AERODYNAMICS 2 EXAM #3

1) What is the effect of a headwind on the maximum range of an airplane?

a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) No change

2) The throttle linkage on your jet breaks and the engine goes to max thrust output. To achieve the greatest altitude
for glide prior to fuel exhaustion, you should clime at what angle of attack?

a) Max range
b) Max angle of climb
c) Minimum excess thrust horsepower
d) Max rate of climb

3) What change, if any, in the maximum glide range occurs as excess aircraft weight is jettisoned and a constant lift
to drag ratio (L/D) is maintained?

a) Max glide range increases

b) Max glide range decreases
c) Max glide range remains constant

4) What change in maximum turbojet thrust available (Ta) occurs with an increase in true airspeed at a constant
altitude?

a) Turbojet thrust available significantly increases

b) Turbojet thrust available significantly decreases
c) Turbojet thrust available remains relatively constant

5) You are flying a T-34c at maximum rate of climb and receive instructions to level off and go to maximum
endurance. What must you do?

a) Reduce velocity and increase AOA to stabilize at L/D max

b) Reduce velocity and increase AOA to stabilize at CLMAX
c) Reduce velocity and increase AOA to a point greater than L/D max
d) Reduce velocity and increase AOA to stabilize at V min

6) The velocity (TAS) for maximum range:

a) Will decrease with an increase in weight

b) Will decrease with an increase in altitude
c) Will be greater with a tailwind
d) Will increase with an increase in weight

7) You are flying a T-34c at 150 KIAS into a 50 knot headwind. Your engine suddenly quits. You have enough
altitude to set up a glide and make it back to Whiting Field. Which of the following is true?

a) A 50 knot headwind will increase your AOA giving you more lift and therefore longer glide range
b) L/D max increases
c) Your rate of descent will decrease due to the increased lift from the headwind
d) The headwind will decrease your glide range but not your total time aloft

8) Minimum fuel flow for a propeller aircraft is located at the point where:

a) Tr is minimum
 b) Tr = THP
c) THPr is minimum
d) Tr = 0

9) Two identical aircraft of equal weight, one powered by turbojet, the other by turboprop, are lined up on parallel
runways. Both will fly their maximum rate of climb performance. Compare AOA and TAS.

a) AOA and TAS are the same because rate of climb is on the THP curves
b) AOA for the prop is lower; TAS for the jet is higher
c) AOA for the prop is higher; TAS for the jet is higher
d) AOA for the prop is higher; TAS for the jet is lower

10) You can have thrust without having thrust horsepower.

a) True
b) False

11) Max endurance torque for the T-34c is:

a) 240 ft-lbs
b) 420 ft-lbs
c) 580 ft-lbs

12) When a pilot pushes the stick to the right, what happens?

a) The elevator moves right

b) The left aileron rises, the right aileron lowers
c) The right aileron rises, the left aileron lowers
d) The airplane yaws right

13) You are taking off in your T-34 and you adjust the aileron trim. During flight you will:

a) Have to adjust it every now and then

b) Probably not need to touch it again
c) Turn it off

14) In the T-34, rudder trim compensates for:

a) Downwash
b) High AOA
c) Prop wash and torque

15) The elevator trim is adjusted:

a) Down at slower speeds and up at higher speeds

b) Up at slower speeds and down at higher speeds

16) For aerodynamic balance, the T-34c uses _____ on the elevator and rudder, and a(n) _____ on the ailerons.

a) Overhang, shielding horn

b) Shielding horn, overhang
c) Flaps, flaps

17) The T-34 uses what form of control system to move the control surfaces?

a) Conventional, reversible controls

 b) Power-boosted controls
c) Full-power controls

18) An anti-servo trim tab is located on the T-34's:

a) Aileron
b) Rudder
c) Elevator

19) If an object has an initial tendency toward its original equilibrium position after a disturbance, it posses:

a) Positive dynamic stability

b) Positive static stability
c) Neutral static stability

20) Stability of the longitudinal axis around the lateral axis (pitch) is called:

a) Longitudinal pitch
b) Longitudinal stability
c) Directional stability
d) Lateral stability

21) The neutral point (NP) can be thought of as the aerodynamic center for the entire airplane.

a) True
b) False

22) Which will be the greatest positive contributor to the directional static stability?

a) Straight wings
b) Swept wings
c) Fuselage
d) Vertical stabilizer

23) When in a lateral side-slip, the vertical senses an angle of attack, so it _____.

a) Produces drag
b) Produces lift

24) Phugoid oscillations begins when:

a) An upward gust strikes the airplane causing the plane to gain altitude and lose airspeed
b) A downward gust strikes the airplane causing the airplane to gain altitude and lose airspeed
c) An upward gust strikes the airplane causing the plane to gain altitude and gain airspeed

25) If the relative wind is above the thrust line, the up-going propeller blade on the _____ side creates more thrust
since it has a greater AOA with the relative wind. This will yaw the nose to the _____.

a) Left; right
b) Right; right
c) Left; left
d) Right; left

26) AOA in an inverted spin will be:

a) Pegged at 30 units
 b) Indicated between 2 and 3 units
c) Pegged in the direction of the spin

27) A lighter airplane will enter a spin:

a) Slower than a heavier airplane, but will have a faster recovery

b) Faster than a heavier airplane, and will recover faster
c) Slower than a heavier airplane, and will recover slower
d) Faster than a heavier airplane, but will recover slower

28) Slower stall speeds make the spin recovery entry slower with:

a) More oscillations
b) Fewer oscillations
c) No change in oscillations

29) The greater drag on the down-going wing results in:

a) A continued rolling motion of the airplane

b) Discontinued yawing motion in the direction of the roll
c) Discontinued rolling motion of the airplane
d) A continued yawing motion in the direction of the roll

30) In an erect (normal) spin, which of the following would NOT be characteristic of the cockpit indicators?

a) Altimeter rapidly decreasing

b) Airspeed of 80-100 kts
c) AOA of 30 units
d) Turn needle pegged in the direction opposite direction of the spin

31) What effect will aileron inputs have on spin recovery?

a) It will aggravate the spin

b) Not much since the wing is stalled
c) It will bring the aircraft out of the stall

32) During a spin, what conditions exist on the up-going wing verses the down-going wing?

a) The up-going wing has more lift, AOA, and total drag than the down-going wing
b) The up-going wing has more lift but less AOA and total drag than the down-going wing
c) The up-going wing and down-going wing have the exact same conditions

33) What is aircraft ultimate load factor?

a) The maximum load factor that can be sustained without over-stressing the aircraft
b) The maximum load factor that the aircraft structure is designed to support
c) The maximum weight of the aircraft
d) The maximum cargo capacity of the aircraft

34) What effect will an increase in aircraft weight, for a constant amount of maximum lift, have on the limit load
factor and maneuver airspeed?

a) Limit load and maneuver airspeed will increase

b) Limit load and maneuver airspeed will decrease
c) Limit load will decrease and maneuver airspeed will increase
d) Limit load and maneuver airspeed will not be affected
35) What is the relationship between weight and allowable G's?

a) Direct
b) Inverse
c) Independent

36) Wing divergence, wing flutter, and aileron reversal are all aeroelastic effects that are associated with flight in
what region?

a) Flight above the ultimate load

b) Flight beyond red-line airspeed
c) Flight above the limit load
d) Flight to the left of the accelerated stall line

37) When flying at an airspeed greater than maneuvering airspeed:

a) Pulling an excessive number of G's will always result in a stall

b) Flying too slow will result in a stall
c) Turbulent air may over-stress the aircraft
d) Turbulent air may cause a stall

38) Red-line airspeed is a fixed indicated airspeed.

a) True
b) False

39) The Vg/Vn diagram shrinks in the landing configuration.

a) True*
b) False

40) Which of the following might occur if an aircraft exceeds the red-line airspeed?

a) Spiral divergence
b) Directional divergence
c) Wing divergence
d) Stall

41) Wing flutter, aileron reversal, and wing divergence are all examples of what redline airspeed problem?

a) Overstress
b) Elastic limit
c) Aeroelastic effect
d) Asymmetric loading

42) What are the most critical factors that increase the rate of creep damage?

a) High stress and density

b) High stress and temperature
c) High strength and pressure
d) High strenght and attitude

43) Upon what factors is the airplane flight Vn diagram contingent?

a) Weight, temperature, loading

 b) Weight, aspect ratio, loading
c) Configuration, altitude, gross weight
d) Configuration, altitude, loading

44) On what factor is frictional braking dependent?

a) Gross weight of aircraft

b) Runway construction
c) Actual weight on the wheels
d) Temperature

45) What situation has the greatest rolling friction?

a) Sea level on an ice covered runway

b) Summer day in Pensacola on an asphalt runway
c) Landing during a storm

46) Frictional braking is considered the most _____ form of braking.

a) Effective
b) Dangerous
c) Efficient
d) Useless

47) What force is the most out of balance during the takeoff roll?

a) Drag
b) Rolling friction
c) Lift
d) Thrust

48) Which runway would you use when runway 9 has a headwind of 20 knots and a crosswind of 2 knots, while
runway 13 has a headwind of 10 knots and a crosswind of 10 knots?

a) Runway 9 because takeoff TAS is lower

b) Runway 13 because after takeoff the headwind will be 22 knots
c) Runway 9 because takeoff ground speed is lower
d) Runway 9 because takeoff IAS is lower

49) What is the effect of ground effect on an airplane's induced drag and thrust requirements?

a) Induced drag increases and thrust required increases

b) Induced drag increases and thrust required decreases
c) Induced drag decreases and thrust required increases
d) Induced drag decreases and thrust required decreases

50) What change in aircraft vertical lift force occurs during ground effect?

a) Effective lift increases

b) Vertical lift decreases
c) Vertical lift remains constant

KEY

1) b
2) d
3) c
4) c
5) c
6) d
7) d
8) c
9) c
10) a
11) b
12) c
13) b
14) c
15) b
16) b
17) a
18) b
19) b
20) b
21) a
22) d
23) b
24) a
25) a
26) b
27) b
28) b
29) d
30) d
31) b
32) b
33) b
34) c
35) b
36) b
37) c
38) b
39) a
40) c
41) c
42) b
43) c
44) c
45) b
46) a
47) d
48) c
49) d
50) a