neet

2017
QUESTION PAPER

Physics 6. Radioactive material A has decay constant 8λ and material

B has decay constant λ. Initially, they have same number of
1. Two astronauts are floating in gravitational free space after hav- nuclei. After what time, the ratio of number of nuclei of mate-
ing lost contact with their spaceship. The two will rial B to that A will be 1/e?
1 1
(1) move towards each other. (1) (2)
7λ 8λ
(2) move away from each other. 1 1
(3) will become stationary. (3) (4)
9λ λ
(4) keeping floating at the same distance between them. 7. The given electrical network is equivalent to
2. Young’s double-slit experiment is first performed in air and then A Y
in a medium other than air. It is found that 8th bright fringe in B
the medium lies where 5th dark fringe lies in air. The refractive
index of the medium is nearly (1) OR gate (2) NOR gate
(1) 1.59 (2)  1.69 (3)  1.78 (4)  1.25 (3) NOT gate (4) AND gate

3. In a common-emitter transistor amplifier, the audio signal 8. The resistance of a wire is R ohm. If it is melted and stretched
­voltage across the collector is 3 V. The resistance of collector is to n times its original length, its new resistance will be
3 kΩ. If current gain is 100 and the base resistance is 2 kΩ, the R R
(1)  (2)  n2R (3)  2 (4)  Nr
voltage and power gain of the amplifier is n n
(1) 15 and 200 (2) 150 and 15,000 9. Two cars moving in opposite directions approach each other
(3) 20 and 2000 (4) 200 and 1000 with speed of 22 m/s and 16.5 m/s, respectively. The driver
of the first car blows a horn having a frequency 400 Hz. The
4. An arrangement of three parallel straight wires placed perpen- frequency heard by the driver of the second car is (velocity of
dicular to plane of paper carrying same current I along the same sound: 340 m/s)
direction is shown in the figure. Magnitude of force per unit (1) 361 Hz (2) 411 Hz
length on the middle wire B is given by: (3) 448 Hz (4) 350 Hz
B d C
10. In an electromagnetic wave in free space, the root mean square
90° value of the electric field is Erms = 6 V/m. The peak value of the
magnetic field is
d
(1) 2.83 × 10−8 T (2) 0.70 × 10−8 T
(3) 4.23 × 10−8 T (4) 1.41 × 10−8 T
A 11. Two rods A and B of different materials are welded together as
2 μ0 I 22 μ0 I 2 shown in the figure. Their thermal conductivities are K1 and K2.
(1) (2) The thermal conductivity of the composite rod will be
πd πd
μ0 I 2 μ0 I 2 A K1
(3) (4) T1 T2
2π d 2π d
B K2
5. The de Broglie wavelength of a neutron in thermal equilibrium
with heavy water at a temperature T (Kelvin) and mass m is d
h 2h
(1) (2) 3( K1 + K2 )
3mkT 3mkT (1) (2)
K1 + K2
2
2h h K1 + K2
(3) (4) (3) 2(K1 + K2) (4)
mkT mkT 2

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12. Which one of the following represents forward bias diode? t1t2 t1t2
(1) (2)
R t2 − t1 t2 + t1
(1) –4 V –3 V
t1 + t2
R (3) t1 – t2 (4)
(2) –2 V +2 V 2
R 20. Thermodynamic processes are indicated in the following
(3) 3V 5V
­diagram:
0V R –2 V
(4) P

13. A 250-turn rectangular coil of length 2.1 cm and width 1.25 cm

carries a current of 85 μA and subjected to a magnetic field of i IV f
strength 0.85 T. The work done for rotating the coil by 180° I III
against the torque is II f
(1) 4.55 μJ (2) 2.3 μJ f 700 K
(3) 1.15 μJ (4) 9.1 μJ f 500 K
300 K
14. If θ1 and θ2 be the apparent angles of dip observed in two ver- V
tical planes at right angles to each other, then the true angle of
dip θ is given by Match the following:
Column-I Column-2
(1) tan θ = tan θ1 + tan θ2
2 2 2

P.  Process I a. Adiabatic

(2) cot2θ = cot2θ1 – cot2θ2
(3) tan2θ = tan2θ1 – tan2θ2
(4) cot2θ = cot2θ1 + cot2θ2
15. A potentiometer is an accurate and versatile device to make
electrical measurements of emf because the method involves
(1) potential gradients.
(2) a condition of no current flow through the galvanometer.
(3) a combination of cells, galvanometer and resistances.
(4) cells.
16. The ratio of resolving powers of an optical microscope for two
wavelengths λ1 = 4000 Å and λ2 = 6000 Å is
(1) 9 : 4 (2) 3 : 2
(3) 16 : 81 (4) 8 : 27
17. A thin prism having refracting angle 10° is made of glass of
refractive index 1.42. This prism is combined with another thin
prism of glass of refractive index 1.7. This combination pro-
duces dispersion without deviation. The refracting angle of sec-
ond prism should be
(1) 6° (2) 8°
(3) 10° (4) 4°
Q.  Process II b. Isobaric
R.  Process III c. Isochoric
S.  Process IV d. Isothermal
(1) P → c, Q → a, R → d, S → b
(2) P → c, Q → d, R → b, S → a
(3) P → d, Q → b, R → a, S → c
(4) P → a, Q → c, R → d, S → b
21. One end of string of length l is connected to a particle of mass
m and the other end is connected to a small peg on a smooth
horizontal table. If the particle moves in circle with speed v,
the net force on the particle (directed towards centre) will be
(T represents the tension in the string)
mv2 mv2
(1) T + (2) T−
l l
(3) Zero (4) T
22. The two nearest harmonics of a tube closed at one end and open
at other end are 220 Hz and 260 Hz. What is the fundamental
frequency of the system?
(1) 20 Hz (2) 30 Hz
(3) 40 Hz (4) 10 Hz

18. A capacitor is charged by a battery. The battery is removed and
another identical uncharged capacitor is connected in parallel.
The total electrostatic energy of resulting system:
(1) decreases by a factor of 2.
(2) remains the same.
(3) increases by a factor of 2.
(4) increases by a factor of 4.
19. Preeti reached the metro station and found that the escalator
was not working. She walked up the stationary escalator in time
t1. On other days, if she remains stationary on the moving esca-
lator, then the escalator takes her up in time t2. The time taken
by her to walk up on the moving escalator will be
23. The photoelectric threshold wavelength of silver is 3250 ×
10−10 m. The velocity of the electron ejected from a silver sur-
face by ultraviolet light of wavelength 2536 × 10−10 m is
(Given h = 4.14 × 10−15 eVs and c = 3 × 108 ms−1)
(1)  0.6 × 106 ms−1 (2)  61 × 103 ms−1
(3)  0.3 × 10 ms (4)
6 −1
 6 × 105 ms−1
24. Figure shows a circuit that contains three identical resistors with
resistance R = 9.0 Ω each, two identical inductors with induc-
tance L = 2.0 mH each, and an ideal battery with emf ε = 18 V.
The current I through the battery just after the switch closed is
_____.

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 QUESTION PAPER 569

3
(1) d = 1 km (2) d = km
+ L R R 2
e 1
− (3) d = 2 km (4) d = km
R C 2
32. Two blocks A and B of masses 3m and m, respectively, are con-
(1) 0.2 A (2) 2 A nected by a massless and inextensible string. The whole system
(3) 0 ampere (4) 2 mA is suspended by a massless spring as shown in the figure. The
magnitudes of acceleration of A and B immediately after the
25. A spherical blackbody with a radius of 12 cm radiates 450 watt string is cut are, respectively,
power at 500 K. If the radius were halved and the temperature is
doubled, the power radiated (in watt) would be
(1) 450 (2) 1000
(3) 1800 (4) 225

26. A rope is wound around a hollow cylinder of mass 3 kg and A 3m

radius 40 cm. What is the angular acceleration of the cylinder if
the rope is pulled with a force of 30 N?
(1) 0.25 rad/s2 (2) 25 rad/s2 B m
(3) 5 m/s2 (4) 25 m/s2
g
(1) , g (2)
g, g
27. Two discs of same moment of inertia rotating about their regu- 3
lar axis passing through centre and perpendicular to the plane g g g
(3) , (4) g,
of disc with angular velocities ω1 and ω2. They are brought into 3 3 3
contact face to face coinciding the axis of rotation. The expres-
33. The ratio of wavelength of the last line of Balmer series and the
sion for loss of energy during this process is
last line of Lyman series is
1
(1) I (ω1 − ω2 )2 (2) I(ω1 – ω2)2 (1) 1 (2) 4
4
1 1 (3) 0.5 (4) 2
(3) I (ω1 − ω2 )2 (4) I (ω1 + ω2 )2
8 2 34. A beam of light from a source L is incident normally on a
28. A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of O2 and 4 moles of Ar at plane mirror fixed at a certain distance x from the source. The
temperature T. Neglecting all vibrational modes, the total inter- beam is reflected back as a spot on a scale placed just above the
nal energy of the system is source L. When the mirror is rotated through a small angle θ,
(1) 15RT (2) 9RT the spot of the light is found to move through a distance y on the
(3) 11RT (4) 4RT scale. The angle θ is given by
y x
(1) (2)
29. The bulk modulus of a spherical object is B. If it is subjected to x 2y
uniform pressure P, the fractional decrease in radius is x y
(3) (4)
B 3P y 2x
(1) (2)
3P B 35. A spring of force constant k is cut into lengths of ratio 1 : 2 : 3.
P P They are connected in series and the new force constant is k ′.
(3) (4)
3B B Then, they are connected in parallel and force constant is k ′′.
30. Which of the following statements are correct? Then k ′ : k ′′ is

(a) Centre of mass of a body always coincides with the centre (1) 1 : 9 (2) 1 : 11
of gravity of the body. (3) 1 : 14 (4) 1 : 6
(b) Centre of mass of a body is the point at which the total 36. The diagrams below show regions of equipotential.
gravitational torque on the body is zero.
(c) A couple on a body produce both translational and rota- 20 V 40 V 20 V 40 V 10 V 30 V 40 V
tional motion in a body. 20 V
(d) Mechanical advantage greater than one means that small
effort can be used to lift a large load. A B A B A B A B
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)
10 V
(3) (c) and (d) (4) (b) and (d) 30 V
10 V 30 V 10 V 30 V 20 V 40 V
31. The acceleration due to gravity at a height 1 km above the Earth (a) (b) (c) (c)
is the same as at a depth d below the surface of Earth. Then

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 570 neet 2017

A positive charge is moved from A to B in each diagram. (1) 425 kg m−3 (2) 800 kg m−3
(1) In all the four cases, the work done is the same. (3) 928 kg m−3 (4) 650 kg m−3
(2) Minimum work is required to move q in figure (a).
42. Consider a drop of rain water having mass 1 g falling from
(3) Maximum work is required to move q in figure (b). a height of 1 km. It hits the ground with a speed of 50 m/s,
(4) Maximum work is required to move q in figure (c). Take g constant with a value 10 m/s2. The work done by the
(i) ­gravitational force and the (ii) resistive force of air is
37. Suppose the charge of a proton and an electron differ slightly.
One of them is –e, the other is (e + Δe). If the net of electro- (1) (i) 1.25 J (ii) −8.25 J
static force and gravitational force between two hydrogen atoms (2) (i) 100 J (ii) 8.75 J
placed at a distance d (much greater than atomic size) apart (3) (i) 10J (ii) −8.75 J
is zero, then Δe is of the order of (Given: mass of hydrogen (4) (i) −10 J (ii) −8.25 J
mh = 1.67 × 10−27 kg)
(1) 10−23 C (2) 10−37 C 43. The x- and y-coordinates of the particle at any time are x = 5t –
2t2 and y = 10t, respectively, where x and y are in meters and t in
(3) 10−47 C (4) 10−20 C
seconds. The acceleration of the particle at t = 2s is
38. A physical quantity of the dimensions of length that can be (1) 5 m/s2 (2) −4 m/s2
e2 (3) −8 m/s2 (4) 0
formed out of c, G and is (c is the velocity of light, G is
4πε0
universal constant of gravitational and e is charge) 44. A long solenoid of diameter 0.1 m has 2 × 104 turns per meter.
1/ 2 1/ 2 At the centre of the solenoid, a coil of 100 turns and radius
⎡ e2 ⎤ 1 ⎡ e2 ⎤ 0.01 m is placed with its axis coinciding with the solenoid axis.
(1) c2 ⎢G ⎥ (2) ⎢ ⎥
⎢⎣ 4πε0 ⎥⎦ c2 ⎢⎣ G 4πε0 ⎥⎦ The current in the solenoid reduces at a constant rate to 0 A
1/ 2 from 4 A in 0.05 s. If the resistance of the coil is 10 π2Ω, the
1 e2 1 ⎡ e2 ⎤ total charge flowing through the coil during this time is
(3) G (4) ⎢G ⎥
c 4πε0 c2 ⎢⎣ 4πε0 ⎥⎦ (1) 16 μC (2) 32 μC
39. Two polaroids P1 and P2 are placed with their axis perpendicular (3) 16π μC (4) 32π μC
to each other. Unpolarised light I0 is incident on P1. A third pola- 1
45. A Carnot engine, having an efficiency of as heat engine, is
roid P3 is kept in between P1 and P2 such that its axis makes an 10
angle 45° with that P1. The intensity of transmitted light through used as a refrigerator. If the work done on the system is 10 J, the
P2 is amount of energy absorbed from the reservoir at lower tempera-
I0 I I I ture is
(1) (2)  0 (3)  0 (4)  0
4 8 16 2 (1) 90 J (2) 99 J
40. A particle executes linear simple harmonic motion with an (3) 100 J (4) 1 J
amplitude of 3 cm. When the particle is at 2 cm from the mean
position, the magnitude of its velocity is equal to that of its Chemistry
acceleration. Then its time period in seconds is:
5 4π 2π 5 46. Which of the following is a sink for CO?
(1) (2)  (3)  (4) 
2π 5 3 π (1) Microorganisms present in the soil
(2) Oceans
41. A U-tube, with both ends open to the atmosphere, is partially
filled with water. Oil, which is immiscible with water, is poured (3) Plants
into one side until it stands at a distance of 10 mm above the water (4) Haemoglobin
level on the other side. Meanwhile, the water rises by 65 mm from
its original level (see diagram). The density of the oil is 47. The element Z = 114 has been discovered recently. It will
belong to which of the following family/group and electronic
Pa Pa configuration?
A F (1) Carbon family, [Rn]5f 146d107s27p2
E 10 mm (2) Oxygen family, [Rn]5f 146d107s27p4
Final water level
(3) Nitrogen family, [Rn]5f 146d107s27p6
65 mm
Oil D (4) Halogen family, [Rn]5f 146d107s27p5
Initial water level
65 mm
48. For a given reaction ΔH = 35.5 kJ mol−1 and ΔS = 83.6 JK−1
mol−1. The reaction is spontaneous at (Assume that ΔH and ΔS
B C do not vary with temperature)
Water (1) T > 425 K (2) all temperatures.
(3) T > 298 K (4) T < 425 K

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 QUESTION PAPER 571

49. Identify A and predict the type of reaction. The overall order of the reaction will be
(1) 2 (2) 0
OCH3
(3) 1.5 (4) 1
NaNH2
A 55. The equilibrium constants of the following are
Br N2 + 3H2  2 NH3 K1

N2 + O2  2 NO K2
OCH3
1
H2 + O2 → H2O K3
NH2 2
(1) and elimination addition reaction The equilibrium constant (K) of the reaction
5
2 NH3 + O2   K
 
 2 NO + 3H2O will be
2
OCH3
(1) K2 K33 /K1 (2) K2K3/K1
Br

(3) K2 K3 /K1
3
(4) K1K33 /K2

(2) and cine substitution reaction
56. Which one is the wrong statement?
(1) The uncertainty principle is ΔE × Δt ≥ h/4π.
OCH3
(2) Half-filled and fully filled orbitals have greater stability
due to greater exchange energy, greater symmetry and
(3) and cine substitution reaction more balanced arrangement.
(3) The energy of 2s orbitals is less than energy of 2p orbitals
in case of hydrogen like atoms.
OCH3 h
(4) de-Broglie’s wavelength is given by λ = , where m =
mv
mass of the particle, v = group velocity of the particle.
(4) and substitution reaction
57. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
NH2
(1) The value of equilibrium constant is changed in the pres-
50. Which of the following is dependent on temperature? ence of a catalyst in the reaction at equilibrium.
(1) Molarity (2) Mole fraction (2) Enzymes catalyze mainly bio-chemical reactions.
(3) Weight percentage (4) Molality (3) Coenzymes increase the catalytic activity of enzyme.
(4) Catalyst does not initiate any reaction.
51. With respect to the conformers of ethane, which of the follow-
ing statements is true? 58. HgCl2 and I2 both when dissolved in water containing I− ions the
(1) Bond angle changes but bond length remains same. pair of species formed is
(2) Both bond angle and bond length change. (1) HgI2, I− (2) HgI24 − , I3−
(3) Both bond angles and bond length remain same. (3) Hg2I2, I− (4) HgI2 , I3−
(4) Bond angle remains same but bond length changes.
59. The correct increasing order of basic strength for the following
52. Name the gas that can readily decolorize acidified KMnO4 compound is
­solution.
NH2 NH2 NH2
(1) SO2 (2)  NO2 (3)  P2O3 (4)  CO2

53. It is because of inability of ns2 electrons of the valence shell to

participate in bonding that
(1) Sn2+ is oxidizing while Pb4+ is reducing.
NO2 CH3
(2) Sn2+ and Pb2+ are both oxidizing and reducing. (I) (II) (III)
(3) Sn4+ is reducing while Pb4+ is oxidizing. (1) III < I < II (2) III < II < I
(4) Sn2+ is reducing while Pb4+ is oxidizing. (3) II < I < III (4) II < III < I
54. Mechanism of a hypothetical reaction X2 + Y2 → 2XY is given 60. An example of a sigma bonded organometallic compound is
below:
(1) Grignard’s reagent.
  (i) X2 → X + X (fast)
(2) ferrocene.
 (ii) X + Y2  XY + Y (slow) (3) cobaltocene.
(iii) X + Y → XY (fast) (4) ruthenocene.

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 572 neet 2017

61. A 20 L container at 400 K contains CO2 (g) at pressure 0.4 atm 67. If molality of the dilute solution is doubled, the value of molal
and an excess of SrO (neglect the volume of solid SrO). The depression constant (Kf) will be
volume of the container is now decreased by moving the mov- (1) halved. (2) tripled.
able piston fitted in the container. The maximum volume of the
(3) unchanged. (4) doubled.
container, when pressure of CO2 attains its maximum value,
will be 68. The heating of phenyl-methyl ethers with HI produces
(Given that: SrCO3 (s)  SrO(s) + CO2 (g), Kp = 1.6 atm) (1) iodobenzene. (2) phenol.
(1) 10 L (2) 4 L (3) benzene. (4) ethyl chloride.
(3) 2 L (4) 5 L
69. In the electrochemical cell
62. Mixture of chloroxylenol and terpineol acts as Zn|ZnSO4(0.1 M) || CuSO4 (1.0 M)|Cu, the emf of this Daniel
(1) antiseptic. (2) antipyretic. cell is E1. When the concentration of ZnSO4 is changed to 1.0 M
and that of CuSO4 changed to 0.01 M, the emf changed to E2.
(3) antibiotic. (4) analgesic.
From the followings, which one is the relationship between E1
63. Pick out the correct statement with respect to [Mn(CN)6]3−. RT
and E2 (Given: = 0.059)
(1) It is sp3d2 hybridized and tetrahedral. F
(1) E1 < E2 (2) E1 > E2
(2) It is d2sp3 hybridized and octahedral. (3) E2 = 0 ≠ E1 (4) E1 = E2
(3) It is dsp2 hybridized and square planar.
(4) It is sp3d2 hybridized and octahedral. 70. A first order reaction has a specific reaction rate of 10−2 s−1. How
much time will it take for 20 g of the reactant to reduce to 5 g?
64. Match the interhalogen compounds of column I with the geom- (1) 138.6 s (2) 346.5 s
etry in column II and assign the correct code.
(3) 693.0 s (4) 238.6 s
Column I Column II
(a) XX ′ (i) T-shape 71. Which of the following pairs of species have the same bond
order?
(b) XX 3′ (ii)  Pentagonal bipyramidal
(c) XX 5′ (iii) Linear (1) O2 , NO+ (2) CN−, CO
−

(d) XX 7′ (iv)  Square pyramidal (3) N2 , O2 (4) CO, NO

(v) Tetrahedral 72. In which pair of ions both the species contain S–S bond?
Code: (1) S4 O62 − , S2O32 − (2) S2O72 − , S2O82 −
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) S4 O62 − , S2O72 − (4) S4 O72 − , S2O32 −
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(2) (v) (iv) (iii) (ii) 73. Concentration of the Ag+ ions in a saturated solution of Ag2C2O4
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) is 2.2 × 10−4 mol L−1. Solubility product of Ag2C2O4 is
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (1) 2.66 × 10−12 (2) 4.5 × 10−11
(3) 5.3 × 10−12 (4) 2.42 × 10−8
65. The species, having bond angles at 120° is
(1) ClF3 (2) NCl3 74. Ionic mobility of which of the following alkali metal ions is
lowest when aqueous solution of their salts is put under an elec-
(3) BCl3 (4) PH3
tric field?
66. Predict the correct intermediate and product in the following (1) K (2) Rb
reaction: (3) Li (4) Na
H O , H SO
H3C − C ≡ CH ⎯⎯⎯⎯
2 2 4
→ Intermediate → Product
HgSO 4 (A) ( B) 75. A gas is allowed to expand in a well-insulated container against
a constant external pressure of 2.5 atm from an initial volume
(1) A : H3C C CH2 B: H3 C C CH2 of 2.50 L to a final volume of 4.50 L. The change in internal
OH SO4 energy ΔU of the gas in joules will be
(1) −500 J (2) −505 J
(2) A : H3C C CH3 B: H3C C CH
(3) +505 J (4) 1136.25 J
O
76. The reason for greater range of oxidation states in actinoids is
(3) A : H3C C CH2 B: H3C C CH3 attributed to
OH O (1) actinoid contraction.
(2) 5f, 6d and 7s levels having comparable energies.
(4) A : H3C C CH2 B: H3C C CH3
(3) 4f and 5d levels being close in energies.
SO4 O (4) the radioactive nature of actinoids.

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 QUESTION PAPER 573

77. The most suitable method of separation of 1:1 mixture of ortho O

and para-nitrophenols is
(1) chromatography. (3) (4)
(2) crystallization.
(3) steam distillation. O O OH
(4) sublimation.
84. Which of the following statements is not correct?
78. The correct order of the stoichiometries of AgCl formed when (1) Ovalbumin is a simple food reserve in egg-white.
AgNO3 in excess is treated with the complexes: CoCl3 · 6NH3, (2) Blood proteins thrombin and fibrinogen are involved in
CoCl3 · 5NH3, CoCl3 · 4NH3 respectively is blood clotting.
(1) 3 AgCl, 1 AgCl, 2 AgCl (3) Denaturation makes the proteins more active.
(2) 3 AgCl, 2 AgCl, 1 AgCl (4) Insulin maintains sugar level in the blood of a human
(3) 2 AgCl, 3 AgCl, 1 AgCl body.
(4) 1 AgCl, 3 AgCl, 2 AgCl
85. Which one is the correct order of acidity?
79. Correct increasing order for the wavelengths of absorption in (1) CH CH > CH3 C CH > CH2 CH2 > CH3 CH3
the visible region for the complexes of Co3+ is
(2) CH CH > CH2 CH2 > CH3 C CH > CH3 CH3
(1) [Co(H2O)6]3+, [Co(en)3]3+, [Co(NH3)6]3+
(3) CH3 CH3 > CH2 CH2 > CH3 C CH > CH CH
(2) [Co(H2O)6]3+, [Co(NH3)6]3+, [Co(en)3]3+
(4) CH2 CH2 > CH3 CH CH2 >
(3) [Co(NH3)6]3+, [Co(en)3]3+, [Co(H2O)6]3+
(4) [Co(en)3]3+, [Co(NH3)6]3+, [Co(H2O)6]3+ CH3 C CH > CH CH
86. Extraction of gold and silver involves leaching with CN− ion.
80. Which one is the most acidic compound? Silver is later recovered by
OH OH (1) distillation. (2) zone refining.
(3) displacement with Zn. (4) liquation.
(1) (2)
87. The correct statement regarding electrophile is
(1) electrophile is negatively charged species and can form
NO2 a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from another
­electrophile.
OH OH
(2) electrophiles are generally neutral species and can form a
O2N NO2 bond by accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile.
(3) (4) (3) electrophile can be either neutral or positively charged
species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of elec-
NO2 CH3
trons from a nucleophile.
(4) electrophile is a negatively charged species and can form a
81. Which of the following pairs of compounds is isoelectronic and bond by accepting a pair of electrons from a n­ ucleophile.
isostructural?
88. Consider the reactions:
(1) TeI2, XeF2 (2) IBr2− , XeF2
[Ag(NH3)2]+
(3) IF3, XeF2 (4) BeCl2, XeF2 X Cu A Silver mirror observed
(C2H6O) 573 K –
OH ∆
82. Which of the following reactions is appropriate for converting
acetamide to methanamine? –
OH, ∆
Y
(1) Hoffmann hypobromamide reaction
(2) Stephens reaction O

(3) Gabriels phthalimide synthesis NH2 NH C NH2

(4) Carbylamine reaction Z
83. Of the following, which is the product formed when cyclohexa- Identify A, X, Y and Z.
none undergoes aldol condensation followed by heating? (1) A-Methoxymethane, X-Ethanol, Y-Ethanoic acid,
Z-Semicarbazide.
(1) (2) (2) A-Ethanal, X-Ethanol, Y-But-2-enal, Z-Semicarbazone.
(3) A-Ethanol, X-Acetaldehyde, Y-Butanone, Z-Hydrazone.
O OH (4) A-Methoxymethane, X-Ethanoic acid, Y-Acetate ion,
Z-hydrazine.

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 574 neet 2017
89. The IUPAC name of the compound is
O O
H C
(1) 5-formylhex-2-en-3-one.
(2) 5-methyl-4-oxohex-2-en-5-al.
(3) 3-keto-2-methylhex-5-enal.
(4) 3-keto-2-methylhex-4-enal.
90. Which is the incorrect statement?
(1) Density decreases in case of crystals with Schottky’s
defect.
(2) NaCl(s) is insulator, silicon is semiconductor, silver is
conductor, quartz is piezo electric crystal.
(3) Frenkel defect is favored in those ionic compounds in
which sizes of cation and anions are almost equal.
(4) FeO0.98 has non-stoichiometric metal deficiency defect.
Biology
91. A decrease in blood pressure/volume will not cause the release
of
(1) atrial natriuretic factor. (2) aldosterone.
(3) ADH. (4) renin.
92. Which of the following are not polymeric?
(1) Proteins (2) Polysaccharides
(3) Lipids (4) Nucleic acids
93. A baby boy aged two years is admitted to play school and passes
through a dental check-up. The dentist observed that the boy
had twenty teeth. Which teeth were absent?
(1) Canines (2) Pre-molars
(3) Molars (4) Incisors
94. Which of the following statements is correct?
(1) The descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to
water.
(2) The ascending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to water.
(3) The descending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to
electrolytes.
(4) The ascending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to
water.
95. Adult human RBCs are enucleate. Which of the following state-
ment(s) is/are most appropriate explanation for this feature?
(a) They do not need to reproduce.
(b) They are somatic cells
(c) They do not metabolize.
(d) All their internal space is available for oxygen transport.
Options:
(1) Only (a) (2) (a), (c) and (d)
(3) (b) and (c) (4) Only (d)
21_NEET 2017.indd 574
96. An important characteristic that Hemichordates share with
Chordates is
(1) ventral tubular nerve cord.
(2) pharynx with gill slits.
(3) pharynx without gill slits.
(4) absence of notochord.
97. Alexander Von Humbolt described for the first time
(1) Laws of limiting factor.
(2) species area relationships.
(3) population growth equation.
(4) ecological biodiversity.
98. Identify the wrong statement in context of heartwood
(1) it is highly durable.
(2) it conducts water and minerals efficiently.
(3) it comprises dead elements with highly lignified walls.
(4) organic compounds are deposited in it.
99. Which one of the following statements is correct, with refer-
ence to enzymes?
(1) Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme
(2) Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme
(3) Holoenzyme = Coenzyme + Co-factor
(4) Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme
100. Root hairs develop from the region of
(1) elongation. (2) root cap.
(3) meristematic activity. (4) maturation.
101. Among the following characters, which one was not consid-
ered by Mendel in his experiments on pea?
(1) Trichomes-glandular or non-glandular.
(2) Seed-green or yellow.
(3) Pod-inflated or constricted.
(4) Stem-tall or dwarf.
102. Which of the following facilitates opening of stomatal
­aperture?
(1) Decrease in turgidity of guard cells.
(2) Radial orientation of cellulose microfibrils in the cell
wall of guard cells.
(3) Longitudinal orientation of cellulose microfibrils in the
cell wall of guard cells.
(4) Contraction of outer wall of guard cells.
103. The association of histone H1 with a nucleosome indicates
(1) DNA replication is occurring.
(2) the DNA is condensed into a chromatin fibre.
(3) the DNA double helix is exposed.
(4) transcription is occurring.
104. DNA fragments are
(1) negatively charged.
(2) neutral.
04/07/2017 10:16:23

(3) either positively or negatively charged depending on
their size.
(4) positively charged.
105. The process of separation and purification of expressed ­protein
before marketing is called
(1) downstream processing.
(2) bioprocessing.
(3) postproduction processing.
(4) upstream processing.
106. An example of colonial alga is
(1) Volvox (2) Ulothrix
(3) Spirogyra (4) Chlorella
107. Capacitation occurs in
(1) epididymis. (2) vas deferens.
(3) female reproductive tract. (4) rete testis.
108. Select the mismatch:
(1) Rhodospirillum – Mycorrhiza
(2) Anabaena – Nitrogen fixer
(3) Rhizobium – Alfalfa
(4) Frankia – Alnus
109. Homozygous purelines in cattle can be obtained by
(1) mating of unrelated individuals of same breed.
(2) mating of individuals of different breed.
(3) mating of individuals of different species.
(4) mating of related individuals of same breed.
110. The DNA fragments separated on an agarose gel can be
­visualized after staining with
(1) acetocarmine. (2) aniline blue.
(3) ethidium bromide. (4) bromophenol blue.
111. Double fertilization is exhibited by
(1) Algae. (2) Fungi.
(3) Angiosperms. (4) Gymnosperms.
112. The water potential of pure water is
(1) less than zero.
(2) more than zero but less than one.
(3) more than one.
(4) zero.
113. Out of ‘X’ pairs of ribs in humans only ‘Y’ pairs are true ribs.
Select the option that correctly represents values of X and Y
and provides their explanation.
(1) X = 12, Y = 5
True ribs are attached dorsally to vertebral column and
sternum on the two ends.
(2) X = 24, Y = 7
True ribs are dorsally attached to vertebral column but
are free on ventral side.
21_NEET 2017.indd 575
QUESTION PAPER 575
(3) X = 24, Y = 12
True ribs are dorsally attached to vertebral column but
are free on ventral side.
(4) X = 12, Y = 7
True ribs are attached dorsally to vertebral column and
ventrally to the sternum.
114. DNA replication in bacteria occurs
(1) within nucleolus.
(2) prior to fission.
(3) just before transcription.
(4) during S phase.
115. Which cells of ‘Crypts of Lieberkühn’ secrete antibacterial
lysozyme?
(1) Paneth cells (2) Zymogen cells
(3) Kupffer cells (4) Argentaffin cells
116. The hepatic portal vein drains blood to liver from
(1) Stomach. (2) Kidneys.
(3) Intestine. (4) Heart.
117. In case of a couple where the male is having a very low sperm
count, which technique will be suitable for fertilization?
(1) Gamete intracytoplasmic fallopian transfer
(2) Artificial insemination
(3) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection
(4) Intrauterine transfer
118. What is the criterion for DNA fragments movement on aga-
rose gel during gel electrophoresis?
(1) The smaller the fragment size, the farther it moves.
(2) Positively charged fragments move to farther end.
(3) Negatively charged fragments do not move.
(4) The larger the fragment size, the farther it moves.
119. The function of copper ion in copper releasing IUD’s is
(1) they inhibit gametogenesis.
(2) they make uterus unsuitable for implantation.
(3) they inhibit ovulation.
(4) they suppress sperm motility and fertilizing capacity of
sperms.
120. Spliceosomes are not found in cells of
(1) Fungi. (2) Animals.
(3) Bacteria. (4) Plants.
121. Which of the following cell organelles is responsible for
extracting energy from carbohydrates to form ATP?
(1) Ribosome (2) Chloroplast
(3) Mitochondrion (4) Lysosome
122. The pivot joint between atlas and axis is a type of
(1) cartilaginous joint. (2) synovial joint.
(3) saddle joint. (4) fibrous joint.
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 576 neet 2017
123. GnRH, a hypothalamic hormone, needed in reproduction, acts
on
(1) anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH
and FSH.
(2) posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of
oxytocin and FSH.
(3) posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH
and relaxin.
(4) anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH
and oxytocin.
124. Which of the following represents order of Horse?
(1) Perissodactyla (2) Caballus
(3) Ferus (4) Equidae
125. Phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) is the primary CO2 acceptor in
(1) C4 plants. (2) C2 plants.
(3) C3 and C4 plants. (4) C3 plants.
126. Which ecosystem has the maximum biomass?
(1) Grassland ecosystem
(2) Pond ecosystem
(3) Lake ecosystem
(4) Forest ecosystem
127. A disease caused by an autosomal primary non-disjunction is
(1) Klinefelter’s syndrome.
(2) Turner’s syndrome.
(3) Sickle cell anemia.
(4) Down’s syndrome.
128. The vascular cambium normally gives rise to
(1) primary phloem. (2) secondary xylem.
(3) periderm. (4) phelloderm.
129. Which of the following is correctly matched for the product
produced by them?
(1) Methanobacterium: Lactic acid
(2) Penicillium notatum: Acetic acid
(3) Sacchromyces cerevisiae: Ethanol
(4) Acetobacter aceti: Antibiotics
130. Thalassemia and sickle cell anemia are caused due to a prob-
lem in globin molecule synthesis. Select the correct statement.
(1) Both are due to a quantitative defect in globin chain
­synthesis.
(2) Thalassemia is due to less synthesis of globin ­molecules.
(3) Sickle cell anemia is due to a quantitative problem of
globin molecules.
(4) Both are due to qualitative defect in globin chain
­synthesis.
131. Flowers which have single ovule in the ovary and are packed
into inflorescence are usually pollinated by
(1) Bee. (2) Wind.
(3) Bat. (4) Water.
21_NEET 2017.indd 576
132. Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are present on
(1) pre-synaptic membrane.
(2) tips of axons.
(3) post-synaptic membrane.
(4) membranes of synaptic vesicles.
133. During DNA replication, Okazaki fragments are used to ­elongate
(1) the lagging strand towards replication fork.
(2) the leading strand away from replication fork.
(3) the lagging strand away from the replication fork.
(4) the leading strand towards replication fork.
134. Which of the following options best represents the enzyme
composition of pancreatic juice?
(1) Amylase, pepsin, trypsinogen, maltase.
(2) Peptidase, amylase, pepsin, rennin.
(3) Lipase, amylase, trypsinogen, procarboxypeptidase.
(4) Amylase, peptidase, trypsinogen, rennin.
135. Anaphase promoting complex (APC) is protein degradation
machinery necessary for proper mitosis of animal cells. If
APC is defective in a human cell, which of the following is
expected to occur?
(1) Chromosomes will be fragmented.
(2) Chromosomes will not segregate.
(3) Recombination of chromosome arms will occur.
(4) Chromosomes will not condense.
136. The genotypes of a husband and wife are IAIB and IAi. Among
the blood type of their children, how many different genotypes
and phenotypes are possible?
(1) 3 genotypes; 4 phenotypes
(2) 4 genotypes; 3 phenotypes
(3) 4 genotypes; 4 phenotypes
(4) 3 genotypes; 3 phenotypes
137. Viroids differ from viruses in having
(1) DNA molecules without protein coat.
(2) RNA molecules with protein coat.
(3) RNA molecules without protein coat.
(4) DNA molecules with protein coat.
138. Mycorrhizae are the example of
(1) amensalism. (2) antibiosis.
(3) mutualism. (4) fungistasis.
139. The morphological nature of the edible part of coconut is
(1) cotyledon. (2) endosperm.
(3) pericarp. (4) perisperm.
140. Myelin sheath is produced by
(1) astrocytes and Schwann cells.
(2) oligodendrocytes and osteoclasts.
(3) osteodasts and astrocytes.
(4) Schwann Cells and oligodendrocytes.
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 QUESTION PAPER 577

141. Match the following sexually transmitted diseases (Column-I) 148. Life cycle of Ectocarpus and Fucus respectively are
with their causative agent (Column-II) and select the correct (1) Diplontic, Haplodiplontic .
option.
(2) Haplodiplontic, Diplontic.
Column-I Column-II (3) Haplodiplontic, Haplontic.
(a) Gonorrhea (i) HIV (4) Haplontic, Diplontic.
(b) Syphilis (ii) Neisseria
(c)  Genital Warts (iii)  Treponema 149. The region of biosphere reserve which is legally protected and
where no human activity is allowed is known as
(d)  AIDS (iv)  Human Papilloma – Virus
Options: (1) buffer zone. (2) transition zone.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (3) restoration zone. (4) core zone.
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) 150. A gene whose expression helps to identify transformed cell is
(2) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) known as
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (1) vector. (2) plasmid.
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (3) structural gene. (4) selectable marker.
142. Which among these is the correct combination of aquatic 151. Which of the following components provides sticky character
mammals? to the bacterial cell?
(1) Dolphins, Seals, Trygon. (1) Nuclear membrane (2) Plasma membrane
(2) Whales, Dolphins, Seals. (3) Glycocalyx (4) Cell wall
(3) Trygon, Whales, Seals.
152. The final proof for DNA as the genetic material came from the
(4) Seals, Dolphins, Sharks.
experiments of
143. Coconut fruit is a (1) Hershey and Chase.
(1) Berry. (2) Nut. (2) Avery, Mcleod and McCarty.
(3) Capsule. (4) Drupe. (3) Hargobind Khorana.
(4) Griffith.
144. A dioecious flowering plant prevents both
(1) autogamy and geitonogamy. 153. Fruit and leaf drop at early stages can be prevented by the
(2) geitonogamy and xenogamy. application of
(3) cleistogamy and xenogamy. (1) ethylene. (2) auxins.
(4) autogamy and xenogamy. (3) gibberellic acid. (4) cytokinins.

145. Which of the following are found in extreme saline ­conditions?
(1) Eubacteria
(2) Cyanobacteria
(3) Mycobacteria
(4) Archaebacteria
146. Which among the following are the smallest living cells,
known without a definite cell wall, pathogenic to plants as well
as animals and can survive without oxygen?
(1) Pseudomonas (2) Mycoplasma
(3) Nostoc (4) Bacillus
147. With reference to factors affecting the rate of photosynthesis,
which of the following statements is not correct?
(1) Increasing atmospheric CO2 concentration up to 0.5%
can enhance CO2 fixation rate.
(2) C3 plants respond to higher temperatures with enhanced
photosynthesis while C4 plants have much lower tem-
perature optimum.
(3) Tomato is a greenhouse crop which can be grown in
CO2 – enriched atmosphere for higher yield.
(4) Light saturation for CO2 fixation occurs at 10% of full
sunlight.
154. Which one of the following statements is not valid for
­aerosols?
(1) They alter rainfall and monsoon patterns.
(2) They cause increased agricultural productivity.
(3) They have negative impact on agricultural land.
(4) They are harmful to human health.
155. Which of the following options gives the correct sequence of
events during mitosis?
(1) condensation → nuclear membrane disassembly →
arrangement at equator → centromere division → seg-
regation → telophase.
(2) condensation → crossing over → nuclear membrane
disassembly → segregation → telophase.
(3) condensation → arrangement at equator → centromere
division → segregation telophase.
(4) condensation → nuclear membrane disassembly →
crossing over → segregation → telophase.
156. In Bougainvillea, thorns are the modifications of
(1) adventitious root. (2) stem.
(3) leaf. (4) stipules.

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 578 neet 2017
157. If there are 999 bases in an RNA that codes for a protein with
333 amino acids, and the base at position 901 is deleted such
that the length of the RNA becomes 998 bases, how many
codons will be altered?
(1) 11 (2)  33 (3)  333 (4)  1
158. Transplantation of tissues/organs fails often due to non-­
acceptance by the patient’s body. Which type of immune-­
response is responsible for such rejections?
(1) Cell-mediated immune response
(2) Hormonal immune response
(3) Physiological immune response
(4) Autoimmune response
159. Select the correct route for the passage of sperms in male frogs
(1) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Kidney → Seminal
­Vesicle  → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca.
(2) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Bidder’s canal → Ureter →
Cloaca.
(3) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Kidney → Bidder’s canal →
Urinogenital duct → Cloaca.
(4) Testes → Bidder’s canal → Kidney → Vasa efferentia →
Urinogenital duct → Cloaca.
160. A temporary endocrine gland in the human body is
(1) corpus cardiacum. (2) corpus luteum.
(3) corpus allatum. (4) pineal gland.
161. Attractants and rewards are required for
(1) entomophily. (2) hydrophily.
(3) cleistogamy. (4) anemophily.
162. Functional megaspore in an angiosperm develops into
(1) endosperm. (2) embryo sac.
(3) embryo. (4) ovule.
163. Which of the following in sewage treatment removes
­suspended solids?
(1) Secondary treatment (2) Primary treatment
(3) Sludge treatment (4) Tertiary treatment
164. Presence of plants arranged into well-defined vertical layers
depending on their height can be seen best in
(1) Tropical rain forest (2) Grassland.
(3) Temperate forest. (4) Tropical Savannah
165. Which of the following is made up of dead cells?
(1) Collenchyma (2) Phellem
(3) Phloem (4) Xylem parenchyma
166. Zygotic meiosis is characteristic of
(1) Fucus. (2) Funaria.
(3) Chlamydomonas. (4) Marchantia.
167. MALT constitutes about _________ of the lymphoid tissue in
human body.
(1) 20% (2)  70% (3)  10% (4)  50%
21_NEET 2017.indd 578
168. Lungs are made up of air-filled sacs, the alveoli. They do not
collapse even after forceful expiration, because of
(1) inspiratory reserve volume. (2) tidal volume.
(3) expiratory reserve volume. (4) residual volume.
169. In case of Poriferans, the spongocoel is lined with flagellated
cells called
(1) oscula. (2) choanocytes.
(3) mesenchymal cells. (4) ostia.
170. Which one of the following is related to ex-situ conservation
of threatened animals and plants?
(1) Biodiversity hot spots (2) Amazon rainforest
(3) Himalayan region (4) Wildlife Safari parks
171. Which of the following RNAs should be most abundant in
­animal cell?
(1) tRNA (2) mRNA
(3) miRNA (4) rRNA
172. Which statement is wrong for Krebs’ cycle?
(1) There is one point in the cycle where FAD+ is reduced to
FADH2.
(2) During conversion of succinyl CoA to succinic acid, a
molecule of GTP is synthesized.
(3) The cycle starts with condensation of acetyl group
(­acetyl CoA) with pyruvic acid to yield citric acid.
(4) There are three points in the cycle where NAD+ is
reduced to NADH + H+.
173. Hypersecretion of growth hormone in adults does not cause
further increase in height, because
(1) epiphyseal plates close after adolescence.
(2) bones lose their sensitivity to growth hormone in adults.
(3) muscle fibers do not grow in size after birth.
(4) growth hormone becomes inactive in adults.
174. Plants which produce characteristic pneumatophores and
show vivipary belong to
(1) halophytes. (2) psammophytes.
(3) hydrophytes. (4) mesophytes.
175. Asymptote in a logistic growth curve is obtained when
(1) K=N
(2) K>N
(3) K<N
(4) The value of ‘r’ approaches zero
176. Good vision depends on adequate intake of carotene rich food.
Select the best option from the following statements.
(a)  Vitamin A derivatives are formed from carotene.
(b) The photo-pigments are embedded in the membrane
discs of the inner segment.
(c)  Retinal is derivative of vitamin A.
(d) Retinal is a light absorbing part of all the visual photopig-
ments.
04/07/2017 10:16:24
 QUESTION PAPER 579

Options: (a)  Frog is a poikilotherm.

(1) (a), (c) and (d) (b)  Frog does not have any coronary circulation.
(2) (a) and (c) (c)  Heart is myogenic in nature.
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (d)  Heart is auto-excitable.
(4) (a) and (b) Options:
(1) Only (d) (2) (a) and (b)
177. Artificial selection to obtain cows yielding higher milk output
represents (3) (c) and (d) (4) Only (c)
(1) directional as it pushes the mean of the character in one 179. Select the mismatch:
direction. (1) Cycas - Dioecious
(2) disruptive as it splits the population into two, one yield- (2) Salvinia - Heterosporous
ing higher output and the other lower output.
(3) Equisetum - Homosporous
(3) stabilizing followed by disruptive as it stabilizes the
(4) Pinus - Dioecious
population to produce higher yielding cows.
(4) stabilizing selection as it stabilizes this character in the 180. Which one from those given below is the period for Mendel’s
population. hybridization experiments?
178. Frog’s heart when taken out of the body continues to beat (1) 1840–1850 (2) 1857–1869
for some time. Select the best option from the following (3) 1870–1877 (4) 1856–1863
­statements.

ANSWER KEY

Physics
1. (1) 2. (3) 3. (2) 4. (3) 5. (1) 6. (1) 7. (2) 8. (2) 9. (3) 10. (1)
11. (4) 12. (4) 13. (4) 14. (4) 15. (2) 16. (2) 17. (1) 18. (1) 19. (2) 20. (1)
21. (4) 22. (1) 23. (1,4) 24. (2) 25. (3) 26. (2) 27. (1) 28. (3) 29. (3) 30. (4)
31. (3) 32. (1) 33. (2) 34. (4) 35. (2) 36. (1) 37. (2) 38. (4) 39. (2) 40. (2)
41. (3) 42. (3) 43. (2) 44. (2) 45. (1)
Chemistry
46. (1) 47. (1) 48. (1) 49. (1) 50. (1) 51. (3) 52. (1) 53. (4) 54. (3) 55. (1)
56. (3) 57. (1) 58. (2) 59. (3) 60. (1) 61. (4) 62. (1) 63. (2) 64. (1) 65. (3)
66. (3) 67. (3) 68. (2) 69. (2) 70. (1) 71. (2) 72. (1) 73. (3) 74. (3) 75. (2)
76. (2) 77. (3) 78. (2) 79. (4) 80. (3) 81. (2) 82. (1) 83. (1) 84. (3) 85. (1)
86. (3) 87. (3) 88. (2) 89. (4) 90. (3)
Biology
  91. (1) 92. (3) 93. (2) 94. (4) 95. (2) 96. (2) 97. (2) 98. (2) 99. (1) 100. (4)
101. (1) 102. (2) 103. (2) 104. (1) 105. (1) 106. (1) 107. (3) 108. (1) 109. (4) 110. (3)
111. (3) 112. (4) 113. (4) 114. (2) 115. (1) 116. (3) 117. (3) 118. (1) 119. (4) 120. (3)
121. (3) 122. (2) 123. (1) 124. (1) 125. (1) 126. (4) 127. (4) 128. (2) 129. (3) 130. (2)
131. (2) 132. (3) 133. (3) 134. (3) 135. (2) 136. (2) 137. (1) 138. (3) 139. (2) 140. (4)
141. (4) 142. (2) 143. (4) 144. (1) 145. (4) 146. (2) 147. (2) 148. (2) 149. (4) 150. (4)
151. (3) 152. (1) 153. (2) 154. (2) 155. (1) 156. (2) 157. (2) 158. (1) 159. (3) 160. (2)
161. (1) 162. (2) 163. (2) 164. (1) 165. (2) 166. (3) 167. (4) 168. (4) 169. (2) 170. (4)
171. (4) 172. (3) 173. (1) 174. (1) 175. (1) 176. (1) 177. (1) 178. (3) 179. (4) 180. (4)

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 580 neet 2017

ANSWERS WITH EXPLANATION

Physics 6. The decay constants of the two given radioactive materials A

and B are λA = 8λ and λB = λ, respectively.
1. The two astronauts move towards each other due to the gravi- Therefore, as initially, both radioactive materials have the same
tational force between them; however, it is a very slow process number of nuclei, we have the relation between the radioactive
due to their lesser mass. decay between these two materials as
 Answer (1) N
NB = A
2. Let us consider the following two cases: e
That is,
λD
x1 = x5th dark = ( 2 × 5 − 1) (1) N e−8λ t
2d N0 e− λ t = 0
e
8λ D
x2 = x8th dark = (2) − λt = −8λt − 1
μd
−1
Now, from (1) and (2) 7λt = −1 ⇒ t =
7λ
x1 = x2  Answer (1)
9 λ D 8λ D 7. The given electrical network is depicted in the following figure:
=
2 d μd
16 A Y1 Y2 Y
⇒μ= = 1.78
9 B
 Answer (3)
Therefore, Y1 = A + B
3. We have the following:
•  Current gain(β ) is 100. Y2 = Y1 + Y1 = Y1 = A + B = A + B
Rc⎛ 3⎞
•  Voltage gain: (Av) = β = 100 ⎜ ⎟ = 150 Thus, the output of the given electrical network is
Rb ⎝ 2⎠
•  Power gain: Av β = 150 × 100 = 15,000 Y = Y2 = A + B
 Answer (2) which satisfies a NOR gate.
 Answer (2)
4. The force per unit length is
μ0 I1I2 8. Let the original resistance of the wire be R1 and that of the
F= stretched wire be R2 .
2π d
As, I1 = I2 = I, thus Also, let the original length of the wire be l1 and that of the
( μ0 I ) I μ0 I2 stretched wire be l2 .
F1 = = = F2 Therefore, the relation between the ratio of the resistance and
2π d 2π d
the length of the original and the stretched wire is given by
B
F1 (due to wire A) R2 l22 n2l12
= = (1)
R1 l12 l12
which is due to the given data that the stretched wire’s length is
n times of the original length.
Therefore, from Eq. (1), we get
R2
= n2 ⇒ R2 = n2 R1
F2 (due to wire C) R1
 Answer (2)
Therefore, at the middle wire B, the net force per unit length is
9. It is given that f1 = 400 Hz; vs = 340 m/s.
μ0 I 2
Fnet = F + F =2 2
1 2
2π d v1 = 22 m/s v2 = 16.5 m/s
 Answer (3)
5. From basic concepts, the kinetic energy (KE) of thermal neu- Car 1 Car 2
3
tron with equilibrium is kT .
2 When both source and observer are moving toward each other,
h h h h we get the frequency heard by the driver in Car 2 as follows:
λ= = = =
mv 2mKE ⎛3 ⎞ 3mkT ⎛v +v ⎞
2m ⎜ kT ⎟ f2 = ⎜ s 2 ⎟ f1
⎝2 ⎠ ⎝ vs − v1 ⎠
 Answer (1)

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 ANSWERS WITH EXPLANATION 581

340 + 16.5 356.5 = −BINA(−1 − 1) = 2BINA

= × 400 = × 400 = 448 Hz
340 − 22 31.8 = 2 × 0.85 × 85 × 10−6 × 250 × (2.1 × 1.25 × 10−4)
 Answer (3)
= 94828.125 × 10−10
10. For the given electromagnetic wave in free space, the ratio of
= 9.48 × 10−6 ≈ 9.48 μJ 
the root mean square value of electric field to the root mean
square value of magnetic field is expressed as Which is close to option (4), which is the correct choice.
 Answer (4)
Erms
=c
Brms 14. We know that
v
Erms 6 B tan θ =
(1)
⇒ Brms = = = 2 × 10−6 = 0 H
c 3 × 106 2 where θ is true value of the angle of dip.
⇒ B0 = 2 × Brms = 2 × 2 × 10−8 = 2.83 × 10−8 T Now, let us assume that
which is the peak value of the magnetic field. θ=α
 Answer (1) Now, the angles of dip θ1 and θ2 have different formula:
11. First, let us calculate the equivalent resistance of the composite V
tan θ1 = (2)
welded unit as follows: H × cos α
d V
R1 = tan θ2 = (3)
K1 A H × sin α
d From Eqs. (2) and (3), we get
R2 =
K2 A H2
cot2 θ1 + cot2 θ2 = (cos2 α + sin2 α ) = cot2 θ
V2
Therefore, Therefore,
R1R2
Req = cot2 θ = cot2 θ1 + cot2 θ2
R1 + R2
 Answer (4)
Thermal conductivity of the composite rod is obtained as
­follows: 15. Potentiometer an instrument, which works on the principle of
⎛ d ⎞⎛ d ⎞ Wheatstone bridge, that is, there is no current flows through the
⎜⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟
d ⎝ K1 A ⎟⎠ ⎜⎝ K2 A ⎟⎠ galvanometer. Hence, option (2) satisfies this condition.
=  Answer (2)
Keq ( 2 A) d⎛ 1 1 ⎞
⎜⎜ + ⎟
A ⎝ K1 K2 ⎟⎠ 16. The resolving power of a microscope is inversely proportional
to the wavelength λ.
⎛ 1 ⎞
⎜KK ⎟ Therefore, the ratio of the resolving power of the given micro-
1 ⎝ 1 2⎠ 1 scope for the two wavelengths λ1 and λ2 is given by
= =
2 Keq ⎛ K1 + K2 ⎞ K1 + K2
⎜ KK ⎟ R1 λ2 6000 3
⎝ 1 2 ⎠ = = =
R2 λ1 4000 2
K1 + K2 That is, 3 : 2.
⇒ Keq =  Answer (2)
2
 Answer (4)
17. For dispersion without deviation, we have
12. A diode is said to be forward biased when potential at point A
is higher than that at point B (see the following figure). That is, δ1 = δ2
VA > VB. That is,

A B
A1 ( μ1 − 1) = A2 ( μ2 − 1)
10(1.42 – 1) = A2(1.7 – 1)
Hence, the diode circuit shown in option (4) is the one which ⇒ A2 = 6°
satisfies the above-mentioned concept.  Answer (1)
 Answer (4)
18. The given situation is depicted in the following circuit diagram:
13. The torque of the coil is C
τ = BINAsinθ
Therefore, the work done for rotating the coil by 180° against
the torque τ is x q
+ −
∫ τ dθ = BINA∫ sin θ dθ
q
V

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 582 neet 2017

The charge on the capacitor is expressed as N

q = CV
T
When it is connected with uncharged capacitor, we have m T
C q

mg

(a) (b)
The normal acting on the particle of mass m is
C
N = mg
The voltage in the capacitor C is given by The tension acting on the particle is
q +q q+0 mv2
VC = 1 2 = T=
C1 + C2 C + C r 

V Therefore, the resultant force acting on the particle is T (inwards).
VC =
2  Answer (4)
The initial energy is
22. The frequency of nth harmonic vibration in a closed pipe is
1
Ui = CV 2 (1) ⎛ 2n − 1⎞
2 fn = ⎜ f = 220 Hz
⎝ 42 ⎟⎠
The final energy is 
2 2 The frequency of (n + 1)th harmonic vibration is
1 ⎛V ⎞ 1 ⎛V ⎞ CV 2
Uf = C ⎜ ⎟ + C ⎜ ⎟ = [2( n + 1) − 1] f ( 2n + 1) f )
2 ⎝ 2⎠ 2 ⎝ 2⎠ 4  fn+1 = = = 260 Hz
42 42 
The loss of energy is
However, we have
CV 2
Ui − Uf = (2) fn+1 – fn = 260 Hz – 220 Hz = 40 Hz
4
That is, from Eqs. (1) and (2), we see that the total electrostatic That is,
[( 2n + 1) − ( 2n − 1)] f
energy of the resulting system decreases by a factor of 2. = 40
42 
 Answer (1)
2f
19. The velocity of Preeti w.r.t. the elevator is = 40
42 
d f
= Vground E ⇒ = 20 Hz
t1 42
 
Velocity of the elevator w.r.t. the ground is which is the fundamental frequency of the system.
d  Answer (1)
Velev G =
t2 23. The photoelectric threshold wavelength of silver is given by

Therefore, the velocity of the girl w.r.t. the ground is
λ0 = 3250 Å
Vground G = Vground E + Velev G
and the velocity of the electron ejected from a silver surface by
d d d ultraviolet light of wavelength λ is given by
= +

t t1 t2 λ = 2536 Å

1 1 1 tt Now,
= + ⇒t = 12 1 2 ⎡1 1 ⎤
t t1 t2 t1 + t2 mv = hc ⎢ − ⎥
  Answer (2) 2 ⎢⎣ λ λ0 ⎥⎦ 
20. From the thermodynamic process depicted in the graph 2hc ⎡ 1 1 ⎤
(­provided in the question), we conclude the following: ⇒v= ⎢ − ⎥
m ⎢⎣ λ λ0 ⎥⎦
•  Process (I) → Constant volume → Isochoric 
•  Process (II) → PV γ = k → Adiabatic 2 × 12400 × 1.6 × 10 ⎡
−19
714 ⎤
•  Process (III) → Constant temperature → Isothermal = ⎢ 2536 × 3250 ⎥
9.1 × 10−31 ⎣ ⎦
•  Process (IV) → Constant pressure → Isobaric
 Answer (1) = 0.6 × 10 m/s = 6 × 10 m/s
6 5

* 
Conflict question because two options [both (1) and (4)] are
21. The given situation is depicted in Fig. (a) and its free-body correct for this question.
­diagram is depicted in Fig. (b).  Answer (*1, 4)

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 ANSWERS WITH EXPLANATION 583

24. Let us name the resistances and inductors as shown in the The torque about the central line of the cylinder is
­following circuit diagram: τ = F × R = (30 × 4 × 10-2) N m
The angular acceleration is
+ L1 R2 R3 3× 4 100
α= = rad/s2= 25 rad/s2 
e 3 × (0.4)2 4
−
R1 L2 C  Answer (2)
27. Let angular velocity of combination be ω .
At t = 0, no current flows through the resistances R1 and R3. From conservation of angular momentum, we have
Therefore, the further simplified circuit is shown as follows: Iω1 + Iω2 = (I + I)ω
I 1
ω = (ω1 + ω2 )

2 
The initial kinetic energy is given by
+ 1 2 1 2
e R2 (K.E.)i = Iω + Iω
−
2 1 2 2
The final kinetic energy is given by
1 1
(K.E.)f = ( 2 I )ω 2 = I (ω1 + ω2 )2
2 4 
Now, the current flow is given as The loss of energy due to the whole process is
ε 18 Δ(K.E.) = (K.E.)i − (K.E.)f
I= = ⇒I =2A 
R2 9 1 1
= I (ω12 + ω22 ) − I (ω12 + ω22 + 2ω1ω2 )
 Answer (2) 2 4 
I 2
25. We have = (ω1 + ω22 − 2ω1ω2 )
4 
θ = εσ AT 4  I
= (ω1 − ω2 )2
4 
If the radius were halved, then we have  Answer (1)
r
r2 = 1 28. The total internal energy of the given system (2 moles of O2 and
2
4 moles of Ar) is obtained as follows:
Therefore,
A f
U = nRT
A2 = 1   (since A ∝ r2 )  2 
4
5 3
Now, Utotal = ( 2) RT + ( 4) RT = 11 RT 
2 2
T2 = 2T  Answer (3)
Therefore, 29. The bulk modulus of an object is
θ2 ( A1 / 4)(16T14 )
= =4 P
θ1 AT 4 B=
1
 ⎛ ΔV ⎞
⎜⎝ ⎟
⇒ θ2 = 4θ1 = 4 × 450 = 1800 V ⎠ 
which is the power radiated by the given blackbody. ΔV P
⇒ =
 Answer (3) V B
Therefore, after the decrease in radius of the spherical object,
26. We have the situation depicted as shown in Fig. (a). The free-
we get
body diagram of the situation is shown in the Fig. (b). Δr P
3 =
Rope Rope r B
Δr P
F = 30 N ⇒ =
r 3B 
R = 40 cm which is the fractional decrease of radius of the given spherical
object.
M = 3 kg  Answer (3)
30. It is not necessary that centre of mass (COM) and centre of
gravity (COG) coincide in objects [see the figures: Fig. (a)
F = 9.8 × 3 N depicts a square object where COM and COG coincide and
Fig. (b) Depicts a shapeless object where COM and COG are at
(a) (b) different locations on the object.]

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 584 neet 2017

COM COM kx − 3 mg 4 mg − 3 mg g
aA = = = (upwards)
and 3m 3m 3
COG For, the mass m, the acceleration acts downwards as shown in
the following figure:
COG
kx
(a) (b)
I. Centre of mass
• It is the point where the whole mass of body is concen- 3m m
trated.
• If an external force is applied on COM, its torque will be a=g
zero. 3 mg mg
II. Centre of gravity
• It is the point where the torque of gravitational force is That is
zero. aB = g .
•  COM and COG may or may not coincide.  Answer (1)
Now, we have
Output force 33. For the last Balmer series:
Mechanical advantage =
Input force  1 ⎡1 1 ⎤
= R⎢ 2 − 2 ⎥
If the mechanical advantage is greater than 1, then we have λB ⎣ 2 ∞ ⎦

Output > Input 4
⇒ λB =
Thus, less effort is required to lift a large road. R
Hence, statements (b) and (d) are correct. For the last Lyman series:
 Answer (4) 1 ⎛1 1⎞
= R⎜ 2 − 2 ⎟
λL ⎝1 ∞ ⎠
31. For the given situation, the acceleration due to gravity at height 
h is expressed as 1
⇒ λL =
⎛ 2h ⎞ R
gn = g0 ⎜1 − ⎟ h = 1 km Therefore, the ratio of wavelengths between these two series is
⎝ R⎠ 
and the acceleration due to gravity at depth d is λB 4 /R
= =4
⎛ d⎞ λL 1/R
gd = g0 ⎜1 − ⎟   Answer (2)
⎝ R⎠
gn = gd 34. The given optical situation is depicted in the following figure:
⎛ 2h ⎞ ⎛ d⎞ y
g0 ⎜1 − ⎟ = g0 ⎜1 − ⎟

⎝ R⎠ ⎝ R⎠ 
Therefore,
d = 2h = 2 × 1 km = 2 km 
2q
 Answer (3)
x
32. The free-body diagram of the given situation (of masses 3m
and m) is depicted in the following figures:
kx
When the mirror is rotated by a small angle θ, the angle of
refraction is 2θ.
y
3m m tan2θ =
x 
Since θ is too small, we have the angle θ obtained as follows:
y y
mg 2θ = ⇒θ =
x 2x 
Before the string is cut, we have  Answer (4)
kx = T + 3mg(1) 35. The length of the spring segment is
T = mg(2) l l l
Therefore, from Eqs. (1) and (2), we get , ,
6 3 2
kx = 4mg 1
As we know that the force constant k ∝ , the spring constant
for spring segment is l
After the string is cut, we have
T = 0 k1 = 6k; k2= 3k; k3 = 2k

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 ANSWERS WITH EXPLANATION 585

Thus, in parallel combination of the spring segments, we have P1

P3
k ′′ = k1 + k2 = 3k

Thus, I0 I1 I2 I3
k3 = 2k
P2
Thus, in series combination of the spring segments, we have
k ′ = k    (as it becomes original spring)
Hence, k ′ : k ′′ = 1 : 11.
 Answer (2)
36. As we know that 45°

W = qΔV = q(VB – VA) = q(40 – 10) = 30q

the work done is same in all four cases (i.e. ΔV is same in all
conditions). I0 1
= ×
 Answer (1) 4 2
I0
37. Since the net electrostatics force and the gravitational force ⇒ I2 =
between the two hydrogen atoms placed at a distance apart is 8 
 Answer (2)
zero, we have
40. We have the velocity of the SHM as
Fe = Fg
v = ω A2 − x2 (1)
1 Δe2 Gm2
= 2 Also,

4πε0 d 2 d
 a = πω 2 ; v = a
9 × 109(Δe2) = 6.67 × 10−11 ×(1.67 × 10−27) × (1.67 × 10−27)
Therefore, from Eq. (1), we get
6.67 × 1.67 × 1.67
Δe =
2
× 10−74  10−37 
9 ω A2 − x2 = πω 2 
 Answer (2)
⎛ 2π ⎞
32 − 22 = 2 ⎜ ⎟
38. Considering the dimensions, we have ⎝T ⎠

4π
z
⎡ e2 ⎤ 5=
[L] = [c]x [G ]y ⎢ ⎥
⎢⎣ 4πε0 ⎥⎦  T 
4π
[L] = [LT−1 ]x [M−1L3T−2 ]y [ML3T−2 ]z  ⇒T =
5
 Answer (2)
[L] = Lx + 3 y + 3 z M− y + z T− x − 2 y − 2 z 
41. For the water and oil in the U-tube, we have
x + 3y + 3z = 1
hoil ρoil g = hwater ρwater g
    −y + z = 0
x + 2y + 2z = 0 140 × ρoil = 130 × ρwater
On solving, we get 13
ρoil = × 1000 kg/m2
x = −2, y = 1/2 and z = 1/2.
14 
Therefore, the length is obtained as ⇒ ρoil = 928 kg/m3
1/ 2 
1 ⎡ Ge2 ⎤  Answer (3)
⎢ ⎥
c2 ⎢⎣ 4πε0 ⎥⎦  42. It is given that the mass of the rain water as
 Answer (4)
⎛ 1 ⎞
m = 1g = ⎜ kg
39. The given optical situation of the polaroid’s is depicted in the ⎝ 1000 ⎟⎠

following figure:
The height at which the rain drop is falling is
Now,
I0 h = 1 km = 1000 m
I1 = cos2 45°
2  The work done by the gravitational force is
I0 1 I Wg – mgh = 0
    = × = 0
2 2 4 Therefore,
I0 1
Wg = × 10 × 1000
I2 = I1 cos2 45° cos2 45° 1000
4 


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 586 neet 2017

Change in K.E. is 45. Since we have

1 2 1 1 1− n 1 − (1/10) 9 /10
mv − 0 = × × 50 × 50 − 0 β= = = = 9
2 2 1000  n (1/10) 1/10
From work-energy theorem, we can write as and
θ
Wg + Wair resistance = Δ(K.E.) β= 2
W 
10 J + Resistive force = 1.25 – 10
we get the amount of energy absorbed from the reservoir as
where 10 J is the work done by gravitational force on the rain
θ2 = 9 × 10 = 90 J
drop and the resistive force of the air is −8.75 J.
 Answer (3)  Answer (1)

43. We have the x- and y-coordinates of the acceleration of the

given particle obtained as follows: Chemistry
x = 5t – 2t2; y = 10t
dx dy 46. Certain medium present in the environment absorb or take up
= 5 − 4t ; = 10 some amounts of the pollutants and is known as sink for that
dt dt  pollutant. For example, microorganisms present in the soil act
vx = 5 - 4t; vy = 10
as sink for carbon monoxide.
⎛ dv ⎞ ⎛ dv ⎞  Answer (1)
⎜⎝ ⎟⎠ = −4; ⎜⎝ ⎟⎠ = 0
dt x dt y
47. The new element that has been discovered is Flerovium with
ax = −4; ay = 0 atomic number Z = 114. It belongs to group 14, that is, carbon

 Answer (2) family with electronic configuration [Rn] 5f146d107s27p2 .
44. The required total charge flowing through the coil during the  Answer (1)
given time is obtained as follows: 48. Gibbs free energy is given by
⎡⎛ Δϕ ⎞ 1 ⎤
q = ⎢⎜ ⎟ . ⎥ Δt ΔG = ΔH − T ΔS (1)
⎣⎝ Δt ⎠ R ⎦ 
Substituting ΔH = 35500 J mol−1 , ΔS = 83.6 J K −1 mol−1 and
⎡ ΔI ⎤ 1 ΔG = 0 (At equilibrium) in Eq. (1), we get
= ⎢ μ0 nN π r2 ⎥ Δt
⎣ Δt ⎦ R 
ΔG = ΔH − T ΔS
⎡ ⎛ 4 ⎞⎤ 0 = 35500 − T × 83.6
= ⎢ 4π × 10−7 × 2 × 104 × 100 × π × (10−2 )2 × ⎜
⎣ ⎝ 0.05 ⎟⎠ ⎥⎦ 35500
T= = 424.64 K ≈ 425 K
1 83.6
× 0.05 
10π 2 Since, both ΔH and ΔS are positive, thus, reaction will be
= 32 μC spontaneous at high temperature, that is, when T > 425K .
 Answer (2)  Answer (1)

49. This is an example of elimination addition reaction.

OCH3 OCH3 OCH3

H −
NH2 −
− Br −
Br Br

−
NH2

OCH3 OCH3
OCH3

NH2 NH2 −
NH3
NH3 +
−
NH2
More stable Less stable
carbanion carbanion
(The negative charge is farther to
electron donating group)
 Answer (1)

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 ANSWERS WITH EXPLANATION 587

50. Molarity of a solution is defined as the number of moles of 56. In case of hydrogen or hydrogen like species, the energy of
­solute per liter of solution. ­electron is determined only by the principal quantum number.
Moles of solute The energy of all the orbitals in a given shell is the same, irre-
Molarity = spective of the shape of the orbital. Thus, the order of energy
Litresof solution 
levels is 1s < 2s = 2p < 3s = 3p = 3d
Since, volume is a function of temperature, therefore, molarity
changes with temperature.  Answer (3)
 Answer (1) 57. A catalyst in a system that reaches a point of equilibrium
51. Any three-dimensional arrangement of atoms that results from increases the rate of both the forward and reverse reactions pro-
rotation about a single bond is called a conformation. In con- portionally, but does not change the point of equilibrium. The
formation of ethane, there is no change in bond length and bond function of a catalyst is simply to reach the point of equilibrium
angle. Change occurs only in dihedral or torsional angle. in less time. Hence, the value of equilibrium constant is does
not change in the presence of catalyst in the reaction.
 Answer (3)
 Answer (1)
52. Sulphur dioxide (SO2) decolorizes acidified KMnO4 solution.
The reaction is 58. The reactions are as follows:
H+
MnO + SO2 ⎯⎯→
−
4
Mn 2+
+ SO + H2O
2−
4
Hg2+ ⎯KI
⎯→ HgI2 ⎯excess
⎯⎯⎯ KI
→ [HgI ]
4
2−
Colorless/Light pink

Purple
 Answer (1) Scarlet red ppt. Colourless soluble complex

I2 + I− (excess) → I3−
53. Due to inert pair effect, the stability of the lower oxidation state (Dark brown complex)

increases on descending the group.  Answer (2)
Thus Sn2+ is a reducing agent while Pb4+ is oxidizing agent as
59. Aryl amines are basic in nature due to the presence of lone pair
Pb2+ is more stable than Pb4+
of electrons on nitrogen atom. Among the given compounds,
 Answer (4)
(III) is most basic as electron donating alkyl group increases the
54. The overall rate of the reaction depends on the rate of the electron density on the nitrogen atom while in compound (II)
slowest step. Since, two reagents are involved in the rate deter- electron density decreases due to the presence of electron with-
mining step; the overall rate of reaction is proportional to the drawing nitro group, thus is less basic than aniline (I). Hence,
concentrations of only those reagents. the increasing order of basic strength is (II) < (I) < (III).
Rate = k [ X ][Y2 ]  Answer (3)

From X 2 → X + X (1) 60. Compounds that contain carbon–metal bonds are called organo-
metallic compounds. This bond can be either a direct carbon to
[X ] 2
keq = metal bond (σ bond or sigma bond) or a metal complex bond
[ X2 ] (π bond or pi bond). Among the given compounds, Grignard

[ X ] = keq [ X 2 ]1/ 2 (2) reagent is an example of sigma bonded organometallic com-
pound.
From Eq. (1) and Eq. (2), we get  Answer (1)
Rate = k keq [ X 2 ] [Y2 ] 1/ 2
61. We have

= k ′ [ X 2 ] [Y2 ]
1/ 2
SrCO3 (s)  SrO(s) + CO2 (g)
 
Hence, the overall order of the reaction = 1+ 0.5 =1.5 Also,
 Answer (3)
K p = pCO = 1.6 atm
55. The equilibrium constants of the following are
2

From combined gas law
N2 + 3H2  2 NH3 K1 (1)
pV
1 1
= p2V2 (1)
N2 + O2  2 NO K2 (2)
Substituting p1 = 0.4 atm, V1 = 20 L and p2 = 1.6 atm in Eq. (1),
1
H2 + O2 → H2O K3 (3) we get
2
0.4 × 20 = 1.6 × V2
Target reaction:
0.4 × 20
5 V2 = = 5L
2NH3 + O2  2 NO + 3H2O K (4) 1.6 
2  Answer (4)
Now,
62. Antiseptics are chemical substances that prevent the growth of
Eq. (4) = Eq. (2) + 3 × Eq. (3) − Eq. (1)
microorganisms or kill them but are not harmful when applied
Therefore, to human tissues. Mixture of mixture of chloroxylenol and
K K3
K= 2 3 ­terpineol is an example of antiseptic.
K1
  Answer (1)  Answer (1)

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 588 neet 2017

63. Mn atom has the outer electronic structure 3d54s2. Thus a Mn3+ ion will have the structure 3d4, and the electrons will be arranged as:
3d 4s 4p 4d

Mn3+:

CN− is a strong field ligand; therefore, pairing of electrons takes place which leads to d2sp3 hybridization with octahedral shape.
−
[Mn(CN)6]3 : xx xx xx xx xx xx

d2sp3 hybridization
(Octahedral shape)
 Answer (2)

64. The correct shape of interhalogen compounds is as follows: 68. Phenolic ethers are cleaved at the alkyl–oxygen bond on heating
with HI. This is due to the greater stability of aryl–oxygen bond
Compounds Shape Hybridization because of stabilization of lone pair of atom on oxygen atom on
XX′ Linear the sp2 hybridized carbon atom of the aryl ring. The reaction is

XX3′ T-Shape sp3d O CH3 OH

XX5′ Square-pyramidal sp3d2

XX7′ Pentagonal bipyramidal sp3d3 + HI + CH3 I

 Answer (1) Phenol

65. The shape of the BCl3 molecule is a planar triangle with bond
angles of 120°.
I
1s 2s 2p
Electronic structure
of boron atom-
excited state + CH3 OH
(sp2 hybridization)
 Answer (2)
Three singly occupied orbitals (2s and 2p) form bonds with
unpaired electrons from three chlorine atoms. 69. The overall cell reaction is Zn + Cu2+ → Zn2+ + Cu
 Answer (3) According to Nernst equation
66. In the presence of concentrated sulphuric acid and mercuric 2.303RT
Ecell = Ecell
o
− log Q
salts, alkynes undergo the addition of water in a reaction that nF 
follows Markovnikov’s rule; that is, it corresponds to the addi-
tion of H to the less substituted carbon of the triple bond and For cell: Zn ZnSO4 (0.01M) CuSO4 (1M) Cu

–OH to the more substituted carbon. 0 . 059 [ Zn 2+
]
E1 = Ecell
o
− log
OH O 2 [Cu2 + ]

H2SO4 0.059 0.01
CH3C CH + H2O CH3 C CH2 CH3 CCH3 = Ecell
o
− log
HgSO4 2 1 
Propyne Propen-2-ol Propanone = Ecell
o
+ 0.059 log 2 (1)
(an enol) (acetone)
(A) (B) For cell: Zn ZnSO4 (1M) CuSO4 (0.01M) Cu

 Answer (3) 0.059 [Zn2 + ]

E1 = Ecell
o
− log
2 [Cu2 + ]
67. Freezing point depression is given by ΔTf = Kf m , where Kf
0.059 1
is constant characteristic of the solvent. The value of Kf for a = Ecell
o
− log
2 0.01 
given solvent corresponds to the number of degrees of freezing
point lowering for each molal unit of concentration. Hence, it is = Ecell
o
− 0.059 log 2 (2)
independent of molality. From Eq. (1) and Eq. (2), we know
 Answer (3) E1 > E2
 Answer (2)

21_NEET 2017.indd 588 04/07/2017 10:17:00

 ANSWERS WITH EXPLANATION 589

70. For first order reactions, we have Since the system is well insulated, q = 0. Form first law of
2.303 [A ] ­thermodynamics, we have
t= log 0 (1)
k [At ] ΔE = q + w

Substituting k =10 s , A0= 20 g and At = 5 g in Eq. (1), we get
-2 -1 ΔE = 0 = w − 506.5 J 
 Answer (2)
2.303 ⎛ 20 ⎞
t= log ⎜ ⎟ 76. In actinoids, the 5f orbitals extend in space beyond 6s and 6p
10−2 ⎝ 5⎠
orbitals and participate in bonding as energy difference between
2.303 5f, 6d and 7s levels is comparable.
= × 0.60205
10−2  Answer (2)
= 138.6 s  77. The ortho and para isomers can be separated by steam distilla-
 Answer (1)
tion. Steam distillation is used for purifying substances that are
71. The bond order of given species are as follows: steam volatile and immiscible with water. Ortho-nitrophenol is
Species Bond order steam volatile due to intramolecular hydrogen bonding while
para-nitrophenol is less volatile due to intermolecular hydrogen
+
O2 , NO 2 and 3 bonding which cause association of molecules.
CN , CO −
3 and 3  Answer (3)
N2 , O2− 3 and 1.5 78. The reactions involved are as follows:
CO, NO 3 and 2.5 [Co( NH3 )6 ]Cl3 + 3AgNO3 → [Co( NH3 )6 ]( NO3 )3 + 3AgCl ↓

 Answer (2) [Co( NH3 )5 Cl]Cl2 + 2AgNO3 → [Co( NH3 )5 Cl]( NO3 )2 + 2AgCl ↓
72. S4 O6 and S2O3 have S–S bond. The structures are as follows:
2- 2-
[Co( NH3 )4 Cl2 ]Cl + AgNO3 → [C
Co( NH3 )4 Cl2 ]( NO3 ) + AgCl ↓
−  Answer (2)
S S O O
O S
79. Energy absorbed is inversely proportional to the absorbed
S − S S S S O 1
O O O O wavelength, that is, E ∝ .
O− O− O O− λ
Presence of strong field ligand increases the energy gap Δ0
2− 2−
S2O3 S4O6 between the t2g and eg levels, therefore, decreases the wavelength
of light absorbed. The order of ligand field strength is H2O < NH3
 Answer (1) < en. Hence, increasing order for the wavelength of absorption in
73. The reaction involved is the visible region is [Co(en)3 ]3+ < [Co(NH3 )6 ]3+ < [Co(H2O)6 ]3+
Ag2C2O4 (s)  2Ag+ + C2O24 −  Answer (4)

[Ag+ ] = 2.2 × 10−4 mol L−1 80. An electron-withdrawing group (−NO2) increases the acidity
of a phenol while electron donating (−CH3) group decrease
[C2O24 − ] = 0.5 [Ag+ ] = 0.5 × 2.2 × 10−4
the acidity of a phenol relative to phenol itself. 2, 4, 6-Trinitro-
= 1.1 × 10−4 mol L−1 phenol (picric acid) contains three electron withdrawing nitro
Ksp = [Ag+ ] 2 [C2O24 − ] groups therefore is most acidic among the given compounds.
The increasing order of acidity is
= ( 2.2 × 10−4 )2 × (1.1 × 10−4 )
OH OH OH OH
= 5.3 × 10−12 
 Answer (3) O2N NO2
74. Ionic mobility is defined as the ability of an ion to move in an < < <
aqueous solution. Larger the hydrated radius, lesser is the ionic
mobility, that is,
1 CH3 NO2 NO2
Ionic radius ∝
Hydrated radius   Answer (3)
Thus, the order of ionic mobility will be in the reverse order of
81. Both XeF2 and IBr2− are linear molecules. Their structures are
the hydrated radius. The ionic size increases as we go down the
as follows:
group, therefore, the hydrated radius decreases and the order of
F –
ionic mobility is
Br I Br
Li (aq ) < Na (aq ) < K (aq ) < Rb (aq ) < Cs (aq )
+ + + + +

 Answer (3)
Xe
75. Work done by a gas in an irreversible expansion is given by
w = − pΔV
= −2.5( 4.5 − 2.5) = −5 L atm F
= − 5 × 101.3 J = − 506.5 J  Answer (2)


21_NEET 2017.indd 589 04/07/2017 10:17:03

 590 neet 2017

82. Hoffmann hypobromamide reaction is used for the conversion O

of an amide into a primary amine with one carbon less. The
CH3 C NH2 + Br2 + 4KOH
overall reaction is as follows:
Acetamide

CH3 NH2 + 2KBr + K2CO3 + 2H2O

Methanamine
 Answer (1)

83. The reaction involved is as follows:

H
−

HO
−
+O
−
O O + H2 O

Enolate anion

−
O + O O

−
O

−
∆
O + H 2O O + OH
H − H2O

O
−
O HO
 Answer (1)

84. The three-dimensional shapes of proteins are dependent on
the temperature. If the environment such as temperature, pH
changes, a protein may lose its characteristic shape (secondary,
tertiary and quaternary structure).This process is called dena-
turation. Denatured proteins lose their functional ability and
become inactive.
 Answer (3)
85. The hydrogen bonded to the carbon of a terminal alkyne, called
an acetylenic hydrogen atom, is considerably more acidic than
those bonded to carbons of an alkene or alkane. Hybridization
of terminal carbon is shown as:
sp sp sp2 sp3
CH CH > CH3 C CH > CH2 CH2 > CH3 CH3
Greater s orbital character in carbon hybridization, greater is
its acidity. Being the most electronegative, the sp-hybridized
carbon atom of ethyne polarizes its C—H bonds to the great-
est extent, causing its hydrogens to be most positive. Therefore,
ethyne donates a proton to a base more readily. Alkyl being an
electron donating group reduces the acidity of alkynes.
 Answer (1)
86. Process used for extraction of silver is cyanide process.
­Reactions taking place at the different stages in the cyanide
process are as follows:
Ag2S + 4 NaCN (excess)  2[Ag(CN )2 ] + Na2S
4 Na2S + 5O2 (air ) + 2H2O → 2 Na2SO4 + 4 NaOH + 2S
In the step involving precipitation of Ag, a little excess of Zn
powder is added by which Na[Ag(CN)2] becomes the limiting
reagent, otherwise the loss of Ag will be more. Here Zn is cho-
sen because it is more electropositive as compared to Ag and the
replacement reaction occurs very easily.
2 Na[Ag(CN )2 ] + Zn → Na2 [Zn(CN )4 ] + 2Ag ↓
 Answer (3)
87. Electrophiles are reagents that seek electrons so as to achieve
a stable shell of electrons like that of a noble gas. They can be
neutral (BF3 and AlCl3) or positively charged ( CH3+ ) species
and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from a
nucleophile.
 Answer (3)

21_NEET 2017.indd 590 04/07/2017 10:17:05

 ANSWERS WITH EXPLANATION 591

88. The reactions involved are as follows:

Cu [Ag(NH3)2]+
CH3 CH2 OH CH3 CHO Silver mirror
573 K
observed
(X) (A)
Ethanol Ethanal

O OH−/ ∆
NH2 NH C NH2 (Aldol condensation)
O O

CH3 CH N NH C NH2 CH3 CH CH C H

(Z) (Y)
Semicarbazone But-2-enal
(2-Ethylidene hydrazinecarboxamide)
 Answer (2)

89. The IUPAC name of the compound is 3-keto-2-methylhex-4-
en-1-al.
O O
1 2 3 4 5 6
H C CH C CH CH CH3
CH3
 Answer (4)
90. When an ion is displaced from its regular position to an intersti-
tial position, it creates a vacancy at the original site and a defect
at the interstitial site; this pair of vacancy-interstitial is called
Frenkel defect. This defect is exhibited by the compounds in
which metal cations are generally smaller than the anions.
Examples are ZnS, AgCl, AgBr and AgI.
 Answer (3)
Biology
91. ANF is atrial natriuretic factor. ANF is a hormone produced by
the walls of the atria of the heart in response to an increase in
blood volume and pressure. It increases sodium excretion and
decreases blood pressure.
 Answer (1)
92. Small organic molecules can combine into very large molecules
that are called macromolecules or biomacromolecules. The acid
insoluble portion of the cellular pool consists of the biomac-
romolecules from cytoplasm and organelles. These include
proteins, nucleic acids, lipids and polysaccharides. Except for
lipids, the other biomacromolecules are polymeric and have
molecular weight in the range of 10,000 Da and above.
 Answer (3)
93. Deciduous teeth begin to erupt at about 6 months of age and one
pair appears about each month thereafter until all 20 are present
(8 incisors, 4 canines, 0 premolars and 8 molars). They are gen-
erally lost in the same sequence between 6 and 12 years of age.
 Answer (2)
94. A little amount of filtered water is reabsorbed in the descending
limb of the loop of Henle, little or no water is reabsorbed in the
ascending limb because the membranes are virtually imperme-
able to water.
 Answer (4)
95. RBCs lack nucleus and other organelles and can neither repro-
duce nor carry extensive metabolic activities. Every 100 mL
of blood of a healthy human being contains 12–16 g of hemo-
globin. Red blood cells are highly specialized for their oxygen
transport function. Because mature RBCs have no nucleus, all
their internal space is available for oxygen transport
 Answer (2)
96. The hemichordates bear gill slits and hollow nerve chord, which
is identifying characteristics of chordates. The pharynx consists
of gill slits.
 Answer (2)
97. Species–Area Relationships (SAR) is an important concept in
ecology. The SAR links area with species richness. The bigger
the area, the more are the number of species found. Alexander
von Humboldt observed that there is an increase in species rich-
ness with increasing explored area only up to a certain limit.
 Answer (2)
98. Sapwood is the part of wood in a living tree that contains liv-
ing cells and reserve materials. It is converted into heartwood
due to death of parenchyma and other living cells of the wood
followed by removal of reserved substances or their conversion
into heartwood substances. The function of conduction of water
and minerals from the roots is now performed by outer younger
rings of secondary xylem which is the sap wood or alburnum.
 Answer (2)
99. Holoenzyme is a catalytically active enzyme-cofactor complex.
The enzymatically inactive protein resulting from the removal
of a holoenzyme’s cofactor is referred to as an apoenzyme. The
coenzymes also act as cofactors in different enzyme-catalyzed
reactions, thus they are reaction specific.
Apoenzyme (inactive) + Coenzyme (Cofactor) = Holoenzyme
(active)
 Answer (1)

21_NEET 2017.indd 591 04/07/2017 10:17:06

 592 neet 2017
100. The cells of region of elongation gradually differentiate and
become functionally mature and form the region of matura-
tion. The cells mature and differentiate to form primary tissue
of root-cortex, endodermis, pericycle, vascular bundles, etc.
Most of the water absorption occurs in this region. The epider-
mal cells give rise to lateral tubular outgrowth known as root
hairs which help in increasing surface area for absorption of
water. Since numerous root hairs are present in this region, it
is also known as root hair region.
 Answer (4)
101. Mendel choose 14 pea plants to focus on seven clearly defin-
able characters, including plant height and flower color, each
of which occurred in two allelomorphic traits.
S. No Character Dominant Recessive
Trait Trait
1 Plant height Tall Dwarf
2 Flower color Purple White
3 Flower/pod position Axial Terminal
4 Pod shape Inflated Constricted
5 Pod color Green Yellow
6 Seed shape Round Wrinkled
7 Seed color Yellow Green
 Answer (1)
102. The orientation of microfibrils in the guard cells also plays an
important role in opening and closing of stomata. The micro-
fibrils are arranged in a radial fashion and fan out from the
central area of the ventral wall.
 Answer (2)
103. The core of nucleosome consists of an octamer (8 mole-
cules; two molecules each of histones H2a, H2b, H3, and H4)
of histones and 146 bp DNA. Around 200 bp of DNA helix
are associated with a nucleosome. They are all stabilized by
the binding of one molecule of histone H1 to the outside of
the structure. The nucleosome further coils to form solenoid
having 6 nucleosomes per turn. Actually, the nucleosomal
organization has approximately 10 nm thickness, which gets
further condensed and coiled to produce a solenoid of 30 nm.
This solenoid structure undergoes further coiling to produce a
chromatin fiber of 30–80 nm and then a chromatid of 700 nm.
 Answer (2)
104. Electrophoresis is a technique that uses differences in elec-
trical charges to separate the molecules in a mixture. Since
DNA molecules have negative charges, they migrate towards
the positive pole when placed in an electric field.
 Answer (1)
105. Purification and downstream processing technologies are used
to separate and purify the specific protein or organic com-
pound. Downstream processing (DSP) refers to the recovery
and purification of products that are produced by fermentation
or other industrial processes.
 Answer (1)
21_NEET 2017.indd 592
106. In colonial algae, the cells are present in group and form
­colonies. The colonies can be motile (e.g., Volvox) due to the
presence of flagellum or non-motile due to its absence (e.g,
Hydrodictyon).
 Answer (1)
107. Capacitation is the change which occurs in sperm before
­fertilization, by destabilizing the acrosomal sperm head. This
change occurs in mammals only in the reproductive tract of
female.
 Answer (3)
108. The free-living nitrogen-fixing bacteria are widespread; how-
ever, they grow slowly as large amount of their respiratory
energy is required to fix dinitrogen. Thus, except for the pho-
tosynthetic species, they confine to habitats rich in organic
carbon.
Although some species are aerobic (e.g., Azotobacter,
­Beijerinckia), most fix dinitrogen under anaerobic condi-
tions or in the presence of low oxygen. These include both
non-photosynthetic genera (Clostridium, Bacillus, Klebsiella)
and photosynthetic genera (Chromatium, Rhodospirillum) of
­bacteria.
 Answer (1)
109. Inbreeding refers to the mating between the closely related
individuals for 4–6 generations within the same breed. If the
parent stock contains desirable characteristics, then these are
inherited by the offspring. For example, a cow that produces
large amount and good quality of milk can be mated with a
bull which can produce superior offspring as compared to oth-
ers in the breed. In animals, inbreeding is used to develop pure
lines as it increases homozygosity.
 Answer (4)
110. At the end of a PCR, a sample of the reaction mixture is usu-
ally analyzed by agarose gel electrophoresis. The DNA pro-
duced should be sufficient for the amplified fragment to be
visible as a discrete band after staining with EtBr. Ethidium
bromide binds to DNA molecules by intercalating between
adjacent base pairs, causing partial unwinding of the DNA
double helix. Bands showing the positions of the different
sizes of DNA fragment are clearly visible under ultraviolet
irradiation after EtBr staining, as long as sufficient DNA is
present.
 Answer (3)
111. Double fertilization is a process unique to angiosperms. They
are able to undergo double fertilization where the fusion takes
place twice, one between the egg cell and a male gamete and
the other between the polar nuclei and the second male gam-
ete. This accounts for their widespread growth.
 Answer (3)
112. The water potential of pure water at standard temperature and
atmospheric pressure is taken to be zero.
 Answer (4)
113. Twelve pairs of ribs, numbered 1–12 from superior to inferior,
give structural support to the sides of the thoracic cavity. The
first seven pairs of ribs that have costal cartilages and attach
04/07/2017 10:17:06

directly to the sternum are called true (vertebrosternal) ribs.
They attach posteriorly to the thoracic vertebrae and ventrally
to the sternum by a hyaline cartilage.
 Answer (4)
114. In binary fission, a cell duplicates its components and divides
into two cells. Asexual reproduction in bacteria is by binary
fission. Before binary fission, there is replication of genetic
material. After this, the cell divides. In continuously dividing
cells, DNA synthesis is continuous and the bacterial chromo-
some is replicated shortly before the cell divides. The chro-
mosome is attached to the cell membrane, which grows and
separates the replicated chromosomes. Replication of the
chromosome is completed before cell division, when the cell
may temporarily contain two or more nucleoids.
 Answer (2)
115. Paneth cells are present in crypts of Lieberkühn of duodenum.
They secrete lysozyme, a bactericidal enzyme and are capable
of phagocytosis. These cells may also have a role in regulating
the microbial population in the small intestine.
 Answer (1)
116. The hepatic portal vein receives blood from capillaries of
gastrointestinal organs (small intestine and portions of large
intestine) and the spleen and delivers it to the sinusoids (blood
vessels lined with discontinuous endothelium having phago-
cytes, also found in spleen and bone marrow) of the liver.
 Answer (3)
117. Intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) technique is used to
treat male infertility (i.e. low sperm count, low motility of
sperm or intracellular sperm infection) and in older couples
where IVF attempts have been unsuccessful. In this technique,
the sperms are obtained from ejaculation and a single sperm is
injected into a mature egg with the help of a microneedle. The
fertilization rate through ICSI is 60–70%.
 Answer (3)
118. The gel is made up of agarose (from sea weed) or polyacryl-
amide or a mixture of two. It has a complex network of pores
provides sieving effect and allows the DNA molecules to travel
and reach the positive electrode. The smaller the DNA mole-
cule, faster is the migration. So the DNA band that is the far-
thest from the well where it was loaded, is the smallest in size.
 Answer (1)
119. Intrauterine devices (IUD) is a small object made of plastic,
copper, or stainless steel that is inserted into the cavity of the
uterus through vagina to prevent sperm from entering the fal-
lopian tubes and enhance phagocytosis of the sperms. The
copper ions reduce sperm motility and fertilizing capacity.
 Answer (4)
120. The splicing mechanism must be highly precise and accurate.
The exon sequences should be joined accurately so that the
codons are read correctly during translation. In tRNA pre-
cursors, introns are removed by a splicing endonuclease and
ligase. The rRNA precursors are spliced out auto catalytically
without any involvement of catalytic proteins. In nuclear
21_NEET 2017.indd 593
ANSWERS WITH EXPLANATION 593
pre-mRNAs, introns are excised on complex ribonucleopro-
tein structures called spliceosomes. It occurs in the eukaryotes
(fungi, animals and plants) and absent in prokarytoes such as
bacteria.
 Answer (3)
121. Aerobic respiration takes place in mitochondria. Pyruvate
produced during glycolysis is transported from cytoplasm into
mitochondria. Carbohydrates are broken down into simple
sugars such as glucose or into sugars that are changed to glu-
cose. Glucose is metabolized by glycolysis, the Krebs’ cycle
and the electron transport chain. During electron transfer,
protons are removed from the mitochondrion. This produces a
proton gradient across the mitochondrial membrane. The free
energy stored as a result of oxidation-reduction in this electro-
chemical gradient helps in the synthesis of ATP from ADP and
Pi, hence it is termed oxidative phosphorylation.
 Answer (3)
122. Joint between atlas and axis is pivot joint is an example of
synovial joint. It is characterized by the presence of a fluid
filled synovial cavity between the articulating surfaces of the
two bones.
 Answer (2)
123. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) secreted by the
hypothalamus controls the ovarian and menstrual cycles.
GnRH stimulates the release of follicle-stimulating hor-
mone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) from the anterior
­pituitary.
 Answer (1)
124. Order Perissodactyla includes odd-toed ungulates such as
­rhinoceros, zebra, etc. Examples: Equus caballus (Horse),
Equus zebra (Zebra), Equus assinis (Ass), Rhinoceros, etc.
 Answer (1)
125. Biochemical and anatomical adaptations of C4 plants suggest
that thick impervious walls of the bundle sheath cells do not
allow CO2 to escape from the cell. Even if it does, it is trapped
by phosphoenol pyruvate carboxylase (the initial fixation
PEPcase fixation of PEP) present in the adjacent mesophyll
cells before it can escape from the leaf. Thus, C4 plants, apart
from absorbing CO2, also play a role in trapping and recircu-
lating it.
 Answer (1)
126. In a forest ecosystem, single large-sized tree is attacked by
numerous minute plant-eating insects preyed upon by fewer
spiders and carnivorous insects which are further preyed
upon by a lesser number of small sized birds which are finally
preyed upon by only a few large sized birds of prey. Thus, the
pyramid of number in this ecosystem is spindle-shaped. The
total amount of organic matter on the Earth or in any ecosys-
tem or area is called its biomass. Higher biomass is present in
forest ecosystem.
 Answer (4)
127. During meiosis I, if a homologous pair of chromosomes
does not separate (primary non-disjunction), both the chro-
mosomes appear in one daughter cell, while the other receive
04/07/2017 10:17:06
 594 neet 2017
one chromosome less than normal or no chromosomes at all.
A trisomy is a condition in which an individual has inherited
an extra chromosome, resulting in three copies of a particu-
lar chromosome instead of the usual two copies. Therefore,
the individual would have 47 instead of 46 chromosomes. The
presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21 leads to Down
syndrome. The two chromosomes of 21 do not separate out
and pass into a single egg during oogenesis. Thus, the egg now
has 24 chromosomes instead of 23, and the progeny has 47
chromosomes (45 + XY in male, 45 + XX in female), instead
of 46 chromosomes (44 + XX or XY). It does not involve any
sex-linked chromosome it means it is an autosomal disease.
 Answer (4)
128. Lateral meristems, situated along the side of stems and
roots, cause secondary growth in plants and produce vascu-
lar cambium producing secondary xylem and phloem and
­cork-cambium producing cork. The cork cambium (­phellogen)
is a lateral meristem which produces dead cells or cork (phel-
lem) towards outerside and living cells of secondary cortex
(phelloderm) towards inner side.
 Answer (2)
129. Ethanol (ethyl alcohol) is an alcoholic beverage and also con-
sidered as psychoactive drug. The names of alcoholic bever-
ages are mainly determined based upon the substrate (grains,
fruit juice, vegetables and other ingredients) used. The yeasts
used in brewing for preparing juices or alcoholic drinks are
called Brewer’s yeast. For example, yeast Saccharomyces cer-
evisiae is used in the fermentation of juices or cereals.
 Answer (3)
130. Thalassemia is an autosomal recessive form of anemia which
occurs due to mutation or deletion of the genes controlling
the synthesis of globin chains of hemoglobin. This incomplete
synthesis of hemoglobin makes the RBCs small (microcytic),
pale (hypochromic) and short-lived. Since it is an autosomal
recessive disease, the mutant allele is carried on one of the
autosomes, so the carrier can be any one of the two parents.
It means thalassemia is a quantitative disorder. Whereas the
RBCs of a person with sickle-cell anemia contains HbS, an
abnormal kind of hemoglobin. When HbS, gives up oxygen to
the interstitial fluid, it forms long, stiff, rod-like structures that
bend the erythrocyte into a sickle shape. In the case of HbS,
the substitution of valine for glutamic acid at the sixth position
in the β chain allows a new bond to form, which changes the
conformation of the protein and leads to aggregation of hemo-
globin molecules. Sickle cell anemia is qualitative disease.
 Answer (2)
131. Transfer of pollen from anther to stigma by air is known as wind
pollination or anemophily. It generally occurs in flowers hav-
ing a single ovule in each ovary. Flowers are produced above
the foliage, with numerous flowers packed into inflorescence.
Wind-pollination is also observed in trees of cool temperate
regions and in grasses.
 Answer (2)
132. The pre-synaptic neuron converts an electrical signal (nerve
impulse) into a chemical signal (released neurotransmitter).
The post-synaptic neuron receives the chemical signal and in
21_NEET 2017.indd 594
turn generates an electrical signal (post-synaptic potential).
The neurotransmitter molecules diffuse across the synap-
tic cleft and bind to neurotransmitter receptors in the post-­
synaptic neuron’s plasma membrane.
 Answer (3)
133. Before fragment synthesis, a suitable stretch of template must
be exposed. This is achieved by the movement of the repli-
cation fork. The strand that is synthesized discontinuously is
called the lagging strand (template having 5′ → 3′ polarity)
because initiation of each fragment must wait for the parental
strands to separate or get away and expose additional template.
Reiji Okazaki of Japan discovered that one strand is synthe-
sized as fragments or small segments. These segments later
came to be known as Okazaki fragments.
 Answer (3)
134. Pancreatic juice contains following enzymes:
Enzyme Source
Pancreatic amylase Pancreatic acinar cells
Trypsin (activated from Pancreatic acinar cells
trypsinogen by enterokinase)
Carboxypeptidase (activated from Pancreatic acinar cells
procarboxypeptidase by trypsin)
Pancreatic lipase Pancreatic acinar cells
 Answer (3)
135. Anaphase-promoting complex (APC) is an E3 ubiquitin ligase
protein. Its main function is to trigger the transition from
metaphase to anaphase by targeting specific cell cycle proteins
for degradation. The three major target proteins for degrada-
tion include securin and S and M cyclins. During metaphase,
sister chromatids are linked to each other by cohesin. On
being degraded securin releases separase that cleaves cohen-
sin, making sister chromatids free to move to opposite poles
for anaphase. Thus, in absence of APC, chromosomes will not
be able to segregate from each other and thus will fail to enter
into anaphase.
 Answer (2)
136. I I × I i
A B A
IA IB
IA IA IA IA IB
A AB
i IAi IBi
A B
A, B, AB = 3 phenotypes, IA IB, IA IA, IA i, IB i = 4 genotypes.
 Answer (2)
137. Viroid RNA does not produce proteins, unlike viruses which
do. It is a new type of infectious agent that had molecules of
RNA without capsids or envelopes in the nuclei of diseased
plant cells.
 Answer (1)
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138. Mutualism is a relationship in which two species live together
in close association, both benefiting from the relationship,
which can be facultative (when species can live without their
mutualistic partner) and obligate (both the species cannot live
independently under natural conditions). The mutually bene-
ficial association of fungi with roots of higher plants is called
mycorrhiza.
 Answer (3)
139. Endosperm in coconut (inner to endocarp) are edible.
­Endosperm is the tissue produced inside the seeds of flowering
plants around the time of fertilization.
 Answer (2)
140. Myelin sheaths are produced by two types of neuroglia –
Schwann cells (in the PNS) and oligodendrocytes (in the
CNS).
 Answer (4)
141. Gonorrhea (flow of seed) is caused by the bacterium Neisseria
gonorrheae. Syphilis is caused by Treponema palladium. Also
known as condylomas, genital warts are caused by the human
papillomavirus (HPV).
AIDS is a secondary immunodeficiency condition in which a
person experiences infections due to the progressive destruc-
tion of immune system cells by the human immunodeficiency
virus (HIV). AIDS represents the end stage of infection by
HIV.
 Answer (4)
142. The lungs are organs by which most reptiles, amphibians,
aquatic mammals, such as whales, seals and dolphins, birds
and large land-dwelling animals respire (with the exception of
the insects, spiders, roundworms and earthworms).
 Answer (2)
143. Drupe is one-seeded fruit formed from monocarpellary supe-
rior ovaries. Its pericarp is divided into thin epicarp, fleshy
mesocarp and stony endocarp. Because of its stony endocarp,
it is also known as stone fruit. For example, coconut, mango,
almond, peach, etc.
 Answer (4)
144. If male and female flowers are borne on different plants, it is
known as dioecious (e.g., Vallisneria, mulberry, papaya). In
such cases both autogamy and geitonogamy are prevented and
xenogamy is favored.
 Answer (1)
145. Halophiles are a type of archaebacteria. The bacteria that
live in excessively salty environments such as the Great Salt
Lake, the Dead Sea, salt evaporation ponds and the surfaces of
salt-preserved foods are called halophiles.
 Answer (4)
146. Mycoplasmas are the smallest cells with only 0.3 μm length
whereas human nerve cells are the longest in the body at
90 cm. Mycoplasma are free-living prokaryotes, and thus do
not have cell walls. They can survive without oxygen.
 Answer (2)
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ANSWERS WITH EXPLANATION 595
147. Under high light intensity and high temperature (30–40˚C),
C4 plants show 2–3 times higher rate of photosynthesis (mea-
sured by CO2 uptake or O2 evolution) than C3 plants. At high
temperatures in C3 plants, the rate of photosynthesis decreases
more rapidly as compared to photorespiration. In C4 plants,
because of absence of or suppressed photorespiration and
stability of C4 pathway enzymes, photosynthesis continues to
occur at the same pace even if temperature is high.
 Answer (2)
148. Haplo-diplontic life cycle is seen in bryophytes, pteridophytes
and algae such as Polysiphonia, Ectocarpus, kelps, etc.
Fucus are generally monoecious with external fertilization.
The dominant plan body is diploid, and it follows diplontic
life cycle.
 Answer (2)
149. Core zone is an undisturbed or least disturbed and legally
­protected area of the biosphere reserve.
 Answer (4)
150. The transformants and the non-transformants can be distin-
guished from each other if the recombinant DNA contains
genes for antibiotic resistance (which serves as selectable
marker). The cells that can grow on the selective medium
containing the antibiotic, against which the recombinant DNA
carries resistance, are transformed cells. Selectable markers
help in identifying and selectively permitting growth of the
desired transformants.
 Answer (4)
151. Glycocalyx which is a mucilage layer of the cell envelope
and consists of non-cellulosic polysaccharides with or with-
out proteins. In other words, the capsules or slime and sticky
layers of bacteria are made up of polysaccharide containing
substances. These substances are called glycocalyx which acts
as a single protective unit by providing sticky character to the
bacterial cell.
 Answer (3)
152. Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase conducted experiments to
establish that DNA is the genetic material. They used bacte-
riophages (viruses that infect bacteria) and proved that the
genetic information of the bacterial virus bacteriophage T2
was present in its DNA. Their experiments were based on the
fact that DNA contains phosphorus but no sulphur, whereas
proteins contain sulphur but no phosphorus.
 Answer (1)
153. Auxin is a growth promoting hormone that promotes growth
by stimulating expansion of cells. The most common naturally
occurring auxin is indole-3-acetic acid (IAA). Auxin plays a
role in development of abscission layer. However, if the auxin
gradient is steep, that is, it is higher in the blade of the leaf
than in the petiole, there will be no abscission. Hence, applica-
tion of auxins such as NAA or 2,4-D prevent their premature
falling. This retains the fruit on the tree till it is fully mature
and ready for harvesting. However, it promotes abscission in
older leaves and fruits.
 Answer (2)
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154. In plants, aerosols interfere with absorption of carbon dioxide
and oxygen and hinders transpiration, therefore they are harm-
ful for agriculture.
 Answer (2)
155. Each of these stages is characterized by a specific series of
events and represents a segment of a continuous process.
• Prophase: In early prophase, the cell starts to break down
some structures and build others up, setting the stage for
division of the chromosomes. The chromosomes start to con-
dense. In prophase, the chromosomes (the sister chromatids)
condense by a remarkable process of chromosome com-
paction or condensation which involves multiprotein com-
plex condensin. The nucleolus (or nucleoli, plural) which
are surrounded by nuclear membrane, a part of the nucleus
where ribosomes are made, disappears. This is a sign that the
nucleus is getting ready to break down. As a cell progresses
towards mitosis, the microtubules of the cytoskeleton disas-
semble and reassemble as components of the mitotic spindle.
The rapid disassembly of the interphase cytoskeleton occurs
by the inactivation of proteins that stabilize microtubules
(e.g., microtubule-associated proteins or MAPs) and the
activation of proteins that destabilize these polymers.
• Metaphase: The dissolution of the nuclear envelope marks
the start of metaphase, the second phase of mitosis, during
which mitotic spindle assembly is completed and the chro-
mosomes are moved into position at the center of the cell.
Ultimately, all of the chromosomes become aligned at the
spindle equator—with one chromatid of each chromosome
connected by its kinetochore to microtubules from one pole
and its sister chromatid connected by its kinetochore to
microtubules from the opposite pole.
• Anaphase: The splitting of the chromosomes of the
metaphase plate takes place in synchrony at the onset of
anaphase, and the chromatids (now referred to as chromo-
somes, because they are no longer attached to their sisters)
begin their poleward migration. During this movement
towards the poles, the arms of the chromosome trail behind
and the centromere is seen at its leading edge. The move-
ment of chromosomes towards opposite poles is very slow
relative to other types of cellular movements, proceeding at
approximately 1 μm per minute. The slow rate of chromo-
some movement ensures that the chromosomes segregate
accurately and without entanglement.
• Telophase: As the chromosomes near their respective poles,
they tend to collect in a mass, which marks the beginning of
the final stage of mitosis, or telophase. During telophase,
daughter cells return to the interphase condition: the mitotic
spindle disassembles, the chromosomes become more and
more dispersed, the nuclear envelope, Golgi complex and
endoplasmic reticulum reform and the nucleolus appears.
 Answer (1)
156. Thorns are formed from axillary bud, thorns are hard and
sharp pointed straight or curved hard modified stem. They
serve to protect the plant against grazing animals. They reduce
transpirational water loss through leaves. They are connected
by vascular cylinder with well-developed bark of thick-walled
cells. For example, Bougainvillea.
 Answer (2)
21_NEET 2017.indd 596
157. If there are 999 bases in RNA that codes for a protein with 333
amino acids by 333 codons. If base at position 901 is deleted,
then the codon which are unaltered will be 300 for 900 bases
but after that sequence of remaining all codon frame shifted
(one base right shift). So number of codon altered will be 33
with 99 bases. So the length of the RNA becomes 998 bases.
 Answer (2)
158. The organs cannot be taken from just anybody because usually,
the immune system recognizes the proteins in the transplanted
organ as foreign and mounts both cell-mediated and antibody
mediated immune responses against them. This phenomenon
is known as graft rejection.
 Answer (1)
159. Male reproductive system of frog consists of following:
• Testes: A pair of testes is present above the kidneys. They
are yellowish and ovoid in shape. They are attached to the
kidneys by double fold of peritoneum called mesorchium.
Each testis is made up of several seminiferous tubules which
are lined by germinal epithelium. These cells produce sper-
matozoa by spermatogenesis.
• Vasa efferentia: About 10–12 vasa efferentia arise from the
testes and join the Bidder’s canal that is located on the inner
border of the kidney.
• Urino-genital duct: The longitudinal collecting tubules
extend further to form the urino-genital ducts that carry both
sperms and urine. Their swollen anterior ends function as
seminal vesicles for temporary storage of sperms. The duct
opens into the cloaca.
• Cloaca: It is a small chamber present in the middle which
helps in passing faeces, urine and sperms outside the body
through cloacal aperture.
 Answer (3)
160. Placenta, Graffian follicle and Corpus luteum are temporary
endocrine gland.
 Answer (2)
161. Insects are the most common pollinating agents. They carry
pollen grains from anther to the stigma of another flower.
Bees, butterflies, flies, moths, wasps, etc., are common insect
pollinators. Insect pollination is also known as entomophily
and such flowers are called entomophilous-flowers. They are
scented. Pleasant odor attracts bees and butterflies (e.g., Nyc-
tanthes, Cestrum, etc.) or unpleasant odor attracts flies and
beetles (e.g., Rafflesia, Aristolochia, etc.). The most orchids
offer rewards to the pollinators.
 Answer (1)
162. In most angiosperm plants, only one megaspore is functional
which later develops into an embryo sac. Hence, megaspore is
the first cell of the female gametophyte (embryo sac).
 Answer (2)
163. In primary treatment, the filtered water is passed through a
series of sedimentation tanks, where small particles (soil and
pebbles) called grit settle out. Some coagulants may be added
to aid faster and better sedimentation. This process removes
about 50% of the solid matter that is known as primary sludge.
 Answer (2)
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164. Stratification is vertical distribution of different species occu-
pying different levels in biotic community. Stratification
occurs within forests due to availability of light which results
in three or more vertical strata of plants an herb layer, a shrub
layer, a small tree layer, and a canopy tree layer in the forest. It
is found in tropical rain forest and deciduous forests.
 Answer (1)
165. The cork cambium (phellogen) is a lateral meristem which
produces dead cells or cork (phellem) towards outerside and
living cells of secondary cortex (phelloderm) towards inner
side.
 Answer (2)
166. On the basis of stage at which meiosis occurs, it is classified
into zygotic meiosis in which the zygote undergoes meiosis to
produce haploid organisms (e.g., Chlamydomonas, Ulothrix).
 Answer (3)
167. Secondary lymphatic organs and tissues are the sites where
most immune responses occur and include lymph nodes,
spleen and lymphatic nodules or follicles. MALT (Mucosa
Associated Lymphoid Tissue) constitutes about 50% of the
lymphoid tissues in human body.
 Answer (4)
168. Even after the expiratory reserve volume is expired, consid-
erable air remains in the lungs because the sub atmospheric
intrapleural pressure keeps the alveoli slightly inflated, and
some air also remains in the non-collapsible airways. This
volume is called the residual volume. It amounts to about
1100 mL to 1200 mL.
 Answer (4)
169. The inner cavity of the sponge is lined by specialized, flagel-
lated cells called collar cells or choanocytes. The flagella of
the collar cells beat to create a current of water that flows from
the outside of the sponge, through the pores, into the interior
cavity called spongocoel.
 Answer (2)
170. The best method of maximizing a species chance of survival
(when ex situ methods are required) is by relocating part of
the population to a less threatened location. Collecting wild
and domesticated organisms in botanical gardens, nurseries,
aquaria and zoos/ wildlife safari parks, etc., are examples of
offsite collection.
 Answer (4)
171. rRNA is the most abundant RNA in the animal cell. It com-
prises of about 80% in the cytoplasm of the cell.
 Answer (4)
172. Acetyl group from acetyl CoA is condensed with four-carbon
oxaloacetate and water by the enzyme citrate synthase to form
citric acid. One complete round of TCA cycle or Krebs’ cycle
yields 2 molecules of CO2, 3NADH, 1FADH2 and 1 high-­
energy compound (GTP or ATP).  Answer (3)
 Answer (3)
21_NEET 2017.indd 597
ANSWERS WITH EXPLANATION 597
173. Hypersecretion of GH during adulthood is called acromegaly.
It is generally not noticed for several years and only becomes
distinct when visible symptoms start appearing. Although GH
cannot produce further lengthening of the long bones i.e.,
height remains same, the bones of the hands, feet, cheeks and
jaws thicken and other tissues enlarge. Further, size of eyelids,
lips, tongue and nose increase, the skin thickens and furrows
develop the forehead and soles.
 Answer (1)
174. Halophytes are the plants that tolerate high salinities .Plants in
mangrove forests are subjected to anaerobic condition; hence
they developed special adaptations like pneumatophores (for
drawing atmospheric oxygen), prop roots, stilt roots (for sup-
port in wetlands) and vivipary (seed germination while on
tree).
 Answer (1)
175. The density of a population (N) shows a declining phase (neg-
ative acceleration phase due to declining birth rate or rising
death rate) and stabilizes (asymptote, where it reaches the car-
rying capacity (K ), that is, stationary phase). This stage indi-
cates the zero population growth phase where the natality rate
approximately equals the mortality rate.
 Answer (1)
176. β-carotene gets converted to vitamin A (retinol) which is vital
for good vision and strong immune system. The photopigment
present in rods is called rhodopsin or visual purple. It is a pur-
plish-red protein composed of opsin and retinal. Opsin is a
glycoprotein, while retinal is a derivative of vitamin A called
retinal. The absorption of light by a photopigment (rhodopsin
and cone photopigments) results in structural changes in them
and initiates the events that lead to the production of a receptor
potential. Retinal is the light-absorbing part of all visual phot-
opigments.
 Answer (1)
177. The success of a farm depends on proper selection of animals
for mating. Even if all the conditions are met, a poor quality
individual used for mating will reduce the profit of a commer-
cial venture.
Milk yield is chiefly dependent on the quality of breeds in
the farm. The breeds should be able to yield more milk than
the others in a given time and under given climatic condi-
tions. The low yielding varieties should be weeded out. This
will increase the profitability of the business. It represents
the directional as it pushes the mean of the character in one
direction.
 Answer (1)
178. In frogs, the nodal tissues autoregulates the normal activities
of the heart. The impulse begins in the heart muscles. This is
the reason why the heart is called myogenic. For example, in
molluscs and vertebrates (frog). A myogenic heart keeps beat-
ing even after removal under optimum conditions.
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179. Coniferophyta is characterized by profusely branched stem, 180. Gregor Johann Mendel explained the underlying principles
simple smaller leaves, relatively smaller pith and cortex, of heredity and variation through his famous hybridization
much more amount of wood. It resembles conifers and is experiments performed from 1856–1865 on the garden pea
monoecious with compact strobili and erect trunk. Examples plant, Pisum sativum, using the monastery garden to under-
include Dadoxylon, Cordaites, Ginkgo biloba, Cedrus, Pinus, stand the mechanism of heredity and inheritance. He was aptly
Sequoia. called the Father of Genetics because the genetics science was
 Answer (4) born in his monastery garden.
 Answer (4)

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