PRE-BOARD EXAMINATION IN MICROBIOLOGY AND PARASITOLOGY (PART 1)

1. When cleansing the skin with alcohol and then iodine for the collection of a blood culture, the iodine (or iodophor)
should remain in contact on the skin for at least:
A. 10 seconds B. 30 seconds C. 60 seconds D. 5 minutes
2. What is the purpose of adding sodium polyanethol sulfonate (SPS) to nutrient broth media for the collection of blood
cultures?
A. Inhibits phagocytosis and complement C. Enhances growth of anaerobes
B. Promotes formation of a blood clot D. Functions as a preservative
3. A technologist is reading a Gram stain from a CSF and observes small structures suggestive of gram-negative
coccobacilli. Chemistry and hematology CSF results that would indicate bacterial meningitis include:
WBC Glucose Protein
A Increased Increased Increased
B Decreased Decreased Decreased
C Increased Decreased Increased
D Decreased Increased Decreased
4. Select the media of choice for recovery of Vibrio cholerae from a stool specimen:
A. MacConkey agar and thioglycolate media
B. TCBS and alkaline peptone water
C. Blood agar and selenite F broth
D. Cycloserine-cefoxitin-fructose agar
5. Blood agar plates are ideally prepared with 5% RBCs obtained from:
A. Sheep B. Horses C. Humans D. Dogs
6. Cycloserine-cefoxitin-fructose agar (CCFA) is used for the recovery of:
A. Yersinia enterocolitica C. Clostridium perfringens
B. Yersinia intermedia D. Clostridium difficile
7. Prereduced and Vitamin K1 supplemented blood agar plates are recommended isolation media for:
A. Mycobacterium marinum and M. avium
B. Bacteroides, Peptostreptococcus and Clostridium spp.
C. Proteus spp.
D. Enterococcus spp.
8. Which procedure is appropriate for culture of genital specimens in order to recover Chlamydia spp.?
A. Inoculate cycloheximide treated McCoy’s cells
B. Plate onto blood and chocolate agr
C. Inoculate into thioglycolate broth
D. Plate onto modified Thayer-Martin agar within 24 hours
9. The Voges-Proskauer (VP) test detects which end product of glucose fermentation?
A. Acetoin B. Nitrite C. Acetic acid D. H2S
10. Which of the following reagents is added to detect the production of indole?
A. p-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde C. Bromcresol purple
B. MR D. Cytochrome oxidase
11. Which genera are positive for phenylalanine deaminase?
A. Enterobacter, Escherichia and Salmonella
B. Morganella, Providencia and Proteus
C. Klebsiella and Enterobacter
D. Proteus, Escherichia and Shigella
12. An isolate of E.coli recovered from the stoll of a patient with severe bloody diarrhea should be tested for what sugar
before sending to a reference laboratory for serotyping?
A. Sorbitol B. Mannitol C. Raffinose D. Sucrose
13. Which genera of Enterobacteriacea are usually nonmotile at 36 oC?
A. Shigella, Klebsiella and Yersinia
B. Escherichia, Edwardsiella and Enterobacter
C. Proteus, Providencia and Salmonella
D. Serratia, Morganella and Hafnia
14. Which single test best separates Klebsiella oxytoca from Klebsiella pneumoniae?
A. Urease C. Citreate
B. Sucrose D. Indole
15. The characteristics of being lactose negative, citrate negative, urease negative, lysine decarboxylase negative, and
nonmotile best describe which organism?
A. Proteus vulgaris C. Shigella dysenteriae
B. Yersinia pestis D. Aeromonas hydrophila
16. In grouping Shigella organisms, agglutination by group B antisera indicates that the species is:
A. Shigella dysenteriae C. Shigella boydii
B. Shigella flexneri D. Shigella sonnei
17. Pus with blue green-color was aspirated from empyema. A Gram stain of the aspirated material showed many WBCs
and numerous gram-negative bacilli. The most likely etiologic agent in this case would be:
A. Legionella pneumophila C. Morganella morganii
B. Pseudomonas auruginosa D. Acinetobacter anitratus
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18. A visitor to South America returns with diarrhea, and infection with Vibrio cholerae is suspected. Select the best media
for recovery and identification of this organism.
A. MaConkey agar C. TCBS agar
B. Blood Agar D. Xylose lysine desoxycholate agar
19. What atmospheric condition is needed to recover Campylobacter spp. from specimens inoculated onto a Campy-
selective agar at 35-37 oC and 42 oC?
A. 5% O2, 10% CO2, and 85% N2` C. 20% O2, 20% CO2, and 60% N2
B. 10% O2, 10% CO2, and 80% N2 D. 20% O2, 5% CO2, and 75% N2
20. Which medium should be used to recover Bordetella pertussis from a nasopharyngeal specimen?
A. Chocolate agar C. MacConkey agar
B. Blood agar D. Bordet-Gengou agar
21. Which media is recommended for the recovery of Brucella spp. from blood and bone marrow specimens?
A. Biphasic Castaneda bottles with Brucella broth
B. Blood culture bottles with Brucella broth
C. Bordet-Gengou agar plates and thioglycolate broth
D. Blood culture bottles with thioghlycolate broth
22. In addition to CO2 requirement and biochemical characteristics, Brucella melitensis and Brucella abortus are
differentiated by growth on media containing which two dyes?
A. Basic fuchsin and thionin C. Carbol fuchsin and iodine
B. Methylene blue and crystal violet D. Safranin and methylene blue
23. Which medium is best for recovery of Legionella pneumophila from clinical specimens?
A. Chocolate agar C. New yeast extract agar
B. Bordet-Gengou agar D. Buffered caharcoal yeast extract agar
24. The majority of Haemophilus influenzae infections are caused by which of the following capsular serotypes?
A. a B. b C. c D. d
25. Which Haemophilus sp. is difficult to isolate and recover from genital ulcers and swollen lymph nodes?
A. H. aphrophilus C. H. ducreyi
B. H. haemolyticus D. H. parahaemolyticus
26. A spherical, gram-positive coccus that is catalase positive, non-motile and unable to produce acid from glucose
anaerobically is best identified as a member of the genus:
A. Micrococcus B. Staphylococcus C. Veillonella D. Moraxella
27. Slime production is associated with which Staphylococcus species?
A. S. aureus C. S. intermedius
B. S. epidermidis D. S. saprophyticus
28. Bacitracin A disks (0.04 units) are used for the presumptive identification of which group of beta-hemolytic
Streptococcus spp.?
A. Group A B. Group B C. Group C D. Group F
29. Streptococcus pneumonia and Viridans streptococci can be differentiated by which test?
A. Optochin disk test C. CAMP test
B. Bacitracin disk test D. Bile esculin test
30. The salt tolerance test (6.5% salt broth) is used to presumptively identify:
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae C. Streptococcus equines
B. Streptococcus bovis D. Grp D streptococci (enterococci)
31. The Quellung test is used to identify which Streptococcus spp.?
A. S. pyogenes B. S. agalactiae C. S. sanguis D. S, pneumoniae
32. The L-pyrolidonyl-B-naphtylamide (PYR) hydrolysis test is a presumptive test for which streptococci?
A. Group A and D (enterococcus) streptococci
B. Group A and B beta-hemolytic streptococci
C. Non-Group A and B beta-hemolytic streptococci
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae and Group D streptococci (nonenterococcus)
33. Alpha-hemolytic streptococci recovered from a wound were found to be penicillin resistant. Given the following results,
what is the most likely identification?
Bile esculin + Bile solubility 0
6.5% salt + SXT R
PYR +
A. Enterococcus faecalis C. Streptococcus bovis
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Group B streptococci
34. A gram-positive coccus isolated from a blood culture has the following characteristics:
Optochin susceptibility Negative
Bacitracin (0.04 U) susceptibility Negative
Bile esculin hydrolysis Negative
Hippurate hydrolysis Positive
Catalase Negative
This organism is most likely:
A. Staphylococcus aureaus C. Streptococcus pyogenes (group A)
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Streptococcus agalactiae (group B)
35. Modified Thayer-Martin (MTM) media is used primarily for the selective recovery of which organism from genital
specimens?
A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae C. Neisseria sicca
B. Neisseria lactamica D. Neisseria flavescens
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36. The superoxol test is used as a presumptive test for:

A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae C. Neisseria lactamica
B. Neisseria meningitidis D. Moraxella catarrhalis
37. Culture on Modified Thayer-Martin (MTM) medium of a vaginal swab produced several colonies of gram-negative
diplococci that were catalase and oxidase positive and superoxol negative. Given the following carbohydrate
reactions, select the most likely identification:
Glucose + Fructose 0
Maltose + Lactose +
Sucrose 0
A. N. gonorrhoeae C. N. flavescens
B. N. sicca D. N. lactamica
38. Bacillus anthracis and Bacillus cereus can best be differentiated by which tests?
A. Motility and beta-hemolysis on blood agar plate
B. Oxidase and alpha-hemolysis on blood agar plate
C. Lecithinase and glucose
D. Lecithinase and catalase
39. A non-spore-forming, slender gram-positive rod forming palisades and chains was recovered from a vaginal cultures
and grew well on tomato juice agar. The most likely identification is:
A. Lactobacillus spp. C. Neisseria spp.
B. Bacillus spp. D. Streptococcus spp.
40. A gram-positive branching filamentous organism recovered from a sputum specimen was found to be positive with
modified acid-fast stain method. What is the most likely presumptive identification?
A. Bacillus spp. C. Corynebacterium spp.
B. Nocardia spp. D. Listeria spp.
41. Which of the following organisms is the cause of Lyme disease?
A. Treponema pallidum C. Babesia microti
B. Neisseria meningitidis D. Borrelia burgdorferi
42. Primary atypical pneumonia is caused by:
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae C. Klebsiella pneumoniae
B. Mycoplasma pneumoniae D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
43. Which organism typically produces “fried-egg” colonies on agar within 1-5 days of culture from a genital specimen?
A. Mycoplasma hominis C. Leptospira interrogans
B. Borrelia burgdorferi D. treponema pallidum
44. A direct smear from a nasopharyngeal swab stained with Loeffler’s methylene blue stain showed various letter shapes
and metachromatic granules. The most likely identification is:
A. Corynebacterium spp. C. Listeria spp.
B. Nocardia spp. D. Gradnerella spp.
45. Which of the following is the best rapid, noncultural test to perform when Gradnerella vaginalis is suspected in a
patient with vaginosis?
A. 10% KOH B. 3% H2O2 C. 30% H2O2 D. All of these
46. A gram-positive spore-forming bacillus growing on blood agar anaerobically produces a double zone of hemolysis and
is positive for lecithinase. What is the presumptive identification?
A. Bacteroides ureolyticus C. Clostridium perfringens
B. Bacteroides fragilis D. Clostridium difficile
47. Which spore type and location is found on C. tetani?
A. Round, terminal spores C. Ovoid, subterminal spores
B. Round, subterminal D. Oval, terminal spores
48. Which Clostridium spp. is most often recovered from a wound infection with gas gangrene?
A. C. sporogenes C. C. novyi
B. C. sordellii D. C. perfringens
49. A Gram stain smear taken from the periodontal pockets of a 30-year-old male with poor dental hygiene showed sulfur
granules containing gram-positive rods (short diphtheroids and some unbranched filaments). Colonies on blood agar
resembled “molar teeth” in formation. The most likely organism is:
A. Actinomyces israelii C. Streptococcus intermedius
B. Propionibacterium acnes D. Peptostreptococcus anaerobius
50. Mycobacteria stained with Ziehl-neelsen or Kinyuon methods using a methylene blue counterstain, are seen
microscopically as:
A. Bright red rods against a blue background
B. Bright yellow rods against a yellow background
C. Orange-red rods against a black background
D. Bright blue rods against a pink background
51. Acid-fast staining of a smear prepared from a digested sputum showed slender, slightly curved, beaded red
mycobacterial rods. Growth on Middlebrook 7H10 slants produced buff-colored microcolonies with a serpentine
pattern after 14 days at 37 oC. Niacin and nitrate reduction tests were positive. What is the most probable presumptive
identification?
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis C. Mycobacterium kansasii
B. Mycobacterium ulcerans D. Mycobacterium avium complex
52. All of the following Mycobacterium spp. produce the enzyme required to convert niacin to niacin ribonucleotide except:
A. M. kansasii C. M. avium
B. M. tuberculosis D. All of these
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53. Which nonpathogenic Mycobacterium sp. is isolated most often from clinical specimens and is called the “tapwater
bacillus”?
A. M. kansasii C. M. leprae
B. M. avium D. m. gordonae
54. All of the following paired infections and vectors are correct, EXCEPT:
A. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever: tick C. Trench fever: lice
B. Rickettsialpox: mite D. Epidemic typhus: mite
55. For which clinical specimens is the potassium hydroxide direct mount technique for examination of fungal elements
used?
A. Skin B. CSF C. Blood D. Bone marrow
56. The India ink stain is used as a presumptive test for the presence of which organism?
A. Aspergillus niger in blood C. Histoplasma capsulatum in CSF
B. Crytococcus neoformans in CSF D. Candida albicans in blood/body fluids
57. Which of the following yeast enzymes is detected using birdseed (niger seed) agar?
A. Phenol oxidase C. Urease
B. Catalase D. Nitrate reductase
58. Which of the following yeasts is characteristically positive for germ tube production?
A. Candida tropicalis C. Crytococcus neoformans
B. Candida pseudotropicalis D. Candida albicans
59. Dimorphic fungi are found in the infected tissue in which form?
A. Mold phase C. Encapsulated
B. Yeast phase D. Latent
60. The mycelial form of which dimorphic mold produces thick-walled, rectangular, or barrel-shaped alternate
arthroconidia?
A. Coccidioides immitis C. Histoplasma capsulatum
B. Sporothrix schenckii D. Blastomyces dermatitidis
61. The yeast form of which dimorphic fungus appears as oval or elongated cigar shaped, some with multiple buds?
A. Coccidioides immitis C. Histoplasma capsulatum
B. Sporothrix schenckii D. Blastomyces dermatitidis
62. The yeast form of which dimorphic mold shows a large parent yeast cell surrounded by smaller budding yeast cells?
A. Paracoccidioides brasiliensis C. Coccidioides immitis
B. Sporothrix schenckii D. Histoplasma capsulatum
63. Tinea versicolor is a skin infection caused by:
A. Malassezia furfur C. Trichophyton schoenleinii
B. Trichophyton rubrum D. Microsporum gypseum
64. Which Trichophyton sp. causes the favus type of tinea capitis seen in Scandinavian countries and in the Appalachian
region of the United States?
A. T. verrucosum C. T. tonsurans
B. T. violaceum D. T. schoenleinii
65. The hair baiting test is used to differentiate which two species of Trichophyton that produce red colonies on
Sabouraud’s agar plates?
A. T. mentagrophytes and T. rubrum C. T. tonsurans and T. violaceum
B. T. tonsurans and T. schoenleinii D. T. verrucosum and T. rubrum
66. Which virus is the most common etiological agent of viral respiratory diseases in infants and children?
A. Respiratory syncytial virus C. Coxsackie A virus
B. Measles virus D. Coxsackie B virus
67. Which virus belonging to the Reoviridae group causes gastroeneteritis in infants and young children but asymtomatic
infection in adults?
A. Coxsackie B virus C. Respiratory syncytial virus
B. Rotavirus D. Rhabdovirus
68. A very small, single-stranded DNA virus that causes a febrile illness with a rash and is called the fifth childhood
disease after rubeola, rubella, varicella and roseola is:
A. Rotavirus C. Coxsackie A virus
B. Adenovirus type 40 D. Parvovirus B19
69. Which virus is associated with venereal and respiratory tract warts and produces lesions of the skin and mucous
membranes?
A. Polyomavirus C. Adenovirus
B. Poxvirus D. Papillomavirus
70. Which technique is most widely used for the confirmation of infection with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?
A. Western blot assay C. Complement fixation
B. ELISA D. Polymerase chain reaction
71. The Epstein-Barr virus is associated with which of the following?
A. Chickenpox C. Burkitt’s lymphoma
B. Hodgkin’s lymphoma D. Smallpox
72. Charcot-Leyden crystals in stool may be associated with an immune response and are thought to be the breakdown
products of:
A. Neutrophils B. Eosinophils C. Monocytes D. Lymphocytes
73. The infective stage is the sheathed filariform larva:
A. Ancylostoma duodenale C. Both
B. Strongyloides stercoralis D. Neither
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74. Habitat of the adult Trichinella spiralis:

A. Small intestines C. Blood
B. Skeletal muscles D. CSF
75. Eosinophilic meningoencephalitis, a mild and self-limited infection is caused by:
A. Necator americanus C. Ancylostoma braziliense
B. Angiostrongylus cantonensis D. Strongyloides stercoralis
76. Visceral larva migrans is associated with this organism:
A. Ancylostoma duodenale C. Dracunculus medinensis
B. Toxocara canis D. Onchocerca volvulus
77. Nematode parasite thought to have been the “fiery serpent” of the ancient Israelites. This parasite, which has various
species of Cyclops as its intermediate host, is:
A. Dicrocoelium dendrticum C. Diphyllobothrium latum
B. Dipetalonema perstans D. Dracunculus medinensis
78. A dog parasite that almost never develops to an adult in humans has been found in some persons as a cause of a
subcutaneous nodule or a solitary peripheral nodule in the lung. This nematode is:
A. Ancylostoma braziliense C. Dipylidium caninum
B. Dirofilaria immitis D. Echinococcus granulosus
79. Microcytic anemia is associated with this parasite:
A. Trichinella spiralis C. Ancylostoma duodenale
B. Diphyllobothrium latum D. Heterophyes heterophyes
80. Which of the following microfilariae is unsheathed?
A. Wuchereria bancrofti C. Loa loa
B. Onchocerca volvulus D. Brugia malayi
81. Rhabditiform larva with purposeless motion and short buccal cavity:
A. Hookworm B. Strongyloides C. Both of these D. None of these
82. Operculated ovum containing a miracidium and can appear in sputum, often accompanied by blood and Charcot-
Leyden crysrtals:
A. Fasciola hepatica C. Schistosoma mansoni
B. Paragonimus westermani D. Dipylidium caninum
83. Infective stage of the Schistosomes to their final host:
A. Miracidium C. Cercaria
B. Sporocyst D. Metacercaria
84. Eggs of this fluke are small and shaped like an old-fashioned electric light bulb:
A. Clonorchis sinensis C. Fasciolopsis buski
B. Fasciola lanceolata D. Echinostoma ilocanum
85. What trophozoite is distinguished by the possession of achromatic granules surrounding its karyosomal chromatin?
A. Endolimax nana C. Entamoeba histolytica
B. Entamoeba coli D. Iodamoeba butschlii
86. A soil and water amoeba isolated from cases of meningoencephalitis:
A. Naegleria B. Dientamoeba fragilis C. Isospora belli D. AOTA
87. Specimen shows active amoeba with cytoplasm containing ingested erythrocytes, nucleus with central karyosome.
Identity is:
A. Entamoeba gingivalis C. Entamoeba histolytica
B. Entamoeba coli D. Iodamoeba butschlii
88. A lemon-shaped cyst with a nipple at one end belongs to:
A. Giardia lamblia C. Trichomonas vaginalis
B. Chilomastix mesnili D. Dientamoeba fragilis
89. A pear-shaped flagellate with jerky motility, found in urine specimen, is identified as:
A. Trichomonas hominis C. Giardia lamblia
B. Trichomonas vaginalis D. Schistosoma haematobium
90. A pear-shaped flagellate with a visible parabasal body and “falling leaf” motility in adirect saline mount of a diarrheal
stool specimen is most probably:
A. Trichomonas hominis C. Giardia lamblia
B. Trichomonas vaginalis D. Schistosoma haematobium
91. This is diagnostic of Entamoeba histolytica if present in the amoebic trophozoite:
A. Pus cells B. Nuclei C. Red cells D. Macrophage
92. The string test (Entero-Test) for obtaining a small specimen of duodenal contents for parasitic infection would be most
appropriate for:
A. Giardia lamblia C. Endolimax nana
B. Chilomastix mesnili D. Entamoeba histolytica
93. Cysticercosis is caused by the disseminated larva of:
A. Hymenolepis nana C. Echinococcus granulosus
B. Necator americanus D. Taenia solium
94. Xenodiagnosis is usually performed for the diagnosis of:
A. Trypanosoma cruzi C. Leishmania donovani
B. Schistosoma japonicum D. Leishmania gambiense
95. Asexual development and multiplication of malarial parasites:
A. Sporogony B. Schizogony C. Both D. Neither
96. Which stage of the malaria parasite is injected by mosquitoes?
A. Oocyst B. Merozoite C. Sporozoite D. Gametocyte
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97. Asexual life cycle of malaria parasite occur in:

A. Man B. Anopheles mosquito C. Flies D. Ticks
98. Stage predominantly seen in the smear is the band form of the developing trophozoite:
A. Plasmodium falciparum C. Plasmodium malariae
B. Plasmodium ovale D. Plasmodium vivax
99. Causes blackwater fever:
A. P. vivax B. P. malariae C. P. ovale D. P. falciparum
100. Plasmodium sp which has an affinity for mature or older red blood cells:
A. P. vivax B. P. malariae C. P. ovale D. P. falciparum

END OF THE EXAM