40 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN BASIC

STATISTICS
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
In the following multiple choice questions, circle the correct answer.
1. A numerical value used as a summary measure for a sample, such as sample mean, is known as
a
a. population parameter
b. sample parameter
c. sample statistic
d. population mean
e. None of the above answers is correct.
ANSWER:
2. Since the population size is always larger than the sample size, then the sample statistic
a. can never be larger than the population parameter
b. can never be equal to the population parameter
c. can never be zero
d. can never be smaller than the population parameter
e. None of the above answers is correct.
ANSWER:
3. Mu is an example of a
a. population parameter
b. sample statistic
c. population variance
d. mode
e. None of the above answers is correct.
ANSWER:
4. The mean of a sample is
a. always equal to the mean of the population
b. always smaller than the mean of the population
c. computed by summing the data values and dividing the sum by (n - 1)
d. computed by summing all the data values and dividing the sum by the number of items
e. None of the above answers is correct.
ANSWER:

5. The sum of the percent frequencies for all classes will always equal
a. one
b. the number of classes
c. the number of items in the study
d. 100
e. None of the above answers is correct.
ANSWER:
6. In a five number summary, which of the following is not used for data summarization?
a. the smallest value
b. the largest value
c. the median
d. the 25th percentile
e. the mean
ANSWER:
7. Since the mode is the most frequently occurring data value, it
a. can never be larger than the mean
b. is always larger than the median
c. is always larger than the mean
d. must have a value of at least two
e. None of the above answers is correct.
ANSWER:
Exhibit 3-1
The following data show the number of hours worked by 200 statistics students.
Number of Hours Frequency
0 - 9 40
10 - 19 50
20 - 29 70
30 - 39 40
8. Refer to Exhibit 3-1. The class width for this distribution
a. is 9
b. is 10
c. is 11
d. varies from class to class
e. None of the above answers is correct.
ANSWER:
9. Refer to Exhibit 3-1. The number of students working 19 hours or less
a. is 40
b. is 50
c. is 90
d. can not be determined without the original data
e. None of the above answers is correct.
ANSWER:
10. Refer to Exhibit 3-1. The relative frequency of students working 9 hours or less
a. is .2
b. is .45
c. is 40
d. can not be determined from the information given
e. None of the above answers is correct.
ANSWER:

11. Refer to Exhibit 3-1. The cumulative relative frequency for the class of 10 - 19
a. is 90
b. is .25
c. is .45
d. can not be determined from the information given
e. None of the above answers is correct.
ANSWER:
12. The difference between the largest and the smallest data values is the
a. variance
b. interquartile range
c. range
d. coefficient of variation
e. None of the above answers is correct.
ANSWER:
13. Which of the following is not a measure of central location?
a. mean
b. median
c. variance
d. mode
e. None of the above answers is correct.
ANSWER:
14. If a data set has an even number of observations, the median
a. can not be determined
b. is the average value of the two middle items
c. must be equal to the mean
d. is the average value of the two middle items when all items are arranged in ascending order
e. None of the above answers is correct.
ANSWER:
15. The sum of deviations of the individual data elements from their mean is
a. always greater than zero
b. always less than zero
c. sometimes greater than and sometimes less than zero, depending on the data elements
d. always equal to zero
e. None of the above answers is correct.
ANSWER:
16. The value that has half of the observations above it and half the observations below it is called
the
a. range
b. median
c. mean
d. mode
e. None of the above answers is correct.
ANSWER:
17. The most frequently occurring value of a data set is called the
a. range
b. mode
c. mean
d. median
e. None of the above answers is correct.
ANSWER:
18.. In a sample of 800 students in a university, 160, or 20%, are Business majors. Based on the
above information, the school's paper reported that "20% of all the students at the university are
Business majors." This report is an example of
a. a sample
b. a population
c. statistical inference
d. descriptive statistics
e. None of the above answers is correct.
ANSWER:
19.. A statistics professor asked students in a class their ages. On the basis of this information, the
professor states that the average age of all the students in the university is 21 years. This is an
example of
a. a census
b. descriptive statistics
c. an experiment
d. statistical inference
e. None of the above answers is correct.
ANSWER:
20. A tabular summary of a set of data showing the fraction of the total number of items in several
classes is a
a. frequency distribution
b. relative frequency distribution
c. frequency
d. cumulative frequency distribution
e. None of the above answers is correct.
ANSWER:
21. The standard deviation of a sample of 100 observations equals 64. The variance of the sample
equals
a. 8
b. 10
c. 6,400
d. 4,096
e. None of the above answers is correct.
ANSWER:
22. The variance of a sample of 81 observations equals 64. The standard deviation of the sample
equals
a. 0
b. 4096
c. 8
d. 6,561
e. None of the above answers is correct.
ANSWER:
Exhibit 3-2
A researcher has collected the following sample data.
5 12 6 8 5
6 7 5 12 4
23. Refer to Exhibit 3-2. The median is
a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8
e. None of the above answers is correct.
ANSWER:

24. Refer to Exhibit 3-2. The mode is

a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8
e. None of the above answers is correct.
ANSWER:
25. Refer to Exhibit 3-2. The mean is
a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8
e. None of the above answers is correct.
ANSWER:
Exhibit 3-3
A researcher has collected the following sample data. The mean of the sample is 5.
3 5 12 3 2
26. Refer to Exhibit 3-3. The variance is
a. 80
b. 4.062
c. 13.2
d. 16.5
e. None of the above answers is correct.
ANSWER:
27. Refer to Exhibit 3-3. The standard deviation is
a. 8.944
b. 4.062
c. 13.2
d. 16.5
e. None of the above answers is correct.
ANSWER:
28. Refer to Exhibit 3-3. The coefficient of variation is
a. 72.66%
b. 81.24%
c. 264%
d. 330%
e. None of the above answers is correct.
ANSWER:
29. Refer to Exhibit 3-3. The range is
a. 1
b. 2
c. 10
d. 12
e. None of the above answers is correct.
ANSWER:
30. Refer to Exhibit 3-3. The interquartile range is
a. 1
b. 2
c. 10
d. 12
e. None of the above answers is correct.
ANSWER:

Exhibit 3-4
The following is the frequency distribution for the speeds of a sample of automobiles traveling on an
interstate highway.
Speed
Miles per Hour Frequency
50 - 54 2
55 - 59 4
60 - 64 5
65 - 69 10
70 - 74 9
75 - 79 5
35
31. Refer to Exhibit 3-4. The mean is
a. 35
b. 670
c. 10
d. 67
e. None of the above answers is correct.
ANSWER:
32. Refer to Exhibit 3-4. The variance is
a. 6.969
b. 7.071
c. 48.570
d. 50.000
e. None of the above answers is correct.
ANSWER:
33. Refer to Exhibit 3-4. The standard deviation is
a. 6.969
b. 7.071
c. 48.570
d. 50.000
e. None of the above answers is correct.
ANSWER:
34. Which of the following is not a measure of dispersion?
a. the range
b. the 50th percentile
c. the standard deviation
d. the interquartile range
e. the variance
ANSWER:
35. If the variance of a data set is correctly computed with the formula using n - 1 in the
denominator, which of the following is true?
a. the data set is a sample
b. the data set is a population
c. the data set could be either a sample or a population
d. the data set is from a census
e. None of the above answers is correct.
ANSWER:
36. In computing descriptive statistics from grouped data,
a. data values are treated as if they occur at the midpoint of a class
b. the grouped data result is more accurate than the ungrouped result
c. the grouped data computations are used only when a population is being analyzed
d. All of the above answers are correct.
e. None of the above answers is correct.
ANSWER:
37. The measure of dispersion that is influenced most by extreme values is
a. the variance
b. the standard deviation
c. the range
d. the interquartile range
e. None of the above answers is correct.
ANSWER:
38. When should measures of location and dispersion be computed from grouped data rather than
from individual data values?
a. as much as possible since computations are easier
b. only when individual data values are unavailable
c. whenever computer packages for descriptive statistics are unavailable
d. only when the data are from a population
e. None of the above answers is correct.
ANSWER:

39. The descriptive measure of dispersion that is based on the concept of a deviation about the
mean is
a. the range
b. the interquartile range
c. both a and b
d. the standard deviation
 e. None of the above answers is correct.
ANSWER:
40. For Z =5, state the Chebychev's inequality.
Directions: Answer all Questions and please give me a justification on why you chose that answer.
Thank you.
© BrainMass Inc. brainmass.com September 15, 2018, 5:55 am ad1c9bdddf

Attachments

 basic-stats.doc
Solution Preview
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
In the following multiple choice questions, circle the correct answer.
1. A numerical value used as a summary measure for a sample, such as sample mean, is known
as a
a. population parameter
b. sample parameter
c. sample statistic
d. population mean
e. None of the above answers is correct.
ANSWER: c
If it pertains to sample it is called a statistic, if it pertains to population it is called a parameter.
2. Since the population size is always larger than the sample size, then the sample statistic
a. can never be larger than the population parameter
b. can never be equal to the population parameter
c. can never be zero
d. can never be smaller than the population parameter
e. None of the above answers is correct.
ANSWER: e
Sample statistic will depend upon the sample chosen. It can be less than, greater than, equal to
population parameter. It can assume the value of zero.
3.  is an example of a
a. population parameter
b. sample statistic
c. population variance
d. mode
e. None of the above answers is correct.
ANSWER: a
M is a standard representation for population parameter.
4. The mean of a sample is
a. always equal to the mean of the population
b. always smaller than the mean of the population
c. computed by summing the data values and dividing the sum by (n - 1)
d. computed by summing all the data values and dividing the sum by the number of items
e. None of the above answers is correct.
ANSWER: d
Mean= Total of sample values/ sample size
5. The sum of the percent frequencies for all classes will always equal
a. one
b. the number of classes
c. the number of items in the study
d. 100
e. None of the above answers is correct.
ANSWER: d
If we count the total frequency it is equal to the sample size n. n/n *100= 100
6. In a five number summary, which of the following is not used for data summarization?
a. the smallest value
b. the largest value
c. the median
d. the 25th percentile
e. the mean
ANSWER:d
7. Since the mode is the most frequently occurring data value, it
a. can never be larger than the mean
b. is always larger than the median
c. is always larger than the mean
d. must have a value of at least two
e. None of the above answers is correct.
ANSWER: e
The mean, median and mode values will be distributed according to the skewness of the
distribution. Accordingly mode can be greater than or less than mean or mode.
Exhibit 3-1
The following data show the number of hours worked by 200 statistics students.
Number of Hours Frequency
0 - 9 40
10 - 19 50
20 - 29 70
30 - 39 40
8. Refer to Exhibit 3-1. The class width for this distribution
a. is 9
b. is 10
c. is 11
d. varies from class to class
e. None of the above answers is correct.
ANSWER: b
Each class width is equal to 10.
9. Refer to Exhibit 3-1. The number of students working 19 hours or less
a. is 40
 Research Methodology and Bio-stat
1. An abstract of the journal article doesn’t contain
1. Methodologies
2. Result
3. Objectives
4. Ethical consideration
2. Community based participatory researches (CBPR) use
1. Emic perspective
2. Etic perspective
3. Technical perspective
4. Both b and c
3. Usually conventional researches base on
1. Deduction
2. Induction
3. Relationalism
4. None of the above
4. Observation checklist is the ……………. of data collection
1. Tool
2. Method
3. Manual
4. Guideline
5. Qualitative data is not generated by
1. Focus group discussion
2. Observation
3. Questionnaire
4. Interviews
6. The selection of groups of study units instead of selection of study units is called
1. Stratified sampling
2. Cluster sampling
3. Systematic sampling
4. Multistage sampling
7. In pilot phase of research, which of the technique is economical and easy for data collection?
1. participant observation
2. rapid appraisal
3. survey
4. both a and c
8. The variables that are used to describe or measure the factors that are assumed to canuse or at least influence
the problem are called
1. independent variables
2. dependent variables
3. confounding variable
4. none of the above
9. Validity of research findings denote:
1. Consistency
2. Relativity
3. Accuracy
4. Reliability
10. If observed changes in a group are due to the fact that it is being studied rather than due to experimentation,
the effect is termed as
1. Placebo effect
2. Confounding
3. Withdrawal effect
4. Hawthorne effect
11. Which of the following is not the ethical principle for health and bio-medical researches?
1. Beneficence
 2. Justice
3. Informed consent
4. Reliability
12. Random error or bias in research is due to
1. sampling reliability
2. random fluctuation
3. response error
4. both a and b
13. Data processing does not involve
1. categorizing data
2. coding
3. analyzing
4. summarizing
14. A variable that is associated with problem as well as with a possible cause of the problem is
1. causative variable
2. confounding variable
3. dependent variable
4. independent variable
15. Focus group discussion is the group discussion of ……persons.
1. 6-12
2. 3-5
3. 10-14
4. none of above
16. The research for measuring the efficacy of vaccine is:
1. basic research
2. applied research
3. conductive research
4. action research
17. The common characteristic that both experimental and quasi-experimental sudy should possess is
1. Manipulation
2. control groups
3. randomization
4. None
18. Married-unmarried, child-adult, male- female is
1. ordinal scale
2. interval scale
3. ratio scale
4. nominal scale
19. Temperature is ……scale
1. ordinal scale
2. interval scale
3. ratio scale
4. nominal scale
20. Weight, height, length is
1. ordinal scale
2. interval scale
3. ratio scale
4. nominal scale
21. If null hypothesis is rejected even if it is true is
1. type I error
2. type II error
3. β error
4. µ error
22. Accepting null hypothesis when it is false is
1. type I error
2. type II error
 3. α error
4. µ error
23. Binomial distribution is
1. discrete distribution
2. continuous distribution
3. individual distribution
4. poisson distribution
24. Law of improbable events is
1. discrete distribution
2. continuous distribution
3. individual distribution
4. poisson distribution
25. Bingo is
1. simple random sampling
2. systematic sampling
3. cluster sampling
4. stratified random sampling
26. Sampling error can be attributed to following except
1. sampling procedure
2. research design
3. sample design
4. recording
27. If sample size is increased then sampling error
1. Reduces
2. Increases
3. no change
4. reduces non-sampling error
28. Which of the following does not have sampling error
1. sample population
2. census
3. stratified sampling
4. systematic random sampling
29. When variable are not measurable which of the following is used to be represented?

1. Nominal
2. Ordinal
3. Interval
4. Ratio

30. Which of the following is not a discrete variable?

1. Skin color
2. Blood pressure
3. Weight
4. Boys in the class

31. Which of the following type of the diagrams can be used to find out the relationship between two variables?
1. Pictogram
2. Bar diagram
3. Histogram
4. Scatter diagram

32. A pectoral diagram of frequency distribution is denoted by?

1. Line chart
2. Bar chart
3. Histogram
4. Pie chart

33. Low birth weight LBW statistics of a hospital is best shown by:

1. Bar chart
2. Histogram
3. Frequency polygon
4. Pie chart

34. 30 babies were born in hospital, 10 were less than 2.5 kg and 20 were greater than 2.5 kg the average is

1. Arithmetic mean
2. Median
3. Geometric mean
4. Mode

35. Median is almost equivalent to

1. 25th percentile
2. 50th percentile
3. 75th percentile
4. 10th percentile

36. Mean of 400 variables is 100 and standard deviation is 8 what will be the error of deviation?

1. 4
2. 1
3. 2
4. 4

37. Standard error is measure of

1. Conceptual error
2. sampling error
3. Instrumental error
4. Observer error

38. If probability of being Rh negative is 1/10 then of being Rh positive will be

1. 1/10
2. 9/10
3. ½
4. 1

39. Confidence limit can be calculated by using

1. Mean and range

2. Mean standard deviation
3. Median and range deviation
4. Median and standard

40. For 95% confidence limit truth is

1. Reduces 95% confidence of values

2. 96 of standard error of mean
3. 56 of standard error of mean
4. 5% of standard error of mean

41. The truth about normal distribution curve is all except

1. Mean median and mode of all confidence

2. Standard deviation is one
3. Mean of the curve is hundred
4. The total area of the curve is one

42. Area between one standard deviation on either side of mean in normal distribution curve is:

1. 60%
2. 68%
3. 95%
4. 99%

43. If the mean is 220 and the standard error is 10 the 95% confidence limits would be:

1. 210-330
2. 200-240
3. 215-225
4. 220±0.2

44. Normal curve is

1. Linear
2. Symmetrical
3. Curvilinear
4. Parabolic

45. Normal distribution curve depends upon

1. Mean and sample

2. Mean and median
3. Mean and standard deviation
4. Median and standard error

46. Correlation coefficient tends to lie between

1. 0 to +1
2. -1 to 0
3. -1 to +1
 4. -2 to +2

Read also: Takemi Program in International Health 2018-2019 - The Harvard T. H. Chan
School of Public Health

47. Randomization is useful to eliminate

1. Observer bias
2. Patient bias
3. Confounding bias
4. sampling bias

48. Height for weight of boys in a class room is:

1. Association
2. Index
3. Proportion
4. Correlation

49. For a survey a village is divided into 5 lanes the each lane is sampled randomly it is an example of:

1. Simple random sampling

2. Stratified random sampling
3. Systematic random sampling
4. Multi phase random sampling

50. Which is true of cluster sampling?

1. Every Nth case is chosen for study

2. Involves use of random numbers
3. A natural group is taken as sampling unit
4. Stratification of population is done
51. Significant of P value is:

1. 05
2. 01
3. 1
4. 005

52. Which of the following is unrelated to the chi square test of significance?

1. Degree of freedom
2. Life table
3. Significance level
4. Qualitative data

53. The true regarding chi square test:

1. Null hypothesis is equal

2. Does not test the significance
3. Tests correlation and regression
4. Measures the significance of difference between two proportions

54. The mean BP of a group of persons was determined and after an intervention trial the mean BP was
estimated again the test to be applied to determine the significance of intervention is:

1. Chi square test

2. Paired test
3. Correlation coefficient
4. Z test

55. The statistical analysis of two unrelated big data (n=200) is by:
56. A paired t-test
57. Chi-square test
58. Z-test
59. Unpaired test

56. Imparts of a table Heading of column is known as:

1. Caption
2. Head note
3. Stabs
4. None of them

57. Which one are two dimensional diagrams?

1. Bar diagrams
2. Cubes
3. Circles
4. None of them
5. Vitiate value which repeats maximum number of times is known as:
6. Mean
7. Median
8. Mode
9. Average

59. Which empirical relation is correct?

1. Mode=3 median-2 mean

2. Mode=2 mean -3 median
3. Mean=3 median-2 mode
4. Mean=2 mode -3 median

60. Whenever a shopkeeper wants to stock the goods he sells he always looks to:

1. mean
2. Mode
3. Median
4. None of them

61. ………………….is the absolute measure of dispersion:

1. Standard deviation
2. Mean deviation
3. Range
4. Quartile deviation
62. When there is perfect positive correction between two variables then what is the value of r (Karl people’s
correlation coefficient):

1. 1
2. -1
3.
4. Between 0 and 1

63. Inferential statistics comprises:

1. Estimation
2. Hypothesis testing
3. Correlation
4. Both a and b

64. Chi-square test was developed by:

1. Karl persons
2. Friedrich gauss
3. Bernoulli
4. Rank de

65. Normal curve is:

1. S shaped
2. Parabolic
3. Hyperbolic
4. Bell shaped

66. The level of significance α denotes:

1. Probability of rejecting a true hypothesis

2. Probability of accepting a true hypothesis
3. Significance of result
4. Confidence limit
67. Variance is:

1. Half of SD
2. Square root of SD
3. Square of SD
4. Twice of SD
5. Chi square test was developed by

1. Karl Pearson
2. Friedrich Garss
3. Bernvolli
4. Rank De
5. Normal curve is

1. S shaped
2. Parabolic
3. Hyperbolic
4. Bell shaped
First Set of Multiple Choice Questions on Environment with Answers:
Back to Top

1. What is the harm from the depletion of Earth's ozone layer

a) The average temperature of earth's surface will increase gradually

b) The oxygen content of the atmosphere will decrease

c) Increased amount of Ultra violet radiation will reach earth's surface

d.) Sea levels will rise as the polar ice caps will gradually melt

Answer: (c)

2. Acid rain is formed due to contribution from the following pair of gases

a). Methane and ozone

b) Oxygen and nitrous oxide

c) methane and sulpher dioxide

d) Carbon dioxide and sulpher dioxide

Answer: (b)

3. Which of the following is a prime health risks associated with greater UV

radiation through the atmosphere due to depletion of stratospheric ozone?

a) Damage to digestive system

b) Increased liver cancer

c) Neurological disorder

d) Increased skin cancer

Answer: (d)

4. The most serious environmental effect posed by hazardous wastes

is

a) air pollution.
b) contamination of groundwater.

c) increased use of land for landfills.

d) destruction of habitat.

e) none of the above.

Answer: (b)

5. The concentration of which gas is highest in our environment?

a) Oxygen

b) Hydrogen

c) Nitrogen

d) Carbon dioxide

Answer: (c)

6. Which of the following is not as a consequence of global warming?

a) rising sea level

.b) increased agricultural productivity worldwide

c) worsening health effects

d) increased storm frequency and intensity

e) all of the above are likely results of global warming

Answer: (b)

7. Which of the following is not a primary contributor to the greenhouse effect?

a) carbon dioxide

b) carbon monoxide

c) chlorofluorocarbons

d) methane gas
e) nitrous oxide

Answer: (c)

8. The increase in the concentration of CO2 in our environment in last fifty years;
since 1960 is about

a) 20%

b) 10%

c) 14%

d) 6%

Answer: (c)

9. The depletion in the Ozone layer is caused by

a) nitrous oxide.

b) carbon dioxide.

c) chlorofluorocarbons.

d) methane.

e) all of the above.

Answer: (c)

10. A major in-stream use of water is for

a) producing hydroelectric power.

b) dissolving industrial wastes.

c) agricultural irrigation.

d) domestic use.

e) none of the above.

Answer: (a)
Second Set of Multiple Choice Questions on Enviornment with
Answers
Back to Top

11. Which of the following are the example of Municipal and industrial discharge
pipes

a) nonpoint sources of pollution.

b) violations of the Clean Water Act.

c) point sources of pollution.

d) irrigation.

e) none of the above.

Answer: (c)

12. The presence of high coliform counts in water indicate

a) contamination by human wastes.

b) phosphorus contamination.

c) decreased biological oxygen demand.

d) hydrocarbon contamination.

e) none of the above.

Answer: (a)

13. How the biological oxygen demand gets affected with the increased
presence of organic matter in water?

a) the oxygen demand increases

c) the oxygen demand decreases

c) the oxygen demand remains unchanged

d) None of the above

Answer: (a)
14. Which of the following is not a major source of groundwater contamination?

a) agricultural products

b) landfills

c) septic tanks

d) underground storage tanks

e) all of the above are major sources of groundwater contamination

Answer: (e)

15. Which of the following is not considered as part of water use planning?

a) waste water treatment

b) water diversion projects

c) storm sewer drainage

d) salinization

e) Water use planning considers all of the above issues

Answer: (e)

16. The stage in which the biological processes is used to purify water in a
wastewater treatment plants is called

a) secondary sewage treatment

b) primary sewage treatment

c) wastewater reduction

d) biochemical reduction

e) none of the above

Answer: (a)

17. Groundwater mining in coastal areas can result into

a) increase in the salinity of groundwater.

b) decrease in the toxicity of groundwater.

c) decrease in the salinity of groundwater.

d) increase in the water table.

e) none of the above.

Answer: (a)

8. Which of the following is not an important characteristic of the Green

Revolution?

a) mechanized agriculture

b) hybrid seeds

c) slash and burn

d) monoculture

e) all of the above are characteristic of the Green Revolution

Answer: (c)

19. The three primary soil macronutrients are

a) carbon, oxygen, and water.

b) copper, cadmium, and carbon.

c) potassium, phosphorus, and nitrogen.

d) boron, zinc, and manganese.

e) none of the above.

Answer: (c)

20. Which of the following is negative effects on the soil and water due to
conventional, mechanized farming practices?

a) soil compaction

b) reduction in soil organic matter

c) soil erosion

d) leaching of pesticides and fertilizers into the groundwater

e) all of the above

Answer: (e)

Energy and Environment Management Questions and

Answers – Major International Environmental Conventions
This set of Energy & Environment Management Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses
on “Major International Environmental Conventions”.

1. Which convention adopted for the protection of ozone layer?

a) Vienna Convention
b) Basel Convention
c) Montreal Protocol
d) Stockholm Convention
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Vienna Convention was adopted in 1985. The main objectives are, parties to promote
and cooperation by means of systematic observations, research and information exchange on the
effects of human activities on the ozone layer.

2. How many years once the parties in the Vienna Convention meet to take decision?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The parties of the Vienna Convention meet once in three years in order to take decisions
designed to administer the convention. In 2009, the Vienna Convention became the first Convention
of any kind to achieve universal ratification.

3. When did Stockholm Convention on persistent organic pollutants came into exist?
a) 2000
b) 2002
c) 2004
d) 2006
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Stockholm Convention on persistent organic pollutants came into exist on 17 May 2004.
It is a global treaty to protect human health and the environment from persistent organic pollutants and
thus helps to maintain the health of humans and environment.

4. What are persistent organic pollutants?

a) Organic manure
b) Weed
c) Sand
d) Chemicals
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Persistent organic pollutants (POPs) are chemicals that remain intact in the environment
for long periods and become widely distributed geographically and accumulated in the fatty tissue of
living organisms.

5. What is the main aim of Stockholm Convention on persistent organic pollutants?

a) Eliminate dangerous POPs
b) Increase the usage of dangerous POPs
c) Developing strong chemicals
d) Increase in the production of POPs
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The main aim of Stockholm Convention on persistent organic pollutants is to eliminate
dangerous POPs starting with the 12 worst. Apart from this it also aims o support the transition to safer
alternatives for POPs.

6. Rotterdam Convention is established to trade with hazardous chemicals.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Rotterdam Convention is the prior informed consent procedure for certain hazardous
chemicals and pesticides in international trade. This Rotterdam Convention came into force in
February 24, 2004.

7. Basel Convention is mainly deals with_________________

a) Biological diversity
b) Hazardous wastes and their disposals
c) Persistent organic pollutants
d) Ozone depleting
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Basel Convention was adopted on 22 March 1989 by the conference of Plenipotentiaries
in Basel, Switzerland. The main aim is to control of transboundry movements of hazardous wastes
and its disposals.

8. What is the main aim of UNFCCC?

a) Stabilization of greenhouse gas
b) Increase of greenhouse gas
c) Increase of temperature
d) Stabilization of oxygen
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) came into
exist in June 1992. The reason behind this is to achieve stabilization in greenhouse gases
concentration in atmosphere.

9. Which convention came into exist for the use of ‘Transboundary water courses’?
a) Vienna Convention
b) Stockholm Convention
c) Helsinki Convention
d) Bucharest Convention
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Foe the regulation of use of international watercourses Helsinki Convention came into
exists in 1992. The main aim is to protect and use of Transboundary watercourses and international
lakes seeks to established cooperative frameworks.

10. How many principles proclaimed at Rio de Janeiro Convention?

a) 21
b) 25
c) 27
d) 29
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The United Nations Conference on Environment and Development met at Rio de Janeiro
Convention from 3rd to 14th June 1992. During this meeting they proclaimed 27 principles with the
goal of establishing a new partnership.

11. For the conservation of migratory species of wild animals which convention took place?
a) Rio de Janeiro Convention
b) Bonn Convention
c) Basel Convention
d) Aarhus Convention
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Bonn Convention came into exist for the conservation of migratory species of wild
animals. And also to conserve terrestrial species and marine species throughout their range was the
objective of this convention.

12. When did the Washington Convention happen?

a) 1972
b) 1973
c) 1975
d) 1978
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Washington Convention is an international agreement between governments, drafted as
a result of a resolution adopted in 1973 at the meeting held at International Union for Conservation of
Nature.
advertisement

13. What is the full form of ENMOD?

a) Environmental Middle Convention
b) Environmental Modification Convention
c) Environmental Middle Center
d) Environmental Modification Center
View Answer

14. The Ramsar Convention is also called as the Convention on Wetlands.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Ramsar Convention is an intergovernmental treaty that provides the framework for
national action and international cooperation for the conservation and wise use of wetlands and their
resources.

Sanfoundry Global Education & Learning Series – Energy & Environment Management.

To practice all areas of Energy & Environment Management, here is complete set of 1000+ Multiple
Choice Questions and Answers.
« Prev Page - Energy Management Questions and Answers – Ecological Services
» Next Page - Energy and Environment Management Questions and Answers – Major International
Environmental Protocols