Mech 8 Sem Course Info Feb June 07

PESIT
CONSTITUTION OF INDIA & PROFESSIONAL ETHICS: CIP81

Class # Portions to be completed % of portion
completed
1 Preamble to the Constitution of India
2 Evolution of Constitutional Law l 4
3 Introduction to Fundamental Rights
4-5 Scope of Fundamental Rights under Part III
6-7 Extent Fundamental Rights under Part III
8-10 Details of Exercise of Rights,
11-12 Limitations and Important 23
13-14 Introduction to State Policy
15-22 Relevance of Directive Principles of State Policy under 42

Part IV.
23 Significance of Fundamentals Duties under Part IV a. 44
24-25 Union Executive President, Vice-President, Prime

Minister, Council of Ministers
26 Parliament and Supreme Court of India. 50
27-28 State executive, Governor, Chief Minister, Council of

Ministers
29-30 Legislature and High Courts. 58
31-32 Constitutional provisions for scheduled castes and tribes
33-34 Constitutional provisions for women and children and 65

backward classes
35-36 Emergency powers
37-38 Major constitutional Amendments. 73.
39-40 Electoral Process. 77
41-42 Scope and Aims of Engineering Ethics 81
43-44 Responsibility of Engineers – Impediments of 85

Responsibility.
45-46 Honesty
47-48 Integrity and Reliability 92
49-52 Risk Safety and Liability in Engineering. 100
B.E. Mechanical 8th Semester Course Information

PESIT
Model Question Paper 1
Constitution of India & Professional Ethics-CIP81.
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100

Instructions to the Candidates:
1. Use OMR Sheet Supplied, and darken the bubble with black ballpoint pen only
against your choice of correct answer for each question.
1. Double marking for the same question is considered as invalid.
2. Answer all the questions.
3. No negative marking.
4. Scribbling, folding, damaging of OMR Sheet is to be strictly avoided and University is
not responsible for the consequences.
1. In which year, did Cripps Mission come to India?

a. 1935
b. 1945
c. 1949
d. 1942
2. Who was the chairman of Drafting Committee of Constitution of India?

a. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
b. Jawaharlal Nehru
c. Dr. B R Ambedkar
d. Saradar Vallabhabai patel
3. When did Indian Constitution come into force?

a. 1946
b. 1949
c. 1948
d. 1950
4. Who will appoint the Attorney General of India?

a. Prime Minister of India
b. Chief Justice of India
c. President of India
d. Law Minster of the union.
5. Who selected the first President of India?

a. Members of the Lok Sabha and the Raj Sabha
b. Members of the Lok Sabha, the Raj Sabha and Members of Legislative
Assembly of all the states
c. Constituent Assembly
d. Members of the British Parliament.
6. Who will appoint the Chief Minister of a State?

b. Governor of that state
c. Cabinet Minister of that state
d. Congress Working Committee.
Who will appoint the judge of the Supreme Court?

7. a. Chief Justice of India
b. President of India
c. Law of Minister of India
PESIT
d. Central Government.
8. Who will appoint the cabinet Minister of a state?

a. Chief Minister of that state
b. Governor of that state
c. Members of the Legislative Assembly
d. Members of Legislative Assembly and Legislative Council.
9. What is the Minimum age to become the Vice- President of India?

a. 35
b. 45
c. 25
d. 30
10 By whom the Directive Principles of State Policy be amended?

a. Members of Lok Sabha
b. Members of Raj Sabha
c. Members of both Lok Sabha and Raj Sabha
d. Parliament, supported by more than fifty percent of states.
11. What is the remedy available for the breach of fundamental duties under the Constitution?
a. Filing writ Petition
b. Filing Criminal Complaint
c. Filing Civil Suit
d. No remedy
12 How many types of writs are there?

a. seven
b. three
c. five
d. six
13. What is the term of the President of India?

a. Four years
b. Three years
c. Five years
d. Six years
14 Who was the constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly?

a. Dr. B R Ambedkar
b. JawaharLal Nehru
c. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
d. B.N .Rau
15 How many times was the Preamble of the Constitution amended?

a. Three times
b. Two times
c. One time
d. Not amended
16 What is the maximum percentage of jobs that can be reserved by a state for backward
class people in the government jobs?
a. 75%
b. 65%
c. 50%
d. 60%

PESIT
17 The rule of Equality before law is not applicable to
c. Governor of a state
d. Law minister of India
18 Writ of Certiorari is issued
a. When a person is illegally arrested
b. When a person is illegally detained
c. When a judicial authority acts in excess of Jurisdiction
d. When a search warrant is issued against a person
19 India has recognized

a. Only one religion as National Religion
b. Three religions as National Religions
c. Five religions as National Religions
d. No religion as National Religion
20. One of the aims of Engineering Ethics is to

a. Inspire engineers to acquire in depth knowledge in their field
b. Stimulate the moral imagination
c. Acquire new skills in Engineering, Testing and Research
d. Make Engineers self Confident in discharging their duties
21 Professional Ethics is
a. Set of standards adopted by Professionals
b. Set of rules passed by Professional bodies
c. Traditional rules observed since a long time
d. Set of rules relating to personal character of professionals
22 One of the ways of misusing the truth is

a. Failure to seek out the truth
b. Exaggerating the truth
c. Making confused statement
d. Making totally false statement
23 Engineers shall issue public statements only

a. In subjective Manner
b. In objective Manner
c. On their personal responsibility
d. Based on the reports sent by higher officers
24 A person is detained under the special law

a. When he has committed criminal offence
b. When he has committed civil wrong
c. When there is likely hood of committing offence against public
d. When there are chances of escaping from India
25. Once the National Emergency is proclaimed, it should be approved by the parliament
within
a. 6 Months
b. 3 Months
c. 2 Months
d. 1 Month
26. The owner of the patent right will be having patent rights for
PESIT
a. 100Years
b. 75 Years
c. 50 Years
d. 20Years
27. Legislative Council is

a. Dissolved after 6 Yrs
b. Dissolved after 5Yrs
c. Dissolved after 3Yrs
d. Not dissolved
28. It is not a kind of trade mark

a. Designs
b. Sounds
c. Symbols
d. Goodwill
29 When the National Emergency is declared, the following article is suspended

a. Art 12
b. Art 14
c. Art 16
d. Art 19
30 The Chief Election Commissioner is appointed by the

a. Prime minister of India
b. Planning Commission
c. President of India
d. Chief Justice of India
31 Under Advisory Jurisdiction, the Supreme Court gives it’s opinion to

a. The Prime Minister
b. The Law Minister
c. The President
d. The High Court
32 A High Court Judge retires at the age of

a. 65
b. 63
c. 60
d. 62
33 One of the qualifications to become the Judge of the Supreme Court is

a. Practice in a High Court for at least 9 Yrs
b. Served as judge of High Court for at least 3 yrs
c. Practice in District Court for at least 12 Yrs
d. In the opinion of the President, he must be a distinguished Jurist
34 Raj Sabha is
a. Dissolved once in three years
b. Dissolved once in five years
c. A Permanent body
d. Dissolved once in six years
35 The President of India

a. Can be prosecuted
b. Cannot be prosecuted
c. Can be prosecuted only in the case of Criminal Conspiracy
PESIT
d. Can be prosecuted only if the Parliament permits.
36 Writ can be directly filed

a. In the magistrate Court
b. In the Court of Civil Judge
c. In District and Sessions Court
d. In the Supreme Court
37 Professional Ethics takes into account of

a. The personal character of engineers
b. The temperament of engineers
c. The religious bent of mind of engineers
d. The social back-ground of engineers
38 To amend the constitution to change the procedure of election of the President of India,
the bill has to be passed
a. By Simple majority
b. By Special majority
c. By Special majority, ratified by more than half of the states
d. By Special majority and consented by Chief Justice India
39. Constitution empowers state governments to make special law for

a. Women and children
b. Workers working in the mines
c. Farmers
d. Unemployed youths
40 Right against exploitation prohibits

a. Lending money at high interest
b. Giving in marriage minor girls
c. Women working at night in factories
d. Traffic in human being
41 One of the restrictions of freedom of speech and expression is

a. Contempt of Court
b. Degrading the office of the president
c. Speeding discontent among the citizens
d. Holding unlawful assembly
42 Ex- post-facto-law means

a. An out –dated law
b. An invalid law
c. Passing Criminal law with retrospective effect
d. A law applicable only during emergency
43 This in one of the grounds for classification

a. Religion
b. Social status
c. Taxation
d. Annual income
44 Maximum percentage of reservation in educational institution is

a. 75%
b. 68%
c. 50%
d. 65%
45 When a person is detained under a special law
PESIT
a. He should be released within three months
b. He should be produced within three months before the magistrate
c. An Advisory Board must be constituted within three months
d. A charge sheet must be filed within three months in the proper court
46. A writ of habeas corpus is issued

a. When a person is arrested arbitrarily
b. When the lower Court violates the principles of natural justice
c. When a public authority fails to discharge his public duty
d. When the lower court acts in excess of its authority
47 Common Civil Code means

a. Common Civil procedure Code
b. Common Civil law applicable to all
c. Civil law applicable to common man
d. Civil law applicable to Hindus, Muslims and Christians in certain matters
48. Fundamental duty demands

a. To abide by the constitution
b. To work sincerely
c. To avoid corruption
d. To abide by moral rules
49 President of India can be removed by

a. Chief Justice of India
b. Passing a resolution by the union Cabinet
c. Passing a resolution in Lok Sabha by two- third majority
d. Impeachment
50. President rule is imposed in a state

a. When there is no clear majority
b. When the Legislative Assembly passes a resolution to that effect
c. When there is difference of opinion between the Governor and the Chief
Minister
d. When the state government does not follow the direction given by the Prime
Minister.
51 Preamble of Indian Constitution

a. Is part of the constitution
b. Is not part of the constitution
c. Was considered to be part of the constitution
d. Is additional part of the constitution
52 Engineering Ethics
a. Stimulates the moral imagination
b. Provides up-to-date Knowledge in the field of Engineering
c. Stimulates to conduct research
d. Stresses on Time Management
53 Socially and educationally backward class means

a. People belonging to low caste
b. Scheduled caste and scheduled tribe people
c. Economically and educationally backward class people
d. Uncultured and uneducated people
54. Jobs are reserved for SC and ST people

a. At the time of appointment
PESIT
b. At the time of promotion
c. Both at the time of appoint and promotion
d. On the basis of their annual income
55 Right to life includes

a. Right to die
b. Right to contest for election
c. Right to make a will
d. Right to get education
56 Writ of Prohibition
a. Prohibits police from interfering in one’s private affairs
b. Prohibits a person to continue in a public post
c. Prohibits lower court exceeding its jurisdiction
d. Prohibits judicial and quasi judicial authority from taking an action
57 Vice-president of India is elected

a. By the Members of Lok Sabha
b. By the Members of Raj Sabha
c. By the legislative Members of all the states
d. By the members of Lok Sabha and Raj Sabha
58 Original jurisdiction of the supreme Court relates to

a. Civil suits directly filed in the Supreme Court
b. Criminal Complaints directly filed in the Supreme Court
c. Writs directly filed in the Supreme Court
d. Disputes between the Union & the States
59 One of the views on responsibility of Engineers is

a. They are strictly liable
b. They are absolutely reliable
c. They should do good works
d. They should take reasonable responsibility
60 One of the impediments to responsibility is

a. Interference by politicians
b. Interference by higher officers
c. Rampant corruption at higher level
d. Self deception
61 Professional autonomy means

a. Independent body controlling profession
b. Liberty in selecting the work
c. Liberty to express independent view
d. Exercising independent and objective judgment
62 This is not a ground to declare state emergency

a. No clear majority
b. Not complying with the direction give by central government
c. Disobeying the direction given by Supreme Court
d. Failure to maintain law and order in the state
63 This is not a Directive Principle of state policy

a. Organize village Panchayat
b. Provide free Legal Aid
c. Secure living wage
d. Secure just and efficient judiciary
PESIT
64 This is not a fundamental duty

a. To abide by constitution
b. To protect and improve natural environment
c. To develop scientific temper
d. Not to indulge in corrupt practice
65 It is not the objective enshrined in the Preamble

a. Justice Social Economic and Political
b. Liberty of thought and expression
c. Equality of Status
d. Secure shelter and proper livelihood to all
66 This is not the test for valid classification

a. Intelligible differentia
b. Relation between classification and the object sought to be achieved by the
state
c. Arbitrariness
d. Social and educational backwardness
67 This is not the ground to impose restriction on the right of freedom of speech and
expression
a. National Security
b. Law and order
c. Contempt of court
d. Morality or decency
68 This is not the power of the Chief Minister

a. Formation of Government
b. Control over ministers
c. Chief advisor to the Governor
d. Control over state judiciary
69 The President of India is not having

a. Executive Power
b. Diplomatic Power
c. Legislative Power
d. Power to control judiciary
70 The Election Commission has no power to conduct

a. Election to parliament
b. Election to state legislature
c. Election to the office of the President
d. Election to the speaker of the Lok Sabha
71 This is not the aim of studying Engineering Ethics

a. Analyzing concepts
b. Addressing unclarity
c. Engaging sense of responsibility
d. Procuring faultless results
72 This is not dishonesty in Engineering Research and Testings

a. Crimping
b. Cooking
c. Forging
d. Plagiarism

PESIT
74 Number of members in Election Commission including the chairman is
a. Seven
b. Nine
c. Three
d. Five
75 Legislate means
a. Form Government
b. Make Constitutional amendment
c. Make law
d. Put Administrative Machinery into action
76 Natural Justice means

a. Justice not based on enacted law
b. Justice according providence
c. Just ,fair and reasonable action
d. Justice which is not based on technical formalities
77 Tight Couple means

a. Binding two beams tightly
b. Erecting two pillars side by side
c. Process tightly coupled
d. Strong adhesive material
78 Forging means
a. Signing in the name of some other person
b. Strengthening material by special process
c. Inventing research data which are reported
d. Mixing material under high pressure
79 Amend means
a. Remove the difficulties
b. Make the meaning more clear
c. Make the object of the act more clear
d. Omit
80 Enact means
a. Single chapter
b. Single action
c. Pass a law
d. Rectify the mistakes , in the law
86 Right to privacy includes

a. Right to move freely through out the territory of India
b. Right to reside in any part of India
c. Right to practice any profession
d. Right to personal liberty
87 Minority may be
a. Linguistic or religious
b. Regional or national
c. Racial or regional
d. National or racial
88 The basic attitude towards responsibility is

a. Intentionally causing harm
b. Negligently causing harm
PESIT
c. Minimalist
d. Recklessly causing harm
89 Conflict of interest may be
a. False
b. Potential
c. Created
d. Imaginary
90 The President of India is bound to follow the advice given by

a. The Prime minister of India
b. The Attorney general of India
c. The Chief Justice of India
d. The Council of ministers
91 This is not the function of the Lok Sabha

a. Legislative Function
b. Financial Function
c. Controlling the executive
d. Judicial function
92 Appellate Jurisdiction of the supreme court does not include

a. Appeals in civil cases
b. Appeals in Criminal cases
c. Special leave to appeal
d. Appeals against writs
93 One of the characteristics of profession is that

a. Usually it is having monopoly
b. It demands hard work
c. It is based on honesty
d. It is having tough competition
94 Ordinance can be promulgated by

a. Lok Sabha
b. President of India
c. Lok Sabha and Raj Sabha
d. Prime minister
95 This is not impediment to responsibility

a. Fear
b. Self deception
c. Ignorance
d. Self respect
96 The chief election Commissioner is appointed by
a. The Prime Minister
b. The President
c. The Chief Justice of the supreme court
d. The law minister of India
97 Freedom of press is included in

a. Right to carry on any occupation
b. Right to personal liberty
c. Right to freedom of speech and expression
d. Right to education
98 Expert Testimony means

PESIT
a. Tested by expert engineer
b. Evidence give by a person having competent technical knowledge
c. Document drafted by a legal expert
d. Designed by expert engineer
99 Fraternity
a. Fatherly treatment
b. Spirit of brotherhood
c. Unity and integrity of the nation
d. Elimination of economic injustice
100 Who officiates in the absence of president of India

a. Prime Minister
b. Vice president
c. Speaker of Lok Sabha
d. Chief Justice of India
Model question Paper 2
1. Is Right to property a fundamental right? ……..
2. When was the Constitution of India adopted? ………
3. Writ issued by a Court to a public official to do a thing which is part of his official duty,
but which he has failed to perform is …………..
4. What are the constituents of Parliament? ……………………………….
5. Ultra virus means

i. Error of law
ii. Error in Fact Finding
iii. Procedural Error
iv. Without Authority
6. How many Rajya Sabha members can be nominated by the President? …….
7. Match the following of features borrowed by Indian Constitution
a. Residuary powers with the Center Australia

b. Judicial review Germany
c. Directive Principles of State policy Canada
d. Parliamentary system of Government Ireland
e. Fundamental Duties Soviet Union
f. Emergency Provisions USA
Britain
8. Who is the present Chairman of Rajya Sabha? ………………
9. There is a convention that while making the appointment of the Governor of a state, the
President consulates,

PESIT
a. Vice-President
c. Chief Justice of the State
d. Chief Minister of the State
10. The Constitution of India has ensured Independence of Judiciary by
a. Providing single Judiciary

b. Protecting salaries and service conditions of the Judges
c. Ensuring security of tenure to the Judges
d. Prohibiting the Judges from carrying on practice in the Court of
law after retirement
Which of the following is correct?

i. a, b, c, d
ii. a, b, c,
iii. b, c, d
iv. a, c, d
11. Match the following to which they submit Resignation letter.
a. Lok sabha speaker Vice-President

b. President President
c. Governor Lok sabha Speaker
d. Lok sabha Member Lok sabha Deputy Speaker
e. Chief Minister Governor
Prime Minister
12. Match the following Articles,
14. National Emergency

1. Abolition of untouchability
26 Equality before law
29 Financial Emergency
44 Organization of village Panchayats
325 Protection of Life and Personal liberty
356 Uniform Civil Code
360 State Emergency
368 Protection of interest of Minorities
17 Freedom to manage religious affairs
Amendment procedure
13. During the proclamation of an emergency due to the break down of the Constitutional
Machinery in a state, the President can
i. Assume all or any of the functions of the State Government

ii. Assume all powers vested in and exercisable by the Governor
iii. Assume certain powers of the High court
iv. Declare that the powers of the State Legislature shall be exercised by
the Parliament or under the Authority of the Parliament.
Which of the following is correct?

a. I, ii, iii
b. ii, iii, iv
c. I, iii, iv
PESIT
d. I, ii, iv
14. A: Governor is the agent of the center

B: Governor sends fortnightly reports to center about the affairs of the State which of
the following is correct?
a. A&B are both true and R is the correct explanation of A

b. A is the true, R is the false
c. A is false, R is true
d. Both A &R are true but R is not the Correct explanation of A
15. Which Article empowers High Courts to issue Writs? ………………
16. Governor of a State does not appoint
a. Chief Minister
b. Members of State Public Service Commission
c. Judges of High court
d. Advocate General.
17. Who are the members of the Electoral College for the election of the President?
18. A Governor can issue an ordinances
a. Whenever he likes
b. Whenever CM advises him
c. When the state Legislative Assembly is not in session
d. When the Union Government tells him to do so
19. With how many Articles and schedules, did the Constitution come into effect in 1950?
20. What is the term of a Rajya Sabha member?
21. In the Presidential election
a. States are given greater weight age

b. Center enjoys greater weight age
c. Parity between the Centre and the States has been maintained
22. The emoluments of the ministers in the State Government are determined by
a. Chief Minister
b. Governor
c. Legislative Assembly
d. President
23. What is Habeas Corpus?
24. Which Article deals with Constitutional remedies for the enforcement of fundamental
rights?
25. Which is the most lengthy and detailed constitutional document the world has so far
produced?

PESIT
26. Which Articles talks about organization of village Panchayats in the Indian
Constitution?
27. Who elect the members of Rajya Sabha?
28. Which of the following are not mentioned in the Constitution of India?
a. Council of Minister
b. Collective Responsibility
c. Resignation of Ministers
d. Office of Deputy Prime Minister
Choose the correct answer

i. a and b
ii. a and c
iii. b and d
iv. c and d
29. The de-jure head of a State Administrations is
a. Chief Minister
b. Law Minister
c. Home Minister
d. Governor
30. The correct Constitutional position regarding the Governor is that the
a. Governor acts on the advice of the Prime Minister

b. Governor acts on the Advice of the Council of Ministers of the
state
c. Governor acts on the advice of the Chief Minister of the state
d. Governor acts on the advice of the President.
31. Which one of the following statements is correct with regard to the powers of
Parliaments in enacting the budget?
a. It can increase a tax, but not reduce it

b. It can increase a tax as well as reduce or abolish it
c. It cannot increase a tax, but can reduce or abolish it
d. It can neither increase a tax nor reduce it
32. If the Prime Minister of India belongs to the Upper House of Parliament
a. He will not be able to vote in his favour in the event of a no-confidence motion
b. He will not be able to speak on the budget in the lower house
c. He can make statements only in the Upper House
b. He has to become a member of the Lower House within 6 months after being
sworn in as the Prime Minister.
33. Assertion (A). The reservation of 33% of seats for women in Parliament and State
Legislatures does not require constitutional amendment
Reason (R). Political parties contesting elections can allocate 33% of seats they
contest to women candidates without any constitutional amendment
Choose the correct answer.
PESIT
a. A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is the true and R is false
d. A is false and R is true
34. Who constitute the Electoral College for the election of Vice President of India?
35. An amendment to the constitution regarding the creation of new states will require
a.Two-third-majority b. One-third majority

c. Four-fifth-majority d. Simple majority
36. One-third of the members of the Rajya sabha retire after every
a. five years b. two years

c. three years d. six years
37. The Republic of India established by the constitution is not
a. Sovereign b. Unitary
c. Socialist c. Secular
38. In which case was it first held by the Supreme Court that Fundamental Rights could
not be abridged except by a new Constituent Assembly?
a. Minerva Mills b. Keshavananda Bharathi

c. Golaknath d. None of the above
39. Which of the following is /are stated in the Constitution?

I. The President shall not be a member of either House of Parliament.
II. The Parliament shall consist of the President and the two Houses.
Choose the correct answer

a. Neither I nor II b. Both I and II
c. I alone d. II alone
40. The expression “Prime Ministerial Form of Government” indicates a form of

Government in which
a. Prime Minister is directly elected by the people

b. Prime Minister heads a coalition
c. Prime Minister is the Head of the State
d. Prime Minister is no longer the first among the equals but is
dominant.
41. The very first recognized status for governance of India under the direct rule of
British Government was
a. Government of India Act-1858 b. Indian Councils Act-1909

c. Indian Councils Act-1861 d. Government of India Act-1919
42. Supreme powers in India during British regime was
a. Governor General
b. Provincial Governor
c. British Parliament
d. Her Majesty
43. Failure of Cripps mission was due to
PESIT
a. Personal Interest of Mr. Jinnah

b. Indians did not like the British’s Idea
c. Full Independence was not in the agenda.
d. Her majesty did not liked the proposed
44. Largest Amendments of the Constitution of India is
a. 23rd Amendment b. 42nd Amendment

th
c. 44 Amendment d. 47th Amendment
45. Fundamental Rights are conferred under Constitution of India to citizens of India
Under
a. Art.32 to 51 b. Art 14 to 18
c. Art 14 to 32 d. Art 51 to 63
46. The most powerful Article of the Constitution of India is
a. Right against exploitation b. Right to equality

c. Right to Freedom of Religion d. Right to Constitutional remedies
47. Which one of the following in not a Directive Principle of State Policy
a. Right to adequate means of livelihood

b. Right to live in any place of the Country
c. To organize village Pancahyats
d. Right of free education to children under the age of 14.
48. Fundamental Duties are available in the Constitution of India in the following
a. Part I b. Part II c. Part III d. Part VII
49. Which of the following article does not empower to declare Emergency
a. Art.352 b. Art 356 c. Art 360 d. Art 362
50. Which of the following is not a WRIT
a. Habeas Corpus b. Mandamus

c. Prohibition d. Arrest
51. Who has the powers to enforce Fundamental Duties
a. State Government b. High Court

c. Supreme Court d. None.
52. Election of the Vice-President is by an electoral college consisting of
a. Both Houses of Parliament and Legislative Assemblies

b. Members of both the Houses of Parliament
c. All citizens of India
d. Legislative assemblies of State
53. The office of the President of India is vacated with
a. Five years of term of office

PESIT
b. Resignation of President
c. His election is declared void by the election commission
d. All the above
54. Which of the following is an absolute power of the President of India.
a. To forgive to conviction up held by the Supreme Court

b. To pass the bill recommended by Parliament
c. To declare war against any country
d. To call for joint parliamentary session
55. Which of the following Judiciary is empowered to deal with Fundamental Rights
a. Supreme Court b. High Court

c Both (a) and (b) d. Only (a)
56. QUO-WARRANTO is the enforcement of Fundamental Rights through ………

57 Article 40 directs the state to take steps to organize ……………………
58. President of India is ……………Executive while Prime Minister is ………. Real head.
59. Minimum age limit for the post of President of India is ……… years
60. Voting System for the President of India is ………………………………..
MODEL PAPER 3
Instructions to the Candidates


e. Prime Minister of India
f. Chief Justice of India
g. President of India
h. Law Minster of the union.


e. Chief Minister of that state
f. Governor of that state
g. Members of the Legislative Assembly
h. Members of Legislative Assembly and Legislative Council.

PESIT
e. 35
f. 45
g. 25
h. 30
5. What is the remedy available for the breach of fundamental duties under the
Constitution?
e. Filing writ Petition
f. Filing Criminal Complaint
g. Filing Civil Suit
h. No remedy
6. How many types of writs are there?

e. seven
f. three
g. five
h. six
7. How many times was the Preamble of the Constitution amended?

e. Three times
f. Two times
g. One time
h. Not amended
8.Writ of Certiorari is issued

e. When a person is illegally arrested
f. When a person is illegally detained
g. When a judicial authority acts in excess of Jurisdiction
h. When a search warrant is issued against a person

e. Inspire engineers to acquire in depth knowledge in their field
f. Stimulate the moral imagination
g. Acquire new skills in Engineering, Testing and Research
h. Make Engineers self Confident in discharging their duties
10. Professional Ethics is

e. Set of standards adopted by Professionals
f. Set of rules passed by Professional bodies
g. Traditional rules observed since a long time
h. Set of rules relating to personal character of professionals
11. One of the ways of misusing the truth is

e. Failure to seek out the truth
f. Exaggerating the truth
g. Making confused statement
h. Making totally false statement
12. Engineers shall issue public statements only

e. In subjective Manner
f. In objective Manner
g. On their personal responsibility
h. Based on the reports sent by higher officers
within
PESIT
e. 6 Months
f. 3 Months
g. 2 Months
h. 1 Month
e. 100Years
f. 75 Years
g. 50 Years
h. 20Years

e. Dissolved after 6 Yrs
f. Dissolved after 5Yrs
g. Dissolved after 3Yrs
h. Not dissolved
16. When the National Emergency is declared, the following article is suspended
e. Art 12
f. Art 14
g. Art 16
h. Art 19
17. The Chief Election Commissioner is appointed by the

e. Prime minister of India
f. Planning Commission
g. President of India
h. Chief Justice of India
18. Under Advisory Jurisdiction, the Supreme Court gives it’s opinion to
e. The Prime Minister
f. The Law Minister
g. The President
h. The High Court
19. One of the qualifications to become the Judge of the Supreme Court is
e. Practice in a High Court for at least 9 Yrs
f. Served as judge of High Court for at least 3 yrs
g. Practice in District Court for at least 12 Yrs
h. In the opinion of the President, he must be a distinguished Jurist
20. Raj Sabha is

e. Dissolved once in three years
f. Dissolved once in five years
g. A Permanent body
h. Dissolved once in six years
21. Professional Ethics takes into account of

e. The personal character of engineers
f. The temperament of engineers
g. The religious bent of mind of engineers
h. The social back-ground of engineers
22. Preamble of Indian Constitution

e. Is part of the constitution
f. Is not part of the constitution
g. Was considered to be part of the constitution
PESIT
h. Is additional part of the constitution
23. Engineering Ethics

e. Stimulates the moral imagination
f. Provides up-to-date Knowledge in the field of Engineering
g. Stimulates to conduct research
h. Stresses on Time Management
24. One of the views on responsibility of Engineers is
e. They are strictly liable
f. They are absolutely reliable
g. They should do good works
h. They should take reasonable responsibility
25. Conflict of interest may be

e. False
f. Potential
g. Created
h. Imaginary
Model Question Paper
Constitution of India & Professional Ethics-CIP81
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100

Instructions to the Candidates:
1. Use OMR Sheet Supplied, and darken the bubble with black ballpoint pen
only against your choice of correct answer for each question.
8. Scribbling, folding, damaging of OMR Sheet is to be strictly avoided and
University is not responsible for the consequences.
1. In which year, did Cripps Mission come to India?

e. 1935
f. 1945
g. 1949
h. 1942
2. Who was the chairman of Drafting Committee of Constitution of India?

e. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
f. Jawaharlal Nehru
g. Dr. B R Ambedkar
h. Saradar Vallabhabai patel
3. When did Indian Constitution come into force?

e. 1946
f. 1949
g. 1948
h. 1950

i. Prime Minister of India
j. Chief Justice of India
k. President of India
PESIT
l. Law Minster of the union.

6. Who will appoint the Chief Minister of a State?

f. Governor of that state
g. Cabinet Minister of that state
h. Congress Working Committee.
Who will appoint the judge of the Supreme Court?

7. e. Chief Justice of India
f. President of India
g. Law of Minister of India
h. Central Government.
i. Chief Minister of that state
j. Governor of that state
k. Members of the Legislative Assembly
l. Members of Legislative Assembly and Legislative Council.

i. 35
j. 45
k. 25
l. 30
10 By whom the Directive Principles of State Policy be amended?

e. Members of Lok Sabha
f. Members of Raj Sabha
g. Members of both Lok Sabha and Raj Sabha
h. Parliament, supported by more than fifty percent of states.
11. What is the remedy available for the breach of fundamental duties under the Constitution?
i. Filing writ Petition
j. Filing Criminal Complaint
k. Filing Civil Suit
l. No remedy
12 How many types of writs are there?

i. seven
j. three
k. five
l. six
13. What is the term of the President of India?

e. Four years
f. Three years
g. Five years
h. Six years
14 Who was the constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly?

PESIT
i. Dr. B R Ambedkar
j. JawaharLal Nehru
k. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
l. B.N .Rau
15 How many times was the Preamble of the Constitution amended?

i. Three times
j. Two times
k. One time
l. Not amended
16 What is the maximum percentage of jobs that can be reserved by a state for backward
class people in the government jobs?
e. 75%
f. 65%
g. 50%
h. 60%
17 The rule of Equality before law is not applicable to

f. Chief Justice of India
g. Governor of a state
h. Law minister of India
18 Writ of Certiorari is issued
i. When a person is illegally arrested
j. When a person is illegally detained
k. When a judicial authority acts in excess of Jurisdiction
l. When a search warrant is issued against a person
19 India has recognized
e. Only one religion as National Religion
f. Three religions as National Religions
g. Five religions as National Religions
h. No religion as National Religion
i. Inspire engineers to acquire in depth knowledge in their field
j. Stimulate the moral imagination
k. Acquire new skills in Engineering, Testing and Research
l. Make Engineers self Confident in discharging their duties
21 Professional Ethics is
i. Set of standards adopted by Professionals
j. Set of rules passed by Professional bodies
k. Traditional rules observed since a long time
l. Set of rules relating to personal character of professionals
22 One of the ways of misusing the truth is
i. Failure to seek out the truth
j. Exaggerating the truth
k. Making confused statement
l. Making totally false statement
23 Engineers shall issue public statements only
i. In subjective Manner
j. In objective Manner
k. On their personal responsibility
l. Based on the reports sent by higher officers
24 A person is detained under the special law

e. When he has committed criminal offence
f. When he has committed civil wrong
PESIT
g. When there is likely hood of committing offence against public
h. When there are chances of escaping from India
within
i. 6 Months
j. 3 Months
k. 2 Months
l. 1 Month
i. 100Years
j. 75 Years
k. 50 Years
l. 20Years

i. Dissolved after 6 Yrs
j. Dissolved after 5Yrs
k. Dissolved after 3Yrs
l. Not dissolved
28. It is not a kind of trade mark

e. Designs
f. Sounds
g. Symbols
h. Goodwill
29 When the National Emergency is declared, the following article is suspended

i. Art 12
j. Art 14
k. Art 16
l. Art 19
30 The Chief Election Commissioner is appointed by the

i. Prime minister of India
j. Planning Commission
k. President of India
l. Chief Justice of India
31 Under Advisory Jurisdiction, the Supreme Court gives it’s opinion to

i. The Prime Minister
j. The Law Minister
k. The President
l. The High Court
32 A High Court Judge retires at the age of

e. 65
f. 63
g. 60
h. 62
33 One of the qualifications to become the Judge of the Supreme Court is

i. Practice in a High Court for at least 9 Yrs
j. Served as judge of High Court for at least 3 yrs
k. Practice in District Court for at least 12 Yrs
l. In the opinion of the President, he must be a distinguished Jurist
PESIT
34 Raj Sabha is
i. Dissolved once in three years
j. Dissolved once in five years
k. A Permanent body
l. Dissolved once in six years
35 The President of India

e. Can be prosecuted
f. Cannot be prosecuted
g. Can be prosecuted only in the case of Criminal Conspiracy
h. Can be prosecuted only if the Parliament permits.
36 Writ can be directly filed

e. In the magistrate Court
f. In the Court of Civil Judge
g. In District and Sessions Court
h. In the Supreme Court
37 Professional Ethics takes into account of

i. The personal character of engineers
j. The temperament of engineers
k. The religious bent of mind of engineers
l. The social back-ground of engineers
38 To amend the constitution to change the procedure of election of the President of India,
the bill has to be passed
e. By Simple majority
f. By Special majority
g. By Special majority, ratified by more than half of the states
h. By Special majority and consented by Chief Justice India
39. Constitution empowers state governments to make special law for

e. Women and children
f. Workers working in the mines
g. Farmers
h. Unemployed youths
40 Right against exploitation prohibits

e. Lending money at high interest
f. Giving in marriage minor girls
g. Women working at night in factories
h. Traffic in human being
41 One of the restrictions of freedom of speech and expression is

e. Contempt of Court
f. Degrading the office of the president
g. Speeding discontent among the citizens
h. Holding unlawful assembly
42 Ex- post-facto-law means

e. An out –dated law
f. An invalid law
g. Passing Criminal law with retrospective effect
h. A law applicable only during emergency
43 This in one of the grounds for classification

PESIT
e. Religion
f. Social status
g. Taxation
h. Annual income
44 Maximum percentage of reservation in educational institution is

e. 75%
f. 68%
g. 50%
h. 65%
45 When a person is detained under a special law

e. He should be released within three months
f. He should be produced within three months before the magistrate
g. An Advisory Board must be constituted within three months
h. A charge sheet must be filed within three months in the proper court
46. A writ of habeas corpus is issued

e. When a person is arrested arbitrarily
f. When the lower Court violates the principles of natural justice
g. When a public authority fails to discharge his public duty
h. When the lower court acts in excess of its authority
47 Common Civil Code means

e. Common Civil procedure Code
f. Common Civil law applicable to all
g. Civil law applicable to common man
h. Civil law applicable to Hindus, Muslims and Christians in certain matters
48. Fundamental duty demands

e. To abide by the constitution
f. To work sincerely
g. To avoid corruption
h. To abide by moral rules
49 President of India can be removed by

e. Chief Justice of India
f. Passing a resolution by the union Cabinet
g. Passing a resolution in Lok Sabha by two- third majority
h. Impeachment
50. President rule is imposed in a state

e. When there is no clear majority
f. When the Legislative Assembly passes a resolution to that effect
g. When there is difference of opinion between the Governor and the Chief
Minister
h. When the state government does not follow the direction given by the Prime
Minister.
51 Preamble of Indian Constitution

i. Is part of the constitution
j. Is not part of the constitution
k. Was considered to be part of the constitution
l. Is additional part of the constitution
52 Engineering Ethics
i. Stimulates the moral imagination
PESIT
j. Provides up-to-date Knowledge in the field of Engineering
k. Stimulates to conduct research
l. Stresses on Time Management
53 Socially and educationally backward class means

e. People belonging to low caste
f. Scheduled caste and scheduled tribe people
g. Economically and educationally backward class people
h. Uncultured and uneducated people
54. Jobs are reserved for SC and ST people

e. At the time of appointment
f. At the time of promotion
g. Both at the time of appoint and promotion
h. On the basis of their annual income
55 Right to life includes

e. Right to die
f. Right to contest for election
g. Right to make a will
h. Right to get education
56 Writ of Prohibition
e. Prohibits police from interfering in one’s private affairs
f. Prohibits a person to continue in a public post
g. Prohibits lower court exceeding its jurisdiction
h. Prohibits judicial and quasi judicial authority from taking an action
57 Vice-president of India is elected

e. By the Members of Lok Sabha
f. By the Members of Raj Sabha
g. By the legislative Members of all the states
h. By the members of Lok Sabha and Raj Sabha
58 Original jurisdiction of the supreme Court relates to

e. Civil suits directly filed in the Supreme Court
f. Criminal Complaints directly filed in the Supreme Court
g. Writs directly filed in the Supreme Court
h. Disputes between the Union & the States
59 One of the views on responsibility of Engineers is

i. They are strictly liable
j. They are absolutely reliable
k. They should do good works
l. They should take reasonable responsibility
60 One of the impediments to responsibility is

e. Interference by politicians
f. Interference by higher officers
g. Rampant corruption at higher level
h. Self deception
61 Professional autonomy means

e. Independent body controlling profession
f. Liberty in selecting the work
g. Liberty to express independent view
h. Exercising independent and objective judgment
PESIT
62 This is not a ground to declare state emergency

e. No clear majority
f. Not complying with the direction give by central government
g. Disobeying the direction given by Supreme Court
h. Failure to maintain law and order in the state
63 This is not a Directive Principle of state policy

e. Organize village Panchayat
f. Provide free Legal Aid
g. Secure living wage
h. Secure just and efficient judiciary
64 This is not a fundamental duty

e. To abide by constitution
f. To protect and improve natural environment
g. To develop scientific temper
h. Not to indulge in corrupt practice
65 It is not the objective enshrined in the Preamble

e. Justice Social Economic and Political
f. Liberty of thought and expression
g. Equality of Status
h. Secure shelter and proper livelihood to all
66 This is not the test for valid classification

e. Intelligible differentia
f. Relation between classification and the object sought to be achieved by the
state
g. Arbitrariness
h. Social and educational backwardness
expression
e. National Security
f. Law and order
g. Contempt of court
h. Morality or decency
68 This is not the power of the Chief Minister

e. Formation of Government
f. Control over ministers
g. Chief advisor to the Governor
h. Control over state judiciary
69 The President of India is not having

e. Executive Power
f. Diplomatic Power
g. Legislative Power
h. Power to control judiciary
70 The Election Commission has no power to conduct

e. Election to parliament
f. Election to state legislature
g. Election to the office of the President
h. Election to the speaker of the Lok Sabha

PESIT
71 This is not the aim of studying Engineering Ethics
e. Analyzing concepts
f. Addressing unclarity
g. Engaging sense of responsibility
h. Procuring faultless results
72 This is not dishonesty in Engineering Research and Testing

e. Crimping
f. Cooking
g. Forging
h. Plagiarism
73 Dr Rajendra Prasad was chairman of

a. Drafting committee
b. Constituent Assembly
c. Raj Sabha
d. First planning Commission
74 Number of members in Election Commission including the chairman is

e. Seven
f. Nine
g. Three
h. Five
75 Legislate means
e. Form Government
f. Make Constitutional amendment
g. Make law
h. Put Administrative Machinery into action
76 Natural Justice means

e. Justice not based on enacted law
f. Justice according providence
g. Just ,fair and reasonable action
h. Justice which is not based on technical formalities
77 Tight Couple means

e. Binding two beams tightly
f. Erecting two pillars side by side
g. Process tightly coupled
h. Strong adhesive material
78 Forging means
e. Signing in the name of some other person
f. Strengthening material by special process
g. Inventing research data which are reported
h. Mixing material under high pressure
79 Amend means
e. Remove the difficulties
f. Make the meaning more clear
g. Make the object of the act more clear
h. Omit
80 Enact means
e. Single chapter
PESIT
f. Single action
g. Pass a law
h. Rectify the mistakes , in the law
81 Special majority means

a. More than fifty percent
b. More than seventy five percent
c. More than two third majority
d. More than sixty six percent
82 Special leave means

a. Leave with salary
b. Leave without salary
c. Permission granted by the Supreme Court to appeal
d. Leave granted only to Supreme Court Judges before retirement
83 Respite means
a. Death due to strangulation
b. Death due to drowning
c. Awarding lesser punishment
d. Painless death
84 Violate means
a. Use Violence
b. Use force
c. Commit breach of law
d. Over-rule
85 Interpret means
a. Interrupting in the exercise of legal right
b. Passing a law by absolute majority
c. Ascertaining the meaning of a word
d. Amending a law to make it more effective
86 Right to privacy includes

e. Right to move freely through out the territory of India
f. Right to reside in any part of India
g. Right to practice any profession
h. Right to personal liberty
87 Minority may be
e. Linguistic or religious
f. Regional or national
g. Racial or regional
h. National or racial
88 The basic attitude towards responsibility is

e. Intentionally causing harm
f. Negligently causing harm
g. Minimalist
h. Recklessly causing harm
89 Conflict of interest may be

i. False
j. Potential
k. Created
PESIT
l. Imaginary
90 The President of India is bound to follow the advice given by

e. The Prime minister of India
f. The Attorney general of India
g. The Chief Justice of India
h. The Council of ministers
91 This is not the function of the Lok Sabha

e. Legislative Function
f. Financial Function
g. Controlling the executive
h. Judicial function
92 Appellate Jurisdiction of the supreme court does not include

e. Appeals in civil cases
f. Appeals in Criminal cases
g. Special leave to appeal
h. Appeals against writs
93 One of the characteristics of profession is that

e. Usually it is having monopoly
f. It demands hard work
g. It is based on honesty
h. It is having tough competition
94 Ordinance can be promulgated by

e. Lok Sabha
f. President of India
g. Lok Sabha and Raj Sabha
h. Prime minister
96 The chief election Commissioner is appointed by

e. The Prime Minister
f. The President
g. The Chief Justice of the supreme court
h. The law minister of India
97 Freedom of press is included in

e. Right to carry on any occupation
f. Right to personal liberty
g. Right to freedom of speech and expression
h. Right to education
98 Expert Testimony means

e. Tested by expert engineer
f. Evidence give by a person having competent technical knowledge
g. Document drafted by a legal expert
h. Designed by expert engineer
99 Fraternity
e. Fatherly treatment
f. Spirit of brotherhood
g. Unity and integrity of the nation
h. Elimination of economic injustice

PESIT
100 Who officiates in the absence of president of India
e. Prime Minister
f. Vice president
g. Speaker of Lok Sabha
h. Chief Justice of India
QUESTION PAPER-z 2006
1 Right to decent environment includes

a. freedom to reside in any part of India
b. right to life
c. right to religion
d. right to equal protection of law
2 Seats in educational institutions can be reserved for
a. educationally backward class people
b. Muslims
c. Socially backward class people
d. Socially and educationally backward class people
3 A judge of supreme court holds office until he attains the age of
a. 65
b.63
c.60
d.58
4 This is one of the basis for classification
a. economic
b. geographical
c. intelligible differentia
d. social and economic backwardness
5 The total number of ministers in the council of ministers including the Prime
minister shall not exceed
a.12% of the total number of Lok-Sabha
b.15% of the total number of Lok-Sabha
c.18% of the total number of Lok-Sabha
d.21% of the total number of Lok-Sabha
6 Reasonable restriction can be imposed on the right to practice any profession
a. in the interest of clients
b. in the interest of employees
c. in the interest of commerce and trade
d. in the interest of general public
7 One of the ways of reducing risk is
a. complex interaction
b. tight coupling
c. normalization of deviance
d. changing the working system
8 Oath is administered to the President before entering upon his office by the
a. vice President
b. Lok-Sabha speaker
c. Attorney General of India
d. Chief justice of India
9 Minimalist view means
a. a ministerial view
b. a novel plan to minimize industrial loss
c. a narrow thinking
d. a concept of responsibility

PESIT
10 The vice President has
a. legislative function
b. power to grant pardon
c. executive power
d. right to preside over Raj-Sabha
expression
a. friendly relations with foreign states
b. public nuisance
c. defamation
d. incitement of an offence
12 The directive principle of state policy
a. can be enforced in high court
b. can be enforced only in supreme court
c. can not be enforced in any court
d. can be enforced relating only to S.C and S.T
13 The number of ministers in central govt is fixed by the
a. planning commission
b. President
c. Parliament
d. Prime minister
14 This is not he function of election commission
a. preparation of election rolls
b. conduct of election
c. ascertain the suitability of candidates
d. counting votes
15 A cabinet minister of state govt can be removed by the
a. chief minister
b. governor
c. cabinet
d. chief minister with the consent of cabinet
16 The date of commence of Indian constitution is
a. 26 nov 1949
b. 26 nov 1945
c. 26 Jan 1950
d. 16 aug 1947
17 Demand for a constitution, framed by constituent assembly was made by

a. Puroshottamadas Tandon
b. Surendranath Banarjee
c. M.K.Gandhi
d. Dr.B.R.Ambedkar
18 For criminal misconduct, judge of the supreme court
a. Can not be prosecuted
b. can be prosecuted
c. can be prosecuted with consent of president
d. can be prosecuted with consent of chief justice of supreme court
19 Preamble of the Indian constitution indicates
a. the source of Indian constitution
b. the extent of govt. power to make law
c. the facilities to be given to backward class people
d. the circumstances under which the constitution can be amended
20 A person is detained under Preventive detention law when
a. He has committed offences against the public
b. he is likely to cause harm to the public
c. he is about to escape from India

PESIT
d. he has violated law made by the central govt.
21 The ground for the impeachment of President is
a. failure to follow the advice given by prime minister
b. unable to discharge his duties due to old age
c. violation of constitution
d. misbehavior with foreign dignitaries
22 The minimum age to eligible for the office of governor is
a. 50 yrs
b. 35 yrs
c. 55 yrs
d. No age limit is fixed
23 The election commission does not conduct election
a. to the parliament
b. to the office of President
c. to the post of prime minister
d. to the office of vice President
24 Governor will act under following circumstance with the advice of council of
ministers while returning
a. the bill for reconsideration
b. dissolving legislative assembly
c. recommending President’s rule
d. appointing the Advocate General
25 The owner of patent right retains his patent right for
a. 100 yrs
b. 20 yrs
c. 50 yrs
d. 75 yrs
26 To hold an engineer liable under law of Tart, the plaintiff need not prove that the
engineer
a. violated the legal duty imposed by law of Torts
b. violated the legal duty intentionally
c. violated of legal duty caused him injuries
d. that the violation of legal duty is the proximate cause of his injuries
27 The first meeting of the constituent assembly was held in
a. 1949
b. 1950
c. 1947
d. 1946
28 If there is a dispute between two states
a. high court has jurisdiction to decide that case
b. only supreme court has jurisdiction to decide that case
c. with the consent of both states, high court may decide
d. if one the state does not agree to approach high court the dispute must be
decided by the supreme court
29 Good works mean
a. superior work done with great care and skill
b. responsible work
c. work above and beyond the call of duty
d. work involving high risk
30 The following term has been included in the preamble by amending
a. republic
b. fraternity
c. socialist
d. sovereign
31 Telephone tapping is violation of
a. right to freedom of speech and expressions

PESIT
b. right to life and expression
c. right to carry on any profession
d. right to equal protection of law
32 Engineering profession is considered to be like a building, its foundation is
a. hard and sincere work
b. expert engineering knowledge and skill
c. sound common sense and expert knowledge
d. honesty
33 Equality before take law implies
a. absence of any privilege in favor any person
b. equal opportunity in social and economic matters to all citizens
c. that the law should be same both in the case of men and women
d. that all the religions should be treated equally
34 Traffic in-human being means
a. transporting human beings
b. selling or purchasing men and women
c. traffic in places having dense population
d. illegal sale of human organ
35 The constitution prohibits to enact retrospectively
a. criminal law
b. civil law
c. law related to election of President
d. laws relating to women’s right to property
36 The minimum age to contest for the election of legislative assembly is

a.30
b.21
c.35
d.25 yrs
37 This is not the legislative power of the President
a. summon each of house of Parliament
b. nominate 12 members of Raj-Sabha
c. to grant pardon
d. assent to legislation
38 Sexual harassment of working-women is violation of
a. fundamental right
b. fundamental duty
c. directive principles of state policy
d. rule of law
39 When the election of President is declared void, all acts done by the President in
the performance of the duties of his office before the date of decision become
a. illegal
b. unlawful
c. valid
d. invalid
40 Forced labor does not include service rendered under

a. physical force
b. legal force
c. compulsion of economic circumstances
d. moral force
41 Cooking means
a. boiling under pressure
b. retaining results which fit the theory
c. making deceptive statements
d. misleading the public about the quality of the product

PESIT
42 The directive principles of state policy to be followed by the state for securing
economic justice does not include
a. equal right of men and women to adequate means of livelihood
b. equal pay for equal work
c. to protect health and strength of the workers
d. to secure uniform civil code
43 Right to practice and propagate any religion is subject to
a. public order
b. public convenience
c. public interest
d. public consent
44 Ordinance is promulgated by the
a. Lok-sabha
b. Raj sabha
c. Prime ministers on the advice given by the council of ministers
d. President
45 The constitution classifieds the fundamental rights under
a. 14 heads
b. 12Heads
c. 6Heads
d. 4heads
46 This act was not passed to implement directive principles of state policy
a. the forest act
b. the arms act
c. the maternity benefit act
d. the water pollution act
47 Remission
a. absolves the offender from all sentences
b. temporarily suspends the sentence
c. reduces the length of sentence
d. substitutes one form of punishment for another of a lighter character
48 A governor
a. may be transferred from one state to another
b. can not be transferred from one state to another
c. can be transferred with his consent
d. can be transferred with written consent of President
49 One of the characteristics of profession is

a. it gives scope to exercise one’s skill
b. it gives monopoly on service
c. it provides opportunity to help the poor and needy
d. it demands high std of honesty
50 Equal protection of law means
a. the same law shall apply to all who are similarly situated
b. the same law shall apply to all irrespective of religion, race caste
c. there should not be any discrimination while protecting men and women
d. laws applicable to back-ward class people should be same
51 Mandal commission deals with
a. rights to the minority
b. laws relating to sexual harassment
c. reservation for back-ward class people
d. laws relating o child labors
52 Engineering ethics is a
a. preventive ethics
b. developing ethics
c. natural ethics

PESIT
d. scientifically developed ethics
53 This is not one of the directive principles of state policy
a. securing equal pay for equal work for men and women
b. securing the level of nutrition
c. to bring about prohibition of consumption of intoxicating drinks
d. take stringent measures to eliminate corruption
54 This is not writ
a. writ of Habeas Corpus
b. writ of Mandamus
c. writ of Prevention
d. writ of Certiorari
55 An engineer may not be held legally for causing harm, when the harm is caused
a. internationally
b. ignorantly
c. negligently
d. recklessly
56 The vice-President of India may be removed by
a. impeachment
b. Lok sabha
c. Raj sabha
d. Raj sabha, agreed by Lok sabha
57 The right to education is part of
a. right to freedom of speech and expressions
b. right to social equality
c. right to life
d. right to freedom of profession and trade
58 An arrested person should be allowed
a. to contact his relatives
b. to contact higher police officer
c. to consult his lawyer
d. to contact nearest Magistrate
59 Egocentric tendencies means
a. superiority complex
b. arrogant and irresponsible behavior
c. interpreting situation from limited view
d. habit of condemning the views of
60 Appeal by special leave means
a. appeal permitted on payment of fine
b. appeal permitted by the supreme court in matters relating to the election
of president
c. supreme court, granting special permission to appeal, through the time to
appeal is barred by limitation
d. supreme court, granting in its discretion special permission to appeal from
any judgment passed by any court
61 To contest for the election of Lok sabha, the person
a. should be citizen of India
b. should be resident of India for at least 10 years
c. should be resident of India for at least 12 years
d. should be resident of India for at least 5 years
62 The freedom of speech and expression does not include
a. the right to express ones own conviction
b. right to propagate the views of other person
c. commercial advertisements
d. calling for “Bundh”
63 Revealing confidential information amounts to
a. misusing the truth

PESIT
b. breach of contract
c. criminal breach of trust
d. violation of patient right
64 Raj sabha members are elected by
a. the adult suffrage
b. the members of legislative council
c. the elected members of legislative assembly
d. the members of lok-sabha and the elected members of legislative assembly
65 They are not trade secrets
a. formulas
b. principles
c. patterns
d. devices
66 Writ of Mandamus is issued directing the

a. detaining authority to produce the body before the court
b. directing the judicial officer to act within his authority
c. directing the public authority to discharge his duty
d. directing the lower court to follow the principles of natural justice
67 Conflict of interest exists for an engineer when period is detained

a. threat
b. professional impediments
c. professional harassments
d. loyalties
68 Lok sabha is composed of not more than ____ members
a. 420
b. 550
c. 450
d. 540
69 It does not amount to misusing the truth
a. withholding information
b. deliberation deception
c. biased professional opinion
d. failure to seek-out the truth
70 A person to be appointed as prime minister should be
a. member of Lok sabha
b. member of Raj sabha
c. member of legislative assembly
d. need not be, none of the above
71 Writ of Habeas Corpus is issued when period is detained

a. by a private individual
b. by the order of lower court
c. by the order of High court
d. by the order of supreme court
72 The chief Justice of India is appointed by
a. prime minister
b. council of minister
c. president
d. parliament
73 One of the characteristics of high risk technologies susceptible to accident is
a. complex combinations
b. complex working system
c. complex interaction
d. complex design

PESIT
74 For the breach of fundamentals Duty, an action
a. can be initiated in Magistrate court
b. can be initiated in the civil court
c. cannot be initiated in any court
d. can be initiated either in high court or supreme court
75 Acceptable risk means
a. risk which can not be avoided
b. inevitable risk
c. risk of harm equal to probability of producing benefits
d. risk which is natural part of the process
76 The following factor does not help to maintain independence of judiciary
a. security of tenure
b. highly attractive retirement benefits
c. salary of judges can not be reduced
d. no discussion in legislature on the conduct of judges
77 Group thinking
a. is useful to understand the different facts of the problem
b. is an impediment to responsibility
c. leads to confusion and may cause loss
d. is an impediment in the progress of work
78 Collective responsibility of the cabinet means, all ministers are collectively
responsible to
a. the Prime minister
b. the President
c. the Lok-sabha
d. the Raj-sabha
79 An expert testimony des not depend

a. adequate time for a thorough investigation
b. consulting extensively with lawyer
c. expert legal knowledge
d. objective and unbiased demeanor
80 Writ of quo warranto is issued

a. to arrest a person without warrant
b. to release a person who has been arrested without warrant
c. to restrain a person from acting in an office to which he is not entitled
d. to a quasi-judicial authority to follow the principles of natural justice
81 The constitution does not protect the right of the minority with regard to
a. script
b. cult
c. culture
d. language
82 A proclamation of national emergency ma be revoked by another proclamation at
time by the
a. Lok-sabha
b. Raj Sabha
c. both, Lok-sabha and Raj-sabha
d. President
83 The following act does not amount to practicing untouchability
a. denying access to any shop
b. refusing admission to a hospital
c. denying access to a home
d. refusing to sell goods or render service
84 Self-incrimination means

PESIT
a. compelling a person to give evidence
b. compelling a person to file complaint
c. compelling a person to commit crime
d. compelling a person to be a witness against himself
85 One of the tests for valued classification is, it must be based on

a. principles of natural justice
b. directive principles of state policy
c. intelligible differentia
d. social and educational std
86 The directive principles of state policy are
a. political rights
b. constitutional rights
c. social rights
d. legal rights
87 When a state emergency is declared, all or any of the functions of the state govt
are assumed by the
a. governor
b. President
c. Prime minister
d. Union cabinet
88 The tenure of member of legislative council is ___ years
a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. 6
89 The election of President shall be held in accordance with the system of
proportional representation y means of
a. transferable vote
b. valid transferable vote
c. single transferable vote
d. single considerable vote
90 To declare national emergency a decision must be taken by the
a. Lok sabha
b. Raj sabha
c. both Lok sabha and Raj sabha
d. cabinet
91 One of the aims in studying engineering ethics is
a. to gain better insight into the profession
b. to know the secrets of the profession
c. to understand professional problems
d. to develop analytical skill
92 Without the certificate of high court an appeal can be made to supreme court
a. if party belongs to S.C
b. if party belongs to S.T
c. if party is a war widow
d. with the special leave of supreme court
93 This is not a ground to declare national emergency

a. war
b. serious internal disturbance
c. armed rebellion
d. external aggression
94 The India independence act 1947 was passed by the
a. constituent assembly
b. British parliament

PESIT
c. Governor General of India
d. Provincial Government
95 No criminal proceedings shall be instituted during his term of office against the
a. Prime minister of India
b. Vice President of India
c. Governor
d. Chief minister
96 Creamy layer means
a. highly educated persons
b. persons holding high posts
c. highly cultured persons
d. persons having higher incomes
97 The principles of natural justice do not require

a. reasonable notice
b. reasonable opportunity being heard
c. decision on merits
d. follow instructions strictly by superior officer
98 State emergency can be declared, when the
a. govt of the state can not be carried on in accordance with the provision of
the constitution
b. chief minister resigns
c. party forming the ministry has a total rout in the election of Lok sabha
d. when the state govt refuses to follow the direction given by the supreme
court
99 The total members in the legislative council should not be less than
a. 250
b. 80
c. 20
d. 40
100 Backward class can be classified into
a. moderately back-ward class
b. more back-ward class
c. most back-ward class
d. highly back-ward class

PESIT
COMPOSITE MATERIALS – ME833

Faculty: Dr.Kishore T Kashyap
% of Portions
Class Chapter Title / covered
Topics to be covered
# Reference Literature Reference Cumulativ
chapter e
Chapter : 1 Definition, classification and 12% 12%
1-6 Introduction to characteristics of composite
Composites materials – fibrous composites,
T1: page 1.1 – 1.54 laminated composites, particulate
T2: page 1 - 36 composites. Properties and types
R1: page 1 - 14 of Matrix and Reinforcement
R2: page 3 – 19 materials
Chapter : 2 Lay up and curing, fabricating 20% 32%

7 - 16 Fiber reinforced plastic process – open and closed mould
processing process – hand lay up techniques
T1: page 4.1 – 4.93 – structural laminate bag
T2: page 271 - 279 moulding, production procedures
R2: page 419 – 565 for bag moulding – filament
winding, pultrusion, pulforming,
thermo-forming, injection,
injection moulding, liquid
moulding, blow moulding
Chapter : 3 Cutting, machining, drilling, 16% 48%

17 – 24 Fabrication of mechanical fasteners and adhesive
composites bonding, joining, computer aided
T1: page page 6.1 – design and manufacturing,
6.75 fabrication equipment
R2: page 613 – 651
Chapter : 4 Automobile, Aircraft, Space 4% 52%

25 – 26 Application of hardware, Electrical and
composites electronics, marine, recreational &
T2: page 293 - 309 sports, future potential of
R1: page 15 - 45 composites
R2: page 1017 - 1101
Chapter : 5 Reinforcement materials, types, 10% 62%
27 – 36 Metal matrix characteristics and selection,
composites selection of base metals – Need for
T2: page 34 - 36 production of MMC’s and its
R1: page 36 - 39 application
R2: page 3 - 19
Chapter : 6 Powder Metallurgy technique, 16% 78%

37 – 44 Fabrication process for liquid metallurgy technique,
MMC’s secondary processing, special
T2: page 280 - 286 processing techniques
R1: page 36 - 39
R2: page b579 – 588

PESIT
Reference Cumulativ
chapter e
Chapter : 7 Physical, mechanical, wear, 12% 90%
45 – 50 Study of properties of machinability and other properties.
MMC’s Effect of size, shape and
T2: page 208 - 269 distribution of particulate on
R2: page 195 - 360 properties
Chapter : 8 Introduction, characteristics and 10 % 100 %
51 - 52 Shape Memory alloys types of shape memory alloys
Text Books:
T1: Composite hand book by Mel Schwartz, Second edition, Mcgraw Hill
T2: Introduction to composite materials by Hull & Clyne, Camridge University Press,
2nd Edition, 1990
Reference Books:
R1: Mechanics of Composites by Artar Kaw, CRC Press 2002
R2: ASM Hand Book Vol 21 Composites
Question Bank
Chapter : 1 Introduction to Composites

01* Define a composite material.
02 List the various types of fibres used in PMC’s
03* What are the merits and demerits of carbon, glass, and boron fibres.
04* How composites are different from conventional materials.
05* Discuss the classifications and characteristics of composite materials.
06* What is the need for advanced materials.
07* How are composite materials classified. Give an example in each.
08* List the advantages, limitations and applications of composite materials.
09 Distinguish between thermo plastic and thermo set polymers.
Chapter : 2 Fiber reinforced plastic processing

10* List different methods used in production of FRP’s. Breifly explain general steps
involved in the production of FRP’s.
11 With relevant examples explain in detail fibre reinforced plastic composites.
12 With relevant examples explain in detail laminate reinforced plastic composites.
13* With relevant examples explain in detail particulate reinforced plastic
composites.
14* Explain the following FRP fabrication methods.
a. Hand layup techniques b. Liquid injection moulding
c. Pultrusion d. Pulforming
e. Thermoforming f. Blow moulding
15 Explain bag moulding, vaccum bag moulding and auto clave process.
16* Differentiate between pultrusion and pulforming.
17* Differentiate between open bag moulding and closed bag moulding.
18* Explain the concepts in filament winding techniques and explain its application.
19 Explain the concept of thermo forming.
20 Breifly explain the following.
a. Epoxy resin e. Prepeg
b. Hybrid composite f. Glass fibre

PESIT
c. Boron fibre g. Carbon fibre
d. Graphite fibre h. Aramide fibre
Chapter : 3 Fabrication of composites
21* What are the problems encountered in machining of composites by conventional

machining process. Suggest remedies.
22* What are the precautions to be underatken to machine the composites.
23* Explain the method used in machining of FRP’s highlighting a selection of tooling,
preocess parameters, problems associated
24* Explain tooling trimming techniques used in composites.
25* What are the merits and demerits of bonded and bolted joints as applied to
composite materials.
26* Write a note on joining and bonding of FRP’s.
27 Explain adhesive bonding and the types of adhesives used.
28 Enumerate on advantages and disadvantages of adhesive bonding.
29 Briefly explain joining methods of FRP’s.
30 Breifly explain the different types of joint designs used in FRP’s.
Chapter : 4 Application of composites
31* Write short notes on the application of composites in the following industries.
a. Space b. Marine
b. Missiles c. Recreational and sports equipment.
32* Discuss the future potential of composites.
33 Write a short note on the use of composites in electrical and elctronic industries.
34 Write a short note on the use of composites in medical devices.
35 Write a short note on the recycling of composites.
Chapter : 5 Metal matrix composites
36* List the important requirements of reinforcement materials used in MMC’s.

37* What are the characteristics of base metal requirements for the production of
MMC’s.
38* List the advantages, limitations and application of MMC”s.
39* Explain MMC”S highlighting their exceptional features.
40 What is the need for production of MMC’s.
Chapter : 6 Fabrication process for MMC’s
41* Describe the production of aluminium based composites using particulates by

liquid metallurgic technique. Draw neat sketches for the same.
42* Discuss the application of MMC composites.
43* Discuss the different fabrication techniques used in MMC’s.
44 What are MMC’s. List typical MMC’s along with their applications.
45* Explain powder metallurgy technique with a flowchart for fabrication of MMC’s.
46* With examples distinguish between hard and soft reinforcement materials.
47* What are the secondary processing techniques used in MMC’s.
48 Explain special fabrication techniques adopted for production of MMC’s.
49 With a flowchart explain powder metallurgy processing of MMC’s.
50 Explain the concept of sintering.
Chapter : 7 Study of properties of MMC’s

PESIT
51* Explain the influence of shape, size and distribution of particles on mechanical
properties of MMC’s
Chapter : 8 Shape Memory alloys
52* Discuss pseudo elasticity in shape memory alloys.

53* Discuss shape memory alloys and ceramics.
NOTE : Question with * mark as appeared in VTU exam

PESIT
JET AND ROCKET PROPULSION (JRP) - ME 844
Faculty : Wg Cdr M R Vaggar (Rtd)
Class Portion to be covered. Reference % Duration
portion Periods
covered
1-11 Basic Principles of e)1-37, 44-94 17.3(9hrs) 9hrs(11)
Thermodynamics, Fluid Mechanics f) 3-74
& Gas Dynamics.
12-19 Moment principle, Thrust principle, b)27-63,99-167 28 (15hrs0 6hrs(7.5)
Thermodynamic cycles analysis e)127-161,
(ideal & real), including variants 211-255
for inter-cooling, reheat etc,
Efficiency parameters, Description
of air- and non-air-breathing
engines.
20-26 Non-rotating components analysis- d)98-115, 159- 40 6hrs(7.5)
diffuser, nozzle, combustion 181 (21hrs)
chamber. e)404-433,483-
503, 519-528
f)164-171
27-37 Rotary components, compressor d)175-236 59(31hrs) 10hrs(10)

and turbine including velocity e)263-376
diagrams, matching, surge & stall f)175-236
etc
38-45 Jet propulsion types, pulse jet, d)1-28,110-155 69(36hrs) 5hrs(6)
Ram jet, Turbo jet, Efficiency and e)210-235
power of propulsion. f)109-142
45-62 Principle of rockets, Propellants d)237-333 100(55hrs) 16hrs(19.2)
Analysis of Convergent-divergent e)485-503, 593-
nozzle, Internal ballistics of solid 622
propellant rockets, Liquid
propulsion devices, Hybrid
propulsion devices
REFERENCE BOOKS:
a) Gas Turbine theory – Cohen Rogers, Sarvanamuttoo – (Longman).

b) Applied Thermodynamics for Engineers – T.D Eastop & A.McConkey (Pearson
Education).
c) Elements of Rocket Propulsion-Sutton G.P (John Wiley).
d) Understanding of Aerospace Chemical Propulsion–H S Mukunda–(Interline
publisher).
e) Gas Turbines – 2003, V Ganesan (Tata Mc Graw Hill).
f) Gas Turbine Theory and Jet Propulsion – J K Jain- (Khanna publisher).
g) Basic Applied Thermodynamics – P K Nag (Tata Mc Graw Hill).
h) Gas Turbine and Jet Propulsion System – Khajuria and Dubey (Dhanpat Rai
publication).

PESIT
QUESTION BANK
1. Explain with neat sketch the details of gas turbine power plants.
2. What are the most important two factors which affect the performance of a gas turbine
engine.
3. Which are the parameters of most important to determine the overall efficiency of a
gas turbine cycle?
4. What are the advantages of a gas turbine over reciprocating engine from the point of
view of component development?
5. How many components are there in a simple gas turbine power plant? Mention the
additional components that can be added to improve the power output and efficiency.
6. Explain the relationship between Enthalpy and Internal energy.
7. Explain the terms stagnation pressure and stagnation temperature.
8. What the streamlines and stream tubes? Explain with the sketch.
9. Explain the difference between laminar and turbulent flow.
10. What is a boundary layer? Give account of boundary layer separation.
11. With the help of thermodynamic analysis develop an expression for the energy transfer
of a rotating machines.
12. Discuss briefly the theory of aerofoil employed for wings, compressors and turbine
blades.
13. What is meant by lift and drag? Show the effect of angle of attack on CL and CD on a
graph.
14. What is the purpose of adding a heat exchanger in a gas turbine engine (GTE)? Explain
the details with suitable sketches.
15. With a neat sketch explain the straight compounded twin-spool arrangement on a GTE.
16. Briefly discuss the applications of GTE.
17. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of a closed cycle system over open cycle
system
18. Discuss advantages and disadvantages of GTE over reciprocating engine and Vise-
versa.
19. A gas turbine operates on a pressure ratio of 6 the inlet air entering the turbine is
300k and the air entering the turbine is at a temperature of 577ºC if the volume rate
of air entering the compressor is 240 m3-s..calculate the net power out put in MW.
Also compute its efficiency. Assume that the cycle operates under ideal conditions
(Ans: 39.21 MW, 40.16%). GT-G 97
20. State the assumptions made in an ideal cycle analysis of gas turbines
21. Draw the schematic diagram of a simple cycle and explain briefly the working of the
cycle. Draw the p-V and T-s diagram of the cycle.
22. Show that the specific work output is maximum when the pr.ratio is such that the
compressor outlet and turbine outlet temperatures are equal.
23. Drive an expression for specific work output and the efficiency of a simple cycle with
reheat. Draw their trends as a function of pressure ratio.
24. By means of suitable graph compare the specific work output of various cycles with out
heat exchanger.
25. Derive the expression for specific work output and the efficiency of a simple cycle with
intercooler. Draw their trends as a function of pressure ratio.
26. What is meant by jet propulsion? What are the basic differences of jet propulsions and
shaft power cycle.
27. Explain the principle of jet propulsion and mention how the jet propulsion engines are
classified.
28. With a sketch explain the working principle of Ramjet engine and give its advantages
and disadvantages.
29. What is meant by thrust? Derive thrust equation for a general propulsion system.
30. Explain the performance graph of turbo jet engine. What are the advantages and
disadvantage of turbo jet engine.

PESIT
31. With a graph of mass flow against pr.ratio in a compressor explain the stall and surge
phenomenon and its effects on performance of gas turbine engine.
32. A gas turbine with regenerator has got the following data=:
Compressor inlet temperature- 290 K
Compressor outlet temperature- 460 K
Inlet temperature of turbine- 900ºC
Outlet temperature of turbine- 467ºC
Assume no pressure drop in the heat exchanger, calculate
(a) The pressure ratio of compressor and turbine
(b) The specific power output
(c) The overall efficiency of the cycle
(d) The work required to derive the compressor
Assume 100% mechanical efficiency
{Ans: rc=5, Wn=246.3 KJ/Kg, η=60.7%, comp. work=170.85KJ/Kg, rt=5)
G T-G, 101
33. The specific power output of a turbine is 336.5 KW and the exhaust gases leave the
turbine at 700 K. Calculate the turbine pressure ratio if the value of Cp & Cv are 1
KJ/KgK and 0.717 KJ/KgK respectively. Calculate to the nearest integer the pressure
ratio. { Ans: rt = 4} G T – G 104
34. A gas turbine power plant operates between 5ºC and 839ºC . Find
( ) Pressure ratio at which cycle efficiency = Carnot cycle efficiency.
( ) Pressure ratio at which maximum work is obtained
( ) Efficiency under the conditions giving maximum work output
{ Ans: r = 128 – Carnot, ηwmax = 50%, rwmax = 11.3} G T – G 107
35. A gas turbine power plant operates m number of compressor stages and n numberof
turbine stages. The maximum temperature rise in the gas turbine is Tmax. The ambient
temperature is Tmin. Assume pressure ratio in compressor is same in all m stages and
perfect inter cooling. Also assume the pressure ratio in turbine are same and the
working fuel is reheated to Tmax. Show that
t = (ra)(m+n)/mn , where ‘r’ is the ratio of maximum pr to minimum pr
t= Tmax / Tmin and a = (γ-1)/ γ G T – G 118
36. A gas turbine unit has pr.ratio of 10/1 and a maximum cycle temperature is 700ºC.
The isentropic efficiencies of the compressor and the turbine are 0.82 and 0.85
respectively. Calculate the power output of an electric generator geared to the turbine
when the air enters the compressor at 15ºC and at the rate of 15 Kg/s. Take Cp=
1.005 KJ/KgK and γ = 1.4 for the compression process Cp = 1.11 KJ/KgK and γ =
1.333 for the expansion process. { Ans: 1098} A T E – Eastop 263.
37. Prove that the efficiency corresponding to maximum work done in Brayton cycle is
given by the relation ηwmax = (1- 1/√t ) , where t is the ratio of max .and min.
temperature of the cycle. G T – G 111
38. A gas turbine operating on Brayton cycle between 27ºC and 827ºC. Determine the
maximum net work per kg and cycle efficiency. Also compare Carnot efficiency with
the Brayton efficiency for these temperature limits. { Ans: Wmax = 252.34 KJ/Kg ,
ηwmax = 47.77% , ηCarnot = 72.72 %. G T – G 112
39. In an ideal gas turbine cycle with reheat, air at state (p1, T1) is compressed to
pressure are rp1 and heated to T3 the air is then expanded in two stages, each turbine
having the same pressure ratio with reheat to T3 between the stages assuming this
working fluid to be perfect gas with constant sp heats and the compression and
expansion are isentropic , show that the sp work output will be maximum when r is
given by r = t(2/3a) where t = T3/T1 and a= (γ-1)/ γ G T – G113
40. A turbojet aircraft is flying at 800 km/h at 10700m where pressure and temperature of
atmosphere are 0.24 bar and -50ºC and the maximum cycle temperature is 820ºC.
Calculate the thrust developed and the specific fuel consumption using the following
information, : entry duct efficiency is 0.9, isentropic efficiency of the compressor 0.9
stagnation pressure loss in the compressor is 0.14 bar, calorific value of the fuel is
43,300 kJ/kg , combustion efficiency 98%; isentropic efficiency of the turbine 0.92,
mechanical efficiency of the drive 98%. Jet pipe efficiency 0.92; nozzle outlet area
PESIT
0.08m2, Cp and γ for compression process 1.005 kj/kgK and 1.4; Cp and γ for the
combustion and expansion process 1.15 kj/kg K and 1.333; assume the nozzle is
convergent. {Ans: Total thrust = 6453 N, sfc = 0.0291 kg/KNs}.
(A T E – Eastop 317)
41. A turbo prop aircraft is flying at 650 Km/h at an altitude where the ambient
temperature is -18ºC the compression ratio is 9/1 and the maximum cycle
temperature is 850ºC, the intake duct efficiency is 0.9 and the stagnation isentropic
efficiency of the compressor and the turbine are 0.89 and 0.93 respectively calculate
the specific power output and the cycle efficiency taking a mechanical efficiency of
98% and neglecting the pressure loss in combustion chamber. Assume that the
exhaust gases leave the aircraft at 650 km/h relative to the aircraft and take Cp and γ
for compression process 1.005 kj/kgK and 1.4; Cp and γ for the combustion and
expansion process 1.15 kj/kg K and 1.333 {Ans: Specific power output 252.5 kw/kg/s,
ηTh = 37.4 % } A T E – Eastop 322
42. Explain with suitable diagram working principle of a centrifugal compressor.
43. What are the blade shapes and how are they classified?
44. Explain with sketch how the blade shapes effect the performance of a compressor.
45. Explain the phenomenon of surge and choking in centrifugal compressor.
46. With suitable sketch explain the working principle of an axial flow compressor.
47. Explain the phenomena of surging and stalling in an axial flow compressor explain also
the rotating stall.
48. What is meant by a stage and explain in detail the stage velocity triangles in an axial
compressor.
49. Explain the process of combustion in a gas turbine combustion chamber.
50. What are the various possibility of combustion chamber arrangement?
51. Write short notes on :
( ) Flame tube cooling
( ) Fuel injection
( ) Ignition
( ) Use of cheaper fuels
( ) Pollution
52. What is the purpose of an aircraft gas turbine inlet and nozzle?
53. Explain briefly the supersonic inlets in an aircraft.
54. Explain the engine back pressure control for a gas turbine engine.
55. Explain the exhaust nozzle area ratio for a subsonic and supersonic aircraft.
56. Explain thrust reversing and thrust vectoring employed for vertical take-off and
landing (VTOL) aircraft.
57. Explain the various materials that can be used for gas turbine blades.
58. Explain the principle of operation of a turbine and what are the primary parts of the
turbine?
59. Explain the various factors considered in the selection of blade materials and their
manufacturing techniques.
60. Explain the various methods of turbine blade fixing and blade cooling.
61. Explain the problems of high temperature operations of blades in aircraft gas turbine
engines.
62. Explain the general matching procedure for a two spool turbo jet engine.
63. What do you understand by the term matching of components?
64. Mention working principle of a pulse jet engine and give advantages and
disadvantages.
65. Explain with neat diagram working of a turboprop engine and also bring its
applications.
66. Explain the thrust augmentation by after burner method.
67. How does water methanol injection help in thrust augmentation.
68. Explain the various efficiencies associated with a propulsion device.
69. Explain various factors affecting the performance of a propulsion device.
70. What is the difference between rocket propulsion and jet propulsion?

PESIT
71. Derive a general expression for thrust produced by a chemical rocket and hence
discuss the importance of molecular weight of propellants.
72. Draw the schematic diagram of solid propellant and explain its working. What are the
applications of this type of rocket?
73. Draw the schematic diagram of liquid propellant rocket.
74. What are the different systems of injecting liquid propellants into the combustion
chamber.
75. What is the desirable propellant of liquid for rockets?
76. Explain how nuclear power can be used for the rocket propulsion.
77. Explain the internal ballistics of solid propellant rocket with neat diagrams (Burning
mechanisms)
78. What do you understand by thrust vector control in rockets.
79. Explain hybrid propulsion devices.
80. Explain the gas and pump pressurization system in liquid rocket systems.
81. Explain with a neat diagram plasma rocket propulsion system.
82. Explain the various functions of exhaust nozzles used on rockets.
83. Explain the functioning of convergent and divergent nozzle how it helps for an engine
with after burning on a turbo jet air craft.
84. How aircraft engine back pressure control is achieved.
85. Explain the phenomenon of thrust reversing and thrust vectoring in gas turbine
engines and rocket engines.
86. An airplane is propelled by a turbo jet engine. The flight speed at 10,000 m attitude is
800km/h. The drag coefficient is 0.16. Its weight is 5,000kg and its wing area is 20m2. The
effective jet velocity is 500m/s. Determine the thrust and the air consumption of the engine
Cp = 0.24 and density ratio = 0.374. {Ans: specific thrust = 28.4 kg/kg of air, air flow rate
= 13.28 kg/s} GT RP-J-201

PESIT
NON-DESTRUCTIVE TESTING (ME 845)

LESSON PLAN
Faculty: MOHANDAS K N
%
Class # Portions To Be Covered.
Covered
Introduction to ND Testing: Selection of ND methods, Visual inspection,
1-3 6
leak testing.
4-5 Liquid Penetration Inspection, its advantages and limitations, 10
Magnetic Particle inspection: Methods of generating magnetic fields,
6-9 types of magnetic particles and suspension liquids-steps in inspection, 18
application and limitations
Eddy Current Inspection: Principle, operation variables, procedure,
10-13 26
inspection coils, and detectable discounts by the method.
Microwave Inspection: Microwave holography, applications and
14-15 30
limitations.
Ultra Sonic Inspection: Basic equipment characteristics of ultra sonic
waves, variables in inspection, inspection methods – pulse echo A,B,C,
scans, transmission, resonance techniques, transducer elements,
16-25 50
couplants, search units, contact types and immersion types. Inspection
standards-standard reference blocks, inspection of products like
casting, extrusions, rolled products, weld-set.
Radiographic Inspection: Principles, radiation sources, x-rays and
gamma rays: x-rays tubes, radio graphic films, screens and filters,
image intensifiers, technique charts, industrial radiography, electro-
26-35 70
radiography, X-ray radiography, image quality, radiographic sensitivity,
Peneramotors, electron neutron radiography. Application of
radiographic inspection in industry.
Industrial Computed Tomography: Basic principles, capabilities, and
36-42 comparison with other NDT methods – application of ICT. Thermal 84
inspection, principles, equipment, inspection methods applications.
Optical Holography: Basics of holography, recording and reconstruction
43-48 – interferometric techniques of inspections, procedures of inspection, 96
typical applications.
Acoustical Holography: Systems and techniques applications. Indian
49-50 100
standards for NDT.
Reference Books:
1. McGonnagle J.J “Non Destructive Testing”-garden and reach NEWYORK (Latest

Edition)
2. “Non Destructive Evaluation and Quality Control.” Volume 17 of Metals Handbook, 9th
edition – Asia internal 1989
3. DAVIS H.E., TROXELL G.E., WISKOVIL C.T., “The Testing Inspection of Engg.
Materials”, Mc Graw Hill (Latest Edition)
4. “Non-Destructive Testing of Welds” by Baldev Raj, C.V.Subramanian, T. Jayakumar
Question Bank
1. Explain the operating characteristics of x - ray tube. Write a note on the applications of
radiographic inspections.
2. Compare computer tomography with other NDT methods and justify.
3. Explain the principle and capabilities of Computer Tomography.
PESIT
4. With a neat sketch explain the principle of operation and procedure of Eddy current
inspection.
5. Write short notes on inspection coils and eddy current instruments.
6. Explain the basic equipments and the principle of ultrasonic inspection.
7. Explain the major variables in ultrasonic inspection.
8. Briefly discuss the pulse echo method with respect to ultra sonic inspection.
9. Explain the working principle of acoustical emission inspection and explain the variation
in inspection with respect to other NDT methods.
10. Describe the various methods of magnetization.
11. Explain the basic principle of Eddy current testing and the factors affecting Eddy current.
12. Explain the benefits of NDT with examples and its significance with respect to metrology
and evaluation.
13. Write short notes on Gamma Ray radiography.
14. Explain the major categories of thermal inspection equipments and explain in brief the
working of infra red imaging equipment.
15. Explain steady state inspection method with respect to thermal inspection.
16. Explain the objectives of leak testing and explain the different methods used for leak
detection.
17. Briefly explain the instruments used in visual inspection and write a note on the
limitations on the visual inspection methods.
18. Explain the principle and procedure of Liquid Penetrate Inspection.
19. Write a note on NDT digital image enhancement system.
20. Explain image enhancement principles.
21. Compare the advantage of Ultrasonic inspection over Magnetic Particle Testing,
radiographic testing and eddy current inspection methods.
22. Discuss briefly real time radiography and film radiography.
23. Explain the principle of Computed tomography (CT). List the application of CT
technology.
24. What is digital image enhancement? Explain in brief image capture & acquisition system.
25. List out the advantages, disadvantages & applications of the Eddy current inspection.
26. Write a short note on:
1. Specimen preparation
2. Microstructure characterization
3. Micro structural analysis
4. Optical Holography
5. Ultrasonic inspection

PESIT
POWER PLANT ENGINEERING – ME 82

Faculty : Jagadeesh.Y.J
Hours Topics to be covered % of Portions

to be covered
(cumulative)
Introduction
Introduction to Power Plant Engineering---Importance to
01 Mechanical Engineers---Scope and objectives---Study
01hr resources and references—
Teaching/Instruction methodology
1. Steam Power Plants
02 Different types of fuels used for steam generation 28 %
02 Equipment for burning Coal
01 Oil burners
02 Pulverised fuel firing systems
01 Cyclone furnace
02 Coal and ash handling
04 High pressure steam generators (La Mont, Benson, Velox,
Loeffler,
15 hrs Schmidt, Ramson)
2. Chimneys
01 Types of chimneys 32 %
01 Calculation of chimney heights
17 hrs
3. Steam generator acessories
01 Super heaters and control of super heaters –de
01 superheaters 36 %
Economisers, Air pre heaters and re heaters
19 hrs
4. cooling towers
02 Different types of cooling towers and cooling ponds
40 %
21hrs
5. Diesel engine power plants
02 Starting, cooling and lubrication of diesel engines 52 %
02 Filters, Centrifuges, oil heaters, intake and exhaust
02 systems
27hrs Diesel power plant lay out
6. Gas turbine power plants
01 Advantages/ disadvantages 55 %
01 Open and closed cycle type plants with acessories
29hrs
7. Hydro Electric Power Plants
02 Storage and pondage---flow duration and mass curves— 67 %
01 hydrographs
01 Low, medium and high head plants, pumped storage
01 plants
01 Penstock, water hammer, surge tanks, gates and valves

PESIT
35 hrs Power house, general layout,
Some important hydel installations in India
8. Nuclear Power Plants

01 Nuclear rnergy, fission and fusion, 83 %
01 Nuclear fuels used in reactors, Multiplication and thermal
utilization factors
02 Elements of nuclear reactors—moderator, controlrod, fuel
rods, coolants,
01 Pressurized water reactor, Boiling water reactor
01 Sodium graphite reactor, Fast breeder reactor,
01 Homogeneous graphite reactor, gas cooled reactor
01 Radiation hazards, shieldings, Radioactive waste disposal
43hrs
9. Choice of site for power station
01 Choice of site for power stations 94 %
03 Lload estimation, load duration curves, load factor,
capacity factor, use factor, diversity factor, demand factor
01 Variable load on power plants
01 Selection of the number and size of the units
49 hrs
10. Economic analysis of Power Plants
01 Cost of energy production 100 %
01 Selection of plant and generating equipments
01 Performance and operating characteristics of power
01 plants
Tariffs for electrical energy
53 hrs
Text Books :
1. Power Plant Engineering……P.K.Nag…………………………………….….PKN
2. Power Plant Engineering……F.T.Morse……………………………………...FTM
References :
1. Principles of Energy Conversion….A.W.Culp………………………………...EC

2. Power Plant Technology…………..El Wakil…EL
3. Power Station Engineering and Economy….Skrotizke and Vopat…………….SV
4. Power Plant Engineering……Domkundwar……………………………………DK.
5. Reference CD/Notes made available…..AMK PODUVAL…………… …CD/CN.
6. Power Point Presentation……………………………………………………...PPP

PESIT
QUESTION BANK
INTRODUCTION
* Discuss “Indian Power Scenario” with reference to current installed capacity in each
sectors, viz., thermal, hydro, GT & IC engines, nuclear and renewable energies. Add
brief notes on various bodies in the power sector w.r.t. planning, policy making,
execution, control so also on trends and possibilities.
* dentify the nearest Hydroelectric power plant to your location and note down the
salient details.
* Identify the nearest Thermal power plant to your location and note down the salient
details
* Identify the nearest Nuclear power plant to your location and note down the salient
details
STEAM POWER PLANT

1. Review : Carnot cycle, heat engine, heat pump, enthalpy, entropyDiscribe the
different operations of a Rankine cycle.
3. Sate the different methods of increasing the thermal efficiency of a Rankine cycle
4. What are the different fuels used in steam generation?
5. How was coal formed? What are the different types of coal available in India?
6. Write a short notes on “Indian Coals” and “Coal reserves of India”
7. Explain the following 1. proximate analysis of coal 2. Ultimate analysis of coal
8. What are the important properties of coal for Power Plant applications?
9. Explain the type of liquid fuels used in boilers and its advantages and disadvantages
10. Discuss the merits and demerits of using natural gas for thermal power plants.
11. Explain briefly “Coal gasification”
12. Explain briefly “Coal liquefaction”
13. What are the advantages of using Coal-oil and Coal-oil mixtures in power plants?
14. What are the different methods of using ‘Biomass” as boiler fuels? What are its
advantages?
15. Explain the term “Co generation” and why and it is beneficial?
16. Give the layout diagram of a steam power plant and label all the essential
equipments and facilities such as: coal storage, coal handling, feed water circuit, ash
handling circuit, chimney and flue gas system, economizer, superheater, air
preheater, turbo- generator, feed water heaters, condenser, cooling water circuit,
cooling tower, etc. etc.
17.. What are the factors to be considered while selecting coal firing equipments?
18. Give a simple labelled sketch of the “gas loop” and explain the functions of each
component/ equipment.
19. Give a simple labeled sketch of the “feed water loop” of a thermal power plant
and explain the function of each component/ equipment.
20. Explain briefly the various piping systems in a thermal power plant (such as: HP
sup. and sat. steam, HP drip piping, LP steam piping, boiler feedwater piping, heater
piping, blow off piping, condensate piping, hot and cold water service piping,
circulating water piping, oil piping, compresses air piping, soot blower piping,
drainage piping etc. etc.)
21. Distinguish between “underfeed” and “over feed “ fuel beds. Show the various
combustion zones.
21. With the help of a neat diagram, properly labeled, explain the salient
features of the following:
GRATE FIRED FURNACE CHAMBER TYPE/ FLAME FURNACE
TRAVELLING GRATE STOKER CHAIN GRATE STOKER
SPREADER STOKER RETORT TYPE UNDERFEED STOKER
COAL CRUSHERS COAL PULVERISERS

PESIT
PULVERISED COAL FEEDING SYSTEM ( BIN/STORAGE SYSTEM, DIRECT FIRING
SYSTEM, SEMI DIRECT FIRING SYSTEM))
OIL FIRING BURNERS FOR BOILERS
ASH HANDLING AUTOMATIC BOILER CONTROL

La Mont Boiler Benson Boiler Velox boiler Schmidt boiler
Loeffler boiler Ramson boiler
WATER WALLS DRUM INTERNALS AIR PREHEATERS

REHEATORS Ljunhgstorm air preheater
22. What do you mean by pulverized coal firing system? What are its advantages? What
are the disadvantages?
23. What are the factors to be considered in designing/ selecting a furnace for pulverized
coal?
24. Distinguish between dry bottom and wet bottom pulverized fuel furnaces?
25. With the help of neat diagrams explain the features and characteristics of various
types of pulverized coal burners? (circular and rectangular cross section models,
straight flow burners, scroll turbulent burners, distributed mixing burner, low NOx
burner, multifuel burner )
26. Discuss the various turbulent burner arrangements for pulverized system (front
firing, opposed firing, opposed firing on side walls ) ; bring out the relatve
advantages.
27. Discuss the various straight flow burners for pulverized system (opposed displaced
firing, corner firing with encountering jets, corner firing with tangential jets, vertical
firing)
28. What is a cyclone furnace? Where does it find application? What are its advantages?
Give a neat labeled sketch.
29. What are the equipments used in coal delivery and handling systems from coal
delivery to the furnace? Give a flow diagram. Give simle sketch an explain the
working of BELT CONVEYOR, SCREW CONVEYOR, BUCKET ELEVATOR, GRAB
BUCKET ELEVATOR, SKIP HOIST, FLIGHT CONVEYOR etc.
30. Explain the term “circulation” as applied to steam boilers.
31. What are the advantages of forced circulation boilers?
CHIMNEYS
32. What is draught ? How is draught produced in a steam generator ? What are the
functions of the draught system ?
33. Differentiate between natural draught and forced draught. What do you mean by
balanced draught ?
34. Explain how the height of a chimney is calculated to produce a given draught.
35. What are the different types of chimneys used in a boiler plant? Discuss their
advantages and disadvantages
36 Write a short note on “measurement of draught”
NUMERICALS
37. A chimney is 30 m height. Temperature of hot gases inside the chimney is 300 C.
Ambient temperature is 28 C. Boiler furnace is supplied with 15 kg of air per kg of
coal. Calculate (1) Draught produced in mm of water (2) Draught in metres of hot
gases
38. Determine the height of a chimney to produce a static draught of 22 mm of water.
The mean flue gas temperature may be taken as 290 C, ambient temperature being
25 C. Take the gas constant for air , R, as 29.26 kgfm/kg/K and for chimney 26,2.
Barometer reads 760 mm of Hg

PESIT
39. Determine the height of the chimney to get a net draught of 12 mm, if the total
draft losses are 4 mm. Ambient air temperature is 25 C and Chimney gases 300
C.Air fuel ratio of the boiler is 18. Take specific volume of air at NTP as .7734 cu m.
ACCESSORIES FOR STEAM GENERATORS
40. What are primary and secondary superheaters ? Explain the features and
working of a pendent superheater.
42. What are the methods used for superheat control ?. Explain the operation of a spray
type desuperheater.
43. What is the function of an economizer ? Describe salient features of economizers
for power boilers.
44. Why air preheaters are used in boiler plants ? How does an air preheater saves fue?
45. Differentiate between recuperative and regenerative air heaters. Explain the working
of any one type from both the categories with a neat diagram.
COOLING TOWERS AND COOLING PONDS
46. Give a layout diagram of the cooling water circuit of a thermal power plant.
1. How are cooling towers classified ? Explain the working of a natural draft cooling
towercooling tower
2. Explain the advantages of forced draft cooling towers over natural draught towers.
3. Write a short note on “materials for cooling towers” for improved efficiency.
4. Explain the terms “adiabatic saturation” and “wet bulb depression”
DIESEL ENGINE POWER PLANT

5. What are the different methods of starting a DIESEL Engine ?
6. What precautions to be taken so that diesel engines start and operate
efficiently even in sub-zero temperatures.
7. Give the layout of a standard diesel power plant.
8. Explain the following systems of a diesel engine power plant: (1) Starting
system (2) Cooling system (3) lubrication system
9. Explain the function of the following in a diesel power plant. Also explain the
salient features and working of any one type in each category. (1) Air filters (2) Oil
filters (3) centrifuges (4) oil heaters (5) Intake system (6) Exhaust system
10. Write short notes on (1) Biodiesel (2) Diesel additives
GAS TURBINE POWER PLANTS
11. What are the essential components of a simple open cycle GT Plant. Explain how
intercooling and regeneration improves the efficiency.
12. What are the advantages of closed cycle GT Plant over Open type ?
13. Explain the working of closed cycle plant.
14. Give the layout plan of Gas Turbine Power Plant.
15. What are the requirements of the fuel used in GT Plants ?
16. Write short notes on the following with reference ti Gas Turbines: (1) Pressure ratio
(2) Air fuel ratio (3) Specific Thrust (4) Work ratio
17. Compare gas turbine with a steam turbine.
18. What are the major operating parameters that strongly affect the efficiency of a gas
turbine ? (List at least five)
HYDRO ELECTRIC PLANTS

19. Define ‘ hydrograph’ and explain its use in the study of water power.
20. Explain how to construct a flow duration curve from a hydrograph.
PESIT
21. Explain how a flow duration curve can be used as a power duration curve.
22. Explain mass curve and its use in estimating reservoir capacity and the rate of
discharge that will be available when a reservoir has been built.
23. Discuss the factors that has to be considered when selecting the site for a
hydroelectric project dam.
24. Discuss the types of dams used in hydroelectric projects.
25. Write short notes on : (1) spillway (2) forebay (3) water hammer (4) surge
tank (5) gates and valves in hydo power stations
26. Define firm power and secondary power of a hydro station.
27. Classify different types of hydroelectric plant and explain their field use.
28. Explain the principle of operation of pumped storage plants . How does it help
in meeting sudden peak loads in a power system?
29. Give a a neat general layout of a hydro electric power plant .
30. Explain any major hydro electrc power plant of your state giving salient
features, caspacities etc.
31. List 10 major hydro electric power plants in India and explain the salient
features of (1) any one (2) the largest of them . State the installed capacity of
hydro power in India , state wise.
32. Write short notes on ‘mini” and ‘micro’ hydel power stations and explain its
suitability in our country.
NUCLEAR POWER PLANTS
33. Explain the following with reference to nuclear energy. (1) atomic number (2) mass
number (3) amu (4) isotope (5) binding energy (6) radioactive decay (7) radio
isotopes (8) half-life (9) nuclear fission (10) nuclear fusion (11) chain reaction (12)
Neutron flux (13)
34. EXPLAIN BRIEFLY THE TYPES OF NUCLEAR FUELS USED AND Its AVAILABILITY IN
INDIA.
35. With a neat sketch explain the various elements of a Nuclear reactor in general.
36. What are different types of reactors used in nuclear power stations? Give a brief
explanation, a neat sketch, any special features and advantages and dis advantages
of each type.[such as…..PWR(pressurized water reactor), BWR( boiling water
reactor), SGR( sodium graphite reactor), FBR ( fast breeder reactor), HGR,
(homogenius graphite reactor), GCR (gas cooled reactor)
37. What do you mean by uranium enrich ment? Describe a few methods for the same.
38. Explain the terms ‘breeding’ ‘burn up’
39. What are the desirable properties of control rods?
40. Discuss the economics of nuclear power plants.
41. Discuss the special and normal safety measures in nuclear power plants.
POWER PLANT ECONOMMICS

42. Explain the foll0wing terms (1)Demand factor (2) connected load (3)
maximum demand (4) capacity factor (5) use factor
Work out Question (Problems) 1.1 to 1.15 of your prescribed text PKNag.

Mech 8 Sem Course Info Feb June 07

Caricato da

Informazioni sul documento

Descrizione originale:

Copyright

Formati disponibili

Condividi questo documento

Condividi o incorpora il documento

Opzioni di condivisione

Hai trovato utile questo documento?

Questo contenuto è inappropriato?

Copyright:

Formati disponibili

Mech 8 Sem Course Info Feb June 07

Caricato da

Copyright:

Formati disponibili

PESIT

CONSTITUTION OF INDIA & PROFESSIONAL ETHICS: CIP81

1 Preamble to the Constitution of India

2 Evolution of Constitutional Law l 4

3 Introduction to Fundamental Rights

4-5 Scope of Fundamental Rights under Part III

6-7 Extent Fundamental Rights under Part III

8-10 Details of Exercise of Rights,

11-12 Limitations and Important 23

13-14 Introduction to State Policy

15-22 Relevance of Directive Principles of State Policy under 42

23 Significance of Fundamentals Duties under Part IV a. 44

24-25 Union Executive President, Vice-President, Prime

26 Parliament and Supreme Court of India. 50

27-28 State executive, Governor, Chief Minister, Council of

29-30 Legislature and High Courts. 58

31-32 Constitutional provisions for scheduled castes and tribes

33-34 Constitutional provisions for women and children and 65

35-36 Emergency powers

37-38 Major constitutional Amendments. 73.

39-40 Electoral Process. 77

41-42 Scope and Aims of Engineering Ethics 81

43-44 Responsibility of Engineers – Impediments of 85

47-48 Integrity and Reliability 92

49-52 Risk Safety and Liability in Engineering. 100

B.E. Mechanical 8th Semester Course Information

Model Question Paper 1

Constitution of India & Professional Ethics-CIP81.

Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100

1. In which year, did Cripps Mission come to India?

2. Who was the chairman of Drafting Committee of Constitution of India?

3. When did Indian Constitution come into force?

4. Who will appoint the Attorney General of India?

5. Who selected the first President of India?

6. Who will appoint the Chief Minister of a State?

Who will appoint the judge of the Supreme Court?

8. Who will appoint the cabinet Minister of a state?

9. What is the Minimum age to become the Vice- President of India?

10 By whom the Directive Principles of State Policy be amended?

12 How many types of writs are there?

13. What is the term of the President of India?

14 Who was the constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly?

15 How many times was the Preamble of the Constitution amended?

B.E. Mechanical 8th Semester Course Information

19 India has recognized

20. One of the aims of Engineering Ethics is to

22 One of the ways of misusing the truth is

23 Engineers shall issue public statements only

24 A person is detained under the special law

27. Legislative Council is

28. It is not a kind of trade mark

29 When the National Emergency is declared, the following article is suspended

30 The Chief Election Commissioner is appointed by the

31 Under Advisory Jurisdiction, the Supreme Court gives it’s opinion to

32 A High Court Judge retires at the age of

33 One of the qualifications to become the Judge of the Supreme Court is

35 The President of India

36 Writ can be directly filed

37 Professional Ethics takes into account of

39. Constitution empowers state governments to make special law for

40 Right against exploitation prohibits

41 One of the restrictions of freedom of speech and expression is

42 Ex- post-facto-law means