Ae 2035 QB PDF

Prof. G.
Prabhakaran AE 2035/ AE 1014 Air Traffic Control and Planning
JEPPIAAR ENGINEERING COLLEGE

DEPARTMENT OF AERONAUTIAL ENGINEERING
AE 2035 - AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL AND PLANNING
SYLLABUS
AE 2035 AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL AND PLANNING 3 0 0 100
OBJECTIVE
To study the procedure of the formation of aerodrome and its design and air traffic control.
1. BASIC CONCEPTS 9
Objectives of ATS - Parts of ATC service – Scope and Provision of ATCs – VFR & IFR operations –
Classification of ATS air spaces – Varies kinds of separation – Altimeter setting procedures – Establishment,
designation and identification of units providing ATS – Division of responsibility of control.
2. AIR TRAFFIC SERVICES 9
Area control service, assignment of cruising levels minimum flight altitude ATS routes and significant
points – RNAV and RNP – Vertical, lateral and longitudinal separations based on time / distance –ATC
clearances – Flight plans – position report
3. FLIGHT INFORMATION ALERTING SERVICES, COORDINATION, EMERGENCY
PROCEDURES AND RULES OF THE AIR 10
Radar service, Basic radar terminology – Identification procedures using primary / secondary radar –
performance checks – use of radar in area and approach control services – assurance control and co-
ordination between radar / non radar control – emergencies – Flight information and advisory service –
Alerting service – Co-ordination and emergency procedures – Rules of the air.
4. AERODROME DATA, PHYSICAL CHARACTERISTICS AND OBSTACLE
RESTRICTION 9
Aerodrome data - Basic terminology – Aerodrome reference code – Aerodrome reference point –
Aerodrome elevation – Aerodrome reference temperature – Instrument runway, physical Characteristics;
length of primary / secondary runway – Width of runways – Minimum distance between parallel runways
etc. – obstacles restriction.
5. VISUAL AIDS FOR NAVIGATION, VISUAL AIDS FOR DENOTING OBSTACLES
EMERGENCY AND OTHER SERVICES 8
Visual aids for navigation Wind direction indicator – Landing direction indicator – Location and
characteristics of signal area – Markings, general requirements – Various markings – Lights, general
requirements – Aerodrome beacon, identification beacon – Simple approach lighting system and various
lighting systems – VASI & PAPI - Visual aids for denoting obstacles; object to be marked and lighter –
Emergency and other services.
TOTAL: 45
TEXT BOOK
1. AIP (India) Vol. I & II, “The English Book Store”, 17-1, Connaught Circus, New Delhi.
REFERENCES
1. “Aircraft Manual (India) Volume I”, latest Edition – The English Book Store, 17-1, Connaught
Circus, New Delhi.
2. “PANS – RAC – ICAO DOC 4444”, Latest Edition, The English Book Store, 17-1, Connaught
Circus, New Delhi.
Department of Aeronautical Engineering, Jeppiaar Engineering College 1

Prof. G. Prabhakaran AE 2035/ AE 1014 Air Traffic Control and Planning
ANNA UNIVERSITY QUESTION BANK.

PART-A
UNIT I
1. What is Air Traffic Control?
Ans:
Air Traffic Control, a generic term meaning variously, area control centre, approach
control unit or aerodrome control tower. Air traffic control (ATC) is a service provided by ground
based controllers who direct aircraft on the ground and in the air.
The primary purpose of ATC systems worldwide is:
• To separate aircraft to prevent collisions
• To organize and expedite the flow of traffic
• To provide information and other support for pilots when able.
2. What is the role of Air traffic controller in ATC?

Ans:
Air traffic controllers are the people who operate the air traffic control systems to expedite
and maintain a safe and orderly flow of air traffic and help prevent mid‐air collisions.
3. Define Aerodrome.
Ans:
A defined area on land or water (including any buildings, installations and equipment)
intended to be used either wholly or in part for the arrival, departure and surface movement of
aircraft.
4. What is meant by Controlled and Uncontrolled Airspace?

Ans:
Controlled air space: an air space of defined dimensions within which air traffic control
service is provided to aerodrome traffic with airspace classification. Controlled air space which
covers ATS airspaces classes A, B, C, D and E.
Un-Controlled air space: an airspace where an Air Traffic Control (ATC) service is not
deemed necessary or cannot be provided for practical reasons. According to the airspace classes set
by ICAO both class F and class G airspace are uncontrolled. It is the opposite of controlled
airspace.
ATC does not exercise any executive authority in uncontrolled airspace, but may provide
basic information services to aircraft in radio contact. Flight in uncontrolled airspace will typically
be under VFR. Aircraft operating under IFR should not expect separation from other traffic:
however in certain uncontrolled airspace this might be provided on an 'as far as is practical'
advisory basis.
5. What is IFR flight?

Ans:
IFR flight: a flight conducted in accordance with the instrument flight rules.
Instrument flight rules (IFR) are regulations and procedures for flying aircraft by
referring only to the aircraft instrument panel for navigation.
6. What is VFR flight?

Ans:
VFR flight: a flight conducted in accordance with visual flight rules.
Visual flight rules (VFR) are a set of regulations which allow a pilot to operate an aircraft
in weather conditions generally clear enough to allow the pilot to see where the aircraft is going.
7. State the difference between VFR & IFR operation
Ans:
S. VFR Operation S. IFR Operation
No No
1 Pilot navigates and flies by looking out the 1 Pilot navigates using instruments in the
window cockpit
2 He uses the view out the window to keep 2 It is not necessary for him to look out the
the aircraft straight and level, and he window, and in fact a pilot flying IFR can
navigates from place to place by looking fly to his destination even if the windows
at things on the ground (roads, rivers, are covered by cardboard
buildings, etc.)
3 Pilots also must keep their eyes open for 3 IFR flights work in conjunction with air
other airplanes nearby so that they don't traffic controllers, who use radar to advise
hit anyone IFR flights of other aircraft in the area,
thereby maintaining a safe distance
between them.
4 VFR operation is not safer than IFR, 4 IFR is safer than VFR, because it can be
because it cannot be carried out in any carried out in any type of weather,
type of weather, by looking out window. regardless of visibility.
5 Flying IFR is not complicated. 5 Flying IFR is much more complicated than
VFR, and requires much more training and
practice.
8. State the objective of ATS.

Ans:
The objectives of the Air Traffic Services shall be to:
a) Prevent collisions between aircraft.
b) Prevent collisions between aircraft on the maneuvering area and obstructions on
that area.
c) Expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic.
d) Provide advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights.
e) Notify appropriate organizations regarding aircraft in need of search and rescue
aid, and assist such organizations as required.
9. Describe the two basic types of flight rules.

Ans:
Instrument flight rules (IFR) are regulations and procedures for flying aircraft by
referring only to the aircraft instrument panel for navigation
10. What are the tree components of ATC network?

Ans:
ATC system consists of 20 ARTCC (AIR ROUTE TRFFIC COTROL CENTRE)
which has further divided into two types of control, one is approach control and other one is non
approach control. An approach control tower with its associated TRACON provides separation and
instrument landing services for IFR traffic and is also responsible for integrating VFR traffic into
the approach pattern.

UNIT II
11. Give various division of Air traffic Services.
Ans:
The air traffic services comprise of three services identified as follows:
1. Air traffic control service
- Area control service
- Approach control service
- Aerodrome control service
2. Flight information service
3. Alerting service
12. Mention different categories of Airports

Ans:
1. International Airport
2. Domestic Air Carrier Airports
3. Commuter Airports
4. Reliever Airports
Or the following type also the answer can be given
1. Commercial Service Airports
a. Non-primary Commercial Service Airports
b. Primary Airports
2. Cargo Service Airports
3. Reliever Airports
13. Differentiate TRACON and ARTCC

Ans:
Terminal Radar Approach Control - TRACON handles departing and approaching
aircraft within its space.
Air Route Traffic Control Centers (ARTCC) - There is one ARTCC for each center.
Each ARTCC manages traffic within all sectors of its center except for TRACON airspace and
local-airport airspace.
14. State the Airspace Classification followed in India.

Ans:
ATS airspaces in India are classified and designated in accordance with the following.
Class D: IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all flights are provided with Air Traffic
Control service, IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and receive traffic information in
respect of VFR flights.
Class E: IFR and VFR flights are permitted; IFR flights are provided with Air Traffic
Control service and are separated from other IFR flights. IFR flights receive traffic information in
respect of VFR flights;
Class F: IFR and VFR flights are permitted. All IFR flights receive an air traffic advisory
service and all flights receive flight information service, if requested.
Class G: IFR and VFR flights are permitted and receive flight information service if
requested. Airspaces other than those in Class D, E and F have been classified and designated as
class G airspace.
[Explanation for understanding:
Class D:
IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all flights are provided with Air Traffic Control
service, IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of
VFR flights. VFR flights receive traffic information in respect of all other flights. Airspaces in

terminal areas, control areas, control zones and aerodrome traffic zones have been classified and
designated as class D airspace.
Class E:
IFR and VFR flights are permitted; IFR flights are provided with Air Traffic Control service
and are separated from other IFR flights. IFR flights receive traffic information in respect of VFR
flights; VFR flights receive traffic information in respect of all other flights, as far as is practical.
Class E is not be used for control zones. Airspaces in designated ATS routes outside terminal areas,
control areas and control zones, where air traffic control service is provided, have been classified
and designated as class E airspace.
Class F:
IFR and VFR flights are permitted. All IFR flights receive an air traffic advisory service and
all flights receive flight information service, if requested. Airspaces in designated ATS route
segments outside terminal areas, control areas and control zones, where air traffic advisory service
is provided, have been classified and designated as class F airspace.
Class G:
IFR and VFR flights are permitted and receive flight information service if requested.
Airspaces other than those in Class D, E and F have been classified and designated as class G
airspace.
15. Differentiate between the class D and Class E Airspace.

Ans:
Class D:
- IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all flights are provided with air traffic
Control service, IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and receive
traffic information in respect of VFR flights.
- VFR flights receive traffic information in respect of all other flights.
- Airspaces in terminal areas, control areas, control zones and aerodrome traffic
zones have been classified and designated as class D airspace.
Class E:
- IFR and VFR flights are permitted; IFR flights are provided with air traffic
control service and are separated from other IFR flights.
- IFR flights receive traffic information in respect of VFR flights; VFR flights
receive traffic information in respect of all other flights, as far as is practical.
- Class E is not be used for control zones.
- Airspaces in designated ATS routes outside terminal areas, control areas and
control zones, where air traffic control service is provided, have been classified
and designated as class E airspace
16. Give the various ATC provision.

Ans:
The following are the responsibility for the provision of ATC:
Area Control Service:
The provision of air traffic control service for controlled flights, except for those parts of
such flights which are under the jurisdiction of Approach Control or Aerodrome Control to
accomplish following objectives:
a) Prevent collisions between aircraft
b) Expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic
Approach control service:
The provision of air traffic control service for those parts of controlled flights associated
with arrival or departure.
Aerodrome control service:

The provision of air traffic control service for aerodrome traffic, except for those parts of
flights which are under the jurisdiction of Approach Control.
17. What is meant by ATC Clearance?

Ans:
ATC clearance is an authorization for an aircraft to proceed under conditions specified by
an air traffic control unit. Clearance may be prefixed by the words “taxi”, “take off”, “departure”,
“en-route”, “ approach” or “landing” to indicate the particular portion of flight to which the air
traffic control clearance relates.
18. Give the separation rules followed in vertical airspace.

Ans:
The vertical air separation Minimum (VSM) shall be,
Between the surface and an altitude of 29,000 feet (8,800 m), no aircraft should come closer
vertically than 1,000 feet or 300 meters (in those countries that express altitude in meters), unless
some form of horizontal separation is provided.
Above 29,000 feet (8,800 m) no aircraft shall come closer than 2,000 feet (or 600 m),
except in airspace where Reduced Vertical Separation Minima (RVSM) can be applied.
Or (you can write as follows)
The Vertical Air Separation Minimum (VSM) shall be,
(a) A nominal 300 m (1000 ft) below FL 290 and a nominal 600 m (2000 ft) at or above
this level except for in (b) below and
(b) Within designated airspace, subjected to a regional air navigation agreement: a nominal
300 m (1000 ft) below FL 410 or a higher level where so prescribed for use under
specified conditions, and a nominal 600 m (2000 ft) at or above this level.
19. Give the separation rules followed in horizontal airspace.

Ans:
If any two aircraft are separated by less than the vertical separation minimum, then some
form of horizontal separation must exist. Ie.,
- Procedural separation
- Lateral separation
- Longitudinal separation
Or
a. other minima for use in circumstances not prescribed: or
b. additional conditions to those prescribed for the use of a given minimum:
20. Give the separation rules followed in Lateral Airspace.

Ans:
a. The distance between those portions of the intended routes for which the aircraft are to
be laterally separated is never less than an established distance to account for
navigational accuracies plus a specified buffer.
b. Lateral separation of aircraft at the same level is obtained by requiring operation on
different routes or in different geographical locations as determined by visual
observation by use of navigation aids or by use of area navigation equipment.
OR WRITE AS FOLLOWS:
Lateral separation shall be applied so that the distance between those portions of the
intended routes for which the aircraft are to be laterally separated is never less than an established
distance to account for navigational inaccuracies plus a specified buffer. This buffer shall be
determined by the appropriate authority and included in the lateral separation minima as an integral
part thereof.
Lateral separation of aircraft is obtained by requiring operation on different routes or in
different locations as determined by visual observation, by the use of navigation aids or by the use
of area navigation (RNAV) equipment.
When information is received indication navigation equipment failure or deterioration
below the navigation performance requirements. ATC shall then, as required, apply alternative
separation methods or minima
21. State the longitudinal separation based on time between two aircrafts in Indian FIR
Ans:
Aircraft at the same cruising level – aircraft flying on the same track:
1. 15 minutes or
2. 10 minutes if navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and
speed
3. 5 Minutes in the following cases provided that in each case the preceding aircraft
is maintaining a true airspeed of 37 km/h (20kt) or more faster than the
succeeding aircraft: (a) between aircraft that have departed from the same
aerodrome: (b) between en-route aircraft that have reported over the same exact
reporting point
22. Explain various parts of Flight plan.

Ans:
i. validity period of the flight plan
ii. days of operation
iii. aircraft identification
iv. aircraft type and turbulence category
v. MLS capability
vi. Departure aerodrome
vii. Off block time
viii. Cruising speed (s)
ix. Cruising level (s)
x. Route to be followed
xi. Destination aerodrome
xii. Total estimated elapsed time
xiii. Indication of the location where the following information may be obtained
immediately upon request:
1. alternate aerodromes
2. fuel endurance
3. total number of persons on board
4. emergency equipment
5. other information
23. Explain the position reports.

Ans:
A. Unless exempted by the appropriate ATS authority or by the appropriate air traffic
services unit under conditions specified by that authority, a controlled flight shall report to the
appropriate air traffic services unit, as soon as possible, the time and level of passing each
designated compulsory reporting point, together with any other required information. Position
reports shall similarly be made in relation to additional points when requested by the appropriate air
traffic services unit. In the absence of designated reporting points, position reports shall be made at
intervals prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority or specified by the appropriate air traffic
services unit.

B. Controlled flights providing position information to the appropriate air traffic services
unit via data link communications shall only provide voice position reports when requested.
Or write as follows
On routes defined by designated significant points, position reports shall be made by the
aircraft when over or as soon as possible after passing, each designated compulsory reporting point.
Additional reports over other points may be requested by the appropriate ATS unit.
Contents of voice position reports:
1) Aircraft identification
2) Position
3) Time
4) Flight level or altitude, including passing level and cleared level if not
maintaining the cleared level
5) Next position and time over
6) Ensuing significant point.
24. State flight plan.

Ans:
Flight plans are documents filed by pilots or a Flight Dispatcher with the local Civil
Aviation Authority (e.g. DGCA in INDIA) prior to departure.
Or
Flight plan as filed with an ATS unit by the pilot or designated representative, without any
subsequent changes.
25. Define RNAV & RNP

Ans:
RNP- Radio Navigation Performance: is type of performance based navigation (PBN)
that allows an aircraft to fly a specific path between two or three dimensionally defined points in
which accuracy necessary for operation within a defined airspace
RNAV- Area Navigation: a method of navigation which permits aircraft operation on any
desired flight path within the coverage of station referenced navigation aids or within the limits of
capacity of self contained aids or a combination of these.

UNIT III
PSR – PRIMARY SURVEILLANCE RADAR
SSR – SECONDARY SURVEILLANCE RADAR
26. What are identification procedures being used with primary radar?
Ans:
Where PSR is used for identification aircraft may be identified by one or more of the
following procedures:
a. By correlating a particular radar position indication with an aircraft reporting its position
over, or as bearing and distance from, a point shown on the situation display, and be
ascertaining that the track of the particular radar position is consistent with the aircraft
path or reported heading.
b. By correlating an observed radar position radar position indication with an aircraft
which is known to have just departed, provided that the identification is established with
in 2 Km (1NM) from the end of runway used. Particular care should be taken to avoid
confusion with aircraft holding over or overflying the aerodrome or with aircraft
departing from or making a missed approach over adjacent runways.
c. By transfer of radar identification
d. By ascertain the aircraft heading, if circumstances require, and following a period of
track observation
27. State the separation standards in Secondary radar.

Ans:
Separation Standards in Secondary radar:
• Radar used to separate aircraft
– Reduces lateral and longitudinal separation minima
– Increases throughput
– Enhances safety
– Better use of airspace
• Vertical Separation
– Aircraft below FL 290
• Separated by 1000 ft
– Aircraft above FL290
• Separated by 2000 ft
• Longitudinal Separation
– Radar accuracy
• 3nm within 40 nm radius of radar antenna
• 5nm beyond 40nm radius of radar antenna
– Wake Vortex Separation
• Enroute and Approach
• Landing
• Lateral Separation
– Radar accuracy
• 3nm within 40 nm radius of radar antenna
• 5nm beyond 40nm radius of radar antenna
– Separation reduced for diverging paths
28. What is ARP? Explain in brief. (NB: no ARP is available question may be wrong so
answer is given for SARP)
Ans:
SARP – Standards and Recommended Practices are developed by ICAO and cover all
technical and operational aspects of international civil aviation, such as safety, personnel licensing,
operation of aircraft, aerodromes, air traffic services, accident investigation and the environment.
Whilst the PANS may contain material which may eventually become standards or
Recommended practices (SARPs) when it has reached the maturity and stability necessary for
adoption as such they may also comprise material prepared as an amplification of the basic
principles in the corresponding SRPs, and designed particularly to assist the user in the application
of those SRPs.
29. Give few basic radar terminologies.

Ans:
Radar, Target, Jamming, Range, Phase detector, Azimuth, MTI – Moving Target Indicator,
MTD – Moving Target Detector. Synchronous detector, SRE –Surveillance Radar Equipment, PAR
– Precision Approach Radar, Primary Radar, Secondary Radar, Doppler Navigation Radar, Ground
Mapping Radar, Terrain Following Radar.
30. What is the basic principle of Radar?

Ans:
RADAR-Radio Detection and Ranging: Principle:
• A signal, at constant intervals is sent through the area to be monitored using antennae.
• Any object in the path of the signal reflects the part of the signal.
• A receiver receives the signal which is translated into a dot on the CRO
31. How PAR is used to control air traffic?

Ans:
PAR – Precision Approach RADAR:
PAR is designed for use as a landing aid rather than an aid for sequencing and spacing
aircraft. PAR equipment may be used as a primary landing aid or it may be used to monitor other
types of approaches. It is designed to display range, azimuth, and elevation information. Two
antennas are used in the PAR array, one scanning a vertical plane, and the other scanning
horizontally. Since the range is limited to 10 miles, azimuth to 20 degrees, and elevation to 7
degrees, only the final approach area is covered.
32. What is primary radar how it is used in identification of aircraft?

Ans:
Primary radar: a radar system which uses reflected radio signals.
This type of radar (now called primary radar) can detect and report the position of anything
that reflects its transmitted radio signals including, depending on its design, aircraft, birds, weather
and land features. For air traffic control purposes, its targets do not have to co-operate, they only
have to be within its coverage and be able to reflect radio waves, but it only indicates the position
of the targets, it does not identify them. When primary radar was the only type of radar available,
the correlation of individual radar returns with specific aircraft typically was achieved by the
Controller observing a directed turn by the aircraft. Primary radar is still used by ATC today as a
backup/complementary system to secondary radar, although its coverage and information is more
limited
33. What is secondary radar how it is used in identification of aircraft?

Ans:
Secondary radar: a radar system wherein a radio signal transmitted from the radar station
initiates the transmission of a radio signal from another station
The need to be able to identify aircraft more easily and reliably led to another wartime radar
development, the Identification Friend or Foe (IFF) system, which had been created as a means of
positively identifying friendly aircraft from enemy. This system, which became known in civil use
as secondary surveillance radar (SSR) or as the air traffic control radar beacon system (ATCRBS),
relies on a piece of equipment aboard the aircraft known as a "transponder." The transponder is a
radio receiver and transmitter which receives on one frequency (1030 MHz) and transmits on
another (1090 MHz). The target aircraft's transponder replies to signals from an interrogator by
transmitting a coded reply signal containing the requested information.
Both the civilian SSR and the military IFF have become much more complex than their
war-time ancestors, but remain compatible with each other, not least to allow military aircraft to
operate in civil airspace. SSR can now provide much more detailed information, for example, the
aircraft's altitude, and it also permits the exchange of data directly between aircraft for collision
avoidance. Given its primary military role of reliably identifying friends, IFF has much more secure
(encrypted) messages to prevent "spoofing" by the enemy, and also is used on all kinds of military
platforms including air, sea and land vehicles.
34. What is a performance check?

Ans:
The radar controller shall adjust the radar displays and carryout adequate checks on the
accuracy thereof, in accordance with the technical instructions prescribed by the appropriate
authority for the radar equipment concerned.
The radar controller shall be satisfied that the available capabilities of the radar system as
well as the information presented on the radar display(s) is adequate for the function to be
performed.
The radar controller shall report in accordance with local procedures, any fault in the
equipment or any incident requiring investigation or any circumstances which make it difficult or
impractical to provide radar services.
35. What is meant by flight advisory service?

Ans:
The en route flight advisory service (FAS), or Flight Watch, is a service from selected FSSs
or AFSSs on a common frequency 122.0 MHz below flight level (FL) 180 and on assigned discrete
frequencies to aircraft at FL180 and above. The purpose of EFAS is to provide en route aircraft
with timely and pertinent weather data tailored to a specific altitude and route using the most
current available sources of aviation meteorological information. Additionally, EFAS is a focal
point for rapid receipt and dissemination of pilot reports.

UNIT IV
36. Explain few aerodrome reference codes. .

Ans:
37. Draw the primary runway used in India. .

Ans: (use any one diagram)
TORA - take off run available

TODA - take off distance available
ASDA - accelerate‐stop distance available
LDA - landing distance available
38. Give few basic terminology used in aerodrome design. .

Ans:
Aerodrome elevation, aerodrome identification sign, aerodrome reference point,
aerodrome reference field length, declared distances, TORA - take off run available, TODA -
take off distance available , ASDA - accelerate‐stop distance available, LDA - landing distance
available, displaced threshold, holding bay, instrument runway, primary runway, secondary
runway, precision and non precision approach runway, landing area, intermediate holding position,
movement area, taxi way, aircraft stand taxi lane, apron taxiway, maneuvering area, RESA- runway
end safety area, runway strip, RVR- runway visual range, Shoulder, stop way, threshold,
touchdown zone, taxiway intersection, etc,.
39. What is meant by basic runway length? Describe three cases to be considered.
Ans:
Basic runway length: It is the length of runway under the following assumed conditions at
the airport.
1. Airport altitude is at sea level.
2. Temperature at the airport is standard 15ºc
3. Runway is leveled in the longitudinal direction.
4. no wind is blowing on runway
5. Aircraft is loaded to its full loading capacity.
6. There is no wind blowing en route to the destination.
7. En route temperature is standard
The runway length resulting when the actual runway length is corrected to the equivalent
mean sea level, standard atmospheric pressure, and no gradient conditions.( or the three cases
to be considered)
40. Give few obstacle restrictions.

Ans:
The following are the obstacle restrictions:
Outer horizontal surface
Conical surface
Inner horizontal surface
Approach surface
Inner approach surface
Transitional surface
Inner transitional surface
Balked landing surface
Take off climb surface
41. Give few visual aids for denoting obstacles.

Ans:
Objects on Movement Areas
1. Vehicles and other mobile objects, excluding aircraft, on the manoeuvring area of an
aerodrome are obstacles and shall be marked and, if the vehicle and aerodrome are used
at night or in conditions of low visibility, lighted.
2. Elevated aeronautical ground lights within the movement area shall be marked so as to
be conspicuous by day.
Objects on Runway Strips
A fixed object located on a runway strip shall be marked and if the aerodrome is used at
night, lighted, excluding visual aids that are by their nature visually conspicuous
Other Objects
A fixed object, other than an obstacle, adjacent to a take-off/approach surface should be marked
and if the runway is used at night, lighted if such marking and lighting is considered necessary to
ensure its avoidance except that the marking may be omitted when:
1. The height of the obstacle above the level of the surrounding ground does not exceed
150 m and it is lighted by medium intensity obstacle light by day; or
2. The object is lighted by high-intensity obstacle lights by day.
All mobile objects to be marked shall be coloured or display flags.

42. Why there should be obstacle restrictions?
Ans:
The airspace around aerodromes to be maintained free from obstacles so as to permit the
intended aero plane operations at the aerodromes to be conducted safely and to prevent the
aerodromes from becoming unusable by the growth of obstacles around the aerodromes. This is
achieved by establishing a series of obstacle limitation surfaces that define the limits to which
objects may project into the airspace.
Explanation for understanding

An aerodrome operator is required to monitor the airspace around the aerodrome for
infringement of the obstacle limitation surfaces by any object, building or structure. The aerodrome
operator must take all reasonable measures to ensure that obstacles at or within the vicinity of the
aerodrome are detected as quickly as possible. The aerodrome operator is required to inform the
DCA immediately he becomes aware of the presence of an obstacle, giving details of its height and
location and amended declared distances and gradients where applicable. In addition, where the
aerodrome operator becomes aware of any development or proposed construction near the
aerodrome that is likely to create an obstacle, he must inform the DCA as soon as practicable,
giving all details of the likely obstacle.
43. Give the length of various primary and secondary runways.

Ans:
Primary Runway: The actual runway length to be provided for a primary runway shall be
adequate to meet the operational requirements of the aero planes for which the runway is intended
and shall be not less than the longest length determined by applying the corrections for local
conditions to the operations and performance characteristics of the relevant Aero planes.
Secondary Runway: The length of a secondary runway shall be determined similarly to
primary runways except that it needs only to be adequate for those aero planes which require to use
that secondary runway in addition to the other runway or runways in order to obtain a usability
factor of at least 95 per cent.
Recommended Runway Length

The analysis presented earlier in Derivative Stage Length Analysis (DSLA), indicates that a
runway length of 6,000 feet is the absolute minimum length considered at FLL to be usable by 80
percent of the projected peak hour fleet for departures. A maximum primary runway length of
8,000 feet will accommodate at least 90 percent of the design day aircraft departures at 90 percent
maximum payload. A secondary runway at FLL should be as close to 8,000 feet in length, plus
grade adjustments, as practicable, but not less than 6,000 feet.
An analysis was conducted to determine the runway length requirements for passenger air
carrier, commuter, and cargo aircraft operating at Dayton International Airport (DAY). Based on
100% maximum takeoff weights (MTOW) of the existing and future aircraft fleet mix through year
2020, the following runway lengths are justified at DAY.
Justified Runway Lengths
Runway Justified Runway Length (ft.)
6R-24L 13,900 primary runway
6L-24R 13,900 primary runway
18-36 11,120 secondary runway
44. What is meant by runway saturation?

Ans:
The runway saturation means that how much arrival and departure of aircraft can
accommodate with respect to available runway capacity whether control tower is available or not.
Existing airports without a control tower have very small runway saturation capacities (4-5 arrivals
per hour). The saturation capacity of an airport with HVO (ADS-B) technology depends on the
safety buffers allowed and the delivery accuracy of pilots/AMM system. The variation in technical
parameters such as γ and δ affects the results of saturation capacity. The saturation capacity of an
airport depends on the runway configuration used. The saturation capacity during VMC conditions
is higher than during IMC conditions (due to shorter separation minima). The variation in technical
parameters such as γ and δ affects the results of saturation capacity.
45. Define instrument runway.

Ans:
Instrument Runway: Runway meant for simultaneous approaches to parallel or near-
parallel runways where radar separation minima between aircraft on adjacent extended runway
centre lines are not prescribed is called instrument runway.
Explanation for understanding

Instrument Runway:
One of the following types of runways intended for the operation of aircraft using
instrument approach procedures:
a) Non-precision approach runway. An instrument runway served by visual aids and a non-visual
aid providing at least directional guidance adequate for a straight-in approach.
b) Precision approach runway, category I. An instrument runway served by ILS and/or MLS and
visual aids intended for operations with a decision height not lower than 60 m (200 ft) and either a
visibility not less than 800 m or a runway visual range not less than 550 m.
c) Precision approach runway, category II. An instrument runway served by ILS and/or MLS and
visual aids intended for operations with a decision height lower than 60 m (200 ft) but not lower
than 30 m (100 ft) and a runway visual range not less than 350 m.
d) Precision approach runway, category III. An instrument runway served by ILS and/or MLS to
and along the surface of the runway and:
A C intended for operations with a decision height lower than 30 m (100 ft), or no decision
height and a runway visual range not less than 200 m.
B C intended for operations with a decision height lower than 15 m (50 ft), or no decision
height and a runway visual range less than 200 m but not less than 50 m.
C C intended for operations with no decision height and no runway visual range limitations.
Note. C Visual aids need not necessarily be matched to the scale of non-visual aids provided. The
criterion for the selection of visual aids is the conditions in which operations are intended to be
conducted.

UNIT V
46. What is meant by landing direction indicator?
Ans:
Landing Direction Indicator: a device to indicate visually the direction currently
designated for landing and for take-off.
47. Distinguish between ICAO system and Calvert system?

Ans:
S.No. ICAO system Calvert System
One of the two basic categories of approach One of the two basic categories of
1
lighting system approach lighting system
In most aspects US standards for approach Used UK, Europe and other parts of the
2 lighting system are virtually identical to ICAO world particularly in Commonwealth
standards which is approved by FAA countries
There are two basic categories of ALS which
This system is distinguished by six
are high intensity and medium intensity system.
3 transverse lines of lights variable length
They are composed barrettes of five white
at right angles to the axis of approach
lights along the extended runway centerline.
The effect of the bright or medium intensity
The length of the transverse bars
sequenced flashes gives the appearance of a fast
4 diminishes as the pilot approaches the
moving ball of light travelling toward the
threshold.
runway.
48. What is aerodrome beacon?

Ans:
Airport beacons help a pilot to identify an airport at night. The beacons are operated from
dusk till dawn. Sometimes they are turned on if the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet and/or the ground
visibility is less than 3 statute miles (VFR minimums). However, there is no requirement for this,
so a pilot has the responsibility of determining if the weather meets VFR requirements. The beacon
has a vertical light distribution to make it most effective from 1–10° above the horizon, although it
can be seen well above or below this spread. The beacon may be an Omni directional capacitor-
discharge device, or it may rotate at a constant speed, which produces the visual effect of flashes at
regular intervals. The combination of light colors from an airport beacon indicates the type of
airport. Some of the most common beacons are:
• Flashing white and green for civilian land airports;
• Flashing white and yellow for a water airport;
• Flashing white, yellow, and green for a heliport; and
• Two quick white flashes alternating with a green flash identifying a military airport.
49. Explain why Aerodrome beacon lights are required?

Ans:
An aerodrome beacon or rotating beacon is a beacon installed at an airport or aerodrome to
indicate its location to aircraft pilots at night.
An aerodrome beacon is mounted on top of a towering structure, often a control tower,
above other buildings of the airport. It produces flashes not unlike that of a lighthouse.
Airport and heliport beacons are designed in such a way to make them most effective from
one to ten degrees above the horizon; however, they can be seen well above and below this peak
spread. The beacon may be an omni directional flashing xenon strobe, or it may rotate at a constant
speed which produces the visual effect of flashes at regular intervals. Flashes may be of just a
single color, or of two alternating colors.
50. Draw the lighting system of the runway.

Ans:
51. Explain the emergency marking denoted by runway lighting.

Ans:
At an aerodrome provided with runway lighting and without a secondary power supply,
sufficient emergency lights should be conveniently available for installation on at least the primary
runway in the event of failure of the normal lighting system.
When installed on a runway the emergency lights should, as a minimum, conform to the
configuration required for a non‐instrument runway.
52. Give the various marking shown in the runway.

Ans:
The following are the various marking on the runway:
Runway designation marking, Runway centre line marking, Threshold marking, Transverse
stripe, Arrows marking, Aiming point marking, Touchdown zone marking, Runway side stripe
markings, Taxiway centre line marking, Taxiway intersection marking, Runway turn pad marking,
Runway holding position marking, Intermediate holding position marking, VOR aerodrome check
point marking, Apron safety lines, Information marking.
53. What are the six groups of the airport markings?

Ans:
There are six groups of airport markings: Runway markings, Taxiway markings, VOR
receiver checkpoint markings, Vehicle roadway marking, Non movement area boundary
markings and Information marking
The six types of marking signs are: Mandatory Instruction Signs, Location Signs,
Direction Signs, Destination Signs, Information Signs, and Runway Distance Remaining Signs
54. What is the visual aid for wind direction?

Ans:
The visual aid for wind direction indicator can be a wind cone, wind sock, tetrahedron, or
wind tee. These are usually located in a central location near the runway and may be placed in the
center of a segmented circle, which identifies the traffic pattern direction, if it is other than the
standard left-hand pattern. The wind sock is a good source of information since it not only indicates
wind direction, but allows the pilot to estimate the wind velocity and gusts or factor. The wind sock
extends out straighter in strong winds and tends to move back and forth when the wind is gusty.
Wind tees and tetrahedrons can swing freely, and align themselves with the wind direction. The
wind tee and tetrahedron can also be manually set to align with the runway in use; therefore, a pilot
should also look at the wind sock, if available.
55. Explain few emergencies procedure.

Ans:
1. A situation in which the response of all agencies involved in the
aerodrome emergency plan will be activated. A full emergency will be
declared when an aircraft approaching the airport is known or
suspected to be in such trouble that there is danger of an accident.
2. LAND RESCUE UNIT equipped to undertake a search for an aircraft
within the region of its responsibility
3. RADAR/ADS-B INFORMATION SERVICE (RIS) on request service
provided to assist pilots of pilots VFR flights within ATS surveillance
system coverage in class E and G airspace to avoid other aircraft or to
assist in navigation
4. RESCUE CORRDINATION CENTER for promoting efficient
organization of search and rescue service within the region of
responsibility.
56. Explain Alerting Service.

Ans:
When so required by the appropriate ATS authority to facilitate the provision of alerting and
search and rescue services, an aircraft, prior to and when operating within or into designated areas
or along designated routes, shall comply with the provisions detailed in rules, concerning the
submission, completion, changing and closing of a flight plan.
When alerting service is required in respect of a flight operated through more than one FIR
or control area, and when the position of the aircraft is in doubt, responsibility for coordinating
such service shall rest with the ATS unit of the FIR or control area
57. What is altimeter setting?

Ans:
Altimeter Setting: a pressure datum which when set on the subscale of a sensitive
altimeter causes the altimeter to indicate vertical displacement from that datum. A pressure type
altimeter calibrated in accordance with Standard Atmosphere may be used to indicate altitude,
height or flight levels as follows:
1. When set to QNH or area QNH it will indicate altitude;
2. When set to Standard Pressure (1013.2 hPa) it may be used to indicate flight levels.
58. Explain QFE setting.

Ans:
QFE, which refers to the altimeter setting that, will cause the altimeter to read the
height above a specific aerodrome or ground level, and therefore read zero on landing. While
using QFE is convenient while flying in the traffic circuit of an airfield. When set to ‘0000’ it may
be used to indicate height above aerodrome or ground level.
59. Explain QNH setting.

Ans:
QNH is defined as, "barometric pressure adjusted to sea level." It is a pressure setting
used by pilots, air traffic control (ATC), and low frequency weather beacons to refer to the
barometric setting which, when set on an aircraft's altimeter, will cause the altimeter to read altitude
above mean sea level within a certain defined region.
60. Define QNH & QFE.

Ans:

QNH is defined as, "barometric pressure adjusted to sea level." It is a pressure setting
used by pilots, air traffic control (ATC), and low frequency weather beacons to refer to the
barometric setting which, when set on an aircraft's altimeter, will cause the altimeter to read
Altitude above mean sea level within a certain defined region.
QFE, which refers to the altimeter setting that, will cause the altimeter to read the
height above a specific aerodrome or ground level, and therefore read zero on landing. While
using QFE is convenient while flying in the traffic circuit of an airfield.
QFE and QNH are arbitrary Q codes rather than abbreviations, but the mnemonics "Nautical
Height" (for QNH) and "Field Elevation" (for QFE) are often used by pilots to distinguish them.
61. Give the various altimeters setting followed in India.

Ans:
1. When cruising at or above Transition Level (TRL), use the Standard
Altimeter setting 1013.25 hPa or 29.92 In Hg (Red part on the
drawing).
2. During descent through Transition Level (TL), select QNH.
3. Cruising at or below Transition Altitude (TA), use QNH (Blue part on
the drawing).
4. When climbing through the Transition Altitude (TA), the Standard
Altimeter is set to 1013.25 hPa or 29.92 In Hg.
NB: for understanding

1. The transition altitude (TA) is the altitude AT OR BELOW which pilots have to use the
QNH setting. That means you are flying at ALTITUDES
2. The TRansition Level (TRL) is the FIRST FLIGHT LEVEL that may be used ABOVE
TA. From here, pilots have to use the STANDARD altimeter setting 1013 hPa or 29.92
inHg.
3. A Flight Level (FL) is the vertical distance of an aircraft above the ISOBARIC
SURFACE of 1013,25 hPa (hectopascal) or 29.92 in Hg (inches of Mercury).
4. An "ISOBARIC SURFACE" is the "invisible landscape" that connects all points with
the same atmospheric pressure. In aviation, 1013,25 hPa (hectopascal) / 29.92 in Hg
(inches of Mercury) are referred to as the STANDARD altimeter setting.
62. Define VASI & PAPI.
Ans:
The visual approach slope indicator (VASI) is a system of lights on the side of an airport
runway threshold that provides visual descent guidance information during the approach to a
runway. These lights may be visible from up to eight kilometers (five miles) during the day and up
to 32 kilometers (20 miles) or more at night.
Precision approach path Indicator (PAPI) is a visual aid that provides guidance
information to help a pilot acquire and maintain the correct approach (in the vertical plane) to an
aerodrome or an airport.
63. What is VAPI?
Ans:
A visual approach slope indicator (VASI or VAPI) system shall be provided to serve the
approach to a runway where one or more of the following conditions exits:
- The runway is not served by an electronic glide path and the runway is used by
turbojet or other aircraft with similar approach guidance requirements;
- The pilot of any type of aircraft may have difficulty in judging the approach
due to:
1. Inadequate visual guidance such as is experienced during an approach over water,
2. or featureless terrain by day or in the absence of sufficient extraneous lights in the
approach area by night, or
3. Misleading information such as is produced by deceptive surrounding terrain or
runway slopes;
Or
Visual approach slope indicators (VASI or VAPI) consist of one set of lights set up some
seven meters (twenty feet) from the start of the runway. Each light is designed so that the light
appears as either white or red, depending on the angle at which the lights are viewed. When the
pilot is approaching the lights at the proper angle, meaning the pilot is on the glide slope, the
first set of lights appears white and the second set appears red. When both sets appear white, the
pilot is flying too high, and when both appear red he or she is flying too low. This is the most
common type of visual approach slope indicator system.
64. What is meant by PAPI?
Ans:
The standard visual approach slope indicator systems shall consist of PAPI and APAPI
systems conforming to the specifications.
Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) consists of four sets of lights in a line
perpendicular to the runway, usually mounted to the left side of the runway. These have a similar
purpose to basic visual approach slope indicators, but the additional lights serve to show the pilot
how far off the glide slope the aircraft is.
When the lights show White-White-Red-Red the aircraft is on the correct glide slope for landing,
usually 3.0°. Three red lights (white–red–red–red) indicate that the aircraft is slightly below glide
slope (2.8°), while four red lights (Red-Red-Red-Red) indicate that the aircraft is significantly
below glide slope (<2.5°). Conversely, three white lights (white–white–white–red) indicate that the
aircraft is slightly above glide slope (3.2°), and four white lights (White-White-White-White)
indicated that the aircraft is significantly above glide slope (>3.5°).
65. Define terminal aids?

Ans: Terminal aids: an airfield equipped with control tower and hangars as well as
accommodations for passengers and cargo. An airport (terminal) is a location where aircraft such as
fixed-wing aircraft, helicopters, and blimps take off and land. Aircraft may be stored or maintained
at an airport. An airport consists of at least one surface such as a runway for a plane to take off and
land, a helipad, or water for takeoffs and landings, and often includes buildings such as control
towers, hangars and terminal buildings.

PART A
Nov/Dec 2011
1. What are the objectives of ATS?

Ans:
REFER QUES No.08 in Part A
2. What is altimeter setting?
Ans:
3. Why should one assign the minimum cruising level?
Ans:
Cruising level is a level maintained during a significant portion of a flight. Also,Cruising
altitude is an altitude or flight level maintained during en-route level flight. This is a constant
altitude.
Cruising levels which specifies assignment of vertical separation minimum of 1000 ft
between flight level (FL) 290 and FL 410 inclusive based on direction of flight. Traffic permitting,
ATC will assign the flight planned level in accordance with the table of semi-circular system of
Cruising Levels. Cruising levels below the minimum specified in ENR 3.1 will not be assigned.
These specific instructions take into account the predominant traffic flows within and between the
regions, as well as the unique characteristics of each State’s cruising level procedures
With only 300 metres (1 000 ft) separating the respective cruising levels, every effort must be made
to standardize and simplify procedures. This reduces complexity for air traffic controllers and
for flight crews.
4. Explain what is a flight plan.
Ans:
Aviation Authority (e.g. DGCA in INDIA) prior to departure.
Aviation Authority prior to departure. Flight plan format is specified in the ICAO Doc 4444. They
generally include basic information such as departure and arrival points, estimated time en route,
alternate airports in case of bad weather, type of flight (whether instrument flight rules or visual
flight rules), the pilot's information, number of people on board and information about the aircraft
itself. In most countries, flight plans are required for flights under IFR, but may be optional for
flying VFR unless crossing international borders.
5. What is the basic principle of Radar?
Ans:
6. How PAR is used to control air traffic?
Ans:
7. What is the length of Primary Runway?
Ans:
8. Why there should be obstacle restrictions?
Ans:
9. Explain why Aerodrome beacon lights are required?
Ans:
10. What is the visual aid for wind direction?
Ans:
PART A
Apr/May 2010
1. Describe the two basic types of flight rules.

Ans:
2. What are the tree components of ATC network?
Ans:
3. Define RNAV
Ans:
4. Mention different categories of Airports.
Ans:
5. Distinguish between ICAO system and Calvert system.
Ans:
6. What is meant by basic runway length? Describe three cases to be considered.
Ans:
7. Define Aerodrome.
Ans:
8. What is meant by runway saturation?
Ans:
9. What are the six groups of the airport markings?
Ans:
10. Define terminal aids
Ans:

PART-B
1. Describe the classification of ATS Air space.
Ans:
Controlled air space: an air space of defined dimensions within which air traffic control
service is provided to aerodrome traffic with airspace classification. Controlled air space which
covers ATS airspaces classes A, B, C, D and E.
Un-Controlled air space: an airspace where an Air Traffic Control (ATC) service is not
deemed necessary or cannot be provided for practical reasons. According to the airspace classes set
by ICAO both class F and class G airspace are uncontrolled. It is the opposite of controlled
airspace.
ATC does not exercise any executive authority in uncontrolled airspace, but may provide
basic information services to aircraft in radio contact. Flight in uncontrolled airspace will typically
be under VFR. Aircraft operating under IFR should not expect separation from other traffic:
however in certain uncontrolled airspace this might be provided on an 'as far as is practical'
advisory basis.
Classification of ATS airspaces:

Since the number of aircraft flying is relatively high, with the number of aircraft flying over
the worldwide today, proper airspace usage is critical for flight safety and efficient service to pilots
and the flying public. To assist in this goal, the airspace is divided into five classifications.
Class A Airspace:
Class A Airspace is the airspace from FL 180 or 18,000 feet to FL 600 or 60,000. All pilots
flying in Class A airspace shall file an Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) flight plan and receive an
appropriate air traffic control (ATC) clearance. When climbing through 18,000 feet, the pilot will
change the altimeter setting from the local altimeter (30.01 for example) to 29.92. This ensures all
aircraft flying in class A airspace have the same altimeter setting and will have proper altitude
separation.
Class B Airspace
Class B Airspace is generally the airspace from the surface to 10,000 feet. Class B airspace
is individually designed to meet the needs of the particular airport and consists of a surface area and
two more layers. Most Class B airspace resembles an upside down wedding cake. Pilots must
contact air traffic control to receive an air traffic control clearance to enter Class B airspace. Once a
pilot receives an air traffic control clearance, they receive separation services from other aircraft
within the airspace.
Class C Airspace
Class C Airspace is the airspace from the surface to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation.
Class C airspace will only be found at airports that have an operational control tower, are serviced
by a radar approach control, and that have a certain number of IFR operations. Although Class C
airspace is individually tailored to meet the needs of the airport, the airspace usually consists of a
surface area with a 5 nautical mile (NM) radius, an outer circle with a 10 NM radius that extends
from 1,200 feet to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation and an outer area. Pilots must establish and
maintain two-way radio communications with the ATC facility providing air traffic control services
prior to entering airspace. Pilots of visual flight rules (VFR) aircraft are separated from pilots of
instrument flight rules (IFR) aircraft only.
Class D Airspace
The fourth airspace is Class D Airspace which is generally that airspace from the surface to
2,500 feet above the airport elevation. Class D airspace only surrounds airports that have an
operational control tower. Class D airspace is also tailored to meet the needs of the airport. Pilots
are required to establish and maintain two-way radio communications with the ATC facility
providing air traffic control services prior to entering the airspace. No separation services will be
provided to pilots of VFR (Visual Flight Rules) aircraft. Pilots operating under VFR must still use
"see-and-avoid" for aircraft separation. Airports without operating control towers are uncontrolled
airfields. Here pilots are responsible for their own separation and takeoff and landings.
Uncontrolled airports use a "UNICOM" frequency that pilots will transmit their intentions to other
aircraft using the airport.
Class E Airspace
The fifth airspace to discuss is Class E Airspace which is generally that airspace that is not
Class A, B, C, or D. Class E airspace extends upward from either the surface or a designated
altitude to the overlying or adjacent controlled airspace. If an aircraft is flying on a Federal airway
below 18,000 feet, it is in Class E airspace. Class E airspace is also the airspace used by aircraft
transiting to and from the terminal or en route environment normally beginning at 14,500 feet to
18,000 feet. Class E airspace ensures IFR aircraft remain in controlled airspace when approaching
aircraft without Class D airspace.
Class G Airspace
Class G Airspace is uncontrolled airspace. IFR aircraft will not operate in Class G airspace.
VFR aircraft can operate in Class G airspace.
NB: the following are additional incase the ques has been asked to for classification of
airspace in India
ATS airspaces in India are classified and designated in accordance with following:
Class D: IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all flights are provided with air traffic
control service, IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and receive traffic information in
respect of VFR flights. VFR flights receive traffic information in respect of all other flights.
Airspaces in terminal areas, control areas, control zones and aerodrome traffic zones have
been classified and designated as class D airspace.
Class E: IFR and VFR flights are permitted; IFR flights are provided with air traffic control
service and are separated from other IFR flights. IFR flights receive traffic information in respect of
VFR flights, VFR flights receive traffic information in respect of all other flights, as far as is
practical. Class E is not be used for control zones.
Airspaces in designated ATS routes outside terminal areas, control areas and control zones,
where air traffic control service is provided, have been classified and designated as class E airspace.
Class F: IFR and VFR flights are permitted. All IFR flights receive an air traffic advisory
service and all flights receive flight information service, if requested.
Airspaces in designated ATS route segments outside terminal areas, control areas and
control zones, where air traffic advisory service is provided, have been classified and designated as
class F airspace.
Class G: IFR and VFR flights are permitted and receive flight information service if
requested. Airspaces other than those in Class D, E and F have been classified and designated as
class G airspace.
2. Describe the various kinds of separation with provision of Area Control Service
Ans:
General Provisions for the Separation of Controlled Traffic
1.1 Vertical or horizontal separation shall be provided:
a) Between all flights in Class A and B airspaces:
b) Between IFR flights in Class C, D and E airspaces:
c) Between IFR flights and VFR flights in Class C airspace:
d) Between special IFR flights and special VFR flights and
e) Between special VFR flights when so prescribed by the appropriate ATS
authority:
Except for the case under a), b) and c) above during hours of daylight when flights have cleared to
climb or descend subject to maintaining own separation and remaining in visual meteorological
conditions.
1.2 No clearance shall be given to execute any maneuver that would reduce the spacing
between two aircraft to less than the separation minimum applicable in the
circumstances.
1.3 Larger separations than the specified minima should be applied whenever wake
turbulence or exceptional circumstances such as unlawful interference call for extra
precautions. This should be done with due regard to all relevant factors so as to
avoid impending the flow of air traffic by the applications of excessive separations.
1.4 Where the type of separation or minimum used to separate two aircraft cannot be
maintained, action shall be taken to ensure that another type of separation or another
minimum exists or is established prior to the time when the previously used
separation would be insufficient.
VERTICAL SEPARATION:
Vertical separation application:
2.1 Vertical is obtained by requiring aircraft using prescribed altimeter setting procedures to
operate at different levels expressed in terms of flight levels or altitudes.
Vertical Separation minimum:
3.1 the vertical separation minimum (VSM) shall be:
a) within designated airspace subject to regional air navigation agreement: a
nominal 300m (1000ft) below FL 410 or a higher level where so prescribed for
use under specified condition and a nominal 600m (2000ft) at or above this
level: and
b) within other airspace: a nominal 300m (1000ft) below FL 290 and a nominal
600m (2000ft) at or above this level
Vertical separation during ascent or descent
4.1 Pilots in direct communication with each other may, with their concurrence, be cleared
to maintain a specified vertical separation between their aircraft during ascent or descent.
Horizontal Separation
a) other minima for use in circumstances not prescribed; or
b) additional conditions to those prescribed for the use of a given minimum;
Lateral Separation
Lateral Separation Application
5.1 Lateral separation shall be applied so that the distance between those portions of the
intended routes for which the aircraft are to be laterally separated is never less than an established
distance to account for navigational inaccuracies plus a specified buffer. This buffer shall be
determined by the appropriate authority and included in the lateral separation minima as an integral
part thereof.
5.2 Lateral separation of the aircraft at the same level is obtained by requiring operation on
different routes or in different geographical locations as determined by visual observation, by use of
navigation aids or by use of area navigation equipment.
Lateral Separation criteria and minima

5.3 Means by which lateral separation may be achieved include the following:
a) Geographical separation i.e., separation positively indicated by position reports over
different geographical locations as determined visually or by reference to a navigation
aid (fig III-1)
b) Track separation between aircraft using the same navigation aid or method. By
requiring aircraft to fly on specified tracks which are separated by a minimum amount
appropriate to the navigation aid or method employed as follows:
1. VOR: at least 15 degrees and at a distance of 28 Km (15 NM) or more
from the facility.
2. NDB: at least 30 degrees and at a distance of 28 Km (15 NM) or more
from the facility.
3. DR: tracks diverging by at least 45 degrees and at a distance of 28 Km (15 NM)
or more from the point of intersection of the tracks. This point being determined
either visually or by reference to a navigation aid.
When aircraft are operating on tracks which are separated by considerably more than the
foregoing minimum figures, states may reduce the distance at which lateral separation is
achieved.
5.4 Track separation between aircraft transitioning into airspace over the high seas. By
requiring aircraft to fly on specified tracks which are separated by at least degrees and at a distance
of 28 Km (15 NM) or more from the same VOR provided that:
a) The aircraft tracks continue to diverge by at least 15 degrees until the appropriate
lateral separation minimum is established in airspace over the high seas and
b) It is possible to ensure, by means approved by the appropriate ATS authority, that
the aircraft have the navigation capability necessary to ensure accurate track
guidance.
5.5 Track separation between aircraft using different navigation aids or methods. Track
between aircraft using different navigation aids and area navigation (RNAV) equipment may be
achieved by requiring aircraft to fly on specified tracks which are determined by taking account of
navigational accuracy of the navigations aid and RNAV equipment used by each aircraft and where
the protection areas thus established for each track do not overlap.
Longitudinal Separation
Longitudinal separation application:
6.1 Longitudinal separation shall be applied so that the spacing between the estimated
positions of the aircraft being separated is never less than a prescribed minimum. Longitudinal
separation between aircraft following the same or diverging tracks may be maintained by
application of the Mach number technique, when so prescribed on the basis of regional air
navigation agreement.
6.2 Longitudinal separation shall be established by requiring aircraft to depart at a specified
time, to lose time to arrive over a geographical location at a specified time, or to hold over a
geographical location until a specified time.
6.3 Longitudinal separation between supersonic aircraft during the transonic acceleration
and supersonic phases of flight should normally be established by appropriate timing of the start of
transonic acceleration rather than by the imposition of speed restrictions in supersonic flight.
6.4 For the purpose of application of longitudinal separation, the terms same track,
reciprocal tracks and crossing tracks shall have the following meanings:
a) Same track: same direction tracks and intersecting tracks or portions thereof, the
angular difference of which is less than 45 degrees or more than 315 degrees, and
whose protection areas overlap.
b) Reciprocal tracks: Opposite tracks and intersecting tracks or portions thereof, the
angular difference of which is more than 135 degrees but less than 225 degrees and
whose protection areas overlap.

c) Crossing tracks: intersecting tracks or portions thereof other than those specified
in a) and b) above.
Longitudinal separation minima based on time:
6.5 Aircraft at the same cruising level:
Aircraft flying on the same track:
a) 15minutes or
b) 10 minutes, if navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and
speed or
c) 5 minutes in the following cases, provided that in each case the preceding
aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 37 Km/h (20kt) or more faster than the
succeeding aircraft:
i) Between aircraft that have departed from the same aerodrome
ii) Between en-route aircraft that have reported over the same exact reporting
point.
3. Explain the conditions for operating VFR/SPECIAL VFR flights
Ans:
Visual flight rules (VFR Flights)
- Specifically, the weather must be better than Basic VFR Weather Minimums,
as specified in the rules of the relevant aviation authority.
- If the weather is worse than VFR minimums, pilots are required to use
Instrument Flight Rules.
- Meteorological conditions that meet the minimum requirements for VFR
flight are termed visual meteorological conditions (VMC).
- If they are not met, the conditions are considered instrument meteorological
conditions (IMC), and a flight may only operate under IFR.
- VFR rules require a pilot to be able to see outside the cockpit, to control the
aircraft's attitude, navigate, and avoid obstacles and other aircraft.
- A VFR flight is "conducted in accordance with the visual flight rules
- An aircraft operated in accordance with the visual flight rules which wishes to
change t g o compliance with the instrument flight rules shall
- Communicate the necessary changes to be effected to its current flight plan or
- Submit a flight plan to the appropriate air traffic services unit and obtain a
clearance prior to proceeding IFR when in controlled airspace.
Except when operating as special VFR flight, VFR flights shall be conducted so that the aircraft is
flown in conditions of visibility and distance from clouds equal to or greater than those specified
visual meteorological conditions visibility and distance from cloud minima given below:
Airspace Class D & E Class F & G
Class
Above 900 M AMSL (3000 ft At and below 900 M AMSL
Minimum
AMSL) Or (3000 ft AMSL) Or
Altitude /
Above 900 M AMSL (1000 ft Above 900 M AMSL (1000
Height
AGL) whichever is higher ft AGL) whichever is higher
Distance from Clear of cloud and in sight
1500 M horizontally and 300 M (1000 ft AMSL)
cloud of the surface
8 KM – at and above 3050M AMSL (10000 ft
Flight AMSL)
5 KM**
visibility 5 KM - below 3050M AMSL (10000 ft AMSL)

* When the height of the transition altitude is lower than 3050M AMSL (10000 ft AMSL) FL 100
should be used in lieu of 10000 ft.
** Helicopters may be permitted to operate in 1500M flight visibility, or higher, if maneuvered at a
speed that will give adequate opportunity to observe other traffic or any obstacle in time to avoid
collision.
VFR Rules
- Except when a clearance is obtained from an air traffic control unit, VFR
flights shall not take‐off or land at an aerodrome within a control zone or enter
the aerodrome traffic zone or traffic pattern:
- When the ceiling is less than 450M (1550 Ft) or
- When the ground visibility is less than 5KM.
- VFR flights shall not be operated between sunset and sunrise, except when exempted by
air traffic control for local flights and such training flights of flying club aircraft as may be cleared
by air traffic control.
- VFR flights cannot be operated‐
- Above FL50
- At transonic and supersonic speeds
- More than 100 NM seaward from the shoreline within controlled airspace.
- Expect when necessary for take‐off or landing or except by permission from appropriate
authority, a VFR flight shall not be flown‐
- Over congested area of city, town or settlements or over an open‐air assembly of
persons at a height less than 300M above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600M from the
aircraft.
Special VFR
Special VFR conditions - meteorological conditions that are less than those required for
basic VFR flight in Class B, C, D, or E surface areas and in which some aircraft are permitted flight
under visual flight rules.
Special VFR operations - aircraft operating in accordance with clearances within Class B,
C, D, and E surface areas in weather conditions less than the basic VFR weather minima. Such
operations must be requested by the pilot and approved by ATC.
Special VFR occurs when basic VFR cannot be maintained, and the pilot requests an SVFR
departure or arrival.
a. SVFR operations in weather conditions less than basic VFR minima are authorized:
1. At any location not prohibited by 14 CFR Part 91, Appendix D. 14 CFR Part 91
does not prohibit SVFR helicopter operations, however, so those can be authorized anywhere.
2. Only within the lateral boundaries of Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E
surface areas, below 10,000 feet MSL.
3. Only when requested by the pilot. A controller must never initiate a SVFR
operation himself.
4. On the basis of weather conditions reported at the airport of intended
landing/departure.
5. When weather conditions are not reported at the airport of intended
landing/departure and the pilot advises that VFR cannot be maintained and requests SVFR.
4. ( i)Describe the contents of FLIGHT PLAN

Ans:
Flight plan: Specified information provided to air traffic services units, relative to an intended
flight or portion of a flight of an aircraft.

Aviation Authority prior to departure. Flight plan format is specified in the ICAO Doc 4444.
They generally include basic information such as departure and arrival points, estimated time en
route, alternate airports in case of bad weather, type of flight (whether instrument flight rules or
visual flight rules), the pilot's information, number of people on board and information about
the aircraft itself. In most countries, flight plans are required for flights under IFR, but may be
optional for flying VFR unless crossing international borders.
Flight plans are highly recommended, especially when flying over inhospitable areas, such
as water, as they provide a way of alerting rescuers if the flight is overdue. In the United States
and Canada, when an aircraft is crossing the Air Defense Identification Zone (ADIZ), either an
IFR or a special type of VFR flight plan called a DVFR flight plan must be filed (the "D" is for
Defense).
For IFR flights, flight plans are used by air traffic control to initiate tracking and routing
services. For VFR flights, their only purpose is to provide needed information should search
and rescue operations be required, or for use by air traffic control when flying in a "Special
Flight Rules Area".
Contents of a Flight Plan
The ICAO FPL form shall be used for the purpose of completing a flight plan prior to
departure or, in case the flight plan is submitted by telephone or tele-fax, the sequence of items
in the flight plan form shall be strictly followed.
The following information shall be included in the flight plan:
• Aircraft identification
• Flight rules and type of the flight
• Number of aircraft, type of aircraft and wake turbulence category
• Equipment
• Departure aerodrome
• Estimated off-block time
• Cruising speed
• Level
• Route
• Destination aerodrome and total estimated elapsed time
• Alternate aerodrome(s)
• Endurance
• Persons on board
• Survival equipment
• Pilot in command
• Other information
If a flight is to cross a Finish state border, details of the entire flight to the destination
aerodrome shall be submitted in the flight plan.
Aircraft Identification Maximum: 7 characters [The registration marking of the aircraft

(ALK505)]
Flight Rules (1 character) :The flight rules which the pilot intends to comply
I = if IFR first
V = if VFR first
Y = if IFR first *
Z = if VFR first *
- specify in item 15 the point or points at where a change of flight rules is planned.
Type of Flight (1 character) :
S = scheduled services
N = non-scheduled Air Transport Operations
G = General aviation
M = Military
X = Other than any of the defined categories above
Number and Type of aircraft: Number of aircraft (1 or 2 characters.)
Insert number of aircraft, but only if more than one
Type of aircraft (2 to 4 characters) : The designator as specified by ICAO,
Wake Turbulence Category (1 character) :
H = Heavy, to indicate an aircraft type with a MTOW of 136000 Kg (300000lb) or more.
M = Medium, to indicate a MTOW less than 136000 Kg but more than 7000 Kg (15500lb)
L = Light, to indicate a MTOW of 7000 Kg or less.
Equipment: Radio Communication, Navigation and Approach Aid equipment.
Preceding the oblique stroke, insert one letter as follows:
N = No equipment for the route to be flown is carried, or the equipment is unserviceable.
S = Standard COM/NAV equipment for the route to be flown is carried and serviceable.
Following letters indicate the COM/NAV equipment available and serviceable:
A - LORAN A
C - LORAN C
D - DME
E - DECCA
F - ADF
H - HF RTF
I - Inertial Navigation
L - ILS
M - Omega
O - VOR
P - Doppler
R - RNAV route equipment
T - TACAN
U - UHF RTF
V - VHF RTF
Z - Other equipment; specify in item 18, preceded by COM/ or NAV/ then,
following the oblique stroke, insert one of the following to describe the serviceable SSR
equipment carried:
N - Nil
A - Transponder - mode A - 4096 codes
C - Transponder - mode A - 4096 codes and mode C
X - Transponder - mode S - without pressure altitude and without aircraft
identification transmission
P - Transponder - mode S - with pressure altitude but without aircraft identification
transmission
I - Transponder - mode S - without pressure altitude but with aircraft identification
transmission
X - Transponder - mode S - with both pressure altitude and aircraft identification
transmission
Departure Aerodrome (4 characters) : Location Indicator of the departure aerodrome(Every
airfield has a Location Indicator like Bandaranaike International Airport is VCBI)., or if no
location indicator assigned, insert ZZZZ and specify in item 18, the name of the aerodrome,
preceded by DEP/
VCBI
V: The region.
C: Sri Lanka - The country within the region.
BI: Bandaranaike International - the facility within the country.
VCCA Anuradapura
VCCB Batticaloa
Time (4 characters): The estimated departure time
Cruising Speed (maximum 5 characters) : True Airspeed for the first or whole portion of the
flight, in terms of:
- Kilometres per hour, expressed as K followed by 4 figures (e.g. K0350)
- Knots, expressed as N, followed by 4 figures (e.g. N0220)
- Mach number, when so prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority to the
nearest hundredths of unit mach, expressed as M followed by 4
figures (e.g. M082)
Level [Cruising] (maximum 5 characters) : planned cruising level for the first or the whole
cruising portion of the route to be flown, in terms of:
- Flight level expressed as F followed by 3 figures (e.g. F085, F330)
- Altitude in hundreds of feet expressed as A followed by 3 figures, (e.g. A045,
A100)
- Standard Metric level in tens of meters expressed as S followed by 4 figures
(e.g. S1130)
- Altitude in tens of meters expressed as M followed by 4 figures (e.g. M0840)
- or, for VFR flights where the flight is not planned to be flown at a specific
cruising level, the letters VFR.
- When so prescribed by the appropriate ATS authorities.
Route: Including changes of speed, level and/or flight rules. (note that this is an abbreviated
instruction)
Flight along designated ATS routes: Designator of the first route, or the letters DCT followed
by the point of joining the route then insert each point at which a change of route, speed, level
or flight rules is planned, followed by the designator of the next route segment.
Flight outside designated routes: points not normally more than 30 minutes flying time, or
200 nm apart, including each point where a change of speed, level, track or flight rules is
planned.
Destination Aerodrome (4 characters) : Location indicator of the destination aerodrome
EET (4 characters) :
Total estimated elapsed time:
Alternate aerodromes: Location indicator of not more than two aerodromes.
Other information: 0 (zero) if no other information, or, any other necessary information in the
preferred sequence shown below.
- RFP/ EET/ RIF/ REG/ SEL/ OPR/ STS/ TYP/ PER/ COM/ NAV/ DEP/
DEST/ ALTN/ RMK/
Supplementary Information: This information is not filed with the plan, but is kept at the unit
where the plan was filed. In case of emergency the supplementary information will be
transmitted to the appropriate rescue agencies.
Endurance: After -E/ a 4 figure group giving the fuel endurance in hours and minutes
Persons on Board: After -P/ insert the total number of persons (passengers and crew) on board,
when required by the appropriate ATS authority.
Emergency and Survival Equipment:
-R/(radio)
- cross out U if UHF on frequency 243.0MHz is not carried
- cross out V if VHF on frequency 121.5 MHz is not carried
- cross out E if emergency location beacon - aircraft (ELBA) is not available
-S/ (Survival Equipment)
- cross out all indicators if survival equipment is not carried
- cross out P if polar survival equipment is not carried
- cross out D if desert survival equipment is not carried
- cross out M if maritime survival equipment is not carried.
Note: this refers to equipment in addition to the lifejackets listed in the following section
- cross out J if Jungle survival equipment is not carried
- J/ Jackets
- cross out all indicators if lifejackets are not carried
- cross out L if lifejackets are not fitted with lights
- cross out F if jackets are not equipped with fluorescent
- cross out U or V or both as in R/ above to indicate radio capability of jackets, if
any.
-D/ (dinghies) (number) cross out indicators D and C if no dinghies are carried, or insert
number of dinghies carried and;
- (CAPACITY) insert total capacity, in persons, of all dinghies carried, and
- (COVER) cross out indicator C if dinghies are not covered and
- (COLOUR) insert colour of dinghies if carried.
A/ (AIRCRAFT COLOUR AND MARKINGS) insert colour of aircraft and significant
markings
N/ (REMARKS) cross out indicator N if no remarks, or indicate any other survival
equipment carried and any other remarks regarding survival equipment.
C/ (PILOT) insert name of pilot in command
Example for understanding:

ii) Describe the scope and provision of ATS
Ans:
The objectives or the scope of the Air Traffic Services shall be to:
a) Prevent collisions between aircraft.
b) Prevent collisions between aircraft on the maneuvering area and obstructions on
that area.
c) Expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic.
d) Provide advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights.
e) Notify appropriate organizations regarding aircraft in need of search and rescue
aid, and assist such organizations as required.
Provision of Air Traffic Services:
a) Prevent collisions between aircraft;
b) Expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic;
Approach control service
with arrival or departure, in order to accomplish following objectives:
flights which are under the jurisdiction Approach Control to accomplish objectives:
b) Prevent collisions between aircraft on the maneuvering area and obstructions on that
area;
c) Expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic;
Flight information service
The flight information service, to accomplish following objective:
Provide advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights.
Alerting service
The alerting service to accomplish following objective:
Notify appropriate organizations regarding aircraft in need of search and rescue aid and
assist such organizations as required.
5. Explain with the help of a neat diagram the principle of secondary radar.
Ans:
Secondary radar units work according to principle: The secondary radar unit transmits and
also receives high-frequency impulses, the so called interrogation. This isn't simply reflected,
but received by the target by means of a transponder which receives and processes. After this
the target answers with another frequency, the response telegram which is produced and
transmitted.
The big difference with SSR is that it doesn't rely on reflections. Aircraft are equipped with
a transponder. This transponder transmits a 'reply' when it receives a radar 'interrogation' signal.
The interrogation signal is completely separate from any primary signal. As the reply is not just
a reflection much less power is needed, typically around 1kW for interrogation pulses, slightly
less for replies. Range and direction can be determined from the SSR signal in much the same
way as with primary radar, measuring the time between sending the interrogation and receiving
the reply, making allowance for the turn-round delay in the transponder. The advantage of SSR
is that all sorts of information can be encoded into the Transponder's reply.

Transponders are linked directly to the aircraft's altimeter. The reply contains the aircraft's
height, and thus the controller's screen displays the height against the trace. The transponder can
also provide identification information, so the controller knows which trace is which aircraft.
The pilot can select codes to relay a variety of information including, but not limited to, various
emergencies such as hijacks. The same basic system is used by the military - called IFF
(Identification Friend or Foe) - to identify 'friendly' aircraft.
Radar beams travel in straight lines. Even in flat terrain the curvature of the earth provides a
radar shadow - the greater the range, the higher a target must be to allow detection. For
example, at a range of 250 miles an aircraft would have to be over 30,000ft1. Thus it is possible
to 'fly under the radar'. The problem is, the closer the aircraft gets, the lower it has to fly.
Eventually it can no longer hide under the horizon and can only avoid detection if there are
radar shadows from hills and mountains etc. By flying dangerously close to the ground, it is
possible, in hilly terrain, to get relatively close and still avoid detection, until you fly into that
hilly terrain.
The latest SSR systems use a system call mode 'S'. It is fitted on larger aircraft and allows
interrogation to be 'addressed' to specific aircraft. The system remembers where individual
aircraft are and interrogates specific aircraft one at a time, and only in the part of the sky where
they are known to be. This reduces unwanted replies and general radio frequency pollution. It
also allows much more information to be exchanged. Mode S transponders are also an essential
part of the airborne collision avoidance system.
6. What are the advantages of using secondary radar over primary radar?
Ans:
Advantages of using Secondary Radar over Primary Radar:
The basic function of an air traffic control radar surveillance system is to provide the
controller continuously with information on the position and direction of movement of all
aircraft within its surveillance area under all weather conditions.
Although primary radar has done much to speed the handling of aircraft it has not done all
that is required because of certain shortcomings inherent in the primary radar system itself.
Thus existing primary radar installations frequently fail to satisfy their intended function for
the following reasons:-
(a) The performance can be seriously degraded by precipitation and other weather
phenomena.
(b) The distance to which an aircraft can be tracked is dependent on the aircraft which
can vary with the type size configuration and altitude of the aircraft.
(c) In many areas the utility of the radar is impaired due to the presence of ground clutter
even when the radar is equipped with MTI. Further the use of MTI introduces certain
undesirable limitations.
(d) At certain vertical angles and certain distance the performance can frequently be such
that continuity of tracking on the display cannot be assured.
(e) All echoes on the display are substantially the same in character and in themselves given
no clue to aircraft identity
Compared with primary radar the advantages of SSR as a separate display can be
summarized as follows:-
(a) A much clearer display presentation free of clutter from weather, permanent echoes or
angels because the ground to-air and air-to-ground signals are transmitted on separate
frequency.
(b) A reduction in the number and length of RTF transmission necessary for identification
or re-identification because this function is automatic requires only a pushbutton function in the
cockpit.
(c) An immediate indication of flight level (when MODE C is available).
(d) Increased coverage regardless of poor primary radar target characteristics of aircraft.
Or the answer can be written as follows:

Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)
The Secondary Surveillance Radar system—or Air Traffic Control Radar Beacon System
(ATCRBS) as it is sometimes referred to—is comprised of the ATC radar installation and a
transponder that rides onboard the aircraft being monitored. The origins of SSR lie in the
"identify friend or foe" system used by the military to distinguish allied and enemy aircraft.
While a Primary Surveillance Radar listens for reflected radio signals, the Secondary
Surveillance Radar listens for messages from the aircraft's transponder. The radar rotates about
the vertical axis similar to a PSR, but transmits a specific signal on 1030 MHz. This signal is
subsequently received by the aircraft's onboard transponder, which responds with a reply on
1090 MHz. Much like the PSR, the bearing and distance of the aircraft with respect to the radar
installation can be calculated with precise knowledge of the orientation of the radar when the
signal was transmitted.
The SSR system has many advantages over PSR.
1. Since it doesn't rely on radio waves being reflected back by the aircraft, the radar cross
section of the aircraft does not form a part of the equation. All aircraft in range of the
radar, regardless of size, composition, or distance from the radar, can be "heard" equally
well.
2. Because the reply signal is transmitted from the aircraft it is much stronger when
received at the ground station, thus giving the possibility of much greater range and
reducing the problems of signal attenuation;
3. The transmitting power required of the ground station for a given range is much
reduced, thus providing considerable economy;
4. Since the signal received by the radar originates on the aircraft, the signal is subject to
less attenuation compared to a PSR signal. This is because the reflected PSR signal has
to travel twice as much as the SSR signal. This also implies that the signal transmission
power for an SSR can be much lower than that of a PSR.
5. Because the signals in each direction are electronically coded the possibility is offered to
transmit additional information between the two stations.

6. Application of secondary radar systems are Traffic Collision Avoidance System
(TCAS), Selective Identification System (SIF), Air Traffic Control Radar Beacon
System (ATCRBS), Instrument Landing System (ILS), Tactical Air Navigation
(TACAN), Navigation Systems (VOR, GPS, DME), Radar Altimeter, Jamming,
Electronic warfare, Second Time Round Returns (STRR), Identification –friend or foe
radar (IFF)
7. With the help of a neat diagram explain the characteristics of primary runway for
aerodrome category- 4E.
Ans:
Aerodrome category – 4E
The aerodrome facility reference code, also to be known as the aerodrome reference code, is
a two-element, alpha-numeric notation (for example 1B, 3C) derived from the critical aeroplane
for that aerodrome facility. The code number is based on the aeroplane reference field length
and the code letter is based on the aeroplane wing span and the outer main gear wheel span.
The aerodrome reference code provides a method of grouping aeroplanes with different
characteristics (eg. wing span, outer main gear wheel span, approach speed and all-up mass)
which behave similarly when landing, taking-off or taxying.
As the aerodrome reference code notation is derived from aeroplane and not aerodrome
characteristics, it applies to the individual aerodrome facilities (eg, runways and taxiways) and
indicate their suitability for use by specific groups of aeroplanes.
In many cases to determine the appropriate design standard for an aerodrome facility, it is
necessary first to identify the aeroplanes for which the facility is intended, and then to
determine the aerodrome reference code notation for the most critical of these aeroplanes. The
particular standard for the facility is then related to the more demanding of the two criteria (the
number or the letter) or to an appropriate combination of both.

At aerodromes with more than one runway, the runways are classified as either primary or
secondary runways. The primary runway of an aerodrome is the runway used in preference to
others whenever conditions permit. It is generally the longest runway and aligned closest to the
direction of the prevailing wind. The other runways are classified as secondary runways.
Characteristics of Primary Runway for the aerodrome category- 4E:
RUNWAY WIDTH
The appropriate runway width requirement may be determined by cross-reference to Table
7–4 using the critical aeroplane reference code. The runway width standards specified in the
table are to be used for the construction of a new runway or the upgrading of an existing
runway.
TURNING NODES
It may be desirable to widen runway ends to assist aeroplanes during turning manoeuvres
and to reduce scuffing of the runway surface. Where a parallel taxiway and taxiway exits are not
provided, it may be desirable to provide intermediate turning nodes to allow aeroplanes to turn at
the end of the landing run without having to taxi to the end of the runway. The provision of
intermediate turning nodes is a financial matter which should be negotiated between aerodrome
operators and aircraft operators.
Where an entrance taxiway is not provided at a runway end and the normal turning radius (r) of
the critical aeroplane is such that the turning circle is greater than the runway width, a turning
node is to be provided. The width of the turning node is to be such that the clearance distance
(y) between the outer main wheel and the edge of the pavement is not less than the dimensions
set out in Table 7 –5, and the nose wheel is to remain on the pavement.
LONGITUDINAL SLOPES ON RUNWAYS

Runway design should aim at minimising the overall runway slope to minimise runway
length. Accordingly, the ratio computed by dividing the difference between the maximum and
minimum elevation along the runway centre line by the runway length, should not exceed:
(a) 1% where the runway is to accommodate aircraft with a code number of 3 or 4;
Along any portion of a runway, the longitudinal slope is not to exceed:
(a) 1.25% where the runway is to accommodate aircraft with a code number of 4, except
that for the first and last quarter of the length of the runway, the longitudinal slope is not to exceed
0.8%;
Longitudinal slope changes on runways
Sudden changes in the longitudinal slope of a runway should be avoided as they can cause
high acceleration forces which affect passenger comfort and, depending on the aeroplane operating
velocity and the severity of the slope change, may reduce the controllability of the aeroplane on the
runway. Where slope changes cannot be avoided, the change in slope between two contiguous
sections of the runway is not to exceed:
(a) 1.5% where the runway is to accommodate aircraft with a code number of 3 or 4;
The transition from one slope to the next is to be a vertical curve, with a rate of change not
exceeding:
(a) 0.1% per 30m (that is, a minimum radius of curvature of 30000m) where the runway is
to accommodate aircraft with a code number of 4;
Distance between longitudinal slope changes on runways
Because riding quality is adversely affected by close spacing between, longitudinal slope
changes on a runway, undulations or appreciable changes in slopes located close together along a
runway should be avoided. To prevent possible loss of control through premature lift off or
bouncing of aircraft, the distance (D) between the points of intersection of two successive curves is
to be not less than (a) or (b) below, whichever is the greater:
(a) The sum of the absolute values of the corresponding slope changes,(x, y, z)
multiplied by the appropriate value of the radius of curvature (k) as follows:
D = k(|x-y|+|y-z|)/100 metres, where
x, y and z are in percentages
k = 30 000m where the runway can accommodate aircraft with a code number of 4
(b) D = 45m
The following diagram illustrates the distance (D) and the slope changes (x, y, z) between the
points of intersection of two successive curves on a runway as defined above.
RUNWAY SIGHT DISTANCE

Runway sight distance is the distance along a runway, ahead of an observer in an aircraft
cockpit, along which there is an unobstructed line of sight to an object on the runway. The
observer's eye level is defined as 1.5m, 2.0m and 3.0m above the runway, depending on the runway
code letter.
The purpose of providing adequate runway sight distance is to provide sufficient runway
length to allow for the pilot of an aircraft after sighting an object, to react and take appropriate
evasive action, for example, braking, exiting the runway or taking-off over the object.
Every runway is to have a longitudinal profile along its centre line such that there will be an
unobstructed line of sight from:
(a) any point 3m above the runway centre line to all other points 3m above the centre line,
within a distance of at least half the length of the runway, where the runway is to accommodate
aircraft with a code letter of C, D or E;
TRANSVERSE SLOPES ON RUNWAYS

The determination of transverse slopes results from balancing two opposing requirements.
On one hand there is an advantage in providing relatively steep runway cross slopes for runway
pavement drainage. This minimises the risks associated with aircraft aquaplaning and reduced
pavement friction due to water build-up on the runway. On the other hand, the provision of
relatively flat cross slopes on a runway is desirable from the standpoint of aircraft controllability,
since the greater the cross slope the greater the tendency for aircraft to run off the pavement. To
meet these requirements the runway should be built with a central crown.
The runway transverse slope measured from the crown to the runway edge is to be
consistent with Table 7–6.
Runway shoulder width

Runway shoulders are to be provided for all sealed, asphalt or concrete runway and stop-
way pavements where either:
(a) The runway is to accommodate aircraft with a code letter of D or E and the runway width is
less than 60m;
Runway shoulder slope
The transverse slope of a runway shoulder is not to exceed:
(a) 2.5% where the runway is to accommodate aircraft with a code letter of D or E;
Runway strip length
The runway strip is to extend beyond the end of the runway or stop-way, if provided, for a
distance of 30m for code 1 runways and 60m for code 2, 3 and 4 runways.
Runway strip width
A non-instrument runway is to be centrally located within a graded runway strip the width
of which is shown in Table 7–7:
A non-precision approach runway is to be centrally located within a runway strip consisting
of a graded portion and a fly-over area such that the overall strip width is as shown in Table 7–8:
A precision approach runway is to be centrally located within a runway strip consisting of a

graded portion and a fly-over area such that the overall strip width is as shown in Table 7–9:

Runway strip grading for precision approach runways

For precision approach runways code 3 and 4, it is recommended that an additional width of
graded runway strip be provided. In this case, the graded width extends to a distance of 105m
from the runway centre line, except that the width is gradually reduced (over a distance of
150m) to 75m from the runway centre line at both ends of the strip, for a length of 150m from
the runway ends, as shown in the diagram below:
NB: Here I have given the maximum points for answering to aerodrome reference point
4E. Take only the points from the table and write so that the writings will be very less.
Here the question has asked to discuss the characteristic of aerodrome reference code 4E
8. Explain in detail the separation standards used in the provision of Approach control
service
Ans:
Separation Standards used in the provision of Approach control service:
1 Vertical or horizontal separation shall be provided between:
a) All aircraft operating in Class A and B airspace;
b) IFR flights in Class C airspace;
c) IFR flights and VFR flights in Class C airspace;
d) IFR flights and special VFR flights;
e) Special VFR flights.
2 Wake Turbulence separation standards will be applied as follows:

Note 1: For the application of wake turbulence separation, aircraft are grouped
into three categories, as follows:
a) HEAVY - aircraft types of 136,000kg or more:
b) MEDIUM - aircraft types less than 136,000kg but more than 7,000kg; and
c) LIGHT - aircraft types of 7,000kg or less.
Note 2: The minimum radar standard or the applicable wake turbulence standard,
whichever is the greater, will be applied.
3 Pilots-in-command of departing aircraft may choose to commence take-off without the
applicable wake turbulence standard being applied. In this event the following conditions shall
apply:
a) The pilot-in-command shall expressly initiate the request for waiver.
b) Waiver on the wake turbulence standard shall apply in VMC by day.
c) The waiver shall not apply to a LIGHT or MEDIUM aircraft taking off behind a
HEAVY aircraft take-off, if the take-off by the LIGHT or MEDIUM aircraft is commenced from a
point more than 150 meters along the runway in the direction of take-off, from the commencement
point of the HEAVY aircraft take-off.
4 When a pilot-in-command accepts responsibility for wake turbulence separation from
another aircraft, the pilot acknowledges that air traffic control will no longer be responsible for the
application of wake turbulence separation standards to that specific flight operation.
9. Explain with neat diagram the separation being followed using VOR,NDB,DR, DME
Ans:
Horizontal Separation
An ‘exact reporting point’ is a position established by a navigational facility which is:
a) Overhead a VOR.
b) Overhead an NDB.
c) A position which has been notified as a reporting point and which is established by the
intersection of VOR radials.
d) A position which has been notified as a reporting point and which is established by the
intersection of a VOR radial and a bearing from a NDB.
e) A position established by a VOR radial combined with a range from a co-located DME.
f) A recognized and published RNAV reporting point.
Lateral Separation
1. Lateral separation shall be applied so that the distance between aircraft is never less than
a specified amount. It is achieved by requiring aircraft to fly on different tracks or in different
geographical locations as determined by visual observations, the use of navigational aids or by
the use of area navigation (RNAV) equipment.
2 Communication must be maintained with the aircraft concerned throughout the period that
measured distance values are being used to achieve separation. Separation is to be checked by
obtaining simultaneous DME readings from aircraft at intervals of not more than 10 minutes.
3 Where measured distance values are used, each aircraft must be using the same ‘on track
’VOR/DME facility i.e. it means that the aircraft is flying either directly inbound to or directly
outbound from the station.
4 VOR/DME separation criteria are based on the condition that a VOR and its associated
DME station are co-located (600 metres).
5 Aircraft must be within the designated operational coverage (protected range) of a VOR
or a NDB.
Geographical Separation
1 This separation is only to be used in specific instances as authorized by the relevant
authority and published in the appropriate documentation.
2 Such a separation shall be referred to as a “deemed separation” and shall be supported on
merit by a safety case.
2. Lateral Separation on Departure or En-route; Both Aircraft Outbound Using VOR

radials.
1 Separation is established when;
a) Both aircraft have reported established on radials which diverge by 20 degrees or more;
b) One aircraft is the time equivalent of 15 NM or 4 minutes (whichever is the greater)
based on the speed of 225kts from the VOR; and
c) Where only one aircraft has departed from the aerodrome where the VOR is situated, or
passed overhead the VOR en-route facility, the time equivalent of 15 NM or 4 minutes(whichever
is the greater) based on the speed of 225kts shall be based on the aircraft which departed from the
aerodrome where the VOR is situated or passed overhead the VOR facility; and d) If the aircraft’s
speed is less than 225kts, additional time shall be added to take into account the aircraft’s speed
/performance.
2 Separation is established when both aircraft have reported established on radials which
diverge by 60 degrees or more.
3. Lateral Separation on Departure or En-route; Both Aircraft Outbound Using VOR

radials and a co-located DME station.
a) Both aircraft report established on radials which diverge by 20 degrees or more; and
b) One aircraft is at least 15 DME from the VOR station; and

c) At least one aircraft has departed or passed overhead the VOR facility.

a) Both aircraft report established on radials which diverge by 30 degrees or more; and
b) One aircraft is 10 DME from the VOR station; and
c) At least one aircraft has departed or passed overhead the VOR facility.
4. Lateral Separation for Departure or En-route; Both Aircraft outbound using an

NDB
a) Both aircraft have reported established on tracks which diverge by 30 degrees or more;
b) One aircraft is the time equivalent of 15 NM or 4 minutes (whichever is the
greater)based on the speed of 225kts from the NDB; and
c) Where only one aircraft has departed from the aerodrome where the NDB is situated,
or passed overhead the NDB en-route facility, the time equivalent of 15 NM or 4
minutes (whichever is the greater) based on the speed of 225kts shall be based on the
aircraft which departed from the aerodrome where the NDB is situated or passed
overhead the NDB facility; and
d) If the aircraft speed is less than 225 kts, additional time shall be added to take into
account the aircraft speed/performance.
2 Separation is established when both aircraft report established on tracks which diverge by 90
degrees or more.
5. Lateral Separation between Aircraft Inbound and Outbound Using VOR radials
and a Collocated DME Station.
a) Both aircraft report established on radials at least 30 degrees apart; and
b) The outbound aircraft has reported at least 30 DME outbound from the VOR station.

a) Both aircraft report established on radials at least 60 degrees apart; and
b) The outbound aircraft has reported at least 15 DME outbound from the VOR station.
6 Lateral Separation When Both Aircraft Are Inbound Using VOR radials and a Co-
located DME Station.
a) Both aircraft report established on radials 30 degrees apart; and
b) One aircraft is at least 30 DME from the VOR station.

a) Both aircraft report established on radials 60 degrees apart; and
b) One aircraft is at least 15 DME from the VOR station.
10. Write in brief – Aerodrome reference code, aerodrome reference point, aerodrome
reference temperature
Ans:
Aerodrome Reference Code:
The aerodrome facility reference code, also to be known as the aerodrome reference code, is a
two-element, alpha-numeric notation (for example 1B, 3C) derived from the critical aeroplane
indicate their suitability for use by specific groups of aeroplanes.

Aerodrome Reference Point

1 An aerodrome reference point shall be established for an aerodrome.
2 The aerodrome reference point shall be located near the initial or planned geometric
centre of the aerodrome and shall normally remain where first established.
3 The position of the aerodrome reference point shall be measured and reported to the
aeronautical information services authority in degrees, minutes and seconds.
Aerodrome Reference Temperature
1 An aerodrome reference temperature shall be determined for an aerodrome in degrees
Celsius.
2 The aerodrome reference temperature shall be the monthly mean of the daily maximum
temperatures for the hottest month of the year (the hottest month being that which has the
highest monthly mean temperature). This temperature shall be averaged over a period of
years.
11. Explain in detail the Phases of Emergencies

Ans:
PHASES OF EMERGENCY
Emergency phases are described as follows:
a. Uncertainty Phase: a situation wherein uncertainty exists as to the safety of an aircraft
and its occupants.
b. Alert Phase: a situation wherein apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and
its occupants.
c. Distress Phase: a situation wherein there is reasonable certainty that an aircraft and its
occupants are threatened by grave and imminent danger or require immediate assistance.
a. Uncertainty phase (INCERFA). A situation when there is concern about the safety of an
aircraft or its occupants, an INCERFA exists:
1. When communication from an aircraft has not been received within 30 minutes after the
time a communication should have been received or after the time an unsuccessful attempt to
establish communication with such aircraft was first made, whichever is earlier; or
2. When an aircraft fails to arrive within 30 minutes after the time of arrival last estimated
by the pilot or by the ATC units, whichever is later.
b. Alert phase (ALERFA). A situation when there is apprehension about the safety of an
aircraft and its occupants, an ALERFA exists:
1. Following the uncertainty phase when subsequent attempts to establish communications

with the aircraft, or inquiries to other relevant sources have failed to reveal any information
about the aircraft; or
2. When information has been received which indicates that the operating efficiency of the
aircraft has been impaired but not to the extent that a forced landing is likely; or
3. When communication from an aircraft has not been received within 60 minutes after the
time a communication should have been received or after the time an unsuccessful attempt to
establish communication with such aircraft was first made, whichever is earlier.
c. Distress phase (DETRESFA): A situation when there is reasonable certainty that the aircraft
and its occupants are threatened by grave and imminent danger or require an immediate
assistance, a DETRESFA exists:
1. Following the alert phase when further attempts to establish communications with the
aircraft and more widespread inquiries are unsuccessful; or
2. When the fuel on board is considered to be exhausted or to be insufficient for the aircraft
to reach safety; or
3. When information is received which indicates that the operating efficiency of the aircraft
has been impaired to the extent that a forced landing is likely; or
4. When information is received or it is reasonably certain that the aircraft is about to make
or has made a forced landing.
In the event of INCERFA, ALERFA, or DETRESFA, notify the following:

1. When practicable, the aircraft operator.
2. The appropriate RCC.
3. Aeronautical stations having en route communications guard responsibilities at the point
of departure, along or adjacent to the route of flight, and at the destination.
4. ACCs having jurisdiction over the proposed route of flight from the last reported position
to the destination airport.
INCERFA, ALERFA, and DETRESFA messages must include the following information, if
available, in the order listed:
1. INCERFA, ALERFA, or DETRESFA according to the phase of the emergency.
2. Agency and person originating the message.
3. Nature of the emergency.
4. Significant flight plan information.
5. The air traffic unit which made the last radio contact, the time, and the frequency used.
6. The aircraft's last position report, how it was received, and what facility received it.
7. Color and distinctive marks of aircraft.
8. Any action taken by reporting office.
9. Other pertinent remarks.
1. An INCERFA phase ends with the receipt of any information or position report on the
aircraft. Cancel the INCERFA by a message addressed to the same stations as the INCERFA
message.
2. An ALERFA ends when:
(a) Evidence exists that would ease apprehension about the safety of the aircraft and
its occupants; or
(b) The concerned aircraft lands. Cancel the ALERFA message by a message
addressed to the same stations as the ALERFA message.
3. A DETRESFA ends when the:
(a) Aircraft successfully lands; or
(b) RCC advises of a successful rescue; or
(c) RCC advises of termination of SAR activities. Cancel the DETRESFA by a
message addressed to the same stations as the DETRESFA message.
A separate chronological record should be kept on each ALERFA and DETRESFA together
with a chart which displays the projected route of the aircraft, position reports received, route of
interceptor aircraft, and other pertinent information.
12. With the help of suitable diagram describe the obstacle restrictions in the design of an
aerodrome.
Ans:
OBSTACLE RESTRICTION:
It defines the airspace around aerodromes to be maintained free from obstacles so as to
permit the intended aero-plane operations at the aerodromes to be conducted safely and to prevent
the aerodromes from becoming unusable by the growth of obstacles around the aerodromes. This is
achieved by establishing a series of obstacle limitation surfaces that define the limits to which
objects may project into the airspace.
The shielding principles to be used for assessing whether an existing obstacle shields
another one or a new one. An aerodrome operator shall establish a systematic means of surveying
and monitoring any object that penetrates these surfaces and report any penetration immediately to
the Authority’s Safety Division and to promulgate them through the Aeronautical Information

Services and air traffic services unit so that aero-plane operations can be conducted safely at all
times.
When requested, an aerodrome operator shall also work jointly with the Authority’s Safety
Division to plan and determine the allowable height limits for new developments in the vicinity of
and outside its aerodrome and the type of instrument or visual flight operations that may be
permitted taking the obstacle survey plan into account.
Obstacle limitation surfaces:
Outer Horizontal Surface:

Conical Surface: A surface sloping upwards and outwards from the periphery of the inner
horizontal surface. The limits of the conical surface shall comprise:
a) A lower edge coincident with the periphery of the inner horizontal surface; and
b) An upper edge located at a specified height above the inner horizontal surface.
The slope of the conical surface shall be measured in a vertical plane perpendicular to the
periphery of the inner horizontal surface.
Inner horizontal surface: Inner horizontal surface. A surface located in a horizontal plane
above an aerodrome and its environs. The radius or outer limits of the inner horizontal surface shall
be measured from a reference point or points established for such purpose. The height of the inner
horizontal surface shall be measured above an elevation datum established for such purpose.
Approach surface: An inclined plane or combination of planes preceding the threshold.
The limits of the approach surface shall comprise:
a) An inner edge of specified length, horizontal and perpendicular to the extended centre
line of the runway and located at a specified distance before the threshold;
b) Two sides originating at the ends of the inner edge and diverging uniformly at a specified
rate from the extended centre line of the runway; and
c) An outer edge parallel to the inner edge.
d) The above surfaces shall be varied when lateral offset, offset or curved approaches are
utilized, specifically, two sides originating at the ends of the inner edge and diverging uniformly at
a specified rate from the extended centre line of the lateral offset, offset or curved ground track.
The elevation of the inner edge shall be equal to the elevation of the midpoint of the
threshold.
The slope(s) of the approach surface shall be measured in the vertical plane containing the
centre line of the runway.
Inner approach surface: A rectangular portion of the approach surface immediately
preceding the threshold. The limits of the inner approach surface shall comprise:
a) An inner edge coincident with the location of the inner edge of the approach surface but
of its own specified length;
b) Two sides originating at the ends of the inner edge and extending parallel to the vertical
plane containing the centre line of the runway; and
c) An outer edge parallel to the inner edge.
Transitional surface: A complex surface along the side of the strip and part of the side of
the approach surface, the slopes upwards and outwards to the inner horizontal surface. The limits of
the transitional surface shall comprise:
a) A lower edge beginning at the intersection of the side of the approach surface with the
inner horizontal surface and extending down the side of the approach surface to the inner edge of
the approach surface and from there along the length of the strip parallel to the runway centre line;
and
b) An upper edge located in the plane in the inner horizontal surface.
The elevation of a point on the lower edge shall be:
a) Along the side of the approach surface – equal to the elevation of the approach surface at
that point; and
b) Along the strip – equal to the elevation of the nearest point on the centre line of the
runway or its extension.
The slope of the transitional surface shall be measured in a vertical plane at right angles to
the centre line of the runway.
Inner transitional surface: A surface similar to the transitional surface but closer to the
runway. The limits of an inner transitional surface shall comprise:
a) A lower edge beginning at the end of the inner approach surface and extending down the
side of the inner approach surface to the inner edge of that surface, from there along the strip
parallel to the runway centre line to the inner edge of the balked landing surface and from there up
the side of the balked landing surface to the point where the side intersects the inner horizontal
surface; and
b) An upper edge located in the plane of the inner horizontal surface.
The elevation of a point on the lower edge shall be:
a) Along the side of the inner approach surface and balked landing surface – equal to the
elevation of the particular surface at that point; and
b) Along the strip – equal to the elevation of the nearest point on the centre line of the
runway or its extension.

The slope of inner transitional surface shall be measured in a vertical plane at right angles to
Balked landing surface: An inclined plane located at a specified distance after the
threshold, extending between the inner transitional surfaces. The limits of the balked landing
surface shall comprise:
a) An inner edge horizontal and perpendicular to the centre line of the runway and location
at a specified distance after the threshold;
b) Two sides originating at the ends of the inner edge and diverging uniformly at a specified
rate from the vertical plane containing the centre line of the runway; and
c) An outer edge parallel to the inner edge and located in the plane of the inner horizontal
surface.
The elevation of the inner edge shall be equal to the elevation of the runway centre line at
the location of the inner edge.
The slope of the balked landing surface shall be measured in the vertical plane containing
Take-off climb surface: An inclined plane or other specified surface beyond the end of a
runway or clearway. The limits of the take-off climb surface shall comprise:
a) An inner edge horizontal and perpendicular to the centre line of the runway and located
either at a specified distance beyond the end of the runway or at the end of the clearway when such
is provided and its length exceeds the specified distance;
b) Two sides originating at the ends of the inner edge, diverging uniformly at a specified
rate from the take-off track to a specified final width and continuing thereafter at that width for the
remainder of the length of the take-off climb surface; and
c) An outer edge horizontal and perpendicular to the specified takeoff track.
The elevation of the inner edge shall be equal to the highest point on the runway centre line
between the end of the runway and the inner edge, except that when a clearway is provided the
elevation shall be equal to the highest point on the ground on the centre line of the clearway.
In the case of a straight take-off flight path, the slope of the take-off climb surface shall be
measured in the vertical plane containing the centre line of the runway.
In the case of a take-off flight path involving a turn, the take-off climb surface shall be a
complex surface containing the horizontal normal to its centre line, and the slope of the centre line
shall be the same as that for a straight takeoff flight path.
Obstacle limitation requirements:
Non-instrument runways
The following obstacle limitation surfaces shall be established for a non-instrument runway.
— Conical surface;
— Inner horizontal surface;
— Approach surface; and
— Transitional surfaces.
Non-precision approach runway
The following obstacle limitation surfaces shall be established for a non precision approach
runway:
— Conical surface;
— Inner horizontal surface;
— Approach surface; and
— Transitional surfaces.
The approach surface shall be horizontal beyond the point at which the 2.5 per cent slope
intersects:
a) A horizontal plane 150m above the threshold elevation; or
b) The horizontal plane passing through the top of any object that governs the obstacle
clearance altitude/height (OCA/H); whichever is the higher.

New objects or extensions of existing objects shall not be permitted above an approach
surface within 3,000m of the inner edge or above a transitional surface except when the new object
or extension would be shielded by an existing immovable object.
Precision approach runways
The following obstacle limitation surfaces shall be established for a precision approach
runway category I:
– Conical surface;
– Inner horizontal surface;
– Approach surface; and
– Transitional surfaces.
runway category I:
– Inner approach surface;
– Inner transitional surfaces; and
– Balked landing surface.
runway category II.
– Conical surface;
– Inner horizontal surface;
– Approach surface and inner approach surface;
– Transitional surfaces;
– Inner transitional surfaces; and
– Balked landing surface.
Runways meant for take-off
The following obstacle limitation surface shall be established for a runway meant for take-
off:
– Take-off climb surface.
13. Explain RNAV & RNP in detail

Ans:
Area Navigation (RNAV) : RNAV is a method of navigation that permits aircraft operation
on any desired flight path within the coverage of ground or space based navigation aids or
within the limits of the capability of self-contained aids, or a combination of these. In the future,
there will be an increased dependence on the use of RNAV in lieu of routes defined by ground-
based navigation aids.
RNAV routes and terminal procedures, including departure procedures (DPs) and standard
terminal arrivals (STARs), are designed with RNAV systems in mind. There are several
potential advantages of RNAV routes and procedures:
1. Time and fuel savings,
2. Reduced dependence on radar vectoring, altitude, and speed assignments allowing a
reduction in required ATC radio transmissions, and
3. More efficient use of airspace.
RNAV Operations: RNAV procedures, such as DPs and STARs, demand strict pilot
awareness and maintenance of the procedure centerline. Pilots should possess a working
knowledge of their aircraft navigation system to ensure RNAV procedures are flown in an
appropriate manner. In addition, pilots should have an understanding of the various waypoint
and leg types used in RNAV procedures; these are discussed in more detail below.
1. Waypoints: A waypoint is a predetermined geographical position that is defined
in terms of latitude/longitude coordinates. Waypoints may be a simple named point in space or
associated with existing nav-aids, intersections, or fixes. A waypoint is most often used to
indicate a change in direction, speed, or altitude along the desired path. RNAV procedures
make use of both fly-over and fly-by waypoints.
2. Fly-by waypoints: Fly-by waypoints are used when an aircraft should begin a
turn to the next course prior to reaching the waypoint separating the two route segments. This is
known as turn anticipation.
3. Fly-over waypoints: Fly-over waypoints are used when the aircraft must fly over
the point prior to starting a turn.
RNAV Leg Types: A leg type describes the desired path proceeding, following, or
between waypoints on an RNAV procedure. Leg types are identified by a two-letter code that
describes the path (e.g., heading, course, track, etc.) and the termination point (e.g., the path
terminates at an altitude, distance, fix, etc.). Leg types used for procedure design are included in
the aircraft navigation database, but not normally provided on the procedure chart. The
narrative depiction of the RNAV chart describes how a procedure is flown. The “path and
terminator concept” defines that every leg of a procedure has a termination point and some kind
of path into that termination point. Some of the available leg types are described below.
(a) Track to Fix: A Track to Fix (TF) leg is intercepted and acquired as the flight
track to the following waypoint. Track to a Fix legs are sometimes called point-to-point legs for
this reason. Narrative: “on track 087 to CHEZZ WP.”
(b) Direct to Fix: A Direct to Fix (DF) leg is a path described by an aircraft's track
from an initial area direct to the next waypoint. Narrative: “left turn direct BARGN WP.”
(c) Course to Fix: A Course to Fix (CF) leg is a path that terminates at a fix with a
specified course at that fix. Narrative: “on course 078 to PRIMY WP.”
(d) Radius to Fix: A Radius to Fix (RF) leg is defined as a constant radius circular
path around a defined turn center that terminates at a fix.
(e) Heading: A Heading leg may be defined as, but not limited to, a Heading to
Altitude (VA), Heading to DME range (VD), and Heading to Manual Termination, i.e., Vector
(VM). Narrative: “climb heading 350 to 1500”, “heading 265, at 9 DME west of PXR
VORTAC, right turn heading 360”, “fly heading 090, expect radar vectors to DRYHT INT.”
Required Navigation Performance (RNP):

RNP is RNAV with on-board navigation monitoring and alerting, RNP is also a statement
of navigation performance necessary for operation within a defined airspace. A critical
component of RNP is the ability of the aircraft navigation system to monitor its achieved
navigation performance, and to identify for the pilot whether the operational requirement is, or
is not being met during an operation. This on-board performance monitoring and alerting
capability therefore allows a lessened reliance on air traffic control intervention (via radar
monitoring, automatic dependent surveillance (ADS), multilateration, communications), and/or
route separation to achieve the overall safety of the operation. RNP capability of the aircraft is a
major component in determining the separation criteria to ensure that the overall containment of
the operation is met.
The RNP capability of an aircraft will vary depending upon the aircraft equipment and the
navigation infrastructure. For example, an aircraft may be equipped and certified for RNP 1.0,
but may not be capable of RNP 1.0 operations due to limited navaid coverage.
RNP Operations:
RNP Levels: An RNP “level” or “type” is applicable to a selected airspace, route, or
procedure. As defined in the Pilot/Controller Glossary, the RNP Level or Type is a value
typically expressed as a distance in nautical miles from the intended centerline of a procedure,
route, or path. RNP applications also account for potential errors at some multiple of RNP level
(e.g., twice the RNP level).
(a) Standard RNP Levels: U.S. standard values supporting typical RNP airspace
are as specified in TBL 1-2-1 below. Other RNP levels as identified by ICAO, other states and
the FAA may also be used.
(b) Application of Standard RNP Levels: U.S. standard levels of RNP typically
used for various routes and procedures supporting RNAV operations may be based on use of a
specific navigational system or sensor such as GPS, or on multi-sensor RNAV systems having
suitable performance.
(c) Depiction of Standard RNP Levels: The applicable RNP level will be depicted
on affected charts and procedures.
14. What are all the visual aids being used in an aerodrome –explain in brief
Ans:
Approach Light Systems (ALS)
ALS provides the basic means to transition from instrument flight to visual flight for
landing. Operational requirements dictate the sophistication and configuration of the approach
light system for a particular runway.
ALS are a configuration of signal lights starting at the landing threshold and extending into
the approach area a distance of 2400-3000 feet for precision instrument runways and 1400-1500
feet for non-precision instrument runways. Some systems include sequenced flashing lights
which appear to the pilot as a ball of light traveling towards the runway at high speed (twice a
second).
Visual Glideslope Indicators:
a. Visual Approach Slope Indicator (VASI):
1. VASI installations may consist of either 2, 4, 6, 12, or 16 light units arranged in
bars referred to as near, middle, and far bars. Most VASI installations consist of 2 bars, near
and far, and may consist of 2, 4, or 12 light units. Some VASIs consist of three bars, near,
middle, and far, which provide an additional visual glide path to accommodate high cockpit
aircraft. This installation may consist of either 6 or 16 light units. VASI installations consisting
of 2, 4, or 6 light units are located on one side of the runway, usually the left. Where the
installation consists of 12 or 16 light units, the units are located on both sides of the runway.
2. Two-bar VASI installations provide one visual glide path which is normally set
at 3 degrees. Three-bar VASI installations provide two visual glide paths. The lower glide path
is provided by the near and middle bars and is normally set at 3 degrees while the upper glide
path, provided by the middle and far bars, is normally 1/4 degree higher. This higher glide path
is intended for use only by high cockpit aircraft to provide a sufficient threshold crossing
height. Although normal glide path angles are three degrees, angles at some locations may be as
high as 4.5 degrees to give proper obstacle clearance. Pilots of high performance aircraft are
cautioned that use of VASI angles in excess of 3.5 degrees may cause an increase in runway
length required for landing and rollout.
3. The basic principle of the VASI is that of color differentiation between red and
white. Each light unit projects a beam of light having a white segment in the upper part of the
beam and red segment in the lower part of the beam. The light units are arranged so that the
pilot using the VASIs during an approach will see the combination of lights shown below.
4. The VASI is a system of lights so arranged to provide visual descent guidance
information during the approach to a runway. These lights are visible from 3-5 miles during the
day and up to 20 miles or more at night. The visual glide path of the VASI provides safe
obstruction clearance within plus or minus 10 degrees of the extended runway centerline and to
4 NM from the runway threshold. Descent, using the VASI, should not be initiated until the
aircraft is visually aligned with the runway. Lateral course guidance is provided by the runway
or runway lights. In certain circumstances, the safe obstruction clearance area may be reduced
due to local limitations, or the VASI may be offset from the extended runway centerline. This
will be noted in the Airport/ Facility Directory.
b. Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI): The precision approach path indicator
(PAPI) uses light units similar to the VASI but are installed in a single row of either two or four
light units. These lights are visible from about 5 miles during the day and up to 20 miles at
night. The visual glide path of the PAPI typically provides safe obstruction clearance within
plus or minus 10 degrees of the extended runway centerline and to 4 SM from the runway
threshold. Descent, using the PAPI, should not be initiated until the aircraft is visually aligned
with the runway. The row of light units is normally installed on the left side of the runway and
the glide path indications are as depicted. Lateral course guidance is provided by the runway or
runway lights. In certain circumstances, the safe obstruction clearance area may be reduced due
to local limitations, or the PAPI may be offset from the extended runway centerline. This will
be noted in the Airport/ Facility Directory. (See FIG )
c. Tri-color Systems: Tri-color visual approach slope indicators normally consist of a

single light unit projecting a three-color visual approach path into the final approach area of the
runway upon which the indicator is installed. The below glide path indication is red, the above
glide path indication is amber, and the on glide path indication is green. These types of
indicators have a useful range of approximately one-half to one mile during the day and up to
five miles at night depending upon the visibility conditions. (See FIG).
d. Pulsating Systems: Pulsating visual approach slope indicators normally consist of a

single light unit projecting a two-color visual approach path into the final approach area of the
runway upon which the indicator is installed. The on glide path indication is a steady white
light. The slightly below glide path indication is a steady red light. If the aircraft descends
further below the glide path, the red light starts to pulsate. The above glide path indication is a
pulsating white light. The pulsating rate increases as the aircraft gets further above or below the
desired glide slope. The useful range of the system is about four miles during the day and up to
ten miles at night. (See FIG)
e. Alignment of Elements Systems: Alignment of elements systems are installed on some
small general aviation airports and are a low-cost system consisting of painted plywood panels,
normally black and white or fluorescent orange. Some of these systems are lighted for night
use. The useful range of these systems is approximately three-quarter miles. To use the system
the pilot positions the aircraft so the elements are in alignment. The glide path indications are
shown in FIG.
Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL):
REILs are installed at many airfields to provide rapid and positive identification of the
approach end of a particular runway. The system consists of a pair of synchronized flashing
lights located laterally on each side of the runway threshold. REILs may be either omni-
directional or unidirectional facing the approach area. They are effective for:
a. Identification of a runway surrounded by a preponderance of other lighting.
b. Identification of a runway which lacks contrast with surrounding terrain.
c. Identification of a runway during reduced visibility.

Runway Edge Light Systems:
a. Runway edge lights are used to outline the edges of runways during periods of darkness
or restricted visibility conditions. These light systems are classified according to the intensity or
brightness they are capable of producing: they are the High Intensity Runway Lights (HIRL),
Medium Intensity Runway Lights (MIRL), and the Low Intensity Runway Lights (LIRL). The
HIRL and MIRL systems have variable intensity controls, whereas the LIRLs normally have
one intensity setting.
b. The runway edge lights are white, except on instrument runways yellow replaces white
on the last 2,000 feet or half the runway length, whichever is less, to form a caution zone for
landings.
c. The lights marking the ends of the runway emit red light toward the runway to indicate
the end of runway to a departing aircraft and emit green outward from the runway end to
indicate the threshold to landing aircraft.
In-runway Lighting:
a. Runway Centerline Lighting System (RCLS): Runway centerline lights are installed
on some precision approach runways to facilitate landing under adverse visibility conditions.
They are located along the runway centerline and are spaced at 50-foot intervals. When viewed
from the landing threshold, the runway centerline lights are white until the last 3,000 feet of the
runway. The white lights begin to alternate with red for the next 2,000 feet, and for the last
1,000 feet of the runway, all centerline lights are red.
b. Touchdown Zone Lights (TDZL): Touchdown zone lights are installed on some
precision approach runways to indicate the touchdown zone when landing under adverse
visibility conditions. They consist of two rows of transverse light bars disposed symmetrically
about the runway centerline. The system consists of steady-burning white lights which start 100
feet beyond the landing threshold and extend to 3,000 feet beyond the landing threshold or to
the midpoint of the runway, whichever is less.
c. Taxiway Centerline Lead-Off Lights: Taxiway centerline lead-off lights provide visual
guidance to persons exiting the runway. They are color-coded to warn pilots and vehicle drivers
that they are within the runway environment or instrument landing system/microwave landing
system (ILS/MLS) critical area, whichever is more restrictive. Alternate green and yellow lights
are installed, beginning with green, from the runway centerline to one centerline light position
beyond the runway holding position or ILS/MLS critical area holding position.
d. Taxiway Centerline Lead-On Lights: Taxiway centerline lead-on lights provide visual
guidance to persons entering the runway. These “lead-on” lights are also color-coded with the
same color pattern as lead-off lights to warn pilots and vehicle drivers that they are within the
runway environment or instrument landing system/microwave landing system (ILS/MLS)
critical area, whichever is more conservative. The fixtures used for lead-on lights are
bidirectional, i.e., one side emits light for the lead-on function while the other side emits light
for the lead-off function. Any fixture that emits yellow light for the lead-off function must also
emit yellow light for the lead-on function.
e. Land and Hold Short Lights: Land and hold short lights are used to indicate the hold
short point on certain runways which are approved for Land and Hold Short Operations
(LAHSO). Land and hold short lights consist of a row of pulsing white lights installed across
the runway at the hold short point. Where installed, the lights will be on anytime LAHSO is in
effect. These lights will be off when LAHSO is not in effect.
Runway Status Light (RWSL) System:

a. RWSL is a fully automated system that provides runway status information to pilots and
surface vehicle operators to clearly indicate when it is unsafe to enter, cross, takeoff from, or
land on a runway. The RWSL system processes information from surveillance systems and
activates Runway Entrance Lights (REL), Takeoff Hold Lights (THL), Runway Intersection
Lights (RIL), and Final Approach Runway Occupancy Signal (FAROS) in accordance with the
position and velocity of the detected surface traffic and approach traffic. REL, THL, and RIL
are in-pavement light fixtures that are directly visible to pilots and surface vehicle operators.
FARO alerts arriving pilots that the approaching runway is occupied by flashing the Precision
Approach Path Indicator (PAPI). FAROS may be implemented as an add-on to the RWSL
system or implemented as a standalone system at airports without a RWSL system. RWSL is an
independent safety enhancement that does not substitute for or convey an ATC clearance.
Clearance to enter, cross, takeoff from, land on, or operate on a runway must still be received
from ATC. Although ATC has limited control over the system, personnel do not directly use
and may not be able to view light fixture activations and deactivations during the conduct of
daily ATC operations.
b. Runway Entrance Lights (REL): The REL system is composed of flush mounted, in-
pavement, unidirectional light fixtures that are parallel to and focused along the taxiway
centerline and directed toward the pilot at the hold line. An array of REL lights include the first
light at the hold line followed by a series of evenly spaced lights to the runway edge; one
additional light at the runway centerline is in line with the last two lights before the runway
edge. When activated, the red lights indicate that there is high speed traffic on the runway or
there is an aircraft on final approach within the activation area.
c. Takeoff Hold Lights (THL): The THL system is composed of flush mounted, in
pavement, unidirectional light fixtures in a double longitudinal row aligned either side of the
runway centerline lighting. Fixtures are focused toward the arrival end of the runway at the
“line up and wait" point. THLs extend for 1,500 feet in front of the holding aircraft starting at a
point 375 feet from the departure threshold. Illuminated red lights provide a signal, to an
aircraft in position for takeoff or rolling, that it is unsafe to takeoff because the runway is
occupied or about to be occupied by another aircraft or ground vehicle. Two aircraft, or a
surface vehicle and an aircraft, are required for the lights to illuminate. The departing aircraft
must be in position for takeoff or beginning takeoff roll. Another aircraft or a surface vehicle
must be on or about to cross the runway.
d. Runway Intersection Lights (RIL): The RIL system is composed of flush mounted, in-
pavement; unidirectional light fixtures in a double longitudinal row aligned either side of the
runway centerline lighting in the same manner as THLs. Their appearance to a pilot is similar to
that of THLs. Fixtures are focused toward the arrival end of the runway, and they extend for
3,000 feet in front of an aircraft that is approaching an intersecting runway. They end at the
Land and Hold Short Operation (LASHO) light bar or the hold short line for the intersecting
runway.
e. The Final Approach Runway Occupancy Signal (FAROS) is communicated by
flashing of the Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) (see FIG 219). When activated, the
light fixtures of the PAPI flash or pulse to indicate to the pilot on an approach that the runway is
occupied and that it may be unsafe to land.
Stand Alone Final Approach Runway Occupancy Signal (FAROS):

The standalone FAROS system is a fully automated system that provides runway occupancy
status to pilots on final approach to indicate whether it may be unsafe to land. When an aircraft
or vehicle is detected on the runway, the Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) light
fixtures flash as a signal to indicate that the runway is occupied and that it may be unsafe to
land. The standalone FAROS system is activated by localized or comprehensive sensors
detecting aircraft or ground vehicles occupying activation zones.
The standalone FAROS system monitors specific areas of the runway, called activation
zones, to determine the presence of aircraft or ground vehicles in the zone. These activation
zones are defined as areas on the runway that are frequently occupied by ground traffic during
normal airport operations and could present a hazard to landing aircraft. Activation zones may
include the full length departure position, the midfield departure position, a frequently crossed
intersection, or the entire runway.
Control of Lighting Systems:
Operation of approach light systems and runway lighting is controlled by the control tower
(ATCT). At some locations the FSS may control the lights where there is no control tower in
operation. Pilots may request that lights be turned on or off. Runway edge lights, in-pavement
lights and approach lights also have intensity controls which may be varied to meet the pilots
request. Sequenced flashing lights (SFL) may be turned on and off. Some sequenced flashing
light systems also have intensity control.
Pilot Control of Airport Lighting:
Radio control of lighting is available at selected airports to provide airborne control of lights
by keying the aircraft's microphone. Control of lighting systems is often available at locations
without specified hours for lighting and where there is no control tower or FSS or when the
tower or FSS is closed (locations with a part-time tower or FSS) or specified hours. All lighting
systems which are radio controlled at an airport, whether on a single runway or multiple
runways, operate on the same radio frequency.
Airport/Heliport Beacons:
Airport and heliport beacons have a vertical light distribution to make them most effective
from one to ten degrees above the horizon; however, they can be seen well above and below
this peak spread. The beacon may be an Omni-directional capacitor-discharge device, or it may
rotate at a constant speed which produces the visual effect of flashes at regular intervals.
Flashes may be one or two colors alternately.
Taxiway Lights:
a. Taxiway Edge Lights: Taxiway edge lights are used to outline the edges of taxiways
during periods of darkness or restricted visibility conditions. These fixtures emit blue light.
b. Taxiway Centerline Lights: Taxiway centerline lights are used to facilitate ground
traffic under low visibility conditions. They are located along the taxiway centerline in a
straight line on straight portions, on the centerline of curved portions, and along designated
taxiing paths in portions of runways, ramp, and apron areas. Taxiway centerline lights are
steady burning and emit green light.
c. Clearance Bar Lights. Clearance bar lights are installed at holding positions on
taxiways in order to increase the conspicuity of the holding position in low visibility conditions.
They may also be installed to indicate the location of an intersecting taxiway during periods of
darkness. Clearance bars consist of three in-pavement steady-burning yellow lights.
d. Runway Guard Lights. Runway guard lights are installed at taxiway/runway
intersections. They are primarily used to enhance the conspicuity of taxiway/runway
intersections during low visibility conditions, but may be used in all weather conditions.
Runway guard lights consist of either a pair of elevated flashing yellow lights installed on either
side of the taxiway, or a row of in-pavement yellow lights installed across the entire taxiway, at
the runway holding position marking.
e. Stop Bar Lights. Stop bar lights, when installed, are used to confirm the ATC clearance
to enter or cross the active runway in low visibility conditions (below 1,200 ft Runway Visual
Range). A stop bar consists of a row of red, unidirectional, steady-burning in-pavement lights
installed across the entire taxiway at the runway holding position, and elevated steady-burning
red lights on each side. A controlled stop bar is operated in conjunction with the taxiway
centerline lead-on lights which extend from the stop bar toward the runway. Following the ATC
clearance to proceed, the stop bar is turned off and the lead-on lights are turned on. The stop bar
and lead-on lights are automatically reset by a sensor or backup timer.
Aeronautical Light Beacons:
An aeronautical light beacon is a visual NAVAID displaying flashes of white and/or colored
light to indicate the location of an airport, a heliport, a landmark, a certain point of a Federal
airway in mountainous terrain, or an obstruction. The light used may be a rotating beacon or
one or more flashing lights. The flashing lights may be supplemented by steady burning lights
of lesser intensity.
Code Beacons: The code beacon, which can be seen from all directions, is used to identify
airports and landmarks. The code beacon flashes the three or four character airport identifier in
International Morse Code six to eight times per minute. Green flashes are displayed for land
airports while yellow flashes indicate water airports.
Course Lights: The course light, which can be seen clearly from only one direction, is used
only with rotating beacons of the Federal Airway System: two course lights, back to back,
direct coded flashing beams of light in either direction along the course of airway.
Obstruction Lights: Obstructions are marked / lighted to warn airmen of their presence during
daytime and nighttime conditions.
15. Explain VAPI and PAPI in detail.

Ans:
A visual approach slope indicator (VASI or VAPI) system shall be provided to serve the
approach to a runway where one or more of the following conditions exits:
- The runway is not served by an electronic glide path and the runway is used by
turbojet or other aircraft with similar approach guidance requirements;
- The pilot of any type of aircraft may have difficulty in judging the approach
due to:
1. Inadequate visual guidance such as is experienced during an approach over water,
2. or featureless terrain by day or in the absence of sufficient extraneous lights in the
approach area by night, or
3. Misleading information such as is produced by deceptive surrounding terrain or
runway slopes;
Visual approach slope indicators (VASI or VAPI) consist of one set of lights set up some
seven meters (twenty feet) from the start of the runway. Each light is designed so that the light
appears as either white or red, depending on the angle at which the lights are viewed. When the
pilot is approaching the lights at the proper angle, meaning the pilot is on the glide slope, the first
set of lights appears white and the second set appears red. When both sets appear white, the pilot is
flying too high, and when both appear red he or she is flying too low. This is the most common
type of visual approach slope indicator system.
1. VASI installations may consist of either 2, 4, 6, 12, or 16 light units arranged in bars
referred to as near, middle, and far bars. Most VASI installations consist of 2 bars, near and far, and
may consist of 2, 4, or 12 light units. Some VASIs consist of three bars, near, middle, and far,
which provide an additional visual glide path to accommodate high cockpit aircraft. This
installation may consist of either 6 or 16 light units. VASI installations consisting of 2, 4, or 6 light
units are located on one side of the runway, usually the left. Where the installation consists of 12 or
16 light units, the units are located on both sides of the runway.
2. Two-bar VASI installations provide one visual glide path which is normally set at 3
degrees. Three-bar VASI installations provide two visual glide paths. The lower glide path is
provided by the near and middle bars and is normally set at 3 degrees while the upper glide path,
provided by the middle and far bars, is normally 1/4 degree higher. This higher glide path is
intended for use only by high cockpit aircraft to provide a sufficient threshold crossing height.
Although normal glide path angles are three degrees, angles at some locations may be as high as 4.5
degrees to give proper obstacle clearance. Pilots of high performance aircraft are cautioned that use
of VASI angles in excess of 3.5 degrees may cause an increase in runway length required for
landing and rollout.
3. The basic principle of the VASI is that of color differentiation between red and white.
Each light unit projects a beam of light having a white segment in the upper part of the beam and
red segment in the lower part of the beam. The light units are arranged so that the pilot using the
VASIs during an approach will see the combination of lights shown below.
4. The VASI is a system of lights so arranged to provide visual descent guidance
information during the approach to a runway. These lights are visible from 3-5 miles during the day
and up to 20 miles or more at night. The visual glide path of the VASI provides safe obstruction
clearance within plus or minus 10 degrees of the extended runway centerline and to 4 NM from the
runway threshold. Descent, using the VASI, should not be initiated until the aircraft is visually
aligned with the runway. Lateral course guidance is provided by the runway or runway lights. In
certain circumstances, the safe obstruction clearance area may be reduced due to local limitations,
or the VASI may be offset from the extended runway centerline. This will be noted in the Airport/
Facility Directory.
Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI): The precision approach path indicator
(PAPI) uses light units similar to the VASI but is installed in a single row of either two or four light
units. These lights are visible from about 5 miles during the day and up to 20 miles at night. The
visual glide path of the PAPI typically provides safe obstruction clearance within plus or minus 10
degrees of the extended runway centerline and to 4 SM from the runway threshold. Descent, using
the PAPI, should not be initiated until the aircraft is visually aligned with the runway. The row of
light units is normally installed on the left side of the runway and the glide path indications are as
depicted. Lateral course guidance is provided by the runway or runway lights. In certain
circumstances, the safe obstruction clearance area may be reduced due to local limitations, or the
PAPI may be offset from the extended runway centerline. This will be noted in the Airport/ Facility
Directory. (See FIG )
16. What are all various runway markings for an instrumental runway?
Ans:
Runway Markings:
There are three types of markings for runways: visual, non-precision instrument, and
precision instrument. TBL 2-3-1 identifies the marking elements for each type of runway and TBL
2-3-2 identifies runway threshold markings.
Runway Designators; Runway numbers and letters are determined from the approach
direction. The runway number is the whole number nearest one‐tenth the magnetic azimuth of the
centerline of the runway, measured clockwise from the magnetic north. The letters differentiate
between left (L), right (R), or center (C), parallel runways, as applicable:
1. For two parallel runways “L” “R.”
2. For three parallel runways “L” “C” “R.”

Runway Centerline Marking: The runway centerline identifies the center of the runway
and provides alignment guidance during takeoff and landings. The centerline consists of a line of
uniformly spaced stripes and gaps.
Runway Aiming Point Marking: The aiming point marking serves as a visual aiming
point for a landing aircraft. These two rectangular markings consist of a broad white stripe located
on each side of the runway centerline and approximately 1,000 feet from the landing threshold, as
shown in FIG 2-3-1, Precision Instrument Runway Markings.
Runway Touchdown Zone Markers: The touchdown zone markings identify the
touchdown zone for landing operations and are coded to provide distance information in 500 feet
(150m) increments. These markings consist of groups of one, two, and three rectangular bars
symmetrically arranged in pairs about the runway centerline, as shown in FIG 2-3-1, Precision
Instrument Runway Markings. For runways having touchdown zone markings on both ends, those
pairs of markings which extend to within 900 feet (270m) of the midpoint between the thresholds
are eliminated.
Runway Side Stripe Marking: Runway side stripes delineate the edges of the runway.
They provide a visual contrast between runway and the abutting terrain or shoulders. Side stripes
consist of continuous white stripes located on each side of the runway as shown in FIG 2-3-4.
Runway Shoulder Markings: Runway shoulder stripes may be used to supplement
runway side stripes to identify pavement areas contiguous to the runway sides that are not intended
for use by aircraft. Runway Shoulder stripes are Yellow. (See FIG 2-3-5.)
Runway Threshold Markings: Runway threshold markings come in two configurations.
They either consist of eight longitudinal stripes of uniform dimensions disposed symmetrically
about the runway centerline, as shown in FIG 2-3-1, or the number of stripes is related to the
runway width as indicated in TBL 2-3-2. A threshold marking helps identify the beginning of the
runway that is available for landing. In some instances the landing threshold may be relocated or
displaced.
Demarcation Bar: A demarcation bar delineates a runway with a displaced threshold from
a blast pad, stop way or taxiway that precedes the runway. A demarcation bar is 3 feet (1m) wide
and yellow, since it is not located on the runway.
Runway Threshold Bar: A threshold bar delineates the beginning of the runway that is
available for landing when the threshold has been relocated or displaced. A threshold bar is 10 feet
(3m) in width and extends across the width of the runway, as shown in FIG 2-3-4.

17. Explain the contents of Position Reports and ATC clearance
Ans:
Position Reports: Unless exempted by the appropriate ATS authority or by the appropriate
air traffic services unit under conditions specified by that authority, a controlled flight shall report
to the appropriate air traffic services unit, as soon as possible, the time and level of passing each
designated compulsory reporting point, together with any other required information. Position
reports shall similarly be made in relation to additional points when requested by the appropriate air
traffic services unit. In the absence of designated reporting points, position reports shall be made at
intervals prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority or specified by the appropriate air traffic
services unit.
B. Controlled flights providing position information to the appropriate air traffic services
unit via data link communications shall only provide voice position reports when requested.
On routes defined by designated significant points, position reports shall be made by the
aircraft when over or as soon as possible after passing, each designated compulsory reporting point.
Additional reports over other points may be requested by the appropriate ATS unit.
Contents of voice position reports:
1) Aircraft identification
2) Position
3) Time
4) Flight level or altitude, including passing level and cleared level if not
maintaining the cleared level
5) Next position and time over
6) Ensuing significant point.
ATC clearances normally contain the following:
a. Clearance Limit: The traffic clearance issued prior to departure will normally authorize
flight to the airport of intended landing. Many airports and associated NAVAIDs are collocated
with the same name and/or identifier, so care should be exercised to ensure a clear
understanding of the clearance limit. When the clearance limit is the airport of intended landing,
the clearance should contain the airport name followed by the word “airport.” Under certain
conditions, a clearance limit may be a NAVAID or other fix. When the clearance limit is a
NAVAID, intersection, or waypoint and the type is known, the clearance should contain type.
Under certain conditions, at some locations a short-range clearance procedure is utilized
whereby a clearance is issued to a fix within or just outside of the terminal area and pilots is
advised of the frequency on which they will receive the long-range clearance direct from the
center controller.
b. Departure Procedure: Headings to fly and altitude restrictions may be issued to
separate a departure from other air traffic in the terminal area. Where the volume of traffic
warrants, DPs have been developed.
c. Route of Flight:
1. Clearances are normally issued for the altitude or flight level and route filed by
the pilot. However, due to traffic conditions, it is frequently necessary for ATC to specify an
altitude or flight level or route different from that requested by the pilot. In addition, flow
patterns have been established in certain congested areas or between congested areas whereby
traffic capacity is increased by routing all traffic on preferred routes. Information on these flow
patterns is available in offices where preflight briefing is furnished or where flight plans are
accepted.
2. When required, air traffic clearances include data to assist pilots in identifying
radio reporting points. It is the responsibility of pilots to notify ATC immediately if their radio
equipment cannot receive the type of signals they must utilize to comply with their clearance.
d. Altitude Data:
1. The altitude or flight level instructions in an ATC clearance normally require that
a pilot “MAINTAIN” the altitude or flight level at which the flight will operate when in
controlled airspace. Altitude or flight level changes while en route should be requested prior to
the time the change is desired.
2. When possible, if the altitude assigned is different from the altitude requested by
the pilot, ATC will inform the pilot when to expect climb or descent clearance or to request
altitude change from another facility. If this has not been received prior to crossing the
boundary of the ATC facility's area and assignment at a different altitude is still desired, the
pilot should reinitiate the request with the next facility.
3. The term “cruise” may be used instead of “MAINTAIN” to assign a block of
airspace to a pilot from the minimum IFR altitude up to and including the altitude specified in
the cruise clearance. The pilot may level off at any intermediate altitude within this block of
airspace. Climb/descent within the block is to be made at the discretion of the pilot. However,
once the pilot starts descent and verbally reports leaving an altitude in the block, the pilot may
not return to that altitude without additional ATC clearance.
e. Holding Instructions:
1. Whenever an aircraft has been cleared to a fix other than the destination airport
and delay is expected, it is the responsibility of the ATC controller to issue complete holding
instructions (unless the pattern is charted), an EFC time, and a best estimate of any additional
en route/terminal delay.
2. If the holding pattern is charted and the controller doesn't issue complete holding
instructions, the pilot is expected to hold as depicted on the appropriate chart. When the pattern
is charted, the controller may omit all holding instructions except the charted holding direction
and the statements AS PUBLISHED, e.g., “HOLD EAST AS PUBLISHED.” Controllers must
always issue complete holding instructions when pilots request them.
3. If no holding pattern is charted and holding instructions have not been issued, the
pilot should ask ATC for holding instructions prior to reaching the fix. This procedure will
eliminate the possibility of an aircraft entering a holding pattern other than that desired by ATC.
If unable to obtain holding instructions prior to reaching the fix (due to frequency congestion,
stuck microphone, etc.), hold in a standard pattern on the course on which you approached the
fix and request further clearance as soon as possible. In this event, the altitude/flight level of the
aircraft at the clearance limit will be protected so that separation will be provided as required.
4. When an aircraft is 3 minutes or less from a clearance limit and a clearance
beyond the fix has not been received, the pilot is expected to start a speed reduction so that the
aircraft will cross the fix, initially, at or below the maximum holding airspeed.
5. When no delay is expected, the controller should issue a clearance beyond the fix
as soon as possible and, whenever possible, at least 5 minutes before the aircraft reaches the
clearance limit.
6. Pilots should report to ATC the time and altitude/flight level at which the aircraft
reaches the clearance limit and report leaving the clearance limit.
18. With the help of suitable diagram describe simple approach lighting system for CAT -1
approach runway
Ans:
A variety of approach lighting systems based on the centre line and cross bar concept, is in
use at aerodromes. These systems range from the simple low intensity centre line and cross bar -
intended to serve visual runways at night only, to the more complex Calvert System comprising
centre line and 5 cross bars - shown at Figure 1.3 and 1.4 - for day and night use on ILS equipped
runways.
Simple approach lighting systems normally commence 500 m prior to the runway threshold
whilst the full Calvert System commences 900 m prior to runway threshold. Where, because of the
geography of the approach, it is not possible to install a full system, a shortened system is employed
and the Runway Visual Range (RVR) minima associated with the instrument approach procedure

adjusted accordingly. Except where supplemented by red side barrettes as described below,
approach lighting is white in colour.
NB: given here both diagram, according to the question use the diagram. For this ques,
use first diagram.
A simple approach lighting system is a lighting system intended for a non-instrument or a non-
precision approach runway. Standards for this system are not included in this chapter as there is no
operational credit for such systems.
PRECISION APPROACH CATEGORY I LIGHTING SYSTEM

A precision approach Category I lighting system is to be provided to serve a Cat I precision
approach runway.
Location : A precision approach Category I lighting system is to consist of a row of lights on the
extended centre line of the runway extending, wherever practicable, over a distance of 900m prior to the
threshold, with rows of lights forming 5 crossbars, as shown below.
Note 1: The installation of an approach lighting system of less than 900m in length may result in
operational limitations on the use of the runway.
Note 2: Existing lights spaced in accordance with imperial measurements are deemed to comply with
comparable metric measurements.
The lights forming the centreline are to be placed at longitudinal intervals of 30m with the
innermost light located 30m from the threshold. Each centreline light position is to consist of a single
light source in the innermost 300m of the centreline, two light sources in the central 300m of the
centreline, and three light sources in the outer 300m of the centreline, to provide distance information.
The lights forming the centreline light positions in the central 300m and the outer 300m of the
centreline are to be spaced at 1.5m apart.
The lights forming the 5 crossbars are to be placed at 150m, 300m, 450m 600m and 750m from
the threshold. The lights forming each crossbar are to be as nearly as practicable in a horizontal straight
line at right angles to, and bisected by, the line of the centreline lights. The lights of the crossbar are to
be spaced so as to produce a linear effect, except that gaps may be left on each side of the centreline.
The lights within each bar on either side of the centreline are to be spaced at 2.7m apart. The outer ends
of the crossbars are to lie on two straight lines that converge to meet the runway centreline 300m from
the threshold.
The system is to lie as nearly as practicable in the horizontal plane passing through the
threshold, provided that:
(a) no object other than an ILS antenna is to protrude through the plane of the approach lights within a
distance of 60m form the centreline of the system; and
(b) no light other than a light located within the central part of a crossbar, or a centreline light position,
may be screened from an approaching aircraft.
Any ILS antenna protruding through the plane of the lights is to be treated as an obstacle and
marked and lighted accordingly.
Characteristics
The centreline and crossbar lights of a precision approach Category I lighting system are to be
fixed lights showing variable white.
The lights are to be in accordance with the specifications of Figures 1.
19. What are the separation standards for crossing tracks with reference to distance & time
Ans:
Longitudinal Separation
Longitudinal separation shall be applied so that the spacing between the estimated positions
of the aircraft being separated is never less than a prescribed minimum. Longitudinal separation
between aircraft following the same or diverging tracks may be maintained by application of speed
control.
In applying a time- or distance-based longitudinal separation minimum between aircraft
following the same track, care shall be exercised to ensure that the separation minimum will not be
infringed whenever the following aircraft is maintaining a higher air speed than the preceding
aircraft. When aircraft are expected to reach minimum separation, speed control shall be applied to
ensure that the required separation minimum is maintained.
Longitudinal separation may be established by requiring aircraft to depart at a specified
time, to arrive over a geographical location at a specified time, or to hold over a geographical
location until a specified time.
For the purpose of application of longitudinal separation, the terms same track, reciprocal
tracks and crossing tracks shall have the following meanings:
Crossing Tracks
Intersecting tracks or portions thereof other than those specified in paragraphs 2 and 3 of
this chapter.
Longitudinal Separation Based On Time

Time-based separation applied may be based on position information and estimates derived
from voice reports, CPDLC or ADS.
Crossing Track - Same Level Or Climbing And Descending
Where lateral separation is not provided, vertical separation shall be provided:
a) For at least 10 minutes before the second aircraft estimates the crossing point; and
b) For at least 10 minutes after the time the first aircraft past the crossing point.
Longitudinal Separation Based on Distance

Separation shall be established by maintaining not less than specified distance(s) between
aircraft positions as reported by reference to DME in conjunction with other appropriate navigation
aids.
Direct controller-pilot communication shall be maintained while such separation is used.
Where the term “on track” is used in the provisions relating to the application of
longitudinal separation minima using DME, it means that the aircraft is flying either directly
inbound to or directly outbound from the station.

Separation is to be checked by obtaining simultaneous DME readings from aircraft at
frequent intervals to ensure that the minimum separation is established and will not be infringed.
Crossing Track - Same Level or Climbing and Descending
The distance between two aircraft shall be 20 NM, provided:
a) Each aircraft utilises:
i) The same “on-track” DME station when both aircraft are utilising DME, or
ii) An “on track” DME station and a collocated common point when one aircraft is
utilizing DME and the other is utilising GNSS, or
iii) The same common point when both aircraft are utilising GNSS.
b) Separation is checked by obtaining simultaneous DME readings from the aircraft at
frequent intervals to ensure that the minimum will not be infringed; and
c) Each aircraft reports the distance from the station located at the crossing point of the
tracks and that the relative angle between the tracks is less than 90 degrees.
The distance between two aircraft shall be 10 NM, provided:

a) The leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 20kts or more faster than the succeeding
aircraft; and
b) Each aircraft utilises:
i) The same “on-track” DME station when both aircraft are utilising DME, or
ii) An “on track” DME station and a collocated common point when one aircraft is
utilizing DME and the other is utilising GNSS, or
iii) The same common point when both aircraft are utilising GNSS.
c) Separation is checked by obtaining simultaneous DME readings from the aircraft at such
intervals as are necessary to ensure that the minimum is established and will not be infringed; and
d) Each aircraft reports distance from the station located at the crossing point of the tracks
and that the relative angle between the tracks is less than 90 degrees.

20. Explain the co-ordination procedure between radar control unit & Non – Radar control
procedure at ATS unit
Ans:
Radar control the term used to indicate that radar derived information is employed directly
in the provision of air traffic control service:











Nov/Dec 2011
PART B
1. What are the four operating positions in a control tower and what are the duties assigned
to each?
Ans:
Control towers were established to provide for a safe, orderly, and expeditious flow of air
traffic at an airport and in its vicinity. It is hard to miss the Control Tower, the tall building with the
glass-enclosed cab on top. Each airport’s control tower is also known as Local Control.
There are four major controller classifications at control towers:
Flight Data Controller
Clearance Delivery Controller
Ground Controller
Local Controller
Controllers working in an airport’s control tower are rotated through each position during
one work shift. Each of these positions has specific duties.
Flight Data (FD) Controller
The Flight Data Controller:
Receives and relays IFR Departure clearances
Operates the Flight Data Processing Equipment
Relays weather and NOTAM Information
Previously, the FD Controller managed in-range flights using “flight progress strips” of
paper. Today, the paper strips have been effectively eliminated with electronic flight data displays
(the User Request Evaluation Tool - URET). The Flight Data Controller is also responsible for the
Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) equipment. ATIS recordings are made every hour
or more often if the weather changes.
Clearance Delivery Controller
The Clearance Delivery Controller is responsible for obtaining and relaying departure
clearances to pilots. These departure clearances include the following information:
• Aircraft Identification
• Clearance limit
• Departure Procedure
• Route of flight
• Altitude assigned
• Departure frequency
• Transponder code
The Clearance Delivery Controller checks to see that the route indicated for the flight
requested conforms to established preferential routes. If there are departure restrictions that would
supersede the requested clearance, then the clearance delivery controller may temporarily amend
the clearance.
Ground Controller
The Ground Controller is responsible for the ground movement of aircraft taxiing or
vehicles operating on taxiways or inactive runways. The ground controller is responsible for and
can issue clearances only to those aircraft and vehicles that can be seen by this controller.
Runway Incursion prevention is a primary responsibility of the ground controller. In the
year 2000 there were more than 400 runway incursions recorded. A runway incursion is the
unauthorized entry of an aircraft or vehicle onto an active runway without the permission of the
local controller.
For a Ground Controller to issue a clearance for an aircraft or vehicle to cross an active
runway, the ground controller must first gain permission from the local controller responsible for
that runway.

Another major responsibility for the ground controller is protection of “critical areas”.
These protected zones include localizer, glide slope and precision approach critical areas. The
critical areas provide greater obstacle clearance during approaches. As the weather conditions
change the size of the zone increases. For example, if the weather conditions give a ceiling of less
than 800 feet with the landing aircraft between the outer marker and the runway, then taxiing
aircraft and other ground vehicles must hold short of the designated critical areas until the aircraft
has landed.
For approaches by “heavies” with the ceiling less than 200 feet or with the Runway Visual
Range (RVR) at 2,000 feet or less, the critical area expands to an even greater distance from the
runway. The airport is responsible for determining size of the critical area and designating the
affected runways and/or taxiways in their briefings.
Local Controller
The one major responsibility of the Local Controller is to provide separation between
arriving and departing aircraft. Another major responsibility of the Local Controller is to safely
sequence arrivals and departures. This controller also relays IFR clearances and taxi instructions.
The Local Controller also issues takeoff and landing clearances and provides assistance to other
flights flying through their local area.
The FAA has clearly identified guidelines for keeping aircraft at a safe distance from each
other. This is known as safe separation distance. According to the FARs, runway separation
regulations describe the following 3 aircraft categories
Category light-weight single-engine propeller driven aircraft Category II light-weight twin-
engine aircraft weighing 12,500 pounds or less Category III everything else including high
performance single-engine propeller airplanes, large multi-engine propeller aircraft and all turbine
powered aircraft
The FAA separation regulations also specify that departing aircraft may not take off from a
runway unless:
A landing aircraft has taxied clear of the runway, or
A departing aircraft is airborne and is clear of the departure end of the runway or
A departing aircraft has turned away from the departing runway But the regulations also say
that the following aircraft can depart:
If the takeoff separation is 3,000 feet and both aircraft are Category I
If a Category II aircraft departs before a Category I aircraft
If a Category II aircraft takes off after a Category I aircraft
If both aircraft are Category II aircraft and the separation distance is 4,500 feet If
either aircraft is a Category III aircraft and the separation distance is 6,000 feet
In other words, during the Takeoff phase of flight a fast, large jetliner should never take off
behind a much smaller and slower 2-seater aircraft until it is out of the way. A local controller can
allow an aircraft in line for takeoff to "taxi in position and hold" on the runway while another
aircraft is on its takeoff roll.
For arriving aircraft similar separation standards apply. IFR flights use a standard
instrument approach when arriving at an airport. VFR pilots follow a standard traffic pattern. The
VFR traffic pattern is an established, standardized flight pattern.
The separation regulations for arriving aircraft are similar to the departure regulations with
added complications. Arriving aircraft have different speeds with higher speed aircraft overtaking
other slower aircraft. Many aircraft have stall speeds higher than many other aircraft top speeds.
The controllers must sequence and space all arriving aircraft in a dynamic system.
A further complication is all aircraft produce wingtip vortices. Vortices are caused by the
generation of lift from the wings. The vortices generated by a small aircraft are not nearly as
troublesome as the vortices generated by a “heavy”. “Heavy aircraft” (aircraft weighing 255,000
pounds or more) and Boeing 757 aircraft, generate vortices with a strength of small tornadoes.
Wingtip vortices generated by a large jetliner can cause tremendous turbulence for a much smaller
aircraft if it is following too close behind. There has to be a greater separation in distance and time
when a “heavy” is in the traffic mix. Wingtip vortices can cause problems no matter the size of any
of the aircraft if safe separation is not maintained.
It is the local controller who determines the spacing and separation of both departing and
landing aircraft. Wingtip vortices and safe separation are extremely important to the pilots of these
aircraft and the local controller assisting them.
2. Explain various separation techniques.

Ans:
Separation: Separation of aircraft operating within controlled airspace is applied in accordance
with the minima specified in ICAO PANS-RAC Doc 4444.
Separation between aircraft operating in the vicinity of an aerodrome may be reduced by
ATS units under the following circumstances:
a) The controller has the aircraft concerned in sight and can ensure adequate separation; or
b) Aircraft concerned are continuously visible to the pilots concerned and the pilots report
that they can maintain their own separation; or
c) the pilot of a following aircraft reports that he/she can keep the preceding aircraft
continuously in sight and can maintain his/her own separation with the preceding aircraft.
The pilot has the ultimate responsibility for ensuring appropriate separations and positioning
of the aircraft in the terminal area to avoid the wake turbulence created by a preceding aircraft
There are three sets of flight rules under which an aircraft can be flown:
Visual Flight Rules (VFR)
Special Visual Flight Rules (SVFR)
Instrument Flight Rules (IFR)
Public transport flights are almost exclusively operated under IFR, as this set of rules allows
flight in regions of low visibility (e.g. cloud). On the other hand a large amount of private flying in
light aircraft is done under VFR since this requires a lower level of flying skill on the part of the
pilot, and meteorological conditions in which a pilot can see and avoid other aircraft. As its name
suggests, SVFR is a special infrequently-used set of rules. For the purposes of separation,
controllers consider SVFR to be the same as IFR.
Airspace exists in seven classes, A to G, in decreasing order of air traffic control regulation.
Classes A to E are controlled airspace and classes F and G are uncontrolled airspace. At one end of
the scale in classes A and B airspace, all aircraft must be separated from each other. At the other
end of the scale in class G airspace there is no requirement for any aircraft to be separated from
each other. In the intermediate classes some aircraft are separated from each other depending on the
flight rules under which the aircraft are operating. For example in class D airspace, IFR aircraft are
separated from other IFR aircraft, but not from VFR aircraft, nor are VFR aircraft separated from
each other.
Vertical separation
Between the surface and an altitude of 29,000 feet (8,800 m), no aircraft should come closer
vertically than 300 metres or 1,000 feet (in those countries that express altitude in feet), unless
some form of horizontal separation is provided. Above 29,000 feet (8,800 m) no aircraft shall come
closer than 600 m (or 2,000 feet), except in airspace where Reduced Vertical Separation Minima
(RVSM) can be applied.
Horizontal separation
If any two aircraft are separated by less than the vertical separation minimum, then some
form of horizontal separation must exist.
Procedural separation
Procedural separation is separation based upon the position of the aircraft, based upon
reports made by the pilots over the radio. It therefore does not necessarily require the use of radar to
provide air traffic control using procedural separation minima. In procedural control, any period
during which two aircraft are not vertically separated is said to be "level change". In some cases,
procedural separation minima are provided for use with radar assistance, however it is important
not to get this mixed up with radar separation as in the former case the radar need not necessarily be
certified for use for radar separation purposes, the separation is still procedural.
Lateral separation
Lateral separation minima are usually based upon the position of the aircraft as derived
visually, from dead reckoning or internal navigation sources, or from radio navigation aids
('beacons').In the case of beacons, to be separated, the aircraft must be a certain distance from the
beacon (measured by time or by DME) and their tracks to or from the beacon must diverge by a
minimum angle. Other lateral separation may be defined by the geography of pre-determined
routes, for example the North Atlantic Track system.
Longitudinal separation
If two aircraft are not laterally separated, and are following tracks within 45 degrees of each
other (or the reciprocal), then they are said to be following the same route and some form of
longitudinal separation must exist.
Longitudinal separation can be based upon time or distance as measure by DME. The
golden rule is the 10 minute rule: no two aircraft following the same route must come within 15
minutes flying time of each other. In areas with good nav-aid cover this reduces to 10 minutes; if
the preceding aircraft is faster than the following one then this can be reduced further depending of
the difference in speed.
Aircraft whose tracks bisect at more than 45 degrees are said to be crossing, in this case
longitudinal separation cannot be applied as it will not be very long before lateral separation will
exist again.
Radar separation
Radar separation is applied by a controller observing that the radar returns from the two
aircraft are a certain minimum horizontal distance away from each other, as observed on a suitably
calibrated radar system. The actual distance used varies: 5 nmi (9 km) is common in en route
airspace, 3 NM is common in terminal airspace at lower levels. On occasion 10 NM may be used,
especially at long range or in regions of less reliable radar cover.
By FAA Rules [2], when an aircraft is:
1. Less than 40 miles from the [radar] antenna, horizontal separation is 3 miles from
obstructions or other aircraft.
2. 40 miles or more from the [radar] antenna, horizontal separation is 5 miles from
obstructions or other aircraft.
3. Terminal Area For single sensor ASR-9 with Mode S, when less than 60 miles
from the antenna, horizontal separation is 3 miles from other aircraft.
Reduced separation
In certain special cases, controllers may reduce separation below the usually required
minima.
In the vicinity of an aerodrome
Aerodrome or "Tower" controllers work in tall towers with large windows allowing them,
in good weather, to see the aircraft flying in the vicinity of the aerodrome, unless the aircraft is not
in sight from the tower (e.g. a helicopter departing from a ramp area). Also, aircraft in the vicinity
of an aerodrome tend to be flying at lower speeds. Therefore, if the aerodrome controller can see
both aircraft, or both aircraft report that they can see each other, or a following aircraft reports that
it can see the preceding one, controllers may reduce the standard separation to whatever is adequate
to prevent a collision.
RVSM: Reduced Vertical Separation Minima
In certain airspace, between 29,000 and 41,000 feet (12,500 m), pairs of aircraft equipped
with more modern altimeter and autopilot systems can be vertically separated by minimum of 1,000
feet (300 m) rather than the standard 2,000 feet (600 m). RVSM airspace encompasses Europe,
North America, parts of Asia and Africa and both the Pacific and Atlantic oceans.

3. How do military and civilian ATC co-ordinate themselves?
Ans:
Civil-Military Cooperation:
1. There are numerous areas of interaction between the civilian departments and the defence
authorities. Action is required as under to sort out the various issues:
a. In order to meet the expanding requirements of civil air traffic there is an urgent need to
widen the existing air corridors, provide them Uni-directional air corridors, to provide smooth
flow of air traffic and thus enhance air safety.
b. We have to optimize the utilization of restricted air space, by networking of radar and
data systems, which should be acquired on the basis of mutual compatibility.
c. Additional land is to be provided at civilian enclaves in military airports. Revenue from
aeronautical charges at these airports deserves to be shared with the AAI, in order to
compensate it for the capital investment it has made.
d. Additional slots should be made available for civilian flights at military airports.
2. In order to ensure civil-military cooperation, coordination committee at the level of
respective Ministries as well as at operational level will be energized.
COORDINATION BETWEEN MILITARY ATHORITIES AND AIR TRAFFIC

SERVICES:
1 Air traffic services units shall establish and maintain close cooperation with military
authorities responsible for activities that may affect flights of civil aircraft.
2 Coordination of activities potentially hazardous to civil aircraft shall be effected in
accordance with the paragraph given below as A
3 Arrangements shall be made to permit information relevant to the safe and expeditious
conduct of flights of civil aircraft to be promptly exchanged between air traffic services units
and appropriate military units.
3 Air traffic services units shall, either routinely or on request, in accordance with locally
agreed procedures, provide appropriate military units with pertinent flight plan and other data
concerning flights of civil aircraft.
4 Special procedures shall be established in order to ensure that:
a) air traffic services units are notified if a military unit observes that an aircraft
which is, or might be, a civil aircraft is approaching, or has entered, any area in which
interception might become necessary;
b) all possible efforts are made to confirm the identity of the aircraft and to provide
it with the navigational guidance necessary to avoid the need for interception.
A- COORDINATION BETWEEN AERONAUTICAL NFORMATION SERVICE (AIS)

AND AIR TRAFFIC SERVICES (ATS) UNITS
1 To ensure that aeronautical information services units obtain information to enable them to
provide up to-date preflight information and to meet the need for in-flight information,
arrangements shall be made locally between aeronautical information services and ATS units
responsible for AIS to report to the responsible AIS unit, with a minimum of delay:
a) Information on aerodrome conditions;
b) The operational status of associated facilities, services and navigation aids within their
area of responsibility;
c) The occurrence of volcanic activity observed by air traffic services personnel or reported
by aircraft; and
d) Any other information considered to be of operational significance.
2 Before introducing changes to the air navigation system, due account shall be taken by the
services responsible for such changes of the time needed by the aeronautical information
service for the preparation, production and issuance of relevant material for promulgation. To

ensure timely provision of the information to the aeronautical information service, close
coordination between those services concerned is therefore required.
3 Of particular importance are changes to aeronautical information that affect charts and/or
computer-based navigation systems which qualify to be notified by the Aeronautical
Information Regulation and Control (AIRAC) system. The predetermined, internationally
agreed AIRAC effective dates in addition to 14 days postage time shall be observed by the
responsible air traffic services when submitting the raw information/data to aeronautical
information services.
4. What is the purpose of holding pattern and what are the variables affect the size of
holding pattern?
Ans:
A holding pattern for instrument flight rules (IFR) aircraft is usually a racetrack pattern
based on a holding fix. This fix can be a radio beacon such as a non-directional beacon (NDB) or
VHF omni-directional range (VOR). The fix is the start of the first turn of the racetrack pattern.
Aircraft will fly towards the fix, and once there will enter a predefined racetrack pattern. A standard
holding pattern uses right-hand turns and takes approximately 4 minutes to complete (one minute
for each 180 degree turn, and two one-minute straight ahead sections). Deviations from this pattern
can happen if long delays are expected; longer legs (usually two or three minutes) may be used, or
aircraft with distance measuring equipment (DME) may be assigned patterns with legs defined in
nautical miles rather than minutes. Less frequent turns are more comfortable for passengers and
crew. Additionally, left-hand turns may be assigned to some holding patterns if there are airspace
restrictions nearby.
In the absence of a radio beacon, the holding fix can be any fixed point in the air, and can be
created using two crossing VHF omni-directional range radials (also called intersection), or it can
be at a specific distance from a VOR using a coupled distance measuring equipment. When DME is
used, the inbound turn of the racetrack may be permanently defined by distance limits rather than in
minutes. Furthermore, in appropriately equipped aircraft, GPS waypoints may be used to define the
holding pattern, eliminating the need for ground-based navigational aids entirely.
A hold for visual flight rules aircraft is usually a (smaller) racetrack pattern flown over
something easily recognizable on the ground, such as a bridge, highway intersection or lake.
Purpose:
The primary use of a holding pattern is delaying aircraft that have arrived at their
destination but cannot land yet because of traffic congestion, poor weather, or runway
unavailability (for instance, during snow removal). Several aircraft may fly the same holding
pattern at the same time, separated vertically by 1,000 feet or more. This is generally described as a
stack or holding stack. As a rule, new arrivals will be added at the top. The aircraft at the bottom of
the stack will be taken out and allowed to make an approach first, after which all aircraft in the

stack move down one level, and so on. Air traffic control (ATC) will control the whole process, in
some cases using a dedicated controller (called a stack controller) for each individual pattern.
One airport may have several holding patterns; depending on where aircraft arrive from or
which runway is in use, or because of vertical airspace limitations.
Since an aircraft with an emergency has priority over all other air traffic, they will always
be allowed to bypass the holding pattern and go directly to the airport (if possible). Obviously, this
causes more delays for other aircraft already in the stack.
The Variables Affect the Size of Holding Pattern:
DEVELOPMENT CONCEPT. Efficient and economical use of airspace requires
standardization of aircraft entry and holding maneuvers. Factors which affect aircraft during these
maneuvers are incorporated in the criteria.
TURN EFFECT. Pilot procedures contained in the Aeronautical Information Manual
(AIM) specify 30° of bank (or a standard rate turn, whichever requires the least bank) for entry and
holding pattern turns. However, due to factors such as instrument precision, pilot technique,
ballistic effect, etc., a constant 30° of bank is seldom achieved. To compensate for this, these
criteria are based upon 25° of bank.
NAVIGATIONAL AID (NAVAID) GROUND AND AIRBORNE SYSTEM
TOLERANCE.
Criteria in this chapter apply to conventional NAVAID's such as very high frequency
(VHF) omni directional radio range (VOR), distance measuring equipment (DME), and/or non-
directional radio beacon (NDB). These criteria contain allowances for:
a. Cone of ambiguity: related to altitude, and
(1) System error: ± 5°
(2) Aircraft Course Indicator: ± 10° for full instrument deflection.
(3) Total tolerance of (1) and (2): 15°
b. Intersection disparity: related to system error and distance of the holding point from the
furthest NAVAID.
c. Overhead "to-from" error: 4°.
d. Delay in recognizing and reacting to fix passage: 6 seconds for entry turn, applied in
the direction most significant to protected airspace.
EFFECT OF WIND. Analysis of winds recorded at various levels over a five-year period
led to the adoption of a scale of velocities beginning with 50 knots at 4,000' MSL and increasing at
a rate of 3 knots for each additional 2,000' of altitude to a maximum of 120 knots.
FLIGHT PROCEDURES DEVELOPMENT. Flight procedures are developed to
accommodate the performance capabilities of pertinent civil and military aircraft. The full size of
the holding pattern shall be evaluated for obstacle clearance. No fix-end or outbound-end reduction
is authorized.
APPLICATION IN THE AIR TRAFFICE CONTROL (ATC) SYSTEM. Holding
airspace area dimensions were developed to permit use of all types of en route NAVAID's,
reduction of holding airspace when optimum direction of entry is made, compatibility between
patterns flown by reference to time and those flown by reference to DME, and selection/application
of tailor-made airspace by furnishing several
FLYING A HOLDING PATTERN
Many aircraft have a specific holding speed published by the manufacturer; this is a lower
speed at which the aircraft uses less fuel per hour than normal cruise speeds. A typical holding
speed for transport category aircraft is 210 to 265 knots (491 km/h). Holding speeds are a function
of aircraft weight at the point of holding. If possible, a holding pattern is flown with flaps and
landing gear up to save fuel.
Entry procedures and accurate flying of the holding procedure are essential parts of IFR
pilot training, and will always be tested on examination flights. Modern autopilots, coupled with
flight management systems, can enter and fly holding patterns automatically.
ENTRY PROCEDURES
The entry to a holding pattern is often the hardest part for a novice pilot to grasp, and
determining and executing the proper entry while simultaneously controlling the aircraft,
navigating and communicating with ATC requires practice. There are three standard types of
entries: direct, parallel, and offset (teardrop). The proper entry procedure is determined by the angle
difference between the direction the aircraft flies to arrive at the beacon and the direction of the
inbound leg of the holding pattern.
• A direct entry is performed exactly as it sounds: the aircraft flies directly to the holding fix,
and immediately begins the first turn outbound.
• In a parallel entry, the aircraft flies to the holding fix, parallels the inbound course for one
minute outbound, and then turns back, flies directly to the fix, and continues in the hold
from there.
• In an offset or teardrop entry, the aircraft flies to the holding fix, turns into the protected
area, flies for one minute, and then turns back inbound, proceeds to the fix and continues
from there.
• Standard holding entry diagrams
• Direct entry (Sector 3)
• Parallel entry (Sector 1)
• Teardrop entry (Sector 2)
The parallel and teardrop entry are mirrored in case of a left-hand holding pattern.
Speed limits
Maximum holding speeds are established to keep aircraft within the protected holding area
during their one-minute inbound and outbound legs.
Timing corrections
To achieve a one-minute inbound leg, there are two key ways to modify timings:
• Simple Method: If inbound leg is less than one minute, add the same number of seconds to
the outbound leg. If the inbound time is more than one minute, subtract the same number of
seconds from the outbound leg.
o i.e. Inbound time is 0:55 --> Outbound time is 1:05
o i.e. Inbound time is 1:06 --> Outbound time is 0:54
• Ideal Method: Subtract 2/3 of the error (in seconds) for inbound legs more than one minute,
and add 3/2 of the error (in seconds) for inbound legs of less than one minute.
o i.e. Inbound time is 0:55 --> Error is 5 seconds. Thus +3/2*5 = +7. 1:00+0:07=1:07.
Fly 1:07 Outbound.
o i.e. Inbound time is 1:06 --> Error is 6 seconds. Thus (-2)/3*6 = (-4). 1:00-
0:04=0:56. Fly 0:56 Outbound.
• For an initial gauge, add the headwind or subtract the tailwind component speed in knots.
o i.e. Initial outbound with a tailwind component of 7 knots. Initial outbound 0:53.
o i.e. Initial outbound with a headwind component of 20 knots. Initial outbound 1:20.

5. Describe the function of various components of Radar with a block diagram.
Ans:
Radar Principle
The electronic principle on which radar operates is very similar to the principle of sound-
wave reflection. If you shout in the direction of a sound-reflecting object (like a rocky canyon or
cave), you will hear an echo. If you know the speed of sound in air, you can then estimate the
distance and general direction of the object. The time required for an echo to return can be roughly
converted to distance if the speed of sound is known.
Radar uses electromagnetic energy pulses in much the same way. The radio-frequency (rf)
energy is transmitted to and reflected from the reflecting object. A small portion of the reflected
energy returns to the radar set. This returned energy is called an ECHO, just as it is in sound
terminology. Radar sets use the echo to determine the direction and distance of the reflecting
object.
RAdio (Aim) Detecting And Ranging
It refers to electronic equipment that detects the presence of objects by using reflected
electromagnetic energy. Under some conditions a radar system can measure the direction, height,
distance, course and speed of these objects. The frequency of electromagnetic energy used for radar
is unaffected by darkness and also penetrates fog and clouds. This permits radar systems to
determine the position of airplanes, ships, or other obstacles that are invisible to the naked eye
because of distance, darkness, or weather.
Modern radar can extract widely more information from a target's echo signal than its range.
But the calculating of the range by measuring the delay time is one of its most important functions.
Functions:
The following figure shows the operating principle of a primary radar set. The radar antenna
illuminates the target with a microwave signal, which is then reflected and picked up by a
receiving device. The electrical signal picked up by the receiving antenna is called echo or
return. The radar signal is generated by a powerful transmitter and received by a highly
sensitive receiver.
All targets produce a diffuse reflection i.e. it is reflected in a wide number of directions. The
reflected signal is also called scattering. Backscatter is the term given to reflections in the
opposite direction to the incident rays.
Radar signals can be displayed on the traditional plan position indicator (PPI) or other more
advanced radar display systems. A PPI has a rotating vector with the radar at the origin, which
indicates the pointing direction of the antenna and hence the bearing of targets.
Figure 1: Block diagram of a primary radar (interactive picture)

Transmitter
The radar transmitter produces the short duration high-power RF pulses of energy that are
into space by the antenna.
Duplexer
The duplexer alternately switches the antenna between the transmitter and receiver so that
only one antenna need be used. This switching is necessary because the high-power pulses of
the transmitter would destroy the receiver if energy were allowed to enter the receiver.
Receiver
The receivers amplify and demodulate the received RF-signals. The receiver provides video
signals on the output.
Radar Antenna
The Antenna transfers the transmitter energy to signals in space with the required
distribution and efficiency. This process is applied in an identical way on reception.
Indicator
The indicator should present to the observer a continuous, easily understandable, graphic
picture of the relative position of radar targets.
The radar screen (in this case a PPI-scope) displays the produced from the echo signals
bright blibs. The longer the pulses were delayed by the runtime, the further away from the
center of this radar scope they are displayed. The direction of the deflection on this screen is
that in which the antenna is currently pointing.
6. How does the use of RADAR make the air traffic control system more efficient?
Ans:
1. RADAR surveillance systems, such as primary surveillance radar (PSR), secondary
surveillance radar (SSR) and automatic dependence surveillance – broadcast (ADSB) may be used
either alone or in combination in the provision of air traffic services, including in the provision of
separation between aircraft, provided:
a) Reliable coverage exists in the area;
b) The probability of detection, the accuracy and the integrity of the ATS
surveillance system(s) are satisfactory; and
c) In the case of ADS-B, the availability of data from participating aircraft is
adequate,
2. PSR systems should be used in circumstances where SSR and/or ADS-B alone would
not meet the air traffic services requirements.
3. SSR system, especially those utilizing mono-pulse technique or having Mode S
capability, may be used alone, including in the provision of separation between aircraft, provided;
a) The carriage of SSR transponders is mandatory within the area; and
b) Identification is established and maintained.
4. ADS-B shall only be used for the provision of air traffic control service provided the
quality of the information contained in the ADS-B message exceeds the values specified by the
appropriate ATS authority.
5. The provision of ATS surveillance services shall be limited when position data quality
degrades below a level specified by the appropriate ATS authority.
6. Where PSR and SSR are required to be used in combination, SSR alone may be used in
the event of PSR failure to provide separation between identified transponder re-equipped aircraft,
provided the accuracy of the SSR position indications has been verified by monitor equipment or
other means.
7. The number of aircraft simultaneously provided with ATS surveillance services shall not
exceed that which can safely be handled under the prevailing circumstances, taking into account:
a) The structural complexity of the control area or sector concerned;
b) The functions to be performed within the control area or sector concerned;

c) Assessments of controller workloads, taking into account different aircraft
capabilities, and sector capacity; and
d) the degree of technical reliability and availability of the primary and back-up
communications, navigation and surveillance system, both in the aircraft and on the
ground.
8. The following types of radar services may be provided to aircraft operating within
reliable radar coverage:
Type of radar service Class of airspace
Radar control service D&E
Radar Advisory service F
Radar Flight information service G
9. Before providing radar service to an aircraft, radar identification shall be established and
the pilot informed. Thereafter, radar identification shall be maintained until termination of the radar
service.
10. If radar identification is subsequently lost, the pilot shall be informed accordingly and,
when applicable, appropriate instructions issued.
11. The provision of radar services requires that aircraft remain in direct two way
communication with the unit providing the service. However radar separation may be provided
between two radar identified aircraft even when only one of the aircraft is in direct communication
with the radar unit.
12. In the event of an aircraft in or appearing to be in, any form of emergency ATC will
provide all possible assistance, including the provision of radar service to the extent possible.
USE OF SURVEILLANCE SYSTEM IN AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL SERVICE:

1. The information provided by ATS surveillance systems and presented on a situation
display may be used to perform the following functions in the provision of air traffic control
service;
1 Provide ATS surveillance services in order to:-
a) Improve airspace utilization;
b) Reduce delays;
c) Facilitate direct routings and more optimum flight profiles;
d) Enhance safety
2. Provide vectoring to:-
a) Departing aircraft for expeditious and efficient departure flow and expediting
climb to cruising level
b) Arriving aircraft for the purpose of expediting descent from cruising level and
establishing an expeditious and efficient approach sequence.
c) Aircraft for purpose of resolving potential conflict.
d) Assist pilot in their navigation.
3. Provide separation and maintain normal traffic flow when an aircraft experiencing
communication failure is within area of coverage.
4. Maintain flight path monitoring of air traffic
5. Maintain a watch on the progress of air traffic, in order to provide a procedural
controller with:
a) Improved position information regarding aircraft under control.
b) Supplementary information regarding other traffic.
c) Any significant deviations by aircraft from their assigned routing or level.
2. The position indication presented on a situation display may be used to perform the
following additional functions in the provision of approach control service:
a) Provide vectoring of arriving traffic on to pilot-interpreted final approach aids;

b) Provide vectoring of arriving traffic to a point from which a visual approach can
be completed;
c) Provide vectoring of arriving traffic to a point from which a surveillance radar
approach can be made;
d) Provide flight path monitoring of other pilot-interpreted approaches;
e) In accordance with prescribed procedures, conduct: surveillance radar
approaches;
f) Provide separation between:
i) Succeeding departing aircraft;
ii) Succeeding arriving aircraft; and
iii) A departing aircraft and a succeeding arriving aircraft.
7. Write short notes on: (i) aerodrome reference code (ii) aerodrome elevation
Ans:
Aerodrome Reference Code:
The aerodrome facility reference code, also to be known as the aerodrome reference code, is a
two-element, alpha-numeric notation (for example 1B, 3C) derived from the critical aeroplane
indicates their suitability for use by specific groups of aeroplanes.

Aerodrome and runway elevations

1 The aerodrome elevation and geoid undulation at the aerodrome elevation position shall
be measured to the accuracy of one-half metre or foot and reported to the aeronautical information
services authority.
2 For an aerodrome used by international civil aviation for non-precision approaches, the
elevation and geoids undulation of each threshold, the elevation of the runway end and any
significant high and low intermediate points along the runway shall be measured to the accuracy of
one-half metre or foot and reported to the aeronautical information services authority.
3 For precision approach runway, the elevation and geoid undulation of the threshold, the
elevation of the runway end and the highest elevation of the touchdown zone shall be measured to
the accuracy of one-quarter metre or foot and reported to the aeronautical information services
authority.
8. Explain the landing procedure with various lighting systems.

Ans:
A variety of approach lighting systems based on the centre line and cross bar concept, is in
use at aerodromes. These systems range from the simple low intensity centre line and cross bar -
intended to serve visual runways at night only, to the more complex Calvert System comprising
centre line and 5 cross bars - shown at Figure 1.3 and 1.4 - for day and night use on ILS equipped
runways.
Simple approach lighting systems normally commence 500 m prior to the runway threshold
whilst the full Calvert System commences 900 m prior to runway threshold. Where, because of the
geography of the approach, it is not possible to install a full system, a shortened system is employed
and the Runway Visual Range (RVR) minima associated with the instrument approach procedure
adjusted accordingly. Except where supplemented by red side barrettes as described below,
approach lighting is white in colour.

NB: given here both diagram, according to the question use the diagram. For this ques,
use first diagram.
A simple approach lighting system is a lighting system intended for a non-instrument or a non-
precision approach runway. Standards for this system are not included in this chapter as there is no
operational credit for such systems.
PRECISION APPROACH CATEGORY I LIGHTING SYSTEM

A precision approach Category I lighting system is to be provided to serve a Cat I precision
approach runway.
Location: A precision approach Category I lighting system is to consist of a row of lights on the
extended centre line of the runway extending, wherever practicable, over a distance of 900m prior to the
threshold, with rows of lights forming 5 crossbars, as shown below.
Note 1: The installation of an approach lighting system of less than 900m in length may result in
operational limitations on the use of the runway.
Note 2: Existing lights spaced in accordance with imperial measurements are deemed to comply with
comparable metric measurements.
The lights forming the centre line are to be placed at longitudinal intervals of 30m with the
innermost light located 30m from the threshold. Each centre line light position is to consist of a single
light source in the innermost 300m of the centre line, two light sources in the central 300m of the centre
line, and three light sources in the outer 300m of the centre line, to provide distance information.
The lights forming the centre line light positions in the central 300m and the outer 300m of the
centre line are to be spaced at 1.5m apart.
The lights forming the 5 crossbars are to be placed at 150m, 300m, 450m 600m and 750m
from the threshold. The lights forming each crossbar are to be as nearly as practicable in a
horizontal straight line at right angles to, and bisected by, the line of the centre line lights.
The lights of the crossbar are to be spaced so as to produce a linear effect, except that gaps
may be left on each side of the centre line. The lights within each bar on either side of the
centre line are to be spaced at 2.7m apart. The outer ends of the crossbars are to lie on two
straight lines that converge to meet the runway centre line 300m from the threshold.
The system is to lie as nearly as practicable in the horizontal plane passing through the
threshold, provided that:
(a) no object other than an ILS antenna is to protrude through the plane of the approach
lights within a distance of 60m form the centre line of the system; and
(b) No light other than a light located within the central part of a crossbar, or a centre line
light position, may be screened from an approaching aircraft.
Any ILS antenna protruding through the plane of the lights is to be treated as an obstacle and
marked and lighted accordingly.
Characteristics
The centre line and crossbar lights of a precision approach Category I lighting system are to be
fixed lights showing variable white.
The lights are to be in accordance with the specifications of Figures 1.
VISUAL APPROACH SLOPE INDICATOR SYSTEMS
A visual approach slope indicator system shall be provided to serve the approach to a runway,
whether or not the runway is served by electronic approach slope guidance, where one of the following
applies:
(a) The runway is regularly used by jet-propelled aero planes engaged in air transport
operations; or
(b) CASA directs that visual approach slope guidance be provided, because it has determined
that such a visual aid is required for the safe operation of aircraft.
In making a determination that visual approach slope guidance is required, CASA will take into
account the following:
(a) The runway is frequently used by other jet-propelled aero planes, or other aero planes with
similar approach guidance requirements;
(b) The pilot of any type of aero plane may have difficulty in judging the approach due to:
(i) Inadequate visual guidance such as is experienced during an approach over water
or featureless terrain by day or in the absence of sufficient extraneous lights in
the approach area by night;
(ii) Misleading approach information such as that produced by deceptive
surrounding terrain, runway slope, or unusual combinations of runway width,
length and light spacing;
(iii) A displaced threshold;

(c) the presence of objects in the approach area may involve serious hazard if an aeroplane
descends below the normal approach path, particularly if there are no non-visual or
other visual aids to give warning of such objects;
(d) Physical conditions at either end of the runway present a serious hazard in the event of an
aero plane undershooting or overrunning the runway; and
(e) Terrain or prevalent meteorological conditions are such that the aero plane may be
subjected to unusual turbulence during approach.
CASA may direct that a visual approach slope indicator system be provided for temporary
use only, for example due to a temporary displaced threshold, or during works in progress.
The standard installations must be:
(a) At international aerodromes, T-VASIS, or double sided PAPI. Where this is
impracticable, an AT-VASIS or PAPI is acceptable;
(b) At aerodromes other than international aerodromes, AT-VASIS or PAPI, except where
(c) below applies;
(c) At aerodromes where CASA has determined that additional roll guidance is required,
and/or high system integrity is necessary, T-VASIS or double sided PAPI; and
(d) AT-VASIS and PAPI must be installed on the left side of the runway, unless this is
impracticable.
9. What are the physical characteristics of primary, secondary and parallel runways?
Ans:
Physical characteristics of primary, secondary and parallel runways:
Actual length of runways
Primary runway:
Except as provided in Runways with stop ways or clearways, the actual runway length to
be provided for a primary runway shall be adequate to meet the operational requirements of the
aero planes for which the runway is intended and shall be not less than the longest length
determined by applying the corrections for local conditions to the operations and performance
characteristics of the relevant aero planes.
Secondary runway:
The length of a secondary runway shall be determined similarly to primary runways except
that it needs only to be adequate for those aero planes which require to use that secondary runway
in addition to the other runway or runways in order to obtain a usability factor of at least 95 per
cent.
Runways with stop ways or clearways:
Where a runway is associated with a stop way or clearway, an actual runway length less
than that resulting from application of Primary or Secondary runway, as appropriate, may be
considered satisfactory, but in such a case any combination of runway, stop way and clearway
provided shall permit compliance with the operational requirements for take-off and landing of the
aero planes the runway is intended to serve.
Width of runways
The width of a runway shall be not less than the appropriate dimension specified in the
following tabulation:

a. The width of a precision approach runway shall be not less than 30 m where the code
number is 1 or 2.
Minimum distance between parallel runways
Where parallel non-instrument runways are intended for simultaneous use, the minimum
distance between their centre lines shall be:
C 210 m where the higher code number is 3 or 4;
C 150 m where the higher code number is 2; and
C 120 m where the higher code number is 1.
Where parallel instrument runways are intended for simultaneous use subject to conditions
specified in the ICAO PANS-RAC (Doc 4444) and the PANS-OPS (Doc 8168), Volume I, the
minimum distance between their centre lines shall be:
C 1 035 m for independent parallel approaches;
C 915 m for dependent parallel approaches;
C 760 m for independent parallel departures;
C 760 m for segregated parallel operations;
Except that:
a) For segregated parallel operations the specified minimum distances:
1) may be decreased by 30 m for each 150 m that the arrival runway is staggered
toward the arriving aircraft, to a minimum of 300 m; and
2) Shall be increased by 30 m for each 150 m that the arrival runway is staggered
away from the arriving aircraft;
b) for independent parallel approaches, combinations of minimum distances and associated
conditions other than those specified in the ICAO PANS-RAC (Doc 4444) may be applied when it
is determined that such combinations would not adversely affect the safety of aircraft operations.
Slopes on runways:
Longitudinal slopes
The slope computed by dividing the difference between the maximum and minimum
elevation along the runway centre line by the runway length shall not exceed:
a) 1 per cent where the code number is 3 or 4; and
b) 2 per cent where the code number is 1 or 2.
The longitudinal slope along any portion of the runway shall not exceed:
a) 1.25 per cent where the code number is 4, except that for the first and last quarter of the
length of the runway the longitudinal slope should not exceed 0.8 per cent;
b) 1.5 per cent where the code number is 3, except that for the first and last quarter of the length
of a precision approach runway category II or III the longitudinal slope should not exceed 0.8
percent; and
c) 2 per cent where the code number is 1 or 2.
Longitudinal slope changes
Where slope changes cannot be avoided, a slope change between two consecutive slopes
shall not exceed:
a) 1.5 per cent where the code number is 3 or 4; and
b) 2 per cent where the code number is 1 or 2.
The transition from one slope to another shall be accomplished by a curved surface with a
rate of change not exceeding:
a) 0.1 per cent per 30 m (minimum radius of curvature of 30 000 m) where the code number
is 4;
b) 0.2 per cent per 30 m (minimum radius of curvature of 15 000 m) where the code number
is 3; and
c) 0.4 per cent per 30 m (minimum radius of curvature of 7 500 m) where the code number
is 1 or 2.

Sight distance
Where slope changes cannot be avoided, they shall be such that there will be an
unobstructed line of sight from;
a) any point 3 m above a runway to all other points 3 m above the runway within a distance
of at least half the length of the runway where the code letter is C, D, E or F;
b) any point 2 m above a runway to all other points 2 m above the runway within a distance
of at least half the length of the runway where the code letter is B; and
c) any point 1.5 m above a runway to all other points 1.5 m above the runway within a
distance of at least half the length of the runway where the code letter is A.
Distance between slope changes
Undulations or appreciable changes in slopes located close together along a runway shall be
avoided. The distance between the points of intersection of two successive curves shall not be less
than:
a) The sum of the absolute numerical values of the corresponding slope changes multiplied
by the appropriate value as follows:
– 30 000 m where the code number is 4;
– 15 000 m where the code number is 3; and
– 5 000 m where the code number is 1 or 2; or
b) 45 m; whichever is greater.
Transverse slopes
To promote the most rapid drainage of water, the runway surface should, if practicable, be
cambered except where a single cross fall from high to low in the direction of the wind most
frequently associated with rain would ensure rapid drainage. The transverse slope should ideally be:
– 1.5 per cent when the code letter is C, D, E or F; and
– 2 per cent when the code letter is A or B;
But in any event should not exceed 1.5 per cent or 2 per cent, as applicable, nor be less than
1 per cent except at runway or taxiway intersections where flatter slopes may be necessary. For a
cambered surface the transverse slope on each side of the centre line should be symmetrical.
The transverse slope shall be substantially the same throughout the length of a runway
except at an intersection with another runway or a taxiway where an even transition shall be
provided taking account of the need for adequate drainage.
Distance between slope changes
Undulations or appreciable changes in slopes located close together along a runway shall be
avoided. The distance between the points of intersection of two successive curves shall not be less
than:
a) The sum of the absolute numerical values of the corresponding slope changes multiplied
by the appropriate value as follows:
– 30 000 m where the code number is 4;
– 15 000 m where the code number is 3; and
– 5 000 m where the code number is 1 or 2; or
b) 45 m; whichever is greater.
Strength of runways
A runway shall be capable of withstanding the traffic of aeroplanes the runway is intended
to serve.
Surface of runways
The surface of a runway shall be constructed without irregularities that would result in loss
in friction characteristics or otherwise adversely affect the take-off or landing of an aeroplane.
The surface of a paved runway shall be so constructed as to provide good friction
characteristics when the runway is wet.

Measurements of the friction characteristics of a new or resurfaced runway shall be made
with a continuous friction measuring device using self-wetting features in order to assure that the
design objectives with respect to its friction characteristics have been achieved.
The average surface texture depth of a new surface should be not less than 1.0 mm.
When the surface is grooved or scored, the grooves or scorings should be either
perpendicular to the runway centre line or parallel to non-perpendicular transverse joints, where
applicable.
10. What are the visual aids used for obstacles, emergency services and signal area?
Ans:
Visual Aids Used For Obstacles:
A fixed obstacle that extends above a take-off climb surface within 3 000 m of the inner
edge of the take-off climb surface should be marked and Fixed obstacles that extend above an
approach or transitional surface within 3 000 m of the inner edge of the approach surface shall be
marked and, if the runway is used at night, lighted, except that:
a) Such marking and lighting may be omitted when the obstacle is shielded by another fixed
obstacle;
b) The marking may be omitted when the obstacle is lighted by medium-intensity obstacle
lights, Type A, by day and its height above the level of the surrounding ground does not exceed 150
m;
c) The marking may be omitted when the obstacle is lighted by high-intensity obstacle
lights by day; and
d) The lighting may be omitted where the obstacle is a lighthouse and an aeronautical study
indicates the lighthouse light to be sufficient.
A fixed obstacle above a horizontal surface should be marked and, if the aerodrome is used
at night, lighted except that:
a) Such marking and lighting may be omitted when:
1) The obstacle is shielded by another fixed obstacle; or
2) For a circuit extensively obstructed by immovable objects or terrain, procedures
have been established to ensure safe vertical clearance below prescribed flight paths; or
3) An aeronautical study shows the obstacle not to be of operational significance;
b) The marking may be omitted when the obstacle is lighted by medium-intensity obstacle
lights, Type A, by day and its height above the level of the surrounding ground does not exceed 150
m;
c) The marking may be omitted when the obstacle is lighted by high-intensity obstacle lights by
day; and
d) The lighting may be omitted where the obstacle is a lighthouse and an aeronautical study
indicates the lighthouse light to be sufficient.
A fixed object that extends above an obstacle protection surface shall be marked and, if the
runway is used at night, lighted.
Vehicles and other mobile objects, excluding aircraft, on the movement area of an
aerodrome are obstacles and shall be marked and, if the vehicles and aerodrome are used at night or
in conditions of low visibility, lighted, except that aircraft servicing equipment and vehicles used
only on aprons may be exempt.
Elevated aeronautical ground lights within the movement area shall be marked so as to be
conspicuous by day. Obstacle lights shall not be installed on elevated ground lights or signs in the
movement area.
Use of colours
An object should be coloured to show a chequered pattern if it has essentially unbroken
surfaces and its projection on any vertical plane equals orexceeds 4.5 m in both dimensions. The
pattern should consist of rectangles of not less than 1.5 m and not more than 3 m on a side, the
corners being of the darker colour. The colours of the pattern should contrast each with the other
and with the background against which they will be seen. Orange and white or alternatively red and
white should be used, except where such colours merge with the background. (See Figure 6-1.)
An object should be coloured to show alternating contrasting bands if:
a) it has essentially unbroken surfaces and has one dimension, horizontal or vertical, greater
than 1.5 m, and the other dimension, horizontal or vertical, less than 4.5 m; or
b) it is of skeletal type with either a vertical or a horizontal dimension greater than 1.5 m.
Use of flags
Flags used to mark objects shall be displayed around, on top of, or around the highest edge
of, the object. When flags are used to mark extensive objects or groups of closely spaced objects,
they shall be displayed at least every 15 m. Flags shall not increase the hazard presented by the
object they mark.
Flags used to mark fixed objects shall not be less than 0.6 m square and flags used to mark
mobile objects, not less than 0.9 m square.
Flags used to mark fixed objects should be orange in colour or a combination of two
triangular sections, one orange and the other white, or one red and the other white, except that
where such colours merge with the background, other conspicuous colours should be used.
Flags used to mark mobile objects shall consist of a chequered pattern, each square having
sides of not less than 0.3 m. The colours of the pattern shall contrast each with the other and with
the background against which they will be seen.
Orange and white or alternatively red and white shall be used, except where such colours
merge with the background.
Lighting of objects- Use of obstacle lights
The presence of objects which must be lighted, as specified in 6.1, shall be indicated by
low-, medium- or high-intensity obstacle lights, or a combination of such lights.
Low-intensity obstacle lights, Type A or B, should be used where the object is a less
extensive one and its height above the surrounding ground is less than 45 m.
Where the use of low-intensity obstacle lights, Type A or B, would be inadequate or an
early special warning is required, then medium- or high-intensity obstacle lights should be used.
Low-intensity obstacle lights, Type C, shall be displayed on vehicles and other mobile
objects excluding aircraft.
Low-intensity obstacle lights, Type D, shall be displayed on follow-me vehicles.
Low-intensity obstacle lights, Type B, should be used either alone or in combination with
medium-intensity obstacle lights, Type B, in accordance with Medium-intensity obstacle lights,
Type A, B or C, should be used where the object is an extensive one or its height above the level of
the surrounding ground is greater than 45 m. Medium-intensity obstacle lights, Types A and C,
should be used alone, whereas medium intensity obstacle lights, Type B, should be used either
alone or in combination with low-intensity obstacle lights, Type B.

High-intensity obstacle lights, Type A, should be used to indicate the presence of an object
if its height above the level of the surrounding ground exceeds 150 m and an aeronautical study
indicates such lights to be essential for the recognition of the object by day.
High-intensity obstacle lights, Type B, should be used to indicate the presence of a tower
supporting overhead wires, cables, etc.,
VISUAL AIDS FOR NAVIGATION (INDICATORS AND SIGNALLING DEVICES)
Wind direction indicator
(a) An aerodrome should be equipped with a sufficient number of wind direction indicators
in order to provide wind information to the pilot during approach and take-off.
(b) Location: Each wind direction indicator should be located so that at least one wind
direction indicator is visible from aircraft in flight, during approach or on the movement area before
take-off, and in such a way as to be free from the effects of air disturbances caused by nearby
objects.
(c) Characteristics:
(1) Each wind direction indicator should be in the form of a truncated cone made of fabric and
should have a length of not less than 3.6 m and a diameter, at the larger end, of not less than 0.9 m.
(2) It should be constructed so that it gives a clear indication of the direction of the surface wind
and a general indication of the wind speed.
(3) The colour or colours should be so selected as to make the wind direction indicator clearly
visible and understandable from a height of at least 300 m, having regard to background:
(i) Where practicable, a single colour should be used.
(ii) Where a combination of two colours is required to give adequate conspicuity against
changing backgrounds, they should be arranged in five alternate bands, the first and last bands
being the darker colour.
(d) Night conditions: Provision should be made for illuminating a sufficient number of wind
indicators at an aerodrome intended for use at night.
Landing direction indicator
(a) Location: Where provided, a landing direction indicator should be located in a
conspicuous place on the aerodrome.
(b) Characteristics:
(1) The landing direction indicator should be in the form of a ‘T’.
(2) The shape and minimum dimensions of a landing ‘T’ should be as shown in Figure K-1.
(3) The colour of the landing ‘T’ should be either white or orange, the choice being
dependent on the colour that contrasts best with the background against which the indicator will be
viewed.
(4) Where used at night, the landing ‘T’ should either be illuminated or outlined by white lights.
Signal panels and signal area
(a) Applicability: A signal area should be provided when visual ground signals are used to
communicate with aircraft in flight.
(b) Location: The signal area should be located so as to be visible for all angles of azimuth
above an angle of 10° above the horizontal when viewed from a height of 300 m.
(c) Characteristics:
(1) The signal area should be an even horizontal surface at least 9 m square.
(2) The colour of the signal area should be chosen to contrast with the colours of the signal
panels used, and it should be surrounded by a white border not less than 0.3 m wide.
Location of signal area: A signal area need only be provided when it is intended to use
visual ground signals to communicate with aircraft in flight. Such signals may be needed when the
aerodrome does not have an aerodrome control tower or an aerodrome flight information service
unit, or when the aerodrome is used by aero planes not equipped with a radio.
Characteristics of signal area: The signal area should be constructed of cement concrete
reinforced with an adequate quantity of steel to avoid cracks resulting from unequal settlement. The
top surface should be finished smooth with a steel trowel and coated with paint of appropriate
colour. The colour of the signal area should be chosen to contrast with the colours of the signal
panels to be displayed thereon.
VISUAL AIDS FOR EMERGENCY SERVICES?
Stopway Lighting
Where stopway is provided at the end of a runway, the declared stop way is delineated by
red edge and end lighting as illustrated in Figure 1.5 showing ONLY in the direction of landing. A
stopway is provided for emergency use only and is not normally suitable for routine use.
Lighting
Fixed obstacles of 45 m or less in height, width and length are normally lit by a single
steady red light placed at the highest practicable point; those obstacles of greater size are normally
provided with additional red lights in order to outline the extent of the obstruction. Surface
obstructions and unserviceable parts of the movement area are normally delineated by portable red
lights. Mobile obstacles such as vehicles and equipment frequently employed on the movement
area normally display a yellow flashing light except that emergency service vehicles responding to
an incident display flashing blue lights.
Marshalling:

Apr/May 2010
PART B
1. (i) Enumerate various ATC aids.

Ans:
The following are the various ATC aids:
1. Radio and Navigation Aids
2. Airport Lighting Aids (ALS)
3. Airport Visual Aids
4. Air Navigation and Obstruction Lighting Aids
5. Airport Marking Aids and Signs
6. Fitness for Flight
7. Flight Safety
8. Emergency services
(ii) Briefly discuss the various parts of ATC services

Ans:
Air Traffic Control services: A generic term meaning area control service, approach
control service or aerodrome control service. The air traffic services comprise of three services
identified as follows:
1. Air traffic control service
Area control service
Aerodrome control service
2. Flight information service
3. Alerting service
a) Prevent collisions between aircraft
b) Expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic
Approach control service:
with arrival or departure.
flights which are under the jurisdiction Approach Control.
Provision of air traffic control service:
The parts of air traffic control service, shall be provided by the various units as follows:
Area control service
Area control service shall be provided:
a) By an area control centre (ACC); or
b) By the unit providing approach control service in a control zone or in a control
area of limited extent which is designated primarily for the provision of approach control
service, when no ACC is established
Approach control service shall be provided:
a) By an aerodrome control tower or an ACC, when it is necessary or desirable to
combine under the responsibility of one unit the functions of the approach control service and
those of the aerodrome control service or the area control Service.
b) By an approach control unit, when it is established as a separate unit.
Aerodrome control service
- Aerodrome control service shall be provided by an aerodrome control tower.
Operation of air traffic control service:
In order to provide air traffic control service, an air traffic control unit shall:
a) Be provided with information on the intended movement of each aircraft, or
variations there from, and with current information on the actual progress of each aircraft
b) Determine from the information received, the relative positions of known aircraft
to each other
c) Issue clearances and information for the purpose of preventing collision between
aircraft under its control and of expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of traffic;
d) Coordinate clearances as necessary with other units:
1) Whenever an aircraft might otherwise conflict with traffic operated under
the control of such other units
2) Before transferring control of an aircraft to such other units.
e) Information on aircraft movements, together with a record of air Traffic control
clearances issued to such aircraft, shall be so displayed as to permit ready analysis in order to
maintain an efficient flow of air traffic with adequate separation between aircraft.
Explanation:
En-route air traffic controllers work in facilities called Area Control Centers, each of which
is commonly referred to as a "Center". The United States uses the equivalent term Air Route Traffic
Control Center (ARTCC). Each center is responsible for many thousands of square miles of
airspace (known as a Flight Information Region) and for the airports within that airspace. Centers
control IFR aircraft from the time they depart from an airport or terminal area's airspace to the time
they arrive at another airport or terminal area's airspace. Centers may also "pick up" VFR aircraft
that are already airborne and integrate them into the IFR system. These aircraft must, however,
remain VFR until the Center provides a clearance.
Center controllers are responsible for climbing the aircraft to their requested altitude while,
at the same time, ensuring that the aircraft is properly separated from all other aircraft in the
immediate area. Additionally, the aircraft must be placed in a flow consistent with the aircraft's
route of flight.
As an aircraft reaches the boundary of a Center's control area it is "handed off" or "handed
over" to the next Area Control Center. In some cases this "hand-off" process involves a transfer of
identification and details between controllers so that air traffic control services can be provided in a
seamless manner; in other cases local agreements may allow "silent handovers" such that the
receiving center does not require any co-ordination if traffic is presented in an agreed manner. After
the hand-off, the aircraft is given a frequency change and begins talking to the next controller. This
process continues until the aircraft is handed off to a terminal controller ("approach").
Approach and terminal control:
Many airports have a radar control facility that is associated with the airport. In most
countries, this is referred to as Terminal Control; in the U.S., it is referred to as a TRACON
(Terminal Radar Approach Control.) While every airport varies, terminal controllers usually handle
traffic in a 30-to-50-nautical-mile (56 to 93 km) radius from the airport. Where there are many busy
airports close together, one consolidated Terminal Control Center may service all the airports. The
airspace boundaries and altitudes assigned to a Terminal Control Center, which vary widely from
airport to airport, are based on factors such as traffic flows, neighboring airports and terrain.
Terminal controllers are responsible for providing all ATC services within their airspace.
Traffic flow is broadly divided into departures, arrivals, and over flights. As aircraft move in and
out of the terminal airspace, they are handed off to the next appropriate control facility (a control
tower, an en-route control facility, or a bordering terminal or approach control). Terminal control is
responsible for ensuring that aircraft are at an appropriate altitude when they are handed off, and
that aircraft arrive at a suitable rate for landing.
Not all airports have a radar approach or terminal control available. In this case, the en-route
center or a neighboring terminal or approach control may co-ordinate directly with the tower on the
airport and vector inbound aircraft to a position from where they can land visually. At some of
these airports, the tower may provide a non-radar procedural approach service to arriving aircraft
handed over from a radar unit before they are visual to land. Some units also have a dedicated
approach unit which can provide the procedural approach service either all the time or for any
periods of radar outage for any reason
2. Write short notes on:

(i) Area control service (6)
Ans:
Area control service: Air Traffic Control service for controlled flights in control areas.
In air traffic control, an Area Control Center (ACC), also known as a Center, is a facility
responsible for controlling instrument flight rules aircraft en route in a particular volume of
airspace (a Flight Information Region) at high altitudes between airport approaches and departures.
- A Center typically accepts traffic from, and ultimately passes traffic to, the
control of a Terminal Control Center or of another Center.
- Most Centers are operated by the national governments of the countries in
which they are located.
- The general operations of Centers worldwide, and the boundaries of the
airspace each Center controls, are governed by the ICAO
Area control service shall be provided:
a) By an area control centre (ACC); or
b) By the unit providing approach control service in a control zone or in a control area of
limited extent which is designated primarily for the provision of approach control service, when no
ACC is established.
En-route air traffic controllers work in facilities called Area Control Centers, each of which
is commonly referred to as a "Center". The United States uses the equivalent term Air Route Traffic
Control Center (ARTCC). Each center is responsible for many thousands of square miles of
airspace (known as a Flight Information Region) and for the airports within that airspace. Centers
control IFR aircraft from the time they depart from an airport or terminal area's airspace to the time
they arrive at another airport or terminal area's airspace. Centers may also "pick up" VFR aircraft
that are already airborne and integrate them into the IFR system. These aircraft must, however,
remain VFR until the Center provides a clearance.
Center controllers are responsible for climbing the aircraft to their requested altitude while,
at the same time, ensuring that the aircraft is properly separated from all other aircraft in the
immediate area. Additionally, the aircraft must be placed in a flow consistent with the aircraft's
route of flight.
As an aircraft reaches the boundary of a Center's control area it is "handed off" or "handed
over" to the next Area Control Center. In some cases this "hand-off" process involves a transfer of
identification and details between controllers so that air traffic control services can be provided in a
seamless manner; in other cases local agreements may allow "silent handovers" such that the
receiving center does not require any co-ordination if traffic is presented in an agreed manner. After
the hand-off, the aircraft is given a frequency change and begins talking to the next controller. This
process continues until the aircraft is handed off to a terminal controller ("approach").

(ii) Runway lighting (4)
Ans:
Runway lighting includes such lights as edge, threshold, centre line, end, touchdown zone
and wing bar lights. Runway lighting shall not be operated if the runway is not in use for landing,
take-off or taxiing purposes. If the runway lighting is not operated continuously, lighting following
a take-off shall be provided as specified below:
1. At aerodromes where ATC service is provided and where lights are centrally controlled, the
lights of one runway shall remain lighted after take-off as long as is considered necessary
for the return of the aircraft due to an emergency occurring during or immediately after
take-off.
2. At aerodromes without ATC service or without centrally controlled lights, the lights of one
runway shall remain lighted until such time as would be required to reactivate the lights in
the likelihood of the departing aircraft returning for an emergency landing, and in any case
not less than fifteen minutes after take-off.
3. Where obstacle lighting is operated simultaneously with runway lighting, particular care
should be taken to ensure that it is not turned off until no longer required by the aircraft.
(iii) Flight plans (6)

Ans:
Flight plan: Specified information provided to air traffic services units, relative to an
intended flight or portion of a flight of an aircraft.
Aviation Authority prior to departure. Flight plan format is specified in the ICAO Doc 4444. They
generally include basic information such as departure and arrival points, estimated time en route,
alternate airports in case of bad weather, type of flight (whether instrument flight rules or visual
flight rules), the pilot's information, number of people on board and information about the aircraft
itself. In most countries, flight plans are required for flights under IFR, but may be optional for
flying VFR unless crossing international borders.
Flight plans are highly recommended, especially when flying over inhospitable areas, such
as water, as they provide a way of alerting rescuers if the flight is overdue. In the United States and
Canada, when an aircraft is crossing the Air Defense Identification Zone (ADIZ), either an IFR or a
special type of VFR flight plan called a DVFR flight plan must be filed (the "D" is for Defense).
For IFR flights, flight plans are used by air traffic control to initiate tracking and routing
services. For VFR flights, their only purpose is to provide needed information should search and
rescue operations be required, or for use by air traffic control when flying in a "Special Flight Rules
Area".
Contents of a Flight Plan:
The ICAO FPL form shall be used for the purpose of completing a flight plan prior to
departure or, in case the flight plan is submitted by telephone or tele-fax, the sequence of items in
the flight plan form shall be strictly followed.
The following information shall be included in the flight plan:
• Aircraft Identification
• Flight rules and type of the flight
• Number of aircraft, type of aircraft and wake turbulence category
• Equipment
• Departure aerodrome
• Estimated off-block time
• Cruising speed
• Level
• Route
• Destination aerodrome and total estimated elapsed time
• Alternate aerodrome(s)
• Endurance
• Persons on board
• Survival equipment
• Pilot in command
• Other information
If a flight is to cross a Finish state border, details of the entire flight to the destination
aerodrome shall be submitted in the flight plan.
3. (i) Describe the procedure for the design of aerodrome. (8)

Ans:
Instrument approach procedures are designed to enable pilots to operate under Instrument
Flight Rules (IFR) in Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC). The instrument approach
procedures may direct aircraft to either descend down to circling minima and conduct a visual
circling approach, or to a runway aligned position down to the runway landing minima and conduct
a straight-in approach.
Where the instrument approach procedure does not provide a straight-in approach, the
runway is still classified as a non-instrument runway. Where the instrument procedure provides for
a straight-in approach, the runway is classified as an instrument non-precision approach (NPA)
runway.
CASA strongly recommends that, where terrain permits, NPA procedures be provided as
they enhance the safety and efficiency of aircraft operations. NPA procedures may use ground-
based navigation aids, such as VOR, DME, NDB, etc. Increasingly, NPA procedures may also be
designed using GPS. The use of GPS allows NPA procedures to be provided to aerodromes which
have no access to ground-based navigation aids.
Before a GPS NPA procedure is designed and published for a particular runway, the runway
must meet the standards of a NPA runway. At some aerodromes there may be a cost involved in
meeting these aerodrome standards. Whilst it is the prerogative of an aerodrome operator to
determine whether his or her aerodrome should be upgraded, CASA strongly recommends that
aerodrome operators avail themselves of the benefit of GPS technology.
Request for NPA procedures may come from the Regional Airspace Planning and Advisory
Committee (RAPAC), airline operators, aviation organizations, or aerodrome operators.
Any proposal for, and design of, instrument approach procedures to a runway should only
be made with the knowledge that the runway meets the appropriate aerodrome standards for NPA.
Use of a runway which does not meet the appropriate aerodrome standards for NPA procedures
could result in unsafe situations.
Aerodrome standards: The standards for a NPA runway are different to the standards
applicable to a non instrument runway in several aspects. These include:
· Runway strip width
` · Approach OLS area and gradient
· Availability of wind direction indicator near the threshold
· Runway edge light spacing
RUNWAY STRIP WIDTH:
Many existing aerodromes have runways of 30 metres width contained within runway strips
90m to 150m wide. NPA procedures may be designed for runways with strip widths down to 90m
provided the landing minima is adjusted in accordance with design requirements. The 90m strip
width for NPA procedures are limited only to runways used by code 1, code 2 and up to code 3C
aero planes. (Runways accommodating aero planes above code 3C (eg. B737) require a minimum
graded runway strip width of 150m).

APPROACH OLS AREA AND GRADIENT
The standard approach obstacle limitation surface (OLS) area for a NPA runway is
considerably larger than a non-instrument runway. For code 1 and code 2 runways, the increases
are not extensive. For a code 3 runway, the differences in the approach OLS area are:
· Length - increases from 3000m to 15000m
· Length of the inner edge - 150m.
· Side splay - increases from 10% to 15%
· Approach gradient - down from 3.3% to 2% in the first section, 2.5% in the second
section and horizontal for the third section.
It should be noted that a code 3 runway also requires a 180m inner edge for the take-off
surface, unless the runway is used only by aircraft with MTOW of less than 22700 kg and operating
only in Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC) during the day.
To facilitate the introduction of NPA procedures without compromising aircraft safety, the
following procedures may be used in dealing with obstacles within the approach OLS area:
· Obstacles within 3000m of the inner edge of the approach surface (2500m for code
1 and 2 runways) are to be identified based on the applicable standard.
· Objects previously not identified as obstacles, but which are classified as obstacles
under the applicable standards, are to be referred to the relevant CASA Office for assessment of
their impact upon aircraft operations and the need for marking and/or lighting of such obstacles.
The obstacle data should also be provided directly to the procedure designer concerned
· For areas beyond the 3000m, the procedure designer will obtain obstacle
information from the national tall structure data bank and topographical maps.
· Before a new or revised procedure is cleared by CASA for publication, the
procedure will be flight validated to ensure that the required obstacle clearances are provided in the
design.
· The procedure designer will advise the aerodrome operator of the critical obstacles
which govern the procedure minima, including allowances provided for the height of vegetation.
· After the NPA straight-in procedure is published, the aerodrome operator will be
required to monitor the approach OLS area and report any new obstacles or potential obstacles to
the relevant CASA Office and to the Air services Procedure Design Section.
AVAILABILITY OF A WIND DIRECTION INDICATOR NEAR THE
THRESHOLD
Because the primary wind direction indicator (WDI) may not be visible from the approach
minima, NPA runways require WDI near the threshold to provide surface wind information to
pilots of landing aircraft. However, if another acceptable means of providing surface wind
information is available, such as through an aerodrome weather information broadcast (AWIB), or
an approved observer with a suitable communication link, the WDI requirement may be waived.
Alternative arrangements for provision of surface wind information should be made with the
relevant CASA Office if there is no WDI near the threshold. In addition, if a WDI is located near
the threshold for NPA procedures purposes, and the NPA procedures are conducted at night,
appropriate illumination of the WDI will have to be provided.
RUNWAY EDGE LIGHT SPACING

Existing runway edge lights for a non-instrument runway are normally spaced 90-100m
apart. For a NPA runway, the lights should be spaced not more than 60m apart. However, NPA
procedures may be provided for a runway with runway edge lights spaced at 90-100m apart, subject
to the visibility minima being not less than 1.5 km and provided there are no extraneous lights
around the aerodrome which may affect visual acquisition of the runway.
Before NPA procedures are made available for night use, the lighting system will need to be
checked. This hecking will generally be done as part of the NPA flight validation process, or by the
relevant CASA Office. The aerodrome operator concerned will be consulted if there is a problem
with the aerodrome lighting.
At aerodromes where NPA operations are conducted, aerodrome operators should ensure
that time limited works are co-ordinated with arrival schedules to avoid risk to aircraft and persons
on the ground.
Currently, development works are being done in the global navigation satellite system
(GNSS) with local or wide area augmentation to enhance the accuracy of the system. It is likely
that in the near future Cat I precision approaches will be able to be conducted to runways with no
Instrument Landing System (ILS).
The aerodrome standards will need to be met to support these operations are more stringent,
particularly in regard to runway and approach lighting. Aerodrome operators should bear this in
mind if they are considering upgrading their aerodrome lighting systems.
GPS NPA procedures may also be provided for helicopter landing sites (HLS), either on or
off aerodromes. Currently, Australian standards do not specify NPA standards for HLS. In the
interim, HLS meeting the NPA standards specified in ICAO Annex 14 Volume II are acceptable.
(ii) How are aerodrome classified in India. (8)

Ans:
Airports Classification:
In order to provide guide to airport designers for a reasonable amount of uniformity in
airport landing facilities, design criteria have been prepared by ICAO and FAA through airport
classifications.
Aerodrome in India:
With so many airports in India, traveling has become really convenient and easy. Over all
these years, the Indian air industry has grown several folds and contributed in a big way to the
tourism industry in India. Today there are a large number of airlines in India which have made it
convenient for the travelers to reach their destinations easily. Most of the airports in India connect
the Indian cities with the International cities. These are the international airports in India. The
domestic airports in India link all the major corners of the country.
Airports Authority of India (AAI)
This Airports Authority of India which is under the control of Ministry of Civil Aviation is
in charge of managing all the airports in India. The AAI is involved in the management and
operation of 126 airports in India which include:
11 international airports
89 domestic airports
26 civil enclaves
Classification of Airports in India
India has a total of 449 airports, out of which 92 airports and 28 civil enclaves in Defence
airports offer flight services over the entire airspace of India and the neighboring oceanic areas.
However, only 61 airports out of the total are permitted to be utilized by the airlines.
The Indian airports are categorized into following classifications:
Indian airports are divided into 3 broad categories
* Domestic
* International and
*Civil enclave
There are two more categories in India
* Customs Airport
* Model Airport
International Airports in India: These are declared as international airports and are
available for scheduled international operations by Indian and foreign carriers. Presently,
Mumbai, Delhi, Chennai, Calcutta and Thiruvananthapuram are in this category.
The following airports link the major Indian cities to the international cities:

Amritsar International Airport , Indira Gandhi International Airport, New Delhi, Lokpriya
Gopinath Bordolio International Airport, Guwahati, Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel International
Airport, Ahmedabad, etc.,
Domestic Airports in India: All the Indian airports come under this category.
Custom Airports in India: Custom Airports provide immigration and customs facilities for
the international tourists. They also operate cargo charter flights. The custom airports in India
are located at: Bangalore, Hyderabad, Ahmedabad, Calicut, Cochin, Goa, Varanasi, Patna,
Agra, Jaipur, Amritsar, Tiruchirapally
Model Airports in India: Indian Model Airports are the domestic airports with following
features:
Minimum 7500 feet length of runway
Sufficient terminal capacity for handling aircraft of Airbus 320 type
If required, can also handle limited international traffic
The model airports in India are located in: Lucknow, Bhubaneshwar, Guwahati, Nagpur,
Vadodara, Coimbatore, Imphal, Indore
Civil Enclaves in Indian Defence Airports: 28 civil enclaves are included in the Defence
airfields of India.
4. Briefly discuss the various requirements of an airport lighting systems and airport
marking systems.
Ans:
Refer Question No. 14 and 16 in Part B Ques and Ans.
5. Draw the typical layout of a small domestic’s terminal building and typical airport layout.
Explain any two.
Ans:
The layout of an airport is determined by five basic factors:
- The direction of prevailing winds (the major runways being oriented to the
prevailing wind with a back up runway on a cross wind alignment)
- The size and number of terminal buildings
- The ground transport system, especially the position of major access roads and
railways
- Mandatory clearance dimensions between aircraft and buildings
- Topography and geology
Small airports are usually a direct reflection of these spatial and organizational
characteristics but as airports become larger a number of secondary factors come into play such as
environmental controls, the geography of the surrounding region, and the capacity of the local road
system. International airports, though their site layout is shaped primarily by wind direction, are
increasingly constrained by such factors as community disturbance. As a consequence their growth
and configuration rarely permit simple planning solution but are compromised by influences of a
regional nature.
Airport Types:
There are three main types of airport:
- International airports serving over 20 million passengers a year
- National airports serving between 2 and 20 million passengers a year
- Regional airports serving up to 2 million passengers a year
Such a classification, based upon the level of traffic flow is a useful guide but by no means
infallible. In countries such as Germany, which have a strong hub network of airports, some of the
larger regional airports have passenger movements that approach international dimensions.
Conversely in smaller countries with single national airports passenger movement below the norm
for the classification may justify the inclusion of the airport in the top rank. If the level of
passengers is a good is good general guide, other factors relevant to typological classification
include:
- The split between domestic, national and international movements
- The role of the airport as an international centre for aviation or as a distribution
hub
- The scale of non airport facilities such as other transportation modes, hotels,
business and conference centres.
Airport types are also a clue to security risks: International terrorism tends to target
major international, not minor regional airports. The development of airport is more than the
satisfying of aviation needs. No matter how lucrative or demanding these may be. Airports, whether
international or regional in nature, need to develop the total business and this consists of aviation,
retailing, land ownership and integrated transport opportunities. There are specific facilities for the
business community: executives can jet in from different locations, have a meeting in one of the
conference suites, and fly home. Business conferencing is an area of growth for regional airports,
particularly those away from congested airspace locations.
Or (use any one diagram)
Fig: Typical Airport Layout

Fig: Typical design of a terminal building: showing the Departures (upper half of
page) and Arrivals levels. 1. Departures Lounge. 2. Gates and jet bridges. 3. Security Clearance
Gates. 4 Baggage Check-in. 5. Baggage Carousels
Terminal Building:
An airport terminal is a building at an airport where passengers transfer between ground
transportation and the facilities that allow them to board and disembark from aircraft.
Within the terminal, passengers purchase tickets, transfer their luggage, and go through
security. The buildings that provide access to the airplanes (via gates) are typically called
concourses. However, the terms "terminal" and "concourse" are sometimes used interchangeably,
depending on the configuration of the airport.
Smaller airports have one terminal while larger airports have several terminals and/or
concourses. At small airports, the single terminal building typically serves all of the functions of a
terminal and a concourse.
Some larger airports have one terminal that is connected to multiple concourses via
walkways, sky-bridges, or underground tunnels. Some larger airports have more than one terminal,
each with one or more concourses. Still other larger airports have multiple terminals each of which
incorporates the functions of a concourse.
Airport Terminal Concept:
The terminals at small airports have mostly been designed as centralized building that is
where the processing of the passengers is done in one location rather than being distributed through
several points in the terminal. The concept of the centralized terminal in combination wither piers,
fingers or satellites is also used at larger airports. It provides easy orientation for the passengers
through check in and security, optimum utilization of space and concentration of services in the
terminal building. However, as the number of stands increases, the distance to the outlying stands
exceeds the recommended walking distances and therefore it is necessary to provide transportation
for the passengers from the central processing building to the gates together with an effective
information system. A central building with a system of several parallel satellite piers
interconnected by a transportation system makes an almost ideal solution for large airports if the
space is available midfield ie., between parallel runways. It has a large capacity of both stands and
peak hour passengers. It enables transfer of passengers to and from common travel areas without
using the central building which then not required to handle these passengers. Therefore this design
is convenient for the hub and spoke type of operation. It seems that it is possible to use central
processing terminals up to about 30 mppa and 50or so gates, whether they have piers and moving
walkways or have satellites and people movers.
6. (i) What are the ATC clearance requirements for airport (8)
Ans:
ATC clearance is an authorization for an aircraft to proceed under conditions specified by
an air traffic control unit. Clearance may be prefixed by the words “taxi”, “take off”, “departure”,
“en-route”, “approach” or “landing” to indicate the particular portion of flight to which the air
traffic control clearance relates.
ATC clearances normally required to contain the following:
a. Clearance Limit: The traffic clearance issued prior to departure will normally authorize
flight to the airport of intended landing. Many airports and associated NAVAIDs are collocated
with the same name and/or identifier, so care should be exercised to ensure a clear
understanding of the clearance limit. When the clearance limit is the airport of intended landing,
the clearance should contain the airport name followed by the word “airport.” Under certain
conditions, a clearance limit may be a NAVAID or other fix. When the clearance limit is a
NAVAID, intersection, or waypoint and the type is known, the clearance should contain type.
Under certain conditions, at some locations a short-range clearance procedure is utilized
whereby a clearance is issued to a fix within or just outside of the terminal area and pilots is
advised of the frequency on which they will receive the long-range clearance direct from the
center controller.
b. Departure Procedure: Headings to fly and altitude restrictions may be issued to
separate a departure from other air traffic in the terminal area. Where the volume of traffic
warrants, DPs have been developed.
c. Route of Flight:
1. Clearances are normally issued for the altitude or flight level and route filed by
the pilot. However, due to traffic conditions, it is frequently necessary for ATC to specify an
altitude or flight level or route different from that requested by the pilot. In addition, flow
patterns have been established in certain congested areas or between congested areas whereby
traffic capacity is increased by routing all traffic on preferred routes. Information on these flow
patterns is available in offices where preflight briefing is furnished or where flight plans are
accepted.
2. When required, air traffic clearances include data to assist pilots in identifying
radio reporting points. It is the responsibility of pilots to notify ATC immediately if their radio
equipment cannot receive the type of signals they must utilize to comply with their clearance.
d. Altitude Data:
1. The altitude or flight level instructions in an ATC clearance normally require that
a pilot “MAINTAIN” the altitude or flight level at which the flight will operate when in
controlled airspace. Altitude or flight level changes while en route should be requested prior to
the time the change is desired.
2. When possible, if the altitude assigned is different from the altitude requested by
the pilot, ATC will inform the pilot when to expect climb or descent clearance or to request
altitude change from another facility. If this has not been received prior to crossing the
boundary of the ATC facility's area and assignment at a different altitude is still desired, the
pilot should reinitiate the request with the next facility.
3. The term “cruise” may be used instead of “MAINTAIN” to assign a block of
airspace to a pilot from the minimum IFR altitude up to and including the altitude specified in
the cruise clearance. The pilot may level off at any intermediate altitude within this block of
airspace. Climb/descent within the block is to be made at the discretion of the pilot. However,
once the pilot starts descent and verbally reports leaving an altitude in the block, the pilot may
not return to that altitude without additional ATC clearance.
e. Holding Instructions:
1. Whenever an aircraft has been cleared to a fix other than the destination airport
and delay is expected, it is the responsibility of the ATC controller to issue complete holding

instructions (unless the pattern is charted), an EFC time, and a best estimate of any additional
en route/terminal delay.
2. If the holding pattern is charted and the controller doesn't issue complete holding
instructions, the pilot is expected to hold as depicted on the appropriate chart. When the pattern
is charted, the controller may omit all holding instructions except the charted holding direction
and the statements AS PUBLISHED, e.g., “HOLD EAST AS PUBLISHED.” Controllers must
always issue complete holding instructions when pilots request them.
3. If no holding pattern is charted and holding instructions have not been issued, the
pilot should ask ATC for holding instructions prior to reaching the fix. This procedure will
eliminate the possibility of an aircraft entering a holding pattern other than that desired by ATC.
If unable to obtain holding instructions prior to reaching the fix (due to frequency congestion,
stuck microphone, etc.), hold in a standard pattern on the course on which you approached the
fix and request further clearance as soon as possible. In this event, the altitude/flight level of the
aircraft at the clearance limit will be protected so that separation will be provided as required.
4. When an aircraft is 3 minutes or less from a clearance limit and a clearance
beyond the fix has not been received, the pilot is expected to start a speed reduction so that the
aircraft will cross the fix, initially, at or below the maximum holding airspeed.
5. When no delay is expected, the controller should issue a clearance beyond the fix
as soon as possible and, whenever possible, at least 5 minutes before the aircraft reaches the
clearance limit.
6. Pilots should report to ATC the time and altitude/flight level at which the aircraft
reaches the clearance limit and report leaving the clearance limit.
(ii) Mention the approximate obstruction clearances requirements of the current airports.
(8)
Ans:
Air traffic is responsible for obstacle clearance when issuing a “descend via” instruction to
the pilot. The descend via is used in conjunction with STARs/RNAV STARs/FMSPs to reduce
phraseology by not requiring the controller to restate the altitude at the next waypoint/fix to
which the pilot has been cleared.
The ILS glide slope is intended to be intercepted at the published glide slope intercept
altitude. This point marks the PFAF and is depicted by the ”lightning bolt” symbol on U.S.
Government charts. Intercepting the glide slope at this altitude marks the beginning of the final
approach segment and ensures required obstacle clearance during descent from the glide slope
intercept altitude to the lowest published decision altitude for the approach.
Terminal Arrival Area (TAA): The TAA provides the pilot and air traffic controller with a
very efficient method for routing traffic into the terminal environment with little required air
traffic control interface, and with minimum altitudes depicted that provide standard obstacle
clearance compatible with the instrument procedure associated with it.
Minimum MSL altitudes are charted within each of these defined areas/subdivisions that
provide at least 1,000 feet of obstacle clearance, or more as necessary in mountainous areas.
Where lower minimum vectoring altitude (MVAs) are required in designated mountainous
areas to achieve compatibility with terminal routes or to permit vectoring to an IAP, 1,000 feet
of obstacle clearance may be authorized with the use of Airport Surveillance Radar (ASR).
The minimum vectoring altitude will provide at least 300 feet above the floor of controlled
airspace.
Visual Segment of a Published Instrument Approach Procedure: Instrument procedures
designers perform a visual area obstruction evaluation off the approach end of each runway
authorized for instrument landing, straight-in, or circling. Since missed approach obstacle
clearance is assured only if the missed approach is commenced at the published MAP or above
the DA/MDA, the pilot should have preplanned climb out options based on aircraft

performance and terrain features. Obstacle clearance is the sole responsibility of the pilot when
the approach is continued beyond the MAP.
Vertical Descent Angle (VDA) on Non-precision Approaches: The pilot must determine
how to best maneuver the aircraft within the circling obstacle clearance area in order to land.
Pilot Operational Considerations When Flying Non-precision Approaches: Pilots must be
especially vigilant when descending below the MDA at locations without VDPs. This does not
necessarily prevent flying the normal angle; it only means that obstacle clearance in the visual
segment could be less and greater care should be exercised in looking for obstacles in the visual
segment.
ILS or RNAV (GPS) charts: Some RNAV (GPS) charts will also contain an ILS line of
minima to make use of the ILS precision final in conjunction with the RNAV GPS capabilities
for the portions of the procedure prior to the final approach segment and for the missed
approach. Obstacle clearance for the portions of the procedure other than the final approach
segment is still based on GPS criteria.
Obstacle clearance is provided to allow a momentary descent below Decision Altitude
(DA) while transitioning from the final approach to the missed approach. The aircraft is
expected to follow the missed instructions while continuing along the published final approach
course to at least the published runway threshold waypoint or MAP (if not at the threshold)
before executing any turns.
Descent to the procedure turn (PT) completion altitude from the PT fix altitude (when
one has been published or assigned by ATC) must not begin until crossing over the PT fix or
abeam and proceeding outbound. Some procedures contain a note in the chart profile view that
says “Maintain (altitude) or above until established outbound for procedure turn”. Newer
procedures will simply depict an “at or above” altitude at the PT fix without a chart note. Both
are there to ensure required obstacle clearance is provided in the procedure turn entry zone.
Obstacle Clearance:
Final approach obstacle clearance is provided from the start of the final segment to the
runway or missed approach point, whichever occurs last. Side-step obstacle protection is
provided by increasing the width of the final approach obstacle clearance area.
Circling approach protected areas are defined by the tangential connection of arcs drawn
from each runway end. The arc radii distance differs by aircraft approach category (see FIG 5-
4-26). Because of obstacles near the airport, a portion of the circling area may be restricted by a
procedural note: e.g., “Circling NA E of RWY 17-35.” Obstacle clearance is provided at the
published minimums (MDA) for the pilot who makes a straight-in approach, side-steps, or
circles. Once below the MDA the pilot must see and avoid obstacles. Executing the missed
approach after starting to maneuver usually places the aircraft beyond the MAP. The aircraft is
clear of obstacles when at or above the MDA while inside the circling area, but simply joining
the missed approach ground track from the circling maneuver may not provide vertical obstacle
clearance once the aircraft exits the circling area. Additional climb inside the circling area may
be required before joining the missed approach track. Missed Approach, for additional
considerations when starting a missed approach at other than the MAP.
Precision Obstacle Free Zone (POFZ): A volume of airspace above an area beginning at
the runway threshold, at the threshold elevation, and centered on the extended runway
centerline. The POFZ is 200 feet (60m) long and 800 feet (240m) wide. The POFZ must be
clear when an aircraft on a vertically guided final approach is within 2 nautical miles of the
runway threshold and the reported ceiling is below 250 feet or visibility less than 3/4 statute
mile (SM) (or runway visual range below 4,000 feet). If the POFZ is not clear, the MINIMUM
authorized height above touchdown (HAT) and visibility is 250 feet and 3/4 SM. The POFZ is
considered clear even if the wing of the aircraft holding on a taxiway waiting for runway
clearance penetrates the POFZ; however, neither the fuselage nor the tail may infringe on the
POFZ. The POFZ is applicable at all runway ends including displaced thresholds.
Circling Minimums: In some busy terminal areas, ATC may not allow circling and circling
minimums will not be published. Published circling minimums provide obstacle clearance when
pilots remain within the appropriate area of protection. Pilots should remain at or above the
circling altitude until the aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a landing
on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers.
Circling may require maneuvers at low altitude, at low airspeed, and in marginal weather
conditions. Pilots must use sound judgment, have an in-depth knowledge of their capabilities,
and fully understand the aircraft performance to determine the exact circling maneuver since
weather, unique airport design, and the aircraft position, altitude, and airspeed must all be
considered.
The published missed approach procedure provides obstacle clearance only when the
missed approach is conducted on the missed approach segment from or above the missed
approach point, and assumes a climb rate of 200 feet/NM or higher, as published.
7. (i) Explain the four elements of the RADAR control and non RADAR control with the
help of a neat sketch. (8)
Ans:
Refer Question No. 20 in Part B Ques and Ans.
(ii) An option is given either to improve an existing airport on to develop a new airport.
What will be the governing considerations? (8)
Ans:
Increase of airport and airspace capacity
Increase of airport and airspace ACI RECOMMENDED PRACTICE /

capacity ACI POLICY COMMENT
1. ACI believes that technical and 1. The capacity of a given airport and runway system
operational means should be is determined by many factors, such as airfield
developed to improve airport and layout, the air traffic control system and its
airspace capacity at existing management, the type and mix of aircraft, traffic
facilities, as well as the building of peaking, weather conditions, environmental
new capacity considerations, etc. Some of these factors can be
ACI supports closer cooperation accurately assessed, while others are site specific,
with ANSPs to develop better very difficult to quantify and subject to rapid change.
models, tools and procedures to In order to make realistic judgments and
determine capacity comparisons with regard to capacity, there would
ACI considers that a useful have to be universal agreement on the specific details
measure of the performance of of each factor and, since there are so many variables,
airports or airspace management it is doubtful whether any uniform operational
can be derived from a careful measurement of potential capacity could be
assessment of delay information. developed.
Measurement and analysis of runway occupancy and
pilot performance may also be appropriate. Runway
occupancy should be defined as in 5.11.4 below.
Improvements in system capacity cannot be achieved
by any one sector acting in isolation. The air
transport industry must work in close cooperation
with governments, regulatory agencies and air
navigation service providers to achieve the full
capacity potential of existing facilities and to
enhance them, where possible, through the adoption
of new technologies and enhancements to procedures
which permit higher movement rates in a safe
operational manner. In addition, major initiatives
will be necessary to develop new facilities required
for airports to meet growing demand. New
technologies and practices which provide the means
of increasing capacity should be assessed and
implemented whenever there is proven economic
benefit.
2. ACI supports the further 2. ACI strongly supports accelerated deployment of
development and the introduction the Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS),
of ICAO’s CNS/ATM including related Augmentation Systems and
(Communications, Navigation procedures to support precision approach and
and Surveillance/Air Traffic landing capability, and thereby optimize system
Management) systems concept, as capacity.
well as the continued use of the ACI supports equipage of aircraft with Multi-Mode
Instrument Landing System Receivers (MMR) to enable aircraft so equipped to
where essential, until its operate flexibly during the transition period from
replacement by new precision existing precision approach and landing systems to
approach and landing systems. new systems, regardless of the system deployed at a
particular airport to support all-weather operations.
ACI supports the development of standard criteria for
certificating procedures using GNSS, as already
developed for RNP/ RNAV.
These may enable more flexibility in SIDS and
STARS, including curved approaches, which may
assist in noise mitigation
3. ACI supports further research programmes and activities aimed at mitigating the
effect of wake vortices, in order to reduce aircraft separations while maintaining safety.
4. To minimize runway 4. ACI encourages the appropriate location along
occupancy times by aircraft, the runways of rapid exit and access taxiways whose
runway and taxiway design complies with ICAO specifications and whose
infrastructure should be layout does not increase the risk of runway
optimized, including studies of incursions.

elements such as the optimal Runway occupancy time is an increasingly important
location of rapid exit and access factor in determining airport capacity.
taxiways and their lighting and Another important factor in minimizing runway
marking. occupancy time is the maintenance of adequate
runway surface friction characteristics
To improve airport and airspace capacity, simultaneous operations on parallel or near-
parallel instrument runways should be considered as a means of optimizing the use of new
or existing parallel runways. ACI POLICY
5. ACI supports all efforts to 5. ACI encourages the ICAO work programme to
achieve simultaneous operations evaluate the use of GNSS for the purpose of
on parallel or near-parallel supporting simultaneous operations on close-spaced
instrument runways under visual parallel instrument runways.
and instrument meteorological
conditions which are consistent
with operational safety and
efficiency.
6. At airports with intersecting 6. SIRO should be performed only when the
runways, to enhance capacity necessary safety measures are effective, for instance
Simultaneous Intersecting as proposed in the ICAO European Air Navigation
Runway Operations (SIRO) may Plan (EANP). SIRO may include both take-offs
be allowed following appropriate (intersection take-offs, multiple line-ups) and
hazard analysis and risk landings (Land and Hold Short – LAHSO)
assessment
8. Write in detail on air transportation in India with special references to the civil aviation
department
Ans:
“Aerodrome Reference Code or Special References to Civil Aviation” means a code used for
planning purposes to classify an aerodrome with respect to the critical aircraft characteristics for
which the aerodrome is intended;
AERODROME FACILITY REFERENCE CODE:
1 – The aerodrome facility reference code, also to be known as the aerodrome reference
code, is a two-element, alpha-numeric notation (for example 1B, 3C) derived from the critical
aeroplane for that aerodrome facility. The code number is based on the aeroplane reference field
length and the code letter is based on the aeroplane wing span and the outer main gear wheel span.
As detailed below, a single element may sometimes suffice.
2 – The aerodrome reference code provides a method of grouping aeroplanes with different
characteristics (eg. wing span, outer main gear wheel span, approach speed and all-up mass) which
behave similarly when landing, taking-off or taxying. This, in turn, enables standards for aerodrome
facilities such as runways to be set in terms of a small number of aeroplane groups, rather than
individually for a large number of separate aeroplanes. The task of the standard setting authority
and of the aerodrome operator is thus simplified.
3 – As the aerodrome reference code notation is derived from aeroplane and not aerodrome
indicate their suitability for use by specific groups of aeroplanes. Thus at the same aerodrome there
may exist, for example, a code 4E runway, a code 1A runway, a code C taxiway and a code 2
runway strip ( a single element sufficing in the latter case).
4 – In many cases to determine the appropriate design standard for an aerodrome facility, it
is necessary first to identify the aeroplanes for which the facility is intended, and then to determine
the aerodrome reference code notation for the most critical of these aeroplanes. The particular

standard for the facility is then related to the more demanding of the two criteria (the number or the
letter) or to an appropriate combination of both.
5 – The code number for the critical aeroplane is to be determined from Table 7–1 by
entering the aeroplane reference field length and reading off the corresponding code number.
6 – The code letter for an aeroplane is to be obtained from Table 7–2 by deriving the code
letter applicable to the wing span, and separately deriving the code letter applicable to the outer
main gear wheel span. The code letter to be used is the more senior of these letters where A is the
junior.
7 – The general dimensions, of a typical aeroplane, are shown in the diagrams below.
8 – A list of representative aeroplanes operating in Australia and others, chosen to provide an

example of each possible aerodrome reference code number and letter combination, is shown in the
table below (sample only). For a particular aeroplane the table also provides data on the aeroplane
reference field length (ARFL), wing span and outer main gear wheel span used in determining the
aerodrome reference code. For aerodrome planning purposes, data is also provided on the overall
aeroplane length, maximum take-off weight and tyre pressure of main wheel tyres. It should be noted
that the data provided is indicative only, for instance, factors such as engine type or flap settings can
result in a different aeroplane reference field length. Exact values of a particular aeroplane’s
performance characteristics should be obtained from information published by the aeroplane
manufacturer
9. Write short notes on :

(i) Airway aids and terminal aids (8)
Ans:
Airway aids: In the early days of flight, there were no navigation aids to help pilots find
their way. Pilots flew by looking out of their cockpit window for visual landmarks or by using
automobile road maps. These visual landmarks or maps were fine for daytime, but airmail operated
around the clock. In 1919 - bonfires and the first artificial beacons to help with night navigation. By
July 1923, Bruner's ideas for lighted airport boundaries, spot-lit windsocks, and rotating beacons on
towers had taken hold. Beginning in 1923, the Post Office worked to complete a transcontinental
airway of beacons on towers spaced 15 to 25 miles (24 to 40 kilometers) apart, each with enough
brightness, or candlepower, to be seen for 40 miles (64 kilometers) in clear weather. Each tower
had site numbers painted on it for daytime identification. At night, the beacons flashed in a certain
sequence so that pilots could match their location to the printed guide that they carried. Besides the
rotating beacon, one fixed tower light pointed to the next field and one to the previous tower,
forming an aerial roadway. Official and emergency fields were lit with green lights while
dangerous fields were marked with red.
Established minimum lighting requirements for all airmail stations: a 500-watt revolving
searchlight, projecting a beam parallel to the ground to guide pilots; another searchlight projecting
into the wind to show the proper approach;
The use of lighted airways allowed pilots to fly at night, but pilots still needed to maintain
visual contact with the ground. A really useful air system demanded two-way voice communication
and the ability to find out about changing weather conditions while in flight. Pilots could only
receive weather information and details about other planes in the air just before takeoff. If
conditions changed while flying, the ground had no way to warn them. A pilot, too, had no way of
communicating with the ground.
The Aeronautics Branch stepped up installation of four-course radio ranges, and this
technology became standard for civil air navigation through World War II.
Pilot to use only aircraft instrument guidance to take off, fly a set course, and land. He used
the four-course radio range and radio marker beacons to indicate his distance from the runway. An
altimeter displayed his altitude, and a directional gyroscope with artificial horizon helped him
control his aircraft's orientation, called attitude, without seeing the ground. These technologies
became the basis for many future developments in navigation.
First ultrahigh-frequency radio range system for scheduled airline navigation, eventually
expanding use of such equipment.
Advances in radio very high frequency (VHF) omni-directional radio range (VOR) that
allowed pilots to navigate by watching a dial on their instrument panel rather than by listening to
the radio signal.
The FAA began using distance-measuring equipment on its entire system. This equipment
allowed aircraft to determine their distance from known checkpoints in order to confirm their
position. The first Doppler radar version of the VOR system made it more accurate for longer
distances.
The FAA participated with the National Aeronautics and Space Administration in the first
public demonstration of a new system in March 1967 that would use orbiting satellites to transmit
navigation data from aircraft to ground stations. The test was followed by further development of
aircraft antennas to send and receive satellite messages.
In October 1969, 16 area navigation routes were developed. Previously, pilots had flown
directly toward or away from the ground-based radio navigation aid (a VOR or VORTAC). This
aid transmitted a course along invisible lines called radials. With area navigation, pilots could fly
any pre-selected flight path roughly within the boundaries of that local system while an onboard
computer tracked and reported the aircraft's position. Courses could be established along the
shortest path within these route segments.
Navigation aids, the computers supporting the system, and cockpit displays and instruments
to send and receive navigation data all improved steadily.
Additional navigation technologies are in partial use or development, including the Global
Positioning System both to locate and help control aircraft by satellite, the Future Air Navigation
System for remote and oceanic flights, and the Communication, Navigation and Surveillance for
Air Traffic Management system. These technologies combine the need for point-to-point
navigation and for higher quality voice and data communication with the need for air traffic
control--the safe separation of aircraft from hazards and other aircraft.
Terminal aids: an airfield equipped with control tower and hangars as well as
accommodations for passengers and cargo. An airport (terminal) is a location where aircraft such as
fixed-wing aircraft, helicopters, and blimps take off and land. Aircraft may be stored or maintained
at an airport. An airport consists of at least one surface such as a runway for a plane to take off and
land, a helipad, or water for takeoffs and landings, and often includes buildings such as control
towers, hangars and terminal buildings.
Area Control Centres (ACCs): Area Control Centres provide air traffic control,
information services and alerting services for aircraft within a designated area. ACCs normally
divide their assigned airspace into sectors that are controlled by a controller or team of controllers.
Control services are provided through a combination of radar, information technology,
voice communication and highly skilled personel applying strict and proven separation criteria and
procedures; to ensure safe, consistent separation and orderly, efficient flow of traffic from origin to
destination. NAV CANADA operates 7 Area Control Centres in Gander, Moncton, Montreal,
Toronto, Winnipeg, Edmonton, and Vancouver.

Air Traffic Control Towers (ATCs) : Air Traffic Controllers working in Control Towers
provide pilots approaching and departing busy airports with clearances and instructions to ensure
their aircraft have sufficient separation (horizontal, lateral, and vertical distance from each other).
Tower controllers also provide flight information to aircraft operating within designated
airspace around their airports. At busier airports monitoring of ground movements is enhanced
through ground surveillance radar systems. NAV CANADA operates 41 control towers across the
country.
Flight Service Stations (FSSs): Flight Service Stations (FSS) provide resources for flight
planning, access to briefings on weather and other preflight information, aeronautical information,
enroute and airport advisory services, vehicle control services, monitoring of navaids, VHF/DF
assistance and alerting of Search and Rescue centres for overdue aircraft. NAV CANADA has 58
Flight Service Stations.
Flight Information Centres (FICs): FICs centralize the provision of those flight
information services that are not location dependent, providing pilots with efficient, seamless flight
planning, enroute services and better access to flight information services. They are a one-stop shop
for flight planning and in-depth interpretive weather briefings provided by qualified specialists,
using the latest computer and communications technology. Services are offered pre-flight and en
route.
Aerodrome Radio Stations (ARS): Aerodrome Radio Stations provide aviation weather and
communications services at designated sites. These facilities are equipped with meteorological
instruments for monitoring and recording aviation surface weather, and communications equipment
for providing operational information to pilots. They are operated by observers/communicators who
are usually recruited locally.
Remote Communications Outlets (RCOs) and Remote Aerodrome Advisory Services
(RAAS): Remote Communications Outlets are remote transmitters/receivers set up to extend the
communications capabilities of FSS stations. They allow Flight Service Specialists to provide some
flight information services to remote areas and aerodromes without a staffed NAV CANADA
facility. When an RCO is used to provide airport advisory services at a remote aerodrome, the
service is referred to as a Remote Aerodrome Advisory Service (RAAS).
Landing and Navigational Aids: Landing Aids and Related Facilities directly support
aircraft and assist during departure, en-route, and arrival. The Instrument Landing System (ILS) is
the primary international precision approach system approved by ICAO. It provides navigational
guidance signals and information on a cockpit display which guides pilots to the point of landing in
reduced visibility.
Radio Navigation Facilities: Radio Navigation Facilities are installed on defined flight
tracks for use in the enroute phase of flight, or at aerodromes where they can be used to perform
non-precision approaches under IFR conditions. Normally two or more types of Navigational Aids
(NAVAIDS) are co-located at a site to provide a combination of functions and to ensure reliability.
Non-directional radio beacons (NDB) transmit on a low frequency a non-directional radiation
pattern. Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) responds to aircraft queries to provide cockpit
display of the distance to the DME facility from a suitably equipped aircraft. VHF Omni-
Directional Range/Distance Measuring Equipment is a ground-based, short-distance radio aid
which provides continuous azimuth information in the form of 360 usable radials TO or FROM a
station. It serves as the basis for most of the civil airways structure. The Tactical Air Navigation
System is used to define the azimuth lines between the aircraft and the transmitter, and also the
distance from the aircraft to the transmitter. TACAN is supplied by the military and operated and
maintained.
RAMP Radar Site Equipment - The air navigation system uses radar surveillance for both
terminal and enroute control.
Airport Surface Detection Equipment (ASDE) – At six airports surface aircraft and
vehicle traffic is monitored during periods of reduced visibility through the use of Airport Surface
Detection Equipment (ASDE) radar.
(ii) External aids and internal aids (8)
Ans:
ATC requires various types of navigational surveillance and communication equipment-
both in the cockpit and on the ground. The technologies involve while widely used are fairly
complex and training in their use, maintenance and repair is not trivial.
Aids to aerial navigation can be broadly classified into two groups: 1. those that are located
on the ground (external aids) and 2. Those installed in the cockpit (internal aids). Some aids are
designed primarily for flying over oceans: other aids are only applicable to fight over land masses:
and finally there are aids that can be used over either land or water. Some aids are used only during
en-route portion of the flight while other aids are necessary in terminal areas near airports.
The principal aids for ATC are voice communications and radar. The controller monitors
the separation between aircraft by means of radar and instructs the pilot by means of voice
communication. The following are some of the internal and external aids for aviation or aerodrome
operation.
External Aids:
Airport Lighting
The majority of airports have some type of lighting for night operations. The variety and
type of lighting systems depends on the volume and complexity of operations at a given airport.
Airport lighting is standardized so that airports use the same light colors for runways and taxiways.
Airport Beacon
Airport beacons help a pilot identify an airport at night. The beacons are operated from dusk till
dawn. Sometimes they are turned on if the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet and/or the ground visibility
is less than 3 statute miles (VFR minimums). However, there is no requirement for this, so a pilot
has the responsibility of determining if the weather meets VFR requirements. The beacon has a
vertical light distribution to make it most effective from 1–10° above the horizon, although it can
be seen well above or below this spread. The beacon may be an omni-directional capacitor-
discharge device, or it may rotate at a constant speed, which produces the visual effect of flashes at
regular intervals. The combination of light colors from an airport beacon indicates the type of
airport. Some of the most common beacons are:
• Flashing white and green for civilian land airports;
• Flashing white and yellow for a water airport;
• Flashing white, yellow, and green for a heliport; and
• Two quick white flashes alternating with a green flash identifying a military airport.
Approach Light Systems
Approach light systems are primarily intended to provide a means to transition from
instrument flight to visual flight for landing. The system configuration depends on whether the
runway is a precision or non-precision instrument runway. Some systems include sequenced
flashing lights, which appear to the pilot as a ball of light traveling toward the runway at high
speed. Approach lights can also aid pilots operating under VFR at night.
Visual Glide slope Indicators
Visual glide slope indicators provide the pilot with glide path information that can be used
for day or night approaches. By maintaining the proper glide path as provided by the system, a pilot
should have adequate obstacle clearance and should touch down within a specified portion of the
runway.
Visual Approach Slope Indicator (VASI)
VASI installations are the most common visual glide path systems in use. The VASI provides
obstruction clearance within 10° of the runway extended runway centerline, and to four nautical
miles (NM) from the runway threshold.
The VASI consists of light units arranged in bars. There are 2-bar and 3-bar VASIs. The 2-
bar VASI has near and far light bars and the 3-bar VASI has near, middle, and far light bars. Two-
bar VASI installations provide one visual glide path which is normally set at 3°. The 3-bar system
provides two glide paths; the lower glidepath normally set at 3° and the upper glidepath ¼ degree
above the lower glide path.
The basic principle of the VASI is that of color differentiation between red and white. Each
light unit projects a beam of light, a white segment in the upper part of the beam and a red segment
in the lower part of the beam. The lights are arranged so the pilot sees the combination of lights to
indicate below, on, or above the glide path.
Other Glide path Systems
A precision approach path indicator (PAPI) uses lights similar to the VASI system except
they are installed in a single row, normally on the left side of the runway. A tri-color system
consists of a single light unit projecting a three-color visual approach path. Below the glidepath is
indicated by red, on the glidepath is indicated by green, and above the glidepath is indicated by
amber. When descending below the glidepath, there is a small area of dark amber. Pilots should not
mistake this area for an “above the glidepath” indication.
Pulsating visual approach slope indicators normally consist of a single light unit projecting
a two-color visual approach path into the final approach area of the runway upon which the
indicator is installed. The on glidepath indication is a steady white light. The slightly below
glidepath indication is a steady red light. If the aircraft descends further below the glidepath, the red
light starts to pulsate. The above glidepath indication is a pulsating white light. The pulsating rate
increases as the aircraft gets further above or below the desired glide slope
Obstruction Lights
Obstructions are marked or lighted to warn pilots of their presence during daytime and
nighttime conditions. Obstruction lighting can be found both on and off an airport to identify
obstructions.
Wind Direction Indicators
It is important for a pilot to know the direction of the wind. At facilities with an operating
control tower, this information is provided by ATC. Information may also be provided by FSS
personnel located at a particular airport or by requesting information on a CTAF at airports that
have the capacity to receive and broadcast on this frequency.
Traffic Patterns
At those airports without an operating control tower, a segmented circle visual indicator
system if installed is designed to provide traffic pattern information. Usually located in a position
affording maximum visibility to pilots in the air and on the ground and providing a centralized
location for other elements of the system, the segmented circle consists of the following
components: wind direction indicators, landing direction indicators, landing strip indicators, and
traffic pattern indicators.
The use of one of the external aids (e.g., a kneepad) can reduce the demands of Air Traffic
Control (ATC) communication on pilots’ working memory during routine flight. The use of two
external aids that may vary in ease of coordination: a conventional knee pad and an electronic
notepad, or e-pad.
Internal Aids:
Radio Communications
Operating in and out of a towered airport, as well as in a good portion of the airspace
system, requires that an aircraft have two-way radio communication capability. For this reason, a
pilot should be knowledgeable of radio station license requirements and radio communications
equipment and procedures
ATC Radar Beacon System (ATCRBS)
The ATC radar beacon system (ATCRBS) is often referred to as “secondary surveillance
radar.” This system consists of three components and helps in alleviating some of the limitations
associated with primary radar. The three components are an interrogator, transponder, and

radarscope. The advantages of ATCRBS are the reinforcement of radar targets, rapid target
identification, and a unique display of selected codes.
Transponder
The transponder is the airborne portion of the secondary surveillance radar system and a system
with which a pilot should be familiar. The ATCRBS cannot display the secondary information
unless an aircraft is equipped with a transponder. A transponder is also required to operate in
certain controlled airspace as discussed in Chapter 14, Airspace.
10. Calculate the actual length of the runway from the following data:
Airport Elevation RL 100
Airport reference temperature 28 deg C
Basic length of runway 1600 m
Highest part along the length RL 98.2
Lowest part along the length RL 95.2
Ans:
Refer the answer in Air Transportation and Planning by virendra kumar

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Prof. G.

Prabhakaran AE 2035/ AE 1014 Air Traffic Control and Planning

JEPPIAAR ENGINEERING COLLEGE

AE 2035 AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL AND PLANNING 3 0 0 100

Department of Aeronautical Engineering, Jeppiaar Engineering College 1

ANNA UNIVERSITY QUESTION BANK.

2. What is the role of Air traffic controller in ATC?

4. What is meant by Controlled and Uncontrolled Airspace?

5. What is IFR flight?

6. What is VFR flight?

8. State the objective of ATS.

9. Describe the two basic types of flight rules.

10. What are the tree components of ATC network?

Department of Aeronautical Engineering, Jeppiaar Engineering College 3

12. Mention different categories of Airports

13. Differentiate TRACON and ARTCC

14. State the Airspace Classification followed in India.

Department of Aeronautical Engineering, Jeppiaar Engineering College 4

15. Differentiate between the class D and Class E Airspace.

16. Give the various ATC provision.

Department of Aeronautical Engineering, Jeppiaar Engineering College 5

17. What is meant by ATC Clearance?

18. Give the separation rules followed in vertical airspace.

19. Give the separation rules followed in horizontal airspace.

20. Give the separation rules followed in Lateral Airspace.

22. Explain various parts of Flight plan.

23. Explain the position reports.

Department of Aeronautical Engineering, Jeppiaar Engineering College 7

24. State flight plan.

25. Define RNAV & RNP

Department of Aeronautical Engineering, Jeppiaar Engineering College 8

27. State the separation standards in Secondary radar.

29. Give few basic radar terminologies.

30. What is the basic principle of Radar?

31. How PAR is used to control air traffic?

32. What is primary radar how it is used in identification of aircraft?

33. What is secondary radar how it is used in identification of aircraft?

34. What is a performance check?

35. What is meant by flight advisory service?

Department of Aeronautical Engineering, Jeppiaar Engineering College 11

36. Explain few aerodrome reference codes. .

37. Draw the primary runway used in India. .

TORA - take off run available

38. Give few basic terminology used in aerodrome design. .

40. Give few obstacle restrictions.

41. Give few visual aids for denoting obstacles.

Department of Aeronautical Engineering, Jeppiaar Engineering College 13

Explanation for understanding

43. Give the length of various primary and secondary runways.

Recommended Runway Length

44. What is meant by runway saturation?

45. Define instrument runway.

Explanation for understanding

Department of Aeronautical Engineering, Jeppiaar Engineering College 15

47. Distinguish between ICAO system and Calvert system?

48. What is aerodrome beacon?

49. Explain why Aerodrome beacon lights are required?

50. Draw the lighting system of the runway.

51. Explain the emergency marking denoted by runway lighting.

52. Give the various marking shown in the runway.

53. What are the six groups of the airport markings?

54. What is the visual aid for wind direction?