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1. A new private security agency will be issued a temporary license to operate that is valid for one year.
2. The qualifications for security consultant do not include having a Bachelor of Law degree.
3. The person who has the power to revoke a security guard's license for cause is the PNP - CISC.
1. A new private security agency will be issued a temporary license to operate that is valid for one year.
2. The qualifications for security consultant do not include having a Bachelor of Law degree.
3. The person who has the power to revoke a security guard's license for cause is the PNP - CISC.
1. A new private security agency will be issued a temporary license to operate that is valid for one year.
2. The qualifications for security consultant do not include having a Bachelor of Law degree.
3. The person who has the power to revoke a security guard's license for cause is the PNP - CISC.
Crim Review on Industrial Security Management ________________________________________________________________
1. A new Private Security Agency shall be issued a temporary license
to operate that is good for: a. Six months c. One year and six months b. One year d. two years 2. The following are the qualifications for Security Consultant, except: a. Master in Public Administration c. MBA b. Master in Criminology d. Bachelor of Law 3. The person who has the power to revoke for cause the license issued to security guard is: a. PNP Director General @ c. PNP – CISC b. DILG Secretary d. Chief Security Officer 4. A Private Security Agency who is applying for regular license to operate must posses at least 70 licensed firearms and a minimum of: a. 100 guards c. 150 guards b. 200 guards d. 1,000 guards 5. The latest amendment of the implementing rules and regulation of Private Security Agency Law was on: a. May 2003 c. October 8, 1994 b. January 8, 1994 d. October 18, 1994 6. The security force maintained and operated by any corporation for its own security unit is known as: a. Government Security Unit c. Company Guard Force b. Private Detective Agency d. Private Detective Unit 7. The required type of training while applying for a new security guard’s license is: a. In Service Training c. On Job Training b. Pre-License Training d. Specialized Training 8. Branch Offices of Private Security Agency shall be established and maintained in other provinces and cities with a minimum of 10 security guards and maximum of: a. 30 guards c. 20 guards b. 25 guards d. 15 guards 9. The maximum age qualification in order to be issued a security guard license to exercise the profession is: a. 60 c. 30 b. 50 d. 55 10. The minimum age qualification in order to be issued a security guard license to exercise the profession is: a. 18 years old c. 21 years old b. 20 years old d. 25 years old 11. The license to Operate Security Agency shall be approved by: a. PADPAO Director c. CSFC Director b. PNPSOSIA Director d. Chief of the PNP 12. Private Security Agency having less the required minimum number of guards shall be given a license to operate which is good for: a. 6 months c. 8 months b. 1 year d. 2 years
13. The security bond requires to Security Agency employing a number
of 200 – 499 security guards is: a. 50 thousand pesos c. 150 thousand pesos b. 100 thousand pesos d. 200 thousand pesos 14. The use of firearms by a Private Detective shall be: a. Required c. Mandatory b. Discretionary d. Optional @ 15. The basic load of ammunition per unit of duly licensed firearm shall not exceed: a. 20 loads c. 30 loads b. 25 loads d. 50 loads 16. Any law enforcement officer authorized by law to effect any justified confiscation of firearm issued to a security guard shall inform the Chief of the PNP thru the CSFC within: a. 12 hours c. 24 hours b. 18 hours d. 36 hours 17. The use of hand held radio by a PSA is: a. Optional c. Discretionary b. Mandatory d. Required 18. The payroll of security guards shall be filed in the main office within how many days after pay day? a. 15 days c. 25 days b. 20 days d. 30 days 19. The Association of all licensed security agencies and security forces is called: a. PNPSOSIA c. PADPAO @ b. SUSIA d. Both a and b 20. This refers to the Private Security Agency Law of the Philippines: a. RA 5478 c. RA 5457 b. RA 5648 d. RA 5487 21. The order in writing that states the duties of a security guard while escorting a large amount of money outside its jurisdiction: a. Mission order c. Duty detail order b. Order d. Mail order 22. What organizational structure shall the company security force conform to? a. PSA organizational structure c. Police structure b. Military organization structure d. Para-police structure 23. Who are authorized to endorse all applications for license and permit to operate? a. Regional training schools c. CSF District Offices b. Crime Laboratory d. Military 24. The person who is authorized to approve the issuance of license to security guards or private detectives for the exercise of their profession: a. Chief of AFP c. Chief of Police b. Chief of PNP d. Chief of Safety Committee 25. It refers to the bond of security agency used to answer any valid and legal claim against the agency by the aggrieved party: a. Emergency bond c. Surety bond b. Accident bond d. James Bond 26. This is a predictable state or condition that is free from harm, injury, destruction, intimidation or fear: a. Security c. Hazard b. Safety d. Accident-free 27. The agreement between the client and the agency concerned which is duly notarized and has been executed between them: a. Contract c. Security service contract b. Service contract d. Kontrata 28. It is the unit under the PNP charged with the supervision, direction and control of all security agencies in the Philippines: a. SOCIA c. SOSIA b. SUSSIA d. SAGSD 29. The other term for security guard: a. Watchmen c. Watchman b. Watcher d. Blue army 30. It shall mean any person who does investigation work for hire, reward or commission, other than the member of the PNP and the AFP: a. Police detective c. Investigator b. Detektib d. Private detective 31. It is also known as a license to operate: a. Security guard diploma c. License certificate b. Training certificate d. none of these 32. The law that amended PD 1866: a. RA 8253 c. RA 8294 b. RA 8289 d. RA 8295 33. The equivalent rank of an inspector in the Line Leadership Staff: a. Shift-in-charge c. Post-in-charge b. Watchman d. None of the above 34. The equivalent position of security guard 2 in the staff of security guards: a. Shift-in-charge c. Post-in-charge b. Watchman d. None of the above 35. It is the mission order of every guard employed by the agency: a. Mission order c. Duty detail order b. Order d. Mail order 36. The basic load of ammunition allowed by the provision for every firearm owned and licensed by the agency: a. 20 c. 50 b. 25 d. 40 37. The rank of the Manager of the PSA: a. Security Executive officer c. Deputy for Administration b. Chief Security Officer d. Director
38. “To talk to no one except in the line of duty” is GO number?
a. 7 c. 5 b. 4 d. 6 39. “To sound the alarm in case of fire and emergency” is GO number? a. 9 c. 1 b. 8 d. 10 40. “To be especially watchful at night and in times of challenging, to challenge everyone and allow no one to pass without proper authority” is GO number? a. 10 c. 11 b. 9 d. 8 41. “To quit my post when properly relieved” is GO number? a. 4 c. 6 b. 5 d. 7 42. A security guard is committed to uphold the principle Maka-Diyos, Maka-Bayan at: a. Maka-Kalikasan c. Maka-Hayop b. Maka-tao d. Makasarili
43. A security guard should be honest in actions, words and:
a. Deeds c. Thoughts b. Writing d. All of the above 44. Kabit-system is an act of: a. Adultery c. Concubinage b. Merging d. Illegal partnership 45. A structure or physical device capable of restricting, deterring, delaying illegal access to an installation is called: a. Protective barrier c. Protective lighting b. Protective alarm d. All of the above 46. A medium structure, which defines the physical limits of an installation or area to restrict or impede access thereto is called: a. Protective alarm c. Perimeter barrier b. Barrier d. Positive barrier 47. The following are inside perimeter barriers, except: a. Doors b. Skylight c. Windows d. Walls 48. It is an additional outwardly inclined fixed structure usually barbed wire placed on a vertical perimeter: a. Guard control station c. Top guard b. Tower d. Barrier maintenance 49. A type of protective alarm system where the station is located outside the installation is called: a. Local alarm system c. Central security system b. Propriety system d. Auxiliary system 50. Which of the following types of alarm system is unpopular? a. Local alarm system c. Central station system b. Propriety system d. Auxiliary system 51. A type of stationary lighting which is focused to the intruder while the observer or guard remains in comparative darkness is called: a. Controlled lighting c. Movable lighting b. Glare-projection type d. None of these 52. A lighting equipment that provides illumination on boundaries, buildings or fences is called: a. Floodlights c. Search lights b. Fresnel lights d. Street light 53. Lighting equipment that is highly focused incandescent lamps used to pinpoint potential trouble spots: a. Floodlights c. Search lights b. Fresnel lights d. Street lights 54. Which among the following is the cheapest physical device? a. Fences b. Lighting c. Locks d. Alarm 55. An example of a barrier that is considered a second line of defense: a. Fences b. Lights c. Doors d. Alarm 56. A kind of lock that is used only to have privacy, but not to provide a degree of security is called: a. Disc tumbler locks c. Warded locks b. Lever locks d. Combination locks 57. A kind of lock that is used in automobile cars is called: a. Disc tumbler locks c. Warded locks b. Lever locks d. Combination locks 58. A key that will open locks within a particular area is called: a. Change key c. Master key b. Sub master key d. Grandmaster key 59. A special key capable of opening a series of locks is called: a. Change key c. Master key b. Sub master key d. Grandmaster key
60. A metallic container used for safekeeping of documents or small
items in an office or installation is called: a. Vault b. Safe c. File room d. None of the above 61. A heavily constructed fire and burglar resistance usually a part of the building structure used to keep and protect cash, documents and negotiable instruments: a. Vault b. Safe c. File room d. None of the above 62. The distinctive identifying qualities which serves as an index to the essential or intrinsic nature of person is called: a. Morals b. Integrity c. Discretion d. Loyalty 63. The sum total of traits that have been impressed by nature, education and habit upon an individual is called: a. Moral b. Character c. Integrity d. Reputation 64. An opinion or estimation in which a person is generally held is called: a. Moral c. Character c. Integrity d. Reputation 65. An area where access is restricted as to entrance or movement by all authorized personnel and vehicle is called: a. Controlled area c. Limited area b. Exclusive area d. Restricted area 66. An area that is used only for handling and storage of high value cargo and classified documents is called: a. Controlled area c. Limited area b. Exclusive area d. Restricted area 67. Which of the following types of documents is irreplaceable: a. Vital documents c. Useful documents b. Important documents d. Non-essential documents 68. Which of the following documents whose loss might cause inconvenience but could be readily replaced? a. Vital documents c. Useful documents b. Important documents d. Non-essential documents 69. Which of the following documents will destroy or affect operations or administration in case of loss? a. Vital documents c. Useful documents b. Important documents d. Non-essential documents 70. It is the work of the manager to effect active participation of his subordinates: a. Organizing c. Forecasting b. Leading d. Programming 71. It is the work of the manager by arranging the work and the workers as to produce effective and efficient performance: a. Organizing c. Forecasting b. Leading d. Programming 72. The work of the manager assessing and regulating work in progress and to assess the results is called: a. Organizing b. Planning c. Controlling d. Scheduling 73. The part of the security plan which explains the historical background of the organization on its security picture is called: a. Mission c. Execution b. Command and signals d. Situation 74. The part of the security plan which explains how the plan will be carried out using various aids of security, human guard force and the software is called: a. Mission c. Execution b. Command and signal d. Situation