JEE-MAIN

Time: 3 Hours Batch: ROOKS, JACKS & STRIKERS

Marks: 360 Date: 16-07-2018

INSTRUCTIONS
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for
this purpose.
A. General:
1. This question paper contains 12 pages having 90 questions.
2. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
3. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers
and electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed.
4. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is
provided separately.
5. Do not tamper / mutilate the ORS.
6. The result of this test shall be declared on or before 17/07/2018
7. The following shall be the options for all the “Assertion and Reasoning” type
questions:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (B) Both A and
R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false (D) A is false
but R is true
B. Filling the ORS:
8. Write your roll no., name and sign with pen in appropriate boxes. Do not write
these anywhere else.
9. Darken the appropriate bubbles below your ID
C. Question paper format and Marking scheme:
10. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is
correct.
11. For every correct choice marked, 4 marks shall be awarded and 1 mark shall
be deducted for a wrong choice marked. If a question is not attempted, no marks
shall be awarded.
PART - I: PHYSICS
1. 6
10 electrons are flowing through in a wire per seonc. The current developed is
-19
(A) 1.6 �10 A (B) 1 A (C) 1.6 �10-13 A (D) 106 A
2. A current of 1 mA is flowing ina copper wire. The number of electrons crossing any
point in the conductor per second will be
(A) 6.25 �10
31 (B) 6.25 �108 (C) 6.25 �1015 (D) 6.25 �1019
3. In a hydrogen discharge tube 2.1�1018 protons pass through any cross section per
second and 4.15 �1018 electrons per second flow through the same cross section in
the opposite direction. The current flowing through discharge tube will be
(A)0.2 A (B) 1.0 A (C) 0.8 A (D) 0.4 A
-6
4. There is current of 40 A in a wire of 10 square metre area of cross section. If the
number of free electrons per cubic metre is 1029 , then the drift velocity is
(A) 250 �10 ms (B) 25.0 �10 ms (C) 2.50 �10 -3 ms -1 (D) 1.25 �10-3 ms -1
-3 -1 -3 -1

5. When a potential difference is applied across a copper wire, a drift velocity of

electron is v. If the same potential difference is applied across another copper wire
of the same length but double the diameter, the drift velocity will be
(A)2 v (B) v/2 (C) v (D) v/4
6. Two copper conductors A, B carry currents of 1 and 1.2 A. Their radii are in the
ratio of 2: 3. The drift velocities of the electrons in the two conductors are in the
ratio
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(A)5: 8 (B) 8: 15 (C) 15: 8 (D) 8: 5
7. If the current flowing through a Cu wire of 1 mm diameter is 1.1 amp. The drift
velocity of electrtons is {given that density of Cu = 9 gm Cm -3 and atomic weight of
Cu = 63 and that one free electrons is contributed by each atom]
(A)0.1 mms -1 (B) 0.2 mms -1 (C) 0.3 mms -1 (D) 0.5 mms -1
8. A conductor carries a current of 50 m A . If the area of cross section of the conductor
is 50 mm 2 , then value of the current density in Am -2 is
(A)0.5 (B) 1 (C) 10-3 (D) 10-6
9. An aluminium wire of diameter 4mm carries a current of 2.2 A. The current
density is
2
(A) 1.75 �10 Am
-2 (B) 1.75 �103 Am -2 (C) 1.75 �10 4 Am -2 (D) 1.75 �105 Am -2
10. A wire of 10-3 cm 2 cross sectional area carries a current of 0.25 A, then current
density is
6
(A) 1.5 �10 Am
-2 (B) 2.5 �106 Am -2 (C) 3.5 �106 Am -2 (D) 4.5 �106 Am -2
11. A wire of resistance R is stretched to thrice its length. The new resistance is
(A)R (B) 9 R (C) R/3 (D) R/9
12. A wire is resistance 20 W is stretched so that its radius decreases by 10%. Then its
resistance is
(A)Decreases by 4% (B) Increases by 2%
(C) Increases to 20.04 W (D) Decreases to 19.96 W
13. A metal block has length 50 cm, breadth 30 cm and thickness 20 cm when
current passes through it parallel to its length. Its resistance is R. If current is
made to pass through it parallel to breadth, then its resistance becomes
(A)9R/5 (B) 4R/25 (C) 16 R/25 (D) 25 R/16
14. A wire of resistance R is cut into two pieces with their lengths in the ratio 4: 5 and
then those pieces are connected in parallel the resultant resistance is
(A)20 R/81 (B) 81 R/20 (C) R/9 (D) 9 R
15. The length of metal pipe is 1 m having inner and outer radii as 7 cm and 10 cm. If
S is the specific resistance of the material. The effective resistance between the
end faces is
51 Sp (B) 100S (C) p S (D) S
(A) 100 50p 5100 p 5100
16. The first line in the Lyman series has wavelength . The wavelength of the first
line in Balmer series is
2 9 5 27
(A)  (B)  (C)  (D) 
9 2 27 5
13.6
17. Energy of the electron in nth orbit of hydrogen atom is given by En = - eV . The
n2
amount of energy needed to transfer electron from first orbit to third orbit is
(A)13.6 eV (B)3.4 eV (C) 12.09 eV (D) 1.51 eV
18. Whenever a hydrogen atom emits a photon in the Balmer series
(A)It need not emit any more photon
(B)It may emit another photon in the Paschen series
(C)It must emit another photon in the Lyman series
(D)It may emit another photon in the Balmer series

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19. Minimum energy required to takeout the only one electron from ground state of
He is
(A)13.6 eV (B)54.4 eV (C) 27.2 eV (D) 6.8 eV
20. The frequency of 1 line of Balmer series in H 2 atom is  0 . The frequency of line
st

emitted by singly ionised He atom is

(A) 2 0 (B) 4 0 (C)  0/2 (D)  0/ 4
21. When the electron in the hydrogen atom jumps from 2 nd orbit to 1st orbit, the
wavelength of radiation emitted is . When the electrons jump from 3rd orbit to 1st
orbit, the wavelength of emitted radiation would be
27 32 2 3
(A)  (B)  (C)  (D) 
32 27 3 2
22. With the increase in principle quantum number, the energy difference between
the two successive energy levels
(A)Increases (B)Decreases (C) Remains constant
(D)Sometimes increases and sometimes decreases
23. If the binding energy of the electron in a hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV, the energy
required to remove the electron from the first excited state of Li   is
(A)122.4 eV (B)30.6 eV (C) 13.6 eV (D) 3.4 eV
24. The shortest wavelength in the Lyman series of hydrogen spectrum is 912 Å
corresponding to a photon energy of 13.6 eV. The shortest wavelength in the
Balmer series is about
(A)3648 Å (B)8208 Å (C) 1228 Å (D) 6566 Å
25. Energy E of a hydrogen atom with principal quantum number n is given by
-13.6
E= eV . The energy of a photon ejected when the electron jumps from n = 3
n2
state to n = 2 state of hydrogen is approximately
(A)1.5 eV (B)0.85 eV (C) 3.4 eV (D) 1.9 eV
26. The energy of the highest energy photon of Balmer series of hydrogen spectrum is
close to
(A)13.6 eV (B)3.4 eV (C) 1.5 eV (D) 0.85 eV
27. An electron changes its position from orbit n = 4 to the orbit n = 2 of an atom.
The wavelength of the emitted radiation’s is (R = Rydberg’s constant)
16 16 16 16
(A) (B) (C) (D)
R 3R 5R 7R

28. If the energy of a hydrogen atom in nth orbit is En , then energy in the nth orbit
of a singley ionized helium atom will be
(A) 4En (B) En / 4 (C) 2En (D) En / 2

29. The energy of electron in the nth orbit of hydrogen atom is expressed as
-13.6
En = eV . The shortest and longest wavelength of Lyman series will be
n2
(A)910 Å, 1213 Å (B)5463 Å, 7858 Å (C)1315 Å, 1530 Å(D) None of these
30. The diagram shows-the energy levels for an electron in a certain atom. Which
transition shown represents
n=4 the emission of a photon with the most energy
n=3

n=2

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n=1
I II III IV
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(A)I (B)II (C)III (D) IV

PART - II: MATHEMATICS

31. In an over of 6 balls bowled by a bowler, the probability that he will get exactly
three wickets on consecutive balls is (assume that the probability of getting a wicket
is 0.5)
4 4 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
44 45 24 32
32. When two dice are thrown simultaneously, the probability of getting the same even
number on both the dice is
1 5 1 11
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 12 12 12
33. From a set of 2 �2 matrices having 0 or 1 in each place, a matrix is chosen. The
probability that it is a unit matrix is
1 2 3 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
16 16 16 4
34. From a pack of cards the cards numbered from 2 to 6 have been removed and three
cards are drawn from the remaining pack. The probability that it will be a set of
aces or kings or queens or jacks is
3 1 4.4 c3 7
(A) (B) (C) 52 (D)
1240 310 c3 310
35. If A, B are subsets of a sample space S, then
(A) A �B � P ( A ) = P ( B ) (B) P ( A ) �P ( B ) � A �B
(C) A ‫� ޣ‬
B P ( A) P ( B ) (D) A ‫ ޣ‬B� P ( A ) P ( B )
36. A number is chosen at random from the list of prime numbers less than 50. The
chance that it is less than 24 is
(A) 3/5 (B)2/5 (C)1/5 (D)4/5
37. A number is chosen at random from the list of prime numbers less than 50. The
chance that it has its square greater than 100 is
(A) 1/5 (B) 4/5 (C) 3/5 (D) 11/15
38. If war breaks out on the average once in 25 years, the probability that in 50 years
at a stretch, there will be no war is
50 50 50 50
�24 � �1 � �1 � �23 �
(A) � � (B) � � (C) � � (D) � �
�25 � �25 � �24 � �24 �
39. A bag contains 5 black and 4 white balls. Two balls are drawn at random. The
probability that they match is
7 5 5 4
(A) (B) (C) (D)
12 8 9 9
40. In a non leap year the probability of getting 53 Sundays or 53 Tuesdays or 53
Thursdays
(A) 1/7 (B)2/7 (C)3/7 (D)4/7
41. Two friends A and B have equal number of sons. There are 3 cinema tickets which
are to be distributed among the sons of A and B. The probability that all the tickets
go to sons of B is 1/20. The number of sons, each of them having is
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 3

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42. From a pack of cards, 2 cards are chosen at random. The probability of the event of
one card is 10 which is not hearts and another a hearts card is
(A) 1/34 (B)1/102 (C)8/663 (D)33/34
43. A ten digit number is formed using the digits from zero to nine, every digit being
used exactly once. The probability that the number is divisible by 5 is
(A) 14/81 (B)15/81 (C)16/81 (D) 17/81
1 �E � 1 �E � 1 �E �
events of a sample space such that P ( E1 ) = , P � 2 �= , P � 1 �= . Then P �
1
44. E1 , E2 are
4 E 2 E 4 �E ��=
�1 � �2 � �2 �
1 1 2 3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 4 3 4
45. In a class of 60 boys and 20 girls, half of the boys and half of the girls know cricket,
then the probability of the event that a person selected from the class is either a boy
or a girl who knows cricket is
(A)1/2 (B)3/8 (C)5/8 (D)7/8
46: An isosceles right angle is inscribed in the circle x + y = r2. If the coordinates of
2 2

an end of the hypotenuse are (a, b), the coordinates of the vertex are
(A)
(B)
(C) (b, a)
(D)
47: The locus of a point such that the tangents drawn from it to the circle
are perpendicular to each other is
(A)
(B)

(C)
(D)
48: The four points of intersection of the lines with the axes lie on
a circle whose centre is at the point
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
49: The abscissas of two points A and B are the roots of the equation
and their ordinate are the roots of the equation . The radius of the
circle with AB as diameter is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) none of these
50: If a chord of the circle x2 + y2 = 8 makes equal intercepts of length a on the
coordinate axes, then
(A) |a| < 8
(B)
(C) |a| < 4
(D) |a| > 4

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51: The coordinates of the middle point of the chord cut off by 2 by the
circle are
(A) (1, 4)
(B) (2, 4)
(C) (4, 1)
(D) (1, 1)
52: Two distinct chords drawn from the point (p, q) on the circle x 2 + y2 = px + qy,
where are bisected by the x-axis. Then
(A) |p| =|q|
(B) p2 = 8q2
(C) p2< 8q2
(D) p2> 8q2
53: The centre of the circle is
(A) (2, 3)
(B)
(C)
(D)
54: The locus of the point of intersection of the lines

and represents (t being a parameter)

(A) circle
(B) parabola
(C) ellipse
(D) hyperbola
55: Length of the tangent drawn from any point of the circle x 2 + y2 + 2gx + 2fy + c = 0
to the circle x2 + y2 + 2gx + 2fy + d = 0, (d > c) is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
56: A region in the xy-plane is bounded by the curve and the line y = 0. If
the point (a, a + 1) lies in the interior of the region, then
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) none of these
57: If for all x and y, f(1) = 2 and a n = f(n), , then the equation of
the circle having and as the ends of its one diameter is
(A)
(B)

(C)
(D)
58: The locus of the point . If (h, k) lies on x + y = 1 is
(A) a pair of straight lines
(B) a circle

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(C) a parabola
(D) an ellipse
59: AB is a diameter of a circle and C is any point on the circumference of the circle.
Then
(A) the area of is maximum when it is isosceles

(B) the area of is minimum when it is isosceles

(C) the perimeter of is maximum when it is isosceles

(D) none of the above

60: One of the diameter of the circle circumscribing the rectangle ABCD is 4y = x + 7.
If A and B are the points and (5, 4) respectively, then the area of the
rectangle is
(A) 16 sq unit
(B) 24 sq unit
(C) 32 sq unit
(D) none of these

PART – III: CHEMISTRY

61. The activation energy of a reaction is 58.3 kJ mol -1. The ratio of the rate constants
at 305 K and 300 K is about (R = 8.3 JK-1 mol-1)
(A) 1.25 (B) 1.50 (C) 1.75 (D) 2.0
62. For the decomposition of N2O5 at a particular temperature, according to the
1
equations 2N2O5 � 4NO2  O2 , N2O5 � 2NO2  O2
2
the activation energies are E 1 and E2 respectively. Then
(A) E 1 > E2 (B) E 1 < E2 (C) E 1 = 2 E2 (D) E 1 = E2
63. A certain reaction A + B → P is of first order with respect to each reactant. If [A] 0
=0.1 M, [B] 0 = 5.0 M and the second order rate constant k is 6 �10 -3 M-1s -1, the
half-life of the reaction in seconds is
(A) 23.5 (B) 27.7 (C) 33.3 (D) 115.5
64. Consider the following statements:
The rate law for the acid catalysed hydrolysis of an ester being given as
Rate = k [H+] [ester] = k’ [ester]. If the acid concentration is doubled at constant ester
concentration
1. the second order rate constant, k is doubled
2. the pseudo first order rate constant, k is doubled
3. the rate of the reaction is doubled.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3 (C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
65. Consider the following statements:
For a second order reaction: 2A → P
[ A] 0
1. [ A ] =
1  kt [ A ] 0
2. a plot of 1/[A]2 vs time will be a straight line
3. half-life is long when the concentration is low.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3.
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66. Which one of the following substances adsorbs hydrogen gas most strongly?
(A) Activated carbon (B) Silica gel
(C) Platinum black (D) Iron powder.
67. Brownian movement is found in
(A) Colloidal solution (B) Suspension
(C) Saturated solution (D) Unsaturated solution.
68. In physical adsorption, gas molecules are bound on the solid surface by
(A) Chemical forces (B) Electrostatic forces
(C) Gravitational forces (D) Van der Waal’s forces
69. Which of the following kind of catalysis can be explained by the adsorption theory?
(A) Homogeneous catalysis (B) Acid-base catalysis
(C) Heterogeneous catalysis (D) Enzyme catalysis
70. The size of colloidal particles is
(A) 10 -6 - 10 -9 m (B) 10-9 - 10-12 m
(C) 10 -3 - 10-9 m (D) 10 -12 - 10 -19 m
71. The process which is catalysed by one of the products is called
(A) Acid-base catalysis (B) Auto catalysis
(C) Negative catalysis (D) Positive catalysis
72. Which among the following statements is false?
(A) Increase of pressure increases the amount of adsorption
(B) Increase of temperature may decrease the amount of adsorption
(C) The adsorption may be monolayered or multilayered
(D) Particle size of the adsorbent will not affect the amount of adsorption.
73. The simplest way to check whether a system is colloidal is by
(A) Tyndall effect (B) Brownian movement
(C) Electrodialysis (D) Finding out particle size
74. Adsorbed acetic acid on activated charcoal is:
(A) Adsorber (B) Absorber (C) Adsorbent (D) Adsorbate
75. According to adsorption theory of catalysis, the speed of the reaction increases
because
(a) the concentration of the reactant molecules at the active centres of the catalyst
becomes high due to adsorption
(b) in the process of adsorption, the activation energy of the molecules becomes
large
(c) adsorption produces heat which increases the speed of reaction
(d) adsorption lowers the activation energy of the reaction

76:

(1 : 4 addition). It is :

(A)

(B)

(C) CH3CH2CH2CHO
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(D) none is correct

77:

A and B are :

(A)

(B)

(C)
(D) none is correct
78: Catalyst used in Oxo-process is :
(A) Fe(CO)5
(B) Co(CO)5
(C) CrH(CO)4
(D) [CoH(CO)4]
79: Which does not produce aldehyde in the following reactions ?
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
80: Which is the incorrect reaction ?
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

81: Following synthesis is effective when

R is of the type :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) all of these
82: Identify A in the following sequence of reactions :

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(A) CH3CH2CN
(B) CH3CH2NC
(C)
(D) None of these
83: Boiling points of carbonyl compounds are higher than those of alkanes due to :
(A) hydrogen-bonding
(B) dipole-dipole interactions

(C) van der Waals forces

(D) all of the above
84: Reactivity of HCHO (I), CH3CHO (II) and C6H5CHO (III) is in order :
(A) I > III > II
(B) III > II > I
(C) I = II > III
(D) I > II > III

85: For the following transformation : reagent used is :

(A) SeO2
(B) C6H5CO3H
(C)
(D) Se
86: Identify A and B in the following :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
87: Identify correct product of the following oxidation reaction :

(A) CH3CH2COCHO
(B)CH3CO.COCH3 .
(C) CH3COCH2CHO
(D)CH3CH2COOH

88: In the following reaction reagent A is :

(A) NaBH4
(B) LiAlH4
(C) H2/Ni
(D) Mg/benzene/H2O
90: Reagents used in Clemmensen reduction and Wolff-Kischner reduction are
respectively :
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(A) Zn(Hg)-conc. HCl; N2H4 -glycol,
(B) LiAlH4, NaBH4
(C) NaBH4 ; LiAlH4
(D) Pd-C / H2 ; Li / NH3

NINE EDUCATION JEE MAIN (16-07-2018)