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2. Mixing must be done at lower speed for semisolid, as some of them many exhibit one of
the following rheological behavior.
A. Dilatants flow C. Pseudo plastic flow
B. Plastic flow D. Thixotropy
4. When paddle is used for mixing of liquids, the flow pattern of a fluid is;
A. Axial and tangential C. radial and tangential
B. Axial or tangential D. radial or tangential
5. Which of the following forces aids the tumbling action for promoting inter-particle
movement
A. Electrostatic force C. Surface force
B. Gravitational force D. Van der walls force
7. In dispensing, which one of the following terms is NOT used for mixing?
A. Sizing C. Trituration
B. Spatulation D. Tumbling
8. Solid mixing does NOT differ from liquid mixing in one of the following ways.
A. Flow currents are not possibles
B. Homogeneity of components
C. Large sample is required for analysis
D. Mixing requires high power
10. Uneven mixing leads one of the following problems in tablets manufacture.
A. Content uniformity variation
B. Disintegration time fluctuates
C. Friability problems
D. Poor flow of granules
12. Which one of these is NOT a factor influencing the selection of emulsifier?
A. Conductivity of liquids
B. Quantity of emulsion to be prepared
C. Rheological properties of liquids
D. Temperature maintenance
13. Silverson mixer is used for the preparation of:
A. Elixir C. Mouth wash
B. Emulsion D. Syrup
16. Which type of action is required for wet granulation, when planetary mixer is used?
A. Agitator action C. Kneading action
B. Blending action D. Shearing action
20. Mixing of semisolids is carried out using one of the following equipment.
A. Double cone mixer C. Planetary mixer
B. Fluidized bed mixer D. Cube mixer
4. Which one of the properties is responsible for the use of mercury in manometers?
A. High surface tension
B. High vapour pressure
C. Low specific gravity
D. Low vapour pressure
6. Which one of the following experiments is used for the study of flow of fluids?
A. Bernoulis C. Reynolds
B. Orifice meter D. strokes
9. Pressure at a point in a static mass of liquid depends on one of the following factors.
A. Depth below the free liquid surface
B. Shape and size of bounding container
C. Specific weight of liquid and depth below the free liquid surface
D. Specific weight of liquid, depth below the free liquid surface and shape and size
of the bounding container
10. Reynolds number may be defined as the ratio of the following factore.
A. Elastic forces to pressure forces
B. Gravity forces to inertial forces
C. Inertial forces to viscous forces
D. Viscous forces to inertial forces
11. In the flow of fluids ,the inertial forces depend on one of the following.
A. Mass
B. Mass and velocity
C. Mass, velocity and density
D. Mass, velocity, density and velocity
12. Measurement of time of flow is important for the determination of flow of fluids in one
of the following.
A. Displacement meter
B. Orifice meter
C. Rotameter
D. Venture meter
14. Which one of the following does NOT require manometer in the construction of flow
meters.
A. Orifice meter
B. Piot tube
C. Rotameter
D. Venture meter
15. Which one of these is having a single tapered section for the measurement of flow of
fluids?
A. Orifice meter
B. Pitot tube
C. Rotameter
D. Venture meter
16. Which one of the following uses a thin plate for the measurement of flow of fluids?
A. Orifice meter
B. Pitot tube
C. Rotameter
D. Venture meter
17. Displacement meter is used to measure one of the following.
A. Head loss of liquid
B. Velocity of liquid
C. Volume of liquid
D. Weight of liquid
18. Which one of the following is NOT covered under the definition of fluids?
A. Gases C. solids
B. Liquids D. Vapour
19. Which one of the following factors is responsible for frictional factor, f, of a rough pipe
and turbulent flow?
A. Relative roughness
B. Reynolds number
C. Reynolds number and relative roughness
D. Size of the pipe and the discharge
20. The fluid flow in which the fluid particles in one layer do not mix with the fluid particles
in the other layer is called as
A. laminar flow
B. turbulent flow
C. layer flow
D. none of the above
21. If the Reynolds number is less than 2000, the flow in a pipe is
A. Turbulent
B. Laminar
C. Transition
D. Viscous flow
Size Reduction
1. Choose the mill that does NOT involve shearing mechanism for size reduction.
A. Fluid energy mill
B. Edge runner mill
C. End runner mill
D. Hammer mill
2. Size reduction of materials has one of the following disadvantages.
A. High degradation
B. High dissolution
C. High flow of materials
D. High surface area
3. Which one of the following sequences is involved in the mechanisms of size reduction?
A. Chipping and cracks
B. Chipping and flaws
C. Chipping, flaws and cracks
D. Chipping, flaws, cracks and cleavage
4. Which mechanism is observed in a ball mill for size reduction?
A. Attrition and cutting
B. Compression and impact
C. Cutting and compression
D. Impact and attrition
5. Which milll includes a screen as an integral part of the size reduction?
A. Ball mill
B. Colloidal mill
C. Edge runner mill
D. Hammer mill
6. Which one of the following is not true in case of construction of hammer mill?
A. Hammers are flat or sharp edges
B. Hammer are rigid or swing type
C. Metal sheet with holes or slots
D. Woven type of screen
7. Fluid energy mill is also known as
A. Micronizers
B. Jet mill
C. Pulverizers
D. Pebble mill
8. End runner mill works on the principle of
A. Crushing and friction
B. Cutting and attrition
C. Crushing and shearing
D. Crushing and grinding
9. This mill do not have any moving part in the grinding area:
A. Disintegrator mill
B. Hammer mill
C. Colloid mill
D. Fluid energy mill
10. Which of following mill is free from wear?
A. Ball mill
B. Roller mill
C. Edge runner mill
D. Fluid energy mill
11. In Ball mill, how much volume should be occupied by material:
A. 10-30%
B. 5-20%
C. 50-70%
D. 30-50%
A. 8 micron or less
B. 6 micron or less
C. 5 micron or less
D. 3 micron or less
13. Which of the following is NOT a method used for size reduction?
A. Cutting
B. Impact
C. Burning
D. Shear
A. Energy Consumed
B. Surface area created
C. Final Volume
D. Initial feed
A. Cumulative analysis
B. Frequency analysis
C. Stress analysis
D. Screen analysis
16. The ratio of initial particle size to final particle size is defined as _____
A. Reduction ratio
B. Kick’s ratio
C. Rittingers ratio
D. Bond’s ratio
A. Increases
B. Remains constant
C. Equals
D. Decreases
19. The output of size reduction of material in a machine depends on:
A. Chemical nature
B. Physical characteristics
C. Bulk density
D. All of the above
20. which one of the following is NOT a size reduction process?
A. Clarification
B. Communition
C. Diminution
D. Pulverization
Size Separation
1. Size separation is NOT based on one of the following properties.
A. Particle density
B. Particle Shape
C. Particle size
D. Particle Texture
2. Which one of the screen is used for size separation of big and heavy particles?
A. Bar screens
B. Blotting cloth sieves
C. Punched plate screens
D. Woven wire screens
3. In cyclone separator, the separation depends on:
A. Density and Shape
B. Shape and Surface area
C. Size and Density
D. Surface Texture and Size
4. During size separation, movement of particles can be enhanced by one of the following modes.
A. Agitation
B. Attrition
C. Gravitation
D. Mixing
5. In Air separator, centrifugal force for circulation of air is applied by one of the following ways.
A. Applying Vacuum
B. Atomizing air
C. Pumping
D. Rotating blades
6. Choose the equipment in which filtering period and shaking period are alternatively observed.
A. Air separation
B. Bag filter
C. Cyclone separator
D. Sieve shaker
7. Choose one of the following statements do NOT suit sieve shaker
A. Aperture get clogged
B. Attrition causing size reduction
C. Lower limit of particle size is 50 micrometer
D. Method is tedius
8. size classifying is also known in one of the following terms
A. size analysis
B. size distribution
C. size reduction
D. size separation
9. which is the term used to describe the material that remain on the screening surface
A. medium size material
B. over size material
C. minus material
D. undersize material
10. which equipment is used for separation of solid suspended in fluid
A. sieve shaker
B. air separator
C. cyclone separator
D. vertex screen
11. Which one of the screen is attached to the Hammer mill.
A. Bar screens
B. Bolting cloth sieves
C. Punched plate screens
D. Woven wire screens
12. Which one of the following indicates the nominal size of aperture?
A. Area of the mesh as percentage
B. Distance b/w two adjacent wire
C. Number of meshes per linear length
D. Wire having specific diameter that gives suitable aperture.
13. Brushing methods hastens the movement of one of the following materials
A. Coarse material
B. Dry material
C. Sticky material
D. Light material
14. Flywheel is used to enhance the spinning motion of particles by one of the following modes.
A. Brushing mode
B. Gyration mode
C. Centrifugal mode
D. Oscillation mode
15. Which equipment is used for sieve analysis according to its particle size with nest.
A. cyclone separator
B. Sieve shaker
C. Air separator
D. Rotex screen
16. Which is the disadvantages of Sieve shaker method
A. Rapid
B. Capacity limited
C. Expensive equipment
D. Tedious
17. which is the term used to describe the material that passing from the screening surface
A. medium size material
B. over size material
C. minus material
D. undersize material
18. Choose the equipment in which low density of fine particle and high density of coarse particle are
separated?
A. Air separator
B. Bag filter
C. Elutriation method / tank
D. Cyclone separator
19. Which is the sieve number used to separate the moderately fine particle according to B.P
A. 10
B. 85
C. 120
D. 44
20. Which particle/ powder it is referred as 10/44 powder.
A. Coarse particle
B. fine particle
C. Moderately coarse particle
D. Very fine particle
21. Which particle/ powder it is referred as 44/85 powder.
A. Coarse particle
B. Moderately fine particle
C. Fine particle
D. Very fine particle
22. Which is the sieve number used to separate the Very fine particle according to B.P
A. 120
B. 10
C. 44
D. 85
23. Which one of the following disadvantages of oscillation method of size separation.
A. Agitation method have lower limit of the particle size
B. Expensive
C. The material may roll on the surface of the sieve
D. Useful for only fine powder
24. What is the distance b/w the number of mesh in each direction?
A. 25.3 mm
B. 25.7 mm
C. 25.9 mm
D. 25.4 mm
25. Choose the material is NOT used for the manufacturing of sieves
A. Iron
B. Silver
C. Copper
D. Stainless steel
Evaporation
1. Which one of the following condition is correct for evaporation?
A. Constituents must be thermo labile
B. Liquid must be viscous
C. Solvent must be non-volatile
D. Solvent must volatile
3. Which is the factor that does not influence the rate of evaporation?
A. Difference in vapour pressure
B. Melting point of solid
C. Surface area of the evaporator
D. Viscosity of the solution
4. Which type of equipment gives porous on evaporation?
A. Film evaporator
B. Multiple effect evaporator
C. Open pan evaporator
D. Vacuum evaporator
7. The cost per square meter of heating surface is usually high in one of the evaporators.
A. Horizontal tube evaporator
B. Falling film evaporator
C. Steam jacketed kettle
D. Vertical tube evaporator
10. In equation ,Q=UA∆t ,U is overall heat transfer coefficient and its unit are:
A. W/m²xk
B. m²x K/W
C. W/m x k²
D. m x K²/W
13. Triple effect evaporator uses one of the following type evaporators?
A. Climbing film evaporator
B. Falling film evaporator
C. Horizontal tube evaporator
D. Vertical tube evaporator
16. Which condition of evaporation is used for the production of malt extraction
A. Atmospheric pressure
B. High pressure
C. Normal pressure
D. Reduced pressure
17. Dry extraction of belladonna is prepared by exposing the material to one of the following
condition
A. First to higher temperature and then to lower temperature
B. First to lower temperature and then to higher temperature
C. Higher temperature
D. Lower temperature
18. Steam side film coefficient are increased by one of the following method.
A. Condensing liquid at low temperature
B. Decreasing the velocity of liquid
C. Non-condensed gas in steam should be minimum
D. Temperature drop should be small
19. From the following, select the one that forms scales in a evaporator.
A. Benzoic acid
B. Calcium sulphate
C. Salicylic acid
D. Sodium chloride
20. Which one the following is more heat sensitive during evaporation?
A. Alkaloids
B. Glycosides
C. Hormones
D. Volatile oils
21. Which type of evaporator is suitable for thermo labile substance and highly viscous preparations?
A. Forced circulation evaporator
B. Horizontal tube evaporator
C. Short tube vertical evaporator
D. Steam jacketed kettle
22. Select the preferable evaporator suitable for corrosive liquid that gives a crystalline products.
A. Falling film evaporator
B. Forced circulation evaporator
C. Horizontal film evaporator
D. Vertical evaporator
23. Normally evaporation process is called out at one of the following experimental conditions.
A. Above the boiling temperature
B. At the boiling temperature
C. Below the boiling temperature
D. Room temperature
Drying
1. Drying is essential after one of the following unit operation.
A. Crystallization
B. Evaporation
C. Mixing
D. Size reduction
2. For mixing the effective drying conditions, which processing factors is essential ?
A. Height
B. Humidity
C. Pressure
D. Weight
3. At a given temperature and humidity, if the moisture content of a material is greater than
equilibrium moisture content, then the following process tales place.
A. Absorption
B. Adsorption
C. Desorption
D. Sorption
4. Fluidized bed dryer has one of the following advantages?
A. Attrition is not observed
B. Entire material is continuously exposed to heat source
C. Fluffy mass is formed
D. Humidity can be increased
5. Which one of the following dryers is known as lyophiliser?
A. Fluidized bed dryer
B. Freeze dryer
C. Spray dryer
D. Vacuum dryer
6. Which product is NOT dried by spary dryer?
A. Bacterial and viral cultures
B. Fruit juice
C. Lactose
D. Serum
7. Hot spot are formed during one of the following drying periods?
A. Constant rate periods
B. First falling periods
C. Initial readjustment periods
D. Second falling periods
8. Drying process takes long time in one of the following equipment.
A. Drum dryer
B. Fluidized bed dryer
C. Spray dryer
D. Tray dryer
9. The product becomes porous, when the following equipment for drying is used.
A. Drum dryer
B. Fluidized bed dryer
C. Spray dryer
D. Tray dryer
10. Thermo labile substances can NOT be dried using one of the following equipment.
A. Drum dryer
B. Lyophilizer
C. Spray dryer
D. Tray dryer
11. In drying process, the final product is in the form of:
A. Slurry
B. Solid
C. Solution
D. Solvent concentrate
12. Which condition is highly critical for drying operation?
A. Moisture
B. Pressure
C. Temperature
D. Volume
13. High vaccum is applied in one of the following drying processes?
A. Drum drying
B. Freeze drying
C. Spray drying
D. Tray drying
14. In a fluidized bed dryer, a pre filter is included for filtering one of the following.
A. Air
B. Fines
C. Moisture
D. Particles
15. After the unsaturated drying is completed------------- start to evaporate?
A. Bound
B. Unbound
C. Equilibrium
D. Moisture
16. Boiling bed” term is connected with one of the following dryer
A. Drum dryer
B. Fluidized bed dryer
C. Spray dryer
D. Tray dryer
17. In which dryer final container such as single dose and multi dose vials are dried.
A. Drum dryer
B. Fluidized bed dryer
C. Freeze dryer
D. Tray dryer
18. In a spray dryer, the particle size is closely controlled by one of the following part of the dryer.
A. Atomizer
B. Cyclone separator
C. Drying chamber
D. Fluid bed
19. For drying blood plasma the following technique is used.
A. Vaccum dryer
B. Fluidized bed dryer
C. Freeze dryer
D. Tray dryer
20. In which step of the freeze dryer, most of the water is removed during drying?
A. Prefreezing
B. Pretreatment
C. Primary drying
D. Secondary drying
FILTRATION
1. Filtration is a unit operation that is commonly used for collecting
A. Filtrate
B. Particular matter
C. Precipitate
D. Slurry
2. In clarification process, which is the factor more important?
A. Depth of the media
B. Pore size of the filter media
C. Surface area of filter
D. Volume of slurry
3. Who has proposed that the filtration process is similar to the streamline flow of a liquid under
pressure through capillaries?
A. Carman
B. Darcy
C. Kozeny
D. Poiseuilli
4. The fluid flows through the filter medium by virtue of:
A. Potential difference across the filter
B. Pressure difference across the filter
C. Temperature difference across the filter
D. Volume difference across the filter
5. Filter ads are mainly used when:
A. Liquid id required as product
B. Filter medium is not available
C. Solid and liquid are required as product
D. Solids are required as product
6. On what aspect of pressure does the filter leaf works?
A. Atmospheric pressure
B. Negative pressure
C. Normal pressure
D. Pressure is zero
7. Which one the following is NOT a mechanism of filtration?
A. Entanglement
B. Impact
C. Impingement
D. Straining
8. Cellulose membrane filter is an example for which type of filtration?
A. Cake filtration
B. Decantation filtration
C. Depth filtration
D. Screen filtration
9. Which of the following acts as a mechanical support for the filter cake and is also responsible for
the collection of solids?
A. Feed
B. Filter aid
C. Filter medium
D. Funnel
10. The efficiency of filtration increases if:
A. Compressibility of solid is high
B. Filter aid is added to the slurry
C. Filter medium is used
D. Size distribution of solids is wide in slurry
11. Which is the operation that is next to filtration?
A. Centrifugation of filtrate
B. Distillation of filtrate
C. Drying of solids
D. Washing of filter cake
12. One of the following equation is used for explaining the theory of filtration?
A. Darcy’s equation
B. Stefan-Boltzmann equation
C. Stokes equation
D. Daltons equation
13. For sterile filtration, one the following techniques is used
A. Cake filtration
B. Depth filtration
C. Electrostatic filtration
D. Surface filtration
14. Which one of the following is NOT an example of filter aid?
A. Activated charcoal
B. Bentonite
C. Kaolin
D. Talc
15. Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of filter aid?
A. Chemically active
B. Porous
C. Recoverable
D. Removes coloured substance .
16. Which one of the following mechanisms is involved in case of meta filter ?
A. Cake filtration
B. Depth filtration
C. Surface filtration
D. Zig zag filtration
17. In the filter press operation, the plates, frames and washing plates are arranged in the following
sequence (1 represents plate 2 represents frame 3 represents washing plates).
A. 1,2,3.1,1,2,3,1
B. 1,2,3,2,2,3,2
C.1,2,3,2,1,2,3,2,1
D.1,2,3,1,2,1,3,1
CENTRIFUGATION
1. Which is the principle difference(in the properties) that influences centrifugation?
A. Densities C. Particle sizes
B. Interfacial tensions D. Viscosities
6. Which one of the following forces greatly enhances the separation forces?
A. Brownian forces
B. Centrifugal forces
C. Gravitational forces
D. Van der Waals forces
A. Clarification
B. Filtration
C. Gravity separation
D. Sedimentation
14. Continuous horizontal centrifuge consists of the following parts
A. Filter cloth
B. Knife
C. Screw elements
D. Weirs
15. Weirs are employed in centrifugation process for one of the following purpose
A. Adding water for washing
B. Prevention Air entrapment
C. Removing liquid
D separate solid
16. Centrifuge are used for the analysis of dosage form in term of the following stabilities
A. Chemical stability
B. Photostability
C. Physical stability
D. Thermal stability
17. Which one of there is the gravitational constant in SI unit (m/s2)?
A. 0.09807.
B. 0.9807
C. 9.807.
D. 98.07
18. The velocity of the centrifuge of Commonly expressed in term the following
A. Diameter
B. Meter per second square
C. Meter square per serving.
D. Revolution per Minute
19. Which is example of batch type centrifuge?
A. Centrifugation time
B. Natural of slurry
C. Temperature
D. Speed of centrifuge
23. Which one of the following is a filtration centrifuge?
A. Centrifugation.
B. Clarification
C. Sedimentation centrifuge.
D. Sedimentation
25. Bacteria enzymes are prepared by removing bacteria. Suggest the possible method of separation
A. Filtration centrifuge.
B. Perforated centrifuge
C. Sedimentation centrifuge
D. Vacuum filter
2. One of the following glass containers is used for the storage of light sensitive pharmaceuticals.
a. Air-tight b. Amber coloured
c. Unit dose d. Well closed
5. Which type of rubber is used as lining material that can bond easily to the steel, in the plant
construction?
a. Butyl rubber b. Carbon rubber
c. Hard rubber d. Soft rubber
8. Increase in temperature does NOT enhance the extent of corrosion by one of the following conditions
a. Diffusivity of the corroding medium
b. Solubility of the constituents of the metal in the corroding media
c. Thickness of the oxide film
d. Volatility of the constituents of the metal
9. The ability of a metal surface to withstand repeated cycles of corrosion is known as:
a. Cavitation erosion b. corrosion fatigue
c. Erosion d. Stress of corrosion cracking
10. One of the following types of corrosion is NOT related to liquids flow related corrosion
a. Cavitation erosion b. Erosion
c. Fretting corrosion d. Impingement corrosion
11. The corrosion of aluminum metal is prevented, due to one of the following film characteristics
a. Thick and nonporous film b. Thick and porous film
c. Thin and nonporous film d. Thin and porous film
13. Which one of the following conditions is NOT responsible for preventing the corrosion?
a. Inhibiting the flow of current b. Decreasing the temperature
c. Removing air and oxygen d. Removing inhibitor
14. Anodic protection controls the corrosion based on one of the following mechanisms.
a. Adding inhibitors b. Decreasing the current flow
c. Drainage of liquid d. Promoting oxide layer
15. Which one of the following metals can retard the corrosion of metals?
a. Carbon steel b. Chromium
c. Iron d. Zinc
Distillation
1. Equilibrium distillation is also known as
A. Azeotropic distillation
B. Flash distillation
C. Molecular distillation
D. Steam distillation
2. Which liquid distills first among the following
A. Benzene
B. Ethanol
C. Furfural
D. Glycerine
3. Which type of distillation is used for the preparation of aromatic spirit of ammonia?
A. Flash distillation
B. Fractional distillation
C. Molecular distillation
D. Simple distillation
4. Water for injection is prepared by using
A. Simple distillation
B. Fractional distillation
C. Molecular distillation
D. Flash distillation
A. Simple distillation
B. Fractional distillation
C. Molecular distillation
D. Steam distillation.
7. Mean free path is associated with?
A. Simple distillation
B. Fractional distillation
C. Molecular distillation
D. Steam distillation
8. Separation of liquid by distillation is based upon one of the following?
A. Boiling point
B. Miscibility
C. Vapour pressure
D. Viscosity
9. Complete separation is not possible in ?
A. Simple distillation
B. Flash distillation
C. Molecular distillation
D. Steam distillation