Occupational English Test

READING SUB-TEST
Part A - Text Booklet
Practice test

You must record your answers for Part A in the

Part A - Answer Booklet using pen or pencil.

Please print in BLOCK LETTERS

Candidate number – –

Family name

Other name(s)

City

Date of test

Candidate’s signature

YOU MUST NOT REMOVE OET MATERIAL FROM THE TEST ROOM.

The OET Centre Telephone: +61 3 9652 0800

GPO Box 372 Facsimile: +61 3 9654 5329
Melbourne VIC 3001 www.occupationalenglishtest.org
Australia

© OET Centre — Practice test ABN 84 434 201 642

 Reading: Part A - Text Booklet
Instructions
TIME LIMIT: 15 MINUTES
• Complete the summary on pages 2 and 3 of Part A - Answer booklet using the information in the four texts
(A1-4) below.

• You do not need to read each text from beginning to end to complete the task. You should scan the texts to
find the information you need.

• Gaps may require 1, 2 or 3 words. Answer ALL questions. Marks are NOT deducted for incorrect answers.

• You should write your answers next to the appropriate number in the right-hand column.

• Please use correct spelling in your responses. Do not use abbreviations unless they appear in the texts.

Text A1 Vasectomy: Texts

Title: Risk of Prostate Cancer After Vasectomy (2003)
Authors: Krishnamurthy, McLeod & Williams
Context: Vasectomy is a common method of contraception, but concern exists about a reported association
with risk of prostate cancer.
Objective: To examine whether vasectomy increases risk of prostate cancer.
Design, Setting, and Participants: National population-based case-control study of 923 new cases of
prostate cancer among men aged 40 to 74 years from the Australia Cancer Registry who were on the
general electoral roll. Controls (n = 1224) were randomly selected from the general electoral roll, with
frequency matching to cases in 5-year age groups. Cases (3-15 months after diagnosis) and controls were
interviewed by telephone over a 3-year period.
Main Outcome Measures: Relative risk (RR) of prostate cancer for men who had had a vasectomy vs
those who had not.
Results: There was no association between prostate cancer and vasectomy (RR, 0.92; 95% confidence
interval [CI], 0.75-1.14) nor with time since vasectomy (RR, 0.92; 95% CI, 0.68-1.23 for ≥25 years since
vasectomy). Adjustment for social class, geographic region, religious affiliation, and a family history of
prostate cancer did not affect these RRs.
Conclusions: Vasectomy does not increase the risk of prostate cancer, even after 25 years or more.

Text A2

Vasectomy Statistics from Britain (2008)

men aged 16-69: percentage who had had a vasectomy (2001-2008)

2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007 2008

17 15 18 17 18 18 17 18

percentage who had had a vasectomy: by age (2008)

16-29 30-34 35-39 40-44 45-49 50-54 55-64 65-69

1 6 15 19 20 30 31 30

Texts continue on the next page

2
Text A3

Male sterilisation (vasectomy) – FAQs for patients

Q: How will I feel after the operation?
A: Your scrotum will probably be bruised, swollen and painful. Wearing tight-fitting underpants, to
support your scrotum, day and night for a week may help. You should avoid strenuous exercise for at
least a week. For most men pain is quite mild and they do not need any further help. The doctor or nurse
should give you information about how to look after yourself.
Q: Are there any serious risks or complications?
A: Research shows that there are no known serious long-term health risks caused by having a vasectomy.
• Occasionally, some men have bleeding, a large swelling, or an infection. In this case, see your
doctor as soon as possible.
• Sometimes sperm may leak out of the tube and collect in the surrounding tissue as sperm
granulomas. These may cause inflammation and pain immediately, or a few weeks or months later.
If this happens, they can be treated.
• Some men may experience ongoing pain in their testicles. This is known as chronic pain. Treatment
for this is often unsuccessful.
• The large majority of men having a vasectomy will have a local anaesthetic but sometimes a
general anaesthetic is used. All operations using a general anaesthetic carry some risks, but serious
problems are rare.
Q: Can sterilisation be reversed?
A: Sterilisation is meant to be permanent. There are reversal operations but they are not always
successful. The success will depend on how and when you were sterilised. Reversal can be difficult and
may cost a great deal because of this.

Text A4

Reverse vasectomy: a case study

Gary married young and had three children in his twenties. He had a
vasectomy at 31. Then his first marriage broke down. He met Sarah and
they decided they also wanted a family. Gary paid to have a reverse
vasectomy operation but it wasn’t successful. A second operation with a
different urologist did succeed, and Sarah is now pregnant with their
first child. Gary felt that the original vasectomy was the right thing to
do at the time, but with hindsight he now believes men under 40 should
not rush into having one if there is even the smallest chance they may
want a child in the future.

END OF PART A
THIS TEXT BOOKLET WILL BE COLLECTED

3
 Occupational English Test

READING SUB-TEST
Part B - Text Booklet
Practice test

You must record your answers for Part B on the

multiple-choice answer sheet using 2B pencil.

Please print in BLOCK LETTERS

Candidate number – –

Family name

Other name(s)

City

Date of test

Candidate’s signature

YOU MUST NOT REMOVE OET MATERIAL FROM THE TEST ROOM.

The OET Centre Telephone: +61 3 9652 0800

GPO Box 372 Facsimile: +61 3 9654 5329
Melbourne VIC 3001 www.occupationalenglishtest.org
Australia

© OET Centre — Practice test ABN 84 434 201 642

Instructions
TIME LIMIT: 45 MINUTES

There are TWO reading texts in Part B. After each of the texts you will find a number of questions or unfinished
statements about the text, each with four suggested answers or ways of finishing.
You must choose the ONE which you think fits best. For each question, 1-20, indicate on your answer sheet
the letter A, B, C or D against the number of the question.
Answer ALL questions. Marks are NOT deducted for incorrect answers.
NOTE: You must complete your Answer Sheet for Part B within the 45 minutes allowed for this part of the
sub-test.

NOW TURN TO THE NEXT PAGE FOR TEXTS AND QUESTIONS

 Text B1: Animal testing
Paragraph 1
The use of living animals in research and teaching, while first documented around 2000 years ago,
became prominent in the second half of the 19th century as part of the development of the emerging
sciences of physiology and anatomy. In the mid 1900s, the rapid expansion of the pharmaceutical
and chemical industries gave rise to an enormous increase in the use of animals in research. Today it
is a multi-billion dollar industry, involving not only the pharmaceutical and chemical industries, but
also university and government bodies. There is, additionally, a sizeable industry providing support
services in relation to animal research, including animal breeding, food supply and cage manufacture,
among many others.

Paragraph 2
The types of research that animals are subjected to include the traditional forms of physiological
research, which typically involves the study of body function and disease, and psychological
research, which often entails controlling the eating, movement or choices of animals in experimental
contexts. Other more recent forms of research include agricultural research directed towards intensive
farming methods and increasing the efficiency of animals kept for food or food products. The genetic
engineering of species used in agriculture is common amongst sheep and cattle, for example, in an
attempt to increase the production of wool or milk, or to alter the characteristics of the end product
(finer wool, for instance). Safety testing, or toxicology testing, is another common type of research
where medicines, agricultural chemicals and various other chemical products, such as shampoos and
cosmetics, are assessed for safe human use by testing the products on animals.

Paragraph 3
While accurate global figures for animal testing are extremely difficult to obtain, estimates indicate
that anywhere from 50 to 100 million vertebrates are used in experiments every year (although this
figure does not include the many more invertebrates, such as worms and flies, that are employed).
The most commonly used vertebrates are mice, attractive to researchers for their size, low cost, ease
of handling, and fast reproduction rate, as well as the fact that their genetic makeup is comparable to
that of human beings. Other types of vertebrates used in the pursuit of science include fish, chickens,
pigs, monkeys, cats, dogs, sheep and horses.

Paragraph 4
Perhaps one of the most widely-known examples of animals being used for the purposes of scientific
research is Ivan Pavlov’s ‘conditioned reflex’ experiments in the late 19th early 20th centuries. Pavlov
and his researchers were investigating the gastric functions of dogs and the chemical composition of
their saliva under changing conditions, when Pavlov noticed that the animals began salivating before
food was delivered. Pavlov’s team then changed the focus of their experiments and embarked on a
series of experiments on conditional reflexes that earned Pavlov the 1904 Nobel Prize in Physiology
and Medicine for his work on the physiology of digestion. What is less well-known about Pavlov’s
research is that these experiments included surgically implanting fistulas in animals’ stomachs, which
enabled him to study organs and take samples of body fluids from animals while they continued to
function normally. Also, further work on reflex actions involved involuntary reactions to extreme
stress and pain.

2
Paragraph 5
Supporters of animal testing argue that virtually every medical achievement in the 20th century relied on
the use of animals in some way and that alternatives to animal testing, such as computer modelling, are
inadequate and fail to model the complex interactions between molecules, cells, tissues, organs, organisms
and the environment. Opponents argue that such testing is cruel to animals and is poor scientific practice, that
results are an unreliable indicator of the effects in humans, and that it is poorly regulated. They also point
to the fact that many alternatives to using animals have been developed, particularly in the area of toxicity
testing, and that these developments have occurred most rapidly and effectively in countries where the use of
animals is prohibited.

Paragraph 6
Although animal rights groups have made slow headway, there are signs that the issues they are concerned
about are being heard. Most scientists and governments state, publicly at least, that animal testing should cause
as little suffering to animals as possible, and that animal tests should only be performed where necessary.
The ‘three Rs’ of replacement, reduction and refinement are the guiding principles for the use of animals in
research in most countries. They are designed to minimise the use of animals in scientific research by using
other types of research where possible, by reducing the number of animals used in research, and by refining
research techniques to minimise the animals’ pain and distress.

Part B -Text B1: Questions 1-11

1 According to paragraph 1, research using animals ……

A was non-existent before 1850.

B is most common in the medical industry.
C generates trade for offshoot industries.
D is on the rise.

2 According to paragraph 1, the use of living animals in research and teaching ……

A has taken place for at least two millennia.

B rose to prominence around 2,000 years ago.
C emerged in the second half of the 19th century.
D originated in the pharmaceutical and chemical industries.

3 According to paragraph 2, one of the new applications of animal testing is concerned

with ……

A combining the traditions of physiological and psychological research.

B finding ways to improve farm animals’ productive capacity.
C controlling the eating, movement or choices of animals.
D revisiting the age-old study of body function and disease.

TURN OVER 3
 QUESTIONS

4 According to paragraph 3, global figures for animal testing are ……

A subsiding.
B elusive.
C confronting.
D extreme.

5 According to paragraph 3, which one of the following statements about mice

is TRUE?

A They are much more popular with researchers than invertebrates.

B They have a genetic make-up which is at odds with that of humans.
C They are very attractive to researchers because of their speed and aptitude.
D They pose fewer constraints than other vertebrates in terms of care and expense.

6 According to paragraph 4, Pavlov’s research ……

A was unethical at the time.

B involved hurting animals deliberately.
C was conducted solely on dogs.
D did not focus on dogs initially.

7 According to paragraph 4, Pavlov’s groundbreaking research into conditional

reflexes ……

A was prompted by the observation that dogs salivated when they were hungry.
B came about by accident while he was investigating something else.
C was triggered by his noticing chemical changes in the dogs’ saliva.
D led to a larger-scale investigation of the gastric functions of dogs.

8 According to paragraph 5, animal testing proponents argue that ……

A many of the alternative methods still rely on the use of animals in some way.
B it was crucial in the 20th century before viable alternatives became available.
C computer modelling requires improvement before it can replace animal testing.
D medical advancement in the 20th century would have been hindered without it.

9 According to paragraph 5, opponents of animal testing argue that ……

A countries who prohibit it are developing rapidly.

B its results are unreliable due to poor regulation.
C there are insufficient rules and restrictions.
D it is only justifiable in the area of toxicity testing.
4
QUESTIONS

10 The word headway in paragraph 6 could best be replaced by ……

A progress.
B improvements.
C impact.
D developments.

11 Replacement in the three Rs described in paragraph 6 refers to the

substitution of ……

A animal species.
B research methods.
C painful techniques.
D animal numbers.

END OF PART B - Text 1

TURN OVER FOR PART B - TEXT 2

5
 Text B2: Oral health and systemic disease
Paragraph 1
The relationship between oral health and diabetes (Types 1 and 2) is well known and documented. In the
last decade, however, an increasing body of evidence has given support to the existence of an association
between oral health problems, specifically periodontal disease, and other systemic diseases, such as those
of the cardiovascular system. Adding further layers of complexity to the problem is the lack of awareness
in much of the population of periodontal disease, relative to their knowledge of more observable dental
problems, as well as the decreasing accessibility and affordability of dental treatment in Australia. While
epidemiological studies have confirmed links between periodontal disease and systemic diseases, from
diabetes to autoimmune conditions, osteoporosis, heart attacks and stroke, in the case of the last two the
findings remain cautious and qualified regarding the mechanics or biological rationale of the relationship.
Paragraph 2
Periodontal diseases, the most severe form of which is periodontitis, are inflammatory bacterial infections
that attack and destroy the attachment tissue and supporting bone of the jaw. Periodontitis occurs when
gingivitis is untreated or treatment is delayed. Bacteria in plaque that has spread below the gum line release
toxins which irritate the gums. These toxins stimulate a chronic inflammatory response in which the body, in
essence, turns on itself, and the tissues and bone that support the teeth are broken down and destroyed. Gums
separate from the teeth, forming pockets (spaces between the teeth and gums) that become infected. As the
disease progresses, the pockets deepen and more gum tissue and bone are destroyed. Often, this destructive
process only has very mild symptoms. Eventually, however, teeth can become loose and may have to be
removed.
Paragraph 3
The current interest in the relationship between periodontal disease and systemic disease may best be
attributed to a report by Kimmo Mattila and his colleagues. In 1989, in Finland, they conducted a case-
control study on patients who had experienced an acute myocardial infarction and compared them to control
subjects selected from the community. A dental examination was performed on all of the subjects studied,
and a dental index was computed. The dental index used was the sum of scores from the number of carious
lesions, missing teeth, and periapical lesions and probing depth measures to indicate periodontitis and the
presence or absence of pericoronitis (a red swelling of the soft tissues that surround the crown of a tooth
which has partially grown in). The researchers reported a highly significant association between poor dental
health, as measured by the dental index, and acute myocardial infarction. The association was independent
of other risk factors for heart attack, such as age, total cholesterol, high-density lipoprotein triglycerides, C
peptide, hypertension, diabetes, and smoking.
Paragraph 4
Since then, researchers have sought to understand the association between oral health, specifically periodontal
disease, and cardiovascular disease (CVD) – the missing link explaining the abnormally high blood levels of
some inflammatory markers or endotoxins and the presence of periodontal pathogens in the atherosclerotic
plaques of patients with periodontal disease. Two biological mechanisms have been suggested. One is that
periodontal bacteria may enter the circulatory system and contribute directly to atheromatous and thrombotic
processes. The other is that systemic factors may alter the immunoflammatory process involved in both
periodontal disease and CVD. It has also been suggested that some of these illnesses may in turn increase
the incidence and severity of periodontal disease by modifying the body’s immune response to the bacteria
involved, in a bi-directional relationship.

6
Paragraph 5
However, not only is ‘the jury out’ on the actual mechanism of the relationship, it also remains impossible to say
whether treating gum disease can reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease and improve health outcomes for those
who are already sufferers. Additional research is needed to evaluate disease pathogenesis. Should the contributing
mechanisms be identified, however, it will confirm the role of oral health in overall well-being, with some implications
of this being the desirability of closer ties between the medical and the dental professions, and improved public health
education, not to mention greater access to preventive and curative dental treatment. In time, periodontal disease may
be added to other preventable risk factors for CVD, such as smoking, high blood cholesterol, obesity and diabetes.

Part B -Text B2: Questions 12-20

12 According to paragraph 1, oral health problems have recently been linked to ……

A periodontal disease.
B heart conditions.
C diabetes.
D economic factors.

13 According to paragraph 1, periodontal disease is unknown to many Australians

because ……

A dental treatment is no longer affordable.

B the problem has a high degree of complexity.

C information on dental problems is inaccessible.
D it is not as prominent as other dental issues.

14 The most suitable heading for paragraph 2 is ……

A ‘Types of periodontal disease’.

B ‘The treatment of gingivitis’.
C ‘The body’s response to toxins’.
D ‘The process of periodontitis’.

15 According to paragraph 3, the 1989 study in Finland ……

A prompted further interest in the link between oral health and systemic disease.
B did not take into account a number of important risk factors for heart attacks.
C concluded that people with oral health problems were likely to have heart attacks.
D was not considered significant when it was first reported but is now.

TURN OVER 7
 QUESTIONS

16 The research study described in paragraph 3 found that the relationship

between poor dental health and heart attacks was ……

A inconclusive.
B coincidental.
C evident.
D inconsequential.

17 According to paragraph 3, the dental index was used to ……

A indicate whether periodontitis was present.

B assess the overall oral health of patients.
C establish whether pericoronitis was present.
D predict the likelihood of acute myocardial infarction.

18 According to paragraph 4, it has been proposed that ……

A cardiovascular disease could actually exacerbate periodontal disease.

B periodontal disease could modify the body’s immune response.
C there is a bi-directional relationship between periodontal disease and bacteria.
D systemic factors may contribute directly to atheromatous and thrombotic processes.

19 According to paragraph 5, if the processes by which gum disease contributes

to CVD can be discovered there will be ……

A less need for doctors and dentists to work in conjunction.

B a reduced emphasis on other preventable risk factors for CVD.
C a concomitant link between smoking and periodontal disease.
D more support for dental care in the public health system.

20 The expression the jury [is] out in paragraph 5 means that a definitive
conclusion is ……

A imminent.
B impossible.
C without empirical basis.
D yet to be attained.

END OF PART B - Text 2

END OF READING TEST

8
 FOR OFFICE USE ONLY
ASSESSOR NO.

Occupational English Test

READING SUB-TEST
Part A - Answer Booklet
Practice test

You must record your answers for Part A in the

Part A - Answer Booklet using pen or pencil.

Please print in BLOCK LETTERS

Candidate number – –

Family name

Other name(s)

City

Date of test

Candidate’s signature

YOU MUST NOT REMOVE OET MATERIAL FROM THE TEST ROOM.

The OET Centre Telephone: +61 3 9652 0800

GPO Box 372 Facsimile: +61 3 9654 5329
Melbourne VIC 3001 www.occupationalenglishtest.org
Australia

© OET Centre — Practice test ABN 84 434 201 642

Reading: Part A - Answer Booklet
Instructions
TIME LIMIT: 15 MINUTES
• Complete the following summary using the information in the four texts, A1-A4, provided on pages 2 and 3 of the
Text Booklet.

• You do not need to read each text from beginning to end to complete the task. You should scan the texts to find the
information you need.

• Gaps may require 1, 2 or 3 words. You will not receive any marks if you write more than 3 words.

• You should write your answers next to the appropriate number in the right-hand column.

• Please use correct spelling in your responses. Do not use abbreviations unless they appear in the texts.

Summary Answers
Vasectomy
1.

One method of contraception is male sterilisation

or vasectomy. Statistics for 2008 showed that 2.

....(1)....of adult men aged under ....(2).... in

Britain had undergone a vasectomy and that 3.

this proportion had been ....(3)....during the

previous five years. 4.

5.
Patients are informed that vasectomy is a
procedure ....(4)....serious risks or complications. 6.
After the operation, which is ....(5)....carried
out under local anaesthetic, the man will often
7.
experience pain from bruising and swelling of
his ....(6)..... General advice is to wear ....(7)....to
8.
provide support. Physical exertion should ...(8)....
for seven days as a minimum. If the site of the
operation becomes....(9)....or greatly swollen, 9.
or if there is bleeding, the patient should seek
immediate medical attention. After the operation 10.
and for several months subsequently, ....(10)....
may form if there is any leakage of sperm into the 11.
....(11)....; these can be painful but are....(12).....
12.

2 TURN OVER
 Summary Answers

13.
Men with vasectomies have been shown
....(13).... at a higher risk of prostate cancer.
14.
Researchers in Australia contacted ....(14)....
men aged between 40 and 75 who had been
diagnosed with ....(15).... in the preceding 15.

....(16).... months. A control group of men with a

matching ....(17).... profile was also interviewed. 16.

The length of time since ....(18).... did not affect

the relative risk, nor did other possible factors 17.
(e.g. ....(19)....of prostate cancer, social class,
....(20)....and/or location). 18.

Vasectomy is not intended to be a ....(21).... 19.

change. Consequently, reversal is difficult and
this can make it ....(22)..... A successful outcome 20.
cannot be guaranteed. In one case, a man
had to have ....(23)....before his vasectomy was
21.
properly reversed. Having already fathered
....(24).... by the age of 30, he had believed
22.
his original decision to have a vasectomy was
responsible. However, he now advises men in
their ....(25)... to wait unless they are absolutely 23.
certain they ....(26)....a child. Statistics from
Britain for 2008 seem to ....(27).... this advice: the 24.
percentage of men who had had a vasectomy
changes gradually from ....(28).... of those aged 25.
16-29 to ....(29)....of those aged 50-54.
26.

27.

28.

29.

TOTAL SCORE (Marker’s use only)

END OF PART A
THIS ANSWER BOOKLET WILL BE COLLECTED

3
 Occupational English Test
Reading sub-test
Test information

The OET Centre Telephone: +613 9652 0800

GPO Box 372 Facsimile: +613 9654 5329
Melbourne VIC 3001 www.occupationalenglishtest.org
Australia

© OET Centre — Test information ABN 84 434 201 642

General Information
Time Allocation
The Reading sub-test takes 60 minutes.
Part A = 15 minutes
Part B = 45 minutes

Test format and procedure

The Reading sub-test has two parts and is the same for all OET candidates:
Reading Part A
Part A is a new task type. Part A is a Summary reading task.
This requires test-takers to skim and scan 3-4 short texts (a total of about 650 words) related to a
single topic and to complete a summary paragraph by filling in the missing words.
Test-takers are required to read the texts and write responses for 25-35 gaps in total, within a
strictly monitored time limit of 15 minutes.
Part A is designed to test the reader’s ability to source information from multiple texts, to
synthesise information in a meaningful way and to assess skimming and scanning ability under a
time limit.
Reading Part B
Part B is similar to the pre-March 2010 reading task type. Test-takers are required to read two
passages (600- 800 words each) on general medical topics and answer 8-10 multiple choice
questions for each text (a total of 16-20 questions) - within a time limit of 45 minutes.
Part B contains fewer questions than the pre-March 2010 Reading sub-test. The two texts in Part B
are also shorter than those used in the pre-March 2010 Reading sub-test.
Part B is designed to test the reader’s ability to read longer texts in detail for comprehension.

Has the Reading sub-test changed?

Candidates who have sat the Reading sub-test before March 2010 will notice the test format has
changed. A recent study undertaken at the Language Testing Research Centre at the University of
Melbourne established, via the use of surveys and interviews conducted among a range of health
professionals, that there was a wider range of publications and reading genres likely to be read in
the workplace than the type of texts that had previously informed the OET Reading sub-test.
The specific reading skill of skimming and scanning a text was identified as a key component of
surveyed health professionals’ work related reading; an ability that was not directly tested under
the old reading format. An important reason for the changes to the OET Reading sub-test therefore
was to enhance the quality of the test through a more accurate reflection of real-world reading tasks
and the underlying skills required to complete them.
A second reason for changes to the Reading sub-test concerns the desire to further increase
the reliability of test scores; more particularly by increasing the number of assessable items (a
generally accepted reliability-enhancement measure); in real terms, to increase the number of
items to above the previous 20-24 multiple choice items.
What will you do on test day?
On the day of the test you will complete the Reading test in two parts. First you will be given Part A- Text
Booklet and Part A- Answer Booklet. You will have exactly 15 minutes to read the texts and write your
answers to the summary. At the end of 15 minutes, both booklets will be collected from you.
The supervisor will then give you Part B- Text Booklet and Part B- Answer sheet. He/she will explain to you
how to fill in the Answer sheet. You then have 45 minutes to read the 2 texts and answer the questions by
filling in your Answer sheet.
Remember you cannot go back to Part A if you finish Part B early. 15 minutes is a strict time limit.

Test topics
The topics of the Reading sub-tests are chosen carefully to be accessible to all candidates of the OET. They
are of general medical interest and cover a wide variety of issues. The OET is a test of English, not of medical
knowledge, and the test developers are careful in the test design to minimise areas where candidates may
use prior knowledge rather than language skills to respond.
Topics will vary from administration to administration and while some topics may include content that is
familiar to one particular health practitioner’s area of experience and expertise, the language tasks and
questions associated with the texts are designed to test language knowledge and ability, over and above, the
candidate’s knowledge of that field. In other words, correct responses cannot be simply ‘predicted’ because
a candidate has experience in that area. Reading texts are selected for their concentration of content of a
general health literacy nature; elements that can be considered common across multiple professions.
The topics of all texts are designed to be comprehensible to any educated lay native speaker, or highly
proficient non-native speaker, and this is regularly demonstrated through the trialling process (both internal
and external).
The reading texts are developed according to strict specifications (in terms of word length, difficulty of
vocabulary etc.) by test development specialists at the University of Melbourne. In response to feedback
on initial topic ideas and drafts of materials, texts are refined and then question and response formats are
developed by the university team. These are subjected to trialling, analysis and further refinement. Through
this process a marking key is developed for use by assessors. A sample key is included in the sample
reading materials.

Test task types

Part A
Remember, Part A of the Reading sub-test requires you to complete a summary by writing the missing word
or several words (but only up to three words) within a strict time limit of 15 minutes. It is therefore important
that you do not simply begin Part A by immediately reading all of the passages in great detail before
attempting the summary task. This will take up valuable time and may result in an incomplete summary at
the end of the 15 minute period.
Instead, it is highly recommended that you begin by reading the summary passage which contains the
numbered ‘gaps’ (in the ‘summary’ column of the ‘Part A - Answer Booklet’). This will direct your attention to
the topic and focus of the first paragraph so that you can quickly select which text matches the first part of
the summary passage. In other words, reading the summary passage first will help you to know which one of
the texts in the ‘Text Booklet’ contains the relevant information to choose the missing words for the first part
of the summary passage.
Part A of the Reading sub-test is a test of your ability to skim read and scan quickly across different texts
to choose selected information in order to summarise. It is not a test of detailed reading for comprehension
purposes - that particular skill is tested in Part B of the reading sub-test.
Remember also that the first paragraph of the summary passage may not necessarily always directly relate
to the first text (A1) of the Text booklet. Information for the first two or three ‘gaps’ in the summary passage
might only be located by reading another text. That is why it is very important to quickly establish a sense
of the topic and focus of the first paragraph; to direct your reading straight away to the appropriate text
therefore making efficient use of the time available.
Do Reading: Part A - Answer Booklet
Instructions
• Write at least 1 word, or up to 3 words for each answer.
TIME LIMIT: 15 MINUTES
• Consider words the
• Complete that aresummary
following spelt with a information
using the hyphenin (i.e.,
the four‘-’)
texts,as ONEprovided
A1-A4, word.on For
pagesexample,
2 and 3 of the‘a low-cholesterol
Text Booklet.
diet’ (counts as three words) whereas ‘a low cholesterol diet’ (counts as four words and will NOT
• You do not need to read each text from beginning to end to complete the task. You should scan the texts to find the
receive any marks)
information you need.

• Gaps may require 1, 2 or 3 words. You will not receive any marks if you write more than 3 words.
• Make sure you write your response in the same numbered box as the ‘gap’ in the summary passage
• You should write your answers next to the appropriate number in the right-hand column.
(see diagram below). Sometimes the numbered boxes in the Answers column may not line up
• Please use correct spelling in your responses. Do not write abbreviations.
across the page with the same numbered gaps as they appear in the Summary column.

Summary Answers
Vasectomy
1. 18%
One method of contraception is male sterilisation or
vasectomy. Statistics for 2008 showed that 2. 70
.... of adult men aged under (2) .... in Britain had
(1)

undergone a vasectomy and that this proportion 3. constant

had been (3)
.... during the previous five years.
4.

Patients are informed that vasectomy is a

5.
procedure .... serious risks or complications.
(4)

After the operation, which is (5) ....carried out under

6.
local anaesthetic, the man will often experience
pain from bruising and swelling of his (6)
.....
7.
Assessors are trained to only consider responses given within the ‘Answers’ column (on the right).
General advice is to wear (7)
.... to provide support.
Physical exertion should (8) for seven days as a
If a response is written in the Answer column or 8.in the wrong box AND the candidate has NOT
....
minimum. If the site of the operation becomes (9)....
indicated clearly
or greatly (e.g.,
swollen, withisan
or if there arrow)
bleeding, patient the response should be, it CANNOT be marked.
the where
should seek immediate medical attention. After the 9.
operation and for several months subsequently, (10)
• If you missmayanform answer make
if there is sureofyou
any leakage sperm move
into on to 10.
the correctly corresponding numbered item before
....
writing the
anything
(11) further.
....; these can beDon’t write,
painful but for....example,
are (12) . your answer for the gap for item 15 in the box for
item 14 in the Answers column. 11.

• Use correct spelling. Responses that are not spelt12.

correctly will not receive any marks. American and
British English spelling variations are accepted, e.g., color or colour.
• Use words with similar meaning to words in the texts if you can’t find a word (s) directly from the
texts. These
2 words are known as synonyms. TURN OVER

• If you are required to write down numbers or figures you can write either the full form (e.g., three,
one hundred or one million) or the number form (e.g., 3, 100, or 1,000,000).
• Use the headings of the four texts in the text booklet to help you understand which text to use to
complete different parts of the summary passage.
• Use words surrounding the gap for the missing word (s) in the summary passage to help you predict
what kind of information is missing and to anticipate the type of missing word (s) you need to write.
• Read the instructions carefully. Have the Text booklet open in front of you so that all texts are visible
at the same time. Have the Answer Booklet slightly to the side so that you can write your responses
as you read the texts.
• You may write your answers in either pen or pencil for Part A.

Don’t
• Write more than 3 words for each answer.
• Write your responses in the wrong gap. You will NOT receive any marks for answers written in the
incorrect gap number.
• Write in the Summary passage itself. Responses must be written in the ‘Answers’ column on the
right hand side.
• Write two options (separated by ‘/’ or ‘,’ or ‘( )’), even if they appear in the texts and mean the same
thing (e.g., if you write ‘greater/larger’, you will NOT receive any marks).
• Spend time thinking about whether a word should be capitalised or not. Capitalised and non-
capitalised forms are accepted (e.g., ‘CANADA’, or ‘canada’, or ‘Canada’ are ALL acceptable).

Test task types

Part B
Remember, Part B is similar to the pre-March 2010 reading task but test-takers now read two shorter texts
and answer fewer questions.
In Part B, test-takers are required to read two passages (600-800 words each) on general medical topics
and answer 8-10 multiple choice questions for each text (a total of 16-20 questions) within a time limit of 45
minutes.
The two texts are on health-related topics and are similar to texts found in academic or professional journals.
After each of the texts you will find 8-10 questions or unfinished statements about the text, each with four
suggested answers or ways of finishing (multiple-choice questions). You must choose the one response
which you think fits best.
The texts appear in the Text Booklet and there is a separate answer sheet to complete. You must indicate
your chosen response (A, B, C or D) to each question by shading the appropriate oval on the answer sheet.
You must do this with a soft (2B) pencil.
Before you attempt Part B of the Practice test, consider some important tips below.
Do
• Answer every question. If you get to the end of Part B and are still not sure about a particular
question, make an educated estimation. Record your answers accurately on the Answer
sheet before the 45 minutes is over.
• Take the sample test under test conditions beforehand so you know what it feels like. Set your timer
for 45 minutes and aim to spend approximately 22-23 minutes on each text in Part B.
• Bring and use a soft (2B) pencil. Remember you cannot use a pen to fill in the Answer sheet for
Part B. It is a good idea to bring one or two extra 2B pencils as spares or a small pencil sharpener.
Don’t
• Get stuck on one question – keep going and come back to it at the end when you have answered all
other questions. Marks are not deducted for incorrect answers.
• Cross out mistakes when you are filling out the Answer sheet for Part B. Unlike for Part A, in Part B
you need to erase wrong answers completely then fill in the correct answer fully. There are
clear instructions on the Answer sheet about how to fill in your answers.
• Fill in more than one box on the Answer sheet as the scanner will not be able to recognise your
answer and you will not receive any marks for that question.

Test Assessment
The OET assesses all four language skills – listening, reading, writing and speaking – with an emphasis on
contextualised communication for professional purposes. The Listening and Reading sub-tests are common
to all candidates while the Speaking and Writing sub-tests are specific to each profession.
The Reading sub-test consists of a short answer response (summary completion) test (Part A) and a
multiple-choice questions (MCQ) test (Part B). Candidate answer sheets for Part A are marked by trained
assessors and score sheets for Part B are computer scanned. The item-level data are analysed using a
RASCH analysis approach, for overall internal consistency and item quality. Any items found to be performing
unacceptably (i.e., with fit of above 1.3 or with discrimination levels of less than .25) are removed from the
subsequent analysis.
Test Scores
Each section of the new format Reading sub-test is weighted equally. That is, Part A is worth 33.3% and each
text in Part B is also worth 33% of the total score.
Why is the Reading sub-test weighted equally when there are more questions (items) in Part A?
When you sit the reading test, you will get a raw score on Part A (between 25 and 35 depending on the
number of items on that particular test) and a raw score on Part B (between 16 and 20 depending on the
number of items on that particular test). Your scores will then be converted to a total score for the reading
test in which your score for Part A counts for 33.33% (one-third) of the total score, and your score for
Part B counts for 66.66% (two-thirds) of the total score. Your total score for the reading test will then be
transformed into a grade (A – E).
This type of weighted score conversion is very common. For example, in the listening sub-test, although one
Part A might have more available marks than Part B, your score on each part is converted so that it counts
for exactly 50% of your total score for the whole listening sub-test.
The reason why there are different weightings for each part of the reading test is to reflect the relative
importance of the skills we are measuring in each part in the overall estimation of your reading ability. Part
A tests a relatively narrow set of reading skills – skimming and scanning – whereas Part B tests a range of
different reading skills through different types of multiple choice questions.

Do I need to get the same score for each Reading section individually?
Part A and Part B scores are converted to a percentage (reflecting relative weighting) that is then converted
to a total score. Data from your total score across both sections are used to calculate band-scores for each
administration. The score is a combination of your total weighted scores for Parts A and B. Conceivably, you
may score slightly lower for one section but still maintain an overall higher level if your scores for the other
section are higher.
 Computer answer sheet

OET – CANDIDATE INFORMATION & SAMPLE MATERIALS 2

 Occupational English Test

READING SUB-TEST
Practice test
Part A: Vasectomy

Key
The following conventions have been followed in preparing the key:
/ Indicates an acceptable alternative within an answer
OR Indicates an acceptable (complete) alternative answer
( ) words, figures, or ideas in brackets are not essential to the answer
- they are also not a sufficient substitute for the main idea indicated in the key

No other answers except those included in the key will be considered acceptable. Responses that have
been incorrectly spelt will not be awarded any marks, as will answers that contain more than three words.

The OET Centre Telephone: +61 3 9652 0800

GPO Box 372 Facsimile: +61 3 9654 5329
Melbourne VIC 3001 www.occupationalenglishtest.org
Australia

© OET Centre — Practice test

ABN 84 434 201 642
Reading Sub-test
Part A: Vasectomy

Answer Key
Total of 29 questions

1. 18% // 18 percent

2. 70 (years old)

3. (relatively/fairly) steady/constant/level/unchanged/stable/consistent // almost/roughly the same // (very/quite)

similar // maintained // sustained

4. free from/of (any) (known) // without (any) (known) // with no (known)

5. normally // usually // generally // in most cases // most often

6. scrotum

7. tight(-fitting) underpants/underwear

8. be avoided

9. infected

10. (sperm) granulomas

11. surrounding tissue(s)

12. treatable

13. not to be // to not be

14. 923

15. prostate cancer

16. 3-15 // 3 to 15 // three to fifteen

17. age

18. (a/any) vasectomy // vasectomy/ surgery (was performed/done)

19. (a) family history

20. religion // religious affiliation

21. temporary // reversible

22. (quite/very) expensive // costly

23. two operations/(surgical) procedures/surgeries // a second operation

24. three/3 children

25. (twenties and) thirties // (20s and) 30s // (20’s and) 30’s

26. won’t/wouldn’t (ever) want/have // will/would not want/have // will/would never want/have // ‘ll not/never want/
have // don’t (ever) want // do not want // never want

27. support // confirm // verify // reflect // corroborate // correspond with

28. 1% // 1 percent

29. 30% // 30 percent

END OF KEY
2
 Occupational English Test

READING SUB-TEST
Practice test
Animal Testing

Key

The OET Centre Telephone: +61 3 9652 0800

GPO Box 372 Facsimile: +61 3 9654 5329
Melbourne VIC 3001 www.occupationalenglishtest.org
Australia

© OET Centre — Practice test

ABN 84 434 201 642
Reading Sub-test
Text B1: Animal Testing

Answer Key
Total of 11 questions

1 C generates trade for offshoot industries.

2 A has taken place for at least two millennia.

3 B finding ways to improve farm animals’ productive capacity.

4 B elusive.

5 D They pose fewer constraints than other vertebrates in terms of care and expense.

6 B involved hurting animals deliberately.

7 B came about by accident while he was investigating something else.

8 D medical advancement in the 20th century would have been hindered without it.

9 C there are insufficient rules and restrictions.

10 A progress.

11 B research methods.

END OF KEY

2
 Occupational English Test

READING SUB-TEST
Practice test
Oral health and systemic disease
Key

The OET Centre Telephone: +61 3 9652 0800

GPO Box 372 Facsimile: +61 3 9654 5329
Melbourne VIC 3001 www.occupationalenglishtest.org
Australia

© OET Centre — Practice test

ABN 84 434 201 642
Reading Sub-test
Text B2: Oral health and systemic disease

Answer Key
Total of 9 questions

12 B heart conditions.

13 D it is not as prominent as other dental issues.

14 D ‘The process of periodontitis’.

15 A prompted further interest in the link between oral health and systemic disease.

16 C evident.

17 B assess the overall oral health of patients.

18 A cardiovascular disease could actually exacerbate periodontal disease.

19 D more support for dental care in the public health system.

20 D yet to be attained.

END OF KEY