Max. Time : 3 ^
Marks : 200
PART A. PHYSICS
1. Car A is moving with a speed of
36 km h “ 1 on a two - lane roads. Two
cars B and C, each moving with a speed
of 54 km h ~1 in opposite directions on
the other lane are approaching car A. At
a certain Instant when the distance AB
* distance AC = 1 km, the driver of car
B decides to overtake A before C does.
What must be the m inim um accelera­
tion of car B so as to avoid in accident ?
(1)4 ms-2 (2) 3 ms-2
(3) 2 ms-2 (4) 1m s" 2
2. The momentum of a body increases by
20%. What is the percentage increase in
Its kinetic energy ?
(1)60 (2)52 (3)44 (4)36
3. Two blocks of equal mass
m i = m 2 = 3 kg, connected by a light
string, are placed on a horizontal sur­
face which is not frictionless. If a force
of 20 N is applied in the horizontal di­
rection on a block, the acceleration of
_g
each block is 0.5 ms . Assuming that
the frictional forces on the two blocks
are equal, the tension in the string will
be
(1) 60 N (2) 40 N
(3) 20 N (4) 10 N
4. A man P of mass 80 kg runs up a stair­
case in 12 seconds. Another man Q of
mass 60 kg runs up the same staircase
in 11 seconds. What is the ratio of the
power developed by P to that by Q ?
(1)11/9 (2)49/33 (3)12/11(4)4/3
5. A molecule consists of two atoms, each
of mass m, separated by a distance a.
Max.
The moment of inertia of the moieculc
about its centre of mass is
( l) ^ m a 2 (2)| m a 2
(3) 2 ma2 (4) ma2
6 . An earth satellite is kept moving in or­
bit by the centripetal force provided by
(1) the gravitational attraction f the earth
(2) the gravitational attraction of the sun
(3) the ejection of hot gases from its exhaust
(4) the burning of fuel in its engine
7. A boat carrying a number of large
stones is floating in a water tank. What
will happen to the water level if the
stones are unloaded into the water ? The
water levels
(1) rises (2) falls (3) remains unchanged
(4) rise till half the number of stones are un­
loaded and then begins to fall.
8 . A capillary tube or radius r is im­
mersed in water and water rises in it to
a height. The mass of water in the capil­
lary tube is 5g. Another capillary tube of
radius 2r is immersed in water . The
mass of water that will rise in this tube
Is
(1) 10 g (2) 20 g (3)5.0g (D)2.5g
9. Two wires A and B of the same material
have their lengths in the ratio of 1 : 2
and their diameters in the ratio of 2 : 1.
If they are stretched with the same
force, the ratio of the Increase in the
length of A to that of B will be
(1 )1 :4 (2 )1 :8
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 2
10. If there are no heat losses, the heat re­
leased by the condensation of x grams
 off steam at 100°C. The ratio y/x is then this resistor can be safely used
nearly across a
(1)4 (2)3 (3)2 (4)1 (1) 150 V dc source (2) 200 V dc source
11. Which one off the following is the cor­ (3) 50 V dc source (4) None of these
rect relationship between pressure P 17. A string of length L = lm is fixed at
and volume V off an ideal gas undergoing one end and carries a mass of lOOg at
an adiabatic expansion (y is the ratio of the other end. the string makes v 5 /x
the two specific heats) ? revolutions per second about vertical
axis passing through its second end. The
(1) PV//r = constant (2) FVr/y " 1 = constant tension in the string is
(3) PV1'= constant (4) PV* " 1 = constant (1) N (2) 2N (3) 3N (4) 5N
12. A spring of ofiorce constant k is cut 18. A proton (mass = 1 . 7 x 1 0 “ 27 kg)
into three equal pieces. If these three
pieces are connected in parallel, the moves with speed off 5 x 105 ms ” 1 in a
force constant off the com bination will direction perpendicular to a magnetic
be field of 0.17 T. The acceleration off the
proton is
(l)3 k (2) 9k (3) k (4) k/3
13. If the Young's m odulus of the material (1) 8 x 1012 m s-2 (2) 4 x 1012 m s" 2
of a rod is 2 x 10 11 N m 2 and is den­ (3) 2 x 1012 ms * 2 (4) zero
sity is 8000 kg m “ 3, the time taken by 19. The wire shown in figure (below) car­
a sound wave to traverse 1 m of the rod ries a current of 40 A. Iff r = 3.14 cm.
will be the magnetic ffield at point P will be

(1) 2 x 10-2 s (2) 10~2 s

(3) 10“ 4 s (4) 2 x 10“ 4 s
14. The electric potentials V ( in v o lt) var­
ies with x ( in metre ) according to the
relation V + 5 + 4x . The fforce experi­
enced by a negative charge off
2 x 10 6 C located at x = 0.5 m is
(1) 8 x 10 “ 6 N (2) 2 x 10“ 6 N
(1) 3.2 x 10“ 3 T (2)4.8 x 1 0 * 3 T
(3) 4 x 10-6 N (4) 6 x 10 ” 6 N
(3)6.4 x 10“ 3 T (4) 1.6 x 10- 3T
15. A uniform copper wire of length 1 m
—7 2 20. In Young’s double - slit experiment,
and cross -sectional area 5 x 10 m the intensity off light at a point on the
carries a current of 1 A. Assuming that screen where the path difference is X Is
there are 8 x 1028 free electrons per m K units. W hat is the intensity of light at
in copper, how long will en electron a point where the path difference is X/3;
takes to drift from one end of the wire to A, being the wavelength off light used ?
the other ?
(1) K (2) K/2 (3) K/3 (4) K/4
(1) 6.4 x103 s (2)3.2 x l0 3 s 21. What is the lum inous intensity of a
1.6 x 103 s (4)0.8 x 103 s lamp which produces an illuminance of
16. The m aximum power rating off a 20 Q 12 lux at a distance of 5.0 m from it ?
resistor is 1 kW. If the integral resis­ (1) 300 cd (2) 400 cd
tance of the dc source is negligible , (3) 100 cd (4) 200 cd
22. A monoenergetic electron beam with 30. If A, Z and N denote the mass number
electron speed of 5.28 x 106 ms 1 is , the atomic number and the neutron
subjected to a magnetic field of number for a given nucleus, then which
of the following statement is incorrect?
2x10 T normal to the back velocity.
What is the radius of the circular path (1) isobar have the same A but different Z
and N
traced by the beam ? Given e/m for elec­
(2)isotopes have the same Z but different N
tron = 1.76 x 10 11 C kg ' 1. and A
(1) 20 cm (2) 15 cm (3) isotones have the same N but different A
(3) 10 cm (4) 5 cm and Z
23. The energy of a photon corresponding (4) N = Z+A
to the visible light of maximum wave* 31. Moving with the same velocity, which
length is approximately equal to of the following has the longest de Bro­
(1) 2.0 eV (2) 2.5 eV glie wavelength ?
(3) 1.0 eV (4) 1.5 eV (1) neutron (2) proton
24. A light signal (photon) cannot escape (3) P -particle (3) a -particle
from the surface of a
32. A concave lens of focal length 20 cm
(1) neutron star (2) black hole placed in contact with a plane mirror
(3) red giant (4) white dwarf acts as a
25. On increasing the reverse bias to a (1) concave mirror of focal length 10 cm
large value in a pn junction diode, the (2) concave mirror of focal length 60 cm
current (3) concave mirror of focal length 40 cm
(1) remains fixed (2) suddenly increased (4) convex mirror of focal length 10 cm
(3) decreases slowly (4) Increased slowly 33. If a graph is plotted between 1/v and
26. In Boolena algebra 1 + 1 equals 1/u, which one of the graphs shown in
( 1)2 (2)1 figure is approximately correct ?
(3) 0 (4) both 0 and 1
27. Which of the following crystals have a
hexagonal structure ?
(1) zinc (2) calcite
(3) quartz. (4) both (1)&(3)
28. When a (i-particle is emitted from a nu­
cleus, the neutron-proton ratio
(1) is increased (2) is decreased
(3) remains the same
(4) first decreases then increases 34. A particle of mass m and q is released
29. If the end A of a wire is irradiated from rest in a uniform electric field E.
with alpha rays and the end B is irradi­ The kinetic energy attained by the parti­
ated with beta rays, then cle, after moving a distance x is
(1) a current will flow from B to A (1) q2 Ex (2) q Ex
(2) a current will flow from A to B (3) q E2x (4) q Ex2
(3) there will be no current in the wire 35. A proton and an alpha particle enter
(4) a current will flow from each end to the a uniform magnetic field with the same
mid point of the wire
 velocity. The period of rotation of the al­ (3) going away from the earth with a speed
pha particle will be 3 * 107 m s" 1
(1) the same as that of proton (4) approaching the earth with a speed
(2) three times that of proton 3 x 107 m s ' 1
(3) two times that of proton
40. Two rods of the same length and m a­
(4) four times that of proton terial transfer a given am ount of heat in
36. A battery of emf l o V is connected to 12 seconds when they are joined end to
resistances as shown in the figure.The end. But when they are joined length­
potential difference between points A wise, they will transfer the same
and B is amount of heat, in the same conditions,
in
(1) 1.5s (2) 48s (3) 24s (4) 3s
41. A soap bubble is vacuum has a radius
of 3 cm and another soap bubble in vac­
uum has a radius of 4cm. If the two bub­
bles coalesce under isothermal
conditionals the radius of the new bub­
ble will be
(1)5V (2} -2V {3J2V <4)f?V (1) 7 cm (2) 5 cm
37. A uniform wire of resistance 4 Q is (3) 4.5 cm (4) 2.3 cm
bent into the form of a circle of radius r. 42. A concrete sphere of radius R has a
A specimen of the same wire is con­ cavity of radius r which is packed with
nected along the diameter of the circle. sawdust. The relative densities of con­
What is the equivalent resistance across crete and sawdust are 2.4 and 0.3 re­
the ends of this wire ? spectively. For this sphere to float with
its entire volume submerged under
water, the ratio of the mass of concrete
(1 +n) (2 +ft) to the mass of sawdust will be
4 3
(3) (4) n (1) zero (2 )3 (3)4 (4)8
(4 +n ) "" ' ' (3 + 7i) 43.
38. Two waves are represented by the fol-
lowing equations : m
- yj = 5 sin 2n (10 t - 0.1 x) T
h
and y2 = 10 sin 2 n (20 t - 0 .2 ) x)
The ratio of intensities I 2 / I 1 will be
(1)16 (2)4 (3)2 (4)1
1 Platform
39. The wavelength of light of a particular
wavelength received from a galaxy is
measured one earth and is found to be
5% more that its wavelength. It follows
that the galaxy is IS / / / / / 7 / / / / / / * «- Base

(1) going away from the earth with a speed A body of mass m = 1 kg is dropped
from a height h = 40 cm on a horizontal
1.5 x 107 m s” 1
platform fixed to one end of an elastic
(2) approaching the earth with a speed
spring, the other being fixed to a base,
1.5 x 107 m s” 1
 as shown in figure. As a result the spring steadily through a capillary tube of ra­
is compressed by an am ount x = 10 cm. dius r and length 1. If is the volume of
What is the force constant of the spring. the liquid flowing per second, the pres­
Take g = 10 ms 2. sure difference pat the ends of the tube
is given by
(1) 1200 Nm “ 1 (2) 1000 Nm “ 1
8p/V
(3) 800 Nm ” 1 (4) 600 Nm “ 1 d tp - ixi
(2) n
p =-
nr TtV
44. Choose the correct statement(s) from
the following : 8n/V SxA /
(4 )p =
(1) The relative velocity of two bodies in a r|r4 7T/
head - on collision remains unchanged in 48. The electric current passing thorough
magnitude and direction a metallic wire produces heat because
(2) The general form of Newton’s second law of
of motion is Fext= ma (1) Collisions of the conduction electrons with
(3) A body can have energy and yet no mo­ the atoms of the metallic wire
mentum (2) The energy released in the ioni2ation of
(4) None of the above. the atoms of the metal
45. A body of mass 0.5 kg is whirled in a (3) Collisions of conduction electrons with
vertical circle at an angular frequency of each other
10 rad s ~ 1.If the radius of the circle is (4) Collisions of the atoms of the metal with
0.5 m, what is the tension in the string each other.
when the body is at the top of the circle 49. Two parallel wires in free space are 10
? Take g = 10 ms " 2. cm apart and each carries a current of
10 A in the same direction. The force
(1) 40 N (2) 30 N (3) 20 N (4) 10N
one wire exerts on the other per metre of
46. A body thrown along a frictionless in­
length is
clined plane of angle of inclination
(1)2 x 10” 7 N„ repulsive
30°covers a distance of 40 m along the
7
plane. If the body is projected with the (2) 2 x 10 ' N, attractive
same speed at angle of 30° with the (3) 2 x 10>-4
** N, repulsive
ground, it will have a range of (take
(4)2 x 10" 4 N, attractive
g = 10 m s ' 2) 50. Vector C is the sum of two vector A and
(1) 40 m (2) 20 m B and vector D is the cross product of
(3) 20 V3m (4) 20 m vectors A and B. What is the angle be­
47. Which one of the following relations tween vectors C and D?
is dimensionally consistent ? A liquid of (1)180° (2)90° (3)60° (4) zero
coefficient of viscosity r| is flowing
§ D irections : Q .N o 51 to 60 consists o f two statem ents, one labelled the 4Assertion
(A) ’ and the other labelled the 4Reason (R) \Exam ine these statem ents carefully and
decide if
(1) If both assertion and reason are true statements and the reason is a correct explanation of
the assertion
(2) If both assertion and reason are true statements but reason is not a correct explanation of the
assertion
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is a false statement
(4) If both assertion and reason are false statements
51. Assertion (A) : Soft magnetic materials (e.g. . Reason (R) : Hard magnetic materials (e.g.
iron) have a high coercivity and do not demag­ steel) have a low coercivity and become tem­
netise easily porary magnets
(1) (2) (3) (4)
52. Assertion (A) : Dielectric loss is the energy Reason (R) : The alternating displacement
transformation which occurs in a dielectric in has a cooling effect.
an alternating electric field
(1) (2) (3) (4)
53. Assertion (A) : In Thomson’s experiment all Reason (R) : The ions of same velocities ar­
the positive ions with the same value of specific rive at different points on the same parabola
charge are focused on the same parabola irre­
spective of their velocities.
(1} (2) . (3) (4)
54. Assertion (A) : The velocity of an electron in Reason (R) : The angular velocity of the elec­
an orbit is inversely proportional tot he square tron is proportional to the radius of the orbit.
of the radius of the orbit
(1) (2) (3) (4)
55. Assertion (A) : Reciprocal of resistivity is called Reason (R) : Reciprocal of resistance is called
the specific conductance. the thermal conductivity
(1J (2) (3) (4)
56. Assertion ( A ) : Germanium is a very god con­ Reason (R) : The number of density of free
ductor of electricity electrons for germanium is 8 x 10^® nrf
(1) (2) (3) (4)
57. Assertion (A) : Illuminance is the luminous flux Reason (R) : The luminous intensity of the ra­
per unit surface area, when the area is held diant flux per unit angle in that direction.
normal to the beam of light
(1) (2) (3) (4)
58. Assertion (A) : Pressure cooker is useful at Reason (R) : due to low atmospheric pressure
high mountains on high mountains the water boils at above
100°C
(1) (2) (3) (4)
59. Assertion ( A ) : The Paschen series in the spec­ Reason (R) : The Raschen series is bom of
trum of hydrogen lies in the ultraviolet region transitions of electrons onto the second orbit
from higher orbits
(1) (2) (3) (4)
60 Assertion ( A ) : Many solids have a molar heat Reason (R) : The molar heat capacity is the
capacity close to 25 Jmol V 1 heat capacity per mole
(1) (2) (3) (4) v
 a n sw ers With h in t s & e x p l a n a t io n s
1. Ans. (4) Let us suppose that cars A and B are
= 0.44 x | mv2 = 0.44 K.
moving in the positive x-direction. Then car C
is moving in the negative x-direction. Percentage increase in
Therefore,
K£ = 0 441 0K0 = 44%
u > £ J \x
vA = +36 km h ~ 1 = + 10 ms ~ K
vg = + 5 4 k m h - 1 = + 15 m s-1 Hence the correct choice is (3)
3. Ans. (4)
and vc = - 54 k m K m h ” 1 = 15 m s-1
The relative velocity B with respect to A is
VBA = vg - vA = 15 - 10= 5 ms" 1
The relative velocity of C with respect to A is
vca = vc ~ Ya = —15 —10 = —25 ms
At time t = 0, the distance between Refer to the figure. Let f be the frictional force
on eachblock. Equations (i) and (ii) are
A and B = distance between A and C = 1
modified to
km = 1000 m. The car C will
m i = a = T - f ------ (i)
cover a distance AC = 1000 m and just each
car A at a time t given by and m2a = F - T - f ------ (ii)
AC 1000 m Subtracting the two equations, we have
t= = 40 s
• VCA I 25 ms ' 1 (m i - m2) a = 2T - F
Car B will overtake car A just before car C Since m j = m2,
does and avoid an accident, we get 0 = 2T - F
if it acquires a minimum acceleration a such
t F 20 mw
that it covers a distance 2 =T
s = AB = 1000 m in time t - 40 s, travelling
Hence , the correct choice is (4) .
at a relative speed u
-1 4. Ans. (1) Let h be the vertical height of the
u = vgA = 5 ms staircase. Work done by P is
Putting these values in relation W j = mjgh = 80 gh
s = ut + ^ at2 Therefore power developed by P is
Wi SOah
We get 1000 = 5 x 4 0 +—x a x (40)2 1 *tj 12
Similarly, power developed by Q is
which gives a = 1 m s” which in choice (4)
p, = = 60.s!l
2 t? 11
2. Ans. (3) Momentum mv increases by 20% if
velocity v increases 1.2 v. No, kinetic energy which give P1/P 2 = 11/9.
Hence the correct choice is (1)
K = ^ m\£.
Ans. (2) Since the two atoms have the same
Increase in KE = —m (1.2 v)2 - ^ mv2 mass, the centre of massis at a distance of a2
from each atom. Therefore, the momentof iner­
= ^ mv2 (1.44 - 1) tial of the molecule about its centre of mass is
 z of x gram of steam = 540 x calories. The la­
fa l ma
= m „ +m - 2 = tent heat of fusion of ice is very nearly 80
I 2, calories. Therefore, heat required to convert
Hence the correct choices is (2). y gram of ice at 0°C to water at
5. Ans. (1) The centripetal force is provided by
100°C = 80 +y + 100 y
the gravitational attraction of the earth.
Hence the correct choice is (1). = 180y calories
7. Ans. (2) When stones are unloaded into the Thus 180 y = 540x
water in the tank, the volume of water dis­
or =3
placed is equal to the volume of the stones.
This is less than the volume of water having Hence the correct choice is (2)
weight equal to the weight of stones because 11. Ans. (3) PV' = constant
the density of stones is greater than that of
12. Ans. (2) If a force F is applied to a spring of
water. Hence the water level falls, which is
force constant k and the spring extends by an
choice (2)
amount x. then F = kx
8. Ans. (1) Mass of water in first tube is
The extension x produced in a spring is pro­
m = 7ir^hp portional to its length. Thus, if the spring is
Now. surface tension cut into three equal pieces, the same force F
hpgr hpgr' will produce an extension x/3 in a piece. If k'
2 ” 2 is the is the force constant of the piece, we
have
where h' is the height to which water rises in
the second tube and r' its radius. Since F = k' x/3
r' = 2r, h' = h/2 k'
Therefore — ~k
Therefore, the mass of water in the second 3
capillary tube is or k' = 3k
Thus, the force e constant of each piece is 3k.
m' = nr'2 h'p = n (2r)2 ^ p
When springs are connected in parallel, the
force constant of the combination is equal to
= 2tu2 h p = 2m = 2 x5 = lO g
the sum of the individual force constants of
Hence the correct choice is (1) the springs so connected. Therefore, the force
FLi constant of the combination = 3k + 3k + 3k
9. Ans. (2) Here 1} =
7ir?Y = 9k. Hence correct choice is (2).
13. Ans. (4) The speed of sound wave in the rod
FLg
and h= is
1C&Y
v,=
■ = = 5000 ms 1
h L1 x p 8000
Therefore —
'2 Time taken is = 1/5000= 2 x 10 ~-4 s.
Hence the correct answer is (4)
Given L2 = 2Li and r2 = TT 14. Ans. (1) Electric field
dV d A 2. a
-n. *1 1 1 1 r, = - — = - - (5 +4 x ) = -8x
dx dx
Force on charge ( - q ) = - q E = +8qx
10. Ans. (2) The latent heat of vaporization of
At x = 0.5 m, force = 8 x 2 x 1 0“ 6 x 0.5
water is very nearly 540 calories per gram.
Therefore heat released in the condensation = 8 x 10_ 6 N
 15. Ans. (1)
Therefore, phase difference <j>= —^ A = 2n.
The drift speed of electrons is given by A
1 Hence intensity at a point where A = X
enA or <J>= 2rt is
If 1is the length of the wire, the taken is I = I] +I2 + I2 cos $
f /enA
t= = ll +I2 +2 Vlj I2 cos2n
Vd 1
= I] +I2 +2 Vi] I2
1 x 1.6 x 10“ 19 x 8 x 1028 x 5 x 10" 7
= I +l+ 2U4I = K units
1
(•_• Ij = I2 = I) i.e. I = K/4
= 6 Ax 103 s
16. Ans. (3) The maximum power rating of a re­ The intensity at a point where the path differ­
sistance is the maximum power it can dissi­ ence is
pate without melting. If a 20 Q resistor is
connected to a 50 V dc source, the power dis­

p.
sipated as heat is
* 2* A, 2rc X 2n
£ .5 0 ^ 5 0 or
* X X *3 3
R, ?<?
which is less than 1 kW. Hence the resistor I' = I +I +2I cos y
can be safely used across a 50 V source. For
150 V and 200 V dc sources, the powers dis­ = 2I - I = I = ^ units
sipated respectively are 1.125 kW and 2 kW. 4
Now 1.125 kW and -2 kW ar# more than the 21. Ans . (1) E = 12 lux and r = 0.5 m. Lumi­
maximum power rating of the resistor. Hence nous intensity I is related to E as
the correct choices are (3). I
17. Ans. (2) T = mw2 = 0.1 x 4*2 x 4 = 2N
tC or I = Ei2 = 12 x (5.0)2 = 300 cd
18. Ans. (2) Force F = qvB

Acceleration = — = 22. Ans. (2)The radius of the circular path is

m m mv v
r-
1.6 x 10" 19 x 5.0 105 x 0.17 eB B (e/m)
1,7* 10' 27 5.28 x 1(^
= 8 x 1012ms' 2 2 x 10" 4 x 1.76 x 1011
Hence the correct answer is (2). = 0.15 m = 15 cm
19. Ans. (2) The straight portions of the wire do 23. Ans (4) The maximum wavelength of visible
not contribute because the point P is along light is about 800 A (the red end of the visible
them. The field at P is due to 3/4th of the lope spectrum).
of radius r. Then The energy of a photon of wavelength
Mo 3 4n x 10' X 40 }, = 8000 A =8 x 10 ' 7 m is
B= 4 x
2r 3.14 x 10 - 2 he 6.6 x 10 " 34 x 3 x 10^
E = hv = — =-------- ;---
x 8 x 10' 7
= 4.8 x 10 “3 T
20. Ans. (4) Rath difference A = = 2.5 x 10 " 19J = 1,5eV
24. Ans. (2) A black hole has a very small size £ f 20 _
or F = —= — = 1 0 c m
but enormous surface gravity, so much so that
even light signal (photon ) cannot escape Hence the correct choice is (4)
from its surface. Hence the correct choice is
(2)
33. Ans. (4) Since — = - — + -7, the graph of
v u f
25. Ans. (2) When the reverse bias voltage is in­
creased, a stage is reached when the charge ^ against ^ is a straight line with a negative
carriers (electrons and holes) are accelerated slope. Hence the correct choice is (4)
by the reverse bias voltage and acquire kinetic
34. Ans. (2f Initial kinetic energy of the particle is
energy so as to break the covalent bonds in
zero. The gain in kinetic energy in distance x
the semiconductor by collisions. The free elec­
= decrease in potential energy = work done
trons can do the same and a rapidly increas­
by the electric field to move the particle
ing number of energetic electrons are
through a distance x = force x distance =
produced. Consequently, the reverse current
qEx. Hence the correct answer is (2).
increases very rapidly. Hence the correct an­
swer is (2). 35. Ans. (3) The time period of a particle of mass
m, charge q moving in a circular path in a
26. Ans . (3) I + I = 0 + 0 = 0.
magnetic field B is given by
27. Ans, (4)
2n m
28. Ans. (2) P - particle is an electron. When a T=
qB
P - particle is emitted from a nucleus, the
2nrr\p
charge number increases by unity, i.e. the For proton Tp = qP B
number of protons increases by unity. Also
the number of neutrons decreases. Hence the 270^
For a -particle Ta =
neutron -proton ratio decreases qaB
29. Ans. (2) Alpha rays are positively charged he­ ma
lium nuclei and beta rays are negatively X
m.
charged electrons.
Now qna = 2qp and mc = 4mp
30. Ans. (4) Statement (4) is incorrect. In fact A
= Z + N. Statements (1), (2) and (3) are cor­ Hence Ta/T p = 2
rect, they are the definitions of isobars, iso­ Hence the correct choice is (3)
topes and isotones.
36. Ans. (1) The total resistance of the circuit t is
31. Ans. (3) P - particle is an electron. Since given by
electron has the smallest mass, its de Broglie 1 1 11
wavelength is the longest as the velocity of all R 7 4 +4 2
particles is the same. which gives R = 2Q. Therefore , the current in
32. Ans. (4) A concave lens in contact with a the circuit is
plane mirror behaves like a convex mirror be­ i_v_io
cause the combination forms only virtual im­ R " 2
age for any position of the object. The focal
37. Ans. (3) Circumference of the circle =2nr.
length F of the equivalent convex mirror is
Therefore , the resistance per unit length of
given by
the wire = R/27ir, where R = 4Q is the resis­
1 2 1 2 . ,
tance of the wire. Now, the length of the
f- 7 + m
r - 'f *>
specimen connected along the diameter = 2r.
Therefore, the resistance of this specimen is
 a R x rt R 40. Ans. (2) Let Q be the heat transferred. If k is
Rl = — 2r= -
2nr 7i the thermal conductivity of each rod, their
Also, the resistance of each semicircle is equivalent conductivity, when they are joined
in series (end to end) is 2k. If t is time of
R j- f transfer of heat, then
/. Equivalent resistance R’ across the speci­ _ (2k) A AOtj
Q i— j---
men is given by
1 2 Jt 4 +it If the rods are joined in parallel ( length wise)
R’ = R + R " R the equivalent conductivity is k/2
R _ 4
or R' - n
4 + 71 4 + 71
Hence Q2 =
38. Ans. (1) The intensity of wave is given by /
Now Q l = 02 (given)
I = | pvA2u>2
2k M 6ti k M 0t2
Therefore
/ 21
aH
or t2 = 4ti = 4 x 12= 48 s
A2 (02
Hence the correct answer is (2).
Here Ai = - 5 units, A2 = 10 10 units,
41. Ans. (3) In vacuum, there is no atmospheric
coj = 271 (10) and 102 = 2n (20) pressure. The pressure in only due to surface
'2 j . tension. Now. total volume of the two bubbles
= volume of the big bubble. If ri and T2 are
16
the radii of the two bubbles and R that of the
Hence the correct choice is (1) big bubble, then
39. Ans. (1) If a source emitting light of wave­ 4n 3 4* 3 4tt 3
length X goes away from the earth, the appar­ I ^ T riT '2
ent wavelength X' of the light reaching the
or R3 = r3 +r2 = (3)3 + (4)3 = 91 cm3
earth is given by
which gives R = 4.5 cm. Hence the do«
V , v
—* 1 +- choice is (2)
X c
where v is the speed of the source of light and 42. Ans. (3) Let m be the mass of concrete and p
c the speed of light. The increase in wave­
its density and let m' be the mass of sawdust
length AX = X' - X is given by
and p' its density. Then
AX v
471
X =c m - y (R3 - ^

H e* “ = 5% = and
and m, = y
4ltr 3 p,

= 3 x lC f m s" *
m R3 - r3
Therefore , v = 3 x 108 x -~r m'
100
4IT_3
= 1.5 x 107 m s- 1 Since the entire volume V = — R of the
J
Hence the correct choice is (1) sphere is submerged under water, we have
from the principle of flotation,
 Weight of concrete + weight of sawdust = 44. Ans. (3) The general form of Newton’s sec­
weight of volume V of water displaced ond law is
or mg +m'g = Vpgg _ dp d . mdv dm
or m + m' = VpQ F- = * = 5 (rnv)=_d r + v i r
where po is the density of water. dm
The form = ma is valid only if —r- = 0,
-r, 471—3 * 1 4rc r, 4ti
Thus j ( I r - r ) p +y r p = y R p0 i.e. if mass does not change with time. Hence
choice (2) is incorrect. Choice (3) is correct
or (R3 - r3) d + r3 d' = R3 . because body at rest may have potential en­
where d = p/po ore the relative densities of ergy and yet no momentum. Choice (1) Is in­
concrete and sawdust respectively. Equation correct because the relative velocity remains
(ii), on simplification, gives unchanged in magnitude and gets reserved in
direction : (v2 - V] >= - (u2 - uj).
R3 (d - &)
r3 " (d - 1) 45. Ans. (3) It is clear from below figure , what
>3 when the body at the top point A of the cir­
B ! i ( d - d f)
or cles, its weight mg and tension Tj in the stir­
r3 ( d - 1)
ring act downwards towards the centre O of
R3 - r3 (1 - d') the circle and the sum of the two provides the
or
r3 ~ (d ~ 1) necessary centripetal force. Thus
Tj + mg= mRo)

Using (iii) in (i) and noting that — = — , we or Tj = m (Rco2 - g)

p d
have
m (1 - d') d_
m' " (d - 1) * d'
( 1 - 0 . 3 ) 2.4 „
= t t o 3 =4
Hence the correct choice is (3)

43. Ans. (2) Since the platform is depressed by

an amount x, the toward work done on the
spring is mg (h + x). This work is stored in
the spring n the form of potential energy
^ k)^. Equating the two , we have
- kx2 = mg (h +x)
= 0 .5 x (0.5 x 10?- 10) = 20 N
Thus, the correct choice is (3).
46. Ans . (3) Let u be the initial speed with
which the body is thrown along the incline
plane.

2mg (h +x)
or k=

Given, h = 0.4m, m = 1 kg
2
and g = 10 ms
Substituting these values, we get
k = 1000 N m ' 1.
Hence the correct choice is (2).
 As shown in figure, the effective deceleration
is given by
a = g sin 9 = g sin 30° = ^ = 5 ms ' 2
The body stops after converting a distance,
say , s along the plane, which is given by
- 2as= 0 - u2
or u = V2as = V2 x 5 x 40 = 20 ms ” 1
A projectile projected at angle 0 = 3 CP with
this speed will have a angle of
u2 sin 20
R-
20 x 20 x sin 60°
= 20^3m
10
Hence the correct is (3)
47. Ans. (1) Using the dimensions of all quanti­
ties involved it is easy to check that the cor­
rect choice is (1).
48. Ans. (1) Colliding electrons lose their kinetic
energy as heat.
7 2 x 10 x 10
49. Ans. (4)F = 7y-- i = 1 0 -7 x ---— ---
4n r 0.1
= 2 x 10” 4 N
Direction of current is same, so force is attrac­
tive.
50. Ans. (2) Vector C lies in the plane containing
vectors A and B, an vector D is perpendicular
to both A and B. Hence D must be perpen­
dicular to C. Hence the correct choice is (2).
51. Ans. (4) Soft magnetic materials (e.g. iron)
have a low coercivity and demagnetise easily
Hart magnetic materials (e.g., steel) have a
high coercity
and become permanent magnets
52. Ans. (3) The alternating displacement causes
thermal motion; it has a heating effect.
53. Ans. (3) Ions of different velocities arrive at
different points on the parabola.
54. Ans. (4) The velocity of electron vn =
iTTTn
1
—^ Vf|
The angular velocity of electron
nh
G>n =
271 m r„
I
2
55. Ans. (3)
Specific conductance
1
specific resistance or resistivity
56. Ans. (4) Germaniumisasemiconductor.
8 x 1028m is the number density of free
electrons for copper and not for germanium
57. Ans. (3) Luminous intensity of a source in a
given direction is defined as the luminous
flux per unit solid angle (not angle) in that di­
rection.
58. Ans. (3) Due to low atmospheric pressure on
the mountains the water boils at below 100°C
59. Ans. (4) F^schen series is formed when an
atom comes down from higher energy levels to
the third energy level. The series is found in
the infra-red region of the spectrum
60. Ans. (2}
 AIIMS-2001 (Fart B. Chemistry)
1. Among the following gases which one 9. Approximate atomic weight of an ele­
has the lowest root mean square veloc­ ment is 26.89. If its equivalent weight is
ity at 25°C : 8.9 the exact atomic weight of element
would be :
(1) Cl2 (2)02 (3) N2 (4)S02
2. The molecules of a gas A travel four (1)17.8 (2)26.7
times faster than the molecules of gas B (3) 26.89 (4) 8.9
at the same temperature. The ratio of 10 . The reaction 2 C + O 2 -> 2CC>2 is car­
'M A' ries out by taking 24 g carbon and 96 g
molecular weights will be : O 2 ■Which one is limiting reagent :
MB>
(1)4 (2)16 (3) 1/4 (4)1/16 (DCO2 (2) C
3. The first energy level that can have d - (3) 0 2 (4) None
orbitals is : 11. Equivalent weight of NH 3 in the
(1)3 (2)2 change is :
(3) 4 (4) All are correct. N2 -► NH 3
4. 64C in the upper atmosphere is formed (1) 17/3 (2) 17/2
by the action of neutrons on : (3) 17 (4) 17/6
(1] 8*0 <2)62C 12. An ion is reduced to the element when
it absorbs 6 x 1020 electrons. The num­
(3 )^ 0 (4) 74N
ber of equivalents of the ion is :
5. The relative abundance of two isotopes
( 1)) 0.01 (2 ) 0.10
of atomic weight 85 and 87 is 75% and
(3) 0.0001 (4) 0.001
25% respectively. The average atomic
weight element is : 13. 100 ml of 0.2 M HfcSC>4 is added to
100 ml of 0.2 M NaOH. The resulting
(1)86.0 (2)40.0
solution will be
(3)85.5 (4)75.5
(1) Neutral (2) Slightly basic
6. The bond energies of
F2» CI 2, Br2 and I 2 are 37, 58, 46 and (3) Acidic d) Basic
36 kcal respectively. The strongest bond 14. Molal depression of freezing point of
is : water is 1 .86° per 1000 g of water. 0.02
(l)Br2 (2) I2 mole of urea dissolved in 100 g of water
will produce a lowering of temperature
(3) Cl2 (4) F2 o f:
7. Which possesses the largest ionic radius
(1)3.72° (2)1.86°
(3)0.372° (4)0.186°
(l)FeJ * (2) Fe*
15. If ni, n 2 are moles of solute and sol­
(3) Fe2 + (4) Fe vent respectively. Raoult’s law can be
8 . The time required to decrease the rate expressed as :
of decay to half of its value for a reac­
Pn-P, n2 n2
tion, if T j /2 = 2 hr is : (1) (2 )
nj +n2 ni + n2
(1)4 hr {2) 3 hr
(3) 2 hr (4) 1 hr n2
(3) Ps/P 0 = (4) none
nj +n2
16. Which oxide of nitrogen is the most (2) The gas is isothermally expanded
stable : (3) The system exchanges heat surroundings
(4) Pressure is maintained constant.
(1) 2N20 (g) 2N2 (g) + 0 2 (g);
K = 3.5x 1033 mol litre “ 1 23. If. H 2(g) +^ O z (g) -*■ HzO(f) - 68.4

(2) 2N20 5 (g) «-“* 2N2(g) +502 (g); kcal. Thus when 1 mole of H20 is
formed from hydrogen and oxygen then
K = 1.2x 1034 m ol-5 litre” 5
68.4 kcals of heat is :
(3) 2N02 (g) N2(g) +20 (g); (1) Needed for initiating the reaction
K = 6.7 x 1016 mollitre “ 1 (2) Absorbed (3) Evolved
(4) None
(4) 2N0 (g) N2 (g) +0 2 (g); 24. Acetic acid is a weak acid because it
K = 2.2 x 1030 mol litre-1 is :
17. HI was heated in a sealed tube at (1) Slightly ionised (2) Unstable
440°C till the equilibrium was reached, (3) An organic acid (4) None
HI was fond to be 22% decomposed. 25. When metal sulphide has maximum
The equilibrium constant for dissocia­ solubility in water :
tion is : KsP
(1)1.99 (2)0.0199 (1)HgS 10" 54
(3) 0.0796 (4) 2.282
(2) CdS 10' 30
18. Which species does not act as Lewis
acid : (3} FeS 10“ 20

(l)Cr (2) SnF4 (3) SiCl4 (4) A1C13 (4) ZnS 10“ 22
26. The phenomenon in which white
19. Some salts although containing two
transparent crystal changes into white
different metallic elements give test for
powder is known as :
only one of them in solution. Such salts
are : (1) Deliquescence (2) Efflorescence
(1) Complex salts (2) Double salts (3) Allotropy (4) Sublimation
(4) Normal salts (4) None 27. The percentage by weight of hydrogen
20. When K20 is added to water, the solu­ in H20 2 is :
tion is basic because it contains a sig­ (1)5.88 (2)6.25
nificant concentration of : (3) 25 (4) 50
28. On heating quicklime with coke in an
(1) O2 ' (2 ) O3-
electric furnace, we get :
(3) OH’ (4) K’ (l)Caand C 02 (2) CaC03
21. A conductivity cell has two platinum (3) CaO (4) CaC2
2*
electrodes of 1.2 cm area, separated by 29. A metallic oxide which imparts purple
a distance of 0.8 cm. The cell constant colour to pottery is :
is :
(1) Manganese dioxide
(1) 1.5cm" 1 (2) 0.66cm -1 (2) Sodium oxide (3) Copper oxide
(3) 0-.66 cm (4) 0.96 cm " 1 (4) Lead oxide
22 . In an adiabatic process : 30. The component present in greater pro­
(1) There is perfect heart insulation portion in water gas is :
16. Which oxide of nitrogen is the most
stable :
(1) 2N2O (g) «-”* 2N2 (g) +O2 (g);
K = 3.5x lO^mollitre ' 1
(2) The gas is isothermally expanded
(3) The system exchanges heat surroundings
(4) Pressure is maintained constant.
23. If, H 2(g) + | 0 2 (g) -+ H 20(f) - 68.4

(2) 2N20 5 (g) 2N2(g) +5 0 2 (g); kcal. Thus when 1 mole of H 20 is

formed from hydrogen and oxygen then
K= 1.2 x 1034mol" 5 litre" 5 68.4 kcals of heat is :
(3) 2N02 (g) <--+ N2(g) +20 (g); (1) Needed for initiating the reaction
K = 6.7 x 1016 mollitre ' 1 (2) Absorbed (3) Evolved
(4) None
(4) 2N0 (g) N2 (g) + 0 2 (g); 24. Acetic acid is a weak acid because it
K = 2.2 x 1030 mol litre-1 is :
17. HI was heated in a sealed tube at (1) Slightly ionised (2) Unstable
440°C till the equilibrium was reached, (3) An organic acid (4) None
HI was fond to be 22% decomposed. 25. When metal sulphide has maximum
The equilibrium constant for dissocia­ solubility in water :
tion is :
(1)1.99 (2)0.0199 (1)HgS 10" 54
(3) 0.0796 (4) 2.282
(2) CdS 10" 30
18. Which species does not act as Lewis
acid : (3) FeS 10" 20

(l)C r (2)SnF4 (3) SiCl4 (4) AICI3 (4) ZnS 10 “ 22

26. The phenomenon in which white
19. Some salts although containing two
transparent crystal changes into white
different metallic elements give test for
powder is known as :
only one of them in solution. Such salts
are : (1) Deliquescence (2) Efflorescence
(1) Complex salts (2) Double salts (3) Allotropy (4) Sublimation
(4) Normal salts (4) None 27. The percentage by weight of hydrogen
20. When K 2O is added to water, the solu­ in H 20 2 is :
tion is basic because it contains a sig­ (1)5.88 (2)6.25
nificant concentration of : (3) 25 (4) 50
28. O n heating quicklim e with coke in an
(1)0 | “ (2) O3-
electric furnace, we get :
(3) OH- (4) FT (1) Ca and C 0 2 (2) C aC03
21. A conductivity cell has two platinum (3) CaO (4) CaC2
electrodes of 1.2 cm area, separated by 29. A metallic oxide which imparts purple
a distance of 0.8 cm. The cell constant colour to pottery is :
is ;
(1) Manganese dioxide
(1)1.5 cm -1 (2) 0.66 cm - 1 (2) Sodium oxide (3) Copper oxide
(3) 0-.66 cm (4) 0.96 cm " 1 (4) Lead oxide
22. In an adiabatic process : 30. The component present in greater pro­
(1) There is perfect heart insulation portion in water gas is :
 (1) CH4 (2) C0 2 40. Acetylene on reacting with HBr gives :
(3) CO (4) H2 (1) Ethylidene dibromide
31. A process for making ammonia at high (2) Ethylene bromide
temperature and pressure in the pres­ (3) Ethyl bromide
ence of a catalyst is known as : (4) Methyl bromide
(1) Synthesis (2) Gasification 41. Acrolein is obtained when glycerol de­
(3) Fractional crystallization hydrated with :
(4) Destructive distillation (1)P20 5 (2) KHS04
32. PC15 does not react with : (3) Conc. H2SGi (4) All are correct.
{ 1 )C 2H 5N H 2 tfJCfiHsOH 42. Acetaldehyde is the rearrangement
(3) H2SQ i (4) C H 3 C O O H product of :
33. Which substance chars when warmed (1) Methyl alcohol (2) Allyl alcohol
with conc. H 2S O 4 : (3) Vinyl alcohol (4) Ethyl alcohol
43. Indicate the organic structure for
(1) Carbohydrate (2) Hydrocarbon
product expected when 2 - methyl
(3) Fat (4) Protein propene is heated with acetyl chloride in
34. Treatment of CS 2 with excess of CI2 presence of anhydrous ZnCl2 •
gives :
(1)CH3 - C - C = CH2
(1)C2H5CI (2) CCI4
I! I
(3) CHCI3 (4) Carbon black o CH3
35. The blue complex ion formed on addi­ ch3
tion of conc. NH 4OH solution to a
I
2+ (2) CH3 - C - O - C - Cl-b
Cu salt solution is :
I! 1
(1) [Cu (NH4)2l2 + (2) [Cu (NH3)4)2 +
0 CH3
(3) [Cu(NH3)2]2 + (4) [Cu (NH4)412 + ch3
36. The number of ions formed on dissolv­ 1
ing one molecule of (3)CH3 - C - CH2 - COChfe
FeS0 4 (NH 4)2S 0 4 6 H 2O is : I
(1)6 (2)3 (3)5 (4)4 Cl
37. Homolytic fission of C - C bond in eth­ H

ane gives an intermediate in which carb­ I

on is ........ hybridised : (4) CH3 - C - CH2 - CO - CH3
!
(1) sp2d (2) sp ch3
(3)sp2 (4) sp3 44. C 2H 5OH can be distinguished from
38. Hydrocarbon liquid at STP is : CH 3OH :
(1) Pentane (2) Butane
(1) By NH3 (2) By HC1
(3) Propane (4) Ethane
(3) By solubilities (4) By iodoform test.
39. Which of the following is weakly acidic
*
■
45. Salicylic acid when treated with zinc
dust gives :
(1) CH3 - C = C - c h 3
(1) Benzoic acid (2) Benzene
(2) CH3 - C = CH (3) CH2 = CH2
(3) Salicylaldehyde (4) Phenol
(4) CeH6
46. An example of a water soluble vitamin (3) sp3 (4) None
is :
49. 1 curie mass ( tj /2 = 12 hr) left after
(1) Vitamin D (2) Vitamin E one week is :
(3)Vitamin A (4) Vitamin C
(1) 120 micro curie (2) 1 curie
47. Which solution will posses the lowest (3) 8 milli curie (4) 60 micro curie
boiling point :
50. The pair of systems having tetrahedral
(1) 1% urea solution geometry is :
(2) 1% sucrose solution
(1)Ni(CI)|" and CH3
(3) 1 % glucose solution
(4) 1% NaCl solution (2) Pt (Cl)3 ‘ and Ni (CN)^ "
48. C O 2 h a s ........... hybridization : (3) BCI3 and CH4
(l)sp2 (2) sp (4) CH4 and NH4

§ Directions : Q.No 51 to 60 consists of two statements, one labelled the 'Assertion

(A) ’ and the other labelled the ‘Reason (R) Examine these statements carefully and
decide If
(1) If both assertion and reason are true statements and the reason is a correct explanation of
the assertion
(2) If both assertion and reason are true statements but reason is not a correct explanation of the
assertion
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is a false statement
(4) If both assertion and reason are false statements
51. Assertion (A) :When two or more empty orbi­ Reason (R) : The pairing of electrons is an un­
tals of equal energy are available, one electron favourable phenomenon.
must be placed in each until they are all half
filled.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
52. Assertion (A) : The mineral oil, a mixture of Reason (R) : The hydrogen bonding in ethanol
high molecular weight hydrocarbons, is soluble or water is relatively strong and non-polar
in hexane, but not in alcohol or water. molecules cannot overcome these forces.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
53 Assertion (A) : The number of unpaired elec­ Reason (R) : 4s electrons of nickel atom enter
trons in Ni(CO)4 is zero the inner d orbitals to facilitate the sp3 hybridi­
sation in Ni atom.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
54. Assertion (A) : The bleaching of flowers by Reason (R) : Chlorine bleaches by reduction
chlorine is permanent, while that by SO2 is and sulphur dioxide by oxidation.
temporary.
(1) (2) (3) 14)
55. Assertion (A) : Allyl free radical is more stable Reason (R) : The allyl free radical is more stabi­
than the simple alkyl free radicals. lised due to the presence of resonance.
(1) (2) (3) {4)
56. Assertion (A): Nitration of aniline can only be Reason (R): Acetylation of aniline results in the
done by protecting -NH2 group by acetylation. increase of electron density at benzene ring.
 (1) (2) (3) (4)
57. Assertion (A) : Stannous chloride gives grey Reason (R) : Stannous chloride is a powerful
precipitate with mercuric chloride, but stannic oxidising agent which oxidises mercuric chlo­
chloride does not do so. ride to metallic mercury.
(1) m (3) (4)
58. Assertion (A): Transition metal, Mn atom loses Reason (R) : The effective nuclear charge expe­
ns electrons first during ionization as compared rienced by (n-l)d electrons is greater than that
to (n-l)d electrons. by ns electrons.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
59. Assertion ( A): Technetium-99 is the most com­ Reason (R) : Tc-99 is a breakdown product of
mon nucleide used in medicine. Mo-99
(1) (2) (3) (4)
60. Assertion ( A ) : The rate equation for a general Reason (R) : The exponents x and y in rate
chemical reaction, equation are necessarily equal to coefficients a
and b respectively.
aA + bB cC + dD
can be expressed as
Rate - M A W
(1) (2) (3) (4)

an sw ers With hints <&.e x p l a n a t io n s

1 11. Ans. (1) 6e +N$ —►2N3 “
1. Ans. (1)
M 12. Ans. (4) 6 x 1023 electron = 1 eq.
13. Ans. (3 )Meq. of acid = 100 x 0.2 x 2 = 40
2. Ans. (4) u j/ u 2 = Meq. of Alkali = 100 x 0.2 = 20;
Mi
Meq. of acid left = 40 - 20 = 20
3. Ans. (1) The 3rd shell as well as all higher 14. Ans. (3)
shells have d -subshells. ^ 1000x 1.86 x 0.02 _ •
4. Ans. (4) 7N14 +on1 -> &C14 + iH 1 AT' = ----- 100----- = 0 '372C
5. Ans. (3) Av. atomic weights 15. Ans. (3) Ps = P0 x Mole fraction of solvent
85 x 75 +87 x 25 16. Ans. (3) Lower is the value of K, lesser will
= 85.5
100 be the tendency to show forward reaction.
6. Ans. (3) Greater the bond energy, stronger is
17. Ans .(2) 2H H2 +12;
bond.
7. Ans. (4) Cations are always smaller in size a
Kc =
than their parent atom. 4 ( 1 - a)
8. Ans. (3) Rate oc no. if No = N/2; Where a is degree of dissociation,
Rate = rate 12 22
of. eg Also
a 100
9. Ans. (2)) Valence - ' =3
o.y Kc = 0.0199
/. Exact at. wt. - 8.9 x 3 = 26.7 18. Ans. (1) Cl cannot accept lone pair of
10. Ans. (2) Limiting reagent is one which is electron due to complete octet.
completely consumed in reaction.
 19. Ans (1) e.g.. K4Fe(CN)6 does not give test 40. Ans (1) CH 5 CH + HBr -* CH 2 = CHBr
for Fe3 * ions. HBr

20 Ans. (3) K20 + H20 -> 2KOH ----► CH 3 - CHBr2

21. Ans. (2) 41 Ans. (4) All are dehydrating agents.

, / 0.8
Cell constants = - = —— = 0.66 cm ' 1
42. Ans. (3) CH2 = CH OH «-“* CH 3 ■CH0
a 1.2 43. Ans (3) Addition according to Markownikoff
22 Ans. (l)No exchange of heat in between sys­ rule.
tem and surroundings. 44. Ans. (4) C 2H 5 O H gives iodoform test.
23. Ans. (3) AH = - ve and thus heat is given 45. Ans. (1)
out. OH
24. Ans. (1) Acetic acid shows dissociation equi­ 1C O O H Zn dusi j< ^ ^ C O O H
librium, ------- +ZnO

CH3CO O H «-"* CH3C O O " + FT 46. Ans. (4) Water soluble vitamins are B and C
25. Ans. (3) Higher is Ksp, more is solubility of 47. Ans. (2) WCoiligative property
salt. _ w X 1000 ,
A T ’0 = — — (1 - a + x a + y a ) ; higher is
m xv

-
26. Ans. (2) The phenomenon of efflorescence
involves spontaneous loss of water molecules ATb more will be b.pt
from a crystal. 48. Ans. (2) C 02 is linear molecule
27. Ans. (1) 34 g H20 2 has 2 g H2. a 2.303, N0
49. Ans. (4) Use. t = —-— log —
28. Ans. (4) 2CaO * 5C -> 2CaC2 +C 02 K IN
o
29. Ans. (1) Mn02 imparts puple colour to 50. Ans. (4) Each has sp hybridization.
glass. 51. Ans. (1) When two or more orbitals of same
30. Ans. (4) H2 is about 50 volume in water gas energy are available for filling each will be singly
along with 40 volume CO and 5 volume occupied first according to Hund's rule of maxi­
C 02 and N2 each. mum multiplicity because to force two electrons
Fo is the same orbital needs extra energy as both
31. Ans. (1) N2 +3H2 -- >2NH3 (Haber's syn­ the electrons are similarly charged.
thesis for NH4 52. Ans. (1) The van der Waals forces between
non-polar molecules (as in mineral oil and
32. Ans. (1) An important reaction of PCI5 is to
hexane) are very weak and such molecules
replace OH gp. by Cl.
can dissolve into each other with relative
h l>so4
case The H-bonding in C 2H 5 0 H or H20 is
33. Ans. (1) C i2H22O n ---- > 12C+11H20
relatively strong and non-polar molecules
34 Ans. (2) CS2 +2C12 -> CCI4 +2S cannot overcome them, Thus ‘like dissolves
35. Ans (2) The blue coloured complex ion is, like' is applied here too.
53. Ans. (1) Ni atom has the configulartion as
[Cu(NH3)4]2 +
i t !i t ;i t i t t it ! i !
36 Ans. (3) Fe2", 2S042". 2NH41+
3d 4s 4p
37. Ans. (4) CH3 is sp3 hybridized. Ni(CO>4 has the following electronic structure
38 Ans. (1) B.pt. increases with increase in mol. . 1 . 1.
wt. it it jit it it ! * * * *
39. Ans. (2) Terminal alkynes have acidic hydro­
sp hybridisation
gen.
 Thus Ni(C0)4 complex is tetrahedral with no
unpaired electrons. The oxidation number of
Ni in this compound is zero.
54. Ans. (3) Chlorine bleaches by oxidation whik*
SO2 by reduction.
The product bleached by SO2 will be further
oxidised by air and will come in its original
colour. Hence, bleaching by SO2 is tempo­
rary,
55. Ans. (1) Alkyl free radical is stabilised by
resonance as :
CH2=CH-CH2 • ^ • CH2-CH=CH2
where such resonance stabilisation is not pos-
sible in the case of simple alkyl radicals.
56. Ans. (3) Acetylation reduces the basic charac­
ter of amino group of aniline. Hence, elec­
tron density on benzene ring will be reduced
as a result of acetylation.
57. Ans. (3) SnCl2 is a strong reducing agent and
it reduces HgCl2 to grey mass of metallic mer­
cury
2HgCl2 + SnC 12 Hg2C 12 + SnCLj
Hg2C!2 + SnCl2 - * ■ 2Hg + SnCl4
58 Ans. (1) Zeff felt by 3d
* 25 - (0.35 x 4 + 1.0 x 18) = 5.60
Zgff felt by 4s
• = 25-(1x0.35+ 13 x 0.85+ 1.0x10)= 3.60
Evidently attraction between, nucleus and 4s
electrons is less than that between 3d and nu­
cleus. Hence removal of 4s electrons will be
easier.
59. Ans. (2) 42M o " -* 43TC99 + _ie°
I
43T c " + y
60. Ans. (3) The exponents ‘x’ and ‘y’ are experi­
mentally determined and are not necessarily
equal to coefficient ‘a’ and ‘b’ respectively.
The exponents may be integers, fractions or
even zero.
 AH MS-2001. Part C. Biology
1. The scientist who cut the tail of mouse 10. Phylogenetically, the sponges have
in many generations but found that it is evolved from:
not inherited: (1) Choanoflagellates
{!) Bateson (2) Lamarck (2) Phytoflagellates (3) Both
(3) Weismann (4) Darwin (4)None
2 . Which of the following is not a pentose 11. Which of the following is a worm but
sugar? not flatworm?
(1) Xylulose (2) Mannose (1) Eehinococcus
(3) Xylose (4) Arabinose (2) Enterobius (3) Taenia
3. Which of the following is the smallest (4) Dugesia
ceil? 12- Famous Indian Zoologist who wrote a
(1) Virus memoir upon Pheretima posthuma:
(2) Chlamydomonas f l ) Beni Prasad (2) Bahl K,N.
(3) Aeetabufaria (3) Bhatia M.L. (4) J.C. Bose
(4) Pleuropneumonia 13. A definite number of body segments is
4. The functional unit of Golgi apparatus found in:
is: (1) Slug (2) Leech
(1) thylakoids (2) oxysomes (3) Tapeworm (4) Earthworm
(3) cistemae (4) cristae 14. Complete metamorphosis occurs in:
5. Haploid cells can be obtained from: (1) Silverfish (2) Bedbug
(1) Leaf (2) Anther (3) Moths and mosquitoes
(3) Seed (4) Stem (4) Grasshopper
6 . Lipase breaks the : 15. Which of the following is not a class of
(1) glycosidic bond (2) hydrogen bond arthropods?
(3) peptide bond (4) ester bond (1)Myriapoda (2) Onychophora
7. Chemiosmotic mechanism is related (3)Polychaeta (4) lnsecta
with: 16. In which class of Echlnodermata, a
(1) Glycolysis pluteus larva is formed?
(2) Electron transport chain (1) Holothuroidea (2) Asteroidea
(3) Kreb’s cycle (4) All of these (3)Echinoidea (4) Crinoidea
8 . Protozoans are considered animals be­ 17. Which of the following fish is famous
cause they are: for migration:
(1) Herbivorous (2) Carnivorous (1)Ribbonfish (2) Carp
(3) Autotrophic (4) Heterotrophic (3)Shark (4) Salmon
9. Quinine, the remedy for malaria, Is ex­ 18. Milk glands are characteristic of:
tracted from: (1) Only primates and ruminants
(1) Leaves of Ocimum (2) Only placental mammals
(2) Stem of Hevea (3) All mammals (4) All vertebrates
(3} Bark of Cinnamon 19. During extreme aridity, desert rat:
(4) Bark of Cinchona (1)does not use water
 (2) uses metabolic water (4) 4 teeth in one ring
(3) saves water (4) stores water 29. Which one of the following pairs is not
20. Identify the correctly matched pair: correctly matched ?
(1) Melghat- Tiger (1) Myeloma - Antibody producing tumor
(2) Kaziranga- Hangul cells
(3} Dachigam- Musk deer (2) Cosmid - A vector for carrying large DNA
(4) Velavadar- Avifauna fragments into host cells
21. Which cells have the shape of signet (3) Interferon - An enzyme that interferes
with DNA replication
ring?
(4) Plasmid - Small piece of extrachromoso-
(1) Mast cells (2) Adipocytes
mal DNA in bacteria
(3) Melanocytes (4) Osteoblasts
30. Bar of Sanio are the -
22. In albinism, the absence of the follow­
(1) Medullary ray cells with bar like orienta­
ing pigment makes the skin and hair
tion in Ephedra
very light coloured:
(2) Rings around the torus of all gymnosperm
(1) haemoglobin (2) carotene wood
(3) melanin (4) chlorophyll
(3) Thickened boundaries between bordered
23. Appendicular skeleton includes all ex­ pits of pine wood
cept: (4) Unthickened cellulose walls between bor­
(1) Pectoral and pelvic girdles dered pits of pine wood
(2) Vertebrae (3) Forelimbs 31. If the stomata are more on the under
(4) Hindlimbs surface of the leaf than on upper, it
24. The vertebra which bears the whole comes under-
weight of the skull is: (1) Fbfamoge ton type
(1) Sacral (2) Cervical (2) Potato type (3) Barley type
(3) Axis (4) Atlas (4) Oat type
25. One of the following is an important 32. Orobanche plant is -
specific functions of the liver. Mark the (1) Toteil stem parasite
correct one: (2) Symbiont (3) Total root parasite
(1) Histolysis (2) Digestion (4) Partial parasite
(3) Glycogenolysis (4) Excretion 33. During adverse environmental condi
26. Large amounts of a single antibody tions, plants develop a stress hormone
can now be synthesised by using- which is-
(1) Transgenic technology (1) Dichloropheoxy acetic acid
(2) Hybridoma technology (2) Benzene-amino purine
(3) Tissue culture technology (3) Ethylene (4) Abscissic acid
(4) Gene technology 34. In any given ecosystem, number of in
27. Which causes water pollution ? dividuals in a species remains more o
(1) Aeroplanes (2) Automobiles exhaust less constant over a period of time. Thi
(3) Smoke (4) 2, 4-D and pesticides constancy of number is maintained by -
28. The peristome of Funaria has- (1) Available food (2) Man
(1) 16 teeth in 2 rings (3) Predators (4) Parasites
(2) 16 teeth in one ring 35. Shikonin is a -
(3) 32 teeth in 2 rings (1) Enzyme (2) Antibiotic
 (3) Dye (4) Alkaloid
36. Pasteurised m ilk is-
(1) Not free from bacteria
(2) Free from pathogenic bacteria
(3) Sterile and will not turn sour under any
condition
(4) None of the above
37. Two wings In Pin us seed originate from-
(1) Cone axis (2) Bract scale
(3) AdaxiaJ surface of ovuljferous scale
(4) Integument
38. The ScuteJlum of the grass embryo is a
(1) Vestigial organ (2) Absorptive organ
(3) Reserve food storage organ
(4) Photosynthetic organ
39. Which one of the following is the earli­
est land plant ?
(1) Cooksonia (2) Cordaites
(3) Homea (4) Rhynia
40. Left handed DNA is known as-
(1) Z-DNA (2) B-DNA
(3) Both are similar (4) None of the above
41. The source of oxygen liberated in pho­
tosynthesis is -
(1) Carbon dioxide
(2) A photosynthetic enzyme
(3) Water
(4) Carbohydrate already present in leaf
42. Molybdenum plays a large role in -
(1) Carbon fixation (2) Nitrogen fixation
(3) Chromosome condensation
(4) Promoting flowering
43. A plant that completes its life cycle
before the onset of dry conditions fall
Into which of the following categories ?
(1) Amphibious hydrophytes
(2) Short day plant (3) Drought escaping
(4) Mangroves
44. Cotton is a -
(1) Stem fibre (2) Bast fibre
(3) Hard fibre (4) Surface fibre
45. A typical anther wall has-
(]) Exothecium and tapefum
(2) Exothecium, endothecium and tapetum
(3) Endothecium and tapetum
(4) Exothecium and endothecium
46. The secondary wood of Pinus is charac­
terised by -
(1) Presence of vessels
(2) Absence of resin ducts
(3) Presence of resin ducts
(4) Presence of resin canals
47. Phytotron is a facility to -
(1) Conserve endangered plants
(2) Micropropagate plants
(3) Grow plants under controlled conditions
(4) Grow disease free plants.
48. The number of male prothallial cells in
Sehginella are-
(1) Nil (2) Four (3) Two (4) One
49. What is the action spectrum of transpi*
ration ?
(1) Blue and red (2) Blue and far red
(3) Orange and red (4) Green and ultraviolet
50. Major source of liquid hydrocarbon is •
(1) Solanum tuberosum
(2) Euphorbia antisyphilitica
(3) Cocos nucifera
(4) Calotropis gigantea
§ D irections : Q .N o 51 to 60 consists o f two statem ents, one labelled the ‘Assertion
(1)’ and the other labelled the ‘Reason (R)\ Excanine these statem ents carefully and
decide if
(1) If both assertion and reason are true statements and the reason is a correct explanation of
the assertion
(2) If both assertion and reason are true statements but reason is not a correct explanation of the
assertion
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is a false statement
(4) If both assertion and reason are false statements
51. Assertion (1) : Each Haversian canal contains Reason (R) : Spongy bones have Haversian ca-
blood vessels and nerves nals
(1J (2) (4)
52. Assertion (1) : In orthotropous ovule, the mi- Reason (R) : The chromatin structure, in elec­
cropyle, chalaza and funide lie in single tron microscope does not resemble beads on a
straight line string.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
53. Assertion (1) : Even,' tissue and organ has its Reason (R): auxins, gibberellins and cytokinins
special requirements for optimal growth. can not be added in the medium
(1) (2) (3) (4)
54. Assertion ( I ) : Yeasts are multicellular but most Reason (R) : The ascospores in ascomycetes
of the ascomycetes are composed of aseptate are produced in thin walled sac-like, spore pro­
hyphae. ducing units called asci.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
55. Assertion (1): Testosterone is produced by the Reason (R) : The production is stimulated by
testes of mature males. GH.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
56. Assertion (I) : DDT and aldrin are contact in­ Reason (R) : The mode of entry of contact in­
secticides and their fat-solubility (often needed secticides to the body is via the cuticle rather
to penetrate waxy epicuticle) resulting in accu­ than the gut.
mulation in fat reserves of animals in higher
trophic levels.
(1) (2) (3) H)
57. Assertion (1) : Preparation of recombinant Reason (R) : Because restriction enzyme is not
DNA (r-DNA) requires restriction enzyme. used to cleave plasmid DNA
(1) (2) (3) (4)
58. Assertion (I) : During sexual process of Reason (R) : The basidium does not assume
basidiospore formation, a basidiunv begins with the shape characteristic of that species.
one nucleus from each parent
(1) (2) (3) (41
59. Assertion (1) : Reason (RJ : Because in this organisms growth
Aquaspirilla are helical or vibroid organisms occurs in the presence of 3% NaCI
without flagella
(1) (2) (3} (4)
60. Assertion (1) : Tendrils of Smilax are homolo­ Reason (R) : The first-formed elements of
gous to leaflets phloem are called protophloem.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
 ANSWfeftS WITH EXPLANATIONS
1.(3) 2.(2) 3 .(4 ) 4 .(3) 5 .(2) 6.(4) 7.(2) 8.(4) 9 .(4) 10.( 1) 11.(2) 12.(2)
13.(2) 14.(3) 15.(3) 16.(3) 17.(4) 18.(3) 19.(2) 20.( 1) 21.(2) 22.( 3)
23.(2) 24.(4) 25.(3) 26.( 2) 27.(4) 28.( 1) 29.(3) 30.(3) 31.(2) 32.(3)
33.(4) 34.( 1) 35.(3 ) 36.(2) 37.( 3) 38.( 1) 39.(4) 40.( 1) 41.(3) 42.(2)
43.(3) 44.( 4) 45.(2) 46.(4) 47.(3) 48.(4) 49.( 1) 50.( 2) 51.(3) 52.(3)
53.(3) 54.(3) 55.(3) 56.( 1) 57.(3) 58.(3) 59.(4) 60.(4)

I. (3) August Weismann (1885) formulated the
famous 'Theory of continuity of germplasm’.
2 s(2) Mannose is a hexose sugar.
3. (4) Pieuropnumonia like organisms (PPLO)
discovered by Nocard and Roux (1898) con-
sists of Mycoplasma and Acholeplasma, and
measure about 0.125 to 0.150nmin diame­
ter.
4. (3) Cistemae are found associated with both
Golgi complex and endoplasmic reticulum.
5. (2) Meiosis occurs in the microspore mother
cells within anther of angiosperms.
6. (4) Lipids contain ester bonds between fatty
acids and glycerol.
7. (2) The chemiosmotic coupling hypothesis ex­
plaining electron transfer during phosphoryla­
tion of ADP was proposed by R Mitchell in
1961 (Nobei Prize in 1978).
8. (4) All animals are heterotrophic.
9. (4) Quinine is a white, bitter, crystalline alka­
loid extracted from the bark of cinchona, used
in antimalarial medications.
10. (1) The sponges closely resemble colonial
choanoflagellates belonging to the phylum
Protozoa. Both possess collared and amoe­
boid cells.
I I . (2) Enterobius is a nematode, not a flatworm.
12. (2) Prof. Harm Narayan Bah] of Lucknow
University published a memoir on Indian
earthworm Pheretima in 1926. He was
awarded Joy Gobind Law Memorial Gold
MedaJ in 1942 "for notable researches in Asi­
atic Zoology”.
13. (2) Unlike other annelids there is a fixed
number of segments (33) in a leech.
14. (3) Complete metamorphosis occurs in the
insects belonging to the division Endoptery-
gota or Holometabola.
15. (3) Polychaeta is a class of phylum Annelida.
16. (3) A pluteus larva is formed in echinoderms
belonging to the classes Ophiuroidea and
Echinoidea.
17. (4) Atlantic salmon and Pacific salmon are
the best examples of fishes showing anadro-
mous migration.
18. (3) Mammary glands are present in all mam­
mals.
19. (2) Metabolic water is formed during the res­
piration of carbohydrates.
20. (1) Melghat National F^rk, Ghaurilagarh, Ma­
harashtra is associated with the conservation
of tiger.
21. (2) Owing to the presence of fat globule, the
cytoplasm is pushed to periphery in adipo­
cytes, giving it the shape of a signet ring.
22. (3) Albinism is a genetic disease; a recessive
autosomal mutant gene results in the defi­
ciency of the enzyme tyrosinase required for
the production of melanin.
23. (2) Vertebral column is a part of axial skele­
ton.
24. (4) According to Greek mythology, Atlas is
the Titar who bore the heavens on his shoul­
ders. If the skull can be considered as the
heavens, the first vertebra which bears the
 whole weight of the skull can be regarded as I periods of water shortage or drought and
Atlas, hence, is also known as Stress hormone.
25. (3) Liver is the centre of cabohydrate meta­ 34.(1) Available food.
bolism. 35.(3) ‘Shikonin’ is an important red dye which
26.(2) The monoclonal antibodies, identical can be obtained by tissue culture.
molecules specific for one type of antigen, are 36.(2) The pasteurisation was developed by
made outside the body by hybrid cell culture. Louis Pasteur in 1860s. The process for milk
The technique is known as hybridoma tech­ was adopted in 1895. Primary object of this
nology. process is to eliminate disease causing bacte­
27.(4) The term pesticide includes insecticides, ria from milk, though the total number of bac­
fungicides, nematicides, herbicides, teria is also very much reduced during this
weedicides, biocides. These substances are process. It reduces the chances of milk-
used to kill pests but being broad spectrum in spoilage,
action, other organisms also get affected. Pes­ 37.(3) In Pinus as the embryo matures a thin
ticides also enter the body of plant and ani­ layer of the ovuliferous scale fuses with the
mal through water. These substances than testa of the seed forming wings.
interfere with metabolic activities of plant and 38.(1) In monocotyledonous plants only one
animals. cotyledon is present. It is shield shaped and
28.(1) In Funaria peristome consists of two rings situated above the coleoptile. It is termed as
of flat curved and conical teeth called peris* scutellum which is a vestigial organ.
tomial teeth. These are simply plate of cuticle 39.(4) Rhynia is considered to be the earliest
and do not have cells. In each ring there are land plant.
16 teeth.
40.(1) Left handed DNA is known as Z-DNA.
29.(3) Interferons, which were discovered for the
41.(3) Water.
first time in 1957 by two British scientist (Alick
Isaacs and Jean Lindermann) are protei- 42.(2) A proper amount of minerals like molyb­
naceous substances (mol.wt. 18000 to denum, iron and calcium in the soil is essen-*
100,000) produced inside the body for de­ tied for nitrogen fixing microorganisms. They
fence against virus infection. They are also require molybdenum for their activity.
produced in response to many non-antigenic 43.(3) Plants that completes its life cycle before
chemicals including polysaccharides, endo­ dry conditions are termed as ‘Drought escap­
toxins, double stranded DNA, RNA etc. ing’ such as Argemone mexicana, Cassia tora,
30.(3) Thickened boundaries between bordered Solanum xanthocarpum etc. Most of them are
pits of pine wood. ephemeral annuals.
31.(2) Potato type stomata occur on both the leaf 44.(4) Surface fibre.
surfaces, being more on the lower surface 45.(2) A typical anther wall has four layers : (i)
than on the upper. Epidermis (ii) Endothecium (iii) Middle layer
32.(3) Total parasites never posseess chlorophyll, and (iv) Tapetum. Among given options (2) is
hence, they always obtained their food from more appropriate answer.
the host. They may be attached to branches, 46.(4) In Pinus the resin canals are present both
stem or roots of host plants. Orobanche is a in primary and secondary wood. Each resin
total root parasite. canal is surrounded by the epithelial cells,
33.(4) During adverse condition plant develop which secrete turpentine. The turpentine acts
abscissic acid. It helps in closing of stomata by as an antiseptic in healing the wounds caused
causing potassium ions to leave the guard by fungi or bacteria. The turpentine is oxi­
cells (Thus reducing their turgidity) during the dized to solid resin when exposed to air. This
 solid resin covers the wound until new bark is culture growth regulators such as auxins, gib*
replaced. berellins and cytokinins may also be added to
47.(3) Grow plants under controlled conditions. the basal medium
48.(4) When the male gametophyte is shed from 54. (3) Yeasts are unicellular but most of the as­
the microsporangium, it has. 13 cells -4 pri­ comycetes are composed of septate hyphae.
mary androgonia] cells wh^cty. are located at The cross wall have each a minute and simple
the centre. 8 peripheral jackeVcells which sur­ pore.
round the primary androgonia! cells and a 55. (3) The production js stimulated by LH.
prothallial cell. v 56. (lj - ..
49.(1) The opening of stomata in the light is most 57. (3) Preparation of r-DNA requires restriction
common phenomenon. Stomata begin to enzyme, which is used to cleave plasmid DNA
open shortly after exposure to light. The blue and to cleave foreign DNA
and red wavelengths of light are most effec­
58. (3) The basidium assumes the shape charac­
tive, similar to the action spectrum of photo­
teristic of that species and generally produces
synthesis.
four tapering projections, the sterigmata.
50.(2) Euphorbia antisyphilitica.
59. (4) Aquaspirilla are helical or vibrioid organ­
51. (3) Spongy bones do not have Haversian ca­ isms that typically possess bipolar tuffs of fla-
nals gella. No growth occurs in the presence of 3%
52. (3) Under electron microscope, the chroma­ NaCl or sea water.
tin structure resembles beads on a string. 60. (4) The tendrils of Smilax are homologous to
These beads are formed of octamer of histone stipules. The first formed elements of phloem
protein and DNA base pairs are called medullary rays.
53. (3) Most of the media contain inorganic salts,
vitamins and sucrose. Sometimes, for tissue

PART D. GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

1. 'Vande Matram' national song was 5. Which is not correctly matched ?
adopted by (1) Subroto cup —Football
(1) 1896 session of Indian National Congress (2) San tosh trophy — Badminton
(2) 1886 session of Indian National Congress (3) Aga Khan cup — Hockey
(3) 1889 session of Indian National Congress (4) Durand cup —Football
(4) 1892 session of Indian National Congress 6 . Which of the following is not related?
2. "Jan Gan Man" National anthem was (1) Pandit Jasraj — Vocalist
adopted by (2) Gopi Kishan — Kathak
(1) Constitution sabha in 24 Jan. 1950 (3) Dr Bhatnagar award— Science
(2) Constitution sabha in 25 Jan. 1950 (4) Dr Kastvri Rangan — Medicine
(3) Constitution sabha in 26 Jan. 1950 7. In year 2000 Miss Universe was held in
(4) Constitution sabha in 15 Aug. 1950 (1) London (2) F^ris
3. 2004 Olympics will be held in (3) Nicosia (Cyprus) (4) Pretoria
(1) Paris (2) Athens 8 . In year 2000 Miss World was held in
(3) Brussels (4) Beijing (1) London (2) Manila
4. Highest peak of India 3) Caracas (4) Havana
(1) K2 (2) Kanchanjunga 9. Tehalka.com inquiry is undertaken by
(3) Mount Everest (4) Lhotse
 (1) Retired judge of Supreme Court 15. Which country is called the "Sugar
(2) Retired judge of Delhi High Court Bowl of the world”?
(3) Working judge of Supreme Court (1) India (2) Cuba
(4) Combined Parliamentary Commission (3) Myanmar (4) Norway
10. In pin code number, which is not cor­ 16. Megasthenes visited India during the
rect reign of
(1) Total letter are always six (1) Chandragupta II
(2) Left three letters denote zone (2) Chandragupta Maurya
(3) Right three letters denote sub-zone (3) Ashoka (3) Harsha
(4) First letter denote state 17. Which is not correctly matched?
11. Which of the following is not official Country — Capital
language of U.N.? (1) Ghana — Accra
(1) Spanish (2) French (2) Lebanon — Beirut
(3) Arabian (4) German (3) Kiribati — Yaren
12. Librahan commission is related to (3) Croatia — Zagreb
(1) Babri Masjid (2) Tehalka.com 18. The oral contraceptive "Saheli" is de­
(3) Assassination of Indira Gandhi veloped by
(4) Assassination of Rajiv Gandhi (1) Central drug research institute
13. Which of the following is a function of (2) AIIMS, New Delhi
R.B.I? (3) Beach Candy hospital Bombay
(1) To maintain external currency (4) World Health Organization
(2) It is a banker of government 19. Citrus fruits are considered a rich
(3) It is a banker of various banks and finan­ source of which of the following vita­
cial institutes mins?
(4) All the above (l)Vit.A (2) Vit. D
14. The Nobel prize was given for the first (3) Vit. C (4) Vit. K
time in the year 20. Which cricket player has bat at all po­
(1) 1901 (2) 1912 sitions?
(3) 1911 (4)1910 (1) Sanjay Manjerekar (2) Lala Amarnath
(3) Sunil Gavaskar (4) Venu Mankad

ANSWERS
1. ( 1) 2.( 1) 3.(2) 4.( 1) 5.(2) 6.(4) 7.(3) 8.( 1) 9.( 1) 10.(4) 11.(4) 12.( 1)
13.(4) 14.( 1) 15.(2) 16.(2) 17.(3) 18.( 1) 19.(3) 20.(2)
Hints
3.(2) Athens (Greece) 11. (4) Total six official languages. Other three
4.(1) K2 (Godwin Austin) are English, Chinese & Russian
5. (2) Santosh trophy - Football 17. (3) Kiribati - Tarawa
9.(1) Retired supreme court judge - K. 18. (1) Central drug research institute -
Venketswamy Lucknow