UMAT 2016 Short Test Booklet

UMAT
Short Test
2016 Edition
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Kaplan UMAT Short Test – 2016 Edition
2
UMAT Short Test

The UMAT Short Test begins on page 5 of this booklet.
• Review the UMAT Structure, Timing and Scoring on page 4 before starting the Short Test.
• Set aside 36 minutes to complete the Short Test. Use a watch or timer to keep time, and be
sure to pace yourself so that you have a chance to answer all of the questions in the Short
Test, bearing in mind that some questions may take more time to answer than others.
• Record your answers on a sheet of paper, or mark them in a printed copy of this booklet.
• Check your answers against the Answer Key once you finish, and use the instructions and
Scoring Table on page 24 to approximate your overall UMAT percentile.
• Review the explanations at the back of this booklet only after completing all the questions in
each section. Be sure to check the explanations for any questions you got right, as well as for
those you got wrong, to ensure that you got the right answer for the right reasons.
UMAT Preparation Courses

If you want more help before taking the UMAT, attend a Kaplan UMAT preparation course. We offer
courses to suit every style of study, including Live Online and Self-Study courses. Our courses
include:
 2-session intensive UMAT course
 5 hours of UMAT lessons and strategy sessions
 Kaplan-trained UMAT teachers
 6 full-length practice tests
 Clear, defined methods and strategies for each question type
 Personalised score reports to help guide your study
 Teacher support until Test Day
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UMAT 2016 – Essential Dates

Early December 2015 UMAT registration opens
3 June 2016 (5.00pm AEST) UMAT registration closes
27 July 2016 UMAT Test Day
Late September 2016 UMAT results released
Check umat.acer.edu.au for the latest updates and information.
UMAT Structure and Timing

Score 1 Logical Reasoning 48 questions 75 minutes
and Problem Solving
Score 2 Interpersonal Understanding 44 questions 60 minutes
Score 3 Non-Verbal Reasoning 42 questions 45 minutes
TOTAL: 134 questions 180 minutes
This Short Test is one-fifth the length of a full UMAT test paper, maintaining the same timing
per question. Since 2013, the UMAT has not included sections; however, the old sections are
now called ‘Scores,’ and each Score corresponds to the content of a former section. For
example, old Section 1 is now Score 1, consisting of Logical Reasoning and Problem Solving
questions. Thus, we refer to these as content areas or Scores, since they are no longer
distinct sections. The question types in a UMAT test will change content areas every 1–3
pages, so you will be working across all content areas throughout the exam. We at Kaplan
recommend pacing yourself according to the timing guidelines in the right-hand column,
though remember, on Test Day you will only be timed according to the 3 hour test time.
UMAT Scoring
Your UMAT results will include:
• A score in each UMAT content area, scaled from 0 to 100, based on the raw number correct.
• An overall score, calculated by adding together your scores in the three UMAT content areas.
• A percentile corresponding to your overall score. The percentile indicates the percentage of
test-takers that you did as well as or better than on the UMAT. For example, if you score in
th
the 90 percentile, that means you did as well as or better than 90% of UMAT test-takers.
• In the 2015 UMAT, actual overall scores ranged from 61 to 235. A score of 180 corresponded
th
to the 90 percentile.
4
UMAT Short Test
Questions 1 – 27
36 minutes
This test contains 27 questions, each of which is followed by four or five answer choices.
For each question, determine the correct answer based only on the information provided.
Each question has only one correct answer. You may need to eliminate the incorrect answers in order
to determine the correct answer.
Answer all 27 questions in this test, circling the correct answer in your test booklet.
You will have 36 minutes to answer the questions. It is in your best interest to select an answer for
every question, as there is no penalty for wrong answers.
5
6
Question 1
Four friends take turns rolling a die, numbered from 1 to 6. Each friend rolls a different number.
Each friend then makes a statement about the number they rolled.
Ruby: I rolled a 4.
Sam: My number’s higher than Ruby’s.
Tori: My number’s lower than Sam’s.
Umar: My number’s lower than Tori’s.
1 If exactly one of these statements is a lie, it is possible to determine which number each friend rolled if
we know for sure that
A Sam rolled a 5.
B Tori rolled a 6.
C Sam’s statement is the lie.
D Tori’s statement is the lie.
Question 2
Tails with three kinds of joints (ball-and-socket; peg-and-socket; gliding) have an unusual shape that allows for
wide-ranging mechanical performance in grasping ability and also provide significant crushing resistance – that
is, the tails are far less likely to be crushed when they collide with another object. By contrast, the cylindrical
tails found in most animals are not prehensile (capable of grasping) or resilient to crushing because their plates
translate and rotate upon impact. Seahorses, unlike most animals, have tails shaped like square prisms. Their
tails are prehensile and resistant to impact.
2 From this information it follows that
A tails not shaped like cylinders have no more than two kinds of joints.
B the tails of seahorses have plates that translate and rotate in response to impact.
C most animals have tails with ball-and-socket and peg-and-socket joints.
D the tails of seahorses have an unusual shape and three kinds of joints.
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Questions 3 – 5
Choose the option (A, B, C, D or E) that completes the sequence in the simplest and most logical way.
A B C D E
A B C D E
A B C D E
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Question 6
‘Sorry, Suzie, I’m not going to make it tonight. I’ve quite a lot on at the moment.’
6 The context of the cartoon suggests that the woman lying on the sofa can be best described as
A languid and indifferent

B industrious yet untidy
C unreliable yet bustling
D steadfast and restless
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Questions 7 – 8
Excessive weight gain during pregnancy has been linked to increased risk of gestational diabetes, high blood
pressure, large babies (who have a higher risk of childhood obesity) and birth interventions. The US Institute of
Medicine (IOM) has therefore set out guidelines for pregnancy weight gain (listed in the table). The guidelines
are tied to body mass index (BMI), which is an expression of body weight-for-height and determines a person's
weight category.
Prepregnancy BMI Recommended Range Recommended Rates of Weight

Weight of Total Weight Gain Gain in Second and Third
Category (lb) Trimesters (lb/wk)
Underweight <18.5 28-40 1
Normal weight 18.5-24.9 25-35 1
Overweight 25-29.9 15-25 0.6
Obese (all classes) >30 11-20 0.5
A research group studied gestational weight gain in deliveries of full-term singleton births (excluding twins,
triplets, etc.) in several different years and compiled the data, as shown in the figure below.
10
7 Of the following, the results of the research would least support the conclusion that
A from 1993-1994, 64.6% of women who were normal weight before pregnancy gained 35
pounds or fewer during pregnancy.
B in 1998, 27.5% of women who were underweight before pregnancy gained 28 to 40 pounds
during pregnancy.
C in 1998, 75.2% of women who were obese before pregnancy gained 11 pounds or more during
pregnancy.
D from 2002-2003, 63% of women who were overweight before pregnancy gained more than 25
pounds during pregnancy.
8 If a typical gestational period is 39 weeks, the IOM's weight gain recommendations assume that a
pregnant woman with a prepregnancy BMI of 23.5 must gain no more than
A 4 pounds in her first trimester.

B 7 pounds in her first trimester.
C 9 pounds in her first trimester.
D 14 pounds in her first trimester.
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Questions 9 – 12
In the passage below, a female patient has come to the emergency department complaining of abdominal pains.
The patient was half-sitting up on the table, a pillow in a plastic case behind her head, watching as the two
doctors leafed through her notes. Although they were of a similar age, the taller doctor held an air of superiority.
He, obviously the slightly more senior of the two, had some sort of seniority over the shorter doctor, even if he
was only mere months older.
5 ‘The patient is complaining of abdominal pains. What do you do?’ asked the taller doctor.
‘Indigestion?’ The shorter doctor barked the word right after her, as if it were a command and she were a dog.
He glanced to his taller, apparently senior, colleague, then back at her, firing away: ‘Are you suffering from
gas? Constipation? Nausea? Vomiting?’
‘Diarrhoea,’ sighed the taller doctor. ‘Not vomiting. You should’ve asked about diarrhoea.’
10 ‘Well?’ the younger doctor was clicking his pen in and out, in and out, staring at her now. ‘What about it? Have
you had any diarrhoea?’
The patient reddened. She’d never have come to hospital for such a simple, obvious problem. It was as though
these boys were playing guessing games and using her as the object of inquiry. They’d barely given her a
chance to answer.
15 ‘No.’ The meekness of her reply annoyed her. It was met with more sighs from Dr Big.
‘No. Of course not. You can’t make a diagnosis from something as vague as “abdominal pains”; you need to
determine where specifically the pain is coming from, how severe the pain is, whether the area is swollen. Come
on, you know all this – it’s so basic, even the nurses can do it. What are other causes of abdominal pains?’
Shorty rattled off the list, counting on his fingers. ‘Bowel cancer, intestinal obstruction, problems with the liver
20 and kidneys, menstruation or pregnancy. Although this patient is too old to be menstruating or pregnant.’
‘Right. Good. Now you’re making observations. The next step is to do a thorough inspection of the area.’ He
turned his head to the patient, his hands already hovering over her. ‘You don’t mind do you?’ he asked, almost
as an afterthought.
Not trusting her voice, she merely shook her head.
25 The taller doctor nodded, pulled the patient’s shirt up into her armpits and began to press different areas of her
stomach firmly. Thank God I wore a new bra, she couldn’t help thinking.
‘Can you tell me please, in numbers from 1 to 10, the level of pain in each area I’m touching?’ His words were
brisk and confident, his hands the same – though so cold on her skin. She could only nod in consent.
‘Zero,’ she said, as his cold, clinical fingers pressed at her left side. He pushed against her again and again,
30 moving closer and closer to the sensitive area.
‘Five,’ she said. Then, she couldn’t help squeaking as he moved round the area in rapid sucession: ‘Seven…
eight… ten…ten…ten!’
‘Look closely,’ he said to the short one. ‘This area’ – she winced as he pushed flames of pain into her again – ‘is
showing extensive swelling, and the patient is experiencing discomfort. Feel it.’ He kept pressing into her,
35 shooting her through with fire, then instructing the other doctor to do the same. The patient inhaled sharply.
Just lie there, just lie there, she said to herself. Like a lamb at the butcher’s.
9 Why does the patient redden (line 12)?
A because she feels embarrassed at the doctor’s suggestion

B because it is a symptom of her illness
C because she feels embarrassed at the way the doctors are treating each other
D because she is angry that the doctors keep interrupting her
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10 Regarding his feelings towards the shorter doctor, the taller doctor might best be described as
A encouraging, compassionate and mostly calm.

B eager, uncomfortable and somewhat preoccupied.
C impatient, corrective and somewhat disparaging.
D disengaged, hesitant and mostly contemptuous.
11 How does the patient feel about being examined physically by the shorter doctor (line 35)?
A reassured
B ambivalent
C spiteful
D dehumanised
12 In the context of the passage as a whole, which of the following best describes the actions of the shorter
doctor?
A He is scornful of authority and obsequious to the patient.

B He is confident in his diagnostic abilities and benevolent to the patient.
C He is deferential to authority and not sufficiently engaged with the patient.
D He is disillusioned about his diagnostic abilities and alienates the patient.
13
Questions 13 – 15
Choose the option (A, B, C, D or E) that completes the image in the simplest and most logical way.
13
A C E
B D
14
A C E
B D
15
A C E
B D
14
Question 16
In the passage below, the narrator has been diagnosed with hepatitis, which if it progresses and is left untreated
can cause scarring of the liver (cirrhosis), which can lead to loss of liver function or liver cancer.
I didn't know how I’d gotten infected, but I was told I’d need a scan to determine how damaged my liver was
and if I’d need to begin treatment. Soon after my diagnosis, I'd gone for the first fibroscan, which is like an
ultrasound of the liver. The results were in the ‘indeterminate’ range – the level of scarring was an 8 or a 9.
That’s not good, but it wasn't totally awful, and it meant I didn’t have to start treatment. Things were tentatively
5 okay, even if I didn’t feel okay. The scan was a weird experience, and I really wasn’t sure what to make of it.
Six months later, I went for the second fibroscan, and things took a turn. The nurse was friendly – he
made small talk and a few jokes that were actually funny, then he had me unbutton my shirt and lie on my side
on the exam table. It was summer and the air conditioning was on full blast, so it felt really cold and strange
when he rubbed the lubricant on my side and applied the device. It sends out waves, kind of like sonar, and then
10 it registers how long it takes them to come back. The more fibrous and scarred the liver is, the longer it takes.
I remember the nurse’s face changed after the first 30 seconds of applying the device against my skin.
He was intently watching the monitor as each new reading registered, then he kept moving the device to slightly
different angles, trying again and again and again, his lips drawn tight. All the jokes were done and gone. Then,
after a good five minutes, he wiped me off with a paper towel and said, ‘I’m so sorry, but despite my best
15 efforts, I can’t get a reading lower than 14.’ Which meant my liver was seriously scarred, equivalent to cirrhosis,
and if I did not begin treatment immediately, the scarring would worsen and would be irreversible. They’d kept
telling me how dreadful and debilitating the treatment would be, and it would last for at least 6 months. It was a
lot to take in, aged 33 and with the liver of an irredeemable 60-year-old drunk. Suddenly I was locked in, no
choice but to take all the pills and injections and be stuck with the horrible fatigue and any other side effects for
20 the next 6 months.
16 The change in the narrator’s emotions from the first scan to the second scan can best be described as a
shift from
A ignorance to serenity.
B uncertainty to obligation.
C frivolity to sorrow.
D levity to confusion.
15
Questions 17 – 19
You are working as a gate agent for Pacific Air. Due to a glitch in your reservations system, none of the
passengers booked into first class for the flight to Tokyo have been given seat assignments. The first class
compartment includes four rows of seats (A, E, F, K). The aircraft includes two aisles from the rear up to row 3,
after which the aisles merge into one, due to the narrowing of the plane.
Cockpit
A K Row 1
A K Row 2
A E F K Row 3
A E F K Row 4
All the first class passengers are waiting at the boarding gate, and you note their travelling companions and
seating preferences as follows. (Note: Solo passengers can sit anywhere, except where restricted by their
preferences. Everyone must be seated according to their preferences.)
• Georgia and Harrison, a couple on honeymoon, prefer to sit across the aisle in the same row.
• A mother, Kirstie, with two small children, Lily and Max, prefers that they sit in adjacent seats in the
same row, with Kirstie next to one or both children.
• Lily wants a window seat, while Max refuses to sit by a window.
• There are two businessmen, each travelling as a solo passenger.
• Three airline employees – a pilot and two flight attendants – are travelling as solo passengers.
• The pilot and one of the businessmen want window seats on the left side of the plane.
• The other businessman will not sit in a row adjacent to any small children.
You must work quickly to figure out the seat assignments, as boarding is about to begin!
17 If Lily sits in 3A, and 1K is empty, who must sit in a K seat?
A Georgia
B Kirstie
C a businessman
D a flight attendant
16
18 Suppose that the two businessmen sit in the same row, with a flight attendant seated directly in front of
one of them. Which of the following could be true?
A Both businessmen are seated directly in front of an empty seat.

B Harrison is seated directly in front of Max.
C Georgia and the pilot are in adjacent seats in the same row.
D The pilot is seated directly behind a flight attendant.
19 If the flight attendants sit in 2K and 3F, the empty seats could not be
A 1K and 3K
B 2A and 3K
C 2A and 4K
D 3E and 3K
17
Questions 20 – 22
Josh is Irene’s eldest son. Irene has recently been diagnosed with a terminal illness. They are discussing Irene’s
decision to refuse treatment.
Josh: So basically, what you’re trying to tell me is that you’re giving up?
Irene: It’s not about giving up. You and the boys all have families and jobs now. Your dad’s been gone for
almost 8 years. I’ve done my part. I don’t want to hang on, in agony, making you all put up with me.
Josh: But we’re all still your family! I just don’t see how you can do this to us. What about your
5 grandchildren? Okay, Dad is gone, but I’m sure he wouldn’t have wanted this. He would have wanted
you to live as long as possible. It doesn’t make any sense, Mum.
Irene: Josh. What’s the use of me undergoing all that treatment? You saw how Uncle Fred was when he had
the chemo. It gave him another two years of life. But it was unbearable for him. It took his hair and his
appetite and his energy. That’s what it’s meant to do. It would do the same to me. And it was
10 unpleasant for the rest of us, too. You boys were so frightened. That one time, we left the hospital and
you were crying in the car. You couldn’t stop crying. You can’t honestly say that you’d want to go
through that again, love, can you?
Josh: Of course I would! Even if it only gave you another month it would be worth it. And from what the
doctors are saying… you could see Parker graduate, and Matt’s wedding. Matt and Emma are getting
15 married next year. They’ll want you there. Do it for them, Mum. For me. For us. Have the treatment.
Please. Please. Give it a go. And I won’t cry this time, I promise! You can’t just let yourself go…
Irene: I’m not scared, Josh. I feel ready for this. What’s the point in me hanging on anymore?
20 Irene’s example of Uncle Fred (line 7) suggests that she is refusing treatment primarily because
A the treatment did not have a positive effect at prolonging his life.
B she is afraid she will not be able to cope with the side effects of the treatment.
C the treatment was devastating to the family, causing her husband to leave.
D she is afraid that it will make all of her boys cry.
18
21 How does Irene ultimately feel about her decision (line 17)?
A resigned and exceptionally serene

B accepting but somewhat disquieted
C alienated but somewhat exhilarated
D defeated and exceptionally hostile
22 A day after the end of the passage, Josh accompanies Irene to her next doctor’s appointment. The
doctor asks if Irene has come to a decision about treatment, and Irene hesitates.
Based on his comments and feelings in the passage, how is Josh most likely to respond?
A ‘She doesn’t know what she wants, Doctor. She’s still upset about our Dad leaving and Uncle
Fred dying. Always living in the past.’
B ‘See, Mum, you haven’t made up your mind. You don’t know what you want. You should just
listen to me. I know what’s best.’
C ‘She’s obsessed with dying, Doctor. She thinks she’s made up her mind, but really, she’s just
being morbid. Feels she has nothing to live for.’
D ‘Mum, you’ve got to have the treatment. At least give it a try. Do it for me, for Matt, for
Parker. Don’t worry about us.’
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Questions 23 – 24
Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) causes hyperactivity and difficulties with concentration in
children and young adults. In the following study, children were given an approved drug for a number of weeks
at 20mg, 40mg or 80mg. One group of children were given a placebo, which contained 0mg of the drug.
Prior to starting treatment, all children were given a test to determine their level of concentration; this became
their baseline score. In this test, a higher score corresponds to a higher level of concentration and a lesser
severity of ADHD. The same test was then repeated every two weeks for the duration of the 12-week study. The
graph shows the results from the study.
Change in score from baseline
Week
23 The drug is least likely to be effective based on the data from
A Week 4
B Week 6
C Week 10
D Week 12
20
24 Which of the following is most strongly supported by the results of the experiment?
A The drug has an immediate but very short-lived effect on concentration.

B The drug has a positive short-term effect on improving concentration.
C Larger doses of the drug have a smaller positive effect on concentration.
D The drug takes several weeks to have an effect on concentration and has no long-term effect
on concentration.
21
Questions 25 – 27
In this question, the five images can be rearranged into a logical sequence.
Choose the option (A, B, C, D or E) that occurs in the middle position of the simplest and most logical
sequence.
25
A B C D E
26
A B C D E
27
A B C D E
STOP. IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS UP, CHECK ANY ITEMS YOU HAVE MARKED
FOR REVIEW. BE SURE TO MARK ANSWERS FOR ALL QUESTIONS IN THE TEST.
22
23
UMAT SHORT TEST

ANSWER KEY
1. C 10. C 19. C
2. D 11. D 20. B
3. D 12. C 21. A
4. C 13. D 22. D
5. B 14. E 23. A
6. A 15. A 24. B
7. B 16. B 25. B
8. C 17. D 26. A
9. A 18. B 27. E
YOUR UMAT SCORE

1. Count up your total number of correct answers in the Short Test. This is your Overall Score.
2. Find the percentile corresponding to your Overall Score in the scoring table.
N.B. We do not provide scores for the three content areas (Score 1, Score 2 and Score 3), due to the
small number of questions in each score (9 each) in the Short Test.
SCORING TABLE
Overall Score Percentile Overall Score Percentile Overall Score Percentile
th th th
0–4 <20 12 48 20 67
th th th
5 20 13 50 21 70
th rd th
6 25 14 53 22 75
th th th
7 30 15 55 23 80
th th th
8 36 16 57 24 85
th th th
9 40 17 59 25 90
nd rd th
10 42 18 63 26 95
th th th
11 45 19 65 27 100
Note: This scoring table approximates the percentiles of the UMAT based on available data and test-taker feedback; scores
and percentiles are for approximation purposes only. Actual UMAT scores are based on more data from each section, and use
a scaled score from each section (rather than the raw number correct) to calculate the overall score.
QUESTIONS BY CONTENT AREA

Score 1: Questions 1–2, 7–8, 17–19 and 23–24
Score 2: Questions 6, 9–12, 16 and 20–22
Score 3: Questions 3–5, 13–15 and 25–27
24
HOW WILL I SCORE ON TEST DAY?

ACER have not released any information on how they calculate scaled scores
and percentiles. We do, however, know the following:
th th
 Most test-takers score between 120 (10 percentile) and 180 (90 percentile) overall.
 This corresponds to an average content area score of 40 and 60, respectively.

th
 The highest actual score is usually just above 210 (100 percentile), corresponding to an
average content area score of 70. The lowest actual score is 50, corresponding to an average
content area score of 16.
 Thus, most test-takers have content area scores of 40 to 70 in two or three content areas of
the UMAT. It must also be highly unusual to get a content area score below 20, or one that’s
much above 70.
 Yet overall scores from 0–300 are possible, meaning that there must be some scaled scores
in each content area that range from 0 to 100 – you would just have to miss almost all the
questions to score very low, or get almost all correct to score close to 100.
th
 Thus, you can earn an overall score in the 100 percentile, even if you answer several
questions in each content area incorrectly.
Based on your performance on the Short Test, here are your next steps:
th
If you scored below the 40 percentile: You’ve got a lot of work to do, so you can earn a score that
will get you into medical school. But it’s easy to improve your scores from here, so don’t panic. Kaplan
has the strategies and techniques that will help you raise your scores and your confidence, plus
support from an expert teacher and loads of practice tests to help you get the scores you need.
th rd
If you scored from the 40 to the 53 percentile: Your score is close to the average, but you still
have plenty of room for improvement. If you answer just a few more questions correctly, you can
increase your score significantly, which will make all the difference in getting into medical school. Just
remember, this is only a practice test and you can still improve your scores if you prepare with Kaplan!
th th
If you scored from the 60 to the 75 percentile: Your performance today is slightly above
average, but you can’t be sure that your scores will outshine those of other applicants to the medical
school of your choice. Kaplan can teach you effective and reliable techniques that will take your
scores to the next level!
th
If you scored in the 80 percentile or above: Your score is highly competitive, and you are in very
good shape. But remember, you must repeat this performance on Test Day! Let Kaplan teach you the
strategies that will help you build confidence, maintain consistency and help you earn a place at the
medical school of your dreams!
No matter how you scored: This UMAT practice test is only an indication of your current testing
ability. The performance averages listed are the average scores of all test takers, including the vast
majority who do little or nothing to prepare. Imagine what you can achieve when you apply yourself
and develop test-specific knowledge and techniques. Let Kaplan help you get a higher score by
showing you what’s tested, which methods are the best, and how to use time to your greatest
advantage. Practise smarter and raise your scores with Kaplan.
25
Kaplan’s UMAT preparation courses include:
• Instruction by expertly-trained teachers: Our teaching method focuses on critical

thinking, problem solving and time-saving strategies.
• Six full-length paper-based practice tests: These tests increase familiarity with the
test format and timing and help build stamina for test day.
• UMAT Strategy Book: Details Kaplan methods and strategies, reviews time-
management techniques and provides additional practice questions.
• Ongoing academic support: You are able to email your teacher up to the day of
your test, so you can receive answers to any questions that arise during self-study.
• Personalised score reports: These reports help clearly identify your weaker test
areas and even individual question types where you should focus your preparation
time. This will help you improve your score more efficiently, so you are fully ready for
success on Test Day.
26
UMAT Short Test

EXPLANATIONS
1. (C)
The question says that one of the four statements is a lie, and that it is possible to determine which number each
friend rolled if a further piece of information is also known; each answer choice provides a possible further
piece of information. Thus, you must see what happens if each answer is true – can you then work out which
number each friend rolled, bearing in mind that each friend rolls a different number from 1 to 6? Checking each
answer in turn:
If (A) is true: Sam rolled a 5. If Ruby is telling the truth, and she rolled a 4, then Sam’s statement is also true.
Tori or Umar must be lying. If Tori is lying, then she must have a 6 – the only number higher than Sam’s. Umar,
though, could have 1, 2 or 3. If Umar is lying, then his number is higher than Tori’s, whose number is lower
than Sam’s. Thus, Tori could have 1, 2 or 3, and Umar could have 2, 3 or 6. However, there’s also the
possibility that Ruby is lying, in which case she could have rolled a 1, 2 or 3, as Sam’s number would still be
higher. Hence, knowing that Sam rolled a 5 really tells you very little about the other numbers, and does not
determine which statement is the lie. (A) doesn’t tell us much of anything for sure.
If (B) is true: Tori rolled a 6. This means that her statement is the lie, since her number is actually the highest
possible, so it must be higher than Sam’s. This means that all other three statements are true. If Tori rolled a 6
and Ruby rolled a 4, then Sam must have rolled a 5, as his number’s higher than Ruby’s. However, we don’t
know if Umar rolled a 1, 2 or 3 – all are lower than Tori’s number.
If (C) is true: If Sam’s statement is the lie, then his number is lower than Ruby’s. That means Ruby definitely
rolled a 4, and the other three friends must have rolled 3, 2 and 1. Since Sam’s number is lower than Ruby’s,
Tori’s is lower than Sam’s, and Umar’s is lower than Tori’s, then Sam must have rolled a 3, Tori a 2 and Umar a
1. Thus, if we know Sam’s statement is the lie, then we know exactly which number all the friends rolled.
Answer (C) is correct.
At this point, there is no need to check (D). On Test Day, you would mark (C) on the answer sheet and move on
to the next question. For the record, though: If (D) is true: If Tori’s statement is the lie, then Tori’s number is
higher than Sam’s. Since Sam’s number is higher than Ruby’s, and Ruby rolled a 4, that means Tori rolled a 6
and Sam rolled a 5. However, we don’t know if Umar rolled a 1, 2 or 3 – all are lower than Tori’s number.
2. (D)
This question includes a series of statements about the tails of animals, and the correct answer is the statement
that is a valid inference from the information. Check each answer against the information to see if it matches.
The information describes two types of tails: the cylindrical tails found in most animals, and the other tails with
an unusual shape that have three kinds of joints. Thus, tails not shaped like cylinders have three kinds of joints;
(A) is incorrect. Tails of seahorses are unlike those of most animals. Seahorse tails are shaped like square
prisms, so they are not cylindrical; they are prehensile and resistant to impact, whereas cylindrical tails are not
prehensile or resilient to crushing because their plates translate and rotate in response to impact. Thus, seahorses
do not have cylindrical tails; (B) is incorrect. Most animals have cylindrical tails; the kind of joints in these tails
are not named, and ball-and-socket and peg-and-socket are two of the kinds of joints in the other kind of tail;
(C) is incorrect. Seahorses do not have cylindrical tails, so they must have the other type of tail, defined in the
first sentence; this matches the details in the final sentence about their tails being prehensile and resistant to
impact – these terms are defined in the first sentence. (D) is therefore correct.
3. (D)
The figure rotates 90° clockwise with each subsequent step in the sequence. With each step, two of the shaded
segments swap places. From the first step to the second, the crisscross and white segments swap places; from
the second to the third, the crisscross and chequered segment swap places; from the third to the fourth, the black
and the crisscross segment swap places. Thus, when the figure has the segments with their longer sides
horizontal, the top two segments swap; when the longer sides are vertical, the middle two segments swap. The
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figure has the longer sides of the segments vertical in the fourth step, so the middle two segments will swap;
when the figure rotates 90° clockwise, the white segment will be on top, followed by black, then chequered,
then crisscross. The answer is therefore (D).
4. (C)
The central arrow is pointing at the vertices of the hexagon; it rotates one position anticlockwise, then two
positions clockwise, then three positions anticlockwise. Thus, the arrow must rotate four positions clockwise in
the correct answer, so that the white arrow is pointing at the lower-right vertex of the pentagon. Eliminate (A),
(B) and (D). The two remaining answers have the ring and the star in the same positions, and the ring is grey in
both; the only difference is the colour of the star. The star alternates between white, grey and black before
repeating the sequence. Since the star in the fourth step is white, the star in the correct answer should be grey.
Answer (C) is correct. For the record: The ring alternates between grey and black; it moves around the outer
sides of the pentagon, one position clockwise with each step. The star also moves around the outer sides of the
pentagon, but it moves one additional position anticlockwise with each step, so it moves one position on the first
move, two positions on the second move, and three on the third move. Thus, the star must move four positions
to its position in the correct answer.
5. (B)
Each box in the figure consists of four squares, each divided into four segments; in the first box, the upper two
squares have three of the four segments shaded, forming an black L, whereas the lower two squares have only
one segment shaded, forming a white L. The orientations of the L’s within each square are distinct, so that the
first box has the black L formed around a white segment in the lower-right segment in the upper-left square,
with the black L formed around a white lower-right segment in the upper-left square; similarly, the single black
segments are in the upper-left of the lower-left square and the upper-right of the lower-right square. From the
first box to the second box, the only change is that the upper-left and upper-right squares swap places. Then,
from the second box to the third box, the upper-right and lower-right squares swap places. Finally, the lower-
right and lower-left squares swap places from the third box to the fourth box. Thus, to complete the sequence,
the lower-left and upper-left squares in the fourth box must swap places in the next box. Answer (B) is correct.
6. (A)
The woman in the cartoon is lying on the sofa in her pyjamas and drinking a glass of wine while talking on the
phone; there are three cats, one climbing over her and another investigating a box of chocolates. There are
several wrappers from the chocolate box on the floor, along with the half-empty wine bottle, the corkscrew with
cork still attached, and a stack of magazines. The image suggests that the woman lying on the sofa is languid
(listless or lazy) or untidy (disorderly); since she is obviously quite inert, she cannot be accurately described as
industrious (hardworking or energetic), bustling (moving quickly/busily) or restless (moving about or fidgety).
For this reason, you can eliminate all the answers except for (A), which must therefore be correct.
For the record: The woman lying on the sofa can be described as indifferent because she is uninterested in going
out; she is content to lie about with the cats, drinking wine. She cannot accurately be described as steadfast
(loyal), since she is cancelling her plans with Suzie. She could be described as unreliable for that same reason,
but the second adjective in answer (C) – bustling – clearly does not apply in the context of the cartoon.
7. (B)
This question asks for the conclusion that is least supported by the data. This means that the three wrong
answers will be supported, and the one correct answer will be unsupported. The table indicates the
recommended range of weight gain (according to the IOM) based on prepregnancy weight categories. In the
figure, the graphs show the proportion of women in each prepregnancy weight category who were either below
the recommended range (<IOM, the white portions), within the recommended range (IOM, the light grey
portions) or above the recommended range (>IOM, the dark grey portions). Compare each answer choice to the
graph for the corresponding prepregnancy weight category and year to see if the statement matches the data.
(A): Women of normal weight before pregnancy are recommended to gain 25-35 pounds during pregnancy.
Checking the figures for normal weight for 1993-1994, women who gained 35 pounds or fewer during
pregnancy would include the <IOM group and the IOM group (white + light grey): 23.3% + 41.3% = 64.6%.
The statement matches the data, so (A) is incorrect.
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(B): Women who were underweight before pregnancy are recommended to gain 28-40 pounds during
pregnancy. Checking the figures for underweight for 1998, women who gained 28-40 pounds are the IOM
group, since they were within the recommended range. The light grey portion is 47.5%. Statement (B) instead
gives the figure for the white (<IOM) portion, 27.5%. (B) is unsupported by the data, so it is correct.
There would be no need to check the remaining answers on Test Day; however, for the record:
(C): Women who were obese before pregnancy are recommended to gain 11-20 pounds during pregnancy.
Checking the figures for obese for 1998, women who gained 11 pounds or more during pregnancy would
include the IOM group and the >IOM group (light grey + dark grey): 29.4% + 45.8% = 75.2%. The statement
matches the data, so (C) is incorrect.
(D): Women who were overweight before pregnancy are recommended to gain 15-25 pounds during pregnancy.
Checking the figures for overweight for 2002-2003, women who gained more than 25 pounds during pregnancy
would be the >IOM group (dark grey): 63%. The statement matches the data, so (D) is incorrect.
8. (C)
From the table, a woman with a prepregnancy BMI of 23.5 would be classified as normal weight. Based on the
IOM recommendations, she should gain a maximum of 35 pounds during pregnancy. If a typical gestation
period is 39 weeks, then each trimester is 39 ÷ 3 = 13 weeks. Since her weight gain in the second and third
trimesters (the last 26 weeks of gestation) should occur at the rate of 1 pound per week (according to the right-
most column of the table), she is expected to gain 26 pounds total in her second and third trimesters. This means
that in order to gain a total of 35 pounds, she must gain 35 – 26 = 9 pounds in her first trimester.
9. (A)
The patient reddens in response to the shorter doctor asking her if she has had diarrhoea. Prior to this, the taller
doctor corrected the shorter doctor, telling him he was wrong to ask about vomiting and should have asked
about diarrhoea; when she reddens, the passage describes her thoughts: ‘She’d never have come to hospital for
such a simple, obvious problem. It was as though these boys were playing guessing games and using her as the
object of inquiry.’ From these details, we can infer that she does not actually have diarrhoea, and that she is
embarrassed at the suggestion she would have come to hospital if she only had diarrhoea, which she would have
obviously noticed. Thus, (A) is correct. For the record: She is annoyed at the way that the doctors are treating
her, not the way they treat each other; they are not letting her speak, which is not the same as interrupting her.
10. (C)
The taller doctor corrects the shorter doctor for asking about vomiting instead of diarrhoea (line 9), and belittles
him (line 18), stating that ‘it’s so basic, even the nurses can do it.’ Thus, the taller doctor can be described as
corrective and somewhat disparaging. He is also generally impatient, in the way that he interrupts and rushes the
other doctor, and then proceeds to take over the examination of the patient. Answer (C) is correct. For the
record: The taller doctor’s feelings towards the shorter doctor are not especially compassionate, and he keeps
rushing things along throughout the passage, ruling out (A); there is nothing to indicate that the taller doctor is
uncomfortable, and he is focused throughout the passage, not distracted (preoccupied), ruling out (B); the taller
doctor is contemptuous (arrogant or condescending), but he is engaged throughout the passage, and hardly
hesitant – he drives the questioning and examination of the patient.
11. (D)
Checking the line reference, it’s the taller doctor who is examining her throughout the later part of the passage;
then, in line 35, he instructs the shorter doctor to do the same. The patient responds by inhaling sharply and
thinking ‘Just lie there, just lie there. Like a lamb at the butcher’s.’ Since she thinks of herself like an animal
about to be butchered, it is clear that she feels dehumanised, answer (D).
12. (C)
This question asks about the shorter doctor in the context of the entire passage. The answers relate to his
behaviour towards the patient, along with either his attitude to authority or his feelings about his diagnostic
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abilities. The shorter doctor does whatever the taller doctor tells him to do; he’s obedient to authority, not
scornful of it, and he is not especially confident in his diagnostic abilities; (A) and (B) cannot be correct.
Although he makes an error in asking about vomiting instead of diarrhoea, he later rattles off a list of possible
causes of abdominal pains, so he does not seem especially disappointed or embittered (disillusioned) about his
diagnostic abilities, ruling out (D). He is clearly not sufficiently engaged with the patient, as he and the taller
doctor do not seem to have any awareness of how their behaviour is affecting her. (C) is correct.
13. (D)
There are quite a lot of elements in this sequence. Perhaps the simplest to see are the colours, which are
consistent within each row. In the top row, the lower-right shape is black, the upper-left shape is white, and the
other two shapes are grey; in the middle row, the upper-right shape is black, the upper-left shape is grey, and the
other two shapes are white; in the bottom row, the upper-left shape is black and the other shapes are white. On
this basis, eliminate (A), (C) and (E), as there are no grey shapes in the bottom row. In the bottom row, the
explosion is in the upper-right position in the left box, then in the upper-left in the middle box; thus, it must
rotate one further position anticlockwise, to the lower-left, in the correct answer. The answer is therefore (D).
14. (E)
There are various shapes in each box, and the shapes in each upper box depend on the two boxes directly
beneath it: anything in common in the two lower boxes is not included, but anything unique to the two lower
boxes is combined. For example, the right-hand box in the second row from the top contains all the shapes in the
pyramid; the box next to it includes only the circle and the smaller, inner diamond; these two (common to both
boxes) have been removed from the top box, which includes all the other shapes that were unique to the right-
hand box. You must work from the boxes above the missing segment, along with those next to it, to work out
what it must contain, and also what it cannot contain. The middle box in the third row includes the crossing
lines, as does the third box in the bottom row; thus, these cannot appear in the correct answer, as otherwise they
would not be in the middle box in the third row. Eliminate (B) and (D). The middle box in the third row also
contains the circle and the larger diamond, which are not in the third box in the bottom row; thus, they must be
in the correct answer. Eliminate (C). Finally, the third box in the bottom row includes the smaller, inner
diamond, which is not in the middle box of the third row; thus, it must also be in the missing segment, so that it
is eliminated in the middle box in the third row. The answer is therefore (E). For the record: You could double-
check against the left-hand box in the third row and the left-hand box in the bottom row, if you wanted to
confirm the contents of the missing segment.
15. (A)
Across the top row, notice that the figure rotates 90° anticlockwise each step, ending with the tip with two balls
pointing to the uppe- right corner. Since every box has this same shape, it must be progressing in some manner
across each row of the grid and down to the next row; following from the upper-right box in the top row, the
next 90° anticlockwise rotation would have the tipwith two balls pointing to the upper-left corner, as it does in
the right box of the middle row. Tracking this progression, we can see that the sequence moves left-to-right
across the top row, then right-to-left across the middle row, and finally left-to-right across the bottom row. The
correct answer will have the tip with two balls pointing to the upper left; eliminate (B) and (E). Next, consider
the shadings: there are five possible shadings – striped, white, chequered, wavy and black – with three appearing
in each box. The striped shading appears in the small ball on the tip with two balls in the upper-left box, then
disappears, with the white shading moving from the large ball to the adjacent small ball (which was previously
striped) and the chequered shading moving from the tip with a single ball to the large ball (which was previously
white). Then, in the second box in the top row, the single ball (which was previously chequered) becomes wavy,
with the wavy shading moving to the large ball in the right box in the top row (third step in the sequence) and
then to the small ball on the tip with two balls in the right box of the middle row (fourth step in the sequence).
Thus, we can track the shadings across the three balls in the figure: in the lower-left box (seventh step in the
sequence), the chequered shading is on the large ball, so it must move to the adjacent small ball in the missing
segment, with the wavy shading (on the small ball on the tip with a single ball in the seventh step) moving to the
large ball. The correct answer is (A).
For the record, there are 5 shadings that cycle through in the order striped–white–chequered–wavy–black. If you
struggled to work out the exact cycle, you could have also attacked the shadings by considering which boxes in
the grid contain the same three shadings. For example, the upper-left box and the middle-left box each have
striped, white and chequered balls, the upper-middle box and the lower-left box each have white, chequered and
30
wavy balls, and the middle-right box and the lower-right box each have wavy, black and striped balls. Since the
sequence of shadings clearly repeats, you can use these repetitions to work out that these boxes are the same
steps in the sequences, which must proceed (left-to-right across the top row, right-to-left across the middle row,
and left-to-right across the bottom row) 1–2–3–4–5–1–2–3–4. Thus, the missing segment must have the same
shadings as the upper-right box. Note, however, that this only addresses the matter of which shadings are
included, not the exact positioning – but it would be sufficient to eliminate answers (D) and (E). With further
consideration, you might also notice that in the boxes with repeated shadings (the 1’s, 2’s and 5’s in the
sequence listed above), the same shadings are grouped together on the tip with two balls in each 1, each 2 and
each 5 (e.g., the striped and white balls are on the tip with two balls, with the large ball white, in each 1). This
would be sufficient to determine that answer (A) must be correct, since it must have the same shadings as the
upper-right box, with the chequered and wavy shadings on the tip with two balls and the large ball wavy. This
goes to show that there are many approaches to solving a Missing Segment question – be sure to practise with as
many questions as possible, so you have a range of approaches to attack the questions you’ll see on Test Day.
16. (B)
After the first scan, the narrator states that things were ‘not good, but not totally awful,’ and that ‘things were
tentatively okay, even if I didn’t feel okay. The scan was a weird experience, and I really wasn’t sure what to
make of it.’ Based on this description, the narrator’s emotions after the first scan could well be described as
uncertainty (since he states he ‘wasn’t sure what to make of it’). Ignorance could also possibly fit, but it does not
fit as well as uncertainty, since the narrator is not exactly unaware or dumb – he is more unsure or hesitant.
However, it’s clear that he does not have feelings of frivolity (playfulness) or levity (cheerfulness) after the first
scan, so you can eliminate (C) and (D).
After the second scan, the narrator has learned that his liver is ‘seriously scarred…equivalent to cirrhosis,’
despite being aged 33; thus, he must immediately begin a six months treatment regime that include ‘all the pills
and injections and be stuck with the horrible fatigue and any other side effects’; the narrator feels that he is
‘suddenly…locked in,’ with ‘no choice’ but to begin treatment. His narrator clearly feels trapped, based on
‘locked in’ and ‘no choice’ – of the remaining answers, the best fit is obligation, since he has ‘no choice’ but to
begin treatment. He clearly does not feel calm (serene), ruling out (A). Answer (B) is therefore correct.
For the record: Note that the first words in answers (C) and (D) could be used to describe the nurse’s emotions
at the start of the second scan. It’s common on the UMAT for wrong answers in Interpersonal Understanding
questions to describe the correct emotions of the wrong characters. Be sure to keep the characters straight in
your head! It might sound obvious, but it is easy to make an error when you are working quickly under the
pressures of Test Day.
17. (D)
This set of 3 questions is a Logic Puzzle, requiring you to work out deductions based on the initial rules, and
potential further deductions with the added info in each question. Take a minute to read over the rules and look
for any initial deductions. As you do so, you’ll want to make a rough sketch of the scenario on your test paper.
Even though one is provided, it will be easier to do a sketch of your own, as you’ll need to re-draw a sketch for
each question. In the first class compartment, there are 4 rows: two with two seats (A and K), and two with four
seats (A, E, F and K). There’s an aisle between A/E and F/K seats in the back two rows, merging to one aisle
between the A/K seats in the first two rows. Perhaps the simplest sketch would be:
A E F K
1: ____ ____
2: ____ ____
3: ____ ____ ____ ____
4: ____ ____ ____ ____
Now, consider what we know about the passengers. Georgia and Harrison must sit together, across an aisle. You
could note this as G/H. Also, Lily, Max and Kirstie have to be in the same row in adjacent seats, with Lily in a
window seat and Max not in a window seat. Thus, Lily must be in an A or K seat, and Max in an E/F seat. Since
they must be in three adjacent seats, Kirstie must also be in an E/F seat, and they must be in Row 3 or Row 4.
The second businessman, who will not sit in a row adjacent to small children, therefore cannot be in Row 3 or 4;
31
he (call him 2B) must be in Row 1 (if L/K/M are in Row 3), or he could be in Row 1 or 2 if they are in Row 4.
We also know that the pilot (P) and the first businessman (1B) must be A seats. This means that P and 1B can’t
be in the same row; also, if Lily is in an A seat, then we have three of the A seats taken. We don’t know
anything about the flight attendants (FA, FA) – they could go anywhere. However, we do know that there are 10
passengers total, and 12 seats – so there will be two empty seats. Knowing which seats are empty could be very
useful, since it would limit where people could sit. Also, the groups that must sit in the same row – G/H and
L/M/K – could be quite limited in where they will fit, although we may not know the exact seats for each.
Moving onto the details in question 5, which gives two further special conditions for this question only: Lily sits
in 3A and 1K is empty. Add these details to the sketch:
A E F K
1: ____ X
2: ____ ____
3: L ____ ____ ____
4: ____ ____ ____ ____
We know that Max and Kirstie have to sit in the E and F seats in Row 3; we don’t know which goes in which
seat, and it really doesn’t matter, since we now know that Kirstie (answer B) cannot sit in a K seat. We also
know that the second businessman’s seating depends on L/M/K’s: since they are in Row 3, then 2B must be in
Row 1 – and there is only one seat he can take in that row, 1A. Add these to the sketch:
A E F K
1: 2B X
2: ____ ____
3: L K/M K/M ____
4: ____ ____ ____ ____
Note the use of slashes when there are two options for who could go into a seat. Now, the next passengers to slot
in are the pilot and the first businessman. They have to take A seats, and there are two left – 2A and 4A. The
only remaining passengers who are restricted at all are Georgia and Harrison – they have to sit across the aisle
from each other. With 2A and 4A taken, the only remaining seats for G/H are 4F and 4K. Add these in:
A E F K
1: 2B X
2: P/1B ____
3: L K/M K/M ____
4: P/1B ____ G/H G/H
Notice the wrong answer trap: (A) is not something that must be true. Georgia could sit in a K seat, 4K.
However, she could just as easily sit in 4F, which is NOT a K seat. Both are equally possible, so (A) is wrong.
We have already assigned Kirstie and both businessmen to seats, none of which are K seats. Thus, answer (D)
must be correct. As the sketch shows, there are three seats remaining: 2K, 3K and 4E. The two flight attendants
can sit in any two of these seats, but at least one of them will be in a K seat.
18. (B)
This question gives further information, and asks for something that could be true. This means that the correct
answer could be one of the possible options, such as those indicated by a slash in the previous sketch. The
further info says that the two businessmen sit in the same row, with a flight attendant directly in front of one of
them. We know from our original deductions that the second businessman can only sit in Row 1 or Row 2; if a
flight attendant is seated in front of one of them, then the FA is in Row 1, and 1B and 2B are in Row 2. We also
know that Kirstie and her kids must be in Row 4, since 2B will not sit in Row 2 if they are in Row 3. Add all
these details into a sketch:
32
A E F K
1: FA? FA?
2: 1B 2B
3: ____ ____ ____ ____
4: L? K/M K/M L?
We don’t know whether the flight attendant in Row 1 is in 1A or 1K, or whether Lily’s in 4A or 4K. There are
four people who still need seats: the pilot, Georgia, Harrison and the other flight attendant. The pilot will have to
take 1A or 3A. Georgia and Harrison need to be seated across the aisle in the same row; there are no seats for
them in Row 1 (FA has one), Row 2 (both seats taken by businessmen) or Row 4 (Kirstie and her kids), so G/H
must go into Row 3, either 3A/3E or 3F/3K. Thus, it is possible that Harrison could be seated directly in front of
Max. The answer is (B).
For the record: Georgia and Harrison would have to take 3A or 3K as one of their seats, so at least one
businessman would not be seated in front of an empty seat. If the pilot takes 1A, he won’t be in the same row as
Georgia; if the pilot takes 3A, then Georgia and Harrison would take 3F and 3K, so there would be at least one
seat between Georgia and the pilot. If the pilot takes 1A, no one is seated in front of him; if the pilot takes 3A,
he is seated directly behind the first businessman, not a flight attendant.
19. (C)
This question assigns both flight attendants to specific seats, then asks which seats could not be empty. This
means that if there are multiple possible options, we’ll have to ensure that the seats in the correct answer are
taken by someone (if not necessarily the same person) in all those options. First, redraw the sketch:
A E F K
1: ____ ____
2: ____ FA
3: ____ ____ FA ____
4: ____ ____ ____ ____
This means that Kirstie, Lily and Max must sit in Row 4. However, there are three possible seats (1A, 2A, 3A)
for the pilot and the first businessman; the second businessman can then take any remaining seat in Row 1 or
Row 2. Thus, you can’t do much with P, 1B and 2B at this point. That leaves Georgia and Harrison. If Kirstie
and the kids are in Row 4, that means G/H can’t be in Row 4; they also can’t be in Row 2, or on the right side of
Row 3. The only possible seats for G/H are 1A/1K or 3A/3E – both of which would severely limit the pilot and
businessmen’s seating options. Draw a quick sketch for each option for G/H, starting with them in Row 1:
Option I:
A E F K
1: G/H G/H
2: ____ FA
3: ____ ____ FA ____
4: L? K/M K/M L?
In this option, there is only one possible seat for the second businessman: 2A, as it’s the only seat that is not in a
row adjacent to the children. This means that the pilot and first businessman must take 3A and 4A, and that Lily
must take 4K. Amending the sketch:
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Option I:
A E F K
1: G/H G/H
2: 2B FA
3: P/1B ____ FA ____
4: P/1B K/M K/M L
The deductions have accounted for all the assigned seats, even if we’re not sure who is in each seat; thus, in
Option I, we see that 3E and 3K are empty seats; answer (D) is incorrect, as these could be the empty seats.
However, there’s a second option to consider: what if Georgia and Harrison are in Row 3? Sketch this option:
Option II:
A E F K
1: ____ ____
2: ____ FA
3: G/H G/H FA ____
4: L? K/M K/M L?
This option isn’t nearly as tidy as Option I; there are no further seats that must be assigned. However, we know
that the pilot and first businessman must take A seats (1A, 2A or 4A), that Lily must take 4A or 4K, and that the
second businessman must be in 1A, 1K or 2A, as he will not sit in a row adjacent to the children.
If 2B takes 1A or 2A, then P and 1B must be in the other two A seats, putting Lily in 4K; the empty seats are
thus 1K and 3K. These could be the empty seats, so (A) is incorrect.
If 2B takes 1K, then Lily could take 4A or 4K, and P and 1B could take any two of 1A/2A/4A; the empty seats
would therefore be 3K and either 1A, 2A, 4A or 4K. Thus, 2A and 3K could be the empty seats, ruling out (B).
Since 3K must be empty in all possibilities, the two empty seats could not be 2A and 4K. Answer (C) is correct.
20. (B)
Checking the line reference, Irene mentions that Uncle Fred had chemotherapy and that it gave him another two
years of life. But it was unbearable; it took his hair, appetite and energy, and she asserts that it would do the
same to her. These details indicate that she is afraid that the treatment will have the same effect on her, taking
her hair, appetite and energy. Answer (B) is correct. For the record: Uncle Fred’s life was prolonged for two
years, ruling out (A); her husband left nearly 8 years earlier, but their language suggests that he died, not that he
divorced her, and in any case this was not linked to Uncle Fred’s treatment; while she states that Josh cried one
time when they left the hospital after visiting Fred, it is not clear that all of the boys were there, or that they were
all crying. (D) is possible, but (B) is clearly, directly supported.
21. (A)
In her final statement, Irene says that she is not scared, she feels ready for this, meaning her death; she does not
see a point in her hanging around anymore, despite the fact that Josh has just referred to several family events
(Parker’s graduation and Matt’s wedding) that she would miss. In this context, Irene’s final line is really quite
calm and accepting of what she sees as her fate. Thus, she can be said to be resigned to her death and
exceptionally serene, answer (A). For the record: She is not at all agitated (disquieted), ruling out (B); she is not
very happy or elated (exhilarated), ruling out (C); Josh disagrees with her, but she is not being unfriendly or
antagonistic (hostile), ruling out (D).
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22. (D)
This question asks you to predict what Josh will say in a scenario that occurs after the end of the passage. You
must base your answer on Josh’s words, actions and feelings in the passage; the correct answer must match
these as closely as possible. In the new scenario, Josh goes with Irene to see the doctor; Irene hesitates when the
doctor asks if she has come to a decision about treatment. Throughout the passage, Josh tries to convince Irene
that she should have the treatment, because it would allow her to spend more time with him and his brothers,
Parker and Matt. Thus, Josh is most likely to respond with the dialogue in (D), as it matches closely with his
statements in the passage. For the record: In the passage, Irene is not obsessed with the past; she doesn’t dwell
on the things that have happened, so (A) is unlikely. Josh tries to convince Irene to have the treatment, but he
never suggests that she should defer to his authority; (B) is quite arrogant by comparison. (C) may somewhat
describe Irene’s behaviour in the passage, but it does not match Josh’s views or language.
23. (A)
To assess the effectiveness of the drug, compare the results for the various doses to the results for the control
group. The drug is less effective when there is minimal difference between the results for the control and the
results for the participants taking the drug, or when the control has better results than participants taking the
drug. The results have the least difference in Week 4; in that week, the control group had better results than two
of the three participant groups in the study, so the drug is least likely to be effective based on data from that
week. Answer (A) is correct.
24. (B)
The experiment tested the children for levels of concentration at the start, and then again every two weeks for
the duration of the 12-week study. In this test, a higher score corresponds to a higher level of concentration and
a lesser severity of ADHD. The control group were given a placebo – a fake treatment with no effect; three other
groups were given varying doses of the drug. Based on this information, it is impossible to say that the drug has
an immediate effect on concentration, as (A) claims, because at both Week 2 and Week 4, the score of patients
taking the drug was similar to or lower than the score of patients in the control group. Additionally, although the
effect of the drug appears to lessen after 10 weeks, it is difficult to determine if this means it is ‘short-lived,’ as
the drug is still having an overall positive effect on concentration. (A) is incorrect. (B) claims that the drug has a
positive short-term effect on improving concentration. At all doses of the drug, by Week 6 the participants
showed a positive increase in concentration, and all doses of the drug showed greater improvement than the
control by this point as well. The study only indicates data for 12 weeks, so it is only possible to infer that the
drug has a positive effect in the short term. To understand its effect in the long term, further investigations
would need to be undertaken. Answer (B) is correct. For the record: The reverse of statement (C) is true: the
data shows that the higher the dosage of the drug, the greater the positive effect on concentration. The first part
of (D) is correct, as the drug seems to take about 6 weeks to differentiate the results for the different dosage
groups and the control group; however, there is no data on long-term effects, as the study only covers a short-
term period of 12 weeks. Thus, (D) is incorrect.
25. (B)
The figure in each answer choice consists of seven segments, either black or white; there are four black
segments and three white segments, and the colours appear to move up or down the figure by one position with
each step of the sequence. It’s probably easiest to work out the overall sequence by focusing on the two adjacent
black segments, which are the top two segments in (A), the bottom two in (B), and so on; in (D), they are the top
and bottom, indicating that the colours repeat up/down the sequence, with the bottom colour moving to the top
(or vice versa). Starting from (B) and following the adjacent black segments up the figure, we can see that BCE
(or ECB) must be part of the sequence, depending whether the colours move up (BCE) or down (ECB).
However, there is no option of a figure with the third and fourth segments from the top both black, which would
have to come after (E) if the sequence involves the colours moving up the figure. Thus, the colours must move
down the figure, with the bottom colour moving to the top; this also means that (E) must be the first in the
sequence, since nothing can come after it, and it has to be in a block of BCE or ECB. (B) is therefore the middle
of the sequence, and the correct answer. For the record: The complete sequence is ECBDA. While (D) is the
one answer that makes it clearest that there are seven segments in the figure, it is also the most challenging to fit
into the sequence, since the two black segments that are adjacent in the other four answers are at the top and
bottom in (D).
35
26. (A)
Each figure consists of a stack of shapes: a diamond atop a Q-shape atop a curved arrow. The shapes are always
stacked in this order; however, the Q-shape and the arrow rotate, and the shadings change with each step in the
sequence. There are a total of four possible shadings: striped, white, wavy and grey. Two answers, (B) and (E)
have the same three shadings in the same order – wavy atop grey atop striped; thus, these are likely the first and
last in the sequence – since it’s a sequence involving four shadings, each shape would repeat its first shading on
the fifth step. The rotation of the Q-shape is likely the easiest to see; it rotates 90° anticlockwise with each next
step. This deduction proves that (B) and (E) are the first and last steps (though not clear yet which is which),
since the Q-shape would end up in the original orientation after rotating 4 times. Thus, the second to fourth steps
are (D), (A) and (C), as the Q-shape has rotated 90°, 180° and 270° anticlockwise, respective to its original
orientation, through those three answers. (A) is the middle of the sequence, so it’s correct. For the record: Once
you work out the second to fourth steps based on the Q-shape, you can see that the curved arrow rotates 45°
clockwise with each step; thus, the overall sequence is BDACE. Knowing this, you can also see that the
shadings move up the stack of shapes, with the shading of the diamond disappearing during the next step, only
to reappear on the bottom as the arrow’s shading in the following step. However, on Test Day, these deductions
would not be necessary, as you only need do as much work as required to determine the middle of the sequence.
On many questions, you will be able to work out the middle of the sequence without knowing the exact overall
sequence.
27. (E)
Each figure consists of a large white octagon containing two small circles, one black and one grey, and a line
connecting two vertices of the octagon. In each figure, the line forms a trapezium; that is, there are two vertices
between the two that are connected by the line. Thus, it is possible to track the movement of the line around the
octagon, either clockwise or anticlockwise. Tracking the movement clockwise, as if the longest side of the
trapezium is its base (bottom side) and starting from the left of the line if oriented this way, you can see that that
corner of the trapezium is at the bottom-left vertex of the octagon in (A). Following it clockwise around the
octagon, it then moves to the lower-left vertex in (E), then to the upper-left vertex in (D), and then to the top-left
vertex in (B). That corner of the trapezium does not move to the upper-right vertex of the octagon in (C);
however, note that in (C), that corner of the trapezium is in the bottom-right vertex of the octagon, meaning that
(following this clockwise tracking of the rotation of the line), the overall sequence is CAEDB. Thus, (E) is the
middle of the sequence and must be the correct answer.
For the record: Remember, you must only do enough work on a Middle of the Sequence question to get to the
correct answer. In this case, you could have also defined the sequence by anticlockwise rotation of the line, in
which case the overall sequence is BDEAC. Either way, (E) is the middle of the sequence. Also, you may have
observed the rotation of the circles around the vertices of the octagon: the grey circle moves one position
clockwise with each next step in the sequence, while the black circle moves anticlockwise one position with
each next step in the sequence. You could have answered the question just as easily by tracking one or both
circles, but note that you could have worked out the overall sequence (or, rather, one of the valid overall
sequences) based on any one of the three elements – line, grey circle, black circle – present in each step.
36

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UMAT

UMAT is a registered trademark of the Australian Council for Educational Research.

© 2016 Kaplan, Inc.

UMAT Short Test

UMAT Preparation Courses

 2-session intensive UMAT course

 5 hours of UMAT lessons and strategy sessions

 Kaplan-trained UMAT teachers

 6 full-length practice tests

 Clear, defined methods and strategies for each question type

 Personalised score reports to help guide your study

 Teacher support until Test Day

UMAT 2016 – Essential Dates

3 June 2016 (5.00pm AEST) UMAT registration closes

27 July 2016 UMAT Test Day

Late September 2016 UMAT results released

Check umat.acer.edu.au for the latest updates and information.

UMAT Structure and Timing

Score 2 Interpersonal Understanding 44 questions 60 minutes

Score 3 Non-Verbal Reasoning 42 questions 45 minutes

TOTAL: 134 questions 180 minutes

UMAT Short Test

2 From this information it follows that

A languid and indifferent

Prepregnancy BMI Recommended Range Recommended Rates of Weight

Underweight <18.5 28-40 1

Normal weight 18.5-24.9 25-35 1

Overweight 25-29.9 15-25 0.6

Obese (all classes) >30 11-20 0.5

A 4 pounds in her first trimester.

9 Why does the patient redden (line 12)?

A because she feels embarrassed at the doctor’s suggestion

A encouraging, compassionate and mostly calm.

A He is scornful of authority and obsequious to the patient.

17 If Lily sits in 3A, and 1K is empty, who must sit in a K seat?

A Both businessmen are seated directly in front of an empty seat.

A resigned and exceptionally serene

23 The drug is least likely to be effective based on the data from

A The drug has an immediate but very short-lived effect on concentration.

UMAT SHORT TEST

YOUR UMAT SCORE

QUESTIONS BY CONTENT AREA

Score 2: Questions 6, 9–12, 16 and 20–22

Score 3: Questions 3–5, 13–15 and 25–27

HOW WILL I SCORE ON TEST DAY?

 This corresponds to an average content area score of 40 and 60, respectively.

Kaplan’s UMAT preparation courses include:

• Instruction by expertly-trained teachers: Our teaching method focuses on critical

UMAT Short Test

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