EAMCET

Time: 3 Hours Batch: ROOKS, JACKS & STRIKERS

Marks: 160 Date: 04-08-2018

INSTRUCTIONS
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
A. General:
1. This question paper contains 8 pages having 160 questions.
2. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
3. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgets in any form are not
allowed.
4. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately.
5. Do not tamper / mutilate the ORS.
6. The result of this test shall be declared on or before 05/08/2018
7. The following shall be the options for all the “Assertion and Reasoning” type questions:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false (D) A is false but R is true
B. Filling the ORS:
8. Write your roll no., name and sign with pen in appropriate boxes. Do not write these anywhere else.
9. Darken the appropriate bubbles below your ID
C. Question paper format and Marking scheme:
10. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
11. For every correct choice marked, 1 mark shall be awarded and no marks shall be awarded in all other cases
PART - I: PHYSICS
1. The potential difference between points A and B of adjoining figure is
5 5
2
(A) V A B
3
8 2V
(B) V 5 5
9
4 5
(C) V
D
5
C
3
(D) 2 V
2. Two resistors of resistance R1 and R 2 having R1  R 2 are connected in parallel. For equivalent
resistance R , the correct statement is
(A) R  R1  R 2 (B) R1  R  R 2 (C) R 2  R  ( R1  R 2 ) (D) R  R1

3. A wire of resistance R is divided in 10 equal parts. These parts are connected in parallel, the
equivalent resistance of such connection will be
(A) 0.01 R (B) 0.1 R (C) 10 R (D) 100 R
4. The current in the adjoining circuit will be

1 i
(A) ampere
45
30 30
1 2V
(B) ampere
15
30
1
(C) ampere
10
1
(D) ampere
5
5. There are 8 equal resistances R. Two are connected in parallel, such four groups are connected in
series, the total resistance of the system will be
(A) R / 2 (B) 2 R (C) 4R (D) 8R
6. Three resistances of one ohm each are connected in parallel. Such connection is again connected
with 2 / 3  resistor in series. The resultant resistance will be
5 3 2
(A)  (B)  (C) 1 (D) 
3 2 3
7. The lowest resistance which can be obtained by connecting 10 resistors each of 1/10 ohm is
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 2 |MOCK TEST SERIES
(A) 1 / 250  (B) 1 / 200  (C) 1 / 100  (D) 1 / 10 

8. The reading of the ammeter as per figure shown is 2

1
(A) A
2 2V
8
A
3
(B) A 2
4
1 2
(C) A
2
(D) 2 A
9. Three resistors each of 2 ohm are connected together in a triangular shape. The resistance
between any two vertices will be
(A) 4/3 ohm (B) 3/4 ohm (C) 3 ohm (D) 6 ohm
10. There are similar conductors each of resistance R . The resultant resistance comes out to be x
n
when connected in parallel. If they are connected in series, the resistance comes out to be

(A) x / n 2 (B) n 2 x (C) x /n (D) nx

11. Equivalent resistance between A and B will be 3 3

(A) 2 ohm
3 3
3 3
(B) 18 ohm
(C) 6 ohm A B
3 3
(D) 3.6 ohm
12. A wire has a resistance of 12 ohm. It is bent in the form of equilateral triangle. The effective
resistance between any two corners of the triangle is
(A) 9 ohms (B) 12 ohms (C) 6 ohms (D) 8/3 ohms
13. The effective resistance between the points A and B in the figure is D
3 3
(A) 5 
6
(B) 2  A C

(C) 3 
3 3
(D) 4  B
14. Three resistances of magnitude 2, 3 and 5 ohm are connected in parallel to a battery of 10 volts
and of negligible resistance. The potential difference across 3  resistance will be

(A) 2 volts (B) 3 volts (C) 5 volts (D) 10 volts

15. A current of 2 A flows in a system of conductors as shown. The potential difference (V A  V B ) will
be A

2 3
2A
(A) 2 V
D C
(B) 1 V 3 2
(C) 1 V B

(D) 2 V
16. Referring to the figure below, the effective resistance of the network is
(A) 2 r
r r r
(B) 4 r
r
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r r r
 3 |MOCK TEST SERIES
(C) 10 r
(D) 5r / 2
6
17. Two resistances are joined in parallel whose resultant is ohm. One of the resistance wire is
8
broken and the effective resistance becomes 2  . Then the resistance in ohm of the wire that got
broken was
(A) 3/5 (B) 2 (C) 6/5 (D) 3
18. Given three equal resistors, how many different combination of all the three resistors can be
made
(A) Six (B) Five (C) Four (D) Three
19. Lamps used for household lighting are connected in
(A) Series (B) Parallel (C)Mixed circuit (D) None of the above
20. The equivalent resistance of resistors connected in series is always
(A) Equal to the mean of component resistors
(B) Less than the lowest of component resistors
(C) In between the lowest and the highest of component resistors
(D) Equal to sum of component resistors
21. A cell of negligible resistance and e.m.f. 2 volts is connected to series combination of 2, 3 and 5
ohm. The potential difference in volts between the terminals of 3 ohm resistance will be

(A) 0.6 (B) 2/3 (C) 3 (D) 6

22. Four wires of equal length and of resistances 10 ohms each are connected in the form of a square.
The equivalent resistance between two opposite corners of the square is
(A) 10 ohm (B) 40 ohm (C) 20 ohm (D) 10/4 ohm
23. Two resistors are connected (A) in series (B) in parallel. The equivalent resistance in the two cases
are 9 ohm and 2 ohm respectively. Then the resistances of the component resistors are
(A) 2 ohm and 7 ohm (B) 3 ohm and 6 ohm (C) 3 ohm and 9 ohm (D) 5 ohm and 4 ohm
24. Resistors of 1, 2, 3 ohm are connected in the form of a triangle. If a 1.5 volt cell of negligible
internal resistance is connected across 3 ohm resistor, the current flowing through this resistance
will be
(A) 0.25 amp (B) 0.5 amp (C) 1.0 amp (D) 1.5 amp
25. Resistances of 6 ohm each are connected in the manner shown in adjoining figure. With the
current 0.5 ampere as shown in figure, the potential difference VP  VQ is
6 6 6

P 6 Q
0.5 A
6 6

(A) 3.6 V (B) 6.0 V (C) 3.0 V (D) 7.2 V

26. The equivalent resistance of the arrangement of resistances shown in adjoining figure between
the points A and B is

8
(A) 6 ohm 16 20

(B) 8 ohm 16

A B
(C) 16 ohm 9
6
(D) 24 ohm 18

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 4 |MOCK TEST SERIES
27. In the network of resistors shown in the adjoining figure, the equivalent resistance between A and
B is

3 3 3 3 3 3
A B

3 3 3 3 3 3

(A) 54 ohm (B) 18 ohm (C) 36 ohm (D) 9 ohm

28. A wire is broken in four equal parts. A packet is formed by keeping the four wires together. The
resistance of the packet in comparison to the resistance of the wire will be
1
(A) Equal (B) One fourth (C) One eight (D) th
16
29. Four resistances are connected in a circuit in the given figure. The electric current flowing
through 4 ohm and 6 ohm resistance is respectively
4 6

(A) 2 amp and 4 amp

4 6
(B) 1 amp and 2 amp
(C) 1 amp and 1 amp
(D) 2 amp and 2 amp 20V

30. An infinite sequence of resistance is shown in the figure. The resultant resistance between A and
R1 R1 R1 R1 R1
B will be, when R1  1 ohm and R 2  2 ohm A
(A) Infinity (B) 1 
R2 R2 R2 R2 R2
(C) 2  (D) 1 .5 
B
3r
31. A wire of radius r has resistance R. If it is stretched to a radius of , its resistance becomes
4
9R 16 R 81R 256 R
(A) (B) (C) (D)
16 9 256 81
32. The resistance of a conductor increases with
(A)Increase in length (B) Increase in temperature
(C) Decrease in cross–sectional area (D) All of these
33. A copper wire has a square cross-section, 2.0 mm on a side. It carries a current of 8 A and the
density of free electrons is 8  10 28 m 3 . The drift speed of electrons is equal to
(A) 0.156 × 10 3 m.s–1 (B) 0.156 × 10 2 m.s–1 (C)3.12 × 10 3 m.s–1 (D)3.12 × 10 2 m.s–1
34. Two wires of same material have length L and 2L and cross–sectional areas 4A and A respectively.
The ratio of their specific resistance would be
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 8 : 1 (C) 1 : 8 (D) 1:1
35. When a current flows through a conductor its temperature
(A) May increase or decrease (B)Remains same (C) Decreases (D) Increases
36. What length of the wire of specific resistance 48  10  m is needed to make a resistance of 4.2 
8

(diameter of wire = 0.4 mm)

(A) 4.1 m (B) 3.1 m (C) 2.1 m (D) 1.1 m
37. A strip of copper and another of germanium are cooled from room temperature to 80 K. The
resistance of
(A) Each of these increases
(B) Each of these decreases
(C) Copper strip increases and that of germanium decreases
(D) Copper strip decreases and that of germanium increases

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38. The length of a given cylindrical wire is increased by 100 %. Due to the consequent decrease in
diameter the change in the resistance of the wire will be
(A) 300 % (B) 200 % (C) 100 % (D) 50 %
39. Express which of the following setups can be used to verify Ohm’s law
A

(A) (B) V
V A

A V
(C) (D)

V A
40. We have two wires A and B of same mass and same material. The diameter of the wire A is half
of that B. If the resistance of wire A is 24 ohm then the resistance of wire B will be
(A) 12 Ohm (B) 3.0 Ohm (C)1.5 Ohm (D) None of the above
41. In Young's double slit interference experiment, the slit separation is made 3 fold. The fringe width
becomes
(A) 1/3 times (B) 1/9 times (C) 3 times (D) 9 times
42. In a certain double slit experimental arrangement interference fringes of width 1.0 mm each are
observed when light of wavelength 5000 Å is used. Keeping the set up unaltered, if the source is
replaced by another source of wavelength 6000 Å, the fringe width will be
(A) 0.5 mm (B) 1.0 mm (C) 1.2 mm (D) 1.5 mm
43. The figure shows a double slit experiment P and Q are the slits. The path lengths PX and QX are
n  and (n  2) respectively, where n is a whole number and  is the wavelength. Taking the
central fringe as zero, what is formed at X X
n
(A) First bright
P
(B) First dark (n+2)
(C) Second bright
(D) Second dark
Q

44. In Young's double slit experiment, if one of the slit is closed fully, then in the interference pattern
(A) A bright slit will be observed, no interference pattern will exist
(B) The bright fringes will become more bright
(C) The bright fringes will become fainter
(D) None of the above
45. In Young's double slit experiment using sodium light ( = 5898 Å), 92 fringes are seen. If given
colour ( = 5461 Å) is used, how many fringes will be seen
(A) 62 (B) 67 (C) 85 (D) 99
46. If a torch is used in place of monochromatic light in Young’s experiment what will happens
(A) Fringe will appear for a moment then it will disappear
(B) Fringes will occur as from monochromatic light
(C) Only bright fringes will appear
(D) No fringes will appear
47. If the sodium light in Young’s double slit experiment is replaced by red light, the fringe width will
(A) Decrease (B)Increase (C)Remain unaffected (D)First increase, then decrease
48. In Young’s double slit experiment the wavelength of light was changed from 7000 Å to 3500 Å.
While doubling the separation between the slits which of the following is not true for this
experiment
(A) The width of the fringes changes
(B) The colour of bright fringes changes
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(C) The separation between successive bright fringes changes
(D) The separation between successive dark fringes remains unchanged
49. If Fresnel’s biprism experiment as held in water inspite of air, then what will be the effect on
fringe width
(A) Decrease (B) Increase (C) No effect (D) None of these
50. What is the effect on Fresnel’s biprism experiment when the use of white light is made
(A) Fringe are affected (B)Diffraction pattern is spread more
(C) Central fringe is white and all are coloured (D) None of these
51. In which of the following is the interference due to the division of wave front
(A) Young's double slit experiment (B) Fresnel's biprism experiment
(C) Lloyd's mirror experiment (D) Demonstration colours of thin film
52. Two slits are separated by a distance of 0.5 mm and illuminated with light of   6000 Å. If the
screen is placed 2.5 m from the slits. The distance of the third bright image from the centre will
be
(A) 1.5 mm (B) 3 mm (C) 6 mm (D) 9 mm
53. Select the right option in the following
(A) Christian Huygens a contemporary of Newton established the wave theory of light by
assuming that light waves were transverse
(B) Maxwell provided the compelling theoretical evidence that light is transverse wave
(C) Thomas Young experimentally proved the wave behaviour of light and Huygens assumption
(D) All the statements give above, correctly answers the question “what is light”
54. Two waves of intensity I undergo Interference. The maximum intensity obtained is
(A) I / 2 (B) I (C) 2I (D) 4I
55. Two waves are represented by the equations y1  a sin t and y 2  a cos t. The first wave
(A) Leads the second by  (B) Lags the second by 
 
(C) Leads the second by (D) Lags the second by
2 2
56. Light waves producing interference have their amplitudes in the ratio 3 : 2. The intensity ratio of
maximum and minimum of interference fringes is
(A) 36 : 1 (B) 9 : 4 (C) 25 : 1 (D) 6:4
57. For the sustained interference of light, the necessary condition is that the two sources should
(A) Have constant phase difference (B) Be narrow
(C) Be close to each other (D) Of same amplitude
58. If the ratio of amplitude of two waves is 4 : 3, then the ratio of maximum and minimum intensity
is
(A) 16 : 18 (B) 18 : 16 (C) 49 : 1 (D) 94 : 1
59. Wavefront of a wave has direction with wave motion
(A) Parallel (B) Perpendicular (C) Opposite (D) At an angle of 
60. Which one of the following phenomena is not explained by Huygen's construction of wavefront
(A) Refraction (B) Reflection (C) Diffraction (D) Origin of spectra
61. Colours of thin films result from
or
On a rainy day, a small oil film on water show brilliant colours. This is due to
(A) Dispersion of light (B)Interference of light (C)Absorption of light (D) Scattering of light
62. For constructive interference to take place between two monochromatic light waves of wavelength
, the path difference should be
  
(A) (2n  1) (B) (2n  1) (C) n (D) (2n  1)
4 2 2
63. Soap bubble appears coloured due to the phenomenon of
(A) Interference (B) Diffraction (C) Dispersion (D) Reflection
64. Which of the following statements indicates that light waves are transverse

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(A) Light waves can travel in vacuum (B) Light waves show interference
(C) Light waves can be polarized (D) Light waves can be diffracted
65. The idea of secondary wavelets for the propagation of a wave was first given by
(A) Newton (B) Huygen (C) Maxwell (D) Fresnel
66. By a monochromatic wave, we mean
(A) A single ray (B) A single ray of a single colour
(C) Wave having a single wavelength (D) Many rays of a single colour
67. The idea of the quantum nature of light has emerged in an attempt to explain
(A) Interference (B) Diffraction
(C) Radiation spectrum of a black body (D) Polarisation
68. Two coherent sources of light can be obtained by
(A) Two different lamps
(B) Two different lamps but of the same power
(C) Two different lamps of same power and having the same colour
(D) None of the above
69. The ratio of intensities of two waves is 9 : 1. They are producing interference. The ratio of
maximum and minimum intensities will be
(A) 10 : 8 (B) 9 : 1 (C) 4 : 1 (D) 2:1
70. A wave can transmit ...... from one place to another
(A) Energy (B) Amplitude (C) Wavelength (D) Matter
71. Wave nature of light follows because
(A) Light rays travel in a straight line
(B) Light exhibits the phenomena of reflection and refraction
(C) Light exhibits the phenomenon of interference
(D)Light causes the phenomenon of photoelectric effect
72. If L is the coherence length and c the velocity of light, the coherent time is
L c 1
(A) cL (B) (C) (D)
c L Lc
73. In an interference experiment, the spacing between successive maxima or minima is
d D dD d
(A) (B) (C) (D)
D d  4D
(Where the symbols have their usual meanings)
74. If yellow light in the Young's double slit experiment is replaced by red light, the fringe width wi
(A) Decrease (B)Remain unaffected
(C) Increase (D)First increase and then decrease
75. Two sources give interference pattern which is observed on a screen, D distance apart from the
sources. The fringe width is 2w. If the distance D is now doubled, the fringe width will
(A) Become w/2 (B) Remain the same(C) Become w (D) Become 4w
76. In double slit experiment, the angular width of the fringes is 0.20 for the sodium light ( =5890
o

Å). In order to increase the angular width of the fringes by 10%, the necessary change in the
wavelength is
(A) Increase of 589 Å (B) Decrease of 589 Å(C) Increase of 6479 Å (D)Zero
77. In Young's double slit experiment, carried out with light of wavelength  = 5000 Å, the distance
between the slits is 0.2 mm and the screen is at 200 cm from the slits. The central maximum is at
x =0. The third maximum (taking the central maximum as zeroth maximum) will be at x equa
(A) 1.67 cm (B) 1.5 cm (C) 0.5 cm (D) 5.0 cm
78. In a Young's experiment, two coherent sources are placed 0.90 mm apart and the fringes are
observed one metre away. If it produces the second dark fringe at a distance of 1 mm from the
central fringe, the wavelength of monochromatic light used would be
(A) 60  10 4 cm (B) 10  10 4 cm (C) 10  10 5 cm (D) 6  10 5 cm
79. In young’s double slit experiment with a source of light of wavelength 6320Å, the first maxima
will occur when
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(A) Path difference is 9480 Å (B) Phase difference is 2 radian
(C) Path difference is 6320 Å (D) Phase difference is  radian
80. If a transparent medium of refractive index  = 1.5 and thickness t = 2.5  10–5 m is inserted in
front of one of the slits of Young’s Double Slit experiment, how much will be the shift in the
interference pattern? The distance between the slits is 0.5 mm and that between slits and screen
is 100 cm
(A) 5 cm (B) 2.5 cm (C) 0.25 cm (D) 0.1 cm

PART - II: CHEMISTRY

81. The adsorption of a gas on a solid surface varies with pressure of the gas in which of the following
manner
(A) Fast  slow  independent of the pressure
(B) Slow  fast  independent of the pressure
(C) Independent of the pressure  fast  slow
(D) Independent of the pressure  slow  fast
82. The equation for Freundlich adsorption isotherm is
x
(A)  kp 1 / n (B) x  mkp 1 / n (C) x / m  kp n (D) All of these
m
83. The extent of adsorption of a gas on a solid depends on
(A) Nature of the gas (B)Pressure of the gas
(C) Temperature of the gas (D) All are correct
84. Activated charcoal is used to remove colouring matter from pure substances. It works by
(A) Oxidation (B) Reduction (C) Bleaching (D) Adsorption
85. When KClO3 is heated, it decomposes into KCl  O2 . If some MnO2 is added, the reaction goes
much faster because
(A) MnO 2 decomposes to give O 2 (B) MnO 2 provides heat by reacting
(C) Better contact is provided by MnO2 (D) MnO 2 acts as a catalyst
86. What is the role of a catalyst in a catalysed reaction
(A) Lowers the activation energy (B) Increases the activation energy
(C) Affects the free energy change (D) Affects the enthalpy change
87. In the following reaction the catalyst used is
CH2 – CH2 HC = HC
H2C CH2 HC CH+3H2
CH2 – CH2 HC – HC

(A) Al2 O3 (B) Cr2O3 (C) Cr2 O3 and Al2 O3 (D) Zn dust
88. Which one of the following statement is wrong in case of enzyme catalysis
(A) Enzymes work best at an optimum temperature
(B) Enzymes work at an optimum pH
(C) Enzymes are highly specific for substances
(D) An enzyme raises activation energy
89. Which of the following catalyses the conversion of glucose into ethanol
(A) Zymase (B) Invertase (C) Maltase (D) Diastase
90. Catalyst used in hydrogenation of oils is
(A) Pt (B) Mo (C) Fe (D) Ni
91. In the Ostwald's process for the manufacture of HNO3 , the catalyst used is
(A) Mo (B) Fe (C) Ni (D) Pt
92. The components of Zigler Natta catalyst, used in the polymerisation of propylene, are
(A) TiCl3  Al(C2 H 5 )3 (B) TiCl4  Al(C2 H 5 )3 (C) Ti(C2 H 5 )3  AlCl3 (D) Ti(C2 H 5 )4  AlCl3
93. Which of the following statements regarding catalyst is not true
(A) A catalyst remains unchanged in composition and quantity at the end of the reaction
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(B) A catalyst can initiate a reaction
(C) A catalyst does not alter the equilibrium in a reversible reaction
(D) Catalyst are sometimes very specific in respect of reaction
94. Amongst the following chemical reactions, the one representing homogeneous catalysis is
Fe 2 NO
(A) N 2 (g)  3 H 2 (g) 
 2 NH 3 (g ) (B) 2 SO 2 (g)  O 2 (g )   2 SO 3 (g)  2 NO (g)
Ni V O
(C) CO (g)  3 H 2 (g) 
 CH 4 (g)  H 2 O (D) 2 SO 2 (g)  O2 (g) 2 
5
 2 SO 3 (g)
95. In the redox reaction
⇌ 2 Mn 2   10 CO 2  8 H 2 O
2 MnO 4  5 C 2 O 42   16 H 
The ion acting as autocatalyst is
(A) MnO 4 (B) C 2 O42  (C) H (D) Mn 2 
96. Which requires catalyst
(A) S  O2  SO 2 (B) 2SO 2  O2  2 SO 3 (C) C  O2  CO 2 (D) All
97. sol has a negative charge. Capacity to precipitate it is highest in
As 2 S 3
(A) AlCl3 (B) Na3 PO4 (C) CaCl 2 (D) K 2 SO 4
98. The random or zig-zag motion of the colloidal particles in the dispersion medium is referred to as
(A) Electro-osmosis (B) Electrophoresis
(C) Brownian movement (D) Tyndall effect
99. The purification of the colloidal particles from crystalloid dimensions through semipermeable
membrane is known as
(A) Coagulation (B) Dialysis (C)Ultrafiltration (D) Peptisation
100. The stability of lyophilic colloids is due to
(A) Charge on their particles
(B) A layer of dispersion medium on their particles
(C) The smaller size of their particles
(D) The large size of their particles
101. Which of the following will have highest coagulating power for As 2 S 3 colloid
(A) PO 43 (B) SO 42 (C) Na  (D) Al 3 
102. Which one of the following is a hydrophobic sol
(A) Starch solution (B) Gum solution (C)Protein solution (D)Arsenic sulphide solution
103. Purification of colloids is done by the process of
(A) Electrophoresis (B) Electrodispersion(C) Peptization (D) Ultra-filteration
104. Which of the following terms is not related with colloids
(A) Dialysis (B) Ultrafiltration (C) Wavelength (D) Brownian movement
105. When dispersed phase is liquid and dispersion medium is gas, then the colloidal system is
called
(A) Smoke (B) Clouds (C) Emulsion (D) Jellies
106. Tyndall phenomenon is exhibited by
(A) NaCl solution (B) Starch solution (C)Urea solution (D) FeCl3 solution
107. The colloidal solution of gelatin is known
(A) Solvent loving sol (B) Reversible sol (C)Hydrophilic colloids (D) All of these
108. The zig-zag motion of colloidal particles is due to
(A) Small size of colloidal particles
(B) Large size of colloidal particles
(C) The conversion of potential energy into kinetic energy
(D) Bombardment on colloidal particles by molecules of dispersion medium
109. Which is a natural colloidal
(A) Sodium chloride (B) Urea (C) Canesugar (D) Blood
110. Sodium stearate forms in water
(A) True solution (B) A suspension (C)An emulsion (D) A colloidal solution
111. Colloidal solution of gold cannot be prepared by
(A) Bredig's arc method (B)Mechanical dispersion
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(C) Reduction of gold chloride (D) Exchange of solvents
112. Which of the following ions can cause coagulation of proteins
(A) Ag  (B) Na  (C) Mg   (D) Ca  
113. Light scattering takes place in
(A) Solutions of electrolyte(B)Colloidal solutions
(C) Electrodialysis (D) Electroplating
114. Which of the following can stabilize gold sol from coagulation by NaCl solution
(A) Fe(OH )3 (B) Gelatin (C) As 2 S 3 (D) None of these
115. At isoelectric point
(A) Colloidal sol becomes highly stable (B)Precipitation of a colloidal sol takes place
(C) Colloidal particles becomes uncharged (D) Peptization can be carried out
116. Which one is an example of multimolecular colloid system
(A) Soap dispersed in water (B) Protein dispersed in water
(C) Gold dispersed in water (D) Gum dispersed in water
117. Metals like Pt and Pd can adsorb large volume of hydrogen under specific conditions. Such
adsorbed hydrogen by the metal is known as
(A) Occluded hydrogen (B)Absorbed hydrogen (C)Reactive hydrogen (D) Atomic hydrogen
118. A colloidal system in which gas bubbles are dispersed in a liquid is known as
(A) Foam (B) Sol (C) Aerosol (D) Emulsion
119. On adding few drops of dilute HCl or FeCl3 to freshly precipitated ferric hydroxide a red
coloured colloidal solution is obtained. The phenomenon is known as
(A) Peptisation (B) Dialysis (C) Protective action (D) Dissolution
120. Surface tension of lyophilic sols is
(A) Lower than that of H 2O (B) More than that of H 2O
(C) Equal to that of H 2O (D) None of these
121. Hydrolysis of CH 3 CH 2 NO 2 with 85% H 2 SO 4 gives
(A) CH 3 CH 2OH (B) C2 H 6 (C) CH 3 CH  NOH (D) CH 3 COOH
122. When formic acid reacts with PCl5 it forms
(A) Formyl chloride (B) Acetyl chloride (C)Methyl chloride (D) Propionyl chloride
123. Laboratory method for the preparation of acetyl chloride is
(A) CH 3 COOH  SOCl 2  CH 3 COCl (B) CH 3 COOH  PCl 3  CH 3 COCl
(C) CH 3 COONa  PCl 3  CH 3 COCl (D) All of these
124. Tischenko reaction yields ester in the presence of catalyst which is
(A) LiAlH 4 (B) N-bromosuccinamide (C) Al(OC 2 H 5 )3 (D) Zn  Hg / HCl
125. Acetic acid is obtained when
(A) Methyl alcohol is oxidised with potassium permanganate
(B) Calcium acetate is distilled in the presence of calcium formate
(C) Acetaldehyde is oxidised with potassium dichromate and sulphuric acid
(D) Glycerol is heated with sulphuric acid
126. Acetic acid is manufactured by the fermentation of
(A) Ethanol (B) Methanol (C) Ethanal (D) Methanal
127. CO  NaOH 
(A) HCOONa (B) C 2 H 2 O 4 (C) HCOOH (D) CH 3 COOH
128. Carboxylic acids react with diazomethane to form
(A) Amine (B) Alcohol (C) Ester (D) Amide
129. C 2 H 2   A 
HgOH 1 % [O ]
 B , B is
H 2 SO 4

(A) An acid (B) An aldehyde (C) A ketone (D) Ethanol

130. Reimer-Tiemann reaction involves a
(A)Carbonium ion intermediate (B) Carbene intermediate
(C) Carbanion intermediate (D) Free radical intermediate
131. The product D of the reaction
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KCN H 2O NH 3 
CH 3 Cl ( A) (B) (C ) (D) is
(A) CH 3 CH 2 NH 2 (B) CH 3 CN (C) HCONH 2 (D) CH 3 CONH 2
132. Which of the following on hydrolysis forms acetic acid
(A) CH 3 CN (B) CH 3 OH (C) C 2 H 5 OH (D) C 2 H 5 NH 2
133. When benzyl alcohol is oxidised with KMnO 4 , the product obtained is
(A) Benzaldehyde (B) Benzoic acid (C) CO 2 and H 2 O (D) None of these
134. Which of the following gives benzoic acid on oxidation
(A)Chlorophenol (B) Chlorotoluene (C)Chlorobenzene (D) Benzyl chloride

NaCN H3O
135. (CH 3 )2 CO   A   B
 In the above sequence of reactions A and B are
( HCl ) 

(A) (CH 3 )2 C(OH )CN , (CH 3 )2 C(OH )COOH (B) (CH 3 )2 C(OH )CN , (CH 3 )2 C(OH )2
(C) (CH 3 )2 C(OH )CN , (CH 3 )2 CHCOOH (D) (CH 3 )2 C(OH )CN , (CH 3 )2 C  O

136. Which of the following acids has the smallest dissociation constant
(A) CH 3 CHFCOOH (B) FCH 2 CH 2 COOH (C) BrCH 2CH 2COOH (D) CH 3 CHBrCOOH
137. What is obtained, when propene is treated with N-bromo succinimide

(A) CH 3  C  CH 2 (B) BrCH 2  CH  CH 2 (C) BrCH 2  CH  CHBr (D) BrCH 2  CH  CH 2 Br

| |
Br Br

138. What will be the product, when carboxy phenol, obtained by Reimer Tiemann’s process, is
deoxidised with Zn powder

OH CHO

(A) CHO (B)

COOH
OH
(C) (D)

139. The vapour of a carboxylic acid HA when passed over MnO 2 at 573 K yields propanone. The
acid HA is
(A) Methanoic acid (B) Ethanoic acid (C) Propanoic acid (D) Butanoic acid
140. Which acid is strongest or Which is most acidic
(A) Cl 2 CH .COOH (B) ClCH 2 COOH (C) CH 3 COOH (D) Cl3 C.COOH
141. Ethyl acetate at room temperature is a
(A) Solid (B) Liquid (C) Gas (D) Solution
142. Urea is a better fertilizer than ammonium sulphate because
(A) It has greater percentage of nitrogen (B) It is more soluble
(C) It is weakly basic (D) It does not produce acidity in soil
143. The reaction of acetamide with water is an example of
(A) Alcoholysis (B) Hydrolysis (C) Ammonolysis (D) Saponification
144. The acid which reduces Fehling solution is
(A) Methanoic acid (B) Ethanoic acid (C)Butanoic acid (D) Propanoic acid
CH 2  O
145. O CH 2
CH 2  O
The above shown polymer is obtained when a carbon compound is allowed to stand. It is a white
solid. The polymer is
(A) Trioxane (B) Formose (C) Paraformaldehyde (D) Metaldehyde
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146. Which does not give silver mirror with ammoniacal AgNO 3
(A) HCHO (B) CH 3 CHO (C) CH 3 COOH (D) HCOOH
147. o  A ,
2 CH 3 COOH MnO product ‘A’ in the reaction is
300 C

(A) CH 3 CH 2 CHO (B) CH 3  CH 2  OH (C) CH 3 COCH 3 (D) CH 3  C  O  C  CH 3

|| ||
O O
148. Acetic acid is weak acid than sulphuric acid because
(A)It decompose on increasing temperature (B) It has less degree of ionisation
(C) It has – COOH group (D) None of these
149. In CH 3 COOH and HCOOH, HCOOH will be
(A)Less acidic (B) Equally acidic (C) More acidic (D) None
150. Acetic anhydride reacts with excess of ammonia to form
(A) 2CH 3 COONH 4 (B) 2CH 3 CONH 2 (C) CH 3 CONH 2  CH 3 COONH 4 (D) 2CH 3 COOH

151. The following compound is used as

O
||
O C  CH

O
(A) An anti-inflamatory agent (B)Analgesic (C)Hypnotic(D) Antiseptic
152. To which of the following groups does soap belongs
(A) Esters (B) Amines(C)Salts of organic higher fatty acids (D) Aldehydes
153. Aspirin is an acetylation product of
(A) o-hydroxybenzoic acid (B)o-dihydroxybenzene
(C) m-hydroxybenzoic acid (D) p-dihydroxybenzene
154. Which one is used as a food preservative
(A) Sodium acetate (B) Sodium propionate (C)Sodium benzoate (D) Sodium oxalate
155. What makes a lemon sour
(A) Tartaric acid (B) Oxalic acid (C)Citric acid (D) Hydrochloric acid
156. The reagent used for protection of amino group during the nitration of aniline is
(A) SOCl 2 / Pyridine (B) PCl 5 (C) Acetic acid (D) Acetic anhydride
H
|
157. C6 H 5 CHO  HCN  C6 H 5  C  CN The product would be
|
OH
(A) A racemate (B) Optically active (C)A meso compound (D)A mixture of diastereomers
158. What happens when 2-hydroxy benzoic acid is distilled with zinc dust, it gives
(A) Phenol (B) Benzoic acid (C)Benzaldehyde (D) A polymeric compound
159. CH 3 CO 2 C2 H 5 on reaction with sodium ethoxide in ethanol gives A, which on heating in the
presence of acid gives B compound B is
(A) CH 3 COCH 2 COOH (B) CH 3 COCH 3
O
OC 2 H 5
(C) (D) CH 2  C
CH2 O OC 2 H 5
160. C 6 H 5 CONHCH 3 can be converted into C6 H 5 CH 2 NHCH 3 by
(A) NaBH 4 (B) H 2  Pd / C (C) LiAlH 4 (D) Zn  Hg / HCl

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