler.

19. To be eligible for the practical test for the renewal of a Category II authorization, what
recent instrument approach experience is required?
A) Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown
to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler.
B) Within the previous 6 months,six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach
coupler to the Category I DH.
C) Within the previous 12 calendar months, three ILS approaches flown by use of
an approach coupler to the Category II DH.

20. In a 24-hour consecutive period, what is the maximum time, excluding briefing and
debriefing, that an airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air transportation
service?
A) 8 hours.
B) 6 hours.
C) 10 hours.

21. The flight instruction of other pilots in air transportation service by an airline transport
pilot is restricted to
A) 36 hours in any 7-consecutive-day period.
B) 7 hours in any 24-consecutive-hour period.
C) 30 hours in any 7-consecutive-day period.

22. An airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for
the purpose of providing service to a community when the regular airport is not available
is a/an:
A) destination airport.
B) provisional airport.
C) alternate airport.
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23. A provisional airport is an airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier
certificate holder for the purpose of
A) obtaining provisions and fuel when unable, due to winds, to proceed direct to the
regular airport.
B) having the aircraft catered (foods, beverages, or supplies).
C) providing service to a community when the regular airport is unavailable.

24. At what maximum indicated airspeed may a reciprocating-engine-powered airplane be

operated within Class D airspace?
A) 156 knots.
B) 180 knots.
C) 200 knots.

25. What is the maximum indicated airspeed a turbine-powered aircraft may be operated
below 10,000 feet MSL?
A) 288 knots.
B) 250 knots.
C) 230 knots.

26. During an emergency, a pilot in command does not deviate from an FAR rule but is
given priority by ATC) To whom or under what condition is the pilot required to submit a
written report?
A) To the manager of the General Aviation District Office.
B) To the manager of the facility in control at the time of the deviation.
C) Upon request by ATC, submit a written report to the ATC manager.

27. A pilot approaching to land a turbine-powered aircraft on a runway served by a VASI

shall
A) not use the VASI unless a clearance for a VASI approach is received.
B) use the VASI only when weather conditions are below basic VFR.
C) maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary
for a safe landing.

28. At what minimum altitude is a turbine-engine-powered, or large airplane, required to

enter Class D airspace?
A) 1,500 feet AGL.
B) 2,000 feet AGL.
C) 2,500 feet AGL.

29. A pilot of a turbine-powered airplane should climb as rapidly as practicable after taking
off to what altitude?
A) 1,000 feet AGL.
B) 1,500 feet AGL.
C) 5,000 feet AGL.

30. What is the required flight visibility and distance from clouds if you are operating in
Class E airspace at 9,500 feet with a VFR-on-Top clearance during daylight hours?
A) 3 statute miles, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.
B) 5 statute miles, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.
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C) 3 statute miles, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.

31. What is the minimum flight visibility and distance from clouds for flight at 10,500 feet, in
Class E airspace, with a VFR-on-Top clearance during daylight hours?
A) 3 statute miles, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.
B) 5 statute miles, 1,000 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 1 mile horizontal.
C) 5 statute miles, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 1 mile horizontal.

32. Which checks and inspections of flight instruments or instrument systems must be
accomplished before an aircraft can be flown under IFR?
A) VOR within 30 days and altimeter systems and transponder within 24 calendar
months.
B) ELT test within 30 days, altimeter systems within 12 calendar months, and
transponder within 24 calendar months.
C) Airspeed indicator within 24 calendar months, altimeter system within 24
calendar months, and transponder within 12 calendar months.

33. What is the maximum permissible variation between the two bearing indicators on a
dual VOR system when checking one VOR against the other?
A) 4° on the ground and in flight.
B) 6° on the ground and in flight.
C) 6° in flight and 4° on the ground.

34. What record shall be made by the pilot performing a VOR operational check?
A) Thedate,frequency of VOR or VOT,number of hours flown since last check &
signature in the aircraft log.
B) The date, place, bearing error, and signature in the aircraft log or other record.
C) The date, approval or disapproval, taich reading, and signature in the aircraft log
or other permanent record.

35. The visibility criteria for a particular instrument approach procedure is RVR 40. What
minimum ground visibility may besubstituted for the RVR value?
A) 5/8 SM.
B) 3/4 SM.
C) 7/8 SM.

36. If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with
ATC, what action should be taken?
A) Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight.
B) Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top.
C) Fly direct to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance.

37. A pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications
failure. What altitude should be used?
A) Last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has advised to expect, or the MEA,
whichever is highest.
B) An altitude that is at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle along the route.
C) A VFR altitude that is above the MEA for each leg.

38. In what altitude structure is a transponder required when operating in controlled

airspace?
 AIRLAW, RULES & REGULATION - ATPL

A) Above 12,500 feet MSL, excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet AGL.
B) Above 10,000 feet MSL, excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet AGL.
C) Above 14,500 feet MSL, excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet AGL.

39. Which applies to the carriage of a person in the custody of law enforcement personnel?
A) The air carrier is not allowed to serve beverages to the person in custody or the
law enforcement escort.
B) No more than one person considered to be in the maximum risk category may be
carried on a flight, and that person must have at least two armed law
enforcement escorts.
C) The person in custody must be seated between the escort and the aisle.

40. Hazardous material shipped on an aircraft must be described and certified on a shipping
paper. For what period of time must the originating aircraft operator retain one copy of
this document?
A) 30 days.
B) 60 days.
C) 90 days.

41. Certain classes of hazardous material may be shipped by air but are not permitted
aboard passenger-carrying aircraft.How must such material be labeled?
A) DANGEROUS.
B) HAZARDOUS/CLASS X.
C) CARGO AIRCRAFT ONLY.

42. What is the maximum quantity of flammable liquid fuel that may be carried in the cabin
of a small, nonscheduled, passenger-carrying aircraft being operated in a remote area of
the United States?
A) 10 gallons.
B) 15 gallons.
C) 20 gallons.

43. Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate
with, under normal conditions, along the entire route (in either direction) of flight?
A) ARINC.
B) Any FSS.
C) Appropriate dispatch office.

44. The emergency lights on a passenger-carrying airplane must be armed or turned on

during
A) taxiing, takeoff, cruise, and landing.
B) taxiing, takeoff, and landing.
C) takeoff, cruise, and landing.

45. Federal Aviation Regulations require that interior emergency lights must
A) operate automatically when subjected to a negative G load.
B) be operable manually from the flight crew station and a point in the passenger
compartment.
C) be armed or turned on during taxiing and all flight operations.
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46. A crewmember interphone system is required on which airplane?

A) A large airplane.
B) A turbojet airplane.
C) An airplane with more than 19 passenger seats.

47. For a 2-hour flight in a reciprocating-engine-powered airplane at a cabin pressure

altitude of 12,000 feet, how much supplemental oxygen for sustenance must be
provided? Enough oxygen for
A) 30 minutes for 10 percent of the passengers.
B) 10 percent of the passengers for 1.5 hours.
C) each passenger for 30 minutes.

48. At which cabin altitude must oxygen be provided for all passengers during the entire
flight at those altitudes?
A) 15,000 feet.
B) 16,000 feet.
C) 14,000 feet.

49. A cockpit voice recorder must be operated

A) from the start of the before starting engine checklist to completion of final
checklist upon termination of flight.
B) from the start of the before starting engine checklist to completion of checklist
prior to engine shutdown.
C) when starting to taxi for takeoff to the engine shutdown checklist after termination
of the flight.

50. A pilot in command must complete a proficiency check or simulator training within the
preceding
A) 6 calendar months.
B) 12 calendar months.
C) 24 calendar months.

51. The maximum number of hours a pilot may fly in 7 consecutive days as the pilot in
command in a two-pilot crew for a flag air carrier is
A) 35 hours.
B) 32 hours.
C) 30 hours.

52. Assuring that appropriate aeronautical charts are aboard an aircraft is the responsibility
of the
A) aircraft dispatcher.
B) flight navigator.
C) pilot in command.

53. Who is required to submit a written report on a deviation that occurs during an
emergency?
A) Pilot in command.
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B) Dispatcher.
C) Person who declares the emergency.

54. When the pilot in command is responsible for a deviation during an emergency, the pilot
should submit a written report within
A) 10 days after the deviation.
B) 10 days after returning home.
C) 10 days after returning to home base.

55. If a four-engine air carrier airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing
minimums, what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be
located from the departure airport?
A) Not more than 2 hours at cruise speed with one engine inoperative.
B) Not more than 2 hours at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine
inoperative.
C) Not more than 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine
inoperative.

56. When the forecast weather conditions for a destination and alternate airport are
considered marginal for a domestic air carrier's operation, what specific action should
the dispatcher or pilot in command take?
A) List an airport where the forecast weather is not marginal as the alternate.
B) Add 1 additional hour of fuel based on cruise power settings for the airplane in
use.
C) List at least one additional alternate airport.

57. Which dispatch requirement applies to a flag air carrier that is scheduled for a 7-hour
IFR flight?
A) No alternate airport is required if the forecast weather at the ETA at the
destination airport is at least 1,500 feet and 3 miles.
B) An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling will be at least 1,500 feet above
the lowest circling MDA)
C) An alternate airport is required.

58. An alternate airport is not required to dispatch a flag air carrier airplane for a flight of
less than 6 hours when the visibility for at least 1 hour before and 1 hour after the ETA at
the destination airport is forecast to be
A) 2 miles or greater.
B) at least 3 miles, or 2 miles more than the lowest applicable minimum.
C) 3 miles.

59. When is a supplemental air carrier, operating under IFR, required to list an alternate
airport for each destination airport within the 48 contiguous United States?
A) When the forecast weather indicates the ceiling will be less than 1,000 feet and
visibility less than 2 miles at the estimated time of arrival.
B) On all flights, an alternate is required regardless of existing or forecast weather
conditions at the destination.
C) When the flight is scheduled for more than 6 hours en route.
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60. Prior to listing an airport as an alternate airport in the dispatch or flight release, weather
reports and forecasts must indicate that weather conditions will be at or above
authorized minimums at that airport
A) for a period 1 hour before or after the ETA)
B) during the entire flight.
C) when the flight arrives.

61. The minimum weather conditions that must exist for an airport to be listed as an
alternate in the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight are
A) those listed in the NOAA IAP charts for the alternate airport,at the time the flight
is expected to arrives.
B) those specified in the certificate holder's Operations Specifications for that
airport, when the flight arrives.
C) those listed on the NOAA IAP charts for the alternate airport, from 1 hour before
or after the ETA for that flight.

62. If a required instrument on a multiengine airplane becomes inoperative, which

document dictates whether the flight may continue en route?
A) An approved Minimum Equipment List for the airplane.
B) Original dispatch release.
C) Certificate holder's manual.

63. The pilot in command of an airplane en route determines that icing conditions can be
expected that might adversely affect safety of the flight. Which action is appropriate?
A) The pilot in command may continue to the original destination airport,after
climbing to a higher altitude.
B) The pilot in command shall not continue flight into the icing conditions.
C) The flight may continue to the original destination airport, provided all anti-icing
and deicing equipment is operational and is used.

64. What action is required prior to takeoff if snow is adhering to the wings of an air carrier
airplane?
A) Sweep off as much snow as possible and the residue must be polished smooth.
B) Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane.
C) Add 15 knots to the normal VR speed as the snow will blow off.

65. The reserve fuel supply for a domestic air carrier flight is
A) 30 minutes plus 15 percent at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel
required to the alternate airport.
B) 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to fly to
and land at the most distant alternate airport.
C) 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the
alternate airport.

66. Upon arriving at the most distant airport, what is the fuel reserve requirement for a
turbopropellerflag air carrier airplane?
A) 90 minutes at holding altitude and speed fuel consumption or 30 minutes plus 15
percent of cruise fuel consumption, whichever is less.
B) 45 minutes at holding altitude.
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C) 30 minutes plus 15 percent of the total time required,or 90 minutes at normal

cruise,whichever is less.

.
67. The fuel reserve required for a turbine-engine-powered (other than turbopropeller)
supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival over the most distant alternate airport
outside the 48 contiguous United States is
A) 30 minutes at holding speed, at 1,500 feet over the airport.
B) 30 minutes, over the airport, at 1,500 feet, at cruising speed.
C) 2 hours at the normal cruise fuel consumption rate.

68. What information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a
domestic air carrier flight?
A) Departure airport, intermediate stops, destinations, alternate airports, and trip
number.
B) Names of all passengers on board and minimum fuel supply.
C) Cargo load, weight and balance data, and identification number of the aircraft.
D) minimum fuel supply.

69. Which is NOT a required item on the load manifest?

A) List of passenger names and the weight of each.
B) Aircraft registration number or flight number.
C) Identification of crewmembers and their crew position.

70. The load manifest must be prepared prior to each takeoff for
A) any aircraft with a passenger seating capacity of 10 seats or more.
B) any aircraft with more than one engine.
C) all helicopters and large aircraft operated by a commuter air carrier.