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1. Estimate the drag force when you swim slowly at 0.1 m/s in water. Model your body
as a cylinder with diameter of 0.3 m and length of 1.7 m, and neglect the drag force on
the two circular surfaces. Water viscosity and density are 0.001 Pa s and 1000 kg/m3.
What is the largest boundary layer thickness? (Hint: think about how to cut the cylinder
and apply the result for a uniform flow past a plate to the present case.)
Solution:
Due to small boundary layer thickness, the surface curvature is not important. Therefore
the Blasius solution can be used.
1.328
C DL =
Re L
A 2
F= ρv∞ C DL
2
1.602
Therefore F = × 1000 × 0.12 × 0.003221 = 0.0258 N
2
Ua /Ub = 3 a / b
Solution
Using the relative motion concept, the fluid flow associated with the moving plate can be
regarded as a uniform past the plate at rest. For the case of laminar boundary layer, one can
use the derived drag coefficient
F/A ν
C DL = = 1.328
ρv ∞ / 2
2
Lv∞
ρv∞2 ν
F= × A × 1.328
2 Lv∞
ρU a2 ν
F= × ab × 1.328 (1)
2 aU a
For the movement parallel to the short side,
ρU b2 ν
F= × ab × 1.328 (2)
2 bU b
Ua /Ub = 3 a / b
3. For a turbulent flow in a smooth circular tube of radius R, the curve-fit function
1/ n
vz r
= 1 −
v z ,max R
is sometimes useful: near Re=4000, n=6, near Re=1.1x105, n=7 and near Re=3.2x106,
n=10. Show that the ratio of average to maximum velocity is
< vz > 2n 2
=
v z ,max ( n + 1)( 2n + 1)
Solution:
R 1/ n
1 r
vz =
πR 2 ∫
0
v z ,max 1 −
R
⋅ 2πrdr
r
Let q = 1 − , r = R(1 − q) , dr = − Rdq
R
R 1/ n 1
r
∫ 1 − ⋅ 2πrdr = 2πR ∫ q1 / n (1 − q)dq
2
0 R 0
1
1 2+
1 1
1+ 1 n2
= 2πR 2 q n− q n = 2πR 2
1+ 1 2+
1 ( n + 1)( 2n + 1)
n n q =0
Therefore
vz 0.79 ( n = 6)
2n 2
= = 0.82 ( n = 7)
v z ,max ( n + 1)( 2n + 1) 0.87 ( n = 10)
Solution:
V1=15 m/s, Vt1= 15 sin 45o =10.61 m/s, Vn1= 15 cos45o = 10.61 m/s
U2=0.2×100=20 m/s
Vrb2=Vn2/sin 60o
(a) If the efficiency of the pump is 70%, how much power is being supplied to the pump?
(b) What is the NPSHA at the pump inlet?
Solution:
V=3 m/s
L=200 m
D=0.05 m
Q=π×0.052×3/4=0.005891 m3/s
Re=ρVD/µ=1000×3×0.05/0.001=1.5×105
For the main loss in the pipe between d and 2, the head is
f V 2L
hf = D (1)
2 gD
where fD is the Darcy friction factor that is 4 times Fanning friction factor. Using an
iteration method to solve the Colebrook eqn
1 e/D 2.51
= −2.0 log + (2)
fD 3.7 Re f D
with e/D=0 yields fD =0.0166. Substituting this value to Eq (1) leads to hf=30.5 m.
V22
H p = z 2 − z1 + h f +
= 27.95 m
2g
Wh = ρgQH p = 1613.6 watt
Wm = Wh / 0.7 = 2305.1 watt
v x = 3 y sin 2 t
v y = 4 x cos 2 t
vz = 0
Solution:
π π π π
1 3y 3y 3y sin 2t 3y
vx =
π ∫ v x dt 3 =
0
π ∫
0
sin 2 tdt =
2π ∫
0
(1 − cos 2t )dt =
2π
1 −
=
2 t =0 2
π π π π
1 4x 2x 2 x sin 2t
vy = ∫ v dt 3 = ∫ cos tdt = ∫ (1 + cos 2t )dt = 1 − = 2x
2
π 0
y
π 0
π 0
π 2 t =0
1
v x ' = v x − v x = 3 y sin 2 t −
2
1
v y ' = v y − v y = 4 x cos 2 t −
2
π π π
1 12 xy 2 1 12 xy 1 2 1
v x ' v y ' = ∫ v x ' v y ' dt = ∫ sin t cos t − dt =
2
∫ sin 2t − dt
π 0 π 0 4 π 0 4 4
π π
3xy 3xy 3xy
=−
π ∫
0
cos 2 2tdt = −
2π ∫
0
(1 + cos 2t )dt = −
2