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In the play Macbeth b y William Shakespeare, our titular main player is encouraged to do
some pretty foul things by his wife, Lady Macbeth. She insists that he kill the sitting king. She
insists that he hide the murder. She then insists that he steal the throne. All this treachery and
intrigue may paint Lady Macbeth as a mastermind of ill will, who- because of her badness-
deserves what suffering comes her way. However, when one takes a closer look at the
circumstances and relationships in the play, the argument that Lady Macbeth actually emerges as
What may first serve to absolve Lady Macbeth is her strict adherence to gender norms
and roles. These exist outside of her control, but nonetheless influence how she treats herself and
others. Take for example Lady Macbeth’s thoughts on her own gender. She feels womanhood is
an impediment to her success. Thus, she asks the spiritual world to “unsex [her] here.” (I.v.48)
She feels that being a woman will not allow her to get ahead and that the only way to achieve
upward mobility in her life would be to break the gendered bonds that hold her. Seen at this
angle, it is obvious that Lady Macbeth holds fast to the idea that gender roles play into one’s own
success. Asking to be unsexed establishes her gender biases but does not prove her to be the
victim of them. This comes when her own perception of what men are responsible for sets in
motion the series of events that spell her doom. She insists that Macbeth continue to consolidate
power, asking “Are you a man?” (III.iv.70) Lady Macbeth is shown to be a strong believer in the
idea that a real man seeks a better life for his wife and provides for the family. This belief is,
rather obviously, not her own but the result of what society as a whole expects from men. When
Macbeth does become king, his killing and cruelty drives Lady Macbeth to be so overcome with
Robert Summers-Berger
guilt that she takes her own life. One must ask themselves, what is she actually guilty of? It is my
contention that she cannot be blamed for expecting Macbeth to kill Duncan for the simple fact
that the ideas surrounding the murder- things like male chauvinism and the provider’s complex-
were not her rhetoric originally. They were long standing biases that dictate what many people,
not just Lady Macbeth, expect men to do. She is simply a product of her society.
Her status as a victim is further solidified when one realizes that the very worst Lady
Macbeth can be blamed for pales in comparison to what is carried out by her husband. To be
clear, I do indeed believe what she says in Act I directly resulted in the king’s death. Whether or
not those words are her fault is argued above. I do believe however, that the situation spiraled in
ways she could not have possibly foreseen. Take for example the complete demolition of
Macduff's family at the behest of Macbeth. Where the very worst wish Lady Macbeth articulates
in the whole show is the quick, clean removal of a political roadblock, Macbeth becomes
responsible for the “savage slaughter,” (IV.iii.208) of another man’s wife and children. Being
that her desire for her husband to become king was the inciting incident to this play, it might at
first seem that Lady Macbeth is roped into all of his misdeeds. However, this cannot possibly be
the case. Lady Macbeth should be seen as the victim of her husband's actions, for the plain
reason that she had no hand in the murder of anyone beside Duncan, nor did she spur the
annihilation of Macduff’s kin. As stated earlier, she feels responsible for all the foul play, but in
reality can only be pinned to one transgression. The fact that she dies in response to guilt for
actions that do not have to do with her is a clear indicator that she is a victim of the ambition that
Put simply, Lady Macbeth’s end does not fit what she took part in throughout the play.
Even if she is at fault for the death of Duncan, she saw harm come to her for acts that were solely
Macbeth’s. After her husband becomes king she suffers sleepwalking, night terrors, and a
generally tormented disposition. While starting in her sleep she admits how she feels guilty for
how “Banquo’s buried,” (V.i.45) even though she had no hand in his demise. Lady Macbeth
must be a seen as a victim, for she has lost sleep and a sound mind in reaction to unjust actions
In order for a person to be considered a victim they must first be innocent of the action
that causes them harm. Lady Macbeth fits this bill perfectly. She cannot be blamed for expecting
Macbeth to take the throne, for this expectation is forged in pre-existing ideas of what manhood
entails that Lady Macbeth cannot help but subscribe to. She cannot be blamed for the ensuing
murders because, beyond the fall of Duncan, she had nothing to do with the killings involving
Macduff’s family or Banquo. Nonetheless, she loses sleep and becomes a Non Compos Mentis
case and even kills herself for the guilt of being roped into her husband's actions. The script of
the play absolves Lady Macbeth and makes her horrible end unjust, placing her as the true victim