Part I June 2013

1. 1- The physiological dead space:

a. Is exactly equal to the anatomic dead space in normal people
b. Increases during exercise
c. Is measured by single breath nitrogen analysi
d. Is higher in elderly than young adults
e. Is the same as the physiological shunt

2. 2- . A decrease in the recoil force of the lung is likely to:

a. Decrease total lung capacity
b. Increase vital capacity
c. Increase functional residual capacity
d. Decrease the residual volume
e. Decrease compliance of the lung

3. Surfactant:
a. Helps to equalize pressure within interconnected alveoli
b. Reduces surface tension more effectively as alveolus becomes smaller
c. Increases lung compliance
d. Increases the slope of the pressure-volume curve
e. All of the above

4. Minute ventilation is:

a. The volume of air moved in or out of the alveoli per minute
b. The volume of air moved in or out of the lung per breath
c. Alveolar ventilation plus dead space ventilation
d. Invariably increases if the respiratory rate increases
e. Is measured using Bohr's equation (CO2 analysis in expired air)

5. PCO2 in arterial blood:

a. Invariably increases with hypoxia
b. Stimulates ventilation mainly through peripheral chemoreceptors
c. Is the major controller of ventilation
d. Increases early in exercise
e. Increases on ascent to high altitude

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6. The volume of air that describes the lung's ability to eliminate carbon
dioxide is:
a. Tidal volume
b. Pulmonary ventilation
c. Vital capacity
d. Alveolar ventilation
e. Functional residual capacity.

7. The functions of the renal proximal convoluted tubes include:

a. Reabsorption of all bicarbonate filtered at the glomerulus
b. Production of renin
c. Reaborption of 80% of filtered bicarbonate
d. Reabsorption of bicarbonate resulting in fixed acid secretion
e. Hydrogen ion secretion by facilitated diffusion

8. In a healthy adult man the glomerular filteration rate is expected to be:

a. 225 ml/min
b. 325 ml/min
c. 125 ml/min
d. 25 ml/min
e. 180 ml/min

9. The following hormones can be formed by the kidney except:

a. Erythropoietin
b. Angiotensin II
c. Prostaglandins
d. ADH
e. Calcitriol

10. Water reabsorption in the collecting duct:

a. Is dependent on aldosterone
b. Is increased by ADH
c. Has the largest percentage of total water reabsorbed
d. Is facilitated by sodium reabsorption
e. Independent of osmotic difference across the tubules

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11. Which of the following is NOT a function of the kidney
a. Regulation of extracellular volume
b. Regulation of plasma glucose concentration
c. Regulation of arterial blood pressure
d. Excretion of end products of protein metabolism
e. Excretion of foreign chemicals (e.g. Pharmaceuticals, food additives, etc)

12. The restriction of protein to pass through the filtration membrane is due to:
a. The size of the pores in the capillary wall
b. The size of the spaces between the cells of the epithelial layer
c. The basement membrane
d. The positive charge on the membrane
e. The presence of the phagocytic mesangial cells

13. The part of the brain that regulates body temperature is:
a. Pituitary
b. Thalamus
c. Hypothalamus
d. Pons
e. Cerebral cortex

14. Features of a heat stroke include all the following except:

a. Hypotension
b. Dehydration
c. Low Cardiac Output
d. Excessive sweating
e. Confusion

15. The body temperature of a patient is 38ºC and observed to be rising. The
following is true regarding this patient:
a. He is unlikely to be sweating
b. His metabolic rate will be higher than normal
c. He is unlikely to be shivering
d. He is unlikely to have respiratory alkalosis
e. His temperature set point is 38ºC

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16. The thermoregulatory response that can be blocked by atropine is:
a. Shivering
b. Cutaneous vasodilation
c. Sweating
d. Cutaneous vasoconstriction
e. Piloerection

17. The enzymes produced by the exocrine pancreas include the following
except:
a. Proelastase
b. DNase
c. Amylase
d. Enteropeptidase
e. Lipase

18. After a cholecystectomy, patients may have problems with fat-rich foods
because
a. The liver stops producing enough bile
b. Bile pigments are reduced in amount
c. The enterohepatic circulation has stopped
d. Bile is not well concentrated
e. The sphincter of Oddi fails to open in response to a fatty meal

19. The functions of gastrin include the following except:

a. Increased production of histamine in the gastric mucosa
b. Stimulation of the growth of intestinal mucosa
c. Increased secretion of pepsinogen
d. Contraction of the gastro-oesophageal junction
e. Increased secretion of HCO3- by biliary duct cells

20. If the submandibular salivary gland stops functioning:

a. The volume of salivary secretion will be reduced by 20%
b. There would be severe deficiency of alpha-amylase
c. There would be no mucins in saliva
d. There would be difficulty in swallowing
e. Parasympathetic stimulation would not increase salivary secretion

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21. The mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve leaves the skull through
the:
a. Superior orbital fissure
b. Foramen rotundum
c. Foramen ovale
d. Jugular foramen
e. Foramen magnum

22. The ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve leaves the skull through
the:
a. Inferior orbital fissure
b. Foramen ovale
c. Foramen rotundum
d. Superior orbital fissure
e. Pterygopalatine foramen

23. The optic canal is an opening in the:

a. Lesser wing of the sphenoid bone
b. Occipital bone
c. Petrous part of the temporal bone
d. Frontal bone
e. Squamous part of the temporal bone

24. The hypoglossal canal is located in the:

a. Squamous part of the temporal bone
b. Occipital bone
c. Frontal bone
d. Sphenoid bone
e. Parietal bone

25. The genioglossus muscle _____ the tongue:

a. Retracts
b. Depresses
c. Elevates
d. Protrudes
e. Changes the shape.

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26. The palatoglossus muscle:
a. Depresses the tongue
b. Elevates the tongue
c. Changes the shape of the tongue
d. Retracts the tongue upwards and backwards
e. Protrudes the tongue

27. A following statements concerning the chorda tympani are correct except:
a. It contains parasympathetic postganglionic fibers
b. It contains special sensory (taste) fibers
c. It joins the lingual nerve in the infratemporal fossa
d. It is a branch of the facial nerve in the temporal bone
e. It carries secretomotor fibers to the submandibular and sublingual salivary
glands

28. The following statements concerning the submandibular lymph nodes are
correct except:
a. They drain into the deep cervical lymph nodes
b. They drain the tip of the tongue
c. They drain the skin of the forehead
d. They are situated on the superficial surface of the submandibular salivary
gland
e. They drain the mucous membrane lining the cheek

29. The following statements concerning the parotid salivary glands are correct
except:
a. The facial nerve passes through it, dividing the gland into superficial and
deep parts
b. The secretomotor nerve suppy is derived from the facial nerve
c. The parotid duct pierces the buccinator muscle and opens into the mouth
d. The external carotid artery divides within its substance to form the
superficial temporal and maxillary arteries
e. The retromandibular vein is formed within it by the union of the superficial
temporal vein and maxillary vein

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30. Which of the following muscles elevates the soft palate during swallowing?
a. Tensor veli palatini
b. Palatoglossus
c. Palatopharyngeus
d. Levator veli palatini
e. Salpingopharyngeus

31. Impaired function of which of the following muscles produce difficulty in

protruding the jaw?
a. The anterior belly of the digastric
b. The lateral pterygoid
c. The medial pterygoid
d. The masseter
e. The temporalis

32. During operations on the thyroid gland, the following nerve may be injured
when tying the inferior thyroid artery:
a. The sympathetic trunk
b. The internal laryngeal nerve
c. The descendens cervicalis
d. The recurrent laryngeal nerve
e. The superior laryngeal nerve

33. All of the following provide innervation to the tongue except:

a. Hypoglossal XII
b. Glossopharyngeal IX
c. Maxillary V2
d. Mandibular V3
e. Facial VII

34. Concerning the larynx:

a. The mucosa below the vocal cords is innervated by the recurrent laryngeal
nerve
b. The crico-thyroid muscle is innervated by a branch of the superior
laryngeal nerve
c. The posterior crico-arytenoid muscle adducts the vocal cords
d. Both A and B
e. Both B and C

35. Each of the following structures is found (in part) within the posterior
triangle of the neck except:

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 a. Accessory nerve
b. Transverse cervical artery
c. Subclavian vein
d. Occipital artery
e. Internal carotid artery

36. The accessory meningeal artery enters the skull via:

a. Foramen ovale
b. Foramen lacerum
c. Foramen spinosum
d. Foramen rotundum

37. The internal jugular vein:

a. Lies within the carotid sheath
b. Receives the inferior petrosal sinus
c. Vagus lies between it and internal carotid artery
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

38. Motor nerves of the cervical plexus include:

a. Phrenic
b. Ansa cervicalis
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B

39. The auriculotemporal nerve is split as it travels through the infratemporal

fossa by which of the following vessels?
a. Deep auricular artery
b. Middle meningeal artery
c. Anterior tympanic artery
d. Posterior deep temporal artery

40. The only intrinsic laryngeal muscle not innervated by the recurrent
laryngeal nerve is the:
a. Posterior cricoarytenoid muscle
b. Lateral cricoarytenoid muscle
c. Thyroarytenoid muscle
d. Transverse arytenoid muscle
e. Cricothyroid muscle

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41. An Amputated lower limb from a diabetic patient showing black
discoloration of the skin and soft tissues with areas of yellowish exudates
is characterized as:
a. Neoplasia
b. Gangrenous Necrosis
c. Coagulopathy
d. Hemosiderosis
e. Gas gangrene

42. The enzymes responsible for liquefaction in an abscess are derived mainly
from:
a. Tissue
b. Serum
c. Lymph
d. Neutrophils
e. Lymphocytes

43. Each of the following is an example of hyperplasia except:

a. Enlargement of one kidney after surgical removal of the other kidney
b. Changes in the thyroid gland in response to increased demand for thyroid
hormones
c. Changes in breast tissue during pregnancy
d. Enlargement of lymph nodes during a viral infection
e. Enlargement of skeletal muscles after weight training

44. Select the wrong statement. Apoptosis:

a. Occurs in singles cells or in small cluster of cells
b. Is programmed cell death
c. Is seen in toxic or viral hepatitis
d. Appears cheesy in appearance
e. Does not elicit an inflammatory reaction

45. Apoptosis:
a. Massive necrosis
b. Foreign body phagocytosis
c. Lipoprotein synthesis
d. Programmed cell death
e. Wet gangrene

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46. The following is true about hyperplasia except:
a. Can be physiological
b. Is a precancerous condition
c. Is reversible
d. Is due to excess hormone stimulation
e. Can be associated with hypertrophy

47. Hypertrophy is most closely associated with:

a. Hypercalcemia
b. Necrosis
c. Chronic Irritation
d. Diminished Blood Supply
e. Increased Work

48. Changes of color in Gangrene is due to:

a. Deposition of amyloid
b. Breakdown of hemoglobin
c. Deposition of melanin
d. Deposition of lipofuscin
e. Deposition of calcium salts

49. Which of the following is a feature of irreversible cell injury:

a. Swelling of Endoplasmic Reticulum
b. Formation of Blebs
c. Karyolysis of Nuclei
d. Fatty Change
e. Mitochondrial Swelling

50. In the process of necrosis, a reduction in the size of the nucleus and a
condensation of nuclear material is known as:
a. Karyolysis
b. Pyknophrasia
c. Karyorrhexis
d. Pyknosis
e. Metachromasia

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51. A cardinal sign of Inflammation is:
a. Vasoconstriction
b. Redness
c. Leukocyte Margination
d. Vasodilation
e. Slowing of the Circulation

52. After initiating an acute inflammatory event, the third in a sequence of

changes in vascular flow is:
a. Vasoconstriction
b. Redness
c. Leukocyte Margination
d. Vasodilation
e. Slowing of the Circulation

53. Which of the following is most associated with Acute Inflammation

a. Neutrophils
b. Connective Tissue
c. Macrophages
d. Granulation Tissue
e. Granuloma

54. The tumor of inflammation is due primarily to:

a. Arteriolar Dilation
b. Venous Dilation
c. Capillary Dilation
d. Increased Intracellular Fluid
e. Increased Extracellular Fluid

55. Granuloma formation is most frequently associated with:

a. Acute inflammation
b. The Healing Process
c. Wound Contraction
d. Fibroblasts and Neovascularization
e. A persistent irritant

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56. The most characteristic feature of granulation tissue is the:
a. Resemblance to a Granuloma
b. Growth of Fibroblasts and New Capillaries
c. Character of the Exudate
d. A form of Gangrenous Necrosis
e. Presence of Monocytes and Fibroblasts

57. Prostaglandins are formed from Arachidonic Acid through the action of
which enzyme pathway?
a. Cyclooxygenase
b. Lipoxygenase
c. Myeloperoxidase
d. Phospholipase A
e. Glutathione Reductase

58. The cavity of an Abscess contains:

a. Caseous Necrosis
b. Hyalin
c. Giant Cells
d. Pus
e. Granulation Tissue

59. The following have a granuloma except:

a. T.B
b. Syphilis
c. Leprosy
d. Schistosomiasis
e. Staphylococcal Infection

60. The first inflammatory cell to show at the site of acute inflammation is the:
a. Monocyte
b. B-lymphocyte
c. T-lymphocyte
d. Neutrophils
e. Mast cell

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61. The function of microvilli is:
a. Movement of substance over all surfaces
b. Increase in surface area for absorption
c. Cellular movement
d. Transport of intracellular organelles through the cytoplasm
e. Specialized uptake of macromolecules

62. All of the following statements are true about epithelia except:
a. There is abundance of intracellular substance
b. They demonstrate strong adhesions between cells
c. They are derived from any of the embryonic germ layers
d. They have absorptive functions
e. They are capable of secretion

63. Transitional epithelium is:

a. Pseudostratified
b. Ciliated
c. Keratinized
d. Simple squamous epithelium
e. Stratified

64. Fibroblasts:
a. Are the main cell types found in connective tissue
b. Synthesize collagen
c. Synthesize glycosaminoglycans
d. structural cells
e. Act as phagocytes

65. Woven bone is:

a. Common in adults
b. Typical of all spongy bone
c. Also called primary bone
d. Also called secondary bone
e. Found in mature bone

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66. The primary centers of ossification in long bone develops in:
a. Diaphyses
b. Metaphyses
c. Epiphyses
d. Elastic cartilage model
e. Articular cartilage

67. Osteoblasts:
a. Are bone forming cells
b. Synthesize collagen
c. Synthesize glycosaminoglycans
d. Are structural cells
e. Act as phagocytes

68. Pseudostratified Epithelium is found in the:

a. Trachea
b. Blood vessels
c. Pleura
d. Intestine
e. Skin

69. Presented with a tissue containing transitional epithelium, you could say it
was prepared from the:
a. Oesophegus
b. Stomach
c. Tongue
d. Skin
e. Ureter

70. Normal parathyroid glands of adults possess:

a. Principal cells
b. A capsule
c. Oxyphil cells
d. Fat cells
e. Calcitonin-secreting cells

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71. Lymph is filtered in the:
a. Lymph nodes
b. Tonsils
c. Spleen
d. Thymus
e. Peyer's patches

72. All of the following statements are true of connective tissue except:
a. It separates tissue from the surrounding environment
b. It provides support
c. It functions in defense mechanisms
d. It mediates cell migration
e. It consists of extracellular matrix formed solely by connective tissue cells

73. The Haversian System:

a. The morphological unit of compact bone
b. Found in spongy bone
c. Is composed of woven bone
d. Is found in primary bone
e. Involved in the formation of the outer circumferential lamellae

74. Elastic Cartilage:

a. very vascular
b. Is formed of collagen type I fibers
c. Has no perichondrium
d. Is yellow when unstained
e. Can easily calcify

75. Fibroblasts:
a. Are the main cell types found in connective tissue
b. Synthesize collagen
c. Synthesize glycosaminoglycans
d. Are structural cells
e. Act as phagocytes

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76. Compact bone contains all the following except:
a. Outer circumferential lamellae
b. Inner circumferential lamellae
c. Concentric lamellae
d. Interstitial lamellae
e. Spaces

77. Osteoblasts:
a. Are bone forming cells
b. Synthesize collagen
c. Synthesize glycosaminoglycans
d. Are structural cells
e. Act as phagocytes

78. Pseudostratified Epithelium is found in the:

a. Trachea
b. Blood vessels
c. Pleura
d. Intestine
e. Skin

79. Fibrocartilage has a matrix with large amounts of:

a. Collagen fibers
b. Elastic fibers
c. Lipids
d. Ground substance
e. Reticular fiber

80. The following statements on cell/function are true except:

a. Plasma cells/ Produce antibodies
b. Macrophages/ Phagocytic cells
c. Osteoblasts/ Bone-forming cells
d. Osteoclasts/ Bone-forming cells
e. Endothelium/ Lines blood vessels

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81. Presented with a normal tissue containing transitional epithelium, you
would say that this is from:
a. Urinary bladder
b. Skin
c. Oesophegus
d. Tongue
e. Trachea

82. plaque mass contain about:

a. 20%→30% of intercellular matrix .
b. 50% matrix.
c. large amount of antibodies.
d. Collagen type IV
e. All of the above.

83. The first bacteria that colonize the tooth surface must have:
a. Spore forming potentiality
b. Be resistant to antibiotics
c. Special receptors
d. Able to resist high temperatures
e. None of the above

84. Coaggregation is process by which:

a. Pathogens destroy body defenses
b. Body defenses destroy bacteria
c. Other bacteria get attached to the early colonizers
d. Viruses multiply
e. PMNs get accumulated at sites of infection

85. The color of the subgingival calculus is influenced by:

a. the presence of microorganisms
b. Blood pigments.
c. Gingival crevicular fluid.
d. Material alba
e. Subgingival enzymes.

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86. The earliest sign of gingival inflammation is:
a. Mobility
b. Redness
c. Loss of stippling
d. Bleeding on probing
e. Recession

87. Deep pockets in localized aggressive periodontitis show:

a. Heavy calculus deposits
b. Large amounts of pus
c. Acutely inflamed tissues
d. No signs of clinical inflammation
e. Heavy infiltration with PMNSs

88. The age of onset of generalized aggressive periodontitis is:

a. Above 30 years
b. Blow 30 years
c. Less than 30 years but older individuals can be affected too
d. Around puberty
e. Has nothing to do with age.

89. The most common pathogen in chronic periodontitis is

a. A. actinomycetemcomitans
b. Staphylococcus auries
c. Treponema pallidum
d. Vibrio species
e. Porphyromonas gingivalis.

90. Horizontal bone loss is usually associated with:

a. Angular bony defects
b. Suprabony pockets
c. Mesioangular defects
d. Ground glass appearance
e. Loss of lamina Dura

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91. In moderate periodontitis,:
a. Bone loss is up to 40% of the periodontal attachment of the tooth.
b. Furcation involvement is grade III
c. There is no mobility
d. Lymph nodes are enlarged
e. There is severe pain.
Orthodontics.
Periodontal diseases.
Tooth brush trauma.
Invasion of the biologic width by restoration.

92. Key features of localized early onset ( aggressive) periodontitis include: -

a. Onset around puberty.
b. High prevalence in adolescent.
c. Aggregatibacter. actinomycetemcomitans is usually present.
d. Attachment loss < 3 mm on first molar and incisor.

93. Systemic antibiotics : -

a. Should always be used for treatment of chronic periodontitis.
b. Should always be used for refractory periodontitis.
c. May be used in the treatment of aggressive periodontitis.
d. May be indicated for treatment of periodontal abscess.

94. Factors contributing to periodontal diseases include: -

a. Host- derived responses such as impaired antibody response, diabetes,
pregnancy stress or smoking.
b. A high sugar diet.
c. Expression of virulence factors by specific bacterial species.
d. Poor oral hygiene.

95. True mal odor: -

a. Is most often of oral bacterial activity.
b. May results from a post natal mucous drip.
c. Is usually caused by gram- positive anaerobes.
d. May be associated with poor oral hygiene

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96. What determines the management of molar teeth affected by periodontal
diseases: -
a. The root anatomy.
b. The dentist’s treatment plan.
c. The type of restoration.
d. The amount of periodontal destruction.

97. Host susceptibility to periodontal disease: -

a. May be genetically influenced.
b. May be directly related to pt`s sucrose intake.
c. May be influenced by systemic factors such as diabetes.
d. May be influenced by environmental factors such as smoking.

98. A health associated bacterial flora : -

a. Benefit the host by occupying niches that could be colonized by
pathogens.
b. Permit pathogens to adhere to tooth surface.
c. Degrade virulence factors produced by pathogen.
d. Limits the ability of pathogen to produce toxins.

99. Periodontal disease associated with poorly controlled diabetes mellitus: -

a. Can be stabilized with improved glycemic control.
b. Is associated with high proportions of streptococci.
c. May benefit from therapeutic adjuncts to mechanical debridement.
d. Can be aggravated by smoking.

100. The tissue changes in pregnancy gingivitis : -

a. Are most severe post partum.
b. Can be improved with meticulous plaque control measures.
c. Can result in significant periodontal bone loss.
d. Are most prevalent in the second and third trimester of pregnancy.

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