Ortho I Study Questions

Created and complied by: Marcus Paulson SD’05

Clinical Exam:
1. A midline problem can be attributed to: (A missing tooth in one or both arches, skeletal growth problem, Premature loss of a primary tooth,
Tongue dysfunction causing a skewing of the dental arches
2. A maxillary diastema can be caused by:(small or malformed teeth, missing teeth, large frenum)
3. Orthodontists only need to see patients after the age of 12 or after the permanent second start to erupt? (False)
4. The orthodontic exam includes? Determining the malocclusion only. (no, not only) but you need Verifying the health history
Take a standard dental exam plus determining the patient’s chief complaint and Determine the proper records to take
5. Referring a child with a Class II division 1 at the age of 4 or 5 years for an orthodontic eval is inappropriate? (False)
6. the three facial types are (brachyfacial, mesofacial, diolochofacial)
7. Brachyfacial type will have a shorter, broad face with a retrusive profile
8. If you see a long vertical face it’s Dolichofacial type (long, arrow face with protrusive profile)
9. A patient w/ a Mesofacial type is likely to have a mandibular plane angle of about 25°
10. Treatment failure for any reason in the eyes of the patient is often due to not addressing the patient’s chief complaint.
11. Anterior dental open-bites should best be treated by orthodontics and myofunctional therapy
12. The purpose of the initial exam is to determine the proper records required
13. To be a good dentist you must provide all the Tx wanted of a new patient? (False)
14. Most ortho problems are self correcting? (false)
15. You see a Pt w/ an open bite, you can suspect them of having: narrow maxilla, enlarged tonsils, thumb or finger habit, or tongue trust
16. The most common problem with ppl w/ chin trauma is TMJ dysfunction
17. The E plane(esthetics plane) which is a line from the tip of the nose to the tip of the chin
18. If the smile line doesn’t follow the lips it’s inappropriate
19. If the pt has jaw deviation without clicking and popping issues with TMJ and have restorative work planned (crowns), they should
determine the reason for the deviation and determine if treatment t should continue for restorative work.
20. If they do have TMJ symptoms, TX TMJ first before you treat malocclusion
21. A patient has a retrusive profile and some crowding in the dental arches they are good candidate for expansion to improve the profile
22. A Patient has a protrusive profile and crowded dental arches is a good candidate for: extraction of four bicuspids
23. Smile fullness = how many teeth are showing when smiling.
24. Smile line = how much gingivia a person shows when smiling and if it follows lip outlines
25. Normal overbite would be 15-20%
26. If a child has a anterior crossbite in mixed dentition stage they should be treated as soon as possible
27. If there is a diastema in the mixed dentition stage it should be left without treatment at this stage
28. Pt w/ thumb sucking habit is likely to have a large overjet

Growth and Development:

1. Growth – a quantitative measure of the increase in living substances
2. Differential growth – the various tissues of the body grow at different rates resulting in proportionality
3. Maturation – a ripening or stabilization nor steady state reaching ones genetic potential
4. Development – all the growth events from conception to adulthood including growth, differentiation and morphogenesis
5. Dolichofacial – expresses growth more vertically than horizontally
6. Brachyfacial type - shorter broad face with a retrusive profile
7. Maxilla grows most nearly like neural tissue
8. Mandible grows most nearly like comatic or general tissue types
9. Scammon discovered that at birth, Neural tissue most is near the adult size as compared with other tissue types
10. Cleft lip and plate occur embrologically due to a failure of fusion of median nasal process and the maxillary process
11. From infancy to skeletal maturity, the most dramatic change in craniofacial growth is the change in vertical height of the midface
12. The brain case (calvarium) assumes its morphology as a result of differential growth of the brain and calvarial sutures allowing growth.
13. The neurocranium grown and derives it morphology from neurocranial sutures and differential growth of the developing and expanding
brain.
14. Postnatal growth of the nasomaxillary process the vertical height dimension can be attributed to a increase in nasal airway via cortical drift
in response to increased need for respiration, also nasal septal growth displacing the maxilla down and forward, and alveolar growth.
15. The maxilla increases in height (vertical dimension) by: maxillary alveolar growth, nasal septal cartilage growth, developing eye pushing
on floor of orbit, cortical drift of maxilla in area of the nasal airway as it increases in size.
16. The mandible increase in depth postnatally due to remodeling of the lingual tuberosity and the ramus.
17. The mandible increases in width dimension by: midsagittal suture system during 1st year postanatal, and coronoid /ramal growth
18. Postnatal growth of the mandible includes resorption on the anterior border and apposition on the posterior border of the ramus as well as
posterior growth of the lingual tuberosity.
19. Endochondral ossification: cartilage model w/ periochondrium, intervening growth plate, bone growth under loads.
20. Intramenbranos ossification: undifferentiated mesenchymal cells in presence of vascular bed,,grows under tension not loads
21. Cortical drift – movement of bone is by virtue of apposition on one curtail side and resorption on the opposite side.
22. Displacement – growth of a contiguous bone displaces an adjacent bone

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 Physiology of Tooth Movement:
1. what stage of tooth movement is assc w/ sterile necrosis? = Lag phase
2. What is the optimum force required to move a tooth? =100g/cm2 root surface area
3. The optimum force to move a tooth is dependent on what? = root surface and type of tooth movement
4. The optimum force to move a tooth is the same for upper and lower incisors? = false
5. The rate of tooth movement = 1/2 mm/month for an adult
6. Orthodontic force = direct resorption, continuous movement, painless
7. frontal resorption best assc w/ continuous tooth movement
8. Orthopedic force = forces are transmitted to the bone, and the tooth and bone move together
9. With orthodontic forces (on the pressure side of the tooth) = the blood supply to the PDL is decreased
10. With orthodontic forces (on the tension side of the tooth) = the blood supply to the PDL is maintained and increased
11. Direct resorption is assc w/ light forces
12. Orthopedic response = hyalinization, sterile necrosis, glassy appearance, cell free zone
13. Is sterile necrosis of the PDL useful in orthodontics? = yes, it allows force to be transmitted to the bone to enchased the
orthopedic effect
14. Main factor that causes sterile necrosis of PDL? = blood flow cut off to the PDL
15. Sterile necrosis also assc. w/ undermining resorption
16. With orthopedic forces (on the pressure side of the tooth) = the blood supply to the PDL is terminated
17. Undermining resorption = most pain
18. Both orthodontic and orthopedic forces are physiologic
19. How long does it take for a tooth and it’s surrounding structures to reorganize for tooth movemnt once pressure is
applied? = 10 – 20 days = lag phase, (smaller for orthodontic force, larger for orthopedic force)
20. The biologic response to orthodontic therapy includes: = orthodontic and orthopedic forces
21. A = light force (orthodontic force)
22. B = Heavy force (orthopedic force)
23. C = Initial phase
24. D = lag phase
25. E = post lag phase
26. Initial phase = pdl compression, bone bending
27. Lag Phase = assc w/ heavy intermittent force
28. Short Lag phases are assoc w/ = orthodontic forces
29. heavy force = pain
30. pressure side of tooth movement = PDL compression
31. Cortical bone = most resistant to movement
32. Cortical bone areas: = buccal of mandibular, lingual of max and mand. Incisors, Maxillary sinus
33. No cortical bone on buccal of maxillary posterior teeth
34. Cancellous, alveolar, spongy bone = easier to move teeth in
35. most difficult tooth movement = body movement of a molar
36. What is the best definition for torque? = root movement with no crown movement
37. Tipping the teeth = the root and apex move in opposite directions
38. stages of tooth movment = PDL stretching (initial phase), hyalinization(lag), tooth movement (post lag)
39. most reasonable theory for biologic control mechanism responsible for tooth movement is? = blood flow
40. The main component of the PDL that resists movement under heavy pressure is the tissue fluids
41. What type of cell is derived from the blood-lymphatic monocytes? = osteoclasts
42. Tooth movement is a pathologic process? = False
43. Key factor for efficient tooth movement = maintain blood supply to PDL
44. If a T-rex bit your for hard as it could for less than one second !! (greater than 500 g) what histologic change would you
see in the PDL of his bloody central incisors? = compressed PDL, the hydraulic behavior of the fluid delayed tooth
movment
45. If the t-rex held your head for 3 weeks (in same position with light force)what will it’s ortho eval say? = slow continuous
tooth movement
46. If the t-rex held your head for 3 weeks (in same position with heavy force)what will it’s ortho eval say? = hyalinization
and long lag phase
47. What kind of tooth movement does not have a center of rotation? = bodily movement
48. increased vasculariety and increased root surface area make continuous tooth movement easier
49. The biologic response to orthodontic therapy includes: movement of the tooth and active stabilization

Note: Dr. Leggitt showed a old photo of Mary Lincoln, or Sarah lincoln, his relative ?!

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Cephalometric analysis
1. When was cephalometrics developed? =
1931
2. Who developed the standardized technique
for reproducible lateral cephalometirc x-
rays? = Broadbent
3. What is the distance from the x-ray source
to the patient’s mid sagittal plane? 5 ft or
60 inches
4. What is the normal angle for SNA? 82°
5. What is the normal angle for SNB? = 80°
6. What is the normal angle for ANB? = 2°
7. What does SNB represent? = the position
of the mandible relative to cranial base.
8. What does SNA represent? = The position
of the maxilla relative to cranial base.
9. What is the normal SNGoGn angle? 32°
10. A mandibular plane of 40° probably
indicates? = Dolichofacial
11. The mandibular plane is constructed from
what two points? = GO and GN
12. Use of cephalometric x-rays (orthodontic
diagnosis, evaluation or orthodontic
treatment results, growth pattern prediction)
13. What is the soft tissue analysis plane? = esthetics plane “E plane”
14. What point is tat the lowest point on the orbital rim? = Or or orbitale
15. The main used of cephalometric radiographs are: (evaluate the skeletal and dental patterns, study of growth and growth patterns,
treatment planning and monitoring of treatment progress, comparison of like cases)
16. Not use of cephalometric x-rays, = caries detection or oral hygiene
17. What plane represents the lower confines of the face? = mandibular plane
18. What is the name for the most anterior point in the contour of the chin (most convex point) = Pogonion
19. What is the lowest point on the lower margin of the orbit? = Orbitale
20. What is the name of the cephalometric analysis that you are expected to learn from this class? = Steiner Analysis
21. Which cephalometric point is associated w/ the external acoustic meatus? = Porion
22. Reason why cephalometrics can be reproduced is? (same distance from x-ray to Mid saggital plate, and ear posts which orientates
head in same position relative to x-ray beam each time)
23. On a patient with a class II division 1 malocclusion with SNA of 89 and SNB of 80, the treatment plan would likely use? (headgear)
24. The Frakfurt horizontal plane is the plane that? = is from porion to orbitale

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Class I Occlusion
1. The tooth that Dr. Angle believed to be the key to occlusion is: = Maxillary 1st molar
2. Class I occlusion is defined by Angle as? = is only a first molar classification system
3. The term “flush terminal plane” refers to(articulation of): = the relationship of (primary second molars)
4. The normal relation of second primary molars in occlusion is? = flush terminal plane
5. The normal relation of the first permanent molars in the mixed dentition stage is? = mild distoclusion
6. Intercanine width is measured from? = cusp tip to cusp tip linearly
7. The maxillary right lateral incisor is peg shaped and all of the posterior teeth on that side have drifted mesial to close space.
Assuming the mandibular dentition to be in a normal position, what likely is the malocclusion on the right side? = Class II
8. Mesioclusion means? = the buccal groove of the mandibular molar is mesial to the upper molar mesiobuccal cusp (class III
malocclusion)
9. Distoclusion means? = the buccal groove of the mandibular molar is distal tot he upper molar mesiobucall cusp ( class II
malocclusion)
10. Arch perimeter: = changes more in the mandible
11. Class I dental relation means? = the maxilla and mandible are in a normal A-P position, the first permanent molars are
correctly positioned
12. In the transition from primary to adult dentition, space for permanent second and third molars comes from? = posterior
growth the condyle , ramus and alveolar process distal to the first permanent molar.
13. Dental crowding: = tends to get worse with differential mesial shift
14. In the transition from primary to adult dentition, the mandibular arch:? = loses 5 mm of arch length.
15. According to Angles molar hypothesis, he believed that? = the maxillary first molar is always correctly positioned skeletally
16. A normally developing Class I occlusion can become a Class II by: = mesial shift of maxillary 1st permanent molar and by
dental caries
17. The normal sequence for development of a class I molar occlusion is? = flush terminal plane e’s, 6 eruption, e loss, mesial
shift, class I molar
18. The purpose of leeway space is? = to allow the lower molar to shift forward into a Class I relation
19. Leeway space ? = allows the lower permanent molar to shift more forward than the upper molar
20. Arch perimeter? = decreases with permanent tooth eruption
21. Arch length? = decreases with permanent tooth eruption
22. Intermolar width is measured from? = fossa to fossa
23. Differential mesial shift means? = the lower permanent molar shifts more mesial in the transition from primary to adult
dentition
24. A class II occlusion can also be described as? = distoclusion
25. What I the normal molar relationship (primary second molars) in the mixed dentition? = flush terminal plane
26. What is the normal molar relationship (primary second molars) in the primary dentition? = flush terminal plane
27. What is the normal molar relationship (permanent first molars) in the mixed dentition? = Class II
28. What is the normal molar relationship (permanent first molars) in the primary dentition? = Class I
29. The size differential between the primary and secondary teeth is usually greatest in the? = mandibular arch
30. What happens to arch perimeter during the transition between the mixed dentition and the permanent dentition? = decreases
31. What happens to arch length during the transition between the mixed dentition and the permanent dentition? = decreases
32. What happens to inercuspid width between ages 7 and 13? = increases
33. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the ideal class I occlusion (according to Andrews?)? = mild curve of spee
34. T/F In the mixed dentition the “normal” relationship between the maxillary and mandibular primary second molars is the
flush terminal plane? =True
35. Leway space is? = the difference in size between the primary cuspid, first molar and second molar versus the size of the
permanent cuspid, first bicuspids and second bicuspids.
36.

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Class II Occlusion

1. Edward’s Angle classification system considers a Class II molar relation to be? = Distoclusion
2. According to Edward Angle’s dental classification system, which of the following is in harmony with his beliefs? = The
maxilla is always well placed skeletally, distoclusion implies that the mandibular first molar’s buccal groove is distal to the
mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar and that malocclusion is always the fault of the mandible and its first molar
3. In a class II malocclusion the mesiobuccal groove of the mandibular fist molar in relation to the mesiobuccal cusp of the
maxillary first molar is in? = distolucion
4. In the mixed dentition with the primary molars in a flush terminal plane, what are the possible dental events which contribute
to a Class II molar in the permanent dentition? = nonrestored interproximal carious lesions of the maxillary second primary
molar, and early loss of the maxillary second primary molar
5. With the primary second molars in a distal step, which factors contribute to the end result of a class II first permanent
molars? = pronathic (protrusive) maxilla and normal mandible and also normal maxilla and retrognathic (retrusive) mandible.
6. When the primary second molars initially in a flush terminal plane, what are possible dental events which result in a Class II
first permanent molar relationship? = early loss of maxillary second primary molar, and nonrestored interproximal caries of
the maxillary second primary molar., mesial drivt of 6(the max primary 2nd molar)
7. With the primary second molars initially in a distal step, what are the most probable reasons that a class II first permanent
molar relationship will be the end result? = skeletal dysplasia, hyperplasic maxilla (prognathic maxilla, and hypoplastic
mandible (retrognathic mandible)
8. T/F In a primary dentition case that is characterized by a distal step with the second primary molars, one can expect that the
1st permanent molar will be Class II due to a hypoplastic mandible on the sagittal plane (reognathic mandible).? = True
9. Primary 2nd molars in flush terminal plane occlusion, render the 1st permanent molars: ? = “end on” class II when in occlusion
prior to shedding the 2nd primary molars.
10. A skeletal distal step in the primary 2nd molar always results in Class II 1st permament molars (skeletal class II)
11. In the US random sampling indicates that about 50% of the population cold benefit from orthodontic care.
12. The average ortho practice contains how many class II patients? = 60% or about 2/3
13. The most prevalent malocclusion treated in the US is? = distoclusion
14. In a study that involved a random sampling of the U.S.A. Population it was observed that about 50% of the population
exhibited a need for orthodontics. Of those needing orthodontics what percentage exhibited a class II malocclusion? = 28% or
1/3
15. Patients outgrow a dental and/or skeletal class II? = False
16. clinical studies have shown that growing Class II patients do not outgrow their class II = Ture
17. A Steiner ANB angle which is greater than two degrees may indicate a skeletal class II? = True
18. A Steiner cephalometric analysis of a Class II div 2 reveals the following: SNA of 90°, SNB of 80° and ANB of 10°. This
information indicates a skeletal Class II condition? = True
19. What habits can precipitate a Class II molar relationship with the first permanent molars? = thumb sucking, tongue thrust
20. Class II, Division 1 is usually associated with which face type? = Dolichofacial
21. A class II division 2 is associated with which face type? = Bracycephalic
22. Class II div 1 or div 2, A Long narrow face:? = Class II Div 1
23. Class II div 1 or div 2,, short broad face? = Class II div 2
24. Class II div 1 or div 2, U-shaped maxillary arch? = Class II div 2
25. Class II div 1 or div 2,, V-shaped maxillary arch? = Class II div 1
26. Class II div 1 or div 2, A convex profile? = Class II div 1
27. Class II div 1 or div 2,, A concave profile? = Class II div 2
28. Class II div 1 or div 2,, Excessive overbite? = Class II div 2
29. Class II div 1 or div 2,, Minimal overjet? = Class II div 2
30. Class II div 1 or div 2,, excessive overjet? = Class II div 1
31. Class II div 1 or div 2,, retrusive maxillary incisors? = Class II div 2
32. A class II division 1 malocclusion exhibits which of the following characteristics? = protrusive maxillary incisors and a long
narrow face.
33. A class II division 2 malocclusion exhibits which of the following characteristics? = excessive overbite and flat to concave
profile

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Class III
1. The incidence of Class III malocclusion in the United States is? = 2%
2. Characteristics of a skeletal Class III are? Posterior cross-bite and Class III molar relationship
3. On a cephalometric evaluation, a Class III has an ANB difference of? = -2
4. When there is a functional protrusion as the incisors meet in an end-to-end relationship, and at the point of initial contact the
mandible is guided forward into an anterior cross-bite relationship. This statement defines? = Pseduo-Class III relationship

5. The molar relationship shown here is what type? = Class III

6. Mesiooclusion means? = Class III
7. In the developing stages of jaws and teeth it was observed that the lower E’s are in a Class III relationship (mesio step), the
possibility of the patient outgrowing this tendency is? = not good, the patient will be a Class III case with the lower jaw
outgrowing the upper jaw
8. T/F If a pseudo-Class III or anterior cross-bite patient is not corrected early in the mixed dentition there is a possibility that
this could develop into a true Class III case = True
9. The bony characteristics of a true Class III patient are? = constricted maxillary arch with a wide mandibular arch
10. Give the four teeth and jaw characteristics of a pseudo Class III patient? = Class I molar position, able to bring anterior to
end to end position, no posterior cross bite, anterior crossbite, class III molars in function, etc.
11. You have a 7.5 year old girl who comes in to your office, you have determined that she is a pseudo class III. When should
you start treatment? = immediately
12. In defining the molar relationship (according to Dr. Angle), we would call a Class III malocclusion? = mesioclusion
13. There are many possible reasons besides hereditary in the development of a Class III malocclusion. In the list below which
one is not a reason? = flush terminal plane (true reasons = posturing mandible forward, mouth breathing, large tongue, race)
14. T/F In defining Class III malocclusion one would say that the mesiobuccal cusp of the upper first molar is in the embrasure
of the lower fist molar and second bicuspid? = false
15. T/F In defining a Class III malocclusion one would say that he mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar is distal to the
mesiobuccal groove of the mandibular first molar, making a tendency to a Class III maloccuion? = True
16. In describing the Class III patient cephalometricaly, which measurement would be the most likely? = SNA-SNB = -8.5 mm
17. In treating a patient with a pseudo Class III malocclusion, the best time to stat treating is? = when the patient is first seen at
the dental office probably in the mixed dentition stage
18. According to Dr. Angle, (the father of modern orthodontics) the? = upper first molar and the maxilla are the more stable.
19. T/F In defining a Class III malocclusion, one would say that the mesial buccal cusp of the upper first molar is in the
embrasure of the lower first and second molars? = True (?? Why does this say true it is an example of class III but not a good
definition , looks like they got credit - Marcus)
20. T/F In defining a Class III malocclusion, one would say that the mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar is distal to the
mesiobuccal groove of the mandibular first molar, making the tendency to class III = True
21. The most common racial group where class III malocclusion is found is? = Japanese

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Myofunctional Contributions to malocclusion development:
1. Maxillary expansion is the result of? = tongue function and growth
2. Which parafunction (habit) is able to give some compensation for poor tooth contact during swallowing? = tongue thrusting
3. In dry swallowing, tooth contact is important in order to? = avoid tongue thrusting.
4. Muscle pressure on the buccal side of the mouth is likely to force the root of the teeth: = lingually.
5. What is the relationship between breathing and facial-masticatory muscle function? = Nasal breathing allows better muscle coordination.
6. What is the relationship between swallowing and breath? = Oral breathing has a tendency ;y to favor tongue thrusting.
7. Breathing affects facial Morphology and arch form by? = promoting tongue dysfunction.
8. Arch perimeter =? changes more in the mandible.
9. Normal sequence for development of a Class I molar occlusion is: flush terminal plane e’s, 6 eruption, e loss, mesial shift. Class I molar.
10. Dental Crowding ? improves after the loss of primary molars.
11. The closed packed positions for the temporomandibular joint are: ? Mandibular retrusion and full opening. (question omitted?)
12. The functional goal of any therapeutic intervention is to maintain a “ physiologic state of rest””.? = True
13. When assessing the bodies center of gravity during weight bearing, it normally lies equally over the balls and heels of the feet. = True
14. Cervical retraction will shift occlusal contact anteriorly? = True
15. Right lateral flexion of the cervical spine will shift occlusal contact to the left side.? = True
16. Right rotation of the cervical spine will shift occlusal contact to the right side.? = True
17. Changes in cervical position affect which of the following? = Speech, Swallowing, Tongue position, Respiration, All of the above
18. The term functional units & concept of group lesions describes the ability of 1 part of the body to negatively affect another part? = True
19. Forward head posture makes swallowing and turning the neck easier? = False
20. “Tongue thrust” is a term used to describe? = an oral muscular behavior
21. The following conditions must be clinically present for a tongue thrust to be defined:? = a malocclusion and/or an articulation disorder.
22. The labial and buccal muscles associated with tongue thrust are usually:? = incompetent or dysfunctioning
23. “Tongue thrust” is defined as being present dung the oral functions of: ? respiration, swallowing, rest and speech.
24. The term “tongue thrust” includes not only the tongue itself but also the associated:? = matrix of peripheral muscles.
25. According to the definition given in class, tongue thrust is a structural anomaly? = False
26. According to the definition given in class. Tongue thrust is confined to the anterior dentition.? = False
27. According to the definition given in class, tongue thrust is opened as excessive pressures on the vertical plane. = False According to the
definition given in class, tongue thrust is a poor choice of words to describe what takes place in aberrant deglutition. = True
28. According to the definition given in class, tongue thrust is usually associated with balanced lip ;tures and strong masseier muscles. = False
29. “Tongue thrust” is a term used to describe:? (A. labial condition. B) a chronic oral habit c) excessive tongue pressure in any direction, D. a
lingual surface pathology. F none of the above. ** (none of the above)
30. The labial and buccal muscles associated with tongue thrust are usually:? incompetent or dysfunctioning.
31. According to the definition given in class, tongue thrust can affect any of the dentition.? = True
32. Indicate which two of these key phrases define tongue thrust:? = excessive tongue pressure against teeth. / association with malocciusion or
speech artic disorder.
33. According to the definition given in class, tongue thrusts are excessive pressure on both the! horizontal and the vertical plane? = False
34. The following conditions must be clinically present for a tongue thrust to be defined: a) a reverse swallow and/or an open bite. B) a deep bite
and/or a malocclusion. C) T, D. N, L problems and/or an open bite. D) a speech dysfluency and/or mouthbreathing. E) None of the above.*
According to the definition given in class, tongue thrust” is the best choice of words to describe what really takes place in aberrant deglutition.? = False
35. ‘Tongue thrust is defined as being present during the oral functions of:? = respiration, swallowing, rest and speech.
36. According to the definition given in class, in the final a analysis tongue thrust is a speech disorder. = False
37. According to the definition given in class, “tongue thrust” is the best choice of words to describe what really takes place in aberrant deglutition. = False
38. According to the definition given in class, tongue thrust can affect any of the dentition. = True
39. According to the definition given in class, in the final analysis tongue thrust is a speech disorder. = False
40. Oral Facial Myology is therapy that deals with the function of the oral musculature. = True
41. Oral Myofunctional Therapy is a new profession that deals with structure, not function. = False
42. “Tongue thrust” is defined as being present during the oral functions of: = respiration, swallowing, rest and speech.
43. Mainly orthodontists and speech pathologists were the major contributors to the earlier research in the field of Myofunctional Therapy = True
44. Oral Myofunctional Disorders can be caused by: a) airway, digit sucking, and enlarged tonsils. b) bottle feeding, allergies, and short lingual
frenum .c) mouthbreathing, open spaces during mixed dentition, and digit sue sucking. D) all of the above**
45. Mouthbreathing is one of the most common characteristics associated with Oral Myofunctional Disorders. ? False
46. Oral Myofunctional Therapy works with DDS’s, orthodontists, speech therapists and ENT’s as a team approach for the best possible correction
for the patient. = True
47. Indicate which of these key phrases “define” tongue thrust: c. The muscles … are the tools of occlusion
a. oral muscle behavior/not a habit, excessive tongue pressure d. The tongue… caves it’s image in the mouth (teeth)
against teeth , matrix of incompetent peripheral e. You only .. can see what you are looking for
muscles, tongue thrust occurs during speech, 49. According to the development theory of the etiology of tongue
swallowing or repose Associated with malocclusion or thrust there are five major causes of tongue thrust or negative.
speech ante disorder , All of the above * Influences that inhibit the tongue from! achieving its desired,
48. To stress the impact of muscular forces on the dentition,, five mature position. “Prolonged thumb sucking is one of them;
“axioms’ were presented. Give the essence of each: name the other four.
a. The teeth … know what the muscles are doing - Large tonsils, Steep mandibular plane, High vaulted
b. The lips … are living orthodontic appliances maxillary arch, Chronic mouth breathing

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