DATE : 06/05/2018 Test Booklet Code

LL
HLAAC

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005

Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

Time : 3 hrs.
Answers & Solutions Max. Marks : 720

for
NEET (UG) - 2018
Important Instructions :
1. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question carries
4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response,
one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
2. Use Blue / Black Ball point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses.
3. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
4. On completion of the test, the candidate must handover the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator before
leaving the Room / Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
5. The CODE for this Booklet is LL.
6. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on
the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the
Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
7. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admission Card to the Invigilator.
8. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her
seat.
9. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
10. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to their
conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and
Regulations of this examination.
11. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
12. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet / Answer Sheet
in the Attendance Sheet.

1
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-LL) HLAAC

1. The correct order of N-compounds in its 5. Which of the following statements is not true
decreasing order of oxidation states is for halogens?
(1) All form monobasic oxyacids
(1) HNO3, NO, N2, NH4Cl
(2) All are oxidizing agents
(2) HNO3, NO, NH4Cl, N2
(3) Chlorine has the highest electron-gain
(3) NH4Cl, N2, NO, HNO3 enthalpy
(4) All but fluorine show positive oxidation
(4) HNO3, NH4Cl, NO, N2
states
Answer ( 1 ) Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Due to high electronegativity and small size,
5 2 0 –3
S o l . H N O , N O, N2 , NH Cl F forms only one oxoacid, HOF known as
3 4
Fluoric (I) acid. Oxidation number of F is +1 in
Hence, the correct option is (1). HOF.
6. In the structure of ClF 3, the number of lone
2. Which one of the following elements is unable pair of electrons on central atom ‘Cl’ is
to form MF63– ion?
(1) One (2) Two
(1) Ga (2) Al (3) Three (4) Four
(3) In (4) B Answer ( 2 )
S o l . The structure of ClF3 is
Answer ( 4 )  

 

 
F
S o l . ∵ 'B' has no vacant d-orbitals in its valence
shell, so it can't extend its covalency beyond  
4. i.e. 'B' cannot form the ion like MF6 3(–) i.e.   F Cl
 
BF63(–).

 

 
Hence, the correct option is (4). F
 
3. Considering Ellingham diagram, which of the The number of lone pair of electrons on
following metals can be used to reduce central Cl is 2.
alumina? 7. Identify the major products P, Q and R in the
(1) Fe (2) Zn following sequence of reactions:
Anhydrous
(3) Cu (4) Mg AlCl3
+ CH3CH2CH2Cl
Answer ( 4 )
(i) O2
S o l . The metal which is more reactive than 'Al' P (ii) H3O+/
Q+R
can reduce alumina i.e. 'Mg' should be the P Q R
correct option. CH 2CH 2CH3 CHO
4. The correct order of atomic radii in group 13
(1) , , CH3CH2 – OH
elements is
(1) B < Al < In < Ga < Tl CH2CH2CH3 CHO COOH

(2) B < Al < Ga < In < Tl (2) , ,

(3) B < Ga < Al < In < Tl
OH
(4) B < Ga < Al < Tl < In CH(CH3)2
(3) , , CH3 – CO – CH3
Answer ( 3 )

Sol. CH(CH3)2 OH
(4) , , CH3CH(OH)CH3
Elements B Ga Al In Tl
Atomic radii (pm) 85 135 143 167 170 Answer ( 3 )

2
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-LL) HLAAC

Cl S o l . Cross linked or network polymers are formed

S o l . CH CH CH – Cl + from bi-functional and tri-functional monomers
3 2 2 Al
and contain strong covalent bonds between
Cl Cl various linear polymer chains, e.g. bakelite,
melamine etc. Option (3) is not related to
+ 1, 2–H + –
Shift cross-linking.
CH3 – CH – CH3 CH3CH2CH2 Cl AlCl3
(Incipient carbocation) So option (3) should be the correct option.
Cl
10. Nitration of aniline in strong acidic medium
–
AlCl3 also gives m-nitroaniline because

Now, (1) Inspite of substituents nitro group always

goes to only m-position.
CH3
(2) In electrophilic substitution reactions
CH – CH3
amino group is meta directive.
CH3 – CH – CH3 O2
(3) In acidic (strong) medium aniline is
present as anilinium ion.
(P)
CH3 (4) In absence of substituents nitro group
always goes to m-position.
OH HC
3 –C – O– O –H
O Answer ( 3 )
+
H /H2O
CH3 – C – CH3 + Hydroperoxide
Rearrangement
NH2 NH3
(R) (Q)
H
8. Which of the following compounds can form a Sol.
zwitterion?
Anilinium ion
(1) Aniline
–NH3 is m-directing, hence besides para
(2) Acetanilide
(51%) and ortho (2%), meta product (47%) is
(3) Glycine also formed in significant yield.
(4) Benzoic acid 11. The difference between amylose and
Answer ( 3 ) amylopectin is

(1) Amylopectin have 1  4 -linkage and

 
Sol. H3N – CH2 – COOH H3N – CH2 – COO
–
1 6 -linkage
(Zwitterion form)
(2) Amylose have 1  4 -linkage and 1  6
pKa = 9.60 pKa = 2.34
-linkage
H2N – CH2 – COO– (3) Amylose is made up of glucose and
9. Regarding cross-linked or network polymers, galactose
which of the following statements is
(4) Amylopectin have 1  4 -linkage and
incorrect?
1  6 -linkage
(1) They contain covalent bonds between
various linear polymer chains. Answer ( 1 )

(2) They are formed from bi- and tri-functional S o l . Amylose and Amylopectin are polymers of -
monomers. D-glucose, so -link is not possible. Amylose is
linear with 1  4 -linkage whereas
(3) They contain strong covalents bonds in
Amylopectin is branched and has both 1  4
their polymer chains.
and 1  6 -linkages.
(4) Examples are bakelite and melamine.
So option (1) should be the correct option.
Answer ( 3 )
3
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-LL) HLAAC

12. A mixture of 2.3 g formic acid and 4.5 g oxalic 15. The compound A on treatment with Na gives
acid is treated with conc. H2SO4. The evolved B, and with PCl 5 gives C. B and C react
gaseous mixture is passed through KOH together to give diethyl ether. A, B and C are
pellets. Weight (in g) of the remaining product in the order
at STP will be
(1) C2H5OH, C2H6, C2H5Cl
(1) 1.4 (2) 3.0
(2) C2H5OH, C2H5Cl, C2H5ONa
(3) 4.4 (4) 2.8
Answer ( 4 ) (3) C2H5OH, C2H5ONa, C2H5Cl

Conc.H2 SO4 (4) C2H5Cl, C2H6, C2H5OH

S o l . HCOOH   CO(g)  H2 O(l)
 1  1
2.3 g or  mol  mol Answer ( 3 )
 20  20

C2H5O Na+
Na
COOH
Conc.H2SO4
CO(g) + CO2 (g) + H2O(l) S o l . C2H5OH
1
mol
1
mol
(A) (B)
COOH 20 20

 1  PCl5
4.5 g or  mol 
 20 
C2H5Cl
Gaseous mixture formed is CO and CO2 when
(C)
it is passed through KOH, only CO 2 is
C2H5O Na+ + C2H5Cl
SN2
absorbed. So the remaining gas is CO. C2H5OC2 H5
(B) (C)
So, weight of remaining gaseous product CO
is So the correct option is (3)

2 16. The compound C7H8 undergoes the following

 28  2.8 g
20 reactions:

So, the correct option is (4) 3Cl /  Br /Fe Zn/HCl

C7H8 
2
 A 
2
 B 
C
13. Which of the following oxides is most acidic in
nature? The product 'C' is
(1) MgO (2) BeO (1) m-bromotoluene
(3) CaO (4) BaO
(2) o-bromotoluene
Answer ( 2 )
(3) p-bromotoluene
S o l . BeO < MgO < CaO < BaO
 (4) 3-bromo-2,4,6-trichlorotoluene
Basic character increases.
Answer ( 1 )
So, the most acidic should be BeO. In fact,
BeO is amphoteric oxide while other given CH3 CCl3 CCl3
oxides are basic.
3Cl 2 Br2
14. Which oxide of nitrogen is not a common Sol.  Fe
pollutant introduced into the atmosphere both Br
(C7H8) (A) (B)
due to natural and human activity?
Zn HCl
(1) N2O5
(2) NO2 CH3
(3) NO
(4) N2O Br
(C)
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Fact So, the correct option is (1)

4
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-LL) HLAAC

17. Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bromine by S o l . –NO2 group exhibit –I effect and it decreases
substitution to form an alkyl bromide which by with increase in distance. In option (4)
Wurtz reaction is converted to gaseous positive charge present on C-atom at
hydrocarbon containing less than four carbon maximum distance so –I effect reaching to it
atoms. (A) is is minimum and stability is maximum.
(1) CH  CH
20. Which of the following is correct with respect
(2) CH2  CH2 to – I effect of the substituents? (R = alkyl)

(3) CH4 (1) – NH2 < – OR < – F

(4) CH3 – CH3 (2) – NR2 < – OR < – F
Answer ( 3 ) (3) – NR2 > – OR > – F

Br2/h (4) – NH2 > – OR > – F

S o l . CH4 CH3Br
(A) Na/dry ether Answer ( 1 * )
Wurtz reaction
S o l . –I effect increases on increasing
CH3 — CH3 electronegativity of atom. So, correct order of
–I effect is –NH2 < – OR < – F.
Hence the correct option is (3)
*Most appropriate Answer is option (1),
18. Which of the following molecules represents
however option (2) may also be correct
the order of hybridisation sp2, sp2, sp, sp from
answer.
left to right atoms?
21. In the reaction
(1) HC  C – C  CH
OH O–Na+
(2) CH2 = CH – C  CH
(3) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3 CHO
+ CHCl3 + NaOH
(4) CH2 = CH – CH = CH2
Answer ( 2 )
The electrophile involved is
2 2
sp sp sp sp
S o l . CH2  CH – C  CH
(1) Dichloromethyl cation CHCl2  

Number of orbital require in hybridization
= Number of -bonds around each carbon (2) Formyl cation CHO  

atom.
19. Which of the following carbocations is (3) Dichlorocarbene : CCl2 
expected to be most stable?
NO2 NO2 (4) Dichloromethyl anion CHCl2  

 Answer ( 3 )
(1) (2)
 S o l . It is Reimer-Tiemann reaction. The electrophile
formed is :CCl2 (Dichlorocarbene) according to
Y H Y H the following reaction
NO2 NO2
.–.
H CHCl3  OH– 
 CCl3  H2 O

(3) Y (4) H
.–.
Y   : CCl2  Cl–
CCl3 
Electrophile
Answer ( 4 )
5
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-LL) HLAAC

22. Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points 24. Match the metal ions given in Column I with
than aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of the spin magnetic moments of the ions given
comparable molecular mass. It is due to their in Column II and assign the correct code :
(1) Formation of intramolecular H-bonding Column I Column II
(2) Formation of carboxylate ion
a. Co3+ i. 8 BM
(3) Formation of intermolecular H-bonding
b. Cr3+ ii. 35 BM
(4) More extensive association of carboxylic
acid via van der Waals force of attraction c. Fe3+ iii. 3 BM
Answer ( 3 )
d. Ni2+ iv. 24 BM
S o l . Due to formation of intermolecular H-bonding
in carboxylic acid, association occurs. Hence v. 15 BM
boiling point increases and become more
than the boiling point of aldehydes, ketones a b c d
and alcohols of comparable molecular (1) iv v ii i
masses.
(2) i ii iii iv
23. Compound A, C8H10O, is found to react with
NaOI (produced by reacting Y with NaOH) and (3) iii v i ii
yields a yellow precipitate with characteristic (4) iv i ii iii
smell.
Answer ( 1 )
A and Y are respectively
S o l . Co3+ = [Ar] 3d6, Unpaired e–(n) = 4

Spin magnetic moment = 4(4  2)  24 BM

(1) H3C CH2 – OH and I2
Cr3+ = [Ar] 3d3, Unpaired e–(n) = 3

(2) CH2 – CH2 – OH and I2 Spin magnetic moment = 3(3  2)  15 BM

Fe3+ = [Ar] 3d5, Unpaired e–(n) = 5

CH3
Spin magnetic moment = 5(5  2)  35 BM
(3) CH3 OH and I2 Ni2+ = [Ar] 3d8, Unpaired e–(n) = 2

Spin magnetic moment = 2(2  2)  8 BM

CH – CH3 and I2
(4) 25. Which one of the following ions exhibits d-d
OH transition and paramagnetism as well?
Answer ( 4 ) (1) CrO42– (2) Cr2O72–
S o l . Option (4) is secondary alcohol which on (3) MnO42– (4) MnO4–
oxidation gives phenylmethyl ketone
Answer ( 3 )
(Acetophenone). This on reaction with I2 and
NaOH form iodoform and sodium benzoate. S o l . CrO42– Cr6+ = [Ar]

2NaOH  I2  NaOI  NaI  H2 O Unpaired electron (n) = 0; Diamagnetic

Cr2O72– Cr6+ = [Ar]
CH – CH3 NaOI
C – CH3 Unpaired electron (n) = 0; Diamagnetic
OH O MnO42– = Mn6+ = [Ar] 3d1
Acetophenone
(A)
Unpaired electron (n) = 1; Paramagnetic
I2
COONa + CHI3 NaOH
MnO4– = Mn7+ = [Ar]
Iodoform
Sodium benzoate (Yellow PPt) Unpaired electron (n) = 0; Diamagnetic

6
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-LL) HLAAC

26. Iron carbonyl, Fe(CO)5 is S o l . Ni(28) : [Ar]3d8 4s2

(1) Tetranuclear ∵ CO is a strong field ligand
(2) Mononuclear Configuration would be :
3
(3) Dinuclear sp -hybridisation

(4) Trinuclear ×× ×× ×× ××
Answer ( 2 ) CO CO CO CO
S o l . • Based on the number of metal atoms For, four ‘CO’-ligands hybridisation would be
present in a complex, they are classified sp 3 and thus the complex would be
into mononuclear, dinuclear, trinuclear and diamagnetic and of tetrahedral geometry.
so on.
CO
eg: Fe(CO)5 : mononuclear
Co2(CO)8 : dinuclear
Ni
Fe3(CO)12: trinuclear CO
OC
Hence, option (2) should be the right
answer. CO
29. Following solutions were prepared by mixing
27. The type of isomerism shown by the complex different volumes of NaOH and HCl of
[CoCl2(en)2] is different concentrations :
(1) Geometrical isomerism
M M
a. 60 mL HCl + 40 mL NaOH
(2) Coordination isomerism 10 10
(3) Linkage isomerism
M M
(4) Ionization isomerism b. 55 mL HCl + 45 mL NaOH
10 10
Answer ( 1 )
M M
S o l . In [CoCl2(en)2], Coordination number of Co c. 75 mL HCl + 25 mL NaOH
5 5
is 6 and this compound has octahedral
geometry. M M
d. 100 mL HCl + 100 mL NaOH
10 10

pH of which one of them will be equal to 1?

(1) b (2) a
(3) c (4) d
Answer ( 3 )
• As per given option, type of isomerism is
1
geometrical isomerism. Sol. • Meq of HCl = 75   1 = 15
5
28. The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the
1
complex [Ni(CO)4] are • Meq of NaOH = 25   1 = 5
5
(1) Square planar geometry and diamagnetic
• Meq of HCl in resulting solution = 10
(2) Tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic
• Molarity of [H+] in resulting mixture
(3) Tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic 10 1
= 
(4) Square planar geometry and 100 10
paramagnetic
 1
pH = –log[H+] =  log   = 1.0
Answer ( 2 )  10 
7
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-LL) HLAAC

30. On which of the following properties does the 2.42  103

coagulating power of an ion depend? S o l . Solubility of BaSO4, s = (mol L–1)
233
(1) The magnitude of the charge on the ion = 1.04 × 10–5 (mol L–1)
alone
 Ba2  (aq)  SO 24(aq)
BaSO 4 (s) 
(2) Size of the ion alone s s

(3) The sign of charge on the ion alone Ksp = [Ba2+] [SO42–]= s2
= (1.04 × 10–5)2
(4) Both magnitude and sign of the charge on
= 1.08 × 10–10 mol2 L–2
the ion
33. In which case is number of molecules of
Answer ( 4 ) water maximum?
(1) 18 mL of water
Sol. • Coagulation of colloidal solution by using
an electrolyte depends on the charge (2) 0.18 g of water
present (positive or negative) on colloidal (3) 10–3 mol of water
(4) 0.00224 L of water vapours at 1 atm and
particles as well as on its size.
273 K
• Coagulating power of an electrolyte Answer ( 1 )
depends on the magnitude of charge S o l . (1) Mass of water = 18 × 1 = 18 g
present on effective ion of electrolyte.
18
31. Given van der Waals constant for NH3, H2, O2 Molecules of water = mole × NA = NA
18
and CO2 are respectively 4.17, 0.244, 1.36 and
3.59, which one of the following gases is most = NA
easily liquefied?
0.18
(2) Molecules of water = mole × NA = NA
(1) NH3 18

(2) H2 = 10–2 NA
(3) Molecules of water = mole × NA = 10–3 NA
(3) CO2
0.00224
(4) O2 (4) Moles of water = = 10–4
22.4
Answer ( 1 )
Molecules of water = mole × NA = 10–4 NA
Sol. • van der waal constant ‘a’, signifies 34. The correct difference between first and
intermolecular forces of attraction. second order reactions is that
(1) The rate of a first-order reaction does not
• Higher is the value of ‘a’, easier will be
depend on reactant concentrations; the
the liquefaction of gas. rate of a second-order reaction does
32. The solubility of BaSO4 in water is 2.42 × 10–3 gL–1 depend on reactant concentrations
at 298 K. The value of its solubility product (2) The half-life of a first-order reaction does
(Ksp) will be not depend on [A] 0 ; the half-life of a
second-order reaction does depend on
(Given molar mass of BaSO4 = 233 g mol–1) [A]0
(3) The rate of a first-order reaction does
(1) 1.08 × 10–10 mol2L–2
depend on reactant concentrations; the
(2) 1.08 × 10–12 mol2L–2 rate of a second-order reaction does not
depend on reactant concentrations
(3) 1.08 × 10–8 mol2L–2 (4) A first-order reaction can catalyzed; a
(4) 1.08 × 10–14 mol2L–2 second-order reaction cannot be
catalyzed
Answer ( 1 ) Answer ( 2 )
8
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-LL) HLAAC

37. For the redox reaction

0.693
Sol.  For first order reaction, t 1/2  ,
k
MnO4  C2 O24  H 
 Mn2   CO2  H2 O
which is independent of initial
concentration of reactant. The correct coefficients of the reactants for
the balanced equation are
1
 For second order reaction, t 1/2  ,
k[A0 ] MnO4 C2 O24 H+
which depends on initial concentration of
reactant. (1) 16 5 2

35. Among CaH2, BeH2, BaH2, the order of ionic (2) 2 5 16

character is
(3) 5 16 2
(1) BeH2 < CaH2 < BaH2
(4) 2 16 5
(2) CaH2 < BeH2 < BaH2
(3) BaH2 < BeH2 < CaH2 Answer ( 2 )
Reduction
(4) BeH2 < BaH2 < CaH2
+7 +3 +4
S o l . MnO4– + C2O42– + H+ 2+
Mn + CO2 + H2O
Answer ( 1 )
Oxidation
S o l . For 2nd group hydrides, on moving down the

group metallic character of metals increases n-factor of MnO4  5
so ionic character of metal hydride increases. n-factor of C2 O24  2
Hence the option (1) should be correct option. 
Ratio of n-factors of MnO4 and C2 O24 is 5 : 2
36. Consider the change in oxidation state of
So, molar ratio in balanced reaction is 2 : 5
Bromine corresponding to different emf values
 The balanced equation is
as shown in the diagram below :
– 1.82 V – 1.5 V 2MnO4  5C2 O24  16H  2Mn2   10CO2  8H2 O
BrO4 BrO3 HBrO
38. Which one of the following conditions will
– favour maximum formation of the product in
Br 1.0652 V Br2 1.595 V
the reaction,
Then the species undergoing
disproportionation is  X2 (g) r H   X kJ?
A2 (g)  B2 (g) 

(1) BrO3 (2) BrO4 (1) Low temperature and high pressure

(3) HBrO (4) Br2 (2) Low temperature and low pressure

Answer ( 3 ) (3) High temperature and low pressure

1 0
(4) High temperature and high pressure
o
S o l . HBrO 
 Br2 , EHBrO/Br  1.595 V Answer ( 1 )
2

1 5  X2 (g); H  x kJ
S o l . A2 (g)  B2 (g) 
 BrO3 , Eo
HBrO   1.5 V
BrO3 /HBrO
On increasing pressure equilibrium shifts in a
o
Ecell for the disproportionation of HBrO, direction where pressure decreases i.e.
forward direction.
o o
Ecell  EHBrO/Br  Eo
2 BrO3 /HBrO On decreasing temperature, equilibrium shifts
= 1.595 – 1.5 in exothermic direction i.e., forward direction.
= 0.095 V = + ve So, high pressure and low temperature
Hence, option (3) is correct answer. favours maximum formation of product.

9
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-LL) HLAAC

39. When initial concentration of the reactant is 41. The correction factor ‘a’ to the ideal gas
doubled, the half-life period of a zero order equation corresponds to
reaction
(1) Density of the gas molecules
(1) Is halved
(2) Volume of the gas molecules
(2) Is doubled
(3) Forces of attraction between the gas
(3) Remains unchanged
molecules
(4) Is tripled
(4) Electric field present between the gas
Answer ( 2 ) molecules
S o l . Half life of zero order
Answer ( 3 )

[A0 ]
t 1/2   2 
2K S o l . In real gas equation,  P  an  (V  nb)  nRT
 V2 

t 1/2 will be doubled on doubling the initial
concentration. van der Waal’s constant, ‘a’ signifies
intermolecular forces of attraction.
40. The bond dissociation energies of X2, Y2 and
XY are in the ratio of 1 : 0.5 : 1. H for the 42. Which one is a wrong statement?
formation of XY is –200 kJ mol–1. The bond
(1) Total orbital angular momentum of
dissociation energy of X2 will be
electron in 's' orbital is equal to zero
(1) 200 kJ mol–1
(2) An orbital is designated by three quantum
(2) 100 kJ mol–1 numbers while an electron in an atom is
designated by four quantum numbers
(3) 400 kJ mol–1
(3) The value of m for dz2 is zero
(4) 800 kJ mol–1

Answer ( 4 ) (4) The electronic configuration of N atom is

1 1 1
S o l . The reaction for fH°(XY) 1s2 2s2 2px 2py 2pz

1 1
X2 (g)  Y2 (g) 
 XY(g)
2 2
Answer ( 4 )

X S o l . According to Hund's Rule of maximum

Bond energies of X2, Y2 and XY are X, , X
2 multiplicity, the correct electronic
respectively configuration of N-atom is

X X
 H      X  200
2 4 1s2 2s2 2p3

On solving, we get OR

X X
   200
2 4 2 2 3
1s 2s 2p

 X = 800 kJ/mole  Option (4) violates Hund's Rule.

10
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-LL) HLAAC

43. Magnesium reacts with an element (X) to form

4r
an ionic compound. If the ground state S o l . For BCC lattice : Z = 2, a 
3
electronic configuration of (X) is 1s2 2s2 2p3,
the simplest formula for this compound is
For FCC lattice : Z = 4, a = 2 2 r
(1) Mg2X3
 ZM 
 N a3 
(2) MgX2 d25C  A  BCC
 
d900C  ZM 
(3) Mg3X2  N a3 
 A  FCC

(4) Mg2X
3
2  2 2 r 3 3
 
Answer ( 3 ) 4  4r   4 2 
 
 3 
S o l . Element (X) electronic configuration
45. Consider the following species :

1s2 2s2 2p3 CN+, CN–, NO and CN

Which one of these will have the highest bond
So, valency of X will be 3. order?
(1) NO
Valency of Mg is 2.
(2) CN–
Formula of compound formed by Mg and X will (3) CN
be Mg3X2. (4) CN+
Answer ( 2 )
44. Iron exhibits bcc structure at room
temperature. Above 900°C, it transforms to S o l . NO : (1s) 2 , ( 1s) 2 , (2s) 2,( 2s) 2,(2p z ) 2 ,
fcc structure. The ratio of density of iron at (2px)2 = (2py)2,(2px)1 = (2py)0
room temperature to that at 900°C (assuming
10  5
molar mass and atomic radii of iron remains BO =  2.5
2
constant with temperature) is
CN– : (1s)2, (1s)2, (2s)2,(2s)2, (2px)2
= (2py)2,(2pz)2
3
(1)
2 10  4
BO = 3
2

4 3 CN : (1s)2, (1s)2, (2s)2,(2s)2, (2px)2

(2)
3 2 = (2py)2,(2pz)1

9 4
BO =  2.5
1 2
(3)
2
CN+ : (1s)2, (1s)2, (2s)2,(2s)2, (2px)2
= (2py)2
3 3
(4) 8 4
4 2 BO = 2
2

Answer ( 4 ) Hence, option(2) should be the right answer.

11
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-LL) HLAAC

46. In a growing population of a country, 49. Which one of the following population
(1) pre-reproductive individuals are more interactions is widely used in medical science
than the reproductive individuals. for the production of antibiotics?

(2) reproductive individuals are less than the (1) Commensalism (2) Mutualism
post-reproductive individuals. (3) Amensalism (4) Parasitism
(3) pre-reproductive individuals are less than Answer ( 3 )
the reproductive individuals. S o l . Amensalism/Antibiosis (0, –)
(4) reproductive and pre-reproductive  Antibiotics are chemicals secreted by one
individuals are equal in number. microbial group (eg : Penicillium) which
Answer ( 1 ) harm other microbes (eg :
Staphylococcus)
S o l . Whenever the pre-reproductive individuals or
the younger population size is larger than the  It has no effect on Penicillium or the
reproductive group, the population will be an organism which produces it.
increasing population. 50. All of the following are included in ‘ex-situ
47. Match the items given in Column I with those conservation’ except
in Column II and select the correct option (1) Wildlife safari parks
given below : (2) Sacred groves
Column-I Column-II (3) Seed banks
a. Eutrophication i. UV-B radiation (4) Botanical gardens
b. Sanitary landfill ii. Deforestation Answer ( 2 )
c. Snow blindness iii. Nutrient Sol.  Sacred groves – in-situ conservation.
enrichment
 Represent pristine forest patch as
d. Jhum cultivation iv. Waste disposal protected by Tribal groups.
a b c d 51. AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding
(1) ii i iii iv strand of a gene. What will be the
corresponding sequence of the transcribed
(2) i iii iv ii
mRNA?
(3) i ii iv iii
(1) AGGUAUCGCAU
(4) iii iv i ii
(2) UGGTUTCGCAT
Answer ( 4 )
(3) UCCAUAGCGUA
S o l . a. Eutrophication iii. Nutrient
(4) ACCUAUGCGAU
enrichment
Answer ( 1 )
b. Sanitary landfill iv. Waste disposal
S o l . Coding strand and mRNA has same nucleotide
c. Snow blindness i. UV-B radiation sequence except, ‘T’ – Thymine is replaced by
d. Jhum cultivation ii. Deforestation ‘U’–Uracil in mRNA.
48. Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain 52. According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism
the drug “Smack”? of evolution is
(1) Flowers (1) Multiple step mutations
(2) Latex (2) Saltation
(3) Leaves (3) Minor mutations
(4) Roots (4) Phenotypic variations
Answer ( 2 ) Answer ( 2 )
S o l . ‘Smack’ also called as brown sugar/Heroin is S o l . As per mutation theory given by Hugo de
formed by acetylation of morphine. It is Vries, the evolution is a discontinuous
obtained from the latex of unripe capsule of phenomenon or saltatory phenomenon/
Poppy plant. saltation.

12
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-LL) HLAAC

53. Match the items given in Column I with those Sol. • Woman is a carrier
in Column II and select the correct option
• Both son & daughter inherit
given below :
X–chromosome
Column I Column II
• Although only son be the diseased
a. Proliferative Phase i. Breakdown of
56. Which of the following options correctly
endometrial represents the lung conditions in asthma and
lining emphysema, respectively?

b. Secretory Phase ii. Follicular Phase (1) Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased

respiratory surface
c. Menstruation iii. Luteal Phase
(2) Increased number of bronchioles;
a b c
Increased respiratory surface
(1) iii ii i
(3) Decreased respiratory surface;
(2) i iii ii Inflammation of bronchioles
(3) iii i ii (4) Increased respiratory surface;
(4) ii iii i Inflammation of bronchioles

Answer ( 4 ) Answer ( 1 )
S o l . During proliferative phase, the follicles start S o l . Asthma is a difficulty in breathing causing
developing, hence, called follicular phase. wheezing due to inflammation of bronchi and
bronchioles. Emphysema is a chronic disorder
Secretory phase is also called as luteal phase
in which alveolar walls are damaged due to
mainly controlled by progesterone secreted
which respiratory surface is decreased.
by corpus luteum. Estrogen further thickens
the endometrium maintained by 57. Match the items given in Column I with those
progesterone. in Column II and select the correct option
given below :
Menstruation occurs due to decline in
progesterone level and involves breakdown of Column I Column II
overgrown endometrial lining.
a. Tricuspid valve i. Between left atrium
54. All of the following are part of an operon and left ventricle
except
b. Bicuspid valve ii. Between right
(1) an operator ventricle and
(2) structural genes pulmonary artery

(3) a promoter c. Semilunar valve iii. Between right

atrium and right
(4) an enhancer ventricle
Answer ( 4 )
a b c
Sol. • Enhancer sequences are present in
(1) iii i ii
eukaryotes.
(2) i iii ii
• Operon concept is for prokaryotes.
(3) ii i iii
55. A woman has an X-linked condition on one of
her X chromosomes. This chromosome can be (4) i ii iii
inherited by
Answer ( 1 )
(1) Only daughters
S o l . Tricuspid valves are AV valve present
(2) Only sons between right atrium and right ventricle.
(3) Both sons and daughters Bicuspid valves are AV valve present between
left atrium and left ventricle. Semilunar valves
(4) Only grandchildren are present at the openings of aortic and
Answer ( 3 ) pulmonary aorta.
13
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-LL) HLAAC

58. Match the items given in Column I with those Answer ( 2 )

in Column II and select the correct option
S o l . In humans, dentition is
given below:
 Thecodont : Teeth are present in the
Column I Column II
sockets of the jaw bone called alveoli.
a. Tidal volume i. 2500 – 3000 mL
 Diphyodont : Teeth erupts twice,
b. Inspiratory Reserve ii. 1100 – 1200 mL
temporary milk or deciduous teeth are
volume replaced by a set of permanent or adult
c. Expiratory Reserve iii. 500 – 550 mL teeth.
volume  Heterodont dentition : Dentition consists
d. Residual volume iv. 1000 – 1100 mL of different types of teeth namely incisors,
canine, premolars and molars.
a b c d
(1) iii ii i iv 61. Many ribosomes may associate with a single
mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide
(2) iii i iv ii simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are
(3) iv iii ii i termed as
(4) i iv ii iii (1) Polysome (2) Polyhedral bodies
Answer ( 2 ) (3) Nucleosome (4) Plastidome
S o l . Tidal volume is volume of air inspired or
Answer ( 1 )
expired during normal respiration. It is
approximately 500 mL. Inspiratory reserve S o l . The phenomenon of association of many
volume is additional volume of air a person ribosomes with single m-RNA leads to
can inspire by a forceful inspiration. It is formation of polyribosomes or polysomes or
around 2500 – 3000 mL. Expiratory reserve ergasomes.
volume is additional volume of air a person 62. Which of these statements is incorrect?
can be expired by a forceful expiration. This
averages 1000 – 1100 mL. (1) Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in
mitochondrial matrix
Residual volume is volume of air remaining in
lungs even after forceful expiration. This (2) Glycolysis occurs in cytosol
averages 1100 – 1200 mL. (3) Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in
59. Nissl bodies are mainly composed of outer mitochondrial membrane
(1) Proteins and lipids (4) Glycolysis operates as long as it is
(2) DNA and RNA supplied with NAD that can pick up
(3) Free ribosomes and RER hydrogen atoms

(4) Nucleic acids and SER Answer ( 3 )

Answer ( 3 ) S o l . Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in inner
S o l . Nissl granules are present in the cyton and mitochondrial membrane.
even extend into the dendrite but absent in 63. Which of the following events does not occur
axon and rest of the neuron. in rough endoplasmic reticulum?
Nissl granules are in fact composed of free (1) Protein folding
ribosomes and RER. They are responsible for
protein synthesis. (2) Protein glycosylation

60. Which of the following terms describe human
dentition?
(1) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Homodont
(2) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
(3) Pleurodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
(4) Pleurodont, Monophyodont, Homodont
14
(3) Phospholipid synthesis
(4) Cleavage of signal peptide
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . Phospholipid synthesis does not take place in
RER. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum are
involved in lipid synthesis.
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-LL) HLAAC

64. Select the incorrect match : 67. Which of the following hormones can play a
significant role in osteoporosis?
(1) Lampbrush – Diplotene bivalents
(1) Aldosterone and Prolactin
chromosomes
(2) Progesterone and Aldosterone
(2) Allosomes – Sex chromosomes
(3) Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin
(3) Polytene – Oocytes of (4) Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone
chromosomes amphibians
Answer ( 4 )
(4) Submetacentric – L-shaped
S o l . Estrogen promotes the activity of osteoblast
chromosomes chromosomes
and inhibits osteoclast. In an ageing female
Answer ( 3 ) osteoporosis occurs due to deficiency of
estrogen. Parathormone promotes
S o l . Polytene chromosomes are found in salivary
mobilisation of calcium from bone into blood.
glands of insects of order Diptera.
Excessive activity of parathormone causes
65. Which of the following is an amino acid demineralisation leading to osteoporosis.
derived hormone? 68. The transparent lens in the human eye is held
(1) Epinephrine in its place by

(2) Ecdysone (1) ligaments attached to the ciliary body

(2) ligaments attached to the iris
(3) Estriol
(3) smooth muscles attached to the ciliary
(4) Estradiol body
Answer ( 1 ) (4) smooth muscles attached to the iris
S o l . Epinephrine is derived from tyrosine amino Answer ( 1 )
acid by the removal of carboxyl group. It is a S o l . Lens in the human eye is held in its place by
catecholamine. suspensory ligaments attached to the ciliary
66. Which of the following structures or regions is body.
incorrectly paired with its functions? 69. Which of the following animals does not
undergo metamorphosis?
(1) Medulla oblongata : controls respiration
and cardiovascular (1) Earthworm
reflexes. (2) Tunicate
(2) Limbic system : consists of fibre (3) Starfish
tracts that (4) Moth
interconnect Answer ( 1 )
different regions of
brain; controls S o l . Metamorphosis refers to transformation of
movement. larva into adult.
Animal that perform metamorphosis are said
(3) Corpus callosum : band of fibers
to have indirect development.
connecting left and
right cerebral In earthworm development is direct which
hemispheres. means no larval stage and hence no
metamorphosis.
(4) Hypothalamus : production of
70. Which one of these animals is not a
releasing hormones
homeotherm?
and regulation of
temperature, (1) Macropus
hunger and thirst. (2) Chelone
Answer ( 2 ) (3) Psittacula
S o l . Limbic system is emotional brain. It controls (4) Camelus
all emotions in our body but not movements. Answer ( 2 )
15
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-LL) HLAAC

S o l . Homeotherm are animals that maintain Answer ( 4 )

constant body temperature, irrespective of
surrounding temperature.
Birds and mammals are homeotherm.
Chelone (Turtle) belongs to class reptilia
which is Poikilotherm or cold blood.
71. Which of the following features is used to
identify a male cockroach from a female
cockroach?
(1) Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the
9th abdominal segment
(2) Presence of caudal styles
(3) Presence of anal cerci
(4) Forewings with darker tegmina
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Males bear a pair of short, thread like anal
styles which are absent in females.
Anal/caudal styles arise from 9th abdominal
segment in male cockroach.
72. Which of the following organisms are known
as chief producers in the oceans?
(1) Dinoflagellates
(2) Diatoms
(3) Euglenoids
(4) Cyanobacteria
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Diatoms are chief producers of the ocean.
S o l . The digestive tract of Aves has additional
chambers in their digestive system as crop
and Gizzard.
Crop is concerned with storage of food grains.
Gizzard is a masticatory organ in birds used to
crush food grain.
75. Among the following sets of examples for
divergent evolution, select the incorrect
option :
(1) Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah
(2) Heart of bat, man and cheetah
(3) Eye of octopus, bat and man
(4) Brain of bat, man and cheetah
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . Divergent evolution occurs in the same
structure, example - forelimbs, heart, brain of
vertebrates which have developed along
different directions due to adaptation to
different needs whereas eye of octopus, bat
and man are examples of analogous organs
showing convergent evolution.
76. Conversion of milk to curd improves its
nutritional value by increasing the amount of
(1) Vitamin D (2) Vitamin A
(3) Vitamin E (4) Vitamin B12
Answer ( 4 )
Sol.  Curd is more nourishing than milk.

73. Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in  It has enriched presence of vitamins
specially Vit-B12.
(1) using flagella for locomotion
77. Which of the following characteristics
(2) having a contractile vacuole for removing represent ‘Inheritance of blood groups’ in
excess water humans?
(3) having two types of nuclei a. Dominance
(4) using pseudopodia for capturing prey b. Co-dominance
Answer ( 3 ) c. Multiple allele
S o l . Ciliates differs from other protozoans in d. Incomplete dominance
having two types of nuclei.
e. Polygenic inheritance
eg. Paramoecium have two types of nuclei i.e. (1) b, c and e (2) a, b and c
macronucleus & micronucleus.
(3) a, c and e (4) b, d and e
74. Identify the vertebrate group of animals
Answer ( 2 )
characterized by crop and gizzard in its
digestive system Sol.  IAIO, IBIO - Dominant–recessive
relationship
(1) Amphibia
 IAIB - Codominance
(2) Reptilia
 IA, IB & IO - 3-different allelic
(3) Osteichthyes
forms of a gene
(4) Aves (multiple allelism)
16
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-LL) HLAAC

78. Which of the following is not an autoimmune c. Renal calculi iii. Inflammation in
disease? glomeruli
(1) Psoriasis d. Glomerular iv. Presence of in
(2) Rheumatoid arthritis nephritis glucose urine
(3) Vitiligo a b c d
(4) Alzheimer's disease (1) iii ii iv i
Answer ( 4 ) (2) i ii iii iv
S o l . Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune (3) iv i ii iii
disorder in which antibodies are produced
against the synovial membrane and cartilage. (4) ii iii i iv

Vitiligo causes white patches on skin also Answer ( 3 )

characterised as autoimmune disorder. S o l . Glycosuria denotes presence of glucose in the
Psoriasis is a skin disease that causes itchy urine. This is observed when blood glucose
or sore patches of thick red skin and is also level rises above 180 mg/100 ml of blood, this
autoimmune whereas Alzheimer's disease is is called renal threshold value for glucose.
due to deficiency of neurotransmitter Gout is due to deposition of uric acid crystals
acetylcholine. in the joint.
79. The similarity of bone structure in the Renal calculi are precipitates of calcium
forelimbs of many vertebrates is an example phosphate produced in the pelvis of the
of kidney.
(1) Homology Glomerular nephritis is the inflammatory
(2) Analogy condition of glomerulus characterised by
proteinuria and haematuria.
(3) Adaptive radiation
(4) Convergent evolution 82. Match the items given in Column I with those
in Column II and select the correct option
Answer ( 1 ) given below:
S o l . In different vertebrates, bones of forelimbs
Column I Column II
are similar but their forelimbs are adapted in
different way as per their adaptation, hence (Function) (Part of Excretory
example of homology. system)
80. In which disease does mosquito transmitted a. Ultrafiltration i. Henle's loop
pathogen cause chronic inflammation of b. Concentration ii. Ureter
lymphatic vessels?
of urine
(1) Elephantiasis (2) Ascariasis
c. Transport of iii. Urinary bladder
(3) Amoebiasis (4) Ringworm disease
Answer ( 1 ) urine

S o l . Elephantiasis is caused by roundworm, d. Storage of iv. Malpighian

Wuchereria bancrofti and it is transmitted by urine corpuscle
Culex mosquito.
v. Proximal
81. Match the items given in Column I with those
in Column II and select the correct option convoluted tubule
given below : a b c d
Column I Column II (1) iv v ii iii
a. Glycosuria i. Accumulation of (2) iv i ii iii
uric acid in joints
(3) v iv i iii
b. Gout ii. Mass of crystallised
salts within the (4) v iv i ii
kidney Answer ( 2 )
17

S o l . Ultrafiltration refers to filtration of very fine
particles having molecular weight less than
68,000 daltons through malpighian corpuscle.
Concentration of urine refers to water
absorption from glomerular filtrate as a result
of hyperosmolarity in the medulla created by
counter-current mechanism in Henle's loop.
Urine is carried from kidney to bladder
through ureter.
Urinary bladder is concerned with storage of
urine.
83. Hormones secreted by the placenta to
maintain pregnancy are
(1) hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin
(2) hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin
(3) hCG, progestogens, estrogens,
glucocorticoids
(4) hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Placenta releases human chorionic
gonadotropic hormone (hCG) which
stimulates the Corpus luteum during
pregnancy to release estrogen and
progesterone and also rescues corpus
luteum from regression. Human placental
lactogen (hPL) is involved in growth of body of
mother and breast. Progesterone maintains
pregnancy, keeps the uterus silent by
increasing uterine threshold to contractile
stimuli.
84. The contraceptive ‘SAHELI’
(1) blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus,
preventing eggs from getting implanted.
(2) increases the concentration of estrogen
and prevents ovulation in females.
(3) is a post-coital contraceptive.
(4) is an IUD.
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Saheli is the first non-steroidal, once a week
pill. It contains centchroman and its
functioning is based upon selective Estrogen
Receptor modulation.
18
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-LL) HLAAC
85. The difference between spermiogenesis and
spermiation is
(1) In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed,
while in spermiation spermatozoa are
formed.
(2) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are
formed, while in spermiation spermatids
are formed.
(3) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are
formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa
are released from sertoli cells into the
cavity of seminiferous tubules.
(4) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from
sertoli cells are released into the cavity of
seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation
spermatozoa are formed.
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . Spermiogenesis is transformation of
spermatids into spermatozoa whereas
spermiation is the release of the sperms from
sertoli cells into the lumen of seminiferous
tubule.
86. The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived
from
(1) ectoderm and mesoderm
(2) endoderm and mesoderm
(3) ectoderm and endoderm
(4) mesoderm and trophoblast
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . The extraembryonic or foetal membranes are
amnion, chorion, allantois and Yolk sac.
Amnion is formed from mesoderm on outer
side and ectoderm on inner side.
Chorion is formed from trophoectoderm and
mesoderm whereas allantois and Yolk sac
membrane have mesoderm on outerside and
endoderm in inner side.
87. Which of the following gastric cells indirectly
help in erythropoiesis?
(1) Chief cells
(2) Mucous cells
(3) Parietal cells
(4) Goblet cells
Answer ( 3 )
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-LL) HLAAC

S o l . Parietal or oxyntic cell is a source of HCl and Answer ( 1 )

intrinsic factor. HCl converts iron present in Sol.  Signal for contraction increase Ca++ level
diet from ferric to ferrous form so that it can many folds in the sarcoplasm.
be absorbed easily and used during
 Ca++ now binds with sub-unit of troponin
erythropoiesis.
(troponin "C") which is masking the active
Intrinsic factor is essential for the absorption site on actin filament and displaces the
of vitamin B 12 and its deficiency causes sub-unit of troponin.
pernicious anaemia.  Once the active site is exposed, head of
the myosin attaches and initiate
88. Match the items given in Column I with those
contraction by sliding the actin over
in Column II and select the correct option
myosin.
given below :
90. Which of the following is an occupational
Column I Column II respiratory disorder?
a. Fibrinogen (i) Osmotic balance (1) Anthracis (2) Silicosis
(3) Emphysema (4) Botulism
b. Globulin (ii) Blood clotting
Answer ( 2 )
c. Albumin (iii) Defence
S o l . Silicosis is due to excess inhalation of silica
mechanism
dust in the workers involved grinding or stone
a b c breaking industries.
Long exposure can give rise to inflammation
(1) (iii) (ii) (i)
leading to fibrosis and thus causing serious
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) lung damage.
Anthrax is a serious infectious disease caused
(3) (ii) (iii) (i)
by Bacillus anthracis. It commonly affects
(4) (i) (iii) (ii) domestic and wild animals. Emphysema is a
chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are
Answer ( 3 )
damaged due to which respiratory surface is
S o l . Fibrinogen forms fibrin strands during decreased.
coagulation. These strands forms a network Botulism is a form of food poisoning caused
and the meshes of which are occupied by by Clostridium botulinum.
blood cells, this structure finally forms a clot. 91. Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis
Antibodies are derived from -Globulin fraction by
of plasma proteins which means globulins are (1) Green sulphur bacteria
involved in defence mechanisms. (2) Nostoc
Albumin is a plasma protein mainly (3) Chara
responsible for BCOP. (4) Cycas
89. Calcium is important in skeletal muscle Answer ( 1 )
contraction because it S o l . Green sulphur bacteria do not use H 2O as
source of proton, therefore they do not evolve
(1) Binds to troponin to remove the masking
O2.
of active sites on actin for myosin.
92. Pollen grains can be stored for several years
(2) Activates the myosin ATPase by binding to in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of
it.
(1) –120°C (2) –80°C
(3) Prevents the formation of bonds between (3) –160°C (4) –196°C
the myosin cross bridges and the actin Answer ( 4 )
filament.
S o l . Pollen grains can be stored for several years
(4) Detaches the myosin head from the actin in liquid nitrogen at –196°C
filament. (Cryopreservation)

19
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-LL) HLAAC

93. In which of the following forms is iron 97. Which of the following elements is responsible
absorbed by plants? for maintaining turgor in cells?
(1) Ferric (1) Magnesium (2) Sodium

(2) Ferrous (3) Calcium (4) Potassium

(3) Both ferric and ferrous Answer ( 4 )

(4) Free element S o l . Potassium helps in maintaining turgidity of

cells.
Answer ( 1 * )
98. The correct order of steps in Polymerase
S o l . Iron is absorbed by plants in the form of ferric Chain Reaction (PCR) is
ions. (According to NCERT)
(1) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
*Plants absorb iron in both form i.e. Fe++ and (2) Annealing, Extension, Denaturation
Fe+++. (Preferably Fe++)
(3) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
94. Which one of the following plants shows a
very close relationship with a species of moth, (4) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
where none of the two can complete its life Answer ( 3 )
cycle without the other? S o l . This technique is used for making multiple
(1) Hydrilla (2) Yucca copies of gene (or DNA) of interest in vitro.

(3) Viola (4) Banana Each cycle has three steps

Answer ( 2 ) (1) Denaturation

S o l . Yucca have an obligate mutualism with a (2) Primer annealing

species of moth i.e. Pronuba. (3) Extension of primer
95. What is the role of NAD + in cellular 99. Select the correct match
respiration? (1) Ribozyme - Nucleic acid
(1) It functions as an enzyme. (2) F2 × Recessive parent - Dihybrid cross
(2) It functions as an electron carrier. (3) G. Mendel - Transformation
(3) It is the final electron acceptor for (4) T.H. Morgan - Transduction
anaerobic respiration. Answer ( 1 )
(4) It is a nucleotide source for ATP synthesis. S o l . Ribozyme is a catalytic RNA, which is nucleic
Answer ( 2 ) acid.

S o l . In cellular respiration, NAD+ act as an electron 100. Use of bioresources by multinational

carrier. companies and organisations without
authorisation from the concerned country and
96. Double fertilization is its people is called
(1) Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen (1) Bio-infringement
tube with two different eggs
(2) Biopiracy
(2) Fusion of one male gamete with two polar
(3) Bioexploitation
nuclei
(4) Biodegradation
(3) Syngamy and triple fusion
Answer ( 2 )
(4) Fusion of two male gametes with one egg
S o l . Biopiracy is term used for or refer to the use
Answer ( 3 ) of bioresources by multinational companies
S o l . Double fertilization is a unique phenomenon and other organisation without proper
that occur in angiosperms only. authorisation from the countries and people
concerned with compensatory payment
Syngamy + Triple fusion = Double fertilization (definition of biopiracy given in NCERT).
20
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-LL) HLAAC

101. In India, the organisation responsible for
assessing the safety of introducing
genetically modified organisms for public use
is
(1) Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
(2) Council for Scientific and Industrial
Research (CSIR)
(3) Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee
(GEAC)
(4) Research Committee on Genetic
Manipulation (RCGM)
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . Indian Government has setup organisation
such as GEAC (Genetic Engineering Appraisal
Committee) which will make decisions
regarding the validity of GM research and
safety of introducing GM-organism for public
services. (Direct from NCERT).
102. A ‘new’ variety of rice was patented by a
foreign company, though such varieties have
been present in India for a long time. This is
related to
(1) Co-667
(2) Sharbati Sonora
(3) Basmati
(4) Lerma Rojo
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . In 1997, an American company got patent
rights on Basmati rice through the US patent
and trademark office that was actually been
derived from Indian farmer’s varieties.
S o l . Retrovirus is commonly used as vector for
introducing a DNA fragment in human
lymphocyte.
Gene therapy : Lymphocyte from blood of
patient are grown in culture outside the body,
a functional gene is introduced by using a
retroviral vector, into these lymphocyte.
104. Plants having little or no secondary growth
are
(1) Grasses
(2) Deciduous angiosperms
(3) Cycads
(4) Conifers
Answer (1)
S o l . Grasses are monocots and monocots usually
do not have secondary growth.
Palm like monocots have anomalous
secondary growth.
105. Select the wrong statement :
(1) Cell wall is present in members of Fungi
and Plantae
(2) Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetes
(3) Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the
cell in all kingdoms except Monera
(4) Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding
structures in Sporozoans
Answer ( 4 )

The diversity of rice in India is one of the S o l . Pseudopodia are locomotory structures in
richest in the world, 27 documented varieties sarcodines (Amoeboid)
of Basmati are grown in India. 106. Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem
Indian basmati was crossed with semi-dwarf are produced by
varieties and claimed as an invention or a
(1) Apical meristems
novelty.
Sharbati Sonora and Lerma Rojo are varieties (2) Vascular cambium
of wheat. (3) Axillary meristems
103. Which of the following is commonly used as a
(4) Phellogen
vector for introducing a DNA fragment in
human lymphocytes? Answer ( 2 )
(1) Retrovirus Sol. • Vascular cambium is partially secondary
(2) Ti plasmid • Form secondary xylem towards its inside
(3) pBR 322 and secondary phloem towards outsides.
(4)  phage • 4 – 10 times more secondary xylem is
Answer ( 1 ) produced than secondary phloem.

21
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-LL) HLAAC

107. Sweet potato is a modified 111. Offsets are produced by

(1) Stem (1) Meiotic divisions
(2) Adventitious root (2) Mitotic divisions
(3) Rhizome (3) Parthenogenesis
(4) Tap root (4) Parthenocarpy
Answer ( 2 ) Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Sweet potato is a modified adventitious root S o l . Offset is a vegetative part of a plant, formed
for storage of food by mitosis.
• Rhizomes are underground modified stem – Meiotic divisions do not occur in somatic
• Tap root is primary root directly elongated cells.
from the redicle – Parthenogenesis is the formation of
108. Pneumatophores occur in embryo from ovum or egg without
fertilisation.
(1) Halophytes
– Parthenocarpy is the fruit formed without
(2) Free-floating hydrophytes
fertilisation, (generally seedless)
(3) Submerged hydrophytes
112. Select the correct statement
(4) Carnivorous plants
(1) Franklin Stahl coined the term ‘‘linkage’’
Answer (1)
(2) Punnett square was developed by a British
Sol.  Halophytes like mangrooves have scientist
pneumatophores.
(3) Transduction was discovered by S. Altman
 Apogeotropic (–vely geotropic) roots
having lenticels called pneumathodes to (4) Spliceosomes take part in translation
uptake O2. Answer ( 2 )
109. Which of the following statements is correct? S o l . Punnett square was developed by a British
(1) Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall in geneticist, Reginald C. Punnett.
gymnosperms – Franklin Stahl proved semi-conservative
(2) Selaginella is heterosporous, while mode of replication.
Salvinia is homosporous – Transduction was discovered by Zinder
(3) Stems are usually unbranched in both and Laderberg.
Cycas and Cedrus – Spliceosome formation is part of post-
(4) Horsetails are gymnosperms transcriptional change in Eukaryotes

Answer ( 1 ) 113. Which of the following has proved helpful in

preserving pollen as fossils?
Sol. • Gymnosperms have naked ovule.
(1) Pollenkitt (2) Cellulosic intine
• Called phanerogams without womb/ovary
(3) Sporopollenin (4) Oil content
110. Casparian strips occur in
(1) Epidermis Answer ( 3 )

(2) Pericycle S o l . Sporopollenin cannot be degraded by

enzyme; strong acids and alkali, therefore it is
(3) Endodermis helpful in preserving pollen as fossil.
(4) Cortex
Pollenkitt – Help in insect pollination.
Answer ( 3 )
Cellulosic Intine – Inner sporoderm layer of
Sol. • Endodermis have casparian strip on radial pollen grain known as intine made up
and inner tangential wall. cellulose & pectin.
• It is suberin rich. Oil content – No role is pollen preservation.
22
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-LL) HLAAC

114. Select the correct match Answer ( 1 )

(1) Alec Jeffreys - Streptococcus S o l . Starch synthesis in pea is controlled by
pneumoniae pleiotropic gene.
(2) Alfred Hershey and - TMV Other options (2, 3 & 4) are correctly
matched.
Martha Chase
(3) Francois Jacob and - Lac operon 118. Winged pollen grains are present in

Jacques Monod (1) Mustard (2) Cycas

(4) Matthew Meselson - Pisum sativum (3) Pinus (4) Mango
and F. Stahl Answer (3)
Answer ( 3 ) S o l . In Pinus, winged pollen grains are present. It
S o l . Francois Jacob and Jacque Monod proposed is extended outer exine on two lateral sides to
model of gene regulation known as operon form the wings of pollen. It is the
model/lac operon. characteristic feature, only in Pinus.
– Alec Jeffreys – DNA fingerprinting Pollen grains of Mustard, Cycas & Mango are
technique. not winged shaped.
– Matthew Meselson and F. Stahl – Semi- 119. After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores
conservative DNA replication in E. coli. are produced exogenously in
– Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase – (1) Neurospora
Proved DNA as genetic material not
(2) Alternaria
protein
115. The experimental proof for semiconservative (3) Saccharomyces
replication of DNA was first shown in a (4) Agaricus
(1) Fungus (2) Bacterium Answer ( 4 )
(3) Virus (4) Plant Sol.  In Agaricus (a genus of basidiomycetes),
Answer ( 2 ) basidiospores or meiospores are
S o l . Semi-conservative DNA replication was first produced exogenously.
shown in Bacterium Escherichia coli by  Neurospora (a genus of ascomycetes)
Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl. produces ascospores as meiospores but
116. Which of the following flowers only once in its endogenously inside the ascus.)
life-time?  Alternaria (a genus of deuteromycetes)
(1) Bamboo species (2) Jackfruit does not produce sexual spores.
(3) Papaya (4) Mango  Saccharomyces (Unicellular
Answer ( 1 ) ascomycetes) produces ascospores,
S o l . Bamboo species are monocarpic i.e., flower endogenously.
generally only once in its life-time after 50- 120. Which one is wrongly matched?
100 years.
(1) Uniflagellate gametes – Polysiphonia
Jackfruit, papaya and mango are polycarpic
(2) Biflagellate zoospores – Brown algae
i.e., produce flowers and fruits many times in
their life-time. (3) Unicellular organism – Chlorella
117. Which of the following pairs is wrongly (4) Gemma cups – Marchantia
matched?
Answer ( 1 )
(1) Starch synthesis in pea : Multiple alleles
Sol. • Polysiphonia is a genus of red algae,
(2) ABO blood grouping : Co-dominance where asexual spores and gametes are
(3) T.H. Morgan : Linkage non-motile or non-flagellated.
(4) XO type sex : Grasshopper • Other options (2, 3 & 4) are correctly
determination matched
23
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-LL) HLAAC

121. Match the items given in Column I with those S o l . Ecological niche was termed by J. Grinnel. It
in Column II and select the correct option refers the functional role played by the
given below: organism where it lives.
Column I Column II 123. Which of the following is a secondary
pollutant?
a. Herbarium (i) It is a place having a
collection of preserved (1) CO (2) CO2
plants and animals (3) O3 (4) SO2
b. Key (ii) A list that enumerates Answer ( 3 )
methodically all the
species found in an area S o l . O3 (ozone) is a secondary pollutant. These are
with brief description formed by the reaction of primary pollutant.
aiding identification CO – Quantitative pollutant
c. Museum (iii) Is a place where dried CO2 – Primary pollutant
and pressed plant SO2 – Primary pollutant
specimens mounted on
sheets are kept 124. In stratosphere, which of the following
elements acts as a catalyst in degradation of
d. Catalogue (iv) A booklet containing a ozone and release of molecular oxygen?
list of characters and
(1) Carbon (2) Cl
their alternates which
are helpful in (3) Oxygen (4) Fe
identification of various Answer ( 2 )
taxa.
S o l . UV rays act on CFCs, releasing Cl atoms,
a b c d chlorine reacts with ozone in sequential
(1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii) method converting into oxygen
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) Carbon, oxygen and Fe are not related to
ozone layer depletion
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
125. World Ozone Day is celebrated on
(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(1) 5th June (2) 21st April
Answer ( 3 )
(3) 22nd April (4) 16th September
Sol. • Herbarium – Dried and pressed plant
specimen Answer (4)

• Key – Identification of various S o l . World Ozone day is celebrated on 16 th

taxa September.

• Museum – Plant and animal 5th June - World Environment Day

specimen are preserved 21st April - National Yellow Bat Day
• Catalogue – Alphabetical listing of 22nd April - National Earth Day
species
126. What type of ecological pyramid would be
122. Niche is obtained with the following data?
(1) all the biological factors in the organism's Secondary consumer : 120 g
environment Primary consumer : 60 g
(2) the physical space where an organism Primary producer : 10 g
lives
(1) Inverted pyramid of biomass
(3) the functional role played by the organism
where it lives (2) Pyramid of energy

(4) the range of temperature that the (3) Upright pyramid of biomass
organism needs to live (4) Upright pyramid of numbers
Answer ( 3 ) Answer ( 1 )
24
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-LL) HLAAC

Sol. • The given data depicts the inverted
pyramid of biomass, usually found in
aquatic ecosystem.
• Pyramid of energy is always upright
• Upright pyramid of biomass and numbers
are not possible, as the data depicts
primary producer is less than primary
consumer and this is less than secondary
consumers.
127. Natality refers to
(1) Death rate
(2) Birth rate
(3) Number of individuals entering a habitat
131. Which of the following is true for nucleolus?
(1) Larger nucleoli are present in dividing
cells
(2) It is a membrane-bound structure
(3) It is a site for active ribosomal RNA
synthesis
(4) It takes part in spindle formation
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . Nucleolus is a non membranous structure
and is a site of r-RNA synthesis.
132. The two functional groups characteristic of
sugars are
(1) Hydroxyl and methyl

(4) Number of individuals leaving the habitat (2) Carbonyl and methyl
(3) Carbonyl and hydroxyl
Answer ( 2 )
(4) Carbonyl and phosphate
S o l . Natality refers to birth rate.
Answer ( 3 )
• Death rate – Mortality
S o l . Sugar is a common term used to denote
• Number of individual – Immigration carbohydrate.
entering a habitat is
Carbohydrates are polyhydroxy aldehyde,
• Number of individual – Emigration ketone or their derivatives, which means they
leaving the habital have carbonyl and hydroxyl groups.
128. The Golgi complex participates in 133. Stomatal movement is not affected by
(1) Fatty acid breakdown (1) Temperature
(2) Formation of secretory vesicles (2) Light
(3) CO2 concentration
(3) Activation of amino acid
(4) O2 concentration
(4) Respiration in bacteria
Answer ( 4 )
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Light, temperature and concentration of CO2
S o l . Golgi complex, after processing releases affect opening and closing of stomata while
secretory vesicles from their trans-face. they are not affected by O2 concentration.
129. Stomata in grass leaf are 134. Which among the following is not a
(1) Dumb-bell shaped prokaryote?

(2) Kidney shaped (1) Saccharomyces (2) Mycobacterium

(3) Oscillatoria (4) Nostoc
(3) Barrel shaped
Answer ( 1 )
(4) Rectangular
S o l . Saccharomyces i.e. yeast is an eukaryote
Answer ( 1 ) (unicellular fungi)
S o l . Grass being a monocot, has Dumb-bell Mycobacterium – a bacterium
shaped stomata in their leaves.
Oscillatoria and Nostoc are cyanobacteria.
130. Which of the following is not a product of light 135. The stage during which separation of the
reaction of photosynthesis? paired homologous chromosomes begins is
(1) ATP (2) NADH (1) Pachytene (2) Diplotene
(3) Oxygen (4) NADPH (3) Zygotene (4) Diakinesis
Answer ( 2 ) Answer ( 2 )
S o l . ATP, NADPH and oxygen are products of light S o l . Synaptonemal complex disintegrates.
reaction, while NADH is a product of Terminalisation begins at diplotene stage i.e.
respiration process. chiasmata start to shift towards end.
25
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-LL) HLAAC

136. The volume (V) of a monatomic gas varies 3v v

with its temperature (T), as shown in the 
4l 2l 
graph. The ratio of work done by the gas, to
4l 2l
the heat absorbed by it, when it undergoes a  l  
change from state A to state B, is 32 3
2  20
  13.33 cm
3
138. At what temperature will the rms speed of
oxygen molecules become just sufficient for
escaping from the Earth's atmosphere?
(Given :
2 2 Mass of oxygen molecule (m) = 2.76 × 10–26 kg
(1) (2)
5 3
Boltzmann's constant kB = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1)
2 1 (1) 2.508 × 104 K (2) 8.360 × 104 K
(3) (4)
7 3 (3) 1.254 × 104 K (4) 5.016 × 104 K
Answer ( 1 ) Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Given process is isobaric S o l . Vescape = 11200 m/s
dQ  n Cp dT Say at temperature T it attains Vescape

3kB T
5  So,  11200 m/s
dQ  n  R  dT mO2
2 
On solving,
dW  P dV = n RdT
T = 8.360 × 104 K
dW nRdT 2
Required ratio    139. The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working
dQ 5  5
n  R  dT between the freezing point and boiling point of
2 
water, is
137. The fundamental frequency in an open organ (1) 26.8%
pipe is equal to the third harmonic of a closed
organ pipe. If the length of the closed organ (2) 20%
pipe is 20 cm, the length of the open organ (3) 12.5%
pipe is
(4) 6.25%
(1) 13.2 cm
Answer ( 1 )
(2) 8 cm
 T 
(3) 16 cm S o l . Efficiency of ideal heat engine,    1 2 
 T1 
(4) 12.5 cm
T2 : Sink temperature
Answer ( 1 )
T1 : Source temperature
S o l . For closed organ pipe, third harmonic
 T 
3v %   1  2   100
 T1 
4l 

For open organ pipe, fundamental frequency

 273 
  1   100
v  373 

2l 
 100 
Given,    100  26.8%
 373 
26
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-LL) HLAAC

140. A carbon resistor of (47 ± 4.7) k is to be marked n 

Sol. I  
with rings of different colours for its nr r
identification. The colour code sequence will be
So, I is independent of n and I is constant.
(1) Violet – Yellow – Orange – Silver
 I
(2) Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver
(3) Green – Orange – Violet – Gold
(4) Yellow – Green – Violet – Gold
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . (47 ± 4.7) k = 47 × 103 ± 10% O
n
 Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver 143. An em wave is propagating in a medium with

141. A set of 'n' equal resistors, of value 'R' each, are a velocity V  Viˆ . The instantaneous
connected in series to a battery of emf 'E' and
oscillating electric field of this em wave is
internal resistance 'R'. The current drawn is I.
along +y axis. Then the direction of oscillating
Now, the 'n' resistors are connected in parallel
magnetic field of the em wave will be along
to the same battery. Then the current drawn
from battery becomes 10 I. The value of 'n' is (1) –z direction
(1) 10 (2) 11 (2) +z direction
(3) 9 (4) 20
(3) –x direction
Answer ( 1 )
E (4) –y direction
Sol. I  ...(i)
nR  R Answer ( 2 )
E
10 I  ...(ii)   
R Sol. E  B  V
R
n

Dividing (ii) by (i), ˆ  (B)  Viˆ
(Ej)
(n  1)R
10  
1  So, B  Bkˆ
 n  1 R
 
Direction of propagation is along +z direction.
After solving the equation, n = 10
142. A battery consists of a variable number 'n' of 144. The magnetic potential energy stored in a
identical cells (having internal resistance 'r' certain inductor is 25 mJ, when the current in
each) which are connected in series. The the inductor is 60 mA. This inductor is of
terminals of the battery are short-circuited inductance
and the current I is measured. Which of the (1) 0.138 H (2) 138.88 H
graphs shows the correct relationship
between I and n? (3) 13.89 H (4) 1.389 H
Answer ( 3 )

I I S o l . Energy stored in inductor

1 2
(1) (2) U Ll
2
O O 1
n n 25  10 –3   L  (60  10 –3 )2
2

I I 25  2  106  10–3
L
3600
(3) (4) 500

O O 36
n n
Answer ( 1 ) = 13.89 H

27
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-LL) HLAAC

145. The refractive index of the material of a Sol.

f = 15 cm
prism is 2 and the angle of the prism is 30°.
O 40 cm
One of the two refracting surfaces of the
prism is made a mirror inwards, by silver
coating. A beam of monochromatic light
entering the prism from the other face will
retrace its path (after reflection from the 1 1 1
 
silvered surface) if its angle of incidence on f v1 u
the prism is
1 1 1
(1) 60° –  –
15 v1 40
(2) 45° 1 1 1
  
(3) Zero v1 –15 40
(4) 30° v1 = –24 cm

Answer ( 2 ) When object is displaced by 20 cm towards

mirror.
S o l . For retracing its path, light ray should be
Now,
normally incident on silvered face.
u2 = –20
1 1 1
 
f v2 u2
30°
1 1 1
 –
60° –15 v2 20
M
i 30° 1 1 1
 –
v2 20 15
v2 = –60 cm
 2
So, image shifts away from mirror by
= 60 – 24 = 36 cm.
147. The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy
Applying Snell's law at M, of an electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen
atom, is
sin i 2
 (1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : –1
sin30 1
(3) 1 : –2 (4) 2 : –1
1 Answer ( 2 )
 sin i  2 
2 S o l . KE = –(total energy)
1 So, Kinetic energy : total energy = 1 : –1
sin i  i.e. i = 45°
2 148. An electron of mass m with an initial velocity

146. An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm V  V0 ˆi (V 0 > 0) enters an electric field
from a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm.
If the object is displaced through a distance 
of 20 cm towards the mirror, the E  –E0 ˆi (E0 = constant > 0) at t = 0. If 0 is its
displacement of the image will be de-Broglie wavelength initially, then its de-
Broglie wavelength at time t is
(1) 30 cm away from the mirror
0  eE0 
(2) 36 cm away from the mirror (1) (2) 0  1  t
 eE0   mV0 
(3) 36 cm towards the mirror 1 t
 mV 0 
(4) 30 cm towards the mirror (3) 0 (4) 0t
Answer ( 2 ) Answer ( 1 )

28
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-LL) HLAAC

S o l . Initial de-Broglie wavelength Divide (i) by (ii),

h 1 v12
0  
mV0 4 v22
E0 v1 1

V0 v2 2
F 150. For a radioactive material, half-life is 10
Acceleration of electron minutes. If initially there are 600 number of
eE0 nuclei, the time taken (in minutes) for the
a disintegration of 450 nuclei is
m
Velocity after time ‘t’ (1) 20 (2) 10
(3) 15 (4) 30
⎛ eE0 ⎞
V  ⎜ V0  t⎟
⎝ m ⎠ Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Number of nuclei remaining = 600 – 450 = 150
h h
So,   
mV ⎛ eE ⎞ N ⎛ 1⎞
n
m ⎜ V0  0 t⎟ 
⎝ m ⎠ N0 ⎜⎝ 2 ⎟⎠

h t
 150 ⎛ 1 ⎞ t 1/2
⎡ eE0 ⎤ 
mV0 ⎢1  t⎥ 600 ⎜⎝ 2 ⎟⎠
⎣ mV0 ⎦
t
2
0 ⎛ 1⎞ ⎛ 1 ⎞ t 1/2
 ⎜2⎟  ⎜2⎟
⎡ eE0 ⎤ ⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠
⎢1  t⎥
⎣ mV0 ⎦ t = 2t1/2 = 2 × 10
149. When the light of frequency 20 (where 0 is = 20 minute
threshold frequency), is incident on a metal 151. Unpolarised light is incident from air on a
plate, the maximum velocity of electrons plane surface of a material of refractive index
emitted is v 1 . When the frequency of the ''. At a particular angle of incidence 'i', it is
incident radiation is increased to 5 0, the found that the reflected and refracted rays are
maximum velocity of electrons emitted from perpendicular to each other. Which of the
the same plate is v2. The ratio of v1 to v2 is following options is correct for this situation?
(1) 1 : 2
(1) Reflected light is polarised with its
(2) 1 : 4 electric vector parallel to the plane of
(3) 2 : 1 incidence
(4) 4 : 1 (2) Reflected light is polarised with its
electric vector perpendicular to the plane
Answer ( 1 )
of incidence
1
S o l . E  W0  mv2 ⎛ 1⎞
2 (3) i  tan1 ⎜ ⎟
⎝⎠
1
h(20 )  h0  mv12
2 ⎛ 1⎞
(4) i  sin1 ⎜ ⎟
1 ⎝⎠
h 0  mv12 …(i)
2 Answer ( 2 )
1
h(50 )  h0  mv22 S o l . When reflected light rays and refracted rays
2 are perpendicular, reflected light is polarised
1 with electric field vector perpendicular to the
4h0  mv22 …(ii)
2 plane of incidence.

29
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-LL) HLAAC

f0
S o l . For telescope, angular magnification =
fE
i
So, focal length of objective lens should be
large.

D
Angular resolution = should be large.
1.22

Also, tan i =  (Brewster angle) So, objective should have large focal length
(f0) and large diameter D.
152. In Young's double slit experiment the
separation d between the slits is 2 mm, the 154. In the circuit shown in the figure, the input
wavelength  of the light used is 5896 Å and voltage Vi is 20 V, VBE = 0 and VCE = 0. The
distance D between the screen and slits is values of IB, IC and  are given by
100 cm. It is found that the angular width of
the fringes is 0.20°. To increase the fringe 20 V
angular width to 0.21° (with same  and D) the
separation between the slits needs to be RC 4 k
changed to C
RB
(1) 1.8 mm Vi
500 k B
(2) 1.9 mm E

(3) 1.7 mm
(4) 2.1 mm
(1) IB = 40 A, IC = 10 mA,  = 250
Answer ( 2 )
(2) IB = 25 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 200
 (3) IB = 40 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 125
S o l . Angular width 
d
(4) IB = 20 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 250

 Answer ( 3 )
0.20  …(i)
2 mm S o l . VBE = 0
VCE = 0

0.21  …(ii) Vb = 0
d
20 V
0.20 d
Dividing we get, 0.21  2 mm IC RC = 4 k

RB
 d = 1.9 mm Vi Vb
Ib 500 k
153. An astronomical refracting telescope will
have large angular magnification and high
angular resolution, when it has an objective
lens of
(20  0)
(1) Small focal length and large diameter IC 
4  103
(2) Large focal length and small diameter IC = 5 × 10–3 = 5 mA
(3) Small focal length and small diameter Vi = VBE + IBRB
(4) Large focal length and large diameter Vi = 0 + IBRB
Answer ( 4 ) 20 = IB × 500 × 103

30
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-LL) HLAAC

20 S o l . Current sensitivity
IB   40 A
500  103 NBA
IS 
IC 25  10 3 C
   125
Ib 40  106 Voltage sensitivity
155. In a p-n junction diode, change in temperature NBA
VS 
due to heating CRG
(1) Affects only reverse resistance
So, resistance of galvanometer
(2) Affects only forward resistance
IS 51 5000
RG     250 
(3) Affects the overall V - I characteristics of VS 20  103 20
p-n junction
158. A metallic rod of mass per unit length
(4) Does not affect resistance of p-n junction
0.5 kg m –1 is lying horizontally on a smooth
Answer ( 3 ) inclined plane which makes an angle of 30°
S o l . Due to heating, number of electron-hole pairs with the horizontal. The rod is not allowed to
will increase, so overall resistance of diode slide down by flowing a current through it when
will change. a magnetic field of induction 0.25 T is acting on
it in the vertical direction. The current flowing
Due to which forward biasing and reversed in the rod to keep it stationary is
biasing both are changed.
(1) 7.14 A (2) 5.98 A
156. In the combination of the following gates the
output Y can be written in terms of inputs A (3) 11.32 A (4) 14.76 A
and B as
Answer ( 3 )
A
S o l . For equilibrium,
B °
B 30
Y mg sin30  Il Bcos 30 s
co
llB
mg °
I tan30 30 30° llB
lB n
(1) A  B (2) A  B  A  B si
g
0.5  9.8 m 30°
(3) A  B (4) A  B  A  B   11.32 A
0.25  3
Answer ( 2 )
159. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 100 F and a
A resistor 50  are connected in series across
Sol. A AB a source of emf, V = 10 sin 314 t. The power
B loss in the circuit is
B Y
A (1) 0.79 W (2) 0.43 W

AB (3) 1.13 W (4) 2.74 W

B
Answer ( 1 )
Y  (A  B  A  B) 2
V 
157. Current sensitivity of a moving coil S o l . Pav   RMS  R
galvanometer is 5 div/mA and its voltage  Z 
sensitivity (angular deflection per unit voltage 2
 1 
applied) is 20 div/V. The resistance of the Z  R2   L   56 
galvanometer is  C 
(1) 40  (2) 25  2
 
(3) 500  (4) 250  10
 Pav    50  0.79 W
Answer ( 4 )

  
2 56 

31
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-LL) HLAAC

160. A thin diamagnetic rod is placed vertically 163. An electron falls from rest through a vertical
between the poles of an electromagnet. When distance h in a uniform and vertically upward
the current in the electromagnet is switched directed electric field E. The direction of
on, then the diamagnetic rod is pushed up, out electric field is now reversed, keeping its
of the horizontal magnetic field. Hence the magnitude the same. A proton is allowed to
rod gains gravitational potential energy. The fall from rest in it through the same vertical
work required to do this comes from distance h. The time of fall of the electron, in
(1) The current source comparison to the time of fall of the proton is
(2) The magnetic field (1) Smaller (2) 5 times greater
(3) The induced electric field due to the (3) Equal (4) 10 times greater
changing magnetic field
Answer ( 1 )
(4) The lattice structure of the material of the
rod 1 eE 2
Sol. h  t
Answer ( 1 ) 2 m
S o l . Energy of current source will be converted 2hm
 t
into potential energy of the rod. eE
161. A tuning fork is used to produce resonance in
 t  m as ‘e’ is same for electron and
a glass tube. The length of the air column in
proton.
this tube can be adjusted by a variable piston.
At room temperature of 27ºC two successive ∵ Electron has smaller mass so it will take
resonances are produced at 20 cm and 73 cm smaller time.
of column length. If the frequency of the 164. A pendulum is hung from the roof of a
tuning fork is 320 Hz, the velocity of sound in sufficiently high building and is moving freely
air at 27ºC is to and fro like a simple harmonic oscillator.
(1) 330 m/s (2) 339 m/s The acceleration of the bob of the pendulum
(3) 300 m/s (4) 350 m/s is 20 m/s2 at a distance of 5 m from the mean
position. The time period of oscillation is
Answer ( 2 )
(1) 2 s (2)  s
S o l . v = 2 () [L2 – L1]
(3) 1 s (4) 2 s
= 2 × 320 [73 – 20] × 10–2
= 332 ms–1 Answer ( 2 )

= 339 m/s S o l . |a| = 2y

162. The electrostatic force between the metal  20 = 2(5)
plates of an isolated parallel plate capacitor   = 2 rad/s
C having a charge Q and area A, is
2 2
(1) Independent of the distance between the T  s
plates  2
(2) Linearly proportional to the distance 165. The power radiated by a black body is P and
between the plates it radiates maximum energy at wavelength, 0.
If the temperature of the black body is now
(3) Inversely proportional to the distance
changed so that it radiates maximum energy
between the plates
3
(4) Proportional to the square root of the at wavelength  0 , the power radiated by it
4
distance between the plates becomes nP. The value of n is
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . For isolated capacitor Q = Constant 3 4
(1) (2)
4 3
Q2
Fplate 
2A0 81 256
(3) (4)
256 81
F is Independent of the distance between
plates. Answer ( 4 )

32
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-LL) HLAAC

S o l . We know, 167. A small sphere of radius 'r' falls from rest in a

viscous liquid. As a result, heat is produced
max T  constant (Wien's law) due to viscous force. The rate of production of
heat when the sphere attains its terminal
So, max1 T1  max2 T2 velocity, is proportional to
(1) r3 (2) r2
3
 0 T  0 T (3) r4 (4) r5
4
Answer ( 4 )
4
 T  T 2
S o l . Power = 6 rVT iVT  6 rVT
3
4 4
P2  T   4 256 VT  r 2
So,     
P1  T  3 81
 Power  r 5
166. Two wires are made of the same material and 168. A sample of 0.1 g of water at 100°C and
have the same volume. The first wire has normal pressure (1.013 × 105 Nm–2) requires
cross-sectional area A and the second wire 54 cal of heat energy to convert to steam at
has cross-sectional area 3A. If the length of 100°C. If the volume of the steam produced is
the first wire is increased by l on applying a 167.1 cc, the change in internal energy of the
force F, how much force is needed to stretch sample, is
the socond wire by the same amount?
(1) 104.3 J (2) 208.7 J
(1) 9 F (2) 6 F
(3) 84.5 J (4) 42.2 J
(3) F (4) 4 F Answer ( 2 )
Answer ( 1 ) S o l . Q = U + W
S o l . Wire 1 :  54 × 4.18 = U + 1.013 × 105(167.1 × 10–6 – 0)
 U = 208.7 J
F
A, 3l
169. A body initially at rest and sliding along a
Wire 2 : frictionless track from a height h (as shown in
the figure) just completes a vertical circle of
F diameter AB = D. The height h is equal to
3A, l

For wire 1,
h
B
 F 
l    3l …(i)
 AY 
A
For wire 2, 3
(1) D (2) D
2
F l
Y 5 7
3A l (3) D (4) D
4 5
Answer ( 3 )
 F 
 l   l …(ii)
 3AY  Sol.

From equation (i) & (ii), h

B
 F   F 
l    3l   3AY  l vL
 AY    A
As track is frictionless, so total mechanical
 F  9F energy will remain constant
33
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-LL) HLAAC

T.M.EI =T.M.EF S o l . According to law of conservation of linear

momentum,
1
0  mgh  mvL2  0
2 mv  4m  0  4mv  0

vL2 v
v 
h 4
2g
v
For completing the vertical circle, vL  5gR Relative velocity of separation 4
e 
Relative velocity of approach v
5gR 5 5
h  R D 1
2g 2 4 e  0.25
4
170. Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a thin
circular disk) and C : (a circular ring), each 172. Which one of the following statements is
have the same mass M and radius R. They all incorrect?
spin with the same angular speed  about (1) Rolling friction is smaller than sliding
their own symmetry axes. The amounts of friction.
work (W) required to bring them to rest, would
satisfy the relation (2) Limiting value of static friction is directly
proportional to normal reaction.
(1) WC > WB > WA
(3) Coefficient of sliding friction has
(2) WA > WB > WC dimensions of length.
(3) WA > WC > WB
(4) Frictional force opposes the relative
(4) WB > WA > WC motion.
Answer ( 1 ) Answer ( 3 )
S o l . Work done required to bring them rest S o l . Coefficient of sliding friction has no
W = KE dimension.
f = sN
1
W  I2
2 f
 s 
N
W  I for same 
173. The kinetic energies of a planet in an
2 1
WA : WB : WC  MR2 : MR2 : MR2 elliptical orbit about the Sun, at positions A, B
5 2 and C are KA, KB and KC, respectively. AC is
the major axis and SB is perpendicular to AC
2 1 at the position of the Sun S as shown in the
= : :1
5 2 figure. Then

= 4 : 5 : 10
B
 WC > WB > WA
171. A moving block having mass m, collides with A C
S
another stationary block having mass 4m. The
lighter block comes to rest after collision.
When the initial velocity of the lighter block is
(1) KA < KB < KC
v, then the value of coefficient of restitution
(e) will be (2) KA > KB > KC
(1) 0.5 (2) 0.25 (3) KB > KA > KC
(3) 0.4 (4) 0.8 (4) KB < KA < KC
Answer ( 2 ) Answer ( 2 )
34
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-LL) HLAAC

Sol. B 176. If the mass of the Sun were ten times smaller
VC
perihelion and the universal gravitational constant were
A C ten times larger in magnitude, which of the
S
aphelion following is not correct?
VA
(1) Raindrops will fall faster
Point A is perihelion and C is aphelion.
(2) Walking on the ground would become
So, VA > VB > VC
more difficult
So, KA > KB > KC
(3) ‘g’ on the Earth will not change
174. A solid sphere is in rolling motion. In rolling
(4) Time period of a simple pendulum on the
motion a body possesses translational kinetic
Earth would decrease
energy (K t ) as well as rotational kinetic
energy (K r ) simultaneously. The ratio Answer ( 3 )
Kt : (Kt + Kr) for the sphere is S o l . If Universal Gravitational constant becomes
(1) 7 : 10 ten times, then G = 10 G
(2) 5 : 7 So, acceleration due to gravity increases.
(3) 2 : 5 i.e. (3) is wrong option.
(4) 10 : 7 177. A student measured the diameter of a small
steel ball using a screw gauge of least count
Answer ( 2 )
0.001 cm. The main scale reading is 5 mm and
1 zero of circular scale division coincides with
S o l . Kt  mv 2
2 25 divisions above the reference level. If
screw gauge has a zero error of –0.004 cm,
2
1 1 1 1 2  v  the correct diameter of the ball is
Kt  Kr  mv2  I2  mv2   mr 2  
2 2 2 25  r  (1) 0.521 cm
(2) 0.525 cm
7
 mv2 (3) 0.529 cm
10
(4) 0.053 cm
Kt 5
So,  Answer ( 3 )
Kt  Kr 7
S o l . Diameter of the ball
175. A solid sphere is rotating freely about its = MSR + CSR × (Least count) – Zero error
symmetry axis in free space. The radius of the
= 0.5 cm + 25 × 0.001 – (–0.004)
sphere is increased keeping its mass same.
Which of the following physical quantities = 0.5 + 0.025 + 0.004
would remain constant for the sphere? = 0.529 cm
(1) Angular velocity 
178. The moment of the force, F  4iˆ  5 ˆj  6kˆ at
(2) Moment of inertia (2, 0, –3), about the point (2, –2, –2), is given
(3) Angular momentum by

(4) Rotational kinetic energy (1) 8iˆ  4 ˆj  7kˆ

Answer ( 3 )
(2) 4iˆ  ˆj  8kˆ
S o l . ex = 0

dL (3) 7iˆ  4 ˆj  8kˆ

So, 0
dt
i.e. L = constant (4) 7iˆ  8ˆj  4kˆ

So angular momentum remains constant. Answer ( 3 )

35
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-LL) HLAAC

Sol. Y For t = 2 s to t = 3 s,

1
S3  0   6(1)2  3 m ...(iii)
F 2

r  r0 Total displacement S = S1 + S2 + S3 = 3 m
A
P
3
Average velocity   1 ms 1
r0 3
r
Total distance travelled = 9 m
O X
 9
   Average speed   3 ms 1
  (r  r0 )  F ...(i) 3
  ˆ  (2iˆ  2 ˆj  2k)
ˆ
r  r0  (2iˆ  0ˆj  3k) 180. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth
inclined wedge ABC of inclination  as shown
 0iˆ  2 ˆj  kˆ in the figure. The wedge is given an
ˆi ˆj kˆ acceleration 'a' towards the right. The
 relation between a and  for the block to
  0 2 1  7iˆ  4 ˆj  8kˆ remain stationary on the wedge is
4 5 6
A
179. A toy car with charge q moves on a m
frictionless horizontal plane surface under 
the influence of a uniform
 electric field E .
a
Due to the force q E , its velocity increases

from 0 to 6 m/s in one second duration. At
C B
that instant the direction of the field is
reversed. The car continues to move for two g g
(1) a  (2) a 
more seconds under the influence of this field. cosec  sin 
The average velocity and the average speed
of the toy car between 0 to 3 seconds are (3) a = g tan  (4) a = g cos 
respectively Answer ( 3 )
(1) 2 m/s, 4 m/s (2) 1 m/s, 3 m/s Sol. N cos
(3) 1.5 m/s, 3 m/s (4) 1 m/s, 3.5 m/s
N
Answer ( 2 )

Sol. t = 0 a t=1 –a
t=2

A –1 B ma N sin
v=0 v = 6 ms v=0
C (pseudo) 
–a
t=3
–1
v = –6 ms
mg a

60
Acceleration a   6 ms2 In non-inertial frame,
1
For t = 0 to t = 1 s, N sin  = ma ...(i)

1 N cos  = mg ...(ii)
S1   6(1)2 = 3 m ...(i)
2 a
tan  
For t = 1 s to t = 2 s, g
1 a = g tan 
S2  6.1   6(1)2  3 m ...(ii)
2

‰ ‰ ‰

36