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MCAT
Practice Test 7
Physical Sciences
Time: 100 minutes
Questions: 1-77

Most questions in the Physical Sciences test are organized into groups, each containing a descriptive passage.
After studying the passage, select the one best answer to each question in the group. Some questions are not
based on a descriptive passage and are also independent of each other. If you are not certain of an answer,
eliminate the alternatives that you know to be incorrect and then select an answer from the remaining
alternatives. Indicate your selected answer by marking the corresponding answer on your answer sheet. A
periodic table is provided for your use. You may consult it whenever you wish.

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for the MCAT hold the copyrights to the content of this Practice Test. Therefore, there can be no sharing or
reproduction of materials from the Practice Test in any form (electronic, voice, or other means). If there are
any questions about the use of the material in the Practice Test, please contact the MCAT Information Line
(202-828-0690).
1 Periodic Table of the Elements 2
H He
1.0 4.0
3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Li Be B C N O F Ne
6.9 9.0 10.8 12.0 14.0 16.0 19.0 20.2
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
23.0 24.3 27.0 28.1 31.0 32.1 35.5 39.9
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
39.1 40.1 45.0 47.9 50.9 52.0 54.9 55.8 58.9 58.7 63.5 65.4 69.7 72.6 74.9 79.0 79.9 83.8
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
85.5 87.6 88.9 91.2 92.9 95.9 (98) 101.1 102.9 106.4 107.9 112.4 114.8 118.7 121.8 127.6 126.9 131.3
55 56 57 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
Cs Ba La* Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn
132.9 137.3 138.9 178.5 180.9 183.9 186.2 190.2 192.2 195.1 197.0 200.6 204.4 207.2 209.0 (209) (210) (222)
87 88 89 104 105 106 107 108 109
Fr Ra Ac† Unq† Unp Unh Uns Uno Une
(223) (226) (227) (261) (262) (263) (262) (265) (267)
58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
* Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
140.1 140.9 144.2 (145) 150.4 152.0 157.3 158.9 162.5 164.9 167.3 168.9 173.0 175.0
90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
† Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
232.0 (231) 238.0 (237) (244) (243) (247) (247) (251) (252) (257) (258) (259) (260)
Passage I Like ammonia, hydrazine is a base in aqueous
solution. Figure 1 shows the equilibria reactions of
Thousands of tons of hydrazine (N2H4) are ammonia and hydrazine in aqueous solution.
produced each year for commercial uses, including
the production of agricultural chemicals. At room NH3(aq) + H2O(ℓ) NH4+(aq) + OH-(aq)
temperature, hydrazine is a volatile liquid that exists Keq = 1.8 × 10-5
in hydrogen-bonded networks similar to those found
in liquid water. Hydrazine may be prepared by the N2H4(aq) + H2O(ℓ) N2H5+ + OH-(aq)
Raschig process, the reaction of ammonia with Keq = 8.5 × 10-7
sodium hypochlorite, as shown in Equation 1.
N2H5+ + H2O N2H62+ + OH-(aq)
2NH3(g) + NaOCl(aq) → N2H4(aq) + NaCl(aq) + Keq = 8.9 × 10-16
H2O(ℓ)
Figure 1 Equilibria (Keq = equilibrium constant)
Equation 1
1. Which of the following Lewis structures best
Hydrazine usually is shipped as the hydrate (N2H4 · represents hydrazine?
H2O) because it is easier to handle and can be easily
dehydrated to form the anhydrous compound. A)

Hydrazine and its chemical derivatives are good


rocket propellants. For example, hydrazine reacts
with dinitrogen tetroxide (N2O4) to produce gaseous
B)
nitrogen and water. Equation 2 shows the reaction
and the enthalpy change.

2 N2H4(ℓ) + N2O4(ℓ) → 3 N2(g) + 4 H2O(g)


∆H° = -1040 kJ mol-1 C)

Equation 2

Some thermochemical data for hydrazine and


dinitrogen tetroxide are given in Table 1. D)

Table 1 Properties of Hydrazine and Dinitrogen


Tetroxide at 298 K
Property N2H4(ℓ) N2O4(g)
2. How many grams of ammonia are required to
∆Hf° (kJ mol-1) 50.6 9.2
-1 make one mole of hydrazine by the Raschig
∆Gf° (kJ mol ) 149.2 97.9 process?
-1 -1
S° (J K mol ) 121.2 304.3
A) 8.5 g
B) 17.0 g
C) 32.0 g
D) 34.0 g

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3. What is the percent by weight of hydrazine in 6. The formation of hydrazine from its elements is
hydrazine hydrate? NOT a spontaneous process at 25oC and 1 atm
because:
A) 6.0/50.0 x 100%
B) 18.0/32.0 x 100% A) ∆So for the reaction is > 0.
C) 18.0/50.0 x 100% B) ∆Ho for the reaction is < 0.
D) 32.0/50.0 x 100% C) ∆Go for the reaction is > 0.
D) So for hydrazine is > 0.
4.
7. The entropy change (∆So) for the reaction shown
What is the enthalpy change (∆Ho) for the in Equation 2 is:
reaction shown above?
A) 50.6 kJ mol-1 A) < 0 because the moles of gaseous products > the
B) 149.2 kJ mol-1 moles of gaseous reactants.
C) (149.2 + 298 x 121.2) kJ mol-1 B) < 0 because water is a product of the reaction.
D) (149.2 - 50.6) kJ mol-1 C) > 0 because the moles of gaseous products > the
moles of gaseous reactants.
D) > 0 because water is a product of the reaction.
5. As a result of being a weaker base than
ammonia, hydrazine:
A) has a smaller acidity constant (Ka) than does
ammonia.
B) has a smaller basicity constant (Kb) than does
ammonia.
C) can be protonated twice to form N2H62+.
D) forms hydrogen bonds in aqueous solution.

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Passage II

A gas of electrically charged and neutral particles is


called a plasma. Plasma physics is a broad term
applicable to such diverse areas as space physics,
gas lasers, gaseous electronics, and controlled
thermonuclear fusion.

A plasma has the ability to oscillate and propagate


waves. These waves can be excited by applying an
oscillating electric field to the plasma. The simplest
oscillation is a high-frequency oscillation of the
plasma electrons. Consider a plasma that is
electrically neutral, consisting of positive ions
immersed in a “sea” of electrons. If the electron
sea is slightly displaced from the ionic background,
electric fields act to restore the electrons to their
original equilibrium positions. The electron sea
subsequently moves toward the equilibrium
position, overshoots, and oscillates back and forth.
These oscillations are so rapid that the positive ions
seem to be fixed in the background (see Figure 1). Figure 1 Positive ions surrounded by a sea of
The frequency f at which these oscillations occur for mobile electrons (gray denotes the electron sea).
a given number density, n (electrons per cubic A and C denote the oscillation extremes.
meter), is
8. Why can the positive ions be considered to be
2
f = [kne /(πm)] 1/2
≈ 9.0n 1/2 fixed during the electrons’ oscillations?
A) The ions are bound together with strong nuclear
where e and m are the elementary charge and
forces.
electron mass, 1.6 x 10-19 C and 9 x 10-31 kg,
B) An ion is much more massive than an electron.
respectively. The constant k = 9 x 109 Nm2/C2
C) The ions experience no force when the electron
occurs in Coulomb’s law. The approximation on
sea is displaced.
the right side of the equation gives the frequency in
D) Coulomb’s law prohibits the motion of the ions.
Hz, when n is expressed in m-3.

9. In Figure 1, the maximum electrical potential


energy occurs at:
A) A only.
B) B only.
C) C only.
D) A and C only.

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10. The density of a typical laboratory plasma is 12. As the Figure 1 electrons oscillate through
1018 m-3. This value leads to plasma equilibrium point B, they move on to C because
oscillations at: of:
A) 9 x 1018 Hz. A) the momentum gathered as they moved from
B) 9 x 1012 Hz. point A.
C) 9 x 109 Hz. B) Coulomb forces pulling on the electron sea.
D) 9 x 106 Hz. C) magnetic forces of attraction between the
positive ions and the electron sea.
11. A plasma wave moving through a plasma has a D) the large potential energy they have at point B.
frequency of 109 Hz and a speed of 3.0 x 107
m/s. What is the wavelength of this wave? 13. What best describes changes that occur as the
electron sea moves from position A to position
A) 3.0 cm B in Figure 1?
B) 3.0 m
C) 3.3 cm A) Kinetic energy is transformed into potential
D) 3.3 m energy.
B) Potential energy is transformed into kinetic
energy.
C) Power is dissipated as heat.
D) Turbulence brings the electron sea to rest.

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Passage III 15. What is the electron configuration for a ground-
state silicon atom?
Silicon, the second most abundant element in the
earth’s crust, is found combined with oxygen in a A) [Ne] 3s ↑↓ 3p ↑↑ __
variety of silicate minerals. The most common is B) [Ne] 3s ↑↓ 3p ↑ ↓ _
silica (SiO2), which is a network solid. C) [Ne] 3s ↑↓ 3p ↑↓ __ _
D) [Ne] 3s ↑↓ 3p↓ ↓ ↓
Silicon cannot be purified by electrolytic
techniques. When elemental potassium became
available in the nineteenth century, it was used in a 16. According to valence shell electron pair
silicon purification procedure. Today, silicon is repulsion (VSEPR) theory, what is the
produced commercially by the reaction of silica geometry around silicon in SiCl3H?
with carbon or calcium carbide in an electric
furnace at 2000°C (Equation 1). The product is A) Linear
about 98% pure, with impurities of iron, oxygen, B) Tetrahedral
aluminum, and other elements. Further purification C) Trigonal bipyramidal
is achieved by halogenating the silicon, purifying D) Octahedral
the resulting gas by fractional distillation, and then
reducing the halogenated silicon compound 17. Which of the following elements could best
(Equations 2-3). substitute for potassium in the purification of
silicon?
SiO2(s) + 2 C(s) → Si(ℓ) + 2 CO(g)
A) H2
Equation 1 B) Na
C) Mg
Si(s) + 3 HCl(g) → SiCl3H(g) + H2(g) D) Ca

Equation 2 18. SiCl3H has a normal boiling point of 33oC.


What are the predominant forces between
SiCl3H(g) + H2(g) → Si(s) + 3 HCl(g) SiCl3H molecules?

Equation 3 A) Ionic forces


B) Covalent bonds
Pure silicon is a hard, brittle, nonreactive substance C) Hydrogen bonds
with a metallic luster. D) van der Waals forces

14. The purification of elemental silicon was 19. SiCl3H is purified by fractional distillation.
difficult to achieve because it: Why does this procedure effect a purification?

A) is a rare element. A) SiCl3H is not water soluble.


B) is too reactive to isolate easily. B) SiCl3H is decomposed by water.
C) exists in minerals that do not decompose easily. C) SiCl3H has a lower boiling point than the solid
D) does not crystallize. impurities.
D) SiCl3H has a lower melting point than the
impurities.

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Passage IV 21. If fission fragment X undergoes beta decay,
then one neutron in the nucleus is converted
The production of electrical power via nuclear into a proton, an electron and a neutrino (the
fission reactions often provokes heated discussions electron and neutrino v′exit the atom). If the
about nuclear waste disposal. In a typical uranium new fission fragment is called X ′, the beta-
fission, a uranium nucleus absorbs a neutron and decay reaction would be written as:
undergoes fission, as illustrated in the reaction
A)
.
B)
The superscript denotes the atomic mass and the
subscript the atomic number. The nucleus U-236 C)
(i.e., 236U) decays immediately into two fission
fragments X and Y, along with the release of two or D)
three neutrons. Energy is produced in the fission
process by the conversion of nuclear mass into 22. Half-lives are useful indicators of how
energy. This conversion is described by Einstein’s dangerous a radioactive substance is. The half-
famous relation E = mc2, where c is the speed of lives of Pu-239 and Ra-226 are 24,000 yrs and
light 3 x108 m/s, m is the mass that is converted, 1600 yrs, respectively. In comparison to atoms
and E the resulting energy released. An analysis of of Pu-239, atoms of Ra-226 will decay at a
the reaction shown reveals that about 1/1000 of the rate:
original starting mass of U-235 is missing after the
reaction. This missing mass accounts for the energy A) 8 times faster.
produced in the reaction. The fission fragments X B) 15 times faster.
and Y constitute the radioactive waste from C) 8 times slower.
uranium fission. These fragments then undergo D) 15 times slower.
beta and/or gamma decay. The resulting fragments
themselves may be radioactive, resulting in further 23. A standard coal-burning power plant produces
decays until a stable isotope is reached. Hundreds about 106 kg of fly-ash every week. Assuming
of years must pass before these radioactive that the density of fly-ash is 1000 kg/m3, what
fragments decay to nonradioactive nuclei. would be the length of the side of a fly-ash
cube made from this waste?

20. If three neutrons are produced in the U-235 A) 1 m


fission reaction discussed in the passage, what B) 10 m
relation must the atomic masses A1 and A2 C) 100 m
obey? D) 1000 m

A) A1 + A2 = 92
B) A1 + A2 = 232
C) A1 + A2 = 233
D) A1 + A2 = 236

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24. Consider the following electrode potentials.

Cu2+ + 2 e- → Cu(s) Eo= +0.34 V

2 H2O → O2 + 4 H+ + 4 e- Eo = -1.23 V

What is Eocell for the reaction shown in the


following equation?

2 Cu2+ + 2 H2O → 2 Cu(s) + O2 + 4 H+

A) -0.89 V
B) +0.55 V
C) +1.57 V
D) +1.91 V

25. A gas that occupies 10 L at 1 atm and 25oC will


occupy what volume at 500 atm and 25oC?
These questions are not based on a descriptive A) Exactly 0.020 L
passage and are independent of each other. B) Somewhat more than 0.02 L because of the
space occupied by the individual gas molecules
C) Somewhat more than 0.02 L because of the
repulsions between the individual gas molecules
D) Somewhat more than 0.02 L because of the
increased number of collisions with the sides of
the container

26. If there is no air resistance, how far will a 2-kg


object fall from rest in 10 sec? (Note: Use g =
10 m/s2.)
A) 100 m
B) 250 m
C) 300 m
D) 500 m

27. When a light wave and a sound wave pass from


air to glass, what changes occur in their speeds?
A) Both speed up.
B) Both slow down.
C) Light speeds up; sound slows down.
D) Light slows down; sound speeds up.

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Passage V Table 1 gives rate data for this reaction. In the
experimentally determined rate law, the reaction is
When aqueous solutions of bromine and acetone are zero order with respect to bromine.
mixed, the reaction shown by Equation 1 occurs.
Table 1 Rate Data at 25°C and 395 nm

rate
Exprmnt [acetone] [H+] [Br2] – ∆[Br2]/∆t
constant
Number M M M M s–1
k× 10–5
Equation 1 1 1.60 0.403 4.14 × 10−3 28.0 × 10–6 4.35
−3
2 0.80 0.101 3.96 × 10 2.85 × 10 –6
3.52
When the pH of the solution is between 4 and 7, the 3 0.40 0.202 3.69 × 10 −3
2.94 × 10 –6
3.65
reaction occurs very slowly. However, at pH values 4 0.80 0.403 4.26 × 10 −3
12.9 × 10 –6
4.00
less than 3, the reaction occurs rapidly. 5 1.60 0.202 4.38 × 10 −3
12.7 × 10 –6
3.93
−3
6 0.80 0.202 4.28 × 10 5.99 × 10 –6
3.70
If the bromination of acetone (molar mass = 58.0 g –5 –1 –1
mol–1 and density = 0.791 g mL–1) follows simple kave = 3.86 ± 0.2 × 10 M s
kinetics, the rate law can be expressed by
Equation 2.
28. The molar absorptivity of bromine at 395 nm is
Rate = –∆[Br2]/∆t = k[acetone] [Br2] [H ] a b + c
198 M–1 cm–1. What is the absorbance at 395
nm in Experiment 1?
Equation 2
A) 0.00825
Bromine is a red–brown liquid that absorbs light B) 0.820
very strongly at a wavelength of 395 nm, and it is C) 1.22
the only compound that absorbs visible light during D) 20.9
this reaction. Thus, a researcher can use a
spectrophotometer to follow the decrease in the 29. What is the value of c in Equation 2 as
concentration of bromine. The amount of 395-nm determined from the data in Table 1?
light absorbed by bromine is directly proportional to
the concentration of bromine. Equation 3 is Beer’s A) 1
law, which shows the relationship between the B) 2
absorbance A and the concentration c of the C) 3
absorbing species when light passes through a D) 4
cuvette of path length l. The molar absorbtivity ε is
a constant for a given wavelength, and the path 30. If the reaction is first order with respect to both
length is normally 1.00 cm. acetone and hydronium ion, which of the
following equations gives the rate law?
А = ε cl
A) Rate = k[acetone][H+]
Equation 3 B) Rate = k[acetone][Br2]2[H+]
C) Rate = k[acetone][Br2][H+]
D) Rate = k[acetone]2[H+]

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31. What is the molarity of pure acetone? 32. Though 395-nm light is in the visible region of
the electromagnetic spectrum, it is very near:
A) 1.36 M
B) 13.6 M A) the radio wave region.
C) 45.9 M B) the microwave region.
D) 73.4 M C) the infrared region.
D) the ultraviolet region.

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Passage VI 34. If a cellular phone is powered by a 12-volt
battery and is transmitting at its maximum
Cellular phones are commonly used by people who power, what current is being used?
are traveling away from home or on business. The
development of these phones combines many recent A) 3 W
innovations in technology. Simply described, B) 3 A
cellular phones behave like two-way radios with the C) 0.25 A
incoming voice data transmitted at one carrier D) 0.05 A
frequency and the outgoing voice data transmitted
at another frequency. This capability to send and 35. If two people were talking on their cellular
receive voice data on these two separate frequency phones within the same "cell" in a city, why
channels allows the person to hear and speak on the wouldn't their transmissions interfere?
phone at the same time. The information in these
channels is transmitted on radio-frequency A) The power transmitted from each phone is not
electromagnetic carrier waves, which travel well high enough to interfere.
through the air. B) The signals are transmitted at the speed of light,
and do not have time to interfere.
Cell-phone channels operate at frequencies ranging C) The physical distance between any two base
between 824 MHz and 894 MHz. Each channel stations limits interference.
requires a finite amount of frequency space, called D) The frequencies used by each phone are chosen
the bandwidth of the channel, and is set at 30 kHz. to be different.
Most cellular phones can transmit their signal with
between 0.6 watts and 3 watts of power. The cell 36. The intensity of a cellular phone transmission
phone scans all of its channels when it is on to find received at the switching station is proportional
the channel with the highest signal intensity. The to the power used by the phone and inversely
phone communicates with a base station, which proportional to the square of the distance
typically covers an area of 10 square miles, called a between phone and station. Which combination
“cell.” A cellular city has many “cells” within it, of power and distance will provide the highest
which have phone base stations to transmit and signal to be picked up by the switching station?
receive cell-phone data. Because the size of a cell
is relatively small, it allows efficient A) 0.6 watts, 2 miles
communication with relatively low power phones. B) 0.6 watts, 3 miles
When a phone moves from cell to cell, its calls are C) 3 watts, 5 miles
handled by a central switching office. D) 3 watts, 4 miles

33. What is the total frequency range available for 37. The 846 MHz carrier wave is an
cellular phone communications? electromagnetic signal, whereas sounds waves
are typically at much lower frequency and are
A) 30 kHz carried through the air as pressure waves.
B) 894 MHz Which statement describes the two waves
C) 70 MHz accurately?
D) 894.03 MHz
A) Electromagnetic waves are transverse; pressure
waves are longitudinal.
B) Electromagnetic waves are longitudinal;
pressure waves are transverse.
C) Waves are always longitudinal and transverse.
D) Electromagnetic wavelengths are longer than
acoustic sound wavelengths.

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Passage VII 38. When switch S is closed to the left, charge
begins to accumulate on the capacitor. Charge
A capacitor is a device that stores charge. The cannot accumulate indefinitely because:
voltage V across a capacitor and the charge q on the
capacitor are related by q = CV, where C is the A) the variable resistor inhibits the current flow.
capacitance measured in farads, F (1.0 F = 1.0 B) the battery continually loses charge.
coulomb per volt). C) successive charges brought to the plates are
repelled by charges accumulated earlier.
A student sets out to measure the capacitance using D) the fixed resistor loses energy to heat.
the circuit of Figure 1.
39. To keep the current constant during the
discharge cycle:
A) the resistance R must be continually increased.
B) the resistance R must be continually decreased.
C) the resistance r must be continually increased.
Figure 1 Circuit for measuring capacitance D) the resistance r must equal R.

In this circuit, the capacitor will be fully charged 40. As the capacitor is charged, the electrical
soon after switch S is closed to the left, as current potential energy that it gains:
passes through the small fixed resistor r in series
with the capacitor C. Then, when S is switched to A) equals the work done by the battery throughout
the right, the capacitor discharges through the the charging process.
variable resistor R. R is adjusted so that the B) is less than the work done by the battery
discharge current, as measured by the ammeter, is throughout the charging process.
constant during the discharge time. C) is greater than the work done by the battery
throughout the charging process.
D) equals the potential energy stored in resistor r.

41. Which circuit elements store energy?


I. Capacitors
II. Resistors
III. Batteries
Figure 2 The discharge current versus time
A) I only
B) I and II only
Figure 2 shows the current-versus-time plot during C) I and III only
the discharge. The voltage of the battery used in the D) II and III only
measurement was 12.0 V. The total charge q
transferred to the capacitor can be estimated from 42. The resistance of the variable resistor, R, at the
the constant current value during the discharge time. beginning of the discharge process is:
A) 2000 Ω.
B) 3000 Ω.
C) 4000 Ω.
D) 6000 Ω.

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Passage VIII The exchange of oxygen-18 between H218O and
SO42- is also more rapid in acid than in neutral
Many reactions of oxyanions (negative ions that solutions of SO42-. A proposed reaction mechanism
contain oxygen) involve the transfer of oxygen for the exchange is shown below.
atoms from one ion or molecule to another.
Sequence I 2 H+ + SO42- H2SO4 (fast)
Sequence II H2SO4 SO3 + H2O (slow)
Reaction 1 shows an oxygen atom transfer that is
Sequence III SO3 + H218O 2 H+ + SO318O2- (fast)
typical of an oxyanion reaction.

NO2- + OCl- NO3- + Cl- Keq = 1068 43. If the rate of formation of Cl- in Reaction 3
were 1.0 x 10-2M/sec at a pH of 1, what would
Reaction 1 it be at a pH of 2? (Note: Assume that other
conditions are identical.)
Despite the favorable equilibrium constant, this
A) 1 x 10-1M/s
reaction is extremely slow. The reaction rate can be
B) 1 x 10-2M/s
increased by adding acid to the reaction solution.
C) 2 x 10-2M/s
When added, acid reacts with OCl-, forming HOCl.
D) 1 x 10-4M/s
HOCl allows the oxygen transfer to take place more
quickly because the hydrogen atom reduces the
charge on the oxygen atom, facilitating the breaking 44. Compared to the rate of Reaction 1, the rate of
of the O-Cl bond. The rate of this reaction, Reaction 2:
Reaction 2, is first order in both NO2- and HOCl.
A) is 1025 times less.
B) is 1025 times greater.
NO2- + HOCl NO3- + Cl- + H+ Keq = 1043
C) is 1.58 times greater.
D) cannot be evaluated without additional
Reaction 2
information.
Other oxyanion reactions also take place more
quickly in acidic solutions. For example, no 45. In addition to the explanation in the passage,
observable reaction occurs between ClO3- and Br- in the rate of Reaction 2 is different from the rate
basic solution, but when an acidic solution is used, of Reaction 1 because the formation of HOCl
Reaction 3 occurs rapidly. by the protonation of the oxygen:

ClO3- + 6 Br- + 6 H+ → Cl- + 3 Br2 + 3 H2O A) reduces the electronic repulsion forces between
the reactants.
Reaction 3 B) increases the electronic repulsion forces between
the reactants.
The rate law for Reaction 3 is k[ClO3-][Br-][H+]2, C) increases the electronic repulsion forces between
and the initial sequences of the reaction mechanism the nitrogen atom and the oxygen atom that is
are shown below. being transferred.
D) reduces the electronic attraction forces between
Sequence I 2 H+ + ClO3- H2OClO2+ (fast) the chlorine atom and the oxygen atom that is
Sequence II Br- + H2OClO2+ BrClO2 + H2O (slow) being transferred.
Sequence III Br- + BrClO2 Br2 + ClO2- (fast)

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46. Which of the following methods would produce 48. Which of the following graphs best shows the
SO318O2- at the fastest rate? energy diagram for the Reaction 3 mechanism
in the passage?
A) Bubbling SO3(g) through H218O
B) Bubbling S18O3(g) through H218O A)
C) Bubbling S18O3(g) through H2O
D) Reacting SO218O(l) with H218O

47. Which of the following figures represents a


likely transition state for Reaction 2?
A)

B)

B)

C)
C)

D)

D)

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These questions are not based on a descriptive 51. Which of the following elements gains one
passage and are independent of each other. electron most readily?

49. Phosphorus appears directly below nitrogen in A) Be


the periodic table. The boiling point of B) Cl
ammonia, NH3, is higher than the boiling point C) K
of phosphine, PH3, under standard conditions. D) Ca
Which of the following statements best
explains the difference in the boiling points of 52. Which of the following substances is NOT a
these two compounds? base?
A) Ammonia is a weaker base than phosphine. A) NH3
B) The N-H bond is weaker than the P-H bond. B) SO42-
C) High molecular weight compounds generally C) NH4+
have lower boiling points. D) Fe(OH)2
D) Ammonia forms stronger intermolecular
hydrogen bonds than phosphine. 53. A ray of light in air is incident upon a glass
plate at an angle of 45o. The angle of refraction
50. A student measures the mass and volume of of the ray in the glass is 30o. What is the index
four objects. of refraction of the glass?

Object Mass(g) Volume(cm3) (Data: sin 30o= 0.500, sin 45o= 0.707,
A 1.5 0.50 sin 60o= 0.866, tan 30o= 0.577,
B 3.0 0.75 tan 45o= 1.000)
C 4.5 1.00
A) 1.22
D 6.0 1.50
B) 1.41
C) 1.57
Which object has the highest density?
D) 1.65
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D

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Passage IX 54. What is the molality of a saturated solution of
Pb(NO3)2(aq) at 0oC?
Generalizations such as “like dissolves like” and
“the solubility of a solute doubles for every ten- A) 0.114 m
degree rise in temperature” are useful in certain B) 0.251 m
situations but are not universally applicable to C) 1.14 m
solution chemistry. Instead, several different D) 3.41 m
relationships describe solution dynamics. Thus,
depending on the problem, a chemist must use 55. To what temperature does a 10.75 m solution of
various concentration units. ethylene glycol protect an engine from
freezing?
For example, molarity (M) is best for most
stoichiometry problems, molality (m) for freezing- A) -5.78oC
point depression problems, mole fraction for B) -12.0oC
Raoult-law problems, and osmolality for osmotic C) -20.0oC
pressure problems. D) -45.0oC

Table 1 gives data for two water soluble solutes, 56. Which aqueous solution, 0.1 M lead nitrate or
ethylene glycol [C2H6O2(ℓ)] and lead nitrate 0.1 M ethylene glycol, lowers the freezing point
[Pb(NO3)2(s)]. of water to a greater extent?
Table 1 Data for Ethylene Glycol and Lead Nitrate A) Pb(NO3)2(aq) by threefold
B) Pb(NO3)2(aq) by twofold
Property C2H6O2 Pb(NO3)2 C) C2H6O2(aq) by twofold
Formula weight 62.1 g/mol 331 g/mol D) C2H6O2(aq) by threefold
Specific gravity 1.116 4.53
Solubility in 57. Does either generalization in the passage apply
water at 0°C at ∞ 37.7 g/100mL to aqueous solutions of ethylene glycol?
20°C ∞ 56.5 g/100mL
A) Yes; both generalizations apply.
Equation 1 shows how osmotic pressure (II) B) No; neither generalization applies.
depends on concentration (M) and Kelvin C) Yes; “like dissolves like” only applies.
temperature (T). D) Yes; “the solubility of a solute doubles for every
ten-degree rise in temperature” only applies.
II = MRT
58. If a cell wall separates a hypertonic, interstitial
Equation 1 fluid from cellular fluid, will there be an
osmotic effect?
Note: R = 0.082 L atm K-1 mol-1, and the molal
freezing-point depression and boiling-point A) Yes; the cell fluid will become less
elevation constants for water are Kf = -1.86°C/m concentrated.
and Kb = 0.52°C/m, respectively. B) Yes; the cell fluid will become more
concentrated.
C) No; osmosis does not apply to biological fluids.
D) No; the concentrations are the same on both
sides of the wall.

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59. What kind of solution results if a chemist 60. What is the mole fraction of lead nitrate in a
equilibrates 39.0 g of lead nitrate in 100 mL of 10% (wt-wt) aqueous solution?
H2O at 0oC over several days?
A) 0.006
A) A saturated solution with 3.9 g of undissolved B) 0.03
salt C) 0.1
B) A saturated solution with 1.3 g of undissolved D) 0.6
salt
C) An unsaturated solution
D) A supersaturated solution

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Passage X 62. Two cars, each of mass 1000 kg traveling at 20
m/s in opposite directions, have a head-on
Cars are subjected to many forces as they move: air inelastic collision. How much heat and
drag, tire-road friction, engine motive force, gravity, deformation energy is produced?
and other factors. Unfortunately, collisions
occasionally occur. During such accidents, a A) 2 x 105 J
(potentially large) fraction of the kinetic energy is B) 4 x 105 J
rapidly and irreversibly converted to thermal energy C) 8 x 105J
and deformation of the car structure. Test crashes D) 16 x 105 J
with dummy drivers and passengers and other
experiments help designers develop safer vehicles. 63. When tires are made of hard rubber, the
coefficients of rolling, sliding, and static
In one test, two 1000-kg cars, A and B, are initially friction with the road are reduced compared
100 m apart. They are traveling on a highway in the with softer rubber. Which of the following
same direction: car A at 30 m/s, car B at 20 m/s predictions would NOT hold if hard rubber
with car B ahead of car A. Eventually they collide. replaced soft rubber in tire manufacture?
In one case the collision is cushioned by a spring
(with constant k = 105 N/m) on the front of car A. A) Stopping distances would increase.
In a second case there is no spring and the body B) Fuel efficiency would be unchanged.
deformation of the two cars absorbs the collision C) Slippage on curves would be more likely.
energy. (Assume g = 10 m/s2 when needed.) D) Higher tire air pressure would be required.

61. Consider the difference in crash deceleration on 64. A spring between colliding cars reduces the
a test dummy in two test cases. average force on the cars because it:

Case I: The dummy hits the steering wheel at A) lengthens collision time.
20 m/s and stops in 0.1 s. B) absorbs kinetic energy loss.
Case II: The dummy hits an air bag at 20 m/s C) absorbs momentum change.
and stops in 0.25 s. D) causes no permanent deformation.

What is the ratio of the average acceleration in 65. How long before test car A overtakes car B?
Case II to that in Case I?
A) 2 s
A) 0.25 B) 3.33 s
B) 0.40 C) 5 s
C) 2.5 D) 10 s
D) 4.0
66. What is the post-collision speed of cars A and
B after the no-spring inelastic collision?
A) 0 m/s
B) 20 m/s
C) 25 m/s
D) 50 m/s

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Passage XI 67. Before the Landers quake, coincidence was
argued as a sufficient explanation for what is
Worldwide, about 20 damaging earthquakes occur now believed to be triggered-quake events. For
daily. A major quake in the Mojave Desert (near these earlier events, which of the following
Landers) in 1992 demonstrated that large quakes does NOT support the coincidence hypothesis?
sometimes trigger distant smaller ones. Of the
many seismographs installed throughout the West in A) The timing of subsequent quakes provided
the 1980s, 14 recorded local quakes after the ambiguous evidence.
Landers event, making coincidence an unlikely B) Generally, the distances to the subsequent
explanation. quakes was excessive.
C) Too few of the subsequent quakes were recorded
The Landers quake produced measurable lasting to establish a clear connection.
deformations over a length L = 74 km. L is called D) Generally, the subsequent quakes were scattered
the source length of the initiating quake. Allied in all directions.
quakes, aftershocks, occur within a distance of 2L
from the primary event. However, triggered quakes 68. What is the ratio of lasting deformations
were as far away as 17L. produced by a quake at 16 L from its center to
those produced at 4 L from its center?
The mechanism of the triggering is a puzzle. It is
useful to categorize seismic waves into two kinds: A) 1/16
deeply propagating body waves, which dissipate B) 1/32
rapidly with distance, and surface waves, which C) 1/64
dissipate at a lesser rate. Lasting deformations from D) 1/128
a quake are produced by the body waves, with
deformation size falling off as (L/d)3, where d is 69. Because earthquakes were triggered by what
distance from the quake center. At d = 4L these ultimately must have been comparatively minor
deformations are generally reduced to less than the energy transfers from the distant Landers
daily periodic distortions due to tidal forces. On the quake, the triggered quakes probably occurred
other hand, surface waves are associated with where:
elastic oscillations in the crust of about 10-s
periodicity and cause little lasting deformation. A) significant local stress forces in the earth’s crust
Some of the time delays between the Landers quake were already in precarious equilibrium.
and those it triggered were too great to be ascribed B) the earth’s crust was subjected to reinforcing
to seismic wave-transit times. resonant effects that cumulatively built up local
stresses.
One explanation of the aftershock trigger C) the earth’s crust locally sustained standing wave
mechanism involves underground fluids, water or nodes for a short but significant period.
molten rock. Fluid seals between isolated volumes D) destructive interference effects in the incoming
of rock at different pressures may leak, thus seismic waves were approximately maximum
increasing transverse frictional forces. Also, fluid for an extended period.
may flow into rock fractures, thus lubricating them.
70. The wavelength of surface waves is about 20
km. The propagation speed of these waves is
estimated as:
A) hundreds of m/s.
B) thousands of m/s.
C) tens of thousands of m/s.
D) hundreds of thousands of m/s.

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71. The primary rupture in the Landers quake
moved from south to north as it progressed to
its full 74-km length. How would the Doppler
effect influence this?
A) By decreasing the wavelength of seismic waves
propagating eastward and westward
B) By increasing the wavelength of seismic waves
propagating eastward and westward
C) By decreasing the wavelength of seismic waves
moving northward and increasing the
wavelength of waves moving southward
D) By increasing the wavelength of seismic waves
moving northward and decreasing the
wavelength of waves moving southward

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These questions are not based on a descriptive 75. A ray of light in air strikes the flat surface of a
passage and are independent of each other. liquid, resulting in a reflected ray and a
refracted ray. If the angle of reflection is
known, what additional information is needed
72. What is the difference in pressure between two in order to determine the relative refractive
points that are separated by a vertical distance index of the liquid compared to air?
of 0.25 m in a tank of water? (Note: The
density of water is 1,000 kg/m3, and g = 10 A) Angle of incidence
m/s2.) B) Angle of refraction
C) Refractive index of air
A) 250 N/m2 D) Wavelength of the light
B) 400 N/m2
C) 2,500 N/m2 76. Approximately how many moles of Al3+ are
D) 4,000 N/m2 reduced when 0.1 faraday of charge passes
through a cell during the production of Al?
73. The following reaction occurs spontaneously. (Note: Assume there is excess Al3+ available
and that Al3+ is reduced to Al metal only.)
Cd(s) + 2 H+(aq) → Cd2+(aq) + H2(g)
A) 0.033 mol
Which of the following has the highest electron B) 0.050 mol
affinity? C) 0.067 mol
D) 0.10 mol
A) Cd(s)
B) H+(aq) 77. When a weak acid (HA) is titrated with sodium
C) Cd2+(aq) hydroxide in the presence of an indicator (HIn),
D) H2(g) the pH at which a color change is observed
depends on the:
74. The energy, E, of a hydrogen atom with its A) final concentration of HA.
electron in the nth shell of a hydrogen atom is B) final concentration of HIn.
given by E = -C/n2 where n = 1,2,3, . . . and C C) initial concentration of HA.
is a positive constant. If an electron goes from D) pKa of HIn.
the n = 2 shell to the n = 3 shell:
A) a photon is emitted.
B) an electron is emitted.
C) an electron is absorbed.
D) the energy of the atom is increased.

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Verbal Reasoning
Time: 85 minutes
Questions: 78-137

There are nine passages in the complete Verbal Reasoning test. Each passage is followed by several questions.
After reading a passage, select the one best answer to each question. If you are not certain of an answer,
eliminate the alternatives that you know to be incorrect and then select an answer from the remaining
alternatives. Indicate your selected answer by marking the corresponding answer on your answer sheet.

This document has been encoded to link this download to your member account. The AAMC and its Section
for the MCAT hold the copyrights to the content of this Practice Test. Therefore, there can be no sharing or
reproduction of materials from the Practice Test in any form (electronic, voice, or other means). If there are
any questions about the use of the material in the Practice Test, please contact the MCAT Information Line
(202-828-0690)
Passage I This speed on the uptake appears to be the chief
advantage that cultural adaptation has over genetic.
Students of evolution have shown that species When human beings encounter new circumstances,
death, or extinction, is going on all the time and that adaptation rarely depends on which individuals are
it is an essential feature of life history. What alarms genetically best suited to adjust, passing on their
so many life historians is not that extinctions are abilities more successfully than others and
occurring but that they appear to be occurring at a producing subsequent generations better adapted to
greater rate than they have at all but a few times in the new order. No, human beings tend to cut the
the past, raising the specter of the sort of wholesale loop short by noticing the new, puzzling over it,
die-offs that ended the reign of the dinosaurs. A telling their friends, and attempting to find out
new word has been coined to define the value most immediately whether it is edible, combustible,
threatened by these overheated rates: biodiversity. domesticable, or whatever.

Since extinction is a particularly final and I am concerned with an image of our species as a
comprehensive form of death, species preservation vast, featureless mob of Yahoos mindlessly
and its corollary, habitat protection, are now seen as trampling this planet’s most ancient and delicate
the most important means available to stem the harmonies. This image is not a completely
erosion of biodiversity, but I wonder if these ideas, inaccurate description of present conditions in some
which emphasize diversity at the species level, give parts of the world, but it portrays the human
an adequate picture of recent biological history. If presence as a sort of monolithic disaster, when in
we believe that all life shares a certain quality of fact Homo sapiens is the crown of creation. Change
sensitivity, or self-awareness, then Homo sapiens is one of the most reliable constants of this story.
was an astonishing and wholly unpredictable leap To say that the changes we have brought, and will
forward in this respect, because human beings continue to bring, are somehow alien to the world
manifested an idea of personhood never before and are within a half inch of making its “natural”
achieved. continuance impossible displays some contempt for
the forces at work.
Consciousness. Mind. Insight. Here are qualities
that, if not exclusively human, seem appallingly Today, many believe that these changes are often
rudimentary elsewhere. Plainly, our planet for the worse. We look back with longing to a time
contained vast opportunities for creatures willing to at which the human presence barely dimpled the
shape it consciously toward their ends. The way landscape. I’m not persuaded by this picture. I can
was clear; we know of no other species that has easily imagine arguments that would have required
divined what we’ve been up to or has a mind to the interior of North America to remain empty of
object. What seems simple to us is far beyond cities⎯and yet I don’t think this continent is a
them; it’s almost as if we move so fast that we are poorer place now than it was twenty thousand years
invisible, and they are still trying to pretend that the ago. The more convinced we are that our species is
world is the same as it was before we arrived. a plague, the more we are obliged to yearn for
disasters.

Material used in this test passage has been adapted from


the following source:
T. Palmer, The case for human beings. ©1992 by T. Palmer.

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78. Which of the following statements best 82. According to the author, how do many life
summarizes the central thesis of the passage? historians support their contention that we risk
destroying species?
A) Biodiversity is essential for human survival.
B) Cultural adaptation and genetic adaptation are A) They assert that extinctions are occurring at a
separate forms of evolution. rapidly accelerated rate.
C) Changes brought on by human judgment are B) They maintain that extinctions are brought about
natural. only by human intervention.
D) Extinction is inevitable. C) They cite examples of extinct species.
D) They point to similarities between humans and
79. Assume that a new species is discovered and dinosaurs.
found to have a capacity for reasoned judgment
greater than that of human beings. The author 83. Which of the following processes would the
would be most likely to argue that: author be most likely to characterize as
“cultural adaptation”?
A) the new species will be highly adaptable.
B) adaptation is taking place at a faster rate than A) Getting to know people from different cultures
scientists had previously thought. B) Moving around to many different regions of the
C) biological classifications should be altered. world
D) decreasing biodiversity will destroy the C) Reasoning and problem solving to change a
environment. situation
D) Moving to a culture that one finds suitable
80. The author apparently believes that the
increasing rate of extinction: 84. The author is concerned that a failure to
recognize the value of human potential to bring
A) will decrease naturally. about change will cause:
B) should be halted.
C) has nothing to do with human activity. A) inattention to the selfish motives underlying
D) is not a reason for panic. human behavior.
B) an overly optimistic picture of the fate of the
81. Suppose that a conference is held on issues universe.
relevant to the transformation of Mars into a C) an underestimation of the value of other species.
habitable planet. Which of the following topics D) a self-fulfilling prophecy that guarantees
is the author most likely to present? disaster.

A) The importance of preserving native habitats on


Mars
B) The importance of farming species likely to
survive on Mars
C) The role of human inventiveness in ensuring
survival on Mars
D) Reasons that biodiversity is irrelevant on Mars

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Passage II In every instance before Cézanne, in order to solve
such problems the artist brought in extra-visual
There is no doubt that what we call the modern faculties⎯imagination, which enabled the artist to
movement in art begins with the single-minded transform the objects of the visible world and thus
determination of a French painter to see the world to create an ideal space occupied by ideal forms; or
objectively. There need be no mystery about this intellect, which enabled the artist to construct a
word: what Cézanne wished to see was the world, scientific chart, a perspective, in which the object
or that part of it he was contemplating, as an object, could be given an exact situation. But a system of
without any intervention either of the tidy mind or perspective is no more an accurate representation of
the untidy emotions. His immediate predecessors, what the eye sees than a Mercator’s projection is
the Impressionists, had seen the world what the world looks like from Sirius. Like the
subjectively⎯that is to say, as it presented itself to map, it serves to guide the intellect; perspective
their senses in various lights, or from various points does not give us any glimpse of the reality.
of view. Each occasion made a different and
distinct impression on their senses, and for each One might conclude from the history of art that
occasion there must necessarily be a separate work reality in this sense is a will-o’-the-wisp, an
of art. But Cézanne wished to exclude this actuality we can see but never grasp. Nature, as we
shimmering and ambiguous surface of things and say, is one thing, art quite another. But Cézanne,
penetrate to the reality that did not change, that was though he was familiar with the “art of the
present beneath the bright but deceptive picture museums” and respected the attempts of his
presented by the kaleidoscope of the senses. predecessors to come to terms with nature, did not
despair of succeeding where they had failed⎯that is
Great revolutionary leaders are people with a single to say, in “realizing” his sensations in the presence
and a simple idea, and it is the very persistency with of nature.
which they pursue this idea that endows it with
power. But let us ask why, in the long history of Material used in this test passage has been adapted from
art, it had never previously happened that an artist the following source:
H. Read, A Concise History of Modern Painting. ©1968 by
should wish to see the world objectively. We know, The Herbert Read Discretionary Trust.
for example, that at various stages in the history of
art there have been attempts to make art “imitative”;
and not only Greek and Roman art, but the
Renaissance of Classical art in Europe, were periods
of art possessed by a desire to represent the world
“as it really is.” But there always intervened
between the visual event and the act of realizing the
vision an activity which we can only call
interpretative. This intervention seemed to be made
necessary by the very nature of perception, which
does not present to the senses a flat two-
dimensional picture with precise boundaries but a
central focus with a periphery of vaguely
apprehended and seemingly distorted objects. The
artist might focus on a single object, say a human
figure or even a human face; but even then there
were problems such as that of representing the
solidity of the object, its place in space.

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85. Information in the passage suggests that the 89. The author’s suggestion that reality in art
author probably believes that the act of before Cézanne had been a “will-o’-the-wisp”
interpretation: can most reasonably be interpreted to mean that
artists before Cézanne had not:
A) allows the artist to view the world more
objectively. A) attempted to imitate reality faithfully.
B) is an almost unavoidable component of the act of B) agreed about the value of Impressionism.
seeing. C) been able to perceive reality.
C) was first popularized by Cézanne. D) found a way to depict reality effectively.
D) became the dominant force in art many years
after Cézanne. 90. The author’s assertion that Greek, Roman, and
Renaissance art tried to represent the world
86. Which of the following statements best accurately is:
summarizes the central thesis of the passage?
A) illustrated in the passage by examples of specific
A) For the Impressionists, each sensory occasion works of art.
required a separate work of art. B) not supported by evidence in the passage.
B) The use of perspective prevents artists from C) supported in the passage by a discussion of the
effectively interpreting reality. nature of perception.
C) Cézanne tried to solve the problem of D) contradicted by evidence later in the passage.
interpretation by attempting to view the world
objectively. 91. It can most reasonably be concluded from the
D) Before Cézanne, many periods of art reflected a passage that Cézanne’s work exerted a
desire to represent the world “as it really is.” powerful influence because Cézanne:

87. According to the passage, a revolutionary, at A) pursued the concept of objectivity with
least in part, is a person who: persistence.
B) brought extra-visual faculties into his work.
A) promotes a single, simple idea. C) expanded the concept of interpretation.
B) pursues interpretation in art. D) painted scenes as they were presented to his
C) pursues realism in art. senses.
D) observes the distinction between nature and art.
92. If it were discovered that Cézanne learned the
88. In the context of the passage, to view an object concept of objective painting from another
“subjectively” is to view it: artist, this finding would challenge the
contention that Cézanne:
A) without intervention by the intellect or the
emotions. A) pursued goals similar to those of Greek and
B) differently depending on when and how it is Roman art.
viewed. B) was the founder of the modern movement in art.
C) within the framework of an ideal space. C) respected the attempts of his predecessors to
D) in the presence of nature. come to terms with nature.
D) was familiar with “the art of the museums.”

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93. The author’s opinion that artists before 94. The author’s comparison of a system of
Cézanne could not avoid interpretation is perspective to a map is most likely intended to
supported in the passage by: show that:
A) an analysis of some famous Renaissance A) maps are more accurate than even the most
paintings. realistic artistic depictions of the world.
B) a discussion of Cézanne’s rejection of B) systems of perspective have grown more
interpretation. sophisticated over the years, while mapmaking
C) a description of extra-visual faculties used by has not.
artists. C) both afford a clearer view of the reality beneath
D) an explanation of Cézanne’s working methods. everyday objects.
D) both are intellectual methods of perceiving the
world.

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Passage III There are other summons, some even more
mysterious than the survival journeys of birds and
When I saw it first, it was a green and sleeping bud, insects. Once a century, among their canopy of
raising itself toward the sun. Ants gathered aphids sunlit green, all bamboo plants of a certain kind
and sap around the unopened bloom. A few days flower on the same day. Not the plants’ location, in
later, it was a tender young flower with a pale green a steamy Malaysian jungle or a suburban garden in
center, a troop of silver-gray insects climbing up Pennsylvania, their age, nor their size matter. Some
and down its stalk. Over the summer this sunflower current we cannot explain passes through this
became incredibly beautiful, subtly turning its face primitive life. Each with a share of communal
daily, always toward the sun, its black center alive knowledge, all are somehow one plant.
with a deep blue light, as if flint had sparked an
elemental fire there, in community with rain, Sometimes you can hear the language of the
mineral, mountain air, and sand. earth⎯in water, trees, emanating from mosses,
seeping through the soil. Once, in the redwood
As summer changed from green to yellow, new forest, I felt something like a heartbeat, a hardly
visitors came daily: lace-winged flies, bees with perceptible current that stirred a kinship and longing
legs fat with pollen, grasshoppers with clattering in me, a dream barely remembered. Once, on a
wings and desperate hunger, and other lives too calm beach, I heard an ocean storm booming from
small or hidden for me to see. This plant was a afar, revealing the disturbance at its center, telling
society undergoing constant change, great and about the rough water that would arrive.
diverse, depending on light and moisture.
Tonight I watch the sky, thinking of the people who
Changes also occurred in the greater world of the came before me and their knowledge of the
plant. One day, rounding a bend in the road, I placement of stars, people who watched the sun
encountered the disturbing sight of a dead horse, long and carefully enough to witness the angle of
black against a hillside, eyes rolled back. Another light that touched a stone just once a year. Without
day I was nearly lifted by a sandstorm so fierce and written records, they registered the passage of the
hot that I had to wait for it to pass before I could gods of night, noting fine details of the world
return home. It swept away the faded dried petals around them and the immensity above them.
of the sunflower. Then the birds arrived to carry the Whichever road I follow, I walk in the land of many
seeds to the future. gods. Behind me, my ancestors say “Be still.
Watch and listen. You are the result of the love of
In one plant in one season a drama of need and thousands.”
survival was enacted. Hungers were filled; insects
coupled; there was escape, exhaustion, and death. Material used in this test passage has been adapted from
An outsider, I never learned the sunflower’s golden the following source:
L. Hogan, Dwellings: A Spiritual History of the Living World.
language. An old voice from gene or cell taught the ©1995 by L. Hogan.
plant to oppose the pull of gravity and find its way
upward, to open. A certain knowing⎯instinct,
intuition, necessity⎯directed the seed-bearing birds
to ancestral homelands they had never seen.

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95. The author seems to be trying to understand: 98. Which of the following ideas about humans is
clearly NOT assumed in the passage?
A) the beliefs of primitive peoples from the
perspective of an anthropologist. A) Humans lack the sensory means to detect some
B) the interactive balance among species from the intraspecies messages.
perspective of an ecologist. B) Humans have always attempted to understand
C) the orderly recurrence of natural forces from the natural occurrences.
perspective of a poet. C) Humans are capable of existing in harmony with
D) the genetic regulation of behavior from the other species.
perspective of a biologist. D) Humans will eventually satisfy their curiosity
about nature.
96. According to the author’s account, the
regularity of biological cycles indicates: 99. The passage account suggests that the
environmental effect of human land use is that
A) a response to the competition for resources native plants and animals:
among similar species.
B) a special mode of communication among the A) become dependent for survival on human
members of each species. intervention.
C) the adaptation of each species to a unique niche B) continue to thrive in their symbiotic interaction.
in its habitat. C) suffer from disruption of the ecological balance.
D) an inherent sensitivity to particular D) are replaced by artificially introduced species.
environmental changes.
100. The discussion suggests that the author
97. One can infer from the passage that for the considers the appropriate relationship of
author, the horse and the sandstorm both: humans to other animals to be that of:
A) present mysteries beyond human A) benefactor to recipient.
comprehension. B) scientist to subject.
B) are aspects of the world that mar its beauty. C) student to teacher.
C) indicate the cruel indifference of nature. D) parent to child.
D) have necessary roles in a perpetual drama.
101. What is meant by “a hardly perceptible
current”?
A) A sense of unity with the forces that produce life
B) A low-frequency sound wave transmitted
underground
C) A personal message from a supernatural source
D) An urge to contact others of one’s species

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Passage IV In Schöenberg’s twelve-tone system, all the tone
relations that govern a given musical context are
Atonality originates in an attempt to liberate the referable to a specific linear ordering of the twelve
twelve notes of the chromatic scale from the notes of the semitonal scale. Neither register,
diatonic functional associations they still retain in duration, timbre, or intensity⎯in other words, no
“chromatic” music⎯to dissociate, so to speak, the attribute other than that represented by the pitch-
chromatic scale from “chromaticism.” The class name of what is informally called a note⎯is
expanded harmonic vocabulary of late nineteenth- defined by this referential permutation of the
century music had extended the range of tonal semitonal scale, a permutation denoted by the term
relationships to the point at which the traditional row, series, or set. An unambiguous ordering is
articulative procedures were no longer adequate. assumed; but the degree to which this ordering
The final step in this development was taken by actually determines the general musical procedures
Arnold Schöenberg in a radical stylistic departure varies greatly from one work to another, even
based upon a rejection of any general principles though they may be by the same composer. The
regulating simultaneity and progression. In the total musical texture inevitably entails intervallic
compositions Schöenberg wrote between 1908 and relations not directly specified by the set, and even
1923, the period of “free” atonality, he disclosed on a purely linear plane deviations occur. Yet the
that this ultimate expansion of possible relations to premise of an ordered arrangement of the twelve
include the whole range of combinations contained notes, if it is to have any meaning, must somehow
in the semitonal scale demands a revaluation of govern the essential musical events in a consistent
every aspect of the musical language. and logical manner, in spite of ambiguities and
licenses.
The composer working within the diatonic tonal
system may take for granted the existence of Material used in this test passage has been adapted from
specific properties of that system: a seven-tone the following source:
G. Perle, Serial Composition and Atonality: An Introduction
scale, triadic harmonic structure, a key center, and to the Music of Schöenberg, Berg, and Webern. ©1962 by the
so forth. The atonal composer, however, can take Regents of the University of California.
for granted nothing except the existence of a given
limiting sound world, the semitonal scale. Aside
from this assumption, it is impossible to state the
fundamental conditions of atonality in general,
except in a negative way, merely stipulating the
absence of a priori functional connections among
the twelve notes of the semitonal scale. Musical
coherence requires additional limiting factors, but
these are not reducible to a set of foundational
assumptions in terms of which the compositions
that are collectively designated by the expression
“atonal music” can be said to represent a “system”
of composition.

In 1923, Schöenberg published his first composition


employing the “method of composing with twelve
notes.” This “method” soon proved to have some
general relevance to the special problems of atonal
composition. It is consistent with both the positive
and negative premises of atonality, affirming the
availability of twelve notes while denying a priori
functional precedence to any one of them.

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102. That Schöenberg rejected “general principles 105. The second paragraph of the passage suggests
regulating simultaneity and progression” that atonal compositions:
means that he rejected:
A) sound as harmonious as traditional
A) chaotic chord progressions. compositions.
B) a broadened range of tonal relationships. B) have structures that may not be readily apparent
C) the chromatic scale. to listeners.
D) the standard system of movement from certain C) are based on the seven-tone scale.
tonalities to other prescribed tonalities. D) assign functional precedence to certain notes.

103. The comparison of the diatonic system of 106. It can most reasonably be inferred from the
composition to atonal composition in the last paragraph that:
second paragraph suggests that:
A) the ordering principles of atonal compositions
A) there are fixed rules for atonal composition. are determined by composers, not by any
B) the properties of the diatonic system change fundamental relationship between notes.
from composition to composition. B) there is no logic to the way that notes in atonal
C) diatonic pieces follow certain guidelines compositions are ordered.
adhering to preconceived concepts of musical C) the working methods of twelve-tone composers
organization. are usually consistent from one composition to
D) atonal composition is based on a seven-tone the next.
scale. D) atonal compositions contain strict guidelines
about the duration and intensity of each note.
104. According to the passage, the twelve-tone
scale rejects systems based largely on
traditional relationships between notes. One
can most reasonably conclude from this that:
A) diatonic musical scales are conventions that
composers may accept or reject.
B) the traditional scale is needlessly repetitive.
C) traditional and twelve-tone systems are more
similar than different.
D) twelve-tone composers have not been able to
equal the quality of traditional compositions.

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Passage V product, high-road firms integrate quality standards
in their automated production process, encouraging
Both employers and workers are challenged by workers at all stages of their operation to
technological innovations, international trade, demonstrate expertise and responsibility.
deregulation, and changes in the nature and
structure of work. Their responses to these High-performance work systems are most
challenges indicate their choice of three roads to the successful when training and work reforms are
new economy. The low road follows the historic bundled. Similarly, workers find that their general
path of mass production, emphasizing downsizing, education, occupational preparation, and access to
outsourcing, and low-skill employees as ways to cut training on the job are complementary in their effect
labor costs. Eventually, this approach, if the norm, on earnings. Workers who receive formal company
must limit a nation's economic competitiveness, training command higher wages than do similar
living standard, and income equity. workers who attend only vocational school or
receive informal on-the-job instruction. Workers
The high road acknowledges the growing value of who use computers on the job also earn more than
investment in highly skilled employees who can do those of the same education level who do not use
react quickly to changing technologies and markets. computers at work. Moreover, the earning
It presupposes shared power and long-term goals. difference increases with the level of technological
Only dominant firms can afford to commit competence.
resources to training and keeping employees by
providing full benefits with high wages. Such firms For the United States to compete in an eventual
tend to be protected from domestic or international global economy based on skilled workers and
competitors by technological advantages, large- quality products, additional employer investment in
scale production, or government regulations. training is needed now. Policies at all levels should
Currently, high-road firms account for perhaps 20 encourage the coordination of employer-provided
percent of employees in the United States. training and broader schooling. Such policies will
realize the highest returns in terms of personal
About 40 percent of U.S. workers receive no formal income, adaptation to an increasingly volatile labor
training beyond a high-school education. They must market, and efficiency in the transmission of
submit to the contingencies of low-road changing skill requirements from workplaces to
employment, remaining at the periphery of the new schools. Although for a particular job, employer-
economy. The remaining 40 percent of the based training or vocational preparation can
workforce slog along the muddy middle road, substitute for generalized schooling, specific
getting some advanced education or job-related training degrades rapidly, and narrow skills seldom
training but unlikely to enter the dynamic high-road transfer well to new job requirements.
labor market and attract employers who would train
them thoroughly to join their core workers. But although high-wage, high-skill jobs create a
demand for education and training, training does not
The high road is not an easy course for employers to create high-wage jobs. Ultimately, a strategy of
take. Today's global customers and suppliers are investment in human capital succeeds or flounders
linked by a web of standards that affect not only according to the availability of high-wage, high-
prices but extend to the quality and variety of skill jobs. If investment in workers outpaces the
products, company organization, customer service number of good jobs, many very competent workers
and its timeliness, and constant innovations. will face an employment market of many very
Employers who meet these complex requirements undemanding jobs.
use computer-based methods, which raise the level
of skill needed by nonsupervisory personnel. For Material used in this test passage has been adapted from
example, instead of checking the quality of the final the following source:
F. Fitzgerald, Cities on a Hill. ©1986 by F. Fitzgerald.

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107. The author is apparently concerned that 110. The author can best be viewed as an advocate
adherence to a policy referred to as "the low of:
road" will reduce the competitiveness of:
A) the repeal of regulations that protect dominant
A) firms involved in international trade. firms.
B) the United States in particular. B) an increase in spending on the training of
C) technology-based economies. employees.
D) the less-developed nations. C) an emphasis on high school vocational
education.
108. A recently founded small firm that follows the D) the use of computers in industrial production.
high road described in the passage is
considering selling stock shares to the public. 111. Which of the following situations is most
The author would probably advise against this likely to constitute a muddy road, as the
step because: author uses the term?
A) investors have no reason to care about the A) Being trained in a skill that qualifies one for
quality of the firm's products. only a particular job
B) investors are likely to doubt the wisdom of the B) Switching to unfamiliar procedures because of
firm's personnel policies. technological changes
C) the firm is unlikely to produce the quick profits C) Returning to college to upgrade one's
that investors want. professional qualifications
D) the firm is unlikely to attain a competitive status D) Being chronically unemployed because of an
in the market. inadequate education

109. Which of the following findings is most 112. An employer reasons: "If I train my workers,
clearly contrary to the reported influence of competitors who save money by not providing
the use of computers in the workplace? training will be able to attract my trained
workers with higher salaries than I can pay."
A) Office workers can follow computer-generated What possible solution for this employer
schedules with less training than they need to would most accord with the author's high
devise their own schedules. road?
B) Executives who correspond with customers by
letter generate more business than those who A) Support regulatory policies that penalize firms
rely on E-mail alone. for failing to train workers.
C) Workers using nonautomated production B) Train workers who agree to repay the tuition if
processes are more efficient than workers on they leave within a set time.
automated assembly lines. C) Concentrate on recruiting workers who have
D) Mechanics who use computerized diagnostic been trained by other firms.
methods earn less than mechanics who use D) Cut costs elsewhere to match the higher wages
traditional methods. paid by competitors.

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113. Which of the following practices is most apt
to promote the outcome attributed to increased 115. The author asserts that to compete later,
worker involvement in the production employers should invest in training now and
process? also that training does not create high-wage
jobs. Together, these assertions imply that:
A) The workers' use of a computer bulletin board to
share tips on quality control A) investment in training keeps costs low by
B) Close monitoring of the productivity of workers providing a large pool of skilled workers.
by their immediate supervisors B) in highly paid work, on-the-job training
C) The democratic participation of workers in the compensates for educational deficiencies.
hiring of potential co-workers C) training is not effective unless it is supplemented
D) A profit-sharing program that rewards workers by a comprehensive education.
for company successes D) some highly trained workers may not benefit
financially from their training.
114. Former low-level employees who secure
managerial positions in their company get 116. The author sets the proportion of the U.S.
more sophisticated equipment and more work- work force in the high-, middle-, and low-road
related training than they had before. What sectors at 20, 40, and 40 percent, respectively.
relationship to information provided in the Another authority states that more than 50
passage does this fact most plausibly suggest? percent of U.S. firms use the low-road
strategy. What is the most reasonable
A) It supports the conclusion that occupational conclusion from these figures?
preparation and access to training are
complementary. A) Low-road firms are especially likely to fail.
B) It opposes the assertion that power is shared in B) Low-road firms are especially likely to hire
firms committed to the training of employees. workers.
C) It exemplifies the inequities that exist in firms C) Businesses with few workers are especially
that are unable to follow the high road. likely to be low-road firms.
D) It helps to explain the increasing disparity in D) Businesses with branches outside the U.S. are
earnings between management and workers. unlikely to be low-road firms.

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Passage VI of such grand schemes, but by that time there were,
according to one estimate, sixty-nine retirement
The residents of Sun City, Leisure World, and villages, many with over ten thousand inhabitants.
retirement communities across the United States Mobile-home parks for the elderly also proliferated
live on a frontier⎯not a geographical but a during this period along with other forms of age-
chronological frontier. Old age is hardly new, but dedicated housing, from retirement hotels to luxury
for an entire generation to reach old age with its condominiums. The most original of these
membership almost intact is new. Until relatively innovations was the “life-care facility,” which
recently, death had no more relation to old age than offered small private living quarters, maid service,
to any other period of life⎯in fact, it had less. nursing care, and meals, as well as nursing-home
care when necessary.
A quarter of the people born in seventeenth-century
France died during their first year, another quarter Gerontologists struggling to create a taxonomy for
died before the age of twenty, and a third quarter these new forms of housing estimate that 5 percent
died by age forty-five; only 10 percent reached of Americans over sixty-five now live in explicitly
sixty. From the seventeenth century to the age-segregated facilities and another unknown but
nineteenth, the percentage of the French population significant percentage live in neighborhoods that are
over sixty remained constant at 8.8 percent. more or less age segregated. These locales are not
just places in which the elderly happen to find each
In the last hundred years, the demographics of other, as they do in certain rural enclaves and inner-
mortality have changed more than in the six city neighborhoods after everyone else has left.
previous centuries. In 1900, the average life They are not only deliberate creations⎯places to
expectancy for U.S. children was 47.3 years. In which retired persons have moved by choice⎯but
1980, it was 73.6 years. This startling increase was most of them have now evolved from mere
due mainly to success in reducing infant, childhood, developers’ tracts into communities with traditions
and maternal mortality. In addition⎯also because of their own.
of medical advances⎯longevity increased. In
1900, white males of sixty could expect 14.4 more The construction of retirement villages initiated a
years of life. In 1978, they could expect to live 17.2 great debate among gerontologists. In the 60s,
more years. As a result of these and other changes, opinion was generally against this innovation. City
the number of Americans over sixty-five increased planners and journalists joined the professionals in
both absolutely and relative to the entire attacking communities for retirees as ghettos for
population. In 1900, 4 percent of the population marginalized, alienated people or as playgrounds
was over sixty-five. In 1980, 25.5 million that trivialized the aged. But after visiting the
Americans, or 11.3 percent, were in this age group. residents of these villages with scientific sampling
methods and attitudinal charts, many gerontologists
Before World War II, there were no age-segregated concluded that the elderly found in their segregated
communities and there was no such concept as lives the advantages overtly and subliminally
“retirement living.” In the early 60s, when credit advertised in the real-estate brochures.
and housing materials were relatively cheap,
developers began to construct complete towns for Material used in this test passage has been adapted from
the following source:
the retired. Lured by glossy advertisements R. Barthes, The death of the author, ©1972 by Basic Books.
depicting a life of warm friendships and endless
pleasures, many retirees welcomed these complexes
as a new adventure. In the mid-70s, while housing
costs doubled and trebled, the developers grew leery

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117. A resident of seventeenth-century France who 120. What is the author’s probable reason for
died at age forty began having children at age prefacing the discussion of a twentieth-century
twenty. What percentage of the children U.S. phenomenon with information about the
would be expected to die before this parent? demographics of seventeenth-century France?
A) 10 percent A) To clarify the relationship between life
B) 25 percent expectancy and the decision to change
C) 50 percent residences in old age
D) 75 percent B) To counter the prevalent belief that demographic
changes have been unique to the U.S. culture
118. The assertion that death had less relation to C) To support the argument that the current rate of
old age than to other periods of life most survival into old age is unprecedented
clearly suggests that: D) To show the historical antecedents of the
ongoing trend toward increased longevity
A) the increase in life expectancy has more to do
with health in early life than in late life. 121. According to the passage, an American born
B) people in pre-industrial cultures felt less in 1980 could expect to live 26.3 years longer
attachment to their infants than people do now. than one born in 1900. Yet a white male of
C) people today are more concerned with long-term sixty could expect to live only 2.8 years longer
planning than were earlier generations. in 1978 than in 1900. The difference in these
D) the elderly are less respected than in the past expectancies can be explained as:
because longevity is commonplace.
A) the cumulative effect of the growing number of
119. New arrivals at one retirement community elderly.
were told by its director: “You are like B) evidence that geriatric care has improved since
pilgrims crossing the ocean to take up a new 1978.
life.” This simile implicitly supports the C) a result of the longer lifespan of women than of
author’s assumption that those moving to men.
retirement communities feel: D) the difference between longevity and life
expectancy.
A) ambivalence about the wisdom of breaking with
the past.
B) satisfaction at becoming independent of their
families.
C) relief at leaving situations that had become
difficult.
D) optimism about being among those with similar
goals.

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Passage VII Piaget and Gesell, although from different schools
of thought, also had direct experience with children
No matter how noble the effort, the burden of proof in an educational setting, and both contributed
always lies with the reformer. Many empirically profoundly useful principles to the field of
sound proposals to increase the effectiveness of education. Yet the conclusions of both about the
elementary schools in the United States have been need to consider developmental level are opposed
dismissed with the response, “If it is so necessary, by advocates of Generalized School Readiness.
why has the need not been recognized before?” To
counter this response, a reformer should make clear One must wonder about the experience these self-
that a problem has been identified. proclaimed experts have had with children. Their
description of a child learning to draw, for example,
If the condition addressed has not been completely assumes a struggle from stage to stage. Most
and clearly established as a problem, those modern observers of children think that if a task is
concerned should ensure that it is accurately developmentally appropriate and has personal
measured. The appropriate instrument for meaning for a child, it is approached as a pleasing
measuring educational effectiveness is a test noted challenge, not a struggle.
for its reliability and validity. If the researchers
believe that no existing test is adequate, they should In the literature promoting their approach, the
develop their own test. Since the burden of proof advocates of generalized readiness are clearly
for their methods is then focused on their directing their appeal to school administrators.
instrument, sincere reformers will be very serious Parents who do not understand their “readiness”
about establishing its credentials. concept are dismissed as “uncaring.” Teachers who
question it are described as “uninitiated,” in the
When a proposed intervention is not justified in the sense that someday they will accept it. Yet this
most minimal fashion, the public has to wonder literature expresses no doubt that the administrators
why not. It is thus reasonable to be suspicious of will cooperate with them in ensuring that their
the promoters of the Generalized School Readiness viewpoint prevails. An administrator wise enough
Program. What is their motivation? Are they to adopt the readiness program is promised higher
agents of an unfriendly power bent on “dumbing percentages on standardized tests and more content
down” U.S. education? Are educational teachers.
entrepreneurs trying cynically to profit from the
general dissatisfaction with the nation’s schools? With comparative data on the results of alternative
approaches as ambiguous as they are in the U.S., the
Such speculations may appear to border on the odds favor acceptance by a school system of a
absurd; however, stranger motivations have been poorly researched but slickly presented program.
discovered. It is more useful, however, to assume Readiness, although a confused approach, is easily
that the promoters, wishing to keep their business implemented because its promoters are positioned
financially solvent, have opted not to address to move immediately. Developmentally
school-based problems from the viewpoint of appropriate instruction, which parents are likely to
children, or parents, or even teachers. They are judge the more reasonable approach, appears to be
merely following the usual practice at the hard to sell to decision makers concerned with
professional level of education of treating learning uniformity. In the long run, however, it is the
as an abstraction that has little to do with the forgotten parents and the children themselves who
learner. This outlook is one that Jean Piaget, John will pay for the short-sighted ambition of this
Dewey, and A. L. Gesell⎯theoreticians with policy.
empirical evidence about children’s intellectual
development⎯all worked to counter. Material used in this test passage has been adapted from
the following source:
R. Brogan, Generalized school readiness. ©1962 by
Psychological Foundations of Education.

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122. The author apparently considers a theory of 125. One can infer from the passage that teaching
education that “has little to do with the in the Generalized School Readiness Program
learner”: is to developmentally appropriate teaching as:
A) practical but unethical. A) breaking farmland with a hand plow is to
B) ethical but not generally accepted. preparing the fields by riding on a mechanized
C) generally accepted but ineffective. cultivator.
D) effective but impractical. B) sending a yearly form letter to one’s
acquaintances is to sending personal notes to
123. The author argues that the reason for the one’s friends.
approach taken by promoters of the C) casting a line into a lake with a fishing rod is to
Generalized School Readiness Program is fishing with a net behind a boat.
their wish: D) preparing a variety of dishes in a restaurant is to
cooking a family meal at home.
A) to control the education of U.S. consumers.
B) to defraud the schools of a great deal of money. 126. The performance of high-school students on
C) to promote the success of a corporate sponsor. an examination noted for its reliability and
D) to win the support of school administrators. validity is used to predict their success in
college. The author’s views on such tests
124. The most reasonable inference from passage suggests that its scores could also be used to
statements is that administrators are relatively evaluate:
reluctant to institute developmentally
appropriate instruction because: A) the usefulness of high-school curricula.
B) the honesty of the grading in high schools.
A) it is favored by parents and therefore represents C) the appropriateness of the testing principles.
the views of those with little understanding of D) the probable income of the students in later life.
learning.
B) it is based on untested theories and therefore 127. Suppose that the author reads a newspaper
requires extensive research to demonstrate its article announcing that participation in the
effectiveness. Generalized School Readiness Program has
C) it is individualized and therefore involves an been shown to promote the language skills of
inconvenient process of changing traditional first-grade children. What is the author’s most
methods. likely immediate reaction?
D) it is promoted in slick presentations and
therefore justifies skepticism about its cost A) To argue that the program is placing
effectiveness. unreasonable demands on children of that age
B) To resolve to be less negative than before in
discussing the program
C) To doubt the accuracy of the report and the
quality of the research
D) To dismiss the findings as irrelevant to the goals
of education

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Passage VIII Of course, the responsible individual will often have
to take into account what other individuals are
In a fundamental sense, every person is morally doing when that individual is calculating the
responsible for deciding what is right and what is consequences of her or his action. The fact that the
wrong and acting accordingly. This responsibility government has decreed “Everyone shall drive on
is often an uncomfortable burden, and you may the left” may result in people so arranging
wish to be rid of it, to pass it on to someone else. themselves, and conformity with the traffic flow is a
desirable thing. However, it is the fact that people
But responsibility for your actions is not are driving on the left, or the fact that frequently in
transferable. To say “I hereby promise to obey social situations order is beneficial, that makes
Fred, no matter what he commands, right or wrong” conformity commendable, not the fact that a
is an immoral attempt to forfeit your autonomy. government requires it.
After all, to say that you had, in fact, made someone
else responsible for your actions would mean that But I will say a little about one peculiar
you had, somehow, enslaved your will to someone objection⎯the distrust of individual conscience.
else’s will, had made yourself figuratively a Imagine someone throwing up his or her hands in
puppet. Fortunately, it is not possible. Having horror and crying “But you cannot let people decide
made a promise to obey, one is still in fact free to for themselves what is right and wrong. They could
obey or disobey, to keep or break that promise. decide anything.” But if I surrender my decision-
making responsibility to anyone, that person could
Now although it may seem rather bizarre to talk come up with anything, too. Since someone has to
about obeying Fred no matter what, it does follow decide what is the right thing for me to do, it may as
that for exactly the same reasons, you may not say, well be me. In fact, morally, it has to be.
“I will obey the government even if it tells me to do
the wrong thing.” You cannot hand over your A government is made up of individuals who are
autonomy willy-nilly to Fred or the government or fundamentally similar to me, and “to err is human”
anyone else. If you are told to do something, you applies to us all. Sometimes a government member
must examine it to see if it is right or wrong before may claim to have access to more information or
deciding whether to obey it or not. expertise in a particular matter, in which case I will
listen to that person and may very well go along
Therefore, if the government requires a moral with him or her because I believe that to be a
person to act in a particular fashion and that person strategy more likely to achieve a satisfactory result.
complies, it is because the person believes it to be Certainly, if you are ignorant, consult an expert, but
the right thing to do, not simply because the when to consult, whom to consult, and how to
government requires it. That the government does decide between conflicting experts is still the
require a particular behavior may be an important individual’s problem. And so is the final decision.
factor to be taken into account, but the final arbiter
is the individual. Material used in this test passage has been adapted from
the following source:
P.D. Jewell, By What Authority? Anarchism, the State and the
No government, no body of people, no position, no Individual. ©1983 by Amanda.
individual can have moral authority over any other
individual.

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128. In response to the objection that if individuals 131. Suppose it has been demonstrated that
obeyed their consciences, they could decide government officials are ten thousand times
anything, the author argues that the designated more likely than private citizens to reach a
decision makers could decide anything, too. correct decision on moral issues. This new
This response is: information:
A) irrelevant, because the objector does not imply A) supports the assertion that deciding between
that people should be forced to disobey their conflicting experts is the problem of the
consciences. individual.
B) irrelevant, because the author states that B) supports the assertion that when told to do
responsibility is often an uncomfortable burden. something, the individual must examine it to see
C) relevant, because the objector does not state that if it is right or wrong.
politicians are better decision makers than are C) challenges the assertion that since someone has
other individuals. to decide the right thing for the individual to do,
D) relevant, because the author implies that it might as well be that individual.
politician ought to obey their consciences, too. D) challenges the assertion that responsibility is
often an uncomfortable burden that the
129. Suppose that there are some people who are individual may wish to abandon.
psychologically incapable of breaking their
promises. This new information: 132. In countries in which the law says to drive on
the left, people generally find it beneficial to
A) supports the author’s assertion that it is drive on the left, and in countries in which the
impossible to surrender responsibility. law says to drive on the right, people generally
B) supports the author’s assertion that in decision find it beneficial to drive on the right. This
making, other people matter. fact:
C) challenges the author’s assertion that it is
impossible to surrender responsibility. A) supports the central thesis of the passage.
D) challenges the author’s assertion that in decision B) neither supports nor weakens the central thesis
making, other people matter. of the passage.
C) is contrary to the central thesis of the passage.
130. Which of the following beliefs would be most D) indicates that the central thesis of the passage
in agreement with the theme of the passage? requires modification.

A) Laws have no legitimacy except insofar as they


accord with the will of the governed.
B) Laws are necessary to prevent people from
deciding moral issues for themselves.
C) Laws should be obeyed because obedience
promotes order and so is generally beneficial.
D) Lawmakers should consult experts rather than
rely on their own fallible judgment.

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Passage IX The similarities between Gibbon’s Rome and the
United States are obvious to any reader: They are
Edward Gibbon’s Decline and Fall of the Roman two multi-ethnic polities founded on patriotic
Empire (1776-1781) instructs us that human nature virtue, unified by gigantic highway systems, their
never changes and that humanity’s predilection for middle classes occupying crassly uniform
factionalism, augmented by environmental and dwellings, and so forth. But the Decline and Fall
cultural differences, is the determinant of history. evokes other contemporary realities. It was the
In this belief, Gibbon was influenced by the Baron peripatetic Emperor Caracalla, in the early third
de Montesquieu, who saw history not as mere century, Gibbon tells us ⎯ not Hitler or Stalin or
politics and ideas but as a complex of cultural, even Attila the Hun ⎯ who was the first worldwide
social, and climatic forces. tyrant. And Gibbon’s account of the Crimean
Chersonites, who, helped by the Romans, attacked
The brilliance of the Decline and Fall lies more in the Goths in 335 A.D., captures well events of the
Gibbon’s ability to construct a coherent narrative nearby Caucasus, where the Russians were later to
from the particular agents and surprises of history pit one assemblage of clans against another.
than in an attempt to dramatize his material. For
example, in the story of the Empire’s restoration in The Decline and Fall teaches us that the tragedy for
the third century under the able rule of Claudius, much of the world is that, despite technological
Aurelian, Probus, and Diocletian, the sheer advancement, many societies are still in a political
accumulation and repetition of events over centuries sense ancient and that, despite the Enlightenment,
ultimately robs many effective emperors, each with many governments ⎯ including the U.S. ⎯ remain
a distinct personality early in the story, of identity in corrupt because of the influence of money. Rather
the reader’s mind. And as the initially successful than the embodiment of amoral despair, however,
restoration flows into the larger movement of Gibbon reveals himself as the very flower of
decline, only patterns, rather than individuals, Enlightenment rationalism. He was a conservative
endure at the end of the three volumes. along the lines of his contemporary, Edmund Burke,
who saw humankind’s best hope in moderate
For Gibbon, the real changes were not so much the politics and flexible institutions that would not
“newsworthy” events as the insidious become overbearing.
transformations: Rome moving from democracy, to
the trappings of democracy, to military rule; Milan Only rarely did imperial Rome or early Christianity
in Italy and Nicomedia in Asia Minor functioning as display the necessary traits. Gibbon, like Burke,
capital cities decades before the formal division of was shocked by the French Revolution. His Rome
the Empire into western and eastern halves and had also known violent mobs screaming noble
almost two centuries before Rome officially ceased platitudes in order to remove a tyrannical ruler, only
to be the imperial capital; the fact that the first to see another take his place. Gibbon’s certainty
fifteen “Christian” bishops of Jerusalem were that the tendency toward strife is a consequence of
circumcised Jews subscribing to a not yet the human condition ⎯ of its variety of racial,
formalized religion. cultural, and economic experiences, which no belief
system, religious or otherwise, can overcome ⎯ is
also reminiscent of the ideas of James Madison in
The Federalist. Madison, too, was convinced that a
state or an empire can endure only if it generally
limits itself to adjudicating disputes among its
citizens.

Material used in this test passage has been adapted from


the following source:
R. D. Kaplan, And now for the news: The disturbing
freshness of Gibbon’s Decline and Fall. ©1997 by The
Atlantic Monthly.

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133. Which of the following assertions from the 136. Which of the following statements most
passage most clearly follows from the view of seriously challenges Gibbon’s presumed view
human nature attributed to Gibbon? of history?
A) Rome was multi-ethnic, founded on patriotic A) Historians express the biases of a privileged
virtue, unified by highways, with uniform class.
middle-class dwellings. B) Some leaders have strongly influenced world
B) A government can endure only if it generally history.
limits itself to adjudicating disputes. C) Numerous empires lasted for many hundreds of
C) History is seen as a complex of cultural, social, years.
and climatic forces. D) Many stable societies have been ethnically
D) It was a peripatetic Roman emperor who was the diverse.
first worldwide tyrant.
137. Which of the following passage topics could
134. If the passage author is correct, which of the most reasonably be cited as evidence that
following late twentieth-century events best major historical changes usually occur
supports Gibbon’s views about history? gradually?
A) The widely supported movement for civil rights A) The failure of the Enlightenment to influence
in the U.S. South politics
B) The ethnic conflict that pitted neighbors against B) The functional role of Milan and Nicomedia as
each other in Bosnia capitals
C) The attack on Iraq by U.N. forces in response to C) The alliance of Romans and Crimeans against
its invasion of Kuwait the Goths
D) The dismantling of the wall dividing East and D) The lack of distinction among the Roman
West Berlin by its citizens middle class

135. The U.S. has not experienced internal warfare


since the nineteenth century. Information in
the passage suggests that Gibbon would
attribute this long period of domestic peace to:
A) the basic patriotism of U.S. citizens.
B) the geographical vastness of the country.
C) a series of threats from external enemies.
D) the principles of the U.S. Constitution.

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Writing Sample
Time: 60 minutes
2 Prompts, separately timed:
30 minutes each

This is a test of your writing skills. The test consists of two parts. You will have 30 minutes to complete each
part. Use your time efficiently. Before you begin writing each of your responses, read the assignment carefully
to understand exactly what you are being asked to do. Because this is a test of your writing skills, your
response to each part should be an essay of complete sentences and paragraphs, as well organized and clearly
written as you can make it in the time allotted.

This document has been encoded to link this download to your member account. The AAMC and its Section
for the MCAT hold the copyrights to the content of this Practice Test. Therefore, there can be no sharing or
reproduction of materials from the Practice Test in any form (electronic, voice, or other means). If there are
any questions about the use of the material in the Practice Test, please contact the MCAT Information Line
(202-828-0690).
138. Consider this statement:

Businesses succeed by taking advantage of consumers’ weaknesses.

Write a unified essay in which you perform the following tasks. Explain what you think the above
statement means. Describe a specific situation in which businesses succeed without taking advantage of
the consumers’ weaknesses. Discuss what you think determines whether or not businesses take advantage
of consumers’ weaknesses in order to succeed.

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139. Consider this statement:

Education makes everyone equal.

Write a unified essay in which you perform the following tasks. Explain what you think the above
statement means. Describe a specific situation in which education does not make everyone equal. Discuss
what you think determines whether or not education makes everyone equal.

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Biological Sciences
Time: 100 minutes
Questions: 140 - 216

Most questions in the Biological Sciences test are organized into groups, each containing a descriptive passage.
After studying the passage, select the one best answer to each question in the group. Some questions are not
based on a descriptive passage and are also independent of each other. If you are not certain of an answer,
eliminate the alternatives that you know to be incorrect and then select an answer from the remaining
alternatives. Indicate your selected answer by marking the corresponding answer on your answer sheet. A
periodic table is provided for your use. You may consult it whenever you wish.

This document has been encoded to link this download to your member account. The AAMC and its Section
for the MCAT hold the copyrights to the content of this Practice Test. Therefore, there can be no sharing or
reproduction of materials from the Practice Test in any form (electronic, voice, or other means). If there are
any questions about the use of the material in the Practice Test, please contact the MCAT Information Line
(202-828-0690).
1 Periodic Table of the Elements 2
H He
1.0 4.0
3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Li Be B C N O F Ne
6.9 9.0 10.8 12.0 14.0 16.0 19.0 20.2
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
23.0 24.3 27.0 28.1 31.0 32.1 35.5 39.9
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
39.1 40.1 45.0 47.9 50.9 52.0 54.9 55.8 58.9 58.7 63.5 65.4 69.7 72.6 74.9 79.0 79.9 83.8
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
85.5 87.6 88.9 91.2 92.9 95.9 (98) 101.1 102.9 106.4 107.9 112.4 114.8 118.7 121.8 127.6 126.9 131.3
55 56 57 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
Cs Ba La* Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn
132.9 137.3 138.9 178.5 180.9 183.9 186.2 190.2 192.2 195.1 197.0 200.6 204.4 207.2 209.0 (209) (210) (222)
87 88 89 104 105 106 107 108 109
Fr Ra Ac† Unq† Unp Unh Uns Uno Une
(223) (226) (227) (261) (262) (263) (262) (265) (267)
58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
* Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
140.1 140.9 144.2 (145) 150.4 152.0 157.3 158.9 162.5 164.9 167.3 168.9 173.0 175.0
90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
† Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
232.0 (231) 238.0 (237) (244) (243) (247) (247) (251) (252) (257) (258) (259) (260)
Passage I 140. Specific metabolic rates are 25 cal/g/day for
humans, 150 cal/g/day for rats, and 180
Two major theories have been advanced to explain cal/g/day for mice. When urinary output of a
why organisms age and die. free-radical-induced DNA damage product is
plotted as a function of metabolic rate in these
Theory I 3 species, which of the following graphs is
most consistent with Theory II, and best
The Genetic or Programmed Theory of Aging states depicts the urine levels of the damage
that aging is triggered by hormones and is an product?
orderly consequence of the genetically programmed
processes of growth, development, and A)
differentiation. Life spans of individuals in each
species are finite, species-specific, and vary little.
Aging is thought to improve the ability of the
species to adapt to its environment.

Evidence for Theory I: The difference in longevity


between fraternal twins is much greater than the
difference between identical twins. Also, cultured
cells of human embryonic connective tissue
normally double approximately 50 times before B)
they die. For example, when frozen at the 10th
doubling and thawed years later, the cells undergo
40 more doublings before death.

Theory II

The Damage-Accumulation Theory of Aging states


that aging is nonadaptive and not genetically
programmed. Instead, aging results from random,
accumulated damage (to DNA, RNA, and proteins) C)
that is caused by free radical production within the
cells. This damage in turn leads to cellular changes
resulting in aging and death.

Evidence for Theory II: Metabolic rates of


mammals are directly proportional to the rate of
generation of free radicals. Dietary restriction,
which decreases metabolic rate, also increases the
maximum life span of rats from 125 to 185 weeks.
The addition of vitamins E and C (which react with D)
free radicals and render them harmless) to the feed
of mice increases the mice’s average life span.

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141. Vitamin E is added to human connective 144. To examine the effects on life span of
tissue cells in culture at the 30th doubling, and undernutrition without malnutrition, one group
the number of additional doublings before of just-weaned rats was fed every day, and a
death is counted. Theory II will be best second group was fed every other day. Which
supported if the cells double an additional: of the following survival curves for the 2
groups is consistent with the evidence for
A) 5 times. Theory II?
B) 10 times.
C) 20 times. A)
D) 40 times.

142. The female octopus broods her eggs but eats


less than normal while caring for them, and
then dies after the eggs hatch. Surgical
removal of an endocrine gland eliminates
brooding behavior; feeding then resumes and
the mother’s life span is extended. Does this
evidence appear to favor Theory I, Theory II,
B)
or neither theory?
A) Theory I, because brooding and feeding
behavior are hormonally controlled
B) Theory II, because extension of the life span
cannot occur in a genetically programmed
organism
C) Theory II, because the life span of the octopus is
related to dietary restriction
D) Neither theory, because the octopus does not
C)
undergo aging

143. Aging due to the production of free radicals


can occur by all of the following processes
EXCEPT:
A) absorption of ultraviolet radiation.
B) production of partially reduced oxygen species
during normal metabolism.
C) metabolic conversion of toxic chemicals such as D)
carbon tetrachloride (CCl4).
D) consumption of excess quantities of vitamins E
and C.

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Passage II 145. The initial increase in heart and breathing
rates during the skin diving trip was probably
Sarah, a scientist from New Orleans, takes two- a result of:
week vacations to different locations every year to
experience new sports. A) activation of the sympathetic autonomic nervous
system by the new experience.
One year she went to the Caribbean Sea to learn B) activation of the parasympathetic autonomic
skin diving. Although she was in excellent physical nervous system by the new experience.
condition from daily swimming in the ocean, she C) hypoxia caused by the inability of her blood
noticed that the first time she went diving, she hemoglobin concentration to supply sufficient
experienced an elevated pulse and ventilation rate. oxygen for the strenuous exercise of swimming
By the third time she went diving, her heart and at sea level.
breathing rate were no longer elevated. By the end D) elevated core body temperature caused by
of the two weeks, her skin had become darker. swimming in warm tropical waters.

Another year she went skiing on snow in the 146. The prolonged increase in heart and breathing
mountains of Colorado. Again, she noticed that the rates during the snow skiing trip was probably
first time she went skiing, her heart and ventilation a result of:
rate were faster than usual. Although it was not as
elevated by the end of the first week, her heart and A) activation of the sympathetic autonomic nervous
breathing rates were still higher than usual. She system by the new experience.
also noticed that her appetite and caloric intake B) activation of the parasympathetic autonomic
were considerably greater during her skiing nervous system by the new experience.
vacation compared with her diving vacation. C) hypoxia caused by insufficient blood
However, she noticed that her body weight did not hemoglobin concentration to supply oxygen for
change significantly. exercise at the low oxygen pressure found at
high altitudes.
Sarah calculated the actual work that she performed D) depressed core body temperature (hypothermia)
skiing and diving. There was not enough difference caused by exposure to cold temperatures at high
in the work performed to account for the observed altitudes.
difference in appetite; although the physical work of
diving and skiing was approximately equal and she 147. During the initial skin diving session, when
ate more calories during the skiing trip, she did not her heart and breathing rates were increased,
gain any weight. Sarah noticed that she produced more urine
than usual. This was most probably a result
On a third vacation, Sarah had a serious accident of:
while playing sports.
A) increased blood pressure caused by her
excitement or anxiety.
B) reduced blood pressure caused by her excitement
or anxiety.
C) absorption of water from the ocean.
D) inability to cool the skin through evaporative
water loss.

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148. After Sarah’s accident, her attending 150. Sarah noted that her skin blood vessels were
physician detected the protein myoglobin in usually constricted to conserve body heat in
her urine. What type of injury is consistent the cold environment of the mountains.
with this observation? However, her skin blood vessels would
occasionally dilate for short periods of time.
I. Broken bone What would be the most probable
II. Damaged muscle physiological purpose for this periodic
III. Damaged kidney vasodilation?
A) I only A) Maintain normal skin tone
B) III only B) Maintain sufficient oxygenation of cells
C) I and III only C) Reduce excessive blood pressure
D) II and III only D) Maintain normal muscle tone

149. Control of heart rate, muscle coordination, and


appetite is maintained by the:
A) hypothalamus, cerebrum, and brain stem,
respectively.
B) brain stem, hypothalamus, and cerebrum,
respectively.
C) cerebellum, hypothalamus, and brain stem,
respectively.
D) brain stem, cerebellum, and hypothalamus,
respectively.

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Passage III Step 1 involves a 1,4-addition (Michael addition) of
3-butenylmagnesium bromide to Compound 3,
The axanes are a family of compounds that contain yielding an adduct that reforms the endocyclic
a perhydroindan ring system; Figure 1 shows the double bond with the loss of ethoxide during the
structures of two axanes, compounds 1 and 2. acidic workup. Step 2 involves the treatment of
Compound 4 with lithium dimethylcuprate to form
a Michael adduct that hydrolyzes in acid to
Compund 5. The ozonolysis of Compound 5 in
Step 3 and a reductive workup produces Compound
6, which undergoes a Wittig reaction with
Ph3P=CHCO2Et in Step 4 to yield Compound 7.
Compound 7 undergoes a base-catalyzed
intramolecular cyclization in Step 5 to yield
Compound 8 in 30% overall yield from Compound
Figure 1 Axanes
3.
A multistep synthesis leading to the axanes begins
with the conversion of Compound 3 into Compound 151. According to the Cahn-Ingold-Prelog priority
8, which can be further functionalized to the target rules, which group bonded to the chiral carbon
axanes. Figure 2 shows the synthesis of Compound atom (x) in Figure 1 has the highest priority?
8. A) The H atom
B) The ring system
C) The NHCHO group
D) The isopropyl group

152. What reagent yields the double bond in


Compound 1 when it reacts with an analog of
Compound 8?
A) Ph3P=CH2
B) O=CH2
C) (CH3)2CuLi
D) CH3MgBr

153. What is the maximum possible number of


stereoisomers of Compound 1?
A) 4
B) 8
C) 16
D) 32

Figure 2 Synthesis of Compound 8


(Et = ethyl; Ph = phenyl)

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154. The base in Step 5 of the synthesis abstracts a 155. On the basis of the bonding and functionality
proton from which of the labeled (a-d) carbon present in Compound 7, a student can classify
atoms of Compound 7 (Figure 2)? the compound as:
A) a A) a saturated keto ether.
B) b B) a saturated keto ester.
C) c C) an unsaturated keto ether.
D) d D) an unsaturated keto ester.

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Passgage IV A second approach to AIDS treatment is to interfere
with the function of reverse transcriptase by
An AIDS infection is especially dangerous because producing nucleotides that lack the hydroxyl group
the AIDS virus attacks the cells of the immune on the 3′ carbon. These nucleotides will be
system. A primary target of the virus is the CD4 preferentially incorporated into a growing DNA
lymphocyte (helper T cell). Helper T cells produce chain by reverse transcriptase, but not by the DNA
substances that trigger the maturation of B polymerase of the host cell, which is much more
lymphocytes and CD8 lymphocytes (killer T cells). specific than the viral enzyme. Because no
subsequent nucleotides can be added to the viral
During the infection of a helper T cell, gp120 DNA chain, the chain will be terminated. The drug
proteins of the viral coat first bind to the CD4 AZT, which has an azide (N3) group at the 3′ carbon,
antigens on the cell membrane. The viral coat then has been shown to interfere with reverse
fuses with the cell membrane, and the RNA- transcriptase function and to prolong the lives of
containing core of the virus is dumped into the cell. AIDS patients.
Viral RNA is used as a template to produce DNA
with the help of the enzyme reverse transcriptase, 156. The direction of information flow in the
several copies of which are also contained in the process catalyzed by the enzyme reverse
viral core. The viral DNA is then incorporated into transcriptase is the reverse of:
the chromosomes of the helper T cell. At a later
time, the viral DNA will be activated and used to A) DNA replication.
make new viral particles, resulting in the destruction B) RNA synthesis.
of the helper T cell. C) protein synthesis.
D) carbohydrate synthesis.
One approach to the treatment of AIDS infections is
to interfere with the binding of the virus to the 157. The variability of the antibody-evoking region
helper T cell. This can be done by producing of the gp120 protein makes it difficult for B
antibodies that bind to the gp120 protein on the cells to produce antibodies that neutralize all
viral surface. However, there are several of the AIDS viruses in the host because
difficulties with this approach. First, because of the antibodies:
high mutation rate of the gp120 protein, the most
antigenic region of the protein is extremely variable A) are large and complex.
in structure. Second, the binding region of gp120 B) are very specific.
does not readily stimulate antibody production C) are uniform in structure.
because the region is well shielded by sugar D) have only 1 binding site for antigens.
molecules. Third, the gp120 protein has a very
strong affinity for the CD4 antigen that must be 158. AZT is effective for treating AIDS because it
overcome by any antibody produced against gp120. is missing a hydroxyl group on the 3′ carbon,
a normal site for binding between:
A) a phosphate and a sugar.
B) a sugar and a nitrogenous base.
C) a phosphate and a nitrogenous base.
D) 2 complementary nitrogenous bases.

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159. Some antibiotics work by interfering with the 161. Which of the following evolutionary
function of bacterial (but not eukaryotic) mechanisms most likely explains the presence
ribosomes. Such antibiotics are NOT in humans of CD4 receptors on the helper T
effective in fighting viruses because: cells that bind to the gp120 proteins of the
AIDS virus?
A) viral ribosomes are too similar to eukaryotic
ribosomes. A) Coevolution (development of a series of
B) viral ribosomes are protected by the viral coat. reciprocal adaptations that benefited both virus
C) viral ribosomes are too small to bind to any and host)
drug. B) Convergent evolution (development of
D) viruses ordinarily lack ribosomes. resemblances between virus and host after they
entered the same environment)
160. When an AIDS virus has been incorporated C) Natural selection favoring chance mutation(s) of
into a CD4 cell, but has NOT yet been the virus
replicated, the viral genetic information is D) Natural selection favoring chance mutation(s) of
located in the CD4 cell’s: the host

A) mitochondria. 162. A virus, similar to the AIDS virus, infects


B) endoplasmic reticulum. only B lymphocytes. This virus would be
C) nucleus. expected to have its greatest effect on which
D) ribosomes. of the following immune-system functions?
A) Recognizing foreign antigens
B) Engulfing and lysing foreign antigens
C) Binding antibodies to antigenic sites
D) Producing antibodies

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These questions are not based on a descriptive 165. The concentration of the protein cyclin rises and falls
passage and are independent of each other. during the cell cycle as shown in Figure 1.

163. A student uses thin layer chromatography on


silica plates to monitor the progress of the
reaction below. Does the product have a
higher or lower Rf than the starting material?

Figure 1 Changes in the concentration of cyclin


during phases of the cell cycle.

What mechanism could account for this oscillation of


A) Higher, because the product is more polar than cyclin protein concentration?
the starting material
B) Higher, because the product is less polar than the A) Replication of the cyclin gene during S phase of
starting material interphase
C) Lower, because the product is less polar than the B) Segregation of chromosomes carrying the cyclin genes
starting material during mitosis
D) Lower, because the product is more polar than C) Translation of cyclin mRNA in interphase and
the starting material proteolysis of cyclin protein in mitosis
D) Translation of cyclin mRNA in mitosis and proteolysis
164. Which of the following alkyl halides is most of cyclin protein in interphase
readily prepared by a reaction between the
corresponding alcohol and concentrated 166. Embryonic mouse cells divide every 10 hours
hydrochloric acid? at 37oC. How many cells would be produced
from an egg after three days?
A) Isopropyl chloride
B) Methyl chloride A) Fewer than 50
C) sec-Butyl chloride B) Between 50 and 500
D) tert-Butyl chloride C) Between 500 and 5000
D) More than 5000

167. What are the configurations at C-5 and C-7,


respectively, in Taxol?
A) R and R
B) S and S
C) S and R
D) R and S

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Passage V Figure 1 shows a synthetic approach to ring A.
Compound 2 undergoes a Grignard reaction with
Taxol (1) is a naturally occurring compound that CH3MgBr, followed by dehydration to produce
has been adopted as a drug for the treatment of a Compound 3. The carboethyoxy group in
variety of cancers. A need exists for an efficient Compound 3 is converted into the primary alcohol 4
synthesis of taxol because it is found only in small by diisobutylaluminum hydride. Compound 4 is
quantities in a rare tree. converted into its acetate 5, which undergoes a
regiospecific Diels–Alder reaction with 6 to
produce 7. The reaction of Compound 7 with
alcoholic KOH yields Compound 8, which can
serve as a key intermediate for the formation of the
B ring in Taxol.

Taxol (1)

Figure 1 Synthetic scheme

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168. Which of the following compounds is formed 170. Compound 7 is a mixture of two isomers that
by the Grignard reaction shown in Figure 1? are shown by which pair of structures below?
A) A)

B)
B)

C)
C)

D)

D)

169. The preparation of the Grignard reagent


involves stirring which of the following
reagents in diethyl ether (Et2O)?
171. The IR spectrum of Compound 8 shows
A) CH3Br and Mg
hydroxyl and carbonyl absorptions,
B) CH4 and MgBr2
respectively, at approximately:
C) CH3Mg and Br2
D) CH2Br2, Mg, and Br2 A) 1700 and 2250 cm–1.
B) 1700 and 3400 cm–1.
C) 3400 and 2250 cm–1.
D) 3400 and 1700 cm–1.

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Passage VI
173. Normally the immune system avoids attacking
Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis are two forms the tissues of its own body because:
of inflammatory bowel disease, which differ in
several respects. Crohn’s disease may occur in any A) a special intracellular process recognizes only
part of the gastrointestinal tract while ulcerative foreign antigens.
colitis is confined to the colon (large intestine). B) the body does not make any antigens that the
Crohn’s disease may involve all layers of the tract immune system could recognize.
while ulcerative colitis affects only the mucosa, the C) it changes its antibodies to be specific only to
inner lining of the colon. Abdominal pain and foreign antigens.
diarrhea following a meal are signs of Crohn’s D) it suppresses cells specific to the body's own
disease, but a progressive loosening of a bloody antigens.
stool is the first symptom of ulcerative colitis.
174. An ulcer that penetrated the wall of the
Management of inflammatory bowel disease is intestine would allow the contents of the
achieved by drug therapy to suppress the gastrointestinal tract to enter:
inflammation which leads to diarrhea, but there is
no known cure. The cause of inflammatory bowel A) the perineum.
disease is controversial. Genetic, pathogenic, and B) the peritoneal cavity.
immunogenic theories have all been advanced. C) the pleural cavity.
D) the lumen of the intestine.
Inflammatory bowel disease tends to run in
families, with 20% of patients having a relative with 175. If the genetic and autoimmune theories of
the disorder. But if inflammatory bowel disease is inflammatory bowel disease are true, then the
genetic, it is not inherited in a simple Mendelian gastrointestinal antigen being targeted by the
way. immune system is probably on:
Some research suggests that inflammatory bowel A) the chromosomes carrying the genes for the
disease is an autoimmune disease. An antigen in the disease.
body, perhaps in the digestive tract, is recognized as B) part of the DNA segments constituting the genes
foreign by the immune system. This antigen may for the disease.
then stimulate the body’s defenses to produce an C) stretches of the mRNA's coded for by the genes
inflammatory response that continues without for the disease.
control. D) the surface of the proteins encoded by the genes
for the disease.
There is also a lingering suspicion that the
inflammation is triggered by some bacterium or 176. The fact that there appears to be a genetic
other organism that takes up residence in the component to inflammatory bowel disease,
gastrointestinal system. This theory has had a but that it does not show clear Mendelian
resurgence since the discovery that the bacterium inheritance ratios suggests any of the
Helicobacter pylori may play a causal role in following, EXCEPT:
gastric ulcers.
A) the gene for the disease has incomplete
172. What process would be most disrupted by an penetrance.
inflammation of the colon? B) the gene for the disease has limited expressivity.
C) the disease is polygenic.
A) Digestion D) the gene for the disease is recessive.
B) Absorption of nutrients
C) Absorption of water
D) Secretion of digestive enzymes

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Passage VII

Fats are known to affect blood flow. Research was


conducted to examine the effects of a 20-carbon
polyunsaturated fatty acid on blood flow through
the skin. Skin was chosen because blood flow
could be measured easily and without discomfort to
the subjects.

Male college students ranging from 18-28 years of


age were randomly divided into 4 treatment groups
of 10 subjects each. Prior to participation in the
study, subjects were screened for health conditions,
medications, and/or dietary practices that would
bias the collected data. Subjects were instructed not
to alter their habits or lifestyles during the
experiment.
Figure 1 Effect of dietary supplements on skin
Each treatment group was given 1 of 4 dietary blood flow
supplements (Table 1).
177. The most likely explanation for the difference
Table 1 Dietary Supplements in skin blood flow between the fatty acid
group and the fatty acid + vitamin E group in
placebo Figure 1 is that:
placebo + vitamin E
A) vitamin E alone reduces skin blood flow more
fatty acid
than fatty acids alone.
fatty acid + vitamin E
B) vitamin E alone increases skin blood flow more
than fatty acids alone.
Vitamin E, an effective anti-oxidant, was given to 2 C) the products of fatty acid oxidation reduce skin
groups to reduce in vivo oxidation of the ingested blood flow.
fatty acids. Both the fatty acid and the placebo D) unoxidized fatty acids reduce skin blood flow.
were given at 2 g/10 kg body weight/day; vitamin E
was given at 100 mg/10 kg body weight/day. The
supplements were packaged in identical gelatin 178. It was hypothesized that the decrease in blood
capsules and taken before meals. Subjects were flow to the skin resulted from a change in the
unaware of which supplement they were ingesting. activity of the sympathetic nerves to the skin.
Which of the following observations would
Blood flow through the skin of each subject’s arm support this hypothesis?
was measured twice; immediately before and
A) A change in the norepinephrine content of blood
immediately after 60 days of dietary
draining from the skin
supplementation. Each blood-flow measurement
B) In vitro contraction of the smooth muscle in skin
was taken at the same time of day and at a skin
blood vessels in response to acetylcholine
temperature of 32oC. Subjects were required to fast
C) A lack of epinephrine receptors in skin blood
for 12 hours and rest quietly in the laboratory for 30
vessels
minutes before skin blood flow was measured. The
D) In vivo dilation of the skin blood vessels
results are shown in Figure 1.

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179. An alternative method for examining the 181. A 20-carbon polyunsaturated fatty acid was
effects of fatty acids on blood flow would be used in this study. Unsaturated fatty acids
to measure changes in blood pressure. If differ from saturated fatty acids in that
blood pressure were measured, one would saturated fatty acids contain:
predict that it would be lowest in which of the
following? A) more carbon atoms.
B) fewer hydrogen atoms.
A) Heart C) no carbon-hydrogen bonds.
B) Arteries D) no carbon-carbon double bonds.
C) Arterioles
D) Capillaries 182. In the design of the experiment, all of the
following factors were controlled EXCEPT:
180. To interpret the results, the researchers must
assume that: A) skin temperature.
B) age of the subjects.
A) fatty acids have no effect on skin blood flow. C) diurnal rhythms in physiological responses.
B) vitamin E reduces skin blood flow. D) skin blood flow.
C) the subjects did not alter their habits during the
study.
D) blood pressure differed between the 2
measurements.

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Passage VIII The 4-carbon molecules were hypothesized to arise
from the following steps:
Organic carbocations may be generated from • The ethylcarbocation loses a proton to form
alcohols in the presence of strong acids or from ethene.
alkenes by the addition of a proton. Carbocations • Another CH3CH2+ carbocation reacts with
are stabilized through the inductive effect and the ethene to form a 4-carbon carbocation.
through resonance. Alkyl groups bonded to the • Rearrangements contribute to the formation
cation center also may add stability through the of the final products.
partial overlap of filled orbitals with an empty
orbital, a concept often referred to as 183. Which of the following concepts may be used
hyperconjugation. Such alkyl groups have one to explain why the stability of carbocations
filled orbital aligned with the empty orbital of the increases as the number of alkyl groups
cation. The overlap of these orbitals allows the pair attached to the carbocation increases?
of electrons in the filled orbital to reduce the
electron deficiency of the cation center. A) Resonance
B) Steric interference
In an early research study designed to examine the C) Hyperconjugation
properties of carbocations, an ethyl carbocation was D) Ion pairing
produced from the reaction of ethyl fluoride with
SbF5, as shown in Reaction I (unbalanced). 184. Which of the following compounds is the
major compound isolated from Reaction 1?
A)

Reaction I
B)
The products of Reaction I were quenched with
water, then separated by gas chromatography, and
identified by 1H NMR. The resulting mixture of
products consisted primarily of molecules with four C)
carbon atoms. The proton NMR spectrum of the
major product is shown below in Figure 1.

D)

185. The ethyl carbocation may be formed when


ethanol is heated with sulfuric acid. The first
step of this reaction is:
Figure 1 A) the elimination of water from ethyl alcohol.
B) the protonation of the hydroxyl oxygen of ethyl
The next most abundant product was an optically alcohol.
inactive sample, later determined to be sec-butyl C) the loss of a proton by ethyl alcohol.
alcohol. D) the loss of the hydroxyl group of ethyl alcohol.

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186. The gas chromatograph trace from the workup 187. All the products that were isolated from the
of Reaction 1 is shown below with the quenching of Reaction 1 should contain an
integrated areas indicated. absorption in the infrared spectrum near:
A) 1600 cm-1.
B) 1700 cm-1.
C) 2250 cm-1.
D) 3500 cm-1.
What percentage of sec-butyl alcohol was
isolated?

A) 1.5%
B) 3%
C) 5%
D) 6%

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These questions are not based on a descriptive 191. The lipases catalyze the hydrolysis of fats and
passage and are independent of each other. other carboxylic acid esters. The lipases
illustrate the fact that:
188. An organism that causes a human disease is
isolated and studied. Researchers conclude A) some enzymes are molecules other than
that the organism is a bacterium rather than a proteins.
virus because the organism: B) most enzymes interact with only one specific
substrate molecule.
A) undergoes mutation. C) some enzymes interact with several different
B) lacks a nuclear membrane. substrate molecules that have similar chemical
C) contains protein in its outermost covering. linkages.
D) reproduces in a culture medium lacking host D) some enzymes interact with many biologically
tissue. active substrate molecules of dissimilar
structures and linkages.
189. Which of the following organelles most
resembles the Golgi apparatus when an intact 192. In horses, the genes for red coat color and for
eukaryotic cell is viewed under the electron white coat color are codominant.
microscope? Heterozygous horses have roan-colored coats.
Consider a roan-colored colt that has a white
A) Nucleolus mother. What could be said about the coat
B) Mitochondrion color of the colt’s father?
C) Plasma membrane
D) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum A) It must be red.
B) It must be roan.
190. If 1 mol of a pure triglyceride is hydrolyzed to C) It could be either red or roan.
give 2 mol of RCOOH, 1 mol of R'COOH, D) It could be either red or white.
and 1 mol of glycerol, which of the following
compounds might be the triglyceride?
A ) CH2OC(O)R
|
CHOC(O)R
|
CH2OC(O)R
B) CH2OC(O)R′
|
CHOC(O)R′
|
CH2OC(O)R′
C) CH2OC(O)R
|
CHOC(O)R′
|
CH2OC(O)R

D) CH2OC(O)R
|
CHOC(O)R′
|
CH2OC(O)R′

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Passage IX 194. Which of the following statements explains
most plausibly why host antibodies are
Until recently, conventional medical wisdom ineffective against H. pylori?
attributed stomach ulcers to an excess of acid, and
the treatment for ulcers consisted primarily of A) Antibody proteins may be denatured in the harsh
antacids and dietary modification. However, a environment of the stomach.
pathogenic bacterium, Helicobacter pylori, is now B) Antibodies are not generally effective against
implicated in most cases of stomach ulcers. Current bacteria.
treatment employs antibiotics directed against these C) H. pylori infection may suppress the activity of
bacteria and often is successful in eradicating the immune system.
persistent infections. D) Antibodies are not secreted from host tissues
into extracellular spaces.
Several important questions about H. pylori remain
unanswered. It is unclear why this bacterium 195. One difference between different strains of H.
causes chronic infections in some individuals but pylori is that they:
not in others; many infected persons do not develop
ulcers. The mode of transmission is also unknown, A) attack different hosts.
although people in developing countries are more B) express different genes.
frequently infected with H. pylori than are people in C) exhibit different degrees of resistance to
developed countries with good sanitation. antibiotics.
D) exist in either developed or developing
There is a relationship between H. pylori infection countries.
and cancer. Infected individuals have a two-fold
increased risk of gastric cancer, although >75% of 196. According to the passage, the cagA gene
patients with active infections do not develop product will cause:
cancer. Genetic studies of H. pylori have identified
genes that are expressed in different strains of this A) the disruption of host cell enzymatic activity.
bacterium. One gene, vacA, encodes a toxin. B) the disruption of host cell protein synthesis.
Expression of another gene, cagA, leads to C) the movement of leukocytes into mucosal tissue.
inflammation and may be related to the genesis of D) the vasoconstriction of arterioles in the mucosal
gastric cancer. Although many individuals develop layer.
antibodies against H. pylori antigens, these
antibodies rarely eradicate the infection; evidently, 197. Most people infected with H. pylori do not
this pathogen has developed effective ways to elude develop gastric cancer because they:
host defenses.
A) do not incorporate bacterial genes in their
193. H. pylori infection may cause increased chromosomes.
proliferation of mucosal cells in the stomach. B) have robust immune systems that defeat early
This may lead to gastric cancer if: cancers.
C) eradicate the infection before any tumors
A) genetic mutations occur in proliferating germ develop.
cells. D) tolerate the infection without developing tumors.
B) genetic mutations occur in proliferating somatic
cells.
C) the immune system fails to recognize bacterial
antigens.
D) crowded mucosal cells are likely to remain in
interphase.

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198. To be most effective, a gene therapy for
gastric cancer should be directed against: 199. Enzymatic activity in the stomach initiates the
digestion of:
A) the stomach epithelial cells that give rise to
tumors. A) lipids.
B) the antibody producing cells of the immune B) ethanol.
system. C) polysaccharides.
C) all the cells in the host’s body. D) proteins.
D) all known genes in the H. pylori genome.

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Passage X Experiment 2

Nematode development has been used as a model Two-cell embryos were incubated in the presence of
system to investigate the differentiation of cells either cycloheximide, an inhibitor of translation, or
from their neighbors (see Figure 1). Three actinomycin D, an inhibitor of transcription. The
experiments are described here. AB cells were then isolated, washed to remove the
inhibitors, and grown in culture. AB cells from
Experiment 1 embryos treated with cycloheximide produced only
neurons and skin, whereas those from embryos
To investigate the role of cell-to-cell treated with actinomycin D produced neurons, skin,
communication, researchers separated the cells of a and muscle.
two-cell embryo and cultured them independently.
The cultured AB cells produced neurons and skin, Experiment 3
but no muscle, whereas the cultured P1 cells gave
rise to all of the tissues produced by P1 cells of an To investigate specification of the gut, which was
intact embryo. thought to result from the segregation of
cytoplasmic contents during early cell divisions,
cells were isolated at various intervals (as indicated
on the time lines of Figure 2) during the 15-minute
four-cell stage, cultured individually or recombined
in pairs, and allowed to develop. If gut
differentiation occurred, proteases were released
into the culture medium. The results are shown in
Figure 2.

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Figure 1 Early development, showing one-, two-, and four-cell stages (left), and segregation of fate (right) in
the nematode. The blastomeres and tissues formed by the founder cells are shown.

Figure 2 Results of Experiment 3. At right center are shown the cell recombinations, and the time lines at far
right indicate when the cells were separated and recombined, as well as the results.

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200. Which result of Experiment 1 supports the 203. The results of Experiment 3 indicate that gut
hypothesis that cell-to-cell communication is specification during the four-cell stage
involved in the determination of cell fate? requires cell-to-cell communication between:
A) The fate of an isolated AB cell differs from that A) P2 and EMS.
of an AB cell in an intact embryo. B) AB1 and EMS.
B) The fate of an isolated P1 cell is C) P1 and AB1.
indistinguishable from that of a P1 cell in an D) AB1 and AB2.
intact embryo.
C) At the two-cell stage, isolated blastomeres can 204. If the zygote contains unique cell contents that
divide and differentiate. are necessary for gut differentiation,
D) Several different blastomeres can produce both segregation of these substances during cell
neurons and muscle tissue. divisions would occur in the sequence of
zygote to P1 to:
201. The results of Experiment 1 indicate that the
direction of signaling between the blastomeres A) AB.
of a two-cell embryo is: B) EMS to E.
C) P2 to EMS to E.
A) AB → P1. D) both P2 and EMS.
B) P1 → AB.
C) P1 → P2. 205. The only somatic or visceral cell-type tissue
D) zygote → AB. that derives from a single blastomere is:
A) neuronal.
202. The results of Experiment 2 indicate that the B) muscle.
signaling interaction at the two-cell stage C) gut.
probably most involves which class of D) germ cell.
macromolecules?
A) DNA 206. These experiments indicate that nematode
B) Messenger RNA cells adopt fates different from those of their
C) Ribosomal RNA neighbors during development by:
D) Protein A) mechanisms that do not involve transcription.
B) cell separation followed by independent
development of the blastomeres.
C) both cell-to-cell signaling and segregation of the
cytoplasmic contents during division.
D) the separation of their three primary tissue
layers.

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Passage XI

An example of the Claisen rearrangement is shown


in Equation 1. Heating Compound 1 yields
Compound 2. Two chemists propose alternative
mechanisms for this reaction.

Equation 3
Equation 1
Independent experiments reveal that no cross
Chemist 1
products are obtained when a mixture of Compound
1 and an analog with a different aryl group and a
The rearrangement proceeds through a concerted,
substituted side chain undergo rearrangement in the
cyclic transition state in which a new carbon-carbon
same solution.
bond is formed between carbon-3 of the side chain
and the ortho-carbon of the aromatic ring, while the
Chemist 3 performs the Claisen rearrangement on
oxygen—C-1 bond is broken. The intermediate
Compound 1 in which C-1 is labeled with
ketone enolizes to the observed product, as shown
radioactive carbon-14. The rearranged product
in Equation 2.
containing the label is degraded by treatment with
osmium tetroxide (OsO4), followed by oxidation
with periodic (HIO4) acid. The degradation
products are monitored for radioactivity.

207. Which of the following compounds will be


produced from heating the compound shown
Equation 2 below if it reacts in the same way as
Compound 1?
Chemist 2
CH2=CH-O-CH2CH=CH2
The oxygen—C-1 bond undergoes a heterolytic
cleavage to form a resonance-stabilized A) CH3CH2CH2CH2CHO
intermediate carbocation and a phenolate anion. B) CH2 = CHCH2CH2CHO
The intermediate carbocation attacks the ortho-
carbon of the aromatic ring, to give a ketone which C) CH2 = CHCH2OCH2CH3
enolizes to the observed product as shown in D) O
Equation 3. ||
CH2 = CHCCH2CH3

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208. The entropy change between a reactant and its 209. The absence of cross products supports the
activated complex is called the entropy of mechanism of:
activation (∆S≠). Which chemist’s mechanism
is supported if ∆S≠ < 0 for the reaction shown A) both chemists.
in Equation 1? B) Chemist 1 only.
C) Chemist 2 only.
A) Chemist 1’s because a negative ∆S≠ indicates a D) neither chemist.
transition state that is more ordered than the
reactant. 210. The IR spectrum of Compound 2 displays a
B) Chemist 1’s because a negative ∆S≠ indicates a band for the -OH group near:
transition state that is less ordered than the
reactant. A) 1000 cm-1
C) Chemist 2’s because a negative ∆S≠ indicates a B) 1500 cm-1
transition state that is more ordered than the C) 2500 cm-1
reactant. D) 3500 cm-1
D) Chemist 2’s because a negative ∆S≠ indicates a
transition state that is less ordered than the
reactant.

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These questions are not based on a descriptive 214. Which of the compounds shown below is
passage and are independent of each other. more soluble in water?

211. The following pedigree shows the occurrence of (CH3CH2)2NH (CH3CH2)2CH2


a very rare disease that is expressed in fewer than Compound I Compound II
1 in 100,000 individuals.
A) Compound I
B) Compound II
C) They are about equally soluble.
D) Neither has appreciable water solubility.

215. In humans, cholesterol is a precursor to:


A) insulin.
B) glycogen.
C) testosterone.
D) DNA.
Which of the following is the most likely pattern
of inheritance for this disease in these 216. In an experiment on the phases of the cell
individuals? cycle, cultures of actively dividing,
synchronized cells were exposed to
A) The mother carried a sex-linked dominant allele for radioactively labeled 2-deoxythymidine for 30
the disease. minutes, then rinsed to remove the unabsorbed
B) The mother carried a sex-linked recessive allele for label. At various times thereafter, groups of
the disease. cells were removed from the cultures and the
C) Each father carried an autosomal recessive allele for nuclei examined to determine their content of
the disease. radioactive material. Results are shown in the
D) Each father carried a sex-linked recessive allele for figure below.
the disease.

212. After the gall bladder is removed from a


patient, the patient will most likely have
reduced ability to digest:
A) protein.
B) starch.
C) sugar.
D) fat.

213. The liver is different from many other organs


in that it can at least partially regenerate
following illness or damage. This Based on the figure, what process was
regeneration is accomplished primarily occurring during hours 3-13 after treatment
through: with radioactive 2-deoxythymidine?
A) fission. A) Mitosis
B) meiosis. B) Meiosis
C) mitosis. C) DNA synthesis
D) cell growth. D) RNA synthesis

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MCAT Practice Test 7 Answer Sheet

Physical Sciences 56 (A) (B) (C) (D) 110 (A) (B) (C) (D) 162 (A) (B) (C) (D)
1 (A) (B) (C) (D) 57 (A) (B) (C) (D) 111 (A) (B) (C) (D) 163 (A) (B) (C) (D)
2 (A) (B) (C) (D) 58 (A) (B) (C) (D) 112 (A) (B) (C) (D) 164 (A) (B) (C) (D)
3 (A) (B) (C) (D) 59 (A) (B) (C) (D) 113 (A) (B) (C) (D) 165 (A) (B) (C) (D)
4 (A) (B) (C) (D) 60 (A) (B) (C) (D) 114 (A) (B) (C) (D) 166 (A) (B) (C) (D)
5 (A) (B) (C) (D) 61 (A) (B) (C) (D) 115 (A) (B) (C) (D) 167 (A) (B) (C) (D)
6 (A) (B) (C) (D) 62 (A) (B) (C) (D) 116 (A) (B) (C) (D) 168 (A) (B) (C) (D)
7 (A) (B) (C) (D) 63 (A) (B) (C) (D) 117 (A) (B) (C) (D) 169 (A) (B) (C) (D)
8 (A) (B) (C) (D) 64 (A) (B) (C) (D) 118 (A) (B) (C) (D) 170 (A) (B) (C) (D)
9 (A) (B) (C) (D) 65 (A) (B) (C) (D) 119 (A) (B) (C) (D) 171 (A) (B) (C) (D)
10 (A) (B) (C) (D) 66 (A) (B) (C) (D) 120 (A) (B) (C) (D) 172 (A) (B) (C) (D)
11 (A) (B) (C) (D) 67 (A) (B) (C) (D) 121 (A) (B) (C) (D) 173 (A) (B) (C) (D)
12 (A) (B) (C) (D) 68 (A) (B) (C) (D) 122 (A) (B) (C) (D) 174 (A) (B) (C) (D)
13 (A) (B) (C) (D) 69 (A) (B) (C) (D) 123 (A) (B) (C) (D) 175 (A) (B) (C) (D)
14 (A) (B) (C) (D) 70 (A) (B) (C) (D) 124 (A) (B) (C) (D) 176 (A) (B) (C) (D)
15 (A) (B) (C) (D) 71 (A) (B) (C) (D) 125 (A) (B) (C) (D) 177 (A) (B) (C) (D)
16 (A) (B) (C) (D) 72 (A) (B) (C) (D) 126 (A) (B) (C) (D) 178 (A) (B) (C) (D)
17 (A) (B) (C) (D) 73 (A) (B) (C) (D) 127 (A) (B) (C) (D) 179 (A) (B) (C) (D)
18 (A) (B) (C) (D) 74 (A) (B) (C) (D) 128 (A) (B) (C) (D) 180 (A) (B) (C) (D)
19 (A) (B) (C) (D) 75 (A) (B) (C) (D) 129 (A) (B) (C) (D) 181 (A) (B) (C) (D)
20 (A) (B) (C) (D) 76 (A) (B) (C) (D) 130 (A) (B) (C) (D) 182 (A) (B) (C) (D)
21 (A) (B) (C) (D) 77 (A) (B) (C) (D) 131 (A) (B) (C) (D) 183 (A) (B) (C) (D)
22 (A) (B) (C) (D) 132 (A) (B) (C) (D) 184 (A) (B) (C) (D)
23 (A) (B) (C) (D) Verbal Reasoning 133 (A) (B) (C) (D) 185 (A) (B) (C) (D)
24 (A) (B) (C) (D) 78 (A) (B) (C) (D) 134 (A) (B) (C) (D) 186 (A) (B) (C) (D)
25 (A) (B) (C) (D) 79 (A) (B) (C) (D) 135 (A) (B) (C) (D) 187 (A) (B) (C) (D)
26 (A) (B) (C) (D) 80 (A) (B) (C) (D) 136 (A) (B) (C) (D) 188 (A) (B) (C) (D)
27 (A) (B) (C) (D) 81 (A) (B) (C) (D) 137 (A) (B) (C) (D) 189 (A) (B) (C) (D)
28 (A) (B) (C) (D) 82 (A) (B) (C) (D) 190 (A) (B) (C) (D)
29 (A) (B) (C) (D) 83 (A) (B) (C) (D) Writing Sample 191 (A) (B) (C) (D)
30 (A) (B) (C) (D) 84 (A) (B) (C) (D) 138 192 (A) (B) (C) (D)
31 (A) (B) (C) (D) 85 (A) (B) (C) (D) 139 193 (A) (B) (C) (D)
32 (A) (B) (C) (D) 86 (A) (B) (C) (D) 194 (A) (B) (C) (D)
33 (A) (B) (C) (D) 87 (A) (B) (C) (D) Biological Sciences 195 (A) (B) (C) (D)
34 (A) (B) (C) (D) 88 (A) (B) (C) (D) 140 (A) (B) (C) (D) 196 (A) (B) (C) (D)
35 (A) (B) (C) (D) 89 (A) (B) (C) (D) 141 (A) (B) (C) (D) 197 (A) (B) (C) (D)
36 (A) (B) (C) (D) 90 (A) (B) (C) (D) 142 (A) (B) (C) (D) 198 (A) (B) (C) (D)
37 (A) (B) (C) (D) 91 (A) (B) (C) (D) 143 (A) (B) (C) (D) 199 (A) (B) (C) (D)
38 (A) (B) (C) (D) 92 (A) (B) (C) (D) 144 (A) (B) (C) (D) 200 (A) (B) (C) (D)
39 (A) (B) (C) (D) 93 (A) (B) (C) (D) 145 (A) (B) (C) (D) 201 (A) (B) (C) (D)
40 (A) (B) (C) (D) 94 (A) (B) (C) (D) 146 (A) (B) (C) (D) 202 (A) (B) (C) (D)
41 (A) (B) (C) (D) 95 (A) (B) (C) (D) 147 (A) (B) (C) (D) 203 (A) (B) (C) (D)
42 (A) (B) (C) (D) 96 (A) (B) (C) (D) 148 (A) (B) (C) (D) 204 (A) (B) (C) (D)
43 (A) (B) (C) (D) 97 (A) (B) (C) (D) 149 (A) (B) (C) (D) 205 (A) (B) (C) (D)
44 (A) (B) (C) (D) 98 (A) (B) (C) (D) 150 (A) (B) (C) (D) 206 (A) (B) (C) (D)
45 (A) (B) (C) (D) 99 (A) (B) (C) (D) 151 (A) (B) (C) (D) 207 (A) (B) (C) (D)
46 (A) (B) (C) (D) 100 (A) (B) (C) (D) 152 (A) (B) (C) (D) 208 (A) (B) (C) (D)
47 (A) (B) (C) (D) 101 (A) (B) (C) (D) 153 (A) (B) (C) (D) 209 (A) (B) (C) (D)
48 (A) (B) (C) (D) 102 (A) (B) (C) (D) 154 (A) (B) (C) (D) 210 (A) (B) (C) (D)
49 (A) (B) (C) (D) 103 (A) (B) (C) (D) 155 (A) (B) (C) (D) 211 (A) (B) (C) (D)
50 (A) (B) (C) (D) 104 (A) (B) (C) (D) 156 (A) (B) (C) (D) 212 (A) (B) (C) (D)
51 (A) (B) (C) (D) 105 (A) (B) (C) (D) 157 (A) (B) (C) (D) 213 (A) (B) (C) (D)
52 (A) (B) (C) (D) 106 (A) (B) (C) (D) 158 (A) (B) (C) (D) 214 (A) (B) (C) (D)
53 (A) (B) (C) (D) 107 (A) (B) (C) (D) 159 (A) (B) (C) (D) 215 (A) (B) (C) (D)
54 (A) (B) (C) (D) 108 (A) (B) (C) (D) 160 (A) (B) (C) (D) 216 (A) (B) (C) (D)
55 (A) (B) (C) (D) 109 (A) (B) (C) (D) 161 (A) (B) (C) (D)

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