TEST SERIES – ENVIRONMENT ENGG.

- I Page |1

TEST SERIES

ENVIRONMENT ENGG.
Time: 2 ½ hours
 1 – 40 : 1 mark each (1/3rd Negative Marks)
 41 – 70: 2 marks each (2/3rd Negative Marks)
 No negative marking for questions without options.

1. The product of H ions and OH ions in a stronger acid is ______

a) 0 b) 1 c) 10-7 d) 10-14

2. A pathogenic organism of unicellular/protozoal group is ______

a) escherichia coli b) salmonella typhi
c) entamoeba hystolytica d) none of these

3. Consider the following units associated in water supply system –

1. Pumping of raw water 2. Intake Works
3. Treatment works 4. Distribution system
The sequence of these units in order of their connection starting from source [River] is
a) 1, 2, 3, 4 b) 2, 1, 3, 4 c) 2, 1, 4, 3 d) 1, 2, 4, 3

4. Break point chlorination of water involves addition chlorine in an amount sufficient to

a) react with ammonia and readily oxidisable organic matter
b) kill giardia cysts
c) react with inorganic matter
d) reduce bacteria growth in filters

5. Which one of the following tests of water/waste water employs Erichrome Black T as an indicator?
a) Hardness b) COD c) Residual d) DO

6. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

a) Check valve: to check water flow in all directions
b) Sluice valve: to control flow of water through pipelines
c) Air valve: to release the accumulated air
d) Scour valve: to remove silt in a pipeline

7. The odour of water can be determined by

a) thermometer b) osmoscope c) Jackson's turbidity meter d) none

8. When fluoride concentration in water exceeds 1.5 mg/l or so, the disease that may be caused is ____
a) methemoglobinemia b) fluorosis
c) dental caries in children d) poliomyelitis
TEST SERIES – ENVIRONMENT ENGG. - I Page |2

9. If the length dimension of a square filter bed increases to two lines (while the rate of filtration
remains unchanged) the amount of water filtered would become ______ times.

10. Particles of around 1 micron (10-6m) size are best removed by ______
a) filtration b) plain sedimentation
c) chemical precipitation d) chemical coagulation

11. At break point chlorination the residual chlorine

a) Zero b) Is minimum c) Is maximum d) Reappears

12. Match List I (Operational problems in rapid gravity filter) with List II (Methods to overcome the
problem) and select the correct answer using the given codes:
List I List II
A. Incrustation of filter sand 1. Compressed air scouring for about 4 minutes at the time
media backwashing and manual surface raking
B. Air binding and development 2. Washing the filter with sodium hydroxide or bleaching power
of negative head occasionally
C. Mud ball formation 3. Through backwashing with salt solution after soaking the filter in it
D. Slime growth on filter 4. Increasing the depth of water during filter operation by about 15 –
20cm as compared to the normal depth maintained during daily
operation and more frequent backwashing
Codes:
a) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1 b) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3 c) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 d) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1

13. Electrical conductivity (EC) of water and total dissolved solids (TDS) are relatable as, the value of EC
will
a) decrease with increase in TDS
b) increase with increase in TDS
c) decrease initially and the increase with increase in TDS
d) increase initially and the decrease with increase in TDS

14. Available chlorine in bleaching powder is 30%. To obtain a chlorine dose of 0.1mg/L in a 200mL water
sample, the amount of bleaching powder solution to be added is
a) (0.1/200) x 0.3mL b) (0.1/200) x 1000 x 0.3mL
c) (0.1/1000) x 200 x 0.3mL d) (0.1/1000) x 200 x (1/0.3)
TEST SERIES – ENVIRONMENT ENGG. - I Page |3

15. Consider the following statements –

1. Calcium and magnesium as bicarbonates are responsible for carbonate hardness.
2. The carbonate hardness is measured by the difference between the total hardness and bicarbonate
hardness.
3. The non-carbonate hardness is measured by the difference between the total hardness & the
carbonate hardness.
4. The carbonates and bicarbonates of sodium are described as negative carbonate hardness.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1, 2 and 4 b) 1, 3 and 4 c) 2 and 4 only d) 3 only

16. Match List I (Different forms of nitrogen in water) with List II (inferences) and select the correct
answer using the given codes:
List I List II
A. Nitrate nitrogen 1. Unsatisfactory microbial activity
B. Total nitrogen 2. Satisfactory microbial activity
C. Nitrite nitrogen 3. Eutrophication may result
D. Ammonia nitrogen 4. Recent organic pollution
Codes:
a) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 b) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2 c) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2 d) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

17. The microbial quality of treated piped water supplies is monitored by

a) microscopic examination b) plate count of heterotrophic
c) coliform MPN test d) identification of all pathogens

18. The appropriate method(s) of removal of fluorides from water comprise of

1. Addition of alum & lime followed by clarification.
2. Passing through beds of activated alumina.
Which of these statements is correct?
a) Neither 1 nor 2 b) Both 1 and 2 c) 1 only d) 2 only

19. A roughening filter, as used in treating water supplies is like a

a) slow sand filter b) rapid gravity filter
c) rapid gravity filter with coarser sand d) none of these

20. Consider the following statements in respect of slow sand filter and rapid sand filter:
1. The two filters differ in respect of the standards regarding non-uniformity of the sand used in their
filtering media.
2. The two filters do not differ in respect of the effective size of the sand used in them.
TEST SERIES – ENVIRONMENT ENGG. - I Page |4

3. The two filters differ in respect of their respective under drainage system
4. The two filters differ in respect of their respective rate of filtration
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1, 2 and 4 c) 2, 3 and 4 d) 1, 3 and 4

21. Match List I (type of impurity) with List II (effect) and select the correct answer using the given
codes:
List I List II
A. Carbonates and bicarbonates of calcium and magnesium 1. Permanent hardness
B. Carbonates and bicarbonates of sodium 2. Temporary hardness
C. Sulphates and chlorides of calcium and magnesium 3. Alkalinity and softness
D. Oxides of iron and manganese 4. Colour and taste
Codes:
a) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4 b) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 c) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3 d) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4

22. What is the hydrogen ion concentration in water of pH = 8?

a) 8mol/L b) 10-8mol/L c) 108mol/L d) 0.8mol/L

23. Match List I (Estimated Method) with List II (Corresponding Indicator) & select the correct answer -
List I List II
P. Azide modified Winkler method for dissolved oxygen 1. Eirochrome Black T
Q. Dichromate method for chemical oxygen demand 2. Ferroin
R. EDTA titrimetric method for hardness 3. Potassium chromate
S. Mohr or Angenometric method for chlorides 4. Starch
Codes:
P Q R S
a) 3 2 1 4
b) 4 2 1 3
c) 4 1 2 3
d) 4 2 3 1

24. Consider the following characteristics –

1. Effective size = 0.5mm
2. Cu=2.5
3. Filtration rate = 5m3/m2/hr
Which of the above values are correct in respect of rapid sand filter?
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 c) 1 and 3 d) 1, 2 and 3
TEST SERIES – ENVIRONMENT ENGG. - I Page |5

25. Design parameters for rapid mixing units are

a) velocity gradient and the volume of mixing basin
b) viscosity and velocity gradient
c) viscosity, velocity gradient and the volume of the mixing basin
d) detention time and viscosity of water

26. One Nephelometry Turbidity Unit (NTU) is equal to the turbidity produced by
a) 1 mg SiO2 dissolved in 1l of distilled water with the test being run according to absorption principle.
b) 1 mg SiO2 dissolved in 1l of distilled water with the test being run according to scattering principle.
c) 1 mg Formazin dissolved in 1l of distilled water with the test being run according to absorption
principle.
d) 1 mg Formazin dissolved in 1l of distilled water with the test being run according to scattering
principle.

27. For the analysis of flow in water distribution network the site engineers prefer the following head
loss equation:
a) Darcy – Weisbatch Equation b) Chezy’s Equation
c) Hazen Williams Equation d) Manning’s Equation

28. The total hardness value obtained from the complete analysis of a water sample was found to be 120
mg/l. If the value of carbonate hardness is 50 mg/l, the non-carbonate hardness and alkalinity are
respectively,
a) 170 mg/l and 70 mg/l b) 170 mg/l and 50 mg/l
c) 70 mg/l and 50 mg/l d) 50 mg/l and 70 mg/l

29. Match List I (impurities) with List II (effects) & select the correct answer -
List I List II
A. Dissolved sulphates and chlorides of Ca and Mg 1. Hardness & corrosion
B. Dissolved bicarbonates of Ca and Mg 2. Bacterial infection
C. Dissolved fluorides of Na 3. Alkalinity and softness
D. Dissolved organic matter 4. Impairment of dental health
Codes:
A B C D
a) 2 3 4 1
b) 1 4 3 2
c) 2 4 3 1
d) 1 3 4 2
TEST SERIES – ENVIRONMENT ENGG. - I Page |6

30. Match List I (Waste borne treatment) with List II (Pollutant causing) & select correct answer using the
codes –
List I List II
A. Mottling of teeth 1. Salmonella bacteria
B. Hepatitis 2. Vibrio bacteria
C. Typhoid 3. Virus
D. Cholera 4. Fluoride
Codes:
a) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 b) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4 c) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1 d) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

31. The disinfection efficiency of chlorine in water treatment

a) is not dependent on pH value
b) is increased by increased pH value
c) remains constant at all pH values
d) is reduced by increased pH value

32. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the given codes:
List I (Equipment) List II (Parameter)
A. Tintometer 1. Temperature
B. Nephelometer 2. Colour
C. Imhoff cone 3. Turbidity
D. Muffle furnace 4. Settleable solids
5. Volatile solids
Codes:
a) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-5 b) A-2, B-5, C-4, D-3 c) A-4, B-5, C-1, D-2 d) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-5

33. In water treatment plant, the addition of chlorine inactivities the cells of pathogenic bacteria
through
1. Penetration of the chlorine species through the cell walls
2. Suffocation of the cells
3. Reaction of the chlorine species with the enzyme system of cells
Which of these statements is correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1 and 2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1 and 3 only
TEST SERIES – ENVIRONMENT ENGG. - I Page |7

34. Match List I (different forms of nitrogen in water) with List II (inferences) and select the correct
answer -
List I List II
A. Nitrate Nitrogen 1. Unsatisfactory microbial activity
B. Total Nitrogen 2. Satisfactory microbial activity
C. Nitrite Nitrogen 3. Eutrophication may result
D. Ammonia Nitrogen 4. Recent organic pollution
Codes:
A B C D
a) 3 2 1 4
b) 1 4 3 2
c) 3 4 1 2
d) 1 2 3 4

35. Match List I (Equation/Law) with List II (Related Application) and select the correct answer
List I List II
A. Chick's Law 1. Discrete particle settling
B. Darcy-Weisbach Equation 2. Head loss in a pipe
C. Stoke's Equation 3. Head loss in filters
D. Carmen-Kozeny Equation 4. Rate of bacterial kill
Codes:
A B C D
a) 4 2 1 3
b) 3 1 2 4
c) 4 1 2 3
d) 3 2 1 4

36. Match List I (Water treatment units) with List II (Detention time) & select correct answer using the
given codes:
List I List II
A. Rapid mixing unit 1. 1 ½ hours
B. Flocculator 2. 10 seconds
C. Propeller mixing unit 3. 30 seconds
D. Sedimentation 4. 30 minutes
Codes:
a) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1 b) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2 c) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 d) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

37. Total Kjeldahl nitrogen (TKN) is a measure of

a) total organic nitrogen b) total organic and ammonia nitrogen
TEST SERIES – ENVIRONMENT ENGG. - I Page |8

c) total ammonia nitrogen d) total inorganic and ammonia nitrogen

38. Consider the following unit processes commonly used in water treatment: Rapid Mixing (RM),
Flocculation (F), Primary Sedimentation (PS), Secondary Sedimentation (SS), Chlorination (C) and Rapid
Sand Filtration (RSF). The order of these unit processes (first to last) in a conventional water treatment
plant is
a) PS – RSF – F- RM – SS – C b) PS – F – RM – RSF – SS – C
c) PS – F – SS – RSF – RM – C d) PS – RM – F – SS – RSF – C

39. Alkalinity of water can be defined correctly in one of the following ways
a) it is the measure of ability of water to neutralize oxygen
b) it is the measure of ability of water to neutralize carbonates
c) it is the presence of ions in water that will neutralize hydrogen ions
d) it is the measure of ability of water to neutralize hydroxides

40. In lime soda process of water softening

a) only carbonate hardness is removed
b) only non-carbonate hardness is removed
c) lime reduces non-carbonate hardness and soda removes carbonate hardness
d) lime reduces carbonate hardness, and soda removes non-carbonate hardness

41. A water treatment plant is designed to treat a flow of 20000 m3/day. The chlorine dosage is 1mg/L.
The minimum weight of chlorine in gms _____which should be kept in hand. (contact period = 10min)

42. The waste water of a certain large colony contains 10-5.6mmol/l of OH- ions at 25oC. The pH of this
sample is
a) 8.6 b) 7.9 c) 5.4 d) 4.5

43. The concentration of OH- ion in a water sample is measured as 17 mg/L at 25oC. pH of the water
sample is ___

44. The domestic sewage of a town was tested for solids and following results were obtained –
Weight of sample of sewage = 1000 gm
Weight of solids after evaporation of liquid = 0.905 gm
Weight of dry residue after ignition = 0.462 gm
The volatile solids = _______mg/L.
TEST SERIES – ENVIRONMENT ENGG. - I Page |9

45. A rapid sand filter is to be provided in a water treatment plant, to process the water for a town with
a population of 2,75,000. The water demand is 200 litres / capita / day. The rate of filtration is 15
m3/m2/hour. Allow 5% of filtered water for storage to meet the backwash requirements. Each
backwashing period is of 30min. The number of filters required allowing one as a standby unit is _____.
Available surface area configuration of filter unit is 10m x 4m.

46. A rapid sand filter for a town with water requirement of 1 MLD is to be provided with rate of
filtration at 4000 l/hr/m2, with backwash system. What would be the size of filter and its under-drainage
system to the nearest approximation?
a) 10 and 0.032 sq.m b) 11 and 0.022 sq.m
c) 12 and 0.045 sq.m d) 15 and 0.062 sq.m

47. The pH of a mixture formed by mixing the following two solutions is _______.
Solution A (volume is 300ml and pH 7)
Solution B (volume is 700ml and pH 5)

48. The present population of community is 28000 with an average water demand of 150 lpcd. The
existing water treatment plant has a design capacity of 6000m3/d. It is expected that the population will
increase to 44000 during the next 20 years. The number of years from now when the plant will reach its
design capacity assuming an arithmetic rate of population growth is _____.

49. In a water treatment plant, raw water undergoes the following treatment process viz. coagulation,
flocculation, sedimentation and filtration. A plant of capacity to treat 3 x 104 m3/d of raw water is
installed for a township. The raw water source is having a suspended solid concentration of 400 ppm.
Alum ((Al2SO4)3 14 H2O) is used as a primary coagulant at a dose of 45ppm. The daily production of sludge
if 95% of the total suspended solids are removed by the treatment processes is _____ kg.

50. The dissolved oxygen in a water sample is generally estimated by modified Winkler Method. The
water sample is taken in a 300ml BOD bottle and the dissolved oxygen is fixed by adding
a) 1 ml of conc H2SO4 followed by addition of 1 mnl of MnSO4 reagent and contents mixed thoroughly,
thereafter waiting for 5-10 minutes and then 1ml of alkali-iodide-azide reagent is added
b) 1 ml of alkali-iodide-azide regent followed by addition of 1ml of conc H2SO4 and then the contents
mixed thoroughly, thereafter waiting for 5-10 minutes, 1ml of MnSO4 reagent is added
c) 1ml of MnSO4 followed by addition of 1 ml of alkali-iodide-azide regents and then the contents mixed
thoroughly thereafter waiting for 5-10 minutes and then 1 ml of conc H2SO4 is added
d) 1 ml of conc H2SO4 followed by addition of 1 ml of alkali-iodide-azide regent and then the contents
mixed thoroughly, thereafter waiting for 5-10 minutes, 1ml of MnSO4 reagent is added
TEST SERIES – ENVIRONMENT ENGG. - I P a g e | 10

51. A water treatment plant treats 6000 m3 of water per day. If it consumes 20kg chlorine per day, then
the chlorine dosage would be
a) 3.00 mg/l b) 3.75 mg/l c) 4.25 mg/l d) 3.33 mg/l

52. The design parameter for flocculation is given by a dimensionless number Gt, where G is the velocity
gradient and t is the detention time. Values of Gt ranging from 104 to 105 are commonly used, with t
ranging from 10 to 30min. The most preferred combination of G and t to produce smaller and denser
flocs is
a) large G values with short t b) large G values with long t
c) small G values with short t d) small G values with long t

53. A standard multiple-tube fermentation test was conducted on a sample of water. The results of the
analysis for the confirmed test are given below –
Sample size (mL) No. of positive results out of 5 tubes No. of negative results out of 5 tubes
10 4 1
1 2 3
0.1 1 4
0.01 0 5

MPN index for combinations of positive result when 5 tubes used per dilutions (10mL, 1.0mL, 0.1 mL)
Combination of positives MPN Index per 100 mL
5-4-3 280
4-3-1 33
4-2-1 26
2-1-0 7

Using the above MPN index table, what is the most probable number (MPN) of the sample _____.

54. The overflow rate for a continuous flow type rectangular sedimentation tank is kept at 400L/m2/hr
with a plan area of 80m2 and detention time of 2 hours, then the effective depth of the tank will be
_____ ‘m’.

55. In a treatment plant, two banks of rapid sand filtration are proposed after sedimentation. Each filter
bed has a surface area of 3m x 2m. The design flow rate of each bank of filters is 0.044 m3/sec. The
design loading rate of each bank of filters is 150 m3/day/m2. The number of filter beds in each bank of
filters is _____.

56. The analysis of a sample of water with pH 7.5 has produced the following concentrations (mg/L)
TEST SERIES – ENVIRONMENT ENGG. - I P a g e | 11

Cations Anions
Ca2+ 80 Cl- 100
2+ 2-
Mg 30 SO 4 201
+
Na 72 HCO-3 165
K+ 6

What will be the total hardness (TH), alkalinity and total dissolved solids (TDS) in mg/L.
a) 323, 135.2, 654mg/L b) 100, 249, 800mg/L c) 325, 130.2, 610mg/L d) None

57. For a town with a population of 2 lakhs, a water supply scheme is to be designed. The maximum daily
demand may be assumed as 200 litre/capita/day. The storage reservoir is situated 5km away from the
town. Assuming loss of head from source to town as 10m and coefficient of friction for the pipe material
as 0.012, 50% of daily demand has to be pumped in 8 hours for the proposed scheme. The size of supply
main is ______m.

58. A treatment plant is to treat 12 million litres of water per day if the dosage of alum required is 14
mg/L, amount of CO2 released per litre of water treated is _____ mg.

59. To obtain 99.70% kill of bacteria, ozone is to be used in water with a residual of 0.6 mg/l. The
reaction constant under these conditions is 3 x 10-2 per second. The time of contact required is ____
seconds.

60. A settling tank has 26m diameter with 2.10m side water depth. Effluent weir is located on the
periphery of the tank. For a water flow of 13000m3/day, the detention time available is ______ hrs.

61. An ideal settling basin is designed with surface overflow rate (SOR) of 1m3/m2/h. Particles have their
discrete settling velocities & concentration as follows:
M Settling velocity (m/h) Initial concentration (mg/L)
1 1.0 100
2 0.5 100
3 0.1 100
4 0.05 100

Which one of the following gives correct estimate of the overall removal of particles per hour?
a) 65 mg/l b) 165 mg/l c) 265 mg/l d) 365 mg/l

62. Change in concentration of organic matter, L, with time, t is given by dL/dt = -KL. The organic
matter remaining after 3 days in _____ mg/L, if the initial concentration was 200 mg/L and K = 0.4 per
day with base.

63. If pH of solution ‘A’ is 4 and that of solution ‘B’ is 5, then the hydrogen ion concentration of solution.
TEST SERIES – ENVIRONMENT ENGG. - I P a g e | 12

a) ‘A’ is ten times higher than that of ‘B’ b) ‘B’ is double than that of ‘A’
c) ‘A’ is ten times lesser than that of ‘B’ d) ‘A’ is double than that of ‘B’

64. For a flow of 5.7 MLD (million litres per day) and a detention time of 2 hours, the surface area of a
rectangular sedimentation tank to remove all particles having setting velocity of 0.33 mm/s is
a) 20 m2 b) 100 m2 c) 200 m2 d) 400 m2

65. A ground water sample was found to contain 500 mg/L, total dissolved solids (TDS). TDS (in %)
present in the sample is _____.

66. A small filter of 0.05m depth removes 90% of particles present in water. If the particles removal
required is 99%, what should be the depth of the filter?
a) 0.10m b) 0.50m c) 0.75m d) 1.00m

67. The results of analysis of a raw water sample are given below –
Turbidity : 5mg/L
pH : 7.4
Fluorides : 2.5 mg/L
Total hardness : 300 mg/L
Iron : 3.0 mg/L
MPN : 50 per 100 mL
From the data given above, it can be inferred that water needs removal of
a) turbidity followed by disinfection b) fluorides and hardness
c) iron, followed by disinfection d) fluorides, hardness and iron followed by disinfection

68. A surface water treatment plant operates round the clock with a flow rate of 35 m3/min. The water
temperature is 15oC and jar testing indicated an alum dosage of 25 mg/l with flocculation at a Gt value
of 4 x 104 producing optimal results. The alum quantity required for 30 days (in kg) of operation of the
plant is ____.

69. A water treatment plant is required to process 28800 m3/d of raw water (density = 1000 kg/m3,
kinematic viscosity = 10-6m2/s). The rapid mixing tank imparts a velocity gradient of 900 s-1 to blend 35
mg/I of alum with the flow for a detention time of 2 minutes. The power input (W) required for rapid
mixing is
a) 32.4 b) 36 c) 324 d) 32400

70. A sample of water has been analysed for common ions and results are presented in the form of a bar
diagram as shown.
TEST SERIES – ENVIRONMENT ENGG. - I P a g e | 13

The non-carbonate hardness (expressed in mg/l as CaCO3) of the sample is _____

a) 40 b) 165 c) 195 d) 205


SOLUTION

1. D
2. C
3. B
4. A
5. A
6. A
7. B
8. B
9. 4*
10. D
11. B
12. A
13. B
14. D
15. B
16. A
17. C
18. B
19. C
20. d
21. d
22. b
23. b
24. c
25. c
26. d
27. c
28. C
29. D
30. A
31. D
32. D
33. D
34. A
35. A
36. A
TEST SERIES – ENVIRONMENT ENGG. - I P a g e | 14

37. b
38. d
39. c
40. d
41. 138*
42. C
43. 11*
44. 443*
45. 6*
46. B*
47. 5.15*
48. 15*
49. 11724*
50. C
51. D
52. D
53. 70
54. 0.8*
55. 5*
56. A*
57. 0.75*
58. 5.55*
59. 194*
60. 2.1*
61. B*
62. 60.3*
63. A
64. C
65. 0.05
66. A
67. D
68. 37800
69. D
70. A

***********************************

9. 4*
L 2L

L2 4L 2L
2

Area becomes 4 times

 Amount of water filter = 4 times

41. 138
20000
Volume of container = 10  138 m 3
24  60
TEST SERIES – ENVIRONMENT ENGG. - I P a g e | 15

Minimum weight of chlorine which should be kept in hand = 138 x 103 (L) x 1 x 10-3 (gm/L) = 138 gms

43. 11
pOH = -log (OH-)
weight in gms 17 10 3
Moles/L    10 3
molecular mass 17
p(OH) = -log(10-3) = 3
pH = 14 - 3 = 11

44. 443
0.905
1. Total solids   106  905ppm
1000
0.462
2. Fixed solids   106  462ppm
1000
3. Volatile solids  905  462  443 ppm

45. 6
1. Water required per day = 2,75,000 x 200 = 55 x 106 L/day = 55 MLD
2. Accounting 5% for backwashing,
57.75
 water required = 55 x 1.05 = 57.75 MLD = = 2.457 ML/hr
23.5
2.457×106
3. Area of filter = = 163.8 m2
103 ×15
163.8
4. No. of filter = = 4.1  5
(10×4)
5. One filter as stand by,  No. = 5 + 1 = 6

46. b
106
Q L/hr
24
 106 
 
 24 
A    10.41 11m2
4000
0.2
Area of under drainage system = 0.2% A =  100  0.022m2
100

47. 5.15
for pH = 7, H+ = 10-7 moles/L V=300mL
for pH = 5, H+ = 10-5 moles/L V=700mL
10 -7  300  10 5  700
Average pH   7.03 10 6
300  700
pH = -log(7.03 x 10-6) = 5.15

48. 15
TEST SERIES – ENVIRONMENT ENGG. - I P a g e | 16

28000 150
Present Demand   4200 m3 / day
1000
Population Increase = 44000 – 28000 = 16000 in next 20 years
i.e. 800 per year
Capacity Removing = 6000 – 4200 = 1800 m3/day
 Capacity Increase Per Year = 800 x 100 = 120 m3/day
N = 18000 / 120 = 15

49. 11724
1. Suspended solids removed = 0.95 x 400 = 380 mg/L
2. Solids produced by alum = 0.24 x 45 = 10.8 mg/L
3. Total solids = 390.8 mg/L
390.8×3×107
4. Total solids removed per day = = 11724 kg
106

54. 0.8
Q
SOR 
A
Q
400 
80
Q = 32000 L/hr
 Volume = Q x DT = 32000 x 2 = 64000 L = 64m3
 Depth = V/A = 64/80 = 0.8m

55. 5
1) Area of each filter bed = 2 x 3 = 6m2
2) Design flow rate of each bank of filter = 0.044 m3/sec = 3801.6 m3/day
3) Total area = 3801.6/150 = 25.34m2
4) N = 25.34 / 6 = 4.22  5

56. a
 50   50 
TH  80    30    325 mg / L
 
20  12 
Alkalinity = 135.2mg/L
Total dissolved solids = 80 + 30 + 72 + 6 + 100 + 201 +165 = 654mg/L

57. 0.75
50
2,00,000  200 
Q 100  694 L / Sec
8  60  60
Q = 0.694 m3/sec
hf = 10m
L = 5000m
fLQ 2
hf 
12 .1D 5
D = 0.75m
TEST SERIES – ENVIRONMENT ENGG. - I P a g e | 17

58. 5.55
1) Quantity of alum required per day = (12 x 106 x 14) / 106 = 168 kg
2) Molecular weight of alum = 666
3) Molecular weight of CO2 = 44
4) AI2(SO4)3.18H2O + Ca(HCO3)2 = 2AI(OH)3 + 3CaSO4 + 6CO2 + 18 H2O
 666 mg of alum releases 6 x 44 mg of CO2
6 44
 14 mg of alum will release = = 5.55 mg of CO2
666

59. 194
1) Since 99.7% of bacteria are killed, 0.3% of bacteria will remain in water after ozonisation.
2) If before ozonisation concentration of bacteria is 100 mg/L, after ozonisation is 0.3 mg/L.
3) In the given problem residual required is 0.6 mg/L
100 0.6
 No   200mg/L
0.3
2.303  200 
4) t  3
log 10    194 seconds
3x10  0.6 

60. 2.1

V 26 2  2.1  1115 m3
4
V 1115
DT    2.1
Q  13000 
 
 24 

61. b
1  0.5   0.1  0.05 
Overall Removal    100    100     100    100  165mg / L
1  1  1   1 

62. 60.3
dL
 KL
dt
dL
 L    K  dt
LogeL = -Kt + C
2.303 log10L = - Kt + C
At t = 0, L = 200 mg/L
2.303 log10 (200) = O + C
C = 5.30
2.303 log10L = - Kt + 5.30
t = 3 days
2.303 log10L = - 0.4 x 3 + 5.30
L = 60.3 mg/L