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: in words
2. Invigilator’s Signature :
AglaSem Admission
respectively :
mg
(1) (0, 0) (1)
3 Ka
(2) (0, 1) mg
(2)
Ka
(3) (⋅89, ⋅28)
Ka
(3) mg
(4) (⋅28, ⋅89)
Ka
(4) 3 mg
2. The mass of a hydrogen molecule is
3.32×10 −27 kg. If 10 23 hydrogen
molecules strike, per second, a fixed wall 4. Two batteries with e.m.f. 12 V and 13 V
of area 2 cm 2 at an angle of 458 to the are connected in parallel across a load
normal, and rebound elastically with a resistor of 10 Ω. The internal resistances of
speed of 103 m/s, then the pressure on the the two batteries are 1 Ω and 2 Ω
wall is nearly : respectively. The voltage across the load
lies between :
(1) 2.35×102 N/m2
(1) 11.4 V and 11.5 V
(2) 4.70×102 N/m2
(2) 11.7 V and 11.8 V
(3) 2.35×103 N/m2 (3) 11.6 V and 11.7 V
5. A particle is moving in a circular path of 7. If the series limit frequency of the Lyman
radius a under the action of an attractive series is νL, then the series limit frequency
k of the Pfund series is :
potential U=− . Its total energy is :
2r 2 (1) νL/16
(2) νL/25
(1) Zero
(3) 25 νL
3 k (4) 16 νL
(2) −
2 a2
8. Unpolarized light of intensity I passes
k through an ideal polarizer A. Another
(3) − 2
4a identical polarizer B is placed behind A.
The intensity of light beyond B is found to
k I
(4) be . Now another identical polarizer C
2 a2 2
is placed between A and B. The intensity
I
beyond B is now found to be . The angle
6. Two masses m 1=5 kg and m 2=10 kg, 8
connected by an inextensible string over a between polarizer A and C is :
frictionless pulley, are moving as shown (1) 458
in the figure. The coefficient of friction of (2) 608
horizontal surface is 0.15. The minimum (3) 08
weight m that should be put on top of m2 (4) 308
to stop the motion is :
9. An electron from various excited states of
hydrogen atom emit radiation to come to
the ground state. Let λ n , λ g be the
de Broglie wavelength of the electron in
the n th state and the ground state
respectively. Let Λn be the wavelength of
the emitted photon in the transition from
the nth state to the ground state. For large
n, (A, B are constants)
(1) Λ2n ≈ A+B λn2
(1) 43.3 kg
(2) Λn2 ≈λ
(2) 10.3 kg
B
(3) Λn ≈ A + 2
(3) 18.3 kg λn
10. The reading of the ammeter for a silicon 13. For an RLC circuit driven with voltage of
diode in the given circuit is : 1
amplitude vm and frequency ωo=
LC
the current exibits resonance. The quality
factor, Q is given by :
R
(1) ( ωo C)
CR
(2) ωo
(1) 11.5 mA
(2) 13.5 mA ωo L
(3)
(3) 0 R
(4) 15 mA ωo R
(4)
L
11. An electron, a proton and an alpha 14. A telephonic communication service is
particle having the same kinetic energy are working at carrier frequency of 10 GHz.
moving in circular orbits of radii re, rp, rα Only 10% of it is utilized for transmission.
respectively in a uniform magnetic field B. How many telephonic channels can be
The relation between re, rp, rα is : transmitted simultaneously if each channel
(1) re < rp < rα requires a bandwidth of 5 kHz ?
(2) re < rα < rp (1) 2×10 5
(3) re > rp = rα (2) 2×10 6
(4) re < rp = rα (3) 2×10 3
(4) 2×10 4
12. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance
15. A granite rod of 60 cm length is clamped
90 pF is connected to a battery of emf
at its middle point and is set into
20 V. If a dielectric material of dielectric
longitudinal vibrations. The density of
5 granite is 2.7×103 kg/m3 and its Young’s
constant K = is inserted between the
3
modulus is 9.27×1010 Pa. What will be
plates, the magnitude of the induced
the fundamental frequency of the
charge will be :
longitudinal vibrations ?
(1) 2.4 n C
(1) 10 kHz
(2) 0.9 n C (2) 7.5 kHz
(3) 1.2 n C (3) 5 kHz
(4) 0.3 n C (4) 2.5 kHz
16. Seven identical circular planar disks, each 18. In a potentiometer experiment, it is found
of mass M and radius R are welded that no current passes through the
symmetrically as shown. The moment of galvanometer when the terminals of the
inertia of the arrangement about the axis cell are connected across 52 cm of the
normal to the plane and passing through potentiometer wire. If the cell is shunted
the point P is : by a resistance of 5 Ω, a balance is found
when the cell is connected across 40 cm of
the wire. Find the internal resistance of
the cell.
(1) 2Ω
(2) 2.5 Ω
(3) 1Ω
(4) 1.5 Ω
73
(1) MR 2 19. An EM wave from air enters a medium.
2
181 The electric fields are
(2) MR 2
2 → ∧ z
E 1= E01 x cos 2 πν − t in air and
19 c
(3) MR 2
2 → ∧
E 2= E02 x cos [ k (2 z−ct)] in medium,
55
(4) MR 2 where the wave number k and
2
frequency ν refer to their values in air. The
17. Three concentric metal shells A, B and C
of respective radii a, b and c (a < b < c) medium is non-magnetic. If ȏ r1 and ȏr
2
have surface charge densities +σ, −σ and refer to relative permittivities of air and
+σ respectively. The potential of shell B medium respectively, which of the
is : following options is correct ?
σ b2 − c2 r 1
1
(1) + a (1) =
o b r
2
4
σ b2 − c2 r 1
1
(2) + a (2) =
o c r
2
2
r
σ a 2 − b2 1
=4
(3) + c (3)
o a r
2
r
σ a 2 − b2 1
=2
(4) + c (4)
o b r
2
20. The angular width of the central 22. From a uniform circular disc of radius R
maximum in a single slit diffraction R
and mass 9 M, a small disc of radius
is
pattern is 608. The width of the slit is 3
1 µm. The slit is illuminated by removed as shown in the figure. The
monochromatic plane waves. If another moment of inertia of the remaining disc
slit of same width is made near it, Young’s about an axis perpendicular to the plane
fringes can be observed on a screen placed of the disc and passing through centre of
at a distance 50 cm from the slits. If the disc is :
observed fringe width is 1 cm, what is slit
separation distance ?
(1) 75 µm
(1) 10 MR2
(2) 100 µm
37
(2) MR 2
9
(3) 25 µm
(3) 4 MR2
(4) 50 µm 40
(4) MR 2
9
24. The dipole moment of a circular loop 27. In an a.c. circuit, the instantaneous e.m.f.
carrying a current I, is m and the magnetic and current are given by
field at the centre of the loop is B1. When e=100 sin 30 t
the dipole moment is doubled by keeping
i=20 sin 30 t −
π
the current constant, the magnetic field at 4
B1 In one cycle of a.c., the average power
the centre of the loop is B2. The ratio
B2 consumed by the circuit and the wattless
is : current are, respectively :
(1) 2 50
(1) ,0
1 2
(2) (2) 50, 0
2
(3) 2 (3) 50, 10
1000
(4) 3 (4) , 10
2
25. The density of a material in the shape of a 28. All the graphs below are intended to
cube is determined by measuring three represent the same motion. One of them
sides of the cube and its mass. If the does it incorrectly. Pick it up.
relative errors in measuring the mass and
length are respectively 1.5% and 1%, the
maximum error in determining the density (1)
is :
(1) 4.5%
(2) 6%
(3) 2.5%
(4) 3.5% (2)
n +1
(3) −1
(4) T∝R 2
(4) 0
34. Tangents are drawn to the hyperbola 38. If sum of all the solutions of the equation
4x2−y2=36 at the points P and Q. If these π π 1
8 cos x ⋅ cos + x ⋅ cos − x − = 1
tangents intersect at the point T(0, 3) then 6 6 2
the area (in sq. units) of ∆PTQ is : in [0, π] is kπ, then k is equal to :
(1) 60 3 8
(1)
9
(2) 36 5
20
(3) 45 5 (2)
9
(4) 54 3 2
(3)
3
35. If the curves y 2 =6x, 9x 2 +by 2 =16 13
intersect each other at right angles, then (4)
9
the value of b is :
(1) 4 39. A bag contains 4 red and 6 black balls. A
ball is drawn at random from the bag, its
9
(2) colour is observed and this ball along with
2
(3) 6 two additional balls of the same colour are
returned to the bag. If now a ball is drawn
7
(4) at random from the bag, then the
2
probability that this drawn ball is red, is :
36. If the system of linear equations
1
x+ky+3z=0 (1)
5
3x+ky−2z=0 3
2x+4y−3z=0 (2)
4
xz 3
has a non-zero solution (x, y, z), then (3)
y2 10
is equal to : 2
(4)
(1) −30 5
(2) 30
1 1
(3) −10 40. Let f ( x ) = x 2 + and g( x ) = x − ,
2
x x
(4) 10 f (x )
x e R−{−1, 0, 1}. If h( x ) = , then the
37. Let S={x e R : x / 0 and g(x )
local minimum value of h(x) is :
2? x −3?+ x ( x −6)+6=0}. Then S :
(1) −2 2
(1) contains exactly two elements.
(2) contains exactly four elements. (2) 2 2
(3) is an empty set. (3) 3
(4) contains exactly one element. (4) −3
41. Two sets A and B are as under : 45. The sum of the co-efficients of all odd
A={(a, b) e R×R : ?a−5? < 1 and degree terms in the expansion of
5 5
?b−5? < 1};
B={(a, b) e R×R : 4(a−6) 2 +9(b−5) 2
( x + x3 − 1 ) ( + x − x3 − 1 ) , (x > 1)
is :
≤ 36}. Then : (1) 1
(1) A ∩ B = φ (an empty set) (2) 2
(2) neither A ⊂ B nor B ⊂ A (3) −1
(3) B⊂A (4) 0
(4) A⊂B
46. Let a1, a2, a3, ....., a49 be in A.P. such that
42. The Boolean expression 12
~(p ∨ q) ∨ (~ p ∧ q) is equivalent to : ∑ a4k+1 = 416 and a 9 +a 43 =66. If
k=0
(1) q
a12 + a 22 + ..... + a17
2
= 140 m , then m is
(2) ~q
(3) ~p equal to :
(1) 34
(4) p
(2) 33
43. Tangent and normal are drawn at
(3) 66
P(16, 16) on the parabola y2=16x, which
(4) 68
intersect the axis of the parabola at A and
B, respectively. If C is the centre of the 47. A straight line through a fixed point (2, 3)
intersects the coordinate axes at distinct
circle through the points P, A and B and
points P and Q. If O is the origin and the
∠CPB=θ, then a value of tan θ is :
rectangle OPRQ is completed, then the
(1) 3
locus of R is :
4 (1) 3x+2y=xy
(2)
3 (2) 3x+2y=6xy
1 (3) 3x+2y=6
(3)
2 (4) 2x+3y=xy
(4) 2
π
2
sin 2 x
44. If
x−4 2x
2 x x−4
2x
2 x = (A + Bx )(x − A)2 ,
48. The value of
∫
−π2
1 + 2x
dx is :
2x 2 x x−4
(1) 4π
then the ordered pair (A, B) is equal to : π
(1) (−4, 5) (2)
4
(2) (4, 5) π
(3)
(3) (−4, −5) 8
π
(4) (−4, 3) (4)
2
B/Page 10 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
AglaSem Admission
1 −1
(1) ( 3− 2 ) (2) +C
2 1 + cot 3 x
1 1
+C
(2)
2
( 2 −1 ) (3)
3(1 + tan 3 x )
1 −1
(3)
2
( 3 −1 ) (4)
3(1 + tan 3 x )
+C
(2) does not exist (in R). 54. Let y=y(x) be the solution of the
(3) is equal to 0. differential equation
dy
(4) is equal to 15. sin x + y cosx = 4x , x (0, π) . If
dx
π π
y = 0 , then y is equal to :
9 9 2 6
51. If ∑ (xi − 5) = 9 and ∑ (xi − 5)2 = 45 , 8 2
i=1 i=1 (1) − π
then the standard deviation of the 9 items 9
x1, x2, ....., x9 is : 4 2
(2) − π
9
(1) 2
4
(2) 3 (3) π2
9 3
(3) 9
−8 2
(4) π
(4) 4 9 3
56. The length of the projection of the line 59. Let A be the sum of the first 20 terms and
segment joining the points (5, −1, 4) and B be the sum of the first 40 terms of the
(4, −1, 3) on the plane, x+y+z=7 is : series
1 12+2⋅22+32+2⋅4 2+52+2⋅62+.....
(1)
3
If B−2A=100λ, then λ is equal to :
2 (1) 464
(2)
3 (2) 496
2 (3) 232
(3)
3 (4) 248
2
(4)
3
60. Let the orthocentre and centroid of a
triangle be A(−3, 5) and B(3, 3)
57. PQR is a triangular park with
respectively. If C is the circumcentre of
PQ=PR=200 m. A T.V. tower stands at
this triangle, then the radius of the circle
the mid-point of QR. If the angles of
having line segment AC as diameter, is :
elevation of the top of the tower at P, Q
and R are respectively 458, 308 and 308, 5
(1) 3
then the height of the tower (in m) is : 2
(1) 100 3 3 5
(2)
2
(2) 50 2
(3) 10
(3) 100
(4) 50 (4) 2 10
3 ion is :
I−
(b)
(1) 9
(2) 12
(3) 3 (c)
(4) 6
(d)
62. Which of the following salts is the most
basic in aqueous solution ?
(1) FeCl3
(1) (b) < (a) < (d) < (c)
(2) Pb(CH3COO)2
(2) (d) < (b) < (a) < (c)
(3) Al(CN)3
(4) CH3COOK (3) (a) < (b) < (c) < (d)
66. The trans-alkenes are formed by the 69. The major product formed in the following
reduction of alkynes with : reaction is :
(2) Sn - HCl
(4) NaBH4
(1)
67. The ratio of mass percent of C and H of an
organic compound (CXHYOZ) is 6 : 1. If
one molecule of the above compound
(CXHYOZ) contains half as much oxygen
(2)
as required to burn one molecule of
compound CXHY completely to CO2 and
H2O. The empirical formula of compound
CXHYOZ is :
(3)
(1) C 3H4O 2
(2) C 2H4O 3
71. Which of the following lines correctly show 73. Glucose on prolonged heating with HI
the temperature dependence of gives :
equilibrium constant, K, for an exothermic
reaction ? (1) Hexanoic acid
(2) 6-iodohexanal
(3) n-Hexane
(4) 1-Hexene
75. The major product of the following 76. Phenol on treatment with CO 2 in the
reaction is : presence of NaOH followed by
acidification produces compound X as the
major product. X on treatment with
(CH 3CO)2O in the presence of catalytic
amount of H2SO4 produces :
(1)
(1)
(2)
(2)
(3)
(3)
(4)
(4)
77. An aqueous solution contains an unknown 79. When metal ‘M’ is treated with NaOH, a
concentration of Ba2+. When 50 mL of a white gelatinous precipitate ‘X’ is obtained,
1 M solution of Na2SO4 is added, BaSO4 which is soluble in excess of NaOH.
just begins to precipitate. The final volume Compound ’X’ when heated strongly gives
is 500 mL. The solubility product of BaSO4 an oxide which is used in chromatography
is 1×10 −10 . What is the original as an adsorbent. The metal ‘M’ is :
concentration of Ba2+ ? (1) Al
(3) 5×10−9 M
80. An aqueous solution contains 0.10 M H2S
(4) 2×10−9 M and 0.20 M HCl. If the equilibrium
constants for the formation of HS− from
H2S is 1.0×10 −7 and that of S 2− from
HS − ions is 1.2×10 −13 then the
78. Which of the following compounds will
concentration of S 2− ions in aqueous
be suitable for Kjeldahl’s method for
solution is :
nitrogen estimation ?
(1) 6×10 −21
(2) 5×10 −19
82. The compound that does not produce 84. The oxidation states of
nitrogen gas by the thermal decomposition Cr in [Cr(H 2 O) 6 ]Cl 3 , [Cr(C 6 H 6 ) 2 ], and
is : K2[Cr(CN) 2(O) 2(O 2)(NH 3)] respectively
are :
(1) NH4NO2
(1) +3, 0, and +6
(2) −3267.6
(3) 4152.6
(4)
(4) −452.46
87. Which of the following are Lewis acids ? 89. For 1 molal aqueous solution of the
following compounds, which one will
(1) PH3 and SiCl4 show the highest freezing point ?
(1) KCl
(2) H22−
2+
(3) He2
(2) KCl, B2H6
+
(4) He2
(3) KCl, B2H6, PH3
1. The candidates should fill in the required particulars on the Test Booklet and Answer
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space) on the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
4. Out of the four options given for each question, only one option is the correct answer.
5. For each incorrect response, ¼ (one–fourth) marks of the total marks allotted to the question
(i.e. 1 mark) will be deducted from the total score. No deduction from the total score,
however, will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the Answer Sheet.
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discrepancy in Test Booklet Code and Answer Sheet Code), another set will be provided.
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in the Test Booklet itself, marked ‘Space for Rough Work’. This space is given at the
bottom of each page and in four pages (Page 20-23) at the end of the booklet.
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Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take
away this Test Booklet with them.
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candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet second time will be deemed not to have
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are also required to put their left hand THUMB impression in the space provided in
the Attendance Sheet.
12. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator and any Electronic device like mobile phone, pager
etc. is prohibited.
13. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Examination body with
regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt
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14. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
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papers, pager, mobile phone, electronic device or any other material except the Admit
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B/Page 24