1.

According to the holistic model, a narrow definition of holistic health includes:

A. an optimal functioning of mind, body, and spirit within the environment. Incorrect
B. the absence of disease.
C. the response of the whole person to actual or potential problems.
D. the internal and external environment.

2. What type of database is most appropriate when rapid collection of data is required and often
compiled concurrently with lifesaving measures?
A. Episodic
B. Follow-up
C. Emergency
D. Complete

3. A medical diagnosis is used to evaluate:

A. a person's state of health.
B. the response of the whole person to actual or potential health problems.
C. a person's culture.
D. the cause of disease

4. An example of subjective data is:

A. decreased range of motion.
B. crepitation in the left knee joint.
C. left knee has been swollen and hot for the past 3 days.
D. arthritis.

5. What type of database is most appropriate for an individual who is admitted to a long-term care
facility?
A. Episodic
B. Follow-up
C. Emergency
D. Complete

6. Which of the following is an example of objective data?

A. Alert and oriented
B. Dizziness
C. An earache
D. A sore throat

7. An example of objective data is:

A. a complaint of left knee pain.
B. crepitation in the left knee joint.
C. left knee has been swollen and hot for the past 3 days.
D. a report of impaired mobility from left knee pain as evidenced by an inability to walk,
swelling, and pain on passive range of motion.
8. A nursing diagnosis is best described as:
A. a determination of the etiology of disease.
B. a pattern of coping.
C. an individual's perception of health.
D. a concise statement of actual or potential health concerns or level of wellness.

9. A complete database is:

A. used to collect data rapidly and is often compiled concurrently with lifesaving measures.
B. used for a limited or short-term problem usually consisting of one problem, one cue complex,
or one body system.
C. used to evaluate the cause or etiology of disease.
D. used to perform a thorough or comprehensive health history and physical examination.

10. A patient admitted to the hospital with asthma has the following problems identified based on
an admission health history and physical assessment. Which problem is a first-level priority?
A. Ineffective self-health management
B. Risk for infection
C. Impaired gas exchange
D. Readiness for enhanced spiritual well-being

11. Each culture has its own healers who usually:

A. speak at least two languages.
B. own and operate specialty community clinics.
C. cost less than traditional or biomedical providers.
D. recommend folk practices that are dangerous.

12. While evaluating the health history, the nurse determines that the patient subscribes to the
hot/cold theory of health. Which of the following would most likely describe this patient's view
of wellness?
A. Good is hot.
B. Evil is hot.
C. The humors must be balanced.
D. The phlegm will be replaced with dryness.

13. On the basis of median age:

A. the non-Hispanic white population tends to be younger.
B. the Hispanic population tends to be older.
C. the Asian population tends to be younger.
D. minorities tend to be older than non-Hispanic white populations.
14. Spirituality is defined as:
A. participating in religious services on a regular basis.
B. a personal effort to find meaning and purpose in life.
C. the process of being raised within a culture.
D. a social group that claims to possess variable traits.

15. Which of the following statements regarding language barriers and health care is true?
A. There is a law that addresses language barriers and health care.
B. Limited English proficiency is associated with a higher quality of care.
C. English proficiency is associated with a lower quality of care.
D. Patients with language barriers have a decreased risk of nonadherence to medication
regimens.

16. What is the yin/yang theory of health?

A. Health exists when all aspects of the person are in perfect balance.
B. Health exists when physical, psychological, spiritual, and social needs are met.
C. Health exists in the absence of illness.
D. Health exists when there is optimal functioning.

17. Which theory has been expanded in an attempt to study the degree to which a person's lifestyle
reflects his or her traditional heritage?
A. Behavior theory
B. Heritage consistency
C. Congruence mechanism
D. Socialization experience

18. Which of the following symptoms is greatly influenced by a person's cultural heritage?
A. Hearing loss
B. Pain
C. Breast lump
D. Food intolerance

19. When considering cultural competence, the nurse must develop knowledge of discrete
areas to understand the health care needs of others. These discrete areas include
understanding of: (Select all that apply.)
A. his or her own heritage.
B. cultural and ethnic values.
C. the heritage of the nursing profession.
D. the heritage of the patient.
E. the heritage of the health care system.

20. When preparing the physical setting for an interview, the interviewer should:
A. set the room temperature between 64° F and 66° F.
B. reduce noise by turning the volume on the television or radio down.
 C. conduct the interview at eye level and at a distance of 4 to 5 feet.
D. stand next to the patient to convey a professional demeanor.

21. Parents or caretakers accompany children to the health care setting. Starting at ___ years of
age, the interviewer asks the child directly about his or her presenting symptoms.
A. 5
B. 7
C. 9
D. 11

22. Which of the following statements made by the interviewer would be an appropriate response?
A. "I know just how you feel."
B. "If I were you, I would have the surgery."
C. "Why did you wait so long to make an appointment?"
D. "Tell me what you mean by 'bad blood.'"

23. While discussing the treatment plan, the nurse infers that the patient is uncomfortable
asking the physician for a different treatment because of fear of the physician's reaction.
In this situation, the nurse's verbal interpretation:
A. affects the nurse-physician relationship.
B. impedes further discussion.
C. helps the patient understand personal feelings in relation to his or her verbal
message.
D. helps the nurse understand his or her own feelings in relation to the patient's verbal
message.

24. The use of euphemisms to avoid reality or to hide feelings is known as:
A. distancing language.
B. sympathetic language.
C. avoidance language.
D. ethnocentric language.

25. When addressing a toddler during the interview, the health care provider should:
A. ask the child, before the caretaker, about symptoms.
B. use nonverbal communication.
C. use short, simple, concrete sentences.
D. use detailed explanations.

26. Nonverbal communication is the primary form of communication for which group of individuals?
A. Infants
B. Preschoolers
C. Adolescents
D. Older adults
27. Viewing the world from another person's inner frame of reference is called:
A. reflection.
B. empathy.
C. clarification.
D. sympathy.

28. An example of an open-ended question or statement is:

A. "Tell me about your pain."
B. "On a scale of 1 to 10, how would you rate your pain?"
C. "I can see that you are quite uncomfortable."
D. "You are upset about the level of pain, right?"

29. The most appropriate introduction to use to start an interview with an older adult patient
is:
A. "Mr. Jones, I want to ask you some questions about your health so that we can
plan your care."
B. "David, I am here to ask you questions about your illness; we want to determine what
is wrong."
C. "Mr. Jones, is it okay if I ask you several questions this morning about your health?"
D. "Because so many people have already asked you questions, I will just get the
information from the chart."

30. Which of the following is included in documenting a history source?

A. Appearance, dress, and hygiene
B. Cognition and literacy level
C. Documented relationship of support systems
D. Reliability of informant

31. A patient seeks care for "debilitating headaches that cause excessive absences at
work." On further exploration, the nurse asks, "What makes the headaches worse?" With
this question, the nurse is seeking information about:
A. the patient's perception of pain.
B. the nature or character of the headache.
C. aggravating factors.
D. relieving factors.

32. The CAGE test is a screening questionnaire that helps to identify:

A. unhealthy lifestyle behaviors.
B. personal response to stress.
C. excessive or uncontrollable drinking.
D. depression.

33. The "review of systems" in the health history is:

A. an evaluation of past and present health state of each body system.
B. a documentation of the problem as perceived by the patient.
 C. a record of objective findings.
D. a short statement of general health status.

34. When recording information for the review of systems, the interviewer must document:
A. physical findings, such as skin appearance, to support historic data.
B. "negative" under the system heading.
C. the presence or absence of all symptoms under the system heading.
D. objective data that support the history of present illness.

35. Assessment of self-esteem and self-concept is part of the functional assessment. Areas
covered under self-esteem and self-concept include:
A. education, financial status, and value-belief system.
B. exercise and activity, leisure activities, and level of independence.
C. family role, interpersonal relations, social support, and time spent alone.
D. stressors, coping mechanisms, and change in past year.

36. PQRSTU is a mnemonic that helps the clinician to remember to address characteristics specific
to:
A. severity of dementia.
B. substance use and abuse.
C. pain presentation.
D. the ability to perform activities of daily living (ADLs).

37. The nurse questions the reliability of the history provided by the patient. One method to
verify information within the context of the interview is to:
A. review previous medical records.
B. rephrase the same questions later in the interview.
C. ask the patient if there is someone who could verify information.
D. call a family member to confirm information.

38. When taking a health history from an adolescent, the interviewer should:
A. ask about violence and abuse before asking about alcohol and drug use.
B. have at least one parent present during the interview.
C. interview the youth alone with a parent in the waiting area.
D. ask every youth about the use of condoms.

39. What information is included in greater detail when taking a health history on an infant?
A. Nutritional data
B. History of present illness
C. Family history
D. Environmental hazards

40. To examine a toddler, the nurse should:

A. allow the child to sit on the parent's lap.
B. remove the child's clothing at the beginning of the examination.
 C. ask the child to decide whether parents or siblings should be present.
D. perform the assessment from head to toes.

41. Deep palpation is used to:

A. identify abdominal contents.
B. evaluate surface characteristics.
C. elicit deep tendon reflexes.
D. determine the density of a structure.

42. Amplitude is:

A. the intensity (soft or loud) of sound.
B. the length of time the note lingers.
C. the number of vibrations per second.
D. the subjective difference in a sound's distinctive overtones.

43. The dorsa of the hands are used to determine:

A. vibration.
B. temperature.
C. position of an organ.
D. fine tactile discrimination.

44. Fine tactile discrimination is best achieved with the:

A. opposition of the fingers and thumb.
B. fingertips.
C. back of the hands and fingers.
D. base of the fingers.

45. A funduscopic examination is an examination of the:

A. inner ear.
B. pharynx.
C. internal structures of the eye.
D. nasal turbinates.

46. Which of the following is considered when preparing to examine an older adult?
A. Base the pace of the examination on the patient's needs and abilities.
B. Avoid physical touch to avoid making the older adult uncomfortable.
C. Be aware that loss will result in poor coping mechanisms.
D. Confusion is a normal, expected finding in an older adult.