1. Which of the following statements is true regarding vocal resonance?

• Bronchophony is defined as decreased loudness of the spoken word

• Bronchial breath sounds are normally heard at the lung bases

• Whispered pectoriloquy is characterize by decreased intensity of the spoken word

• Egophony is characterized by increased intensity of the spoken word and the development
of a nasal q
2. Tocopherol is

• Vitamin B5

• Vitamin E

• Vitamin D2

• Vitamin D3
3. P. carinii is

• Protozoa

• Fungus

• Virus

• Bacteria
4. The treatment of traumatic rupture of tympanic membrane is

• Aural packing

• Chloromycetin ear drops

• Tympanoplasty

• No active treatment
5. Honeycomb appearance of X-ray is seen in all, except

• Wegeners' granulomatosis

• Histiocytosis X

• Tuberous sclerosis

• Rheumatoid arthritis
6. All of the following are proenzymes except

• Pepsin

• Proinsulin

• Trypsomogen

• Fibrinogen
7. Drug useful in haloperidol induced dystonia is following except

• Diazepam

• L-dopa

• Trihexyphenidyl

• Benztropine
8. Austin Flint murmur is usually mistaken for the murmur of

• Mitral regurgitation

• Mitral stenosis

• Tricuspid stenosis

• pulmonary regurgitation
9. Best treatment modality for astigmatism is
 • Bandage contact lens

• Soft contact lens

• Toric contact lens

• Hydrophilic contact lens

10. Virilizing ovarian carcinoma is

• Granulosa cell tumour

• Sex cord tumour

• Theca cell tumour

• Arrhenoblastoma
11. Treatment of non-gonococcal urethritis is

• Penicillin

• Sulphas

• Tetracycline

• Metronidazole
12. A 21-year-old man who recently recovered from the mumps presents to the emergency room
complaining of a swollen and painful left testicle. Physical examination reveals testicular tenderness.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

• Orchitis

• Epididymitis

• Testicular tumor

• Varicocele
13. A lady with 38 wks pregnancy and painless vaginal bleeding comes to casualty.On examination
head is engaged and uterus is non tender and relaxed.The next line of treatment is:

• Per speculum examination

• Conservative management

• Termination of pregnancy

• Ultrasonography
14. The aminoacid in breast milk that is claimed to promote neurological development in infants is :

• Valine

• Tyrosine

• Taurine

• Leucine
15. Which one of the following is organophosporouspoison

• Physostigmine

• Dyflos

• Tacrine

• Edrophonium
16. Loss of pain and temperature sensations with intact touch and joint and position sense is seen in

• Tabesdorsalis

• Spinal neurofibroma

• Syringomyelia

• Subacute combined degneration of spinal cord

17. The surface appendage of bacteria, functions as organ of adhesion is

• Flagella

• Capsule

• Slime layer

• Fimbriae
18. In sigmoid volvulus, following are true except

• Sigmoidoscopy is curative

• More seen in Europe

• Seen with low residual diet

• Lumb abdomen
19. A lady G2P3+0 at weeks gestation presents with chief complaint of abdominal pain.On
examination tenderness in continuity with uterus is found.Most likely cause is

• Red degeneration of fibroid

• Premature placental separation

• Ruptured ectopic pregnancy

• Hyaline chance in myoma

20. Ergometrine is contra-indicated in all the following except

• Moderate anaemia

• Rh incompatibility

• Rheumatic heart disease

• Eclampsia
21. An 18-year-old woman presents to your office for a blood pressure check. The patient has a
history of hypertension diagnosed by a previous physician who recently retired. The patient takes
three antihypertensives and is compliant. Except for an occasional headache, she has no complaints.
There is no family history of hypertension. Blood pressure is 145/90 mm Hg in both arms. Funduscopic
examination reveals exudates and hemorrhages. Heart and lungs are normal. Abdominal examination
reveals a systolic and diastolic bruit heard in the right midabdomen and through to the back. The
remainder of the examination is normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

• Pheochromocytoma

• Coarctation of the aorta

• Renal artery stenosis

• Hyperaldosteronism
22. Class 1 histocompatibility antigens of HLA system are located on which type of cells :

• Macrophages

• Monocytes

• RBCs

• All nucleated cells

23. Complement for complement fixation test is obtained from

• Rabbit

• Guinea pig

• Rat

• Horse
24. Most common site of aneurysmal bone cyst is

• Lower end of humerus

• Pelvic bones
 • Radius

• Upper end of tibia

25. A patient arrives to the emergency room cyanotic with severe shortness of breath. The patient
was found unconscious and face down in a swimming pool, and was intubated and then resuscitated
by paramedics using advanced cardiac life support measures. On arrival, the patient has a blood
pressure of 90/60 mm Hg, a heart rate of 120/min, and a respiratory rate of 28/min. There is no
tracheal deviation. Lung auscultation reveals crackles anteriorly and posteriorly. Arterial blood gas
reveals a PO2 of 50 mm Hg on 100% oxygen. The chest radiograph reveals bilateral white-out of the
lungs consistent with interstitial and alveolar infiltrates. There is no cardiomegaly. Which of the
following is the most likely diagnosis?

• Acute respiratory distress syndrome

• Pulmonary contusion

• Pneumothorax

• Cardiogenic pulmonary edema

26. Treatment of choice of Myoclonic jerks & absence seizure is

• Valproate

• Carbamazepine

• Phenytoin

• Ethousuximide
27. Epinephrine is most useful in :

• Bronchial asthma

• Anaphylactic shock

• Peripheral vascular disease

• Wide angle glaucoma

28. Which of the following complications is increased in an obese pregnant woman
 • Macrosomia

• Low apgar score

• Perinatal mortality

• Malformations
29. The most common physical sign of cerebral metastasis is

• Epilepsy

• Focal neurological deficit

• Papilloedema

• Visual detects
30. All are true about vernal conjunctivitis, except

• Hypersensitivity reaction to exogenous allergens

• More common spring season

• Palpebral polygonal papilla with a flat top

• Stringy or ropy discharge from eyes

31. Precocious puberty is treated by administering

• LHRH

• Testosterone

• Oestrogen

• Gonadotrophin
32. In perilymph there is
 • High sodium, low potassium

• Low sodium, high potassium

• No sodiu, no potassium

• No sodium, only potassium

33. In measles

• Rash increases after first day

• Rash decreases after first day

• No change

• Kiplic spots after rash

34. Complement is

• An antigen

• An antibody

• Natural substance in serum

• A reagin
35. Characteristic field defect in retinintispigmentosa is

• Peripheral contraction of visual field

• Ring shaped scotoma

• Nasal contraction of visual field

• Paracentralscotoma
36. Capnography is

• Monitoring of concentration of inhaled O2

• Monitoring of concentration of exhaled CO2

• Monitoring of central venous pressure

• Monitoring of blood pressure during anaesthesia

37. Antibiotic which is safe in renal failure is

• Kanamycin

• Penicillin

• Minocycline

• Gentamicin
38. The glomerulonephritis seen in i/v drug abusers in

• Membranous

• Minimal lesion

• mesangiocapillary

• Focal segmental GN
39. A 70-year-old woman was treated for infiltrating breast cancer with lumpectomy and radiotherapy.
Her breast cancer did not involve any of her axillary nodes and she had positive estrogen and
progesterone receptors. She was started on tamoxifen to decrease the risk of recurrent disease. The
patient now presents complaining of hot flashes. Eye examination reveals absence of the red light
reflex bilaterally. The rest of the physical examination is normal. Which of the following is the most
likely diagnosis?

• Recurrence of breast cancer

• Development of a new primary cancer

• Menopause
 • Side effects of tamoxifen
40. Drop metastases in lumbar CSF are caused by :

• Astrocytoma

• Ependymoma

• Meningioma

• Medulloblastoma
41. What is themost important determinat of fetal breathing movements?

• Fetal arterial pH

• Maternal PCO2

• Maternal pO2

• Maternal serum glucose

42. Monocytes, macrophages, lymphocytes secrete chemicals called

• Monokines

• Cytokines

• Lymphokines

• All of the above

43. Apple jelly nodules are seen in :

• Ichthyosis vulgaris

• Lichen planus

• Lupus vulgaris
 • Lupus erythematous
44. Bartholins duct open into

• Labia majora

• Labia minora

• Lower vagina

• Groove between Labia majora and hymen

45. Which of the following chronic diseases is transmitted transplacentally:

• Syphils

• Malaria

• Listeria monocytogenes

• All the above

46. Arterial supply of transverse colon is

• Right colic

• Middle colic

• Left colic

• Ileocolic
47. Peroneus brevis is inserted at

• Tip of IV metatarsal

• Base of V metatarsaal

• Lateral cuneiform bone

 • Base of big toe
48. Pseudohallucinations have all the characteristic except

• Located insubjective space

• Subject to conscious control

• Lack the substantiality of normal perceptions but vivid

• Experienced as emancipating from within the mind

49. Drug of choice in the treatment of onchocerciasis is

• DEC

• Ivermectin

• Ketoconazole

• Cotrimoxazole
50. Foliedeux (shared paranoid disorder) was first described by

• Ashwer

• Pierre Janet

• Jules Cotard

• Lasegue and Falret

51. Treatment of choice in ventricualr fibrillation is

• Carotid massage

• Electrical cardioversion

• IV lignocaine
 • IV nifedipine
52. A 54-year-old man with a 20- year history of chronic obstructive lung disease has a heave that is
palpable at the lower left sternal border at the third, fourth, and fifth intercostal spaces. Which of the
following best explains the etiology of the heave?

• It is probably a displaced point of maximum impulse (PMI)

• It means the patient has congestive heart failure

• It means that the patient has aortic stenosis

• It means the patient has right ventricular hypertrophy

53. First heart sound due to closure of AV values occurs during the period of

• Isotonic relaxation

• Isovolumertric relaxation

• Isovolumetric contraction

• Isotonic contraction
54. Muscle earliest involved in thyroid ophthalmopathy

• Lateral rectus

• Medial rectus

• Inferior rectus

• Superior oblique
55. Parathyroid adenoma most commonly involves which of the following sites

• Thyroid substance

• Superior parathyroid lobe

• Inferior parathyroid lobe

 • In the mediastinum
56. The most common complications following blood transfussion are

• Allergic reaction

• Volume overload

• Infections

• Hemolysis
57. Carcinoma prostate first spreads to

• Lumbar vertebra

• Ribs

• Ileum

• Femor
58. Diverticulum is commonest in the _____________ duodenal part

• I

• II

• III

• IV
59. Control of sympathetic system is by

• Spin cord

• Reticular activating system

• Hypothalamus
 • Adrenals
60. Bone marrow study is best done in

• Hidgkin's lymphoma

• Acute Malaria

• hereditary spherocytosis

• Thalassemia
61. Pulsating Exophthalmos is due to

• Primary thyrotoxicosis

• Intracranial anterio-venous fistula

• Haemangioma of eye ball

• None of the above

62. The most reliable test for detection of chancroid is

• Biopsy

• Skin tests

• Gram's stained smears

• Clinical examination itself

63. Atlanto-axial subluxation is seen in all, except

• Rheumatoid arthritis

• Ankylosing spondylitis

• Gout
 • Retropharyngeal abscess
64. Cell count greater than 1,00,000/mm3 in synovial fluid indicates

• Infective arthritis

• Rheumatoid arthritis

• Gout

• Rheumatic fever
65. Insulin stress test assay estimates

• Diabetes mellitus

• Growth hormones

• Glucagon assay

• Catecholamines
66. The Sachs disease is due to accumulation of

• GM2 gangliosides

• Glucocerebroside

• Galactocerebrosides

• Sphingomyelinase
67. Intermediate host in guineawworm infestation is

• Cyclops

• Crab

• Fresh water snail

 • Man
68. Respiratory distress syndrome in the newborn is commonly associated with all the following
conditions, except:

• Diabetic Pregnancy

• Prematurity

• Following an elective Caesarean section

• Intrauterine growth retardation

69. 'Today'' sponge contains which of the following?

• Nonoxynol

• Delfen

• Femshield

• Desogestrel
70. Following are bacteriocidal drugs except

• Streptomycin

• INH

• Ethambutol

• Rifampicin
71. All are features of Polymyositis except

• Occular muscle involvement

• Focal necrosis on biopsy

• EMG which are specific

 • Neck flexor involvement
72. A 46-years0old female presented at the eye OPD in a hospital. Her vision in the right eye was
6/60 and in left eye 3/60. Under the NatinalProgramme for Control of blindness, she will be classified
as :

• Socially blind

• Low vision

• Economically blind

• Normal vision
73. Which of the following is the characteristic of trigeminal neuralgia

• Commonest primary neuralgia

• Trigger zone is present in certain parts of face and cervical region

• Drug of choice is carbamazepine

• All of the above

74. Following are causes of vitamin B12 deficiency except

• Strict vegetarian

• Blind loop syndrome

• Diphyllobothriumlatum infection

• Chronic blood loss

75. Which of the following is not a dose related to reaction

• Myocardial irritation of quinidine

• Hypoglycemia of tolbutamide

• Digitalis induced arrythmia

 • Drug fever of sulpha
76. Contraindications for IVP is/are

• Idiosyncrasy to iodine

• Multiple myeloma

• Diabetes

• All of the above

77. Paralysis of genioglossus muscle causes :

• Difficulty in opening mouth

• Difficulty in closing mouth

• Deviation of tip of tongue to one side

• All of the above

78. 18. Which of the following is the best description of grade two plus (2+) edema?

• Detectable finger distortion afterrelease disappears in 10 s; 4 mmdeep

• Detectable finger distortion afterrelease disappears in 1 min; 6 mmdeep

• Detectable finger distortion afterrelease disappears in 2.5 min; 8mm deep

• Slight pitting with no finger distortionafter release; 2 mm deep

79. The pathologic process in Syringomyelia is characterized by

• Hydrophilic cytoplasmic inclusions in anterior horn neurons

• Selective atrophy of motor neurons in the spinal cord extending into brain stem

• Demyelination of dorsal and lateral columns of the spinal cord

 • Cystic cavitation of the spinal cord damaging crossing sensory fibers
80. A patient of multidrug resistant tuberculosis is on six antituberculardrugd. After a few months he
develops an inhibility to distinguish between red and green colour. Most llikelyddrug causing these
symptoms is:

• Rifampicin

• Ethambutol

• Cycloserine

• Ethionamide
81. 322. A 34-year-old woman has a 15-year history of Crohns disease. She presents to your office
with the acute onset of right ankle and left knee pain. She recalls a worsening of her gastrointestinal
symptoms a few days before the joint symptoms developed. Radiographs of the knee and ankle
demonstrate soft tissue swelling and small effusions but no bone destruction. Which of the following
statements is true?

• The patient is not HLA-B27 positive

• The patient is experiencing the most common extraintestinal manifestation of

inflammatory bowel dise

• Controlling the intestinal symptoms will eliminate the knee and ankle arthritis

• The patient will go on to develop bone erosion and destruction of the knee and ankle
82. The commonest cause of right temporal lobe abscess is

• Right middle ear and mastoid infection

• Bacterial endocarditis involving right side of heart

• Congenital cyanotic heart disease

• Osteomyelitis of / temporal bone / right

83. In video assisted thoracoscooic surgery for better vision the space in the operative field is created
by

• Self retaining retractor

 • CO2 insufflations

• Collapse of ipsilateral lung

• Rib spacing
84. First case to that comes to the knowledge of the investigator is

• Index case

• Primary case

• Clinical case

• Subclinical
85. The best treatment for a frontal lobe abscess with papilloedema is

• Massive multiple antibiotics

• Massive intravenous diuretics

• Carniotomy and frontal lobectomy

• Craniotomy & excision of the abscess

86. Drug used in nicotine withdrawal

• Carbamazepine

• Bupropion

• Caffeine

• Atropine
87. 85. The visual acuity of a patient is recorded to be 20/200. Which ofthe following best describes
this measurement?

• a. The patient can read at 20 ft what the average person can read at 200 ft
 • b. The patient can read at 200 ft what the average person can read at 20 ft

• c. The patient can read at 200 ftwhatthe average person can read at 200 ft

• d. The patient can read at 20 ft what the average person can read at 20 ft
88. The most suceptiblefibre to hypoxia is

• A

• B

• C

• All are equally sensitive

89. Psammoma bodies are

• Examples of dystrophic calcification

• Seen in dead tissues

• Both of the above

• None of the above

90. In kerosene poisoning, following are useful except

• Gastric lavage

• Antacids

• Bland diet

• Intravenous fluids
91. Leptospiraicterohaemorrhagiae infection is transmitted by the following animals

• Rats
 • dogs

• Birds

• Bats
92. 51. A 35-year-old woman who had been camping in Wisconsin 2 wk ago develops an
erythematous rash on her inner thigh. The macular lesion is 10 cm in diameter and had a distinct red
border with central clearing. Two days ago, a second similar lesion developed. The patient reports no
fever, chills, or other symptoms. She has no medical problems or allergies and takes no medications.
She does not recall any spider or tick bites. The rest of the physical examination is normal. Which of
the following is the most likely diagnosis?

• Brown recluse spider bite

• Borreliaburgdorferi infection

• Bartonellahenselae infection

• Mycobacterium marinum infection

92. 51. A 35-year-old woman who had been camping in Wisconsin 2 wk ago develops an
erythematous rash on her inner thigh. The macular lesion is 10 cm in diameter and had a distinct red
border with central clearing. Two days ago, a second similar lesion developed. The patient reports no
fever, chills, or other symptoms. She has no medical problems or allergies and takes no medications.
She does not recall any spider or tick bites. The rest of the physical examination is normal. Which of
the following is the most likely diagnosis?

• Brown recluse spider bite

• Borreliaburgdorferi infection

• Bartonellahenselae infection

• Mycobacterium marinum infection

92. 51. A 35-year-old woman who had been camping in Wisconsin 2 wk ago develops an
erythematous rash on her inner thigh. The macular lesion is 10 cm in diameter and had a distinct red
border with central clearing. Two days ago, a second similar lesion developed. The patient reports no
fever, chills, or other symptoms. She has no medical problems or allergies and takes no medications.
She does not recall any spider or tick bites. The rest of the physical examination is normal. Which of
the following is the most likely diagnosis?

• Brown recluse spider bite

 • Borreliaburgdorferi infection

• Bartonellahenselae infection

• Mycobacterium marinum infection

95. Senile plaques in brain is a feature of

• Multiple sclerosis

• Parkinsonism

• Alzhemier's disease

• Wilsons' disease
96. FSH is secreted by

• Chromophobes

• Basophils

• Acidophils

• Theca Interna cells

97. Confirmation of intrauterine death is by following except

• Gas in area of great vessels

• Spalding sign

• Absence of foetal heart beat on ausculation

• Absence of foetal beat in ultrasound

98. Subcentre caters the population of

• 1000
 • 2000

• 5000

• 10000
99. Acid citrate dextrose blood can be kept for

• 21 days

• 30 days

• 40 days

• 15 days