ICND1 2 Questions Apr 2018

New ICND1 Questions
Question 1
Syslog – what does not belong?
A. host name
B. severity
C. timestamp
D. message
Answer: A
Question 2
What does a switch use for communication between VLANs?
A. STP
B. CDP
C. VTP
D. Etherchannel
Answer: C
Question 3
What is the maximum size of an Ethernet frame that uses 802.1Q tagging?
A. 1514 bytes
B. 128 bytes
C. 68 bytes
D. 1522 bytes
Answer: D
Question 4
When configuring a default gateway, should it be ip route 0.0.0.0…. or serial 0/0 0.0.0.0……
– dont know answer
Question 5
Which option does the route 0.0.0.0/0 represent?

A. Route with the lowest administrative distance
B. Gateway of last resort
C. Null route
D. Empty routing table
Answer: B
Explanation
In this question only the “Gateway of last resort” answer is suitable. A Gateway of Last
Resort or Default gateway is a route used by the router when no other known route exists to
transmit the IP packet. Known routes are present in the routing table. Hence, any route not
known by the routing table is forwarded to the default route.
In fact this question is a bit unclear. Maybe it implies “creating a static route to network
0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 is another way to set the gateway of last resort on a router.”
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/routing-information-protocol-
rip/16448-default.html
Question 6
What is the purpose of a standard access list?
A. to filter traffic based on destination address

B. to deny traffic
C. to filter traffic based on source address
Answer: C
Question 7
If you are in VLAN 10 and it gets a packet from VLAN 2 with 802.1q enabled, what does it
do with the packet?
A. Drops the packet

B. forwards it to VLAN 2
C. configures the port to handle traffic from VLAN 2
D. adds it to the VLAN database
Answer: A
Question 8
Drag drop question about cable types
Answer:
Coaxial <-> TV connection

Twisted <-> 10/100/1000 base
Fiber <-> BASE-5 BX
USB <-> connects two computers
Crossed-over <-> devices of the same type
Question 9
Which forwarding technology stores destination addresses in the cache?
A. MPLS
B. Cisco express forwarding
C. Process switching
D. Fast switching
Answer: B
Question 10
Which type of network topology requires each network node to be connected to one another?
A. Ring
B. Star
C. Mesh
D. Bus
Answer: C
Question 11
A router receives identical prefixes from OSPF, EIGRP, RIP and the same route is configured
statically. Which route does the router use to forward traffic?
A. Static route
B. RIP route
C. EIGRP route
D. OSPF route
Answer: A
Question 12
Which route is the most secured : connected route
Question 13
Which syslog severity level logs informational messages?

A. 2
B. 6
C. 4
D. 0
Answer: B
Question 14
Which option describes a standard role that a firewall plays in an enterprise network?
A. It can permit unauthorized packets to pass to less secure segments of the network
B. It can decide which packets can traverse from a less secure segment of the network to a
more secure
C. It can forward packets based on rules that are predetermined by IEEE standards
D. It can deny all packets from entering an administrative domain.
Answer: B
Question 15
A question with the mac table on a switch with mac 1111:1111:1111 and port 0/1 and the
question was asking : You received a packet with destination mac 1111:1111:1111 on port
0/1 , how does the switch will handle the frame.
Answer: The switch forwards the frame to port 0/1 only.
Question 16
What cable use in star topology? (Choose two)
A.10 base2
B.10 base5
C.100 base2
D.100base5
…
Answer: 10Base-T, 100Base-T and 1000Base-T
Question 17
What is the binary of the IPv6 multicast address
Answer: 11111111
Explanation
IPv6 multicast addresses are distinguished from unicast addresses by the value of the high-
order octet of the addresses: a value of 0xFF (binary 11111111) identifies an address as a
multicast address; any other value identifies an address as a unicast address
Question 18
What is the lowest AD (IS-IS, IBGP, EIGRP, RIPv2 or OSPF)?
Answer: EIGRP
Explanation
The Administrative Distances (AD) of popular routing protocols is shown below:
Note: For IS-IS, the AD is 115; Internal BGP (IBGP) is 200
Question 19
Assume all the routing protocol have the same length prefix, what would the router prefer?
A. OSPF
B. EIGRP
C. CONNECTED
D. BGP
Answer: C
Question 20
In which circumstances is static routing most useful?
A. On a stub network
B. On a large network that must share routes quickly between routers
C. On a network that experiences frequent link failures
D. On a network with frequent routing changes
Answers: A
Question 21
Which statement describes the dynamic route correctly?
A. more secure than static

B. high scaling for large network
C. easier to configure than static route
D. build for small network
Answer: B
Question 22
Which statement is correct when comparing dynamic route and static route?
A. static route is more secure
Question 23
What would the router use as metrics when having different routing protocol in the routing
table
A. Prefix length
Question 24
Which of the following description is correct about DNS?
A. Host will sends a request to a DNS server…
Question 25
Which statement about standard access list is true?
A. They have an implicit permit statement at the end to allow all traffic
B. They can use either a wildcard mask or a subnet mask to identify host
C. They can be identified by a number from 1 to 99
D. They must be placed close to the source of traffic
Answer: C
Question 26
Which of the following item is used to establish telnet session by having the host name?
A. DNS lookup
B. Ping
C. Syslog
D. ARP
Answer: A
Question 27
Which of the following command can be use to access all the files in a system?
A. syslog
B. IFS
C. ping
D. NTP
Answer: B
Question 28
For which important purpose was IPv6 addressing developed?
A. To reduce the number of public IP addresses on the internet

B. To replace network address translation
C. To remove the need for classless inter-domain routing
D. To relieve the shortage of public IP addresses on the internet
Answer: D
Question 29
What does the 0.0.0.0/0 mean in a routing table?
A. wildcard
B. empty routing table
C. Null table
D. Gateway of last resort
Answer: should be default route
Question 30
A host is attempting to communicate with a server from an application layer. The connection
has failed, what would be the first layer to start from the troubleshooting standpoint?
A. network
B. Application
C. physical
D. session
Answer: C
Question 31
The left describes the types of cables, while the right describes the purposes of the cables.
Drag the items on the left to the proper locations. (Not all items can be used.)
Answer:
+ switch access port to router: straight-through

+ switch to switch: crossover
+ PC COM to switch Console port: rollover
Explanation
To remember which type of cable you should use, follow these tips:
– To connect two serial interfaces of 2 routers we use serial cable

– To specify when we use crossover cable or straight-through cable, we should remember:
Group 1: Router, Host, Server
Group 2: Hub, Switch
One device in group 1 + One device in group 2: use straight-through cable
Two devices in the same group: use crossover cable
For example: we use straight-through cable to connect switch to router, switch to host, hub to
host, hub to server… and we use crossover cable to connect switch to switch, switch to hub,
router to router, host to host… )
Question 32
Which destination IP address can a host use to send one message to multiple devices across
…?
A. 239.255.0.1
B. 172.20.1.0
C. 192.168.0.119
D. 127.0.0.1
Answer: A (multicast address)
Question 33
Which value is of primary importance when a router populates its routing table for unique
routes?
A. Administrative distance
B. Prefix length
C. Network address
D. Metric
Answer: A
Explanation
Making a forwarding decision actually consists of three sets of processes: the routing
protocols, the routing table, and the actual process which makes a forwarding decision and
switches packets. The longest prefix match always wins among the routes actually installed in
the routing table, while the routing protocol with the lowest administrative distance always
wins when installing routes into the routing table.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/enhanced-interior-gateway-routing-protocol-
eigrp/8651-21.html
Question 34
Which IPv6 address type is a public address?
A. Global unicast
B. Multicast
C. Link local
D. Unique-local
Answer: A
Question 35
How is the MAC address table of a switch populated?
A. When the switch receives an Ethernet frame with a new destination MAC address, it
installs the destination MAC address and the ingress switch port in the MAC address table
B. When the switch receives an Ethernet frame with a new source MAC address, it installs
the source MAC address and the ingress switch port in the MAC address table
C. When the switch receives an Ethernet frame with a new destination MAC address, it
installs the destination MAC address and the egress switch port in the MAC address table
D. When the switch receives an Ethernet frame in which the source and destination MAC
address are new, it installs the destination MAC address and the ingress switch port in the
MAC address table
Answer: B
Explanation
A switch only learns (populates) its MAC address table with source MAC addresses only.
Question 36
Which statement describes the effect of exec-timeout 30 command?
A. The router disconnects the user session if it is inactive for 30 minutes

B. The router maintains a user session indefinitely after it is active for 30 mins
C. The router disconnects a user session if it is inactive for 30 seconds
D. The router maintains a user session indefinitely after it is active for 30 seconds.
Answer: A
Explanation
The “exec-timeout” command is used to configure the inactive session timeout on the console
port or the virtual terminal. The syntax of this command is:
exec-timeout minutes [seconds]
Therefore we need to use the “exec-timeout 30” command to set the user inactivity timer to
30 minutes. To set the user inactivity timer to 30 seconds we use the “exec-timeout 0 30”.
Question 37
Which statement is true about port-security violations is true?
A. When a violation occurs on a switch port in restrict mode, the switch port continues to
accept traffic from unknown MAC address until the administrator manually disables it.
B. When a violation occurs on a switch port in protect mode, it sends a syslog notification
message
C. A port In the err-disabled state must be re-enabled manually, if recovery is disabled
D. When a switch port is in protect mode, it allows traffic from unknown MAC address until
it has learned the maximum allowable number of MAC addresses
Answer: C
Question 38
Which statement is true about static and dynamic routing is true?
A. Only static routes are shared between connected interfaces

B. Dynamic routing is more scalable than static routing
C. Only dynamic routes are secure
D. Static routing is easier to maintain in a large network than dynamic routing.
Answer: B
Question 39
Which metric or metrics does RIP use to determine the routing table metric for a route?
A. Bandwidth and delay

B. Hop count
C. Bandwidth and hop count
D. Bandwidth
Answer: B
Question 40
Which network configuration allows a switch to send traffic from multiple VLANS over a
single link to a router that routes between the VLANs?
A. Port channel
B. Router-on-a-stick
C. Virtual trunking
D. Spanning-tree
Answer: B
Question 41
Which statement about native VLAN traffic over 802.1Q trunk is true?
A. It is discarded by STP
B. It is placed is a high-priority queue
C. It is tagged with a value of 1
D. It is untagged
Answer: D
Question 42
Which feature allows a device to use a switch port that is configured for half-duplex to access
the network?
A. Split horizon
B. CSMA/CD
C. IGMP
D. Port security
Answer: B
Explanation
CSMA/CD stands for Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection. In an
Ethernet LAN, before transmitting, a computer first listens to the network media. If the media
is idle, the computer sends its data. If the media is not idle (another station is talking), the
computer must wait for some time.
When a station transmits, the signal is referred to as a carrier. Carrier Sense means that
before a station can send data onto an Ethernet wire, it have to listen to see if another
“carrier” (of another station) is present. If another station is talking, this station will wait until
there is no carrier present.
Multiple Access means that stations can access the network at any time. It is opposed to
Token-Ring network where a station must have the “token” so that it can send data.
In short, CSMA/CD is the technology used for half-duplex switch port to transmit.
CSMA/CD is not necessary for full-duplex switch port.
Question 43
Refer to the exhibit.
<exhibit missing>
If switch-A receives a frame with destination MAC address 0000.0000.0001 on its Fa0/1
interface, how does it process the frame?
A. It forwards the frame back out of interface Fa0/1

B. It floods the frame to all interfaces except Fa0/1
C. It holds the packet until the MAC address timer expires and then drops the frame
D. It drops the frame immediately
Answer: maybe B
Explanation
As the exhibit is missing so we can only guess. But B is the most suitable answer in all cases.
If the MAC address 0000.0000.0001 is new to the switch (this MAC have not existed in the
MAC address table) then surely the answer is B.
Question 44
When a router makes a routing decision for a packet that is received from one network and
destined to another, which portion of the packet does it replace?
A. Layer 4 protocol
B. Layer 3 IP address
C. Layer 2 frame header and trailer
D. Layer 5 session
Answer: C
Explanation
During the transmission of a packet from source to destination, only Layer 2 information is
replaced in the path. Layer 3 information remains the same (except when NAT is used).
Question 45
Which protocol can identify connected devices within a mixed-vendor infrastructure?
A. Virtual terminal protocol

B. Network time protocol
C. Link level discovery protocol
D. Cisco discovery protocol
Answer: C
Question 46
Which interface configuration is used with a router-on-a-stick configuration?
A. VRF
B. Subinterfaces
C. PIM sparse mode
D. Passive-interface
Answer: B
Question 47
You have configured the host computers on a campus LAN to receive their DHCP addresses
from the local router to be able to browse their corporate site. Which statement about the
network environment is true?
A. Two host computers may be assigned manually on each host

B. The DNS server must be configured manually on each host
C. It supports a DNS server for use by DHCP clients
D. The domain name must be configured locally on each host computer
Answer: C
Explanation
DHCP supports configuring a domain name to assign to the DHCP clients. For example:
Router(config)#ip dhcp pool CLIENTS

Router(dhcp-config)#domain-name 9tut.com
…
Question 48
Where is private IPv4 addressing used?
A. On the endpoints of a VPN tunnel that traverses outside an administrator domain

B. At a remote site that connects over public infrastructure to a hub
C. Within an enterprise
D. Over the internet
Answer: C
Question 49
Which protocol allows VLANs to be dynamically configured between multiple switches?
A. IGMP
B. STP
C. VTP
D. 802.1Q
Answer: C
Question 50
Client A cannot reach client B by its hostname. Which reason for the problem is most likely
true?
A. The connected router is using the default domain lookup configuration

B. The hostname for client B is missing from the connected router
C. A DNS server has been misconfigured
D. Telnet has been disabled on the connected router.
Answer: C
Question 51
Which first step must a client perform to connect to an internal host when the hostname is
known, but the IP address is unknown?
A. The client sends the host name in a DNS reply to a DNS server, and the DNS server
responds with the host IP address
B. The client exchanges IP address information with a DNS server on the same LAN
C. The client looks up the hostname in the ARP table to determine the IP address
D. The client sends the host name in a DNS request to a DNS server, and the DNS server
responds with the host IP address.
Answer: D
Explanation
When a client knew about the hostname but not the IP address, it needs to resolve the
hostname to the IP address by sending a DNS request to its DNS server.
Notice that the ARP table is responsible for resolving IP address to MAC address only. It has
nothing to do with the hostname.
==================New Questions added on 9th-Dec-2017==================
Question 52
Which route option can be used to back-up in case of fail?
Answer: floating route
Question 53
Which of the following is true about TCP and UDP?
Answer: only TCP order the transmission packets
Question 54
If a switch received a frame while forwarding others, how frame would be handled?
A. It will interrupt the frames

B. The switch will put the frame in a queue
C. Will be forwarded at the same time with the current frame
D. The new frame will forward first
Answer: C
Question 55
Which of the following true about access point?
A. It used physically to connect network devices

B. It is used as a router
C. Provide full duplex communication
D. It is a layer 2 device used to extend the LAN coverage to wireless devices
Answer: D
Question 56
Which of the following used to identify immediate destination?
A. Administrative distance
B. Metric
C. Next hop
D. Destination network
Answer: C
Question 57
Which of the following options could be used on router to prevent reassign IP address
statically?
A. Pool
B. Lease
C. Client ID
D. Exclude address
Answer: D
Question 58
A router with a default setting deployed, how will act if it received mistype command?
A. Disable DNS look up

B. Recognizing the command
C. Try to resolve the command to an IP address
D. Try to correct the command
E. Show error message
Answer: C
Question 59
Which symbol ping of the following is for unknown packet?
A. .
B. *
C. ?
D. U
Answer: C
Explanation
The table below lists the possible output characters from the ping facility:
Character Description
Each exclamation point indicates receipt of

!
a reply.
Each period indicates the network server

.
timed out while waiting for a reply.
A destination unreachable error PDU was

U
received.
Q Source quench (destination too busy).
M Could not fragment.
? Unknown packet type.

& Packet lifetime exceeded.
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ios-nx-os-software/ios-software-
releases-121-mainline/12778-ping-traceroute.html
Question 60
Which cables could be used for star topology? (Choose two)
A. 10 Base T
B. 100 Base T
C. 10 Base 5
D. 10 Base 2
Answer: A B
Question 61
Which of the following is true about dynamic route?
A. Reduce CPU of the network

B. More secure than static
C. Complicate the maintenance
D. Allow fast convergence when fail happen
Answer: D
Question 62
What RIPv2 use to elect of route?
A. Hop count
B. Administrative distance
C. Bandwidth
Answer: A
Question 63
Which of the following are two local host characters?
A. 32/prefix
B. 255.255.255.0
C. The administrative distance is 0
D. Dynamically learned
E. ?
Answer: A C
Question 64
Which attributes change all the path way (Choose two)
A. MAC destination address

B. MAC destination address
C. IP Source address
D. IP Source address
Answer: A B
Question 65
Why a host uses DNS server?
A. DNS client request to server

B. To resolve IP to FQDN
C. To resolve FQDN to IP
D. Assign IP
Answer: C
FQDN (Fully Qualified Domain Name)

E. Verify connection
ICND1 100-105
ICND1 – Basic Questions
http://www.9tut.net/icnd1-100-105/new-icnd1-basic-questions
Question 1
Which two statements describe the operation of the CSMA/CD access method? (Choose two)
A. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data

simultaneously.
B. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before
transmitting.
C. The use of hubs to enlarge the size of collision domains is one way to improve the
operation of the CSMA/CD access method.
D. After a collision, the station that detected the collision has first priority to resend the lost
data.
E. After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay
period has expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data.
F. After a collision, all stations involved run an identical backoff algorithm and then
synchronize with each other prior to transmitting data.
Answer: B E
Question 2
On a live network, which commands will verify the operational status of router interfaces?
(Choose two)
A. Router#show interfacess
B. Router#show ip protocols
C. Router#debug interface
D. Router#show ip interface brief
E. Router#show start
Answer: A D
Question 3
What must occur before a workstation can exchange HTTP packets with a web server?
A. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
B. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
C. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
D. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
E. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
F. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and the web sewer.
Answer: D
Question 4
Refer to the exhibit. If the hubs in the graphic were replaced by switches, what would be
virtually eliminated?
A. broadcast domains
B. repeater domains
C. Ethernet collisions
D. signal amplification
E. Ethernet broadcasts
Answer: C
Question 5
If a host experiences intermittent issues that relate to congestion within a network while
remaining connected, what could cause congestion on this LAN?
A. half-duplex operation
B. broadcast storms
C. network segmentation
D. multicasting
Answer: B
Question 6
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is testing connectivity from the branch router
to the newly installed application server. What is the most likely reason for the first ping
having a success rate of only 60 percent?
Branch# ping 192.168.2.167
Type escape sequence to abort.
Sending 5, 100-byte ICMP Echos to 192.168.2.167, timeout is 2 seconds:
..!!!
Success rate is 60 percent (3/5), round-trip min/avg/max = 1/2/4 ms
Branch# ping 192.168.2.167

Type escape sequence to abort.
!!!!!
Success rate is 100 percent (5/5), round-trip min/avg/max = 1/1/1 ms
Branch#
A. The network is likely to be congested, with the result that packets are being intermittently
dropped.
B. The branch router had to resolve the application server MAC address.
C. There is a short delay while NAT translates the server IP address.
D. A routing table lookup delayed forwarding on the first two ping packets.
E. The branch router LAN interface should be upgraded to FastEthernet.
Answer: B
Question 7
An administrator is in the process of changing the configuration of a router. What command

will allow the administrator to check the changes that have been made prior to saving the new
configuration?
A. Router# show startup-config

B. Router# show current-config
C. Router# show running-config
D. Router# show memory
E. Router# show flash
F. Router# show processes
Answer: C
Question 8
What does a host on an Ethernet network do when it is creating a frame and it does not have
the destination address?
A. drops the frame

B. sends out a Layer 3 broadcast message
C. sends a message to the router requesting the address
D. sends out an ARP request with the destination IP address
Answer: D
Question 9
Which IOS command is used to initiate a login into a VTY port on a remote router?
A. router# login
B. router# telnet
C. router# trace
D. router# ping
E. router(config)# line vty 0 5
F. router(config-line)# login
Answer: B
Question 10
Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network?
(Choose three)
A. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.

B. A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node.
C. Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.
D. In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of the
network media before transmitting.
E. The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex
mode.
Answer: A B E
ICND1 – Basic Questions 2

http://www.9tut.net/icnd1-100-105/new-icnd1-basic-questions-2
Question 1
Which two options will help to solve the problem of a network that is suffering a broadcast
storm? (Choose two)
A. a bridge
B. a router
C. a hub
D. a Layer 3 switch
E. an access point
Answer: B D
Question 2
Refer to the exhibit. A network has been planned as shown. Which three statements
accurately describe the areas and devices in the network plan? (Choose three)
A. Network Device A is a switch.

B. Network Device B is a switch.
C. Network Device A is a hub.
D. Network Device B is a hub.
E. Area 1 contains a Layer 2 device.
F. Area 2 contains a Layer 2 device.
Answer: A D E
Question 3
Refer to the exhibit. If the resume command is entered after the sequence that is shown in the
exhibit, which router prompt will be displayed?
A. Router1>
B. Router1#
C. Router2>
D. Router2#
Answer: C
Question 4
Refer to the exhibit. All devices attached to the network are shown. How many collision
domains are present in this network?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 6
D. 9
E. 15
Answer: E
Question 5
Which network topology allows all traffic to flow through a central hub?
A. bus
B. star
C. mesh
D. ring
Answer: B
Question 6
On which type of device is every port in the same collision domain?
A. a router
B. a Layer 2 switch
C. a hub
Answer: C
Question 7
Which feature allows a device to use a switch port that is configured for half-duplex to access
the network?
A. CSMA/CD
B. IGMP
C. port security
D. split horizon
Answer: A
Question 8
Which MTU size can cause a baby giant error?
A. 1500
B. 9216
C. 1600
D. 1518
Answer: D
Question 9
What happens when the cable is too long?

A. Baby Giant
B. Late collision
C. Duplex mismatch
D. No connection
Answer: B
Question 10
To what type of port would a cable with a DB-60 connector attach?
A. Serial port
B. Console port
C. Ethernet port
D. Fibre optic port
Answer: A
Question 11
Refer to the exhibit:
What kind of cable should be used to make each connection that is identified by the numbers
shown?
A.
1 – Ethernet straight-through cable
2 – Ethernet crossover cable
3 – Serial cable
B.
1 – Ethernet rollover cable
3 – Serial cable
4 – Null modem cable
C.
3 – Serial cable
4 – Rollover cable
D.
3 – Fiber Optic cable
E.
3 – Serial cable
Answer: E
Question 12
Refer to the exhibit. How many collision domains are shown?
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
E. six
F. twelve
Answer: B
Question 13
Refer to the exhibit. Pierre has just installed the mail server and Switch2. For security reasons
UDP packets are not permitted outbound on the Fa0/1 router interface. Pierre is now at his
workstation testing the new installation and is not able to establish SMTP communication to
the mail server.
What is the most likely cause for lack of communication between Pierre‟s workstation and
the mail server?
A. The crossover cable should be a straight-through cable.

B. UDP is blocked coming out of the Fa0/1 interface on the router.
C. The server should be directly connected to the router.
D. The IP addresses are all on the same network. No router is required.
Answer: A
Question 14
Refer to the exhibits labeled A through E. All devices are to be connected over Ethernet.
Which three device-to-device configurations are likely to require the use of a crossover
connection? (Choose three.)
A. exhibit A
B. exhibit B
C. exhibit C
D. exhibit D
E. exhibit E
Answer: A D E
Question 15
Refer to the exhibit. All devices attached to the network are shown. Which number of
collision domains are present in this network?
A. 9
B. 3
C. 6
D. 2
E. 15
Answer: E
ICND1 – OSI & TCP/IP Model

http://www.9tut.net/icnd1-100-105/new-icnd1-osi-tcp-ip-model
Question 1
Which OSI layer header contains the address of a destination host that is on another network?
A. application
B. session
C. transport
D. network
E. data link
F. physical
Answer: D
Question 2
At which layer of the OSI model does the protocol that provides the information that is
displayed by the show cdp neighbors command operate?
A. application
B. transport
C. network
D. physical
E. data link
Answer: E
Question 3
What are two common TCP applications? (Choose two)
A. TFTP
B. SMTP
C. SNMP
D. FTP
E. DNS
Answer: B D
Question 4
Which two characteristics describe the access layer of the hierarchical network design model?
(Choose two)
A. layer 3 support
B. port security
C. redundant components
D. VLANs
E. PoE
Answer: B D
Question 5
Which layer of the TCP/IP stack combines the OSI model physical and data link layers?
A. Internet layer
B. transport layer
C. application layer
D. network access layer
Answer: D
Question 6
Which layer of the OSI model controls the reliability of communications between network
devices using flow control, sequencing and acknowledgments?
A. Physical
B. Data-link
C. Transport
D. Network
Answer: C
Question 7
Which network device functions only at Layer 1 of the OSI model?
A. bridge
B. hub
C. NIC
D. router
E. switch
Answer: B
Question 8
A network administrator cannot connect to a remote router by using SSH. Part of the show
interfaces command is shown.
router#show interfaces
Serial0/1/0 is up, line protocol is down
At which OSI layer should the administrator begin troubleshooting?
A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport
Answer: B
Question 9
On which OSI layer does a VLAN operate?
A. Layer 1
B. Layer 2
C. Layer 3
D. Layer 4
Answer: B
ICND1 – TCP & UDP Questions

http://www.9tut.net/icnd1-100-105/icnd1-tcp-udp-questions
Question 1
Which of the following are types of flow control? (Choose three)
A. buffering
B. cut-through
C. windowing
D. congestion avoidance
E. load balancing
Answer: A C D
Question 2
A receiving host has failed to receive all of the segments that it should acknowledge. What
can the host do to improve the reliability of this communication session?
A. decrease the window size

B. use a different source port for the session
C. decrease the sequence number
D. obtain a new IP address from the DHCP server
E. start a new session using UDP
Answer: A
Question 3
What must occur before a workstation can exchange HTTP packets with a web server?
A. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
B. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
C. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
D. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
E. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
F. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and the web sewer.
Answer: D
Question 4
How does TCP differ from UDP? (Choose two)
A. TCP provides best effort delivery.

B. TCP provides synchronized communication.
C. TCP segments are essentially datagrams.
D. TCP provides sequence numbering of packets.
E. TCP uses broadcast delivery.
Answer: B D
Question 5
What is the purpose of flow control?
A. To ensure data is retransmitted if an acknowledgement is not received.

B. To reassemble segments in the correct order at the destination device.
C. To provide a means for the receiver to govern the amount of data sent by the sender.
D. To regulate the size of each segment.
Answer: C
Question 6
Refer to the exhibit. A network technician has added host A to the network. Host A cannot
communicate on the network. A ping that is issued on the host to address 127.0.0.1 fails.
What is the problem?
A. The router is not forwarding the ping packets to network 127.0.0.0.
B. The remote host at 127.0.0.1 is unreachable.
C. The default gateway is incorrect.
D. The IP address of host A is incorrect.
E. The TCP/IP protocols are not loaded.
Answer: E
ICND1 – Switch Questions

http://www.9tut.net/icnd1-100-105/new-icnd1-switch-questions
Question 1
A switch has 48 ports and 4 VLANs. How many collision and broadcast domains exist on the
switch?
A. 4, 48
B. 48, 4
C. 48, 1
D. 1, 48
E. 4, 1
Answer: B
Question 2
A switch receives a frame on one of its ports. There is no entry in the MAC address table for
the destination MAC address. What will the switch do with the frame?
A. drop the frame

B. forward it out of all ports except the one that received it
C. forward it out of all ports
D. store it until it learns the correct port
Answer: B
Question 3
Which address type does a switch use to make selective forwarding decisions?
A. source IP address
B. destination IP address
C. source and destination IP address
D. source MAC address
E. destination MAC address
Answer: E
Question 4
Which two characteristics apply to Layer 2 switches? (Choose two)
A. increases the number of collision domains

B. decreases the number of collision domains
C. implements VLAN
D decreases the number of broadcast domains
E. uses the IP address to make decisions for forwarding data packets
Answer: A C
Question 5
What is the purpose of assigning an IP address to a switch?
A. provides local hosts with a default gateway address

B. allows remote management of the switch
C. allows the switch to respond to ARP requests between two hosts
D. ensures that hosts on the same LAN can communicate with each other
Answer: B
Question 6
How does a switch differ from a hub?

A. A switch does not induce any latency into the frame transfer time.
B. A switch tracks MAC addresses of directly-connected devices.
C. A switch operates at a lower, more efficient layer of the OSI model.
D. A switch decreases the number of broadcast domains.
E. A switch decreases the number of collision domains.
Answer: B
Question 7
Refer to the exhibit. The ports that are shown are the only active ports on the switch. The
MAC address table is shown in its entirety. The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives at the
switch. What two operations will the switch perform when it receives this frame? (Choose
two)
A. The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC address table.
B. The MAC address of 0000.00dd.dddd will be added to the MAC address table.
C. The frame will be forwarded out port fa0/3 only.
D. The frame will be forwarded out fa0/1, fa0/2, and fa0/3.
E. The frame will be forwarded out all the active ports.
Answer: A D
Question 8
Refer to the exhibit. The MAC address table is shown in its entirety. The Ethernet frame that
is shown arrives at the switch. What two operations will the switch perform when it receives
this frame? (Choose two)
A. The switch will not forward a frame with this destination MAC address.
B. The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC Address Table.
C. The MAC address of ffff.ffff.ffff will be added to the MAC address table.
D. The frame will be forwarded out all active switch ports except for port fa0/0.
E. The frame will be forwarded out fa0/0 and fa0/1 only.
F. The frame will be forwarded out all the ports on the switch.
Answer: B D
Question 9
Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit is showing the topology and the MAC address table. Host A
sends a data frame to host D. What will the switch do when it receives the frame from host
A?
A. The switch will add the source address and port to the MAC address table and forward the
frame to host D.
B. The switch will discard the frame and send an error message back to host A.
C. The switch will flood the frame out of all ports except for port Fa0/3.
D. The switch will add the destination address of the frame to the MAC address table and
forward the frame to host D.
Answer: A
Question 10
Refer to the topology and switching table shown in the graphic. Host B sends a frame to Host
C. What will the switch do with the frame?
A. drop the frame

B. send the frame out all ports except port 0/2
C. return the frame to Host B
D. send an ARP request for Host C
E. send an ICMP Host Unreachable message to Host B
F. record the destination MAC address in the switching table and send the frame directly to
Host C
Answer: B
Question 11
Refer to the exhibit. SwitchA receives the frame with the addressing shown in the exhibit.
According to the command output also shown in the exhibit, how will SwitchA handle this
frame?
A. It will drop the frame.
B. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/6 only.
C. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/3 only.
D. It will flood the frame out all ports.
E. It will flood the frame out all ports except Fa0/3.
Answer: B
Question 12
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator replaced the 10/100 Mb NIC in a desktop PC with a 1
Gb NIC and now the PC will not connect to the network. The administrator began
troubleshooting on the switch. Using the switch output shown, what is the cause of the
problem?
A. Speed is set to 100Mb/s.

B. Input flow control is off.
C. Encapsulation is set to ARPA.
D. The port is administratively down.
E. The counters have never been cleared.
Answer: A
Question 13
The system LED is amber on a Cisco Catalyst 2950 series switch. What does this indicate?
A. The system is not powered up.

B. The system is powered up and operational.
C. The system is malfunctioning.
D. The system is forwarding traffic.
E. The system is sensing excessive collisions.
Answer: C
Question 14
SW-C has just been added to the network shown in the graphic
What is the purpose of assigning a default gateway to this switch?
A. allows connectivity to Router B from the switch prompt

B. allows console port connectivity to the switch from Host A
C. allows connectivity to remote network devices from Host B
D. allows the switch to pass traffic between Host A and Host B
Answer: A
ICND1 – Switch Questions 2

http://www.9tut.net/icnd1-100-105/icnd1-switch-questions-2
Question 1
Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit is showing the topology and the MAC address table. Host A
sends a data frame to host D. What will the switch do when it receives the frame from host
A?
A. The switch will add the source address and port to the MAC address table and forward the
frame to host D.
B. The switch will discard the frame and send an error message back to host A.
C. The switch will flood the frame out of all ports except for port Fa0/3.
D. The switch will add the destination address of the frame to the MAC address table and
forward the frame to host D.
Answer: A
Question 2
Which statement about unicast frame forwarding on a switch is true?
A. The TCAM table stores destination MAC addresses

B. If the destination MAC address is unknown, the frame is flooded to every port that is
configured in the same VLAN except on the port that it was received on.
C. The CAM table is used to determine whether traffic is permitted or denied on a switch
D. The source address is used to determine the switch port to which a frame is forwarded
Answer: B
Question 3
Two hosts are attached to a switch with the default configuration. Which statement about the
configuration is true?
A. IP routing must be enabled to allow the two hosts to communicate.

B. The two hosts are in the same broadcast domain.
C. The switch must be configured with a VLAN to allow the two hosts to communicate.
D. Port security prevents the hosts from connecting to the switch.
Answer: B
Question 4
Configuration of which option is required on a Cisco switch for the Cisco IP phone to work?
A. PortFast on the interface

B. the interface as an access port to allow the voice VLAN ID
C. a voice VLAN ID in interface and global configuration mode
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol in global configuration mode
Answer: B
Question 5
Which address type does a switch use to make selective forwarding decisions?
A. source IP address
B. destination IP address
C. source and destination IP address
D. source MAC address
E. destination MAC address
Answer: E
Question 6
After the power-on self test (POST), the system LED of a Cisco 2950 switch turns amber.
What is the status of the switch?
A. The switch has a problem with the internal power supply and needs an external power
supply to be attached.
B. The switch has experienced an internal problem but data can still be forwarded at a slower
rate.
C. The POST was successful.
D. POST failed and there is a problem that prevents the operating system of the switch from
being loaded.
E. The switch passed POST, but all the switch ports are busy
Answer: D
Question 7
Which option is a invalid hostname for a switch?
A. 5witch-Cisco
B. Switch-Cisco!
C. 5witchCisc0
D. SwitchCisc0
Answer: B
Question 8
Refer to the exhibit. The ports that are shown are the only active ports on the switch. The
MAC address table is shown in its entirety. The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives at the
switch. What two operations will the switch perform when it receives this frame? (Choose
two)
A. The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC address table.
B. The MAC address of 0000.00dd.dddd will be added to the MAC address table.
C. The frame will be forwarded out port fa0/3 only.
D. The frame will be forwarded out fa0/1, fa0/2, and fa0/3.
E. The frame will be forwarded out all the active ports.
Answer: A D
Question 9
Which table displays the MAC addresses that are learned on a switch?
A. FIB
B. ARP
C. TCAM
D. CAM
Answer: D
ICND1 – LAN Questions

http://www.9tut.net/icnd1-100-105/icnd1-lan-questions
Question 1
If a host experiences intermittent issues that relate to congestion within a network while
remaining connected, what could cause congestion on this LAN?
A. half-duplex operation
B. broadcast storms
C. network segmentation
D. multicasting
Answer: B
Question 2
Which two characteristics describe the access layer of the hierarchical network design model?
(Choose two)
A. layer 3 support
B. port security
C. redundant components
D. VLANs
E. PoE
Answer: B D
ICND1 – VLAN Questions

http://www.9tut.net/icnd1-100-105/icnd1-vlan-questions
Question 1
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the effect of this configuration?
Router#configure terminal
Router(config)#vlan 10
Router(config-vlan)#do show vlan
A. The VLAN 10 VTP configuration is displayed.

B. VLAN 10 spanning-tree output is displayed.
C. The VLAN 10 configuration is saved when the router exits VLAN configuration mode.
D. VLAN 10 is added to the VLAN database.
Answer: C
Question 2
Which statement about native VLAN traffic is true?

A. Cisco Discovery Protocol traffic travels on the native VLAN by default
B. Traffic on the native VLAN is tagged with 1 by default
C. Control plane traffic is blocked on the native VLAN.
D. The native VLAN is typically disabled for security reasons
Answer: A
Question 3
Which method does a connected trunk port use to tag VLAN traffic?
A. IEEE 802.1w
B. IEEE 802.1D
C. IEEE 802.1Q
D. IEEE 802.1p
Answer: C
Question 4
Which function enables an administrator to route multiple VLANs on a router?
A. IEEE 802.1X
B. HSRP
C. port channel
D. router on a stick
Answer: D
Question 5
Which two VLANs are reserved for system use only? (Choose two)
A. 1
B. 4095
C. 4096
D. 0
E. 1001
Answer: B D
Question 6
Which network configuration can you use to segregate traffic for two different department in
our organization?
A. VTP
B. STP
C. VLAN
D. Etherchannel
Answer: C
ICND1 – InterVLAN Routing

http://www.9tut.net/icnd1-100-105/icnd1-intervlan-routing
Question 1
Which statement about a router on a stick is true?
A. Its date plane router traffic for a single VLAN over two or more switches.
B. It uses multiple subinterfaces of a single interface to encapsulate traffic for different
VLANs on the same subnet.
C. It requires the native VLAN to be disabled.
D. It uses multiple subinterfaces of a single interface to encapsulate traffic for different
VLANs.
Answer: D
ICND1 – STP Questions

http://www.9tut.net/icnd1-100-105/icnd1-stp-questions
Question 1
Based on the network shown in the graphic

Which option contains both the potential networking problem and the protocol or setting that
should be used to prevent the problem?
A. routing loops, hold down timers

B. Switching loops, split horizon
C. routing loops, split horizon
D. Switching loops, VTP
E. routing loops, STP
F. Switching loops, STP
Answer: F
ICND1 – Port Security

http://www.9tut.net/icnd1-100-105/icnd1-port-security
Question 1
By default, how many MAC addresses are permitted to be learned on a switch port with port
security enabled?
A. 8
B. 2
C. 1
D. 0
Answer: C
Question 2
Which option is the default switch port port-security violation mode?
A. shutdown
B. protect
C. shutdown vlan
D. restrict
Answer: A
Question 3
What is the purpose of the switchport command?
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 1

Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address 0018.DE8B.4BF8
A. It ensures that only the device with the MAC address 0018.DE8B.4BF8 will be able to
connect to the port that is being configured.
B. It informs the switch that traffic destined for MAC address 0018.DE8B.4BF8 should only
be sent to the port that is being configured.
C. It will act like an access list and the port will filter packets that have a source or
destination MAC of 0018.DE8B.4BF8.
D. The switch will shut down the port of any traffic with source MAC address of
0018.DE8B.4BF8.
Answer: A
Question 4
Which statement is a Cisco best practice for switch port security?
A. Vacant switch ports must be shut down.

B. Empty ports must be enabled in VLAN 1.
C. VLAN 1 must be configured as the native VLAN.
D. Err-disabled ports must be configured to automatically re-enable.
Answer: A
Question 5
An administrator connects devices to a switch and wants dynamically learned MAC

addresses and add them to the running config. What accomplishes this?
A. Enable port security and use the keyword sticky

B. Set the switchport mode to trunk and save the running configuration
C. Use the switchport protected command to have the MAC addresses added to the
configuration
D. Use the no switchport port-security command to allow MAC addresses to be added to the
configuration
Answer: A
ICND1 – Router Questions

http://www.9tut.net/icnd1-100-105/new-icnd1-router-questions
Question 1
Which two of these functions do routers perform on packets? (Choose two)
A. examine the Layer 2 headers of inbound packets and use that information to determine the
next hops for the packets
B. update the Layer 2 headers of outbound packets with the MAC addresses of the next hops
C. examine the Layer 3 headers of inbound packets and use that information to determine the
D. examine the Layer 3 headers of inbound packets and use that information to determine the
complete paths along which the packets will be routed to their ultimate destinations
E. update the Layer 3 headers of outbound packets so that the packets are properly directed to
valid next hops
F. update the Layer 3 headers of outbound packets so that the packets are properly directed to
their ultimate destinations
Answer: B C
Question 2
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator cannot connect from R1 to R2. To troubleshoot this
problem, the administrator has entered the command shown in the exhibit. Based on the
output shown, what could be the problem?
A. The serial interface is configured for half duplex.

B. The serial interface does not have a cable attached.
C. The serial interface has the wrong type of cable attached.
D. The serial interface is configured for the wrong frame size.
E. The serial interface has a full buffer.
Answer: C
Question 3
What two things does a router do when it forwards a packet? (Choose two)
A. switches the packet to the appropriate outgoing interfaces

B. computes the destination host address
C. determines the next hop on the path
D. updates the destination IP address
E. forwards ARP requests
Answer: A C
Question 4
Refer to the exhibit. A network device needs to be installed in the place of the icon labeled
Network Device to accommodate a leased line attachment to the Internet. Which network
device and interface configuration meets the minimum requirements for this installation?
A. a router with two Ethernet interfaces

B. a switch with two Ethernet interfaces
C. a router with one Ethernet and one serial interface
D. a switch with one Ethernet and one serial interface
E. a router with one Ethernet and one modem interface
Answer: C
Question 5
Which two commands will display the current IP address and basic Layer 1 and 2 status of an
interface? (Choose two)
A. Router#show version
B. Router#show ip interface
C. router#show protocols
D. router#show controllers
E. Router#show running-config
Answer: B C
Question 6
Refer to the exhibit. If the resume command is entered after the sequence that is shown in the
exhibit, which router prompt will be displayed?
A. Router1>
B. Router1#
C. Router2>
D. Router2#
Answer: C
Question 7
When a router makes a routing decision for a packet that is received from one network and
destined to another, which portion of the packet does if replace?
A. Layer 2 frame header and trailer

B. Layer 3 IP address
C. Layer 5 session
D. Layer 4 protocol
Answer: A
Question 8
Which two of these functions do routers perform on packets? (Choose two)
A. examine the Layer 2 headers of inbound packets and use that information to determine the
B. update the Layer 2 headers of outbound packets with the MAC addresses of the next hops
C. examine the Layer 3 headers of inbound packets and use that information to determine the
D. examine the Layer 3 headers of inbound packets and use that information to determine the
complete paths along which the packets will be routed to their ultimate destinations
E. update the Layer 3 headers of outbound packets so that the packets are properly directed to
valid next hops
F. update the Layer 3 headers of outbound packets so that the packets are properly directed to
their ultimate destinations
Answer: B C
Question 9
How do you bypass password on Cisco device?
A. Change the configuration register to 0x2142

B. Reset the device
C. Unplug and plug the power
Answer: A
Question 10
Which router command can be used to determine the status of Serial 0/0?
A. show ip route
B. show interfaces
C. show s0/0 status
D. debug s0/0
E. show run
F. show version
Answer: B
ICND1 – Router Questions 2

http://www.9tut.net/icnd1-100-105/icnd1-router-questions-2
Question 1
Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is asked to design a small network with
redundancy. The exhibit represents this design, with all hosts configured in the same VLAN.
What conclusions can be made about this design?
A. The design will function as intended
B. Spanning-tree will need to be used.
C. The router will not accept the addressing scheme.
D. The connection between switches should be a trunk.
E. The router interfaces must be encapsulated with the 802.1Q protocol.
Answer: C
Question 2
Refer to the exhibit. Why did the device return this message?
Router#show ru
% Ambiguous command: “show ru”
Router#
A. The command requires additional options or parameters

B. There is no show command that starts with ru.
C. The command is being executed from the wrong router mode.
D. There is more than one show command that starts with the letters ru.
Answer: D
Question 3
Which commands display information about the Cisco IOS software version currently
running on a router? (Choose three)
A. show running-config
B. show stacks
C. show version
D. show flash
E. show protocols
F. show IOS
Answer: A C D
Question 4
After the shutdown command has been issued on the serial 0/0 interface, what will be
displayed when the show interface serial 0/0 command is issued by the administrator?
A. Serial0/0 is administratively down, line protocol is down

B. Serial0/0 is down, line protocol is down
C. Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is down
D. Serial0/0 is administratively down, line protocol is administratively down
E. Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is up
F. Serial0/0 is down, line protocol is up
Answer: A
Question 5
Refer to the output of the three router commands shown in the exhibit. A new technician has
been told to add a new LAN to the company router. Why has the technician received the error
message that is shown following the last command?
A. The interface was already configured.

B. The interface type does not exist on this router platform.
C. The IOS software loaded on the router is outdated.
D. The router does not support LAN interfaces that use Ethernet.
E. The command was entered from the wrong prompt.
Answer: B
Question 6
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true of the interface configuration? (Choose
two)
A. The encapsulation in use on this interface is PPP.

B. The default serial line encapsulation is in use on this interface.
C. The address mask of this interface is 255.255.255.0.
D. This interface is connected to a LAN.
E. The interface is not ready to forward packets.
Answer: A C
Question 7
Refer to the exhibit. What does the address 192.168.2.167 represent?
A. the TFTP server from which the file startup-config is being transferred
B. the router from which the file startup-config is being transferred
C. the TFTP server from which the file router-confg is being transferred
D. the TFTP server to which the file router-confg is being transferred
E. the router to which the file router-confg is being transferred
F. the router to which the file startup-config is being transferred
Answer: D
Question 8
Which Ethernet interface command is present when you boot a new Cisco router for the first
time?
A. speed 100
B. shutdown
C. ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
D. duplex half
Answer: B
Question 9
Which statement describes the effect of the copy run start command on a router in enable
mode?
A. The running configuration of the router is saved to NVRAM and used during the boot
process.
B. The router reboots and loads the last saved running configuration.
C. A copy of the running configuration of the router is sent by FTP to a designated server.
D. A new running configuration is loaded from flash memory to the router.
Answer: A
Question 10
What does exec-timeout 30 mean?
A. the user inactivity timer is 30 seconds

B. the user inactivity timer is 30 minutes
C. the user inactivity timer is 30 hours
Answer: B
Question 11
How many primary IPv4 addresses can be assigned on router interface?
A. One
B. Two
C. More than one
D. More than two
Answer: A
ICND1 – Access list Questions

http://www.9tut.net/icnd1-100-105/icnd1-access-list-questions
Question 1
Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding Cisco access lists? (Choose two)
A. In an inbound access list, packets are filtered as they enter an interface.

B. In an inbound access list, packets are filtered before they exit an interface.
C. Extended access lists are used to filter protocol-specific packets.
D. You must specify a deny statement at the end of each access list to filter unwanted traffic.
E. When a line is added to an existing access list, it is inserted at the beginning of the access
list.
Answer: A C
Question 2
Which feature automatically disables CEF when it is enabled?
A. RIB
B. ACL logging
C. multicast
D. IP redirects
Answer: B
ICND1 – CDP & LLDP

http://www.9tut.net/icnd1-100-105/icnd1-cdp-lldp
Question 1
Refer to the exhibit. If CDP is enabled on all devices and interfaces, which devices will
appear in the output of a show cdp neighbors command issued from R2?
A. R2 and R3
B. R1 and R3
C. R3 and S2
D. R1, S1, S2, and R3
E. R1, S1, S2, R3, and S3
Answer: C
Question 2
On a Cisco switch, which protocol determines if an attached VoIP phone is from Cisco or
from another vendor?
A. RTP
B. TCP
C. CDP
D. UDP
Answer: C
Question 3
At which layer of the OSI model does the protocol that provides the information that is
displayed by the show cdp neighbors command operate?
A. application
B. transport
C. network
D. physical
E. data link
Answer: E
Question 4
Refer to the exhibit. For security reasons, information about RTA, including platform and IP
addresses, should not be accessible from the Internet. This information should, however, be
accessible to devices on the internal networks of RTA. Which command or series of
commands will accomplish these objectives?
A – RTA(config)#no cdp run

B – RTA(config)#no cdp enable
C – RTA(config)#interface s0/0
RTA(config-if)#no cdp run
D – RTA(config)#interface s0/0
RTA(config-if)#no cdp enable
Answer: D
ICND1 – Protocols & Services

http://www.9tut.net/icnd1-100-101/new-icnd1-protocols-services
Question 1
Which protocol uses a connection-oriented service to deliver files between end systems?
A. TFTP
B. DNS
C. FTP
D. SNMP
E. RIP
Answer: C
Question 2
On a Cisco switch, which protocol determines if an attached VoIP phone is from Cisco or
from another vendor?
A. RTP
B. TCP
C. CDP
D. UDP
Answer: C
Question 3
Which transport layer protocol provides best-effort delivery service with no acknowledgment
receipt required?
A. HTTP
B. IP
C. TCP
D. Telnet
E. UDP
Answer: E
Question 4
Which statements accurately describe CDP? (Choose three)
A. CDP is an IEEE standard protocol.

B. CDP is a Cisco proprietary protocol.
C. CDP is a datalink layer protocol.
D. CDP is a network layer protocol.
E. CDP can discover directly connected neighboring Cisco devices.
F. CDP can discover Cisco devices that are not directly connected.
Answer: B C E
Question 5
A workstation has just resolved a browser URL to the IP address of a server. What protocol
will the workstation now use to determine the destination MAC address to be placed into
frames directed toward the server?
A. HTTP
B. DNS
C. DHCP
D. RARP
E. ARP
Answer: E
Question 6
How does TCP differ from UDP? (Choose two)
A. TCP provides best effort delivery.

B. TCP provides synchronized communication.
C. TCP segments are essentially datagrams.
D. TCP provides sequence numbering of packets.
E. TCP uses broadcast delivery.
Answer: B D
Question 7
Refer to the exhibit. The two routers have had their startup configurations cleared and have
been restarted. At a minimum, what must the administrator do to enable CDP to exchange
information between R1 and R2?
A. Configure the router with the cdp enable command.

B. Enter no shutdown commands on the R1 and R2 fa0/1 interfaces.
C. Configure IP addressing and no shutdown commands on both the R1 and R2 fa0/1
interfaces.
D. Configure IP addressing and no shutdown commands on either of the R1 or R2 fa0/1
interfaces.
Answer: B
Question 8
Which statements are true regarding ICMP packets? (Choose two)
A. They acknowledge receipt of TCP segments.

B. They guarantee datagram delivery
C. TRACERT uses ICMP packets.
D. They are encapsulated within IP datagrams.
E. They are encapsulated within UDP datagrams
Answer: C D
Question 9
Refer to the exhibit. If CDP is enabled on all devices and interfaces, which devices will
appear in the output of a show cdp neighbors command issued from R2?
A. R2 and R3
B. R1 and R3
C. R3 and S2
D. R1, S1, S2, and R3
E. R1, S1, S2, R3, and S3
Answer: C
Question 10
Which protocol verifies connectivity between two switches that are configured with IP
addresses in the same network?
A. ICMP
B. STP
C. VTP
D. HSRP
Answer: A
ICND1 – IP Address
http://www.9tut.net/icnd1-100-105/icnd1-ip-address
Question 1
Which RFC was created to alleviate the depletion of IPv4 public addresses?
A. RFC 4193
B. RFC 1519
C. RFC 1518
D. RFC 1918
Answer: D
Question 2
Which destination IP address can a host use to send one message to multiple devices across
different subnets?
A. 172.20.1.0
B. 127.0.0.1
C. 192.168.0.119
D. 239.255.0.1
Answer: D
Question 3
Which technology allows a large number of private IP addresses to be represented by a

smaller number of public IP addresses?
A. NAT
B. NTP
C. RFC 1631
D. RFC 1918
Answer: A
Question 4
Which IP address is a private address?
A. 12.0.0.1
B. 168.172.19.39
C. 172.20.14.36
D. 172.33.194.30
E. 192.169.42.34
Answer: C
Question 5
Which of the following IP addresses are valid Class B host addresses if a default Class B
mask is in use? (Choose two)
A. 10.6.8.35
B. 133.6.5.4
C. 192.168.5.9
D. 127.0.0.1
E. 190.6.5.4
Answer: B E
Question 6
From where does a small network get its IP network address?
A. Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA)

B. Internet Architecture Board (IAB)
C. Internet Service Provider (ISP)
D. Internet Domain Name Registry (IDNR)
Answer: C
Question 7
Which three network addresses are reserved for private network use? (Choose three)
A. 10.0.0.0
B. 172.15.0.0
C. 172.31.0.0
D. 192.162.24.0
E. 192.168.255.0
F. 224.192.0.0
Answer: A C E
ICND1 – Subnetting
http://www.9tut.net/icnd1-100-105/new-icnd1-subnetting
Question 1
Question 1
What is the subnet address for the IP address 172.19.20.23/28?
A. 172.19.20.0
B. 172.19.20.15
C. 172.19.20.16
D. 172.19.20.20
E. 172.19.20.32
Answer: C
Question 2
What is the network address for the host with IP address 192.168.23.61/28?
A. 192.168.23.0
B. 192.168.23.32
C. 192.168.23.48
D. 192.168.23.56
E. 192.168.23.60
Answer: C
Question 3
Given an IP address of 192.168.1.42 255.255.255.248, what is the subnet address?
A. 192.168.1.8/29
B. 192.168.1.32/27
C. 192.168.1.40/29
D. 192.168.1.16/28
E. 192.168.1.48/29
Answer: C
Question 4
Which IP addresses are valid for hosts belonging to the 10.1.160.0/20 subnet? (Choose three)
A. 10.1.168.0
B. 10.1.176.1
C. 10.1.174.255
D. 10.1.160.255
E. 10.1.160.0
F. 10.1.175.255
Answer: A C D
Question 5
Which one of the following IP addresses is the last valid host in the subnet using mask
255.255.255.224?
A. 192.168.2.63
B. 192.168.2.62
C. 192.168.2.61
D. 192.168.2.60
E. 192.168.2.32
Answer: B
Question 6
An administrator is working with the 192.168.4.0 network, which has been subnetted with a
/26 mask. Which two addresses can be assigned to hosts within the same subnet? (Choose
two)
A. 192.168.4.61
B. 192.168.4.63
C. 192.168.4.67
D. 192.168.4.125
E. 192.168.4.128
F. 192.168.4.132
Answer: C D
Question 7
An administrator must assign static IP addresses to the servers in a network. For network
192.168.20.24/29, the router is assigned the first usable host address while the sales server is
given the last usable host address. Which of the following should be entered into the IP
properties box for the sales server?
A. IP address: 192.168.20.14
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248
Default Gateway. 192.168.20.9
B. IP address: 192.168.20.254
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.0
Default Gateway: 192.168.20.1
C. IP address: 192.168.20.30
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248
D. IP address: 192.168.20.30
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240
E. IP address: 192.168.20.30
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240
Default Gateway. 192.168.20.25
Answer: C
Question 8
Given a Class C IP address subnetted with a /30 subnet mask, how many valid host IP
addresses are available on each of the subnets?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
E. 252
F. 254
Answer: B
Question 9
Which two statements describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23? (Choose two)
A. The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.

B. The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.
C. The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0
D. The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.
E. The network is not subnetted.
Answer: B D
Question 10
What is the subnet address of 172.16.159.159/22?
A. 172.16.0.0
B. 172.16.128.0
C. 172.16.156.0
D. 172.16.159.0
E. 172.16.159.128
F. 172.16.192.0
Answer: C
ICND1 – Subnetting 2
http://www.9tut.net/icnd1-100-105/new-icnd1-subnetting-2
Question 1
Refer to the exhibit. The junior network support staff provided the diagram as a
recommended configuration for the first phase of a four-phase network expansion project.
The entire network expansion will have over 1000 users on 14 network segments and has
been allocated this IP address space:
192.168.1.1 through 192.168.5.255

192.168.100.1 through 198.168.100.255
What are three problems with this design? (Choose three)
A – The AREA 1 IP address space is inadequate for the number of users.

B – The AREA 3 IP address space is inadequate for the number of users.
C – AREA 2 could use a mask of /25 to conserve IP address space.
D – The network address space that is provided requires a single network-wide mask.
E – The router-to-router connection is wasting address space.
F – The broadcast domain in AREA 1 is too large for IP to function.
Answer: A C E
Question 2
Refer to the exhibit. The enterprise has decided to use the network address 172.16.0.0. The
network administrator needs to design a classful addressing scheme to accommodate the three
subnets, with 30, 40, and 50 hosts, as shown. What subnet mask would accommodate this
network?
Net bits Subnet mask total-addresses per subnet
/20 255.255.240.0 4096
/21 255.255.248.0 2048
/22 255.255.252.0 1024
/23 255.255.254.0 512
/24 255.255.255.0 256
/25 255.255.255.128 128
/26 255.255.255.192 64
/27 255.255.255.224 32
/28 255.255.255.240 16
/29 255.255.255.248 8
/30 255.255.255.252 4
A. 255.255.255.192
B. 255.255.255.224
C. 255.255.255.240
D. 255.255.255.248
Answer: A
Question 3
The network manager has requested a 300-workstation expansion of the network. The
workstations are to be installed in a single broadcast domain, but each workstation must have
its own collision domain. The expansion is to be as cost-effective as possible while still
meeting the requirements. Which three items will adequately fulfill the request? (Choose
three)
A. one IP subnet with a mask of 255.255.254.0
B. two IP subnets with a mask of 255.255.255.0
C. seven 48-port hubs
D. seven 48-port switches
E. one router interface
F. seven router interfaces
Answer: A D E
Question 4
Which router command will configure an interface with the IP address 10.10.80.1/19?
A. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1/19

B. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.0.0
C. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.255.0
D. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.224.0
E. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.240.0
F. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.255.240
Answer: D
Question 5
Refer to the exhibit. A TFTP server has recently been installed in the Atlanta office. The
network administrator is located in the NY office and has made a console connection to the
NY router. After establishing the connection they are unable to backup the configuration file
and IOS of the NY router to the TFTP server. What is the cause of this problem?
A. The NY router has an incorrect subnet mask.

B. The TFTP server has an incorrect IP address.
C. The TFTP server has an incorrect subnet mask.
D. The network administrator computer has an incorrect IP address.
Answer: C
Question 6
Which two statements describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23? (Choose two)
A. The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.

B. The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.
C. The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0
D. The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.
E. The network is not subnetted.
Answer: B D
Question 7
Refer to the exhibit. The internetwork is using subnets of the address 192.168.1.0 with a
subset mask of 255.255.255.224. The routing protocol in use is RIP version 1. Which address
could be assigned to the FastEthernet interface on RouterA?
A. 192.168.1.31
B. 192.168.1.64
C. 192.168.1.127
D. 192.168.1.190
E. 192.168.1.192
Answer: D
Question 8
A network administrator is connecting PC hosts A and B directly through their Ethernet

interfaces as shown in the graphic. Ping attempts between the hosts are unsuccessful. What
can be done to provide connectivity between the hosts? (Choose two)
A. A crossover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable.
B. A rollover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable.
C. The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.192
D. A default gateway needs to be set on each host.
E. The hosts must be reconfigured to use private IP addresses for direct connections of this
type.
F. The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.0
Answer: A F
Question 9
If an Ethernet port on a router was assigned an IP address of 172.16.112.1/20, what is the

maximum number of hosts allowed on this subnet?
A. 1024
B. 2046
C. 4094
D. 4096
E. 8190
Answer: C
Question 10
Refer to the exhibit. After configuring two interfaces on the HQ router, the network
administrator notices an error message. What must be done to fix this error?
HQ#configure terminal
HQ(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
HQ(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.17 255.255.255.0
HQ(config-if)# no shutdown
HQ(config-if)# interface serial 0/0
HQ(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.65 255.255.255.240
HQ(config-if)# no shutdown
% 192.168.1.0 overlaps with FastEthernet0/0
A. The serial interface must be configured first.

B. The serial interface must use the address 192.168.1.2
C. The subnet mask of the serial interface should be changed to 255.255.255.0
D. The subnet mask of the FastEthernet interface should be changed to 255.255.255.240
E. The address of the FastEthernet interface should be changed to 192.168.1.66
Answer: D
Question 11
Refer to the exhibit. Host B has just been added to the network and must acquire an IP
address. Which two addresses are possible addresses that will allow host B to communicate
with other devices in the network? (Choose two)
A. 192.168.10.32
B. 192.168.10.38
C. 192.168.10.46
D. 192.168.10.47
E. 192.168.10.49
F. 192.168.10.51
Answer: B C
Question 12
A network administrator has subnetted the 172.16.0.0 network using a subnet mask of
255.255.255.192. A duplicate IP address of 172.16.2.120 has accidentally been configured on
a workstation in the network. The technician must assign this workstation a new IP address
within that same subnetwork. Which address should be assigned to the workstation?
A. 172.16.1.80
B. 172.16.2.80
C. 172.16.1.64
D. 172.16.2.64
E. 172.16.2.127
F. 172.16.2.128
Answer: B
Question 13
What is the maximum number of bits that can be borrowed to create subnets if a Class B
network address is being used?
A. 2
B. 6
C. 8
D. 14
E. 16
Answer: D
Question 14
The internetwork shown in the diagram is experiencing network connectivity problems. What
is the cause of the problem?
A. The cabling connecting host A to Switch3 is too long.

B. The address of host B is a broadcast address.
C. The IP address of interface Fa0/0 of Router1 is not a usable address.
D. The cable connecting Switch2 and Switch3 should be a crossover.
E. The IP address of Server 1 is in the wrong subnet.
Answer: D
Question 15
What is the subnet address for the IP address 172.19.20.23/28?
A. 172.19.20.0
B. 172.19.20.15
C. 172.19.20.16
D. 172.19.20.20
E. 172.19.20.32
Answer: C
ICND1 – IP Routing
http://www.9tut.net/icnd1-100-105/new-icnd1-ip-routing
Question 1
What is the best practice when assigning IP addresses in a small office of six hosts?
A. Use a DHCP server that is located at the headquarters.

B. Use a DHCP server that is located at the branch office.
C. Assign the addresses by using the local CDP protocol.
D. Assign the addresses statically on each node.
Answer: D
Question 2
The ip helper-address command does what?
A. assigns an IP address to a host

B. resolves an IP address from a DNS server
C. relays a DHCP request across networks
D. resolves an IP address overlapping issue
Answer: C
Question 3
Refer to the exhibit. As packets travel from Mary to Robert, which three devices will use the
destination MAC address of the packet to determine a forwarding path? (Choose three)
A. Hub1
B. Switch1
C. Router1
D. Switch2
E. Router2
F. Switch3
Answer: B D F
Question 4
Refer to the exhibit. HostX is transferring a file to the FTP server. Point A represents the
frame as it goes toward the Toronto router. What will the Layer 2 destination address be at
this point?
A. abcd. 1123.0045
B. 192.168.7.17
C. aabb.5555.2222
D. 192.168.1.1
E. abcd.2246.0035
Answer: E
Question 5
The command ip route 192.168.100.160 255.255.255.224 192.168.10.2 was issued on a

router. No routing protocols or other static routes are configured on the router. Which
statement is true about this command?
A. The interface with IP address 192.168.10.2 is on this router.

B. The command sets a gateway of last resort for the router.
C. Packets that are destined for host 192.168.100.160 will be sent to 192.168.10.2.
D. The command creates a static route for all IP traffic with the source address
192.168.100.160.
Answer: C
Question 6
What does administrative distance refer to?
A. the cost of a link between two neighboring routers

B. the advertised cost to reach a network
C. the cost to reach a network that is administratively set
D. a measure of the trustworthiness of a routing information source
Answer: D
Question 7
Refer to the exhibit. If host A sends an IP packet to host B, what will the source physical
address be in the frame when it reaches host B?
A. 10.168.10.99
B. 10.168.11.88
C. A1:A1:A1:A1:A1:A1
D. B2:B2:B2:B2:B2:B2
E. C3:C3:C3:C3:C3:C3
F. D4:D4:D4:D4:D4:D4
Answer: E
Question 8
Refer to the exhibit. Host A is sending a packet to Host B for the first time. What destination
MAC address will Host A use in the ARP request?
A. 192.168.0.1
B. 172.16.0.50
C. 00-17-94-61-18-b0
D. 00-19-d3-2d-c3-b2
E. ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff
F. 255.255.255.255
Answer: E
Question 9
Refer to the exhibit. Host A can communicate with Host B but not with Host C or D. How
can the network administrator solve this problem?
A. Configure Hosts C and D with IP addresses in the 192.168.2.0 network.

B. Install a router and configure a route to route between VLANs 2 and 3.
C. Install a second switch and put Hosts C and D on that switch while Hosts A and B remain
on the original switch.
D. Enable the VLAN trunking protocol on the switch.
Answer: B
Question 10
Refer to the exhibit. The host in Kiev sends a request for an HTML document to the server in
Minsk. What will be the source IP address of the packet as it leaves the Kiev router?
A. 10.1.0.1
B. 10.1.0.5
C. 10.1.0.6
D. 10.1.0.14
E. 10.1.1.16
F. 10.1.2.8
Answer: E
ICND1 – IP Routing 2
http://www.9tut.net/icnd1-100-105/new-icnd1-ip-routing-2
Question 1
Refer to the exhibit. Mary is sending an instant message to Robert. The message will be
broken into a series of packets that will traverse all network devices. What addresses will
populate these packets as they are forwarded from Router1 to Router2?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: A
Question 2
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct? (Choose two)
A. This is a default route.
B. Adding the subnet mask is optional for the ip route command.
C. This will allow any host on the 172.16.1.0 network to reach all known destinations beyond
RouterA.
D. This command is incorrect, it needs to specify the interface, such as s0/0/0 rather than an
IP address.
E. The same command needs to be entered on RouterA so that hosts on the 172.16.1.0
network can reach network 10.0.0.0.
Answer: A C
Question 3
Refer to the exhibit. Which command would you use to configure a static route on Router1 to
network 192.168.202.0/24 with a nondefault administrative distance?
A. router1(config)#ip route 1 192.168.201.1 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2

B. router1(config)#ip route 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 1
C. router1(config)#ip route 5 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2
D. router1(config)#ip route 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 5
Answer: D
Question 4
Refer to the exhibit. The output is from a router in a large enterprise. From the output,
determine the role of the router.
A. A Core router.
B. The HQ Internet gateway router.
C. The WAN router at the central site.
D. Remote stub router at a remote site.
Answer: D
Question 5
Refer to the exhibit. What is the simplest way to configure routing between the regional
office network 10.89.0.0/20 and the corporate network?
A. router1(config)#ip route 10.89.0.0 255.255.240.0 10.89.16.2

B. router2(config)#ip route 10.89.3.0 255.255.0.0 10.89.16.2
C. router1(config)#ip route 10.89.0.0 255.255.240.0 10.89.16.1
D. router2(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.89.16.1
Answer: D
Question 6
Refer to the exhibit. What must be configured to establish a successful connection from Host
A to switch SW-A through router RT-A?
A. VLAN 1 on RT-A
B. IP routing on SW-A
C. default gateway on SW-A
D. crossover cable connecting SW-A and RT-A
Answer: C
Question 7
Refer to the exhibit. Which default gateway address should be assigned to HostA?
A. 192.168.1.1
B. 192.168.1.65
C. 192.168.1.66
D. 192.168.1.129
E. 10.1.1.1
F. 10.1.1.2
Answer: B
Question 8
Which value is indicated by the next hop in a routing table?
A. preference of the route source

B. IP address of the remote router for forwarding the packets
C. how the route was learned
D. exit interface IP address for forwarding the packets
Answer: B
Question 9
Which component of a routing table entry represents the subnet mask?
A. routing protocol code

B. prefix
C. metric
D. network mask
Answer: D
Question 10
Which component of the routing table ranks routing protocols according to their preferences?
A. administrative distance
B. next hop
C. metric
D. routing protocol code
Answer: A
Question 11
Which route source code represents the routing protocol with a default administrative
distance of 90 in the routing table?
A. S
B. E
C. D
D. R
E. O
Answer: C
http://www.9tut.net/icnd1-100-105/icnd1-ip-routing-3
Question 1
When enabled, which feature prevents routing protocols from sending hello messages on an
interface?
A. virtual links
B. passive-interface
C. directed neighbors
D. OSPF areas
Answer: B
Question 2
Which routing protocol has the smallest default administrative distance?
A. IBGP
B. OSPF
C. IS-IS
D. EIGRP
E. RIP
Answer: D
Question 3
Which statement about static routes is true?
A. The source interface can be configured to make routing decisions.

B. A subnet mask is entered for the next-hop address.
C. The subnet mask is 255.255 255.0 by default
D. The exit interface can be specified to indicate where the packets will be routed.
Answer: D
Question 4
Which statement about routing protocols is true?
A. Link-state routing protocols choose a path by the number of hops to the destination.
B. OSPF is a link-state routing protocol.
C. Distance-vector routing protocols use the Shortest Path First algorithm.
D. IS-IS is a distance-vector routing protocol.
Answer: B
Question 5
Which dynamic routing protocol uses only the hop count to determine the best path to a
destination?
A. IGRP
B. RIP
C. EIGRP
D. OSPF
Answer: B
Question 6
A workstation has just resolved a browser URL to the IP address of a server. What protocol
will the workstation now use to determine the destination MAC address to be placed into
frames directed toward the server?
A. HTTP
B. DNS
C. DHCP
D. RARP
E. ARP
Answer: E
Question 7
Refer to the exhibit. What is the simplest way to configure routing between the regional
office network 10.89.0.0/20 and the corporate network?
A. router1(config)#ip route 10.89.0.0 255.255.240.0 10.89.16.2
B. router2(config)#ip route 10.89.3.0 255.255.0.0 10.89.16.2
C. router1(config)#ip route 10.89.0.0 255.255.240.0 10.89.16.1
D. router2(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.89.16.1
Answer: D
Question 8
Refer to the output of the corporate router routing table shown in the graphic. The corporate
router receives an IP packet with a source IP address of 192.168.214.20 and a destination
address of 192.168.22.3. What will the router do with this packet?
A. It will encapsulate the packet as Frame Relay and forward it out interface Serial 0/0.117.
B. It will discard the packet and send an ICMP Destination Unreachable message out
interface FastEthernet 0/0.
C. It will forward the packet out interface Serial 0/1 and send an ICMP Echo Reply message
out interface serial 0/0.102.
D. It will change the IP packet to an ARP frame and forward it out FastEthernet 0/0.
Answer: B
Question 9
The network administrator has found the following problem. The remote networks
172.16.10.0, 172.16.20.0, and 172.16.30.0 are accessed through the Central router‟s serial 0/0
interface. No users are able to access 172.16.20.0. After reviewing the command output
shown in the graphic, what is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. no gateway of last resort on Central

B. Central router‟s not receiving 172.16.20.0 update
C. incorrect static route for 172.16.20.0
D. 172.16.20.0 not located in Central‟s routing table
Answer: C
Question 10
What information does a router running a link-state protocol use to build and maintain its
topological database? (Choose two)
A. hello packets
B. SAP messages sent by other routers
C. LSAs from other routers
D. beacons received on point-to-point links
E. routing tables received from other link-state routers
F. TTL packets from designated routers
Answer: A C
Question 11
A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network.
One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from
OSPF with a metric of 782. The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4. Which route or
routes will the router install in the routing table?
A. the OSPF route

B. the EIGRP route
C. the RIPv2 route
D. all three routes
E. the OSPF and RIPv2 routes
Answer: B
Question 1
Some routers have been configured with default routes. What are some of the advantages of
using default routes? (Choose two)
A. They establish routes that will never go down.

B. They keep routing tables small.
C. They require a great deal of CPU power.
D. They allow connectivity to remote networks that are not in the routing table
E. They direct traffic from the internet into corporate networks.
Answer: B D
Question 2
Refer to the exhibit, PC1 pings PC2. What three things will CORE router do with the data
that is received from PC1? (Choose three)
A. The data frames will be forwarded out interface FastEthernet0/1 of CORE router.
B. The data frames will be forwarded out interface FastEthernet1/0 of CORE router.
C. CORE router will replace the destination IP address of the packets with the IP address of
PC2.
D. CORE router will place the MAC address of PC2 in the destination MAC address of the
frames.
E. CORE router will put the IP address of the forwarding FastEthernet interface in the place
of the source IP address in the packets.
F. CORE router will put the MAC address of the forwarding FastEthernet interface in the
place of the source MAC address.
Answer: B D F
Question 3
Which three statements are correct about RIP version 2? (Choose three)
A. It has the same maximum hop count as version 1.

B. It uses broadcasts for its routing updates.
C. It is a classless routing protocol.
D. It has a lower default administrative distance than RIP version 1.
E. It supports authentication.
F. It does not send the subnet mask in updates.
Answer: A C E
Question 4
A technician pastes the configurations in the exhibit into the two new routers shown.
Otherwise, the routers are configured with their default configurations. A ping from Host1 to
Host2 fails, but the technician is able to ping the S0/0 interface of R2 from Host1. The
configurations of the hosts have been verified as correct. What is the cause of the problem?
A. The serial cable on R1 needs to be replaced.
B. The interfaces on R2 are not configured properly.
C. R1 has no route to the 192.168.1.128 network.
D. The IP addressing scheme has overlapping subnetworks.
E. The ip subnet-zero command must be configured on both routers.
Answer: C
Question 5
After the show ip route command has been entered, the following routes are displayed.
Which route will not be entered into the routing table of a neighboring router?
A. R 192.168.8.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:10, Serial0

B. R 192.168.11.0/24 [120/7] via 192.168.9.1, 00:00:03, Serial1
C. C 192.168.1.0/24 is directly connected, Ethernet0
D. R 192.168.5.0/24 [120/15] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:10, Serial0
Answer: D
Question 6
Refer to the exhibit. What value should be displayed in Box 1 of the ipconfig output of host
A?
A. 172.18.14.5
B. 172.18.14.6
C. 192.168.1.10
D. 192.168.1.11
E. 192.168.1.250
F. 192.168.1.254
Answer: F
Question 7
After you configure a default route to the Internet on a router, the route is missing from the
routing table. Which option describes a possible reason for the problem?
A. The next-hop address is unreachable.

B. The default route was configured on a passive interface.
C. Dynamic routing is disabled.
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol is disabled on the interface used to reach the next hop.
Answer: A
Question 8
Which information is used to install the best route to a destination in IP routing table?
A. the tunnel ID
B. the interface number
C. the prefix length
D. the autonoums system
Answer: C
Question 9
What is the administrative distance of connected routes?
A.1
B. 0
C. 10
D. 90
Answer: B
ICND1 – OSPF Questions

http://www.9tut.net/icnd1-100-105/new-icnd1-ospf-questions
Question 1
Which of the following describe the process identifier that is used to run OSPF on a router?
(Choose two)
A. It is locally significant.
B. It is globally significant.
C. It is needed to identify a unique instance of an OSPF database.
D It is an optional parameter required only if multiple OSPF processes are running on the
router.
E. All routers in the same OSPF area must have the same process ID if they are to exchange
routing information.
Answer: A C
Question 2
Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) is a routing protocol developed for Internet Protocol (IP)
networks by the Interior Gateway Protocol (IGP) working group of the Internet Engineering
Task Force (IETF). What is the default administrative distance of the OSPF routing protocol?
A. 90
B. 100
C. 110
D. 20
E. 130
F. 170
Answer: C
Question 3
Which statements describe the routing protocol OSPF? (Choose three)
A. It supports VLSM.
B. It is used to route between autonomous systems.
C. It confines network instability to one area of the network.
D. It increases routing overhead on the network.
E. It allows extensive control of routing updates.
F. It is simpler to configure than RIPv2.
Answer: A C E
Question 4
R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3. What are possible reasons
for this problem? (Choose two)
A. All of the routers need to be configured for backbone Area 1.

B. R1 and R2 are the DR and BDR, so OSPF will not establish neighbor adjacency with R3.
C. A static route has been configured from R1 to R3 and prevents the neighbor adjacency
from being established.
D. The hello and dead interval timers are not set to the same values on R1 and R3.
E. EIGRP is also configured on these routers with a lower administrative distance.
F. R1 and R3 are configured in different areas.
Answer: D F
Question 5
Which address are OSPF hello packets addressed to on point-to-point networks?
A. 224.0.0.5
B. 172.16.0.1
C. 192.168.0.5
D. 223.0.0.1
E. 254.255.255.255
Answer: A
Question 6
RouterD# show ip interface brief
Given the output for this command, if the router ID has not been manually set, what router ID
will OSPF use for this router?
A. 10.1.1.2
B. 10.154.154.1
C. 172.16.5.1
D. 192.168.5.3
Answer: C
Question 7
ROUTER# show ip route

192.168.12.0/24 is variably subnetted, 9 subnets, 3 masks C 192.168.12.64 /28 is directly
connected, Loopback1
C 192.168.12.32 /28 is directly connected, Ethernet0
C 192.168.12.48 /28 is directly connected, Loopback0
O 192.168.12.236 /30 [110/128] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial0
C 192.168.12.232 /30 is directly connected, Serial0
O 192.168.12.245 /30 [110/782] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial0
O 192.168.12.240 /30 [110/128] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial0
O 192.168.12.253 /30 [110/782] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:37, Serial0
O 192.168.12.249/30 [110/782] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:37, Serial0
O 192.168.12.240/30 [110/128] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial0
To what does the 128 refer to in the router output above?
A. OSPF cost
B. OSPF priority
C. OSPF hop count 5
D. OSPF ID number
E. OSPF administrative distance
Answer: A
Question 8
The internetwork infrastructure of company XYZ consists of a single OSPF area as shown in
the graphic. There is concern that a lack of router resources is impeding internetwork
performance.
As part of examining the router resources the OSPF DRs need to be known.
All the router OSPF priorities are at the default and the router IDs are shown with each
router.
Which routers are likely to have been elected as DR? (Choose two)
A. Corp-1
B. Corp-2
C. Corp-3
D. Corp4
E. Branch-1
F. Branch-2
Answer: D F
Question 9
A. hello packets
Answer: A C
Question 10
What is the default administrative distance of OSPF?
A. 90
B. 100
C. 110
D. 120
Answer: C
Question 11
Which characteristics are representative of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose three)
A. provides common view of entire topology

B. exchanges routing tables with neighbors
C. calculates shortest path
D. utilizes event-triggered updates
E. utilizes frequent periodic updates
Answer: A C D
ICND1 – DHCP Questions

http://www.9tut.net/icnd1-100-105/icnd1-dhcp-questions
Question 1
What is the default lease time for a DHCP binding?
A. 24 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 48 hours
D. 36 hours
Answer: A
Question 2
Refer to the exhibit. The DHCP settings have recently been changed on the DHCP server and
the client is no longer able to reach network resources. What should be done to correct this
situation?
A. Verify that the DNS server address is correct in the DHCP pool.
B. Ping the default gateway to populate the ARP cache.
C. Use the tracert command on the DHCP client to first determine where the problem is
located.
D. Clear all DHCP leases on the router to prevent address conflicts.
E. Issue the ipconfig command with the /release and /renew options in a command window.
Answer: E
Question 3
You have configured the host computers on a campus LAN to receive their DHCP addresses
form the local router to be able to browse their corporate site. Which statement about the
network environment is true?
A. It supports a DNS server for use by DHCP clients.

B. Two host computers may be assigned the same IP address.
C. The DNS server must be configured manually on each host.
D. The domain name must be configured locally on each host computer.
Answer: A
ICND1 – NAT/PAT
http://www.9tut.net/icnd1-100-105/new-icnd1-natpat
Question 1
What happens when computers on a private network attempt to connect to the Internet
through a Cisco router running PAT?
A. The router uses the same IP address but a different TCP source port number for each
connection.
B. An IP address is assigned based on the priority of the computer requesting the connection.
C. The router selects an address from a pool of one-to-one address mappings held in the
lookup table.
D. The router assigns a unique IP address from a pool of legally registered addresses for the
duration of the connection.
Answer: A
Question 2
In the configuration of NAT, what does the keyword overload signify?
A. When bandwidth is insufficient, some hosts will not be allowed to access network
translation.
B. The pool of IP addresses has been exhausted.
C. Multiple internal hosts will use one IP address to access external network resources.
D. If the number of available IP addresses is exceeded, excess traffic will use the specified
address pool.
Answer: C
Question 3
When configuring NAT, the Internet interface is considered to be what?
A. local
B. inside
C. global
D. outside
Answer: D
Question 4
Which NAT type is used to translate a single inside address to a single outside address?
A. dynamic NAT
B. NAT overload
C. PAT
D. static NAT
Answer: D
Question 5
Which statement about the inside interface configuration in a NAT deployment is true?
A. It is defined globally
B. It identifies the location of source addresses for outgoing packets to be translated using
access or route maps.
C. It must be configured if static NAT is used
D. It identifies the public IP address that traffic will use to reach the internet.
Answer: B
Question 6
Under which circumstance should a network administrator implement one-way NAT?
A. when the network must route UDP traffic

B. when traffic that originates outside the network must be routed to internal hosts
C. when traffic that originates inside the network must be routed to internal hosts
D. when the network has few public IP addresses and many private IP addresses require
outside access
Answer: B
Question 7
How many addresses will be available for dynamic NAT translation when a router is
configured with the following commands?
Router(config)#ip nat pool TAME 209.165.201.23 209.165.201.30 netmask 255.255.255.224

Router(config)#ip nat inside source list 9 pool TAME
A. 7
B. 8
C. 9
D. 10
E. 24
F. 32
Answer: B
Question 8
What does the “Inside Global” address represent in the configuration of NAT?
A. the summarized address for all of the internal subnetted addresses

B. the MAC address of the router used by inside hosts to connect to the Internet
C. a globally unique, private IP address assigned to a host on the inside network
D. a registered address that represents an inside host to an outside network
Answer: D
Question 9
Refer to the graphic:
A company wants to use NAT in the network shown. Which commands will apply the NAT
configuration to the proper interfaces? (Choose two)
A.
R1 (config)# interface serial0/1
R1 (config-if)# ip nat inside
B.
R1 (config)# interface serial0/1
R1 (config-if)# ip nat outside
C.
R1 (config)# interface FastEthernet0/0
R1 (config-if)# ip nat inside
D.
R1 (config-if)# ip nat outside
E.
R1(config)# interface serial0/1
R1 (config-if)# ip nat outside source pool 200.2.2.18 255.255.255.252
F.
R1 (config-if)# ip nat inside source 10.10.0.0 255.255.255.0
Answer: B C
Question 10
Which form of NAT maps multiple private IP addresses to a single registered IP address by
using different ports?
A. static NAT
B. dynamic NAT
C. overloading
D. overlapping
E. port loading
Answer: C
Question 11
Which statement describes the effect of the overload keyword in the ip nat inside source list
90 interface ethernet 0/0 overload command?
A. Addresses that match address list inside are translated to the IP address of the Ethernet 0/0
interface.
B. Hosts that match access inside are translated to an address in the Ethernet 0/0 network.
C. Hosts on the Ethernet 0/0 LAN are translated to the address pool in access list 90.
D. Addresses that match access list 90 are translated through PAT to the IP address of the
Ethernet 0/0 interface
Answer: D
Question 12
Which NAT command can be applied to an interface?
A. ip nat inside
B. ip nat inside test access-list-number pool pool-name
C. ip nat inside source static 10.10.10.0 10.10.10.50
D. ip nat pool test 10.10.10.0 10.10.10.50 255.255.255.0
Answer: A
Question 13
Which command displays the number of times that an individual router translated an inside
address to an outside address?
A. show ip protocol 0
B. show ip nat translation
C. show counters
D. show ip route
E. show ip nat statistics
Answer: E
Question 14
Which NAT term is defined as a group of addresses available for NAT use?
A. one-way nat
B. static nat
C. dynamic nat
D. nat pool
Answer: D
ICND1 – Troubleshooting
http://www.9tut.net/icnd1-100-105/new-icnd1-troubleshooting
Question 1
Refer to the exhibit. A TFTP server has recently been installed in the Atlanta office. The
network administrator is located in the NY office and has made a console connection to the
NY router. After establishing the connection they are unable to backup the configuration file
and IOS of the NY router to the TFTP server. What is the cause of this problem?
A. The NY router has an incorrect subnet mask.
B. The TFTP server has an incorrect IP address.
C. The TFTP server has an incorrect subnet mask.
D. The network administrator computer has an incorrect IP address.
Answer: C
Question 2
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured a Catalyst 2950 switch for
remote management by pasting into the console the configuration commands that are shown
in the exhibit. However, a Telnet session cannot be successfully established from a remote
host. What should be done to fix this problem?
interface vlan 1
ip address 192.168.17.253 255.255.255.240
no shutdown
exit
ip default-gateway 192.168.17.1
line vty 0 15
password cisco
login
exit
A. Change the first line to interface fastethernet 0/1.

B. Change the first line to interface vlan 0/1.
C. Change the fifth line to ip default-gateway 192.168.17.241.
D. Change the fifth line to ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.17.1.
E. Change the sixth line to line con 0.
Answer: C
Question 3
Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green.
What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose
three)
A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch
ports.
B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.
D. Ensure the switch has power.
E. Reboot all of the devices.
F. Reseat all cables.
Answer: B D F
Question 4
Refer to the exhibit. A person is trying to send a file from a host on Network A of the JAX
Company to a server on Network Z of the XYZ Company. The file transfer fails. The host on
Network A can communicate with other hosts on Network A. Which command, issued from
router RTA, would be the most useful for troubleshooting this problem?
A. show flash:
B. show history
C. show version
D. show interfaces
E. show controllers serial
Answer: D
Question 5
Refer to the exhibit. A user cannot reach any web sites on the Internet, but others in the
department are not having a problem. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. IP routing is not enabled.

B. The default gateway is not in the same subnet.
C. A DNS server address is not reachable by the PC.
D. A DHCP server address is not reachable by the PC.
E. NAT has not been configured on the router that connects to the Internet.
Answer: C
Question 6
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity problem on

the serial interfaces. The output from the show interfaces command on both routers shows
that the serial interface is up, line protocol is down. Given the partial output for the show
running-config in the exhibit, what is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. The serial cable is bad.
B. The MTU is incorrectly configured.
C. The Layer 2 framing is misconfigured.
D. The IP addresses are not in the same subnet.
Answer: C
Question 7
While troubleshooting a connectivity issue from a PC you obtain the following information:
Local PC IP address: 10.0.0.35/24
Remote Sever: 10.5.75.250/24
You then conduct the following tests from the local PC:
Ping 127.0.0.1 – Successful
Ping 10.0.0.35 – Successful
Ping 10.0.0.1 – Unsuccessful
Ping 10.5.75.250 – Unsuccessful
What is the underlying cause of this problem?

A. A remote physical layer problem exists.
B. The host NIC is not functioning.
C. TCP/IP has not been correctly installed on the host.
D. A local physical layer problem exists.
Answer: D
Question 8
Refer to the exhibit. A host is connected to switch port fa0/3. The host and switch have been
fully configured for IP connectivity as shown. However, the indicator LED on switch port
fa0/3 is not on, and the host cannot communicate with any other hosts including those
connected to VLAN 2 on the same switch. Based on the given information, what is the
problem?
A. switch port fa0/3 is not configured as a trunk port

B. there is a bad cable
C. the switch has been assigned an incorrect subnet mask
D. switch port fa0/3 has been blocked by STP
E. the switch and the host must be in the same subnet
Answer: B
Question 9
Serial0/0 does not respond to a ping request from a host on the FastEthernet0/0 LAN. How
can this problem be corrected?
A. Enable the Serial 0/0 interface.
B. Correct the IP address for Serial 0/0.
C. Correct the IP address for FastEthernet 0/0.
D. Change the encapsulation type on Serial 0/0.
E. Enable autoconfiguration on the Serial 0/0 interface.
Answer: A
Question 10
Refer to the exhibit. Why was this message received?

Router#telnet 10.3.1.2
Trying 10.3.1.2 … Open
Password required, but none set

[Connection to 10.3.1.2 closed by foreign host]
Router#
A. No VTY password has been set.

B. No enable password has been set.
C. No console password has been set.
D. No enable secret password has been set.
E. The login command has not been set on CON 0
F. The login command has not been set on the VTY ports.
Answer: A
Question 11
Refer to the exhibit. Which two of the output fields could help you determine if a broadcast
storm has occurred? (Choose two.)
A. giants
B. no buffer
C. collisions
D. ignored
E. dribble condition
Answer: B D
ICND1 – Troubleshooting 2
http://www.9tut.net/icnd1-100-105/icnd1-troubleshooting-2
Question 1
Two routers named Atlanta and Brevard are connected by their serial interfaces as shown in
the exhibit, but there is no data connectivity between them. The Atlanta router is known to
have a correct configuration. Given the partial configurations shown in the exhibit, what is
the problem on the Brevard router that is causing the lack of connectivity?
A. A loopback is not set

B. The IP address is incorrect.
C. The subnet mask is incorrect.
D. The serial line encapsulations are incompatible.
E. The maximum transmission unit (MTU) size is too large.
F. The bandwidth setting is incompatible with the connected interface.
Answer: B
Question 2
Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is unable to ping from R1 to R2. Using the output
of the show interfaces serial0/1 command, what should the administrator do to correct the
problem?
A. Replace the serial cable between R1 and R2.
B. Reseat the serial connectors on the R1 and R2 routers.
C. Configure the serial0/1 interface on R2 with the no shutdown command.
D. Configure the serial0/1 interface on R1 with the clock rate 56000 command.
E. Configure the serial0/1 interface on R1 with the ip address 192.1.1.7 255.255.255.252
command.
Answer: C
Question 3
Examine the network diagram and router output shown in the exhibit. Users on the BHM
LAN are unable to access the server attached to the BHE router. What two things should be
done to fix this problem? (Choose two)
A. Enter the configuration mode for interface fastethernet0/0.

B. Enter the configuration mode for interface serial0/0.
C. Enter the configuration mode for interface serial0/1.
D. Issue the run command.
E. Issue the enable command.
F. Issue the no shutdown command.
Answer: B F
Question 4
Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is unable to ping from R1 to R2. What will help
correct the problem?
A. Ensure that the serial cable is correctly plugged in to the interfaces.

B. Apply the clock rate 56000 configuration command to the serial0/1 interface of R1.
C. Configure the serial0/1 interfaces on R1 and R2 with the no shutdown command.
D. Change the address of the serial0/1 interface of R1 to 192.1.1.4.
E. Change the subnet masks of both interfaces to 255.255.255.240.
Answer: A
Question 5
What happens when the cable is too long?
A. Baby Giant
B. Late collision
C. Duplex mismatch
D. No connection
Answer: B
ICND1 – IPv6 Questions

http://www.9tut.net/icnd1-100-105/icnd1-ipv6-questions
Question 1
Which technology supports the stateless assignment of IPv6 addresses?
A. DNS
B. DHCPv6
C. DHCP
D. autoconfiguration
Answer: B
Question 2
Which entity assigns IPv6 addresses to end users?
A. ICANN
B. APNIC
C. RIR
D. ISPs
Answer: D
Question 3
What is one requirement for interfaces to run IPv6?
A. An IPv6 address must be configured on the interface.

B. An IPv4 address must be configured.
C. Stateless autoconfiguration must be enabled after enabling IPv6 on the interface.
D. IPv6 must be enabled with the ipv6 enable command in global configuration mode.
Answer: A
Question 4
What is the requirement of configuring 6to4 tunnelling on two routers?
A. Both ipv6 and ipv4 must be configured

B. Only IPv6
C. Only IPv4
Answer: A
Question 5
Which command can you use to manually assign a static IPv6 address to a router interface?
A. ipv6 address PREFIX_1::1/64

B. ipv6 autoconfig 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64
C. ipv6 autoconfig
D. ipv6 address 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64
Answer: D
Question 6
Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two)
A. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.

B. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPV6 addresses of any type.
C. Every IPV6 interface contains at least one loopback address.
D. Leading zeros in an IPV6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.
Answer: B C
Question 7
Which option is a valid IPv6 address?
A. 2001:0000:130F::099a::12a
B. 2002:7654:A1AD:61:81AF:CCC1
C. FEC0:ABCD:WXYZ:0067::2A4
D. 2004:1:25A4:886F::1
Answer: D
Question 8
How many bits are contained in each field of an IPv6 address?
A. 24
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: D
Question 9
Which three approaches can be used while migrating from an IPv4 addressing scheme to an
IPv6 scheme? (Choose three)
A. static mapping of IPv4 address to IPv6 addresses

B. configuring IPv4 tunnels between IPv6 islands
C. use DHCPv6 to map IPv4 addresses to IPv6 addresses
D. use proxying and translation (NAT-PT) to translate IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets
E. configure IPv6 directly
F. enable dual-stack routing
Answer: B D F
Question 10
Which statement about IPv6 is true?
A. Addresses are not hierarchical and are assigned at random.

B. Broadcasts have been eliminated and replaced with multicasts.
C. There are 2.7 billion available addresses.
D. An interface can only be configured with one IPv6 address.
Answer: B
ICND1 – IPv6 Questions 2

http://www.9tut.net/icnd1-100-105/icnd1-ipv6-questions-2
Question 1
Identify the four valid IPv6 addresses. (Choose four)
A. ::
B. ::192:168:0:1
C. 2000::
D. 2001:3452:4952:2837::
E. 2002:c0a8:101::42
F. 2003:dead:beef:4dad:23:46:bb:101
Answer: A B E F
Question 2
Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose two)
A. Global addresses start with 2000::/3
B. Link-local addresses start with FE00:/12
C. Link-local addresses start with FF00::/10
D. There is only one loopback address and it is ::1
E. If a global address is assigned to an interface, then that is the only allowable address for
the interface.
Answer: A D
Question 3
Which statement is true?
A. An IPv6 address is 64 bits long and is represented as hexadecimal characters.

B. An IPv6 address is 32 bits long and is represented as decimal digits.
C. An IPv6 address is 128 bits long and is represented as decimal digits.
D. An IPv6 address is 128 bits long and is represented as hexadecimal characters.
Answer: D
Question 4
Which statements are TRUE regarding Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses? (Choose
three)
A. An IPv6 address is divided into eight 16-bit groups.

B. A double colon (::) can only be used once in a single IPv6 address.
C. IPv6 addresses are 196 bits in length.
D. Leading zeros cannot be omitted in an IPv6 address.
E. Groups with a value of 0 can be represented with a single 0 in IPv6 address.
Answer: A B E
Question 5
Which technique can you use to route IPv6 traffic over an IPv4 infrastructure?
A. NAT
B. 6to4 tunneling
C. L2TPv3
D. dual-stack
Answer: B
Question 6
Which header field is new in IPv6?
A. Version
B. Hop Limit
C. Flow Label
D. Traffic Class
Answer: C
Question 7
Which sequence begins a unique local IPv6 address in binary notation?
A. 1111000
B. 11111000
C. 11111100
D. 11100000
Answer: C
ICND1 – NTP Questions

http://www.9tut.net/icnd1-100-105/icnd1-ntp-questions
Question 1
Which NTP command configures the local device as an NTP reference clock source?
A. ntp peer
B. ntp broadcast
C. ntp master
D. ntp server
Answer: C
Question 2
Which NTP concept indicates the distance between a device and the reliable time source?
A. clock offset
B. stratum
C. reference
D. dispersion
Answer: B
Question 3
Which statement about NTP is true?
A. each device is enabled as server by default

B. the default authentication key number is 1
C. the default stratum number is 5
D. the default source of a NTP message is the interface connected to the next-hop for server
peer address
Answer: D
ICND1 – Security Questions

http://www.9tut.net/icnd1-100-105/new-icnd1-security-questions
Question 1
An administrator has connected devices to a switch and, for security reasons, wants the
dynamically learned MAC addresses from the address table added to the running
configuration. What must be done to accomplish this?
A. Enable port security and use the keyword sticky.

B. Set the switchport mode to trunk and save the running configuration.
C. Use the switchport protected command to have the MAC addresses added to the
configuration.
D. Use the no switchport port-security command to allow MAC addresses to be added to the
configuration.
Answer: A
Question 2
The following commands are entered on the router:
Burbank(config)# enable secret fortress

Burbank(config)# line con 0
Burbank(config-line)# login
Burbank(config-line)# password n0way1n
Burbank(config-line)# exit
Burbank(config)# service password-encryption
What is the purpose of the last command entered?

A. to require the user to enter an encrypted password during the login process
B. to prevent the vty, console, and enable passwords from being displayed in plain text in the
configuration files
C. to encrypt the enable secret password
D. to provide login encryption services between hosts attached to the router
Answer: B
Question 3
Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port

B. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
C. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
D. block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces
Answer: B
Question 4
A company has placed a networked PC in a lobby so guests can have access to the corporate
directory. A security concern is that someone will disconnect the directory PC and re-connect
their laptop computer and have access to the corporate network. For the port servicing the
lobby, which three configuration steps should be performed on the switch to prevent this?
(Choose three)
A. Enable port security.

B. Create the port as a trunk port.
C. Create the port as an access port.
D Create the port as a protected port.
E. Set the port security aging time to 0.
F. Statically assign the MAC address to the address table.
G. Configure the switch to discover new MAC addresses after a set time of inactivity.
Answer: A C F
Question 5
What is the effect of using the service password-encryption command?
A. Only the enable password will be encrypted.

B. Only the enable secret password will be encrypted.
C. Only passwords configured after the command has been entered will be encrypted.
D. It will encrypt the secret password and remove the enable secret password from the
configuration.
E. It will encrypt all current and future passwords.
Answer: E
Question 6
How can you ensure that only the MAC address of a server is allowed by switch port Fa0/1?
A. Configure port Fa0/1 to accept connections only from the static IP address of the server.
B. Configure the server MAC address as a static entry of port security.
C. Use a proprietary connector type on Fa0/1 that is incomputable with other host connectors.
D. Bind the IP address of the server to its MAC address on the switch to prevent other hosts
from spoofing the server IP address.
Answer: B
Question 7
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator made the entries that are shown and then
saved the configuration. From a console connection, what password or password sequence is
required for the administrator to access privileged mode on Router1?
Router# configure terminal
Router(config)# hostname Router1
Router1(config)# enable secret sanfran
Router1(config)# enable password cisco
Router1(config)# line vty 0 4
Router1(config-line)# password sanjose
Route r1(config-line)#
A. cisco
B. sanfran
C. sanjose
D. either cisco or sanfran
E. either cisco or sanjose
F. sanjose and sanfran
Answer: B
Question 8
What should be part of a comprehensive network security plan?

A. Allow users to develop their own approach to network security
B. Physically secure network equipment from potential access by unauthorized individuals
C. Encourage users to use personal information in their passwords to minimize the likelihood
of passwords being forgotten
D. Delay deployment of software patches and updates until their effect on end-user
equipment is well known and widely reported
E. Minimize network overhead by deactivating automatic antivirus client updates
Answer: B
Question 9
What are two recommended ways of protecting network device configuration files from
outside network security threats? (Choose two)
A. Allow unrestricted access to the console or VTY ports.

B. Use a firewall to restrict access from the outside to the network devices.
C. Always use Telnet to access the device command line because its data is automatically
encrypted.
D. Use SSH or another encrypted and authenticated transport to access device configurations.
E. Prevent the loss of passwords by disabling password encryption.
Answer: B D
Question 10
From which of the following attacks can Message Authentication Code (MAC) shield your
network?
A. DoS
B. DDoS
C. spoofing
D. SYN floods
Answer: C
ICND1 – Miscellaneous Questions

http://www.9tut.net/icnd1-100-105/icnd1-miscellaneous-questions
Question 1
Which statements are true regarding ICMP packets? (Choose two)
A. They acknowledge receipt of TCP segments.

B. They guarantee datagram delivery
C. TRACERT uses ICMP packets.
D. They are encapsulated within IP datagrams.
E. They are encapsulated within UDP datagrams
Answer: C D
Question 2
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator cannot connect from R1 to R2. To troubleshoot this
problem, the administrator has entered the command shown in the exhibit. Based on the
output shown, what could be the problem?
A. The serial interface is configured for half duplex.

B. The serial interface does not have a cable attached.
C. The serial interface has the wrong type of cable attached.
D. The serial interface is configured for the wrong frame size.
E. The serial interface has a full buffer.
Answer: C
Question 3
How many simultaneous Telnet sessions does a Cisco router support by default?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
F. 6
Answer: E
Question 4
Which of the following is a characteristic of full-duplex communication?
A. It is a CSMA/CD network.
B. It is a CSMA/CA network.
C. It is point-to-point only.
D. Hub communication is done via full duplex.
Answer: C
Question 5
Which set of conditions comprises a successful ping attempt between two connected routers
configured with IP addresses on the same subnet?
A. The destination host receives an echo reply from the source host within one second and
the source host receives an echo request from the destination host.
B. The destination host receives an echo request from the source host within one second.
C. The destination host receives an echo reply from the source host within one second and the
source host receives an echo reply from the destination host within two seconds.
D. The destination host receives an echo request from the source host and the source host
receives an echo request from the destination host within one second.
E. The destination host receives an echo request from the source host and the source host
receives an echo reply from the destination host within two seconds.
Answer: E
ICND1 – Wireless Questions

http://www.9tut.net/icnd1-100-105/icnd1-wireless-questions
Question 1
Which device allows users to connect to the network using a single or double radio?
A. access point
B. switch
C. wireless controller
D. firewall
Answer: A
ICND1 – Drag and Drop

http://www.9tut.net/icnd1-100-101/new-icnd1-drag-and-drop
Question 1
Various protocols are listed on the left On the right are applications for the use of those
protocols. Drag the protocol on the left to an associated function for that protocol on the right
(Not all options are used)
Answer:
+ ARP: A PC sends packets to the default gateway IP address the first time since the PC
turned on.
+ ICMP: The network administrator is checking basic IP connectivity from a workstation to a
server.
+ DNS: The TCP/IP protocol stack must find an IP address for packets destined for a URL.
+ DHCP: A network device will automatically assign IP addresses to workstations.
Question 2
Move the protocol or service on the left to a situation on the right where it would be used.
(Not all options are used)
Answer:
+ NAT: A PC with address 10.1.5.10 must access devices on the Internet.

+ DHCP: Only routers and servers require static IP addresses. Easy IP administration is
required.
+ DNS: A PC only knows a server as MediaServer. IP needs to send data to that server.
+ OSPF: A protocol is needed to replace current static routes with automatic route updates.
Question 3
Drag the definition on the left to the correct term on the right. Not all definitions on the left
will be used.
Answer:
+ SNMP: a protocol used to monitor and manage network devices

+ FTP: a reliable, connection-oriented service that uses TCP to transfer files between systems
+ TFTP: a connectionless service that uses UDP to transfer files between systems
+ DNS: a protocol that converts human-readable names into machine-readable addresses
+ DHCP: used to assign IP addresses automatically and set parameters such as subnet mask
and default gateway
Question 4
Drag the appropriate command on the left to the configuration task it accomplishes (not all
options are used)
Answer:
service password-encryption encrypt all clear text passwords

line console 0
protect access to the user mode prompt
password friendS0nly
enable secret noWay1n4u set privileged mode encrypted password
line vty 0 4
set password to allow Telnet connections
password 2hard2Guess
enable password uwi11NeverNo set privileged mode clear text password
Question 5
On the left are various network protocols. On the right are the layers of the TCP/IP model.
Assuming a reliable connection is required, move the protocols on the left to the TCP/IP
layers on the right to show the proper encapsulation for an email message sent by a host on a
LAN. (Not all options are used)
Answer:
+ application layer: SMTP

+ transport layer: TCP
+ internet layer: IP
+ network access layer: Ethernet
DHCP Sim
http://www.9tut.net/icnd1/labsim/dhcp-sim
Refer to the topology below and answer the questions.

For your reference, the configurations of these three routers are posted below (unnecessary
lines are omitted)
R1#show running-config R2#show running-config

! !
interface Loopback0 ip dhcp excluded-address
ip address 192.168.250.1 255.255.255.255 192.168.20.1
! !
interface Ethernet0/0 ip dhcp pool DHCPASSIGN3
description Link to ISP network 192.168.20.0
ip address 209.165.200.225 255.255.255.224 255.255.255.252
ip nat inside !
ip virtual-reassembly in interface Loopback0
! ip address 192.168.250.2
interface Ethernet0/1 255.255.255.255
description Link to Server 1 !
ip address 172.16.200.1 255.255.255.0 interface Ethernet0/0
ip nat outside description Link to R3
ip virtual-reassembly in ip address 192.168.20.1
! 255.255.255.252
interface Ethernet0/2 !
description Link to R2 interface Ethernet0/2
ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.252 description Link to R1
ip nat outside ip address 192.168.10.2
ip virtual-reassembly in 255.255.255.252
! ip access-group SERVER1BLOCK in
router rip !
version 2 interface Ethernet0/3
network 172.16.0.0 description Link to LAN
network 192.168.10.0 ip address 10.100.20.1 255.255.255.0
network 192.168.250.0 !
default-information originate router rip
no auto-summary version 2
! network 10.0.0.0
ip nat inside source list LOCAL interface Ethernet0/0 network 192.168.10.0
overload network 192.168.20.0
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.226 network 192.168.250.0
! !
ip access-list standard LOCAL ip access-list standard
permit 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 SERVER1BLOCK
permit 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 deny 172.16.200.0 0.0.0.255
permit 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255 permit any
! !
ntp server 209.165.200.226 ntp server 192.168.100.1
! !
end end
R3#show running-config
!
interface Loopback0
ip address 192.168.250.3 255.255.255.255
!
interface Ethernet0/0
description Link to LAN
ip address 10.100.10.1 255.255.255.0
!
description Link to R2
no ip address
!
description Link to Server2
ip address 10.100.11.1 255.255.255.0
!
router rip
version 2
network 10.0.0.0
network 192.168.20.0
no auto-summary
!
end
Question 1
Examine the DHCP configuration between R2 and R3, R2 is configured as the DHCP server
and R3 as the client. What is the reason R3 is not receiving the IP address via DHCP?
A. On R3, DHCP is not enabled on the interface that is connected to R2.

B. On R3, the interface that is connected to R2 is in shutdown condition.
C. On R2, the interface that is connected to R3 is in shutdown condition.
D. On R2, the network statement in the DHCP pool configuration is incorrectly configured.
Answer: A
Question 2
R1 router clock is synchronized with ISP router. R2 is supposed to receive NTP updates from
R1. But you observe that R2 clock is not synchronized with R1. What is the reason R2 is not
receiving NTP updates from R1?
A. R1 router Ethernet interface that is connected to R2 is placed in shutdown condition.

B. R2 router Ethernet interface that is connected to R1 is placed in shutdown condition.
C. The NTP server command not configured on R2 router.
D. The IP address that is used in the NTP configuration on R2 router is incorrect.
Answer: D
Question 3
Why applications that are installed on PC‟s in R2 LAN network 10.100.20.0/24 are unable to
communicate with Server1?
A. A standard ACL statement that is configured on R1 is blocking the traffic sourced from
R2 LAN network.
B. A standard ACL statement that is configured on R1 is blocking the traffic sourced from
Server1 network.
C. A standard ACL statement that is configured on R2 is blocking the traffic sourced from
Server1 network.
D. A standard ACL statement that is configured on R2 is blocking the traffic sourced from
R2 LAN network.
Answer: C
Question 4
Users complain that they are unable to reach internet sites. You are troubleshooting internet
connectivity problem at main office. Which statement correctly identifies the problem on
Router R1?
A. NAT configurations on the interfaces are incorrectly configured.

B. NAT translation statement incorrectly configured.
C. Interesting traffic for NAT ACL is incorrectly configured.
D. Only static NAT translation configured from the server, missing Dynamic NAT or
Dynamic NAT overloading for internal networks.
Answer: A
RIPv2 SIM
http://www.9tut.net/icnd1/labsim/ripv2-sim
Question
TUT Company recently installed a new router in their office. Complete the network
installation by performing the initial router configurations and configuring RIPv2 routing
using the router command line interface (CLI) on the R2-TUT.
Name of the router is R2-TUT

Enable-secret password is Sec@ret
The password to access user EXEC mode using the console is Sec@ret2
The password to allow telnet access to the router is Sec@ret3
IPV4 addresses must be configured as follows:
Ethernet network 213.123.20.128/27 – router has last assignable host address in subnet
Serial network is 200.0.1.16/28 – router has last assignable host address in the subnet.
Interfaces should be enabled.
Router protocol is RIPv2
Show Configuration Sim

http://www.9tut.net/icnd1/labsim/show-configuration-sim
This task requires the use of various show commands from the CLI of Router1 to answer 5
multiple-choice questions. This does not require any configuration.
NOTE: The show running-configuration and the show startup-configuration commands
have been disabled in this simulation.
To access the multiple-choice questions, click on the numbered boxes on the right of the top
panel.
There are 5 multiple-choice questions with this task. Be sure to answer all 5 questions before
leaving this item.
Question 1
What is the broadcast address of the subnet of the LAN connected to Router1?
A – 192.168.136.15
B -192.168.136.31
C -192.168.136.63
D – 192.168.136.127
E – 255.255.255.255
Answer: A
Question 2
What is the bandwidth on the WAN interface of Router1?

A – 16 Kbit/sec
B – 32 Kbit/sec
C – 64 Kbit/sec
D – 128 Kbit/sec
E – 512 Kbit/sec
F – 1544 Kbit/sec
Answer: E
Question 3
What interfaces on Router1 have not had any configurations applied? (Choose two)
A – Ethernet 0
B – FastEthenet 0/0
C – FastEthernet 0/1
D – Serial 0
E – Serial 0/0
F – Serial 0/1
Answer: C F
Question 4
Including the address on the Router1 FastEthernet interface, how many hosts can have IP
addresses on the LAN to which Router1 is connected?
A–6
B – 14
C – 62
D – 128
Answer: B
Question 5
The hosts in the LAN are not able to connect to the Internet. Which commands will correct
this issue?
A – Router1(conf)# interface fa0/0
Router1(conf-if)# no shutdown
B – Routed (conf)# interface fa0/1
C – Router1(conf)# interface s0/0
D – Router1(conf)# interface s0/1
E – Router1(conf)# interface s0/0
Router1(conf-if)# ip address 10.11.12.13 255.255.255.252
F – Router1(conf)# interface s0/1
Routerl (conf-if)# ip address 10.11.12.13 255.255.255.252
Answer: C
ICND1 - Security Testlet

http://www.9tut.net/icnd1/icnd1-security-testlet
Question
Not sure about the requirement of this question but it is something like this:
Before this switch and router can be put to use in the network, what security risks can be
found…
Maybe this is the configurations on Router and Switch (but notice that they are surely
missing something):
ROUTER A CONFIGURATION
!
no service password-encryption
!
enable password cisco
!
username ciscouser privilege 15 password 0 cisco
!
banner motd ^CWelcome! If you encountered any problem, please consult the
administrator^C
!
line vty 0 4
password 4t&34rkf
login local
transport input telnet ssh
!
SWITCH A CONFIGURATION
!
!
no service password-encryption
!
hostname switch1
enable password cisco
username ciscouser password 0 cisco
ip domain-name cisco.com
banner login ^c
************ welcome to Switch1. If you encountered any problem, please consult the
administrator ************* ^c
line con 0
!
line vty 0 4
login local
transport input ssh
line vty 5 15
login local
transport input ssh
Note: This is just what we gather and guess. In the exam the configurations may be
different so make sure you understand about “enable secret”, “enable password”,
“login”, “login local”, “transport input”, “line vty”, “service password-encryption”,
“bannder motd”, “privilege” before taking this exam!
This sim has 4 questions:
Question 1
Which of the following is true regarding the configuration of SwitchA?
A. only 5 simultaneous remote connections are possible

B. remote connections using ssh will require a username and password
C. only connections from the local network will be possible
D. console access to SwitchA requires a password
Answer: B
Question 2
Which two of the following are true regarding the configuration of RouterA? (choose two)
A. at least 5 simultaneous remote connect are possible

B. only telnet protocol connections to Router A are supported
C. remotely connection to RouterA using telnet will succeed
D. console line connection will never time out due to inactivity
E. since DHCP is not used on Fa0/1 there is not a need to use the NAT protocol
Answer: A C
Question 3
Select the options which are security issues which need to be modified before RouterA is
used. (Choose two)
A. unencrypted weak password is configured to protect privilege mode

B. inappropriate wording in banner message
C. the virtual terminal lines have weak password configured
D. virtual terminal lines have a password, but it will not be used
E. configuration supports in-secure web server access
Answer: B D
Question 4
Select three options which are security issues with the current configuration of Switch A.
(Choose three)
A. privilege mode is protected with an unencrypted password

B. inappropriate wording in banner message
C. virtual terminal lines are protected only by a password requirement
D. both the username and password are weak
E. telnet connections can be used to remotely manage the switch
F. Cisco user will be granted privilege level 15 by default
Answer: A B D
New ICND2v3 Questions

Question 1
What is the default read-only (RO) mode of SNMP community string?
A. Public
B. Private
C. Cisco
D. Secret
Answer: A
Question 2
What is the output of the command “show snmp engineID”?

Answer: Local SNMP engineID and remote engineID
Question 3
Which protocol HSRP uses to interchange?
A. PPP
B. PPPoE
C. BPDU
D. Hello
Answer: D
Question 4
When does your enterprise require high-speed broadband internet?
A. P2P file sharing

B. Cloud computing
C. IaaS
D. vSAN expansion
E. upgrade IOS
F. resource-intensive application
Answer: B
Question 5
Responses from the TACACS+ daemon?
Answer: ACCEPT, REJECT, ERROR, CONTINUE
Question 6
What protocol CGMP is NOT compatible with?
A. HSRPv1
B. HSRPv2
Answer: A
Explanation
HSRPv1 uses the multicast address 224.0.0.2 to send hello packets, which can conflict with
Cisco Group Management Protocol (CGMP) leave processing. You cannot enable HSRPv1
and CGMP at the same time; they are mutually exclusive.
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3560/software/release/12-
2_52_se/configuration/guide/3560scg/swhsrp.pdf
Question 7
Which about GRE tunnel is true?
Answer: sends in plain text
Question 8
Which algorithm routing protocols are using?
Answer:
+ Dijkstra -> OSPF
+ Bellman-Ford -> RIP
+ DUAL -> EIGRP
Question 9
Which command is used to remove VLANs from trunk?
Answer: switchport trunk allowed vlan remove <VLANs>
Question 10
Which command is used to configure IPv6 peer for BGP?
Answer: neighbor xxxx remote-as xxxx
Question 11
Which command is used to verify GRE tunnel connectivity?
Answer: (not sure but maybe) traceroute OR “show tunnel interface tunnel <tunnel-ID>”
=============================New Questions added on 12nd-Feb-

2018=============================
Question 12
Which of the following provide the highest availability?
A. full mesh
B. partial mesh
C. hub and spoke
Answer: A
Question 13
What can MPLS provide? (Choose two)
A. Authentication Header
B. secure payload of packet with ESP
C. VPN
D. CoS
Answer: A C
Question 14
Which ACL rules are applied as first?
A. Port filter
B. Router filter
C. VLAN filter
D. MAC filter
Answer: A
Explanation
In merge mode, the ACLs are applied in the following order:

1. PACL for the ingress port
2. VACL for the ingress VLAN
3. VACL for the egress VLAN
Port ACLs are similar to Router ACLs but are supported on physical interfaces and
configured on Layer 2 interfaces on a switch. Port ACL supports only inbound traffic
filtering. Port ACL can be configured as three type access lists: standard, extended, and
MAC-extended
Reference: http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=1181682&seqNum=4
Question 15
Which is true about IGP? (Choose two)
A. May use Bellman-Ford algorithm

B. May use Dijkstra Algorithm
C. Can be used between company and ISP
D. Can be used between router – Firewall – router
Answer: A B
Question 16 (maybe same as Question 9)
Which command will remove vlan 10 from trunk?
A. switchport trunk allowed vlan remove 10

B. switchport trunk allowed vlan add 10
Answer: A
Note: Another command to do this task is switchport trunk allowed vlan {all VLANS except
10}
Question 17
Troubleshooting connectivity between two devices. How will you start? (Choose two)
A. ping
B. extended ping with source
C. traceroute
D. something like connect to source‟s next hop and do ping to destination
Answer: A C
Question 18
Which is true about keep-alive interval?

A. if was modified – should be equal on both side
B. have to apply on both side
Answer: A
Explanation
Since HDLC keepalives are ECHOREQ type keepalives, the keepalive frequency is
important and it is recommended that they match up exactly on both sides. If the timers are
out of sync, the sequence numbers start to get out of order. For example, if you set one side to
10 seconds and the other to 25 seconds, it will still allow the interface to remain up as long as
the difference in frequency is not sufficient to cause the sequence numbers to be off by a
difference of three.
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/content-
networking/keepalives/118390-technote-keepalive-00.html
Question 19
Which of the command enable PPP over Ethernet?

A. pppoe-client dial-pool-number
B. ppoe enable
Answer: B
Question 20
Which command immediately put port into forwarding state?
A. spanning-tree portfast default

B. spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default
Answer: A
Explanation
Portfast is often configured on switch ports that connect to hosts. Interfaces with Portfast
enabled will go to forwarding state immediately without passing the listening and learning
state. Therefore it can save about 30 to 45 seconds to transition through these states.
To enable this feature, configure this command under interface mode:
Switch(config-if)#spanning-tree portfast
or we can use the spanning-tree portfast default global configuration command to globally
enable the Port Fast feature on all nontrunking ports.
Question 21
Which feature can prevent switch to become Root Bridge?
A. VTP
B. DTP
C. Root Guard
C. BPDU Guard filter
Answer: C
Question 22
Which mode of VTP will only forward messages and ignore updates?
A. Client
B. Server
C. Transparent
Answer: C
Question 23
Which is correct about APIC-EM Path trace ACL? (Choose two)
A. It checks only ingress interface

B. It checks only egress interface
C. It checks ingress and egress interface
D. If finds ACL which deny traffic, will stop …
Answer: C
Question 24
If TRAP in SNMP is not working, where can be issue?
A. Trap was not set

B. wasn‟t put command “snmp-server enable traps”
C. SNMP server host has not configured inform messages
Answer: B
Explanation
Maybe this question wants to ask why TRAP is not sent after setting the trap.
If you do not enter an snmp-server enable traps command, no notifications controlled by

this command are sent. In order to configure the router to send these SNMP notifications, you
must enter at least one snmp-server enable traps command. If you enter the command with
no keywords, all notification types are enabled. If you enter the command with a keyword,
only the notification type related to that keyword is enabled. In order to enable multiple types
of notifications, you must issue a separate snmp-server enable traps command for each
notification type and notification option.
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/simple-network-management-
protocol-snmp/13506-snmp-traps.html
Note: For SNMP configuration please read http://www.9tut.com/simple-network-

management-protocol-snmp-tutorial
Question 25
Which of the following two things does QOS provide? (Choose two)
Answer: checksum and inspection (not sure)

Question 26
Which of the following is true about Link state protocol?
Answer: (maybe) instant update
Question 27
Which of the following is true about Distance Vector?
Answer: (maybe) periodic update
Question 28
How can BGP advertise routes?
Answer: put command “network prefix mask DDN-mask”
Question 29
What is the default DTP mode?
A. Dynamic Desirable
B. Dynamic Auto
C. On
D. Off
Answer: B
Note: This question is same as Question 4 of http://www.9tut.net/icnd2-200-105/dtp-

questions
Explanation
The Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) is used to negotiate forming a trunk between two
Cisco devices.
In fact this question is unclear as it does not ask about a specific switch model. The default
DTP configuration for Cisco Catalyst 2960 and 3560 switches is dynamic auto while older
3550 switches run Dynamic Desirable as the default mode. So in this question we should
follow the “newer” switches (which is “dynamic auto” mode).
New switches are only set to “dynamic auto” mode by default so they are safer as they do not
try to form a trunk aggressively.
Therefore in this question “dynamic auto” is the best choice.
Question 30
Which three options are benefits of using TACACS+ on a device? (Choose three)
A. It ensures that user activity is untraceable.

B. It provides a secure accounting facility on the device.
C. device-administration packets are encrypted in their entirely.
D. It allows the user to remotely access devices from other vendors.
E. It allows the users to be authenticated against a remote server.
F. It supports access-level authorization for commands.
Answer: C E F
Explanation
TACACS+ (and RADIUS) allow users to be authenticated against a remote server -> E is
correct.
TACACS+ encrypts the entire body of the packet but leaves a standard TACACS+ header ->
C is correct.
TACACS+ supports access-level authorization for commands. That means you can use
commands to assign privilege levels on the router -> F is correct.
Note:
By default, there are three privilege levels on the router.

+ privilege level 1 = non-privileged (prompt is router>), the default level for logging in
+ privilege level 15 = privileged (prompt is router#), the level after going into enable mode
+ privilege level 0 = seldom used, but includes 5 commands: disable, enable, exit, help, and
logout
Question 31
What prevents DDOS (Denial-of-service attack) attack?
Answer: DHCP snooping
Question 32
What allows two neighbor to establish EIGRP adjacency?
Answer: (recommended) same AS number, same subnet, same K values, same mask
Question 33
What command to check if a trunk is enable on an interface?
Answer: show int trunk
Question 34
What command will remove IPv6 OSPF address on an interface?
Answer: no ipv6 ospf 1 area x
Question 35
Why security of RADIUS may be compromised?
Answer: only the password is encrypted
Question 36
Which layer is ACL APIC-EM Path running on?
A. Layer 1
B. Layer 2
C. Layer 3
D. Layer 4
Answer: D
Question 37
What command will statically configure Etherchannel?
A. Desirable
B. Auto
C. On
D. Passive
Answer: C
Question 38
Which two options describe benefits of aggregated chassis technology? (Choose two)
A. It reduces management overhead

B. Switches can be located anywhere regardless of there physical location
C. It requires only one IP address per VLAN
D. It requires only three IP addresses per VLAN
E. It supports HSRP VRRP GLBP
F. It support redundant configuration files
Answer: A C
Explanation
Chassis aggregation is a Cisco technology to make multiple switches operate as a single
switch. It is similar to stacking but meant for powerful switches (like the 6500 and 6800
series switches). Chassis aggregation is often used in the core layer and distribution layer
(while switching stacking is used for access layer).
The books do not mention about the benefits of chassis aggregation but they are the same as
switch stacking.
+ The stack would have a single management IP address.

+ The engineer would connect with Telnet or SSH to one switch (with that one management
IP address), not multiple switches.
+ One configuration file would include all interfaces in all physical switches.
+ STP, CDP, VTP would run on one switch, not multiple switches.
+ The switch ports would appear as if all are on the same switch.
+ There would be one MAC address table, and it would reference all ports on all physical
switches.
Reference: CCNA Routing and Switching ICND2 200-105 Official Cert Guide
VSS is a chassis aggregation technology but it is dedicated for Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series
Switches. VSS increases operational efficiency by simplifying the network, reducing switch
management overhead by at least 50 percent -> A is correct
Single point of management, IP address, and routing instance for the Cisco Catalyst 6500
virtual switch
+ Single configuration file and node to manage. Removes the need to configure redundant
switches twice with identical policies.
+ Only one gateway IP address is required per VLAN, instead of the three IP addresses
per VLAN used today -> C is correct while D is not correct.
+ Removes the need for Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP), Virtual Router Redundancy
Protocol (VRRP), and Gateway Load Balancing Protocol (GLBP)-> so maybe E is not
correct.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/catalyst-6500-virtual-
switching-system-1440/prod_qas0900aecd806ed74b.html
Question 39
When troubleshooting client DNS issues, which two tasks must you perform? (Choose two)
A. Ping a public website IP address.

B. Ping the DNS Server.
C. Determine whether a DHCP address has been assigned.
D. Determine whether the hardware address is correct.
E. Determine whether the name servers have been configured
Answer: B E
Explanation
Complete these steps to troubleshoot this problem:
Ensure the router can reach the DNS server. Ping the DNS server from the router using its IP
address, and make sure that the ip name-server command is used to configure the IP address
of the DNS server on the router.
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/domain-name-system-dns/24182-
reversedns.html
Question 40
What routing protocol use first-hand information?
A. link-state
B. distance-vector
C. path-vector
D. other
Answer: A
Explanation
The information available to a distance vector router has been compared to the information
available from a road sign. Link state routing protocols are like a road map. A link state
router cannot be fooled as easily into making bad routing decisions, because it has a complete
picture of the network. The reason is that unlike the routing-by-rumor approach of distance
vector, link state routers have firsthand information from all their peer routers. Each router
originates information about itself, its directly connected links, and the state of those links
(hence the name). This information is passed around from router to router, each router
making a copy of it, but never changing it. The ultimate objective is that every router has
identical information about the internetwork, and each router will independently calculate its
own best paths.
Question 41
Two features of the extended ping command? (Choose two)
A. It can send a specific number of packet

B. It can send packet from specified interface of IP address
C. It can resolve the destination host name
D. It can ping multiple host at the same time
Answer: A B
Explanation
There are many options to choose when using extended ping. Below shows the options that
we can choose:
In which:
+ Repeat count [5]: Number of ping packets that are sent to the destination address. The
default is 5 -> A is correct.
+ Source address or interface: The interface or IP address of the router to use as a source
address for the probes -> B is correct.
For more information about extended ping, please read:

http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/routing-information-protocol-rip/13730-ext-
ping-trace.html
Question 42
Which statement about IPv6 link-local addresses is true?
A. They must be configured on all IPv6 interface

B. They must be globally unique
C. They must be manually configured
D. They are advertised globally on the network
Answer: A
Explanation
Link-local addresses refer only to a particular physical link and are used for addressing on a
single link for purposes such as automatic address configuration and neighbor discovery
protocol. Link-local addresses can be used to reach the neighboring nodes attached to the
same link. The nodes do not need a globally unique address to communicate. Routers will not
forward datagram using link-local addresses. All IPv6 enabled interfaces have a link-local
unicast address.
A link-local address is an IPv6 unicast address that can be automatically configured on any
interface using the link-local prefix FE80::/10 (1111 1110 10) and the interface identifier in
the modified EUI-64 format. Link-local addresses are not necessarily bound to the MAC
address (configured in a EUI-64 format). Link-local addresses can also be manually
configured in the FE80::/10 format using the “ipv6 address link-local” command.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/ip-version-6-ipv6/113328-ipv6-
lla.html
In summary, if you do not configure a link-local on an IPv6 enabled interface, it will

automatically use the FE80::/10 and the interface identifier in the modified EUI-64 format to
form a link-local address.
Question 43
Which command can you enter on a switch to determine the current SNMP security model?
A. snmp-server contact
B. show snmp pending
C. show snmp group
D. show snmp engineID
Answer: C
Explanation
Three security models are available: SNMPv1, SNMPv2c, and SNMPv3. The security model
combined with the security level determine the security mechanism applied when the SNMP
message is processed.
The command “show snmp group” displays the names of groups on the router and the
security model, the status of the different views, and the storage type of each group. Below is
an example of this command.
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/nx-
os/system_management/configuration/guide/sm_nx_os_cg/sm_9snmp.html
=========================New Questions added on 24th-Feb-

2018============================
Question 44
What two options are causes of network slowness that can result from inter-VLAN routing
problem? (Choose two)
A. Root guard disabled on an etherchannel

B. Packet Loss
C. DTP disabled on a switchport
D. BPDU guard enabled on a switchport
E. Hardware forwarding issues
Answer: B E
Explanation
Causes for Network Slowness

Packet Loss
In most cases, a network is considered slow when higher-layer protocols (applications)

require extended time to complete an operation that typically runs faster. That slowness is
caused by the loss of some packets on the network, which causes higher-level protocols like
TCP or applications to time out and initiate retransmission.
Hardware Forwarding Issues
With another type of slowness, caused by network equipment, forwarding (whether Layer 2
[L2] or L3) is performed slowly. This is due to a deviation from normal (designed) operation
and switching to slow path forwarding. An example of this is when Multilayer Switching
(MLS) on the switch forwards L3 packets between VLANs in the hardware, but due to
misconfiguration, MLS is not functioning properly and forwarding is done by the router in
the software (which drops the interVLAN forwarding rate significantly).
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/lan-switching/virtual-lans-vlan-
trunking-protocol-vlans-vtp/23637-slow-int-vlan-connect.html#network_slow
Question 45
Which two commands debug a PPPoE connection that has failed to establish? (Choose two)
A. debug ppp compression

B. debug ppp negotiation
C. debug dialer events
D. debug ppp cbcp
E. debug dialer packet
Answer: B E
Explanation
According to this link https://supportforums.cisco.com/t5/network-infrastructure-
documents/troubleshooting-for-pppoe-connection-failure-part-1/ta-p/3147204
The following debug commands can be used to troubleshoot PPPoE connection that failed:
+ debug ppp authentication

+ debug ppp negotiation
+ debug pppoe event
The debug ppp negotiation command enables you to view the PPP negotiation transactions,
identify the problem or stage when the error occurs, and develop a resolution.
We are not sure about the “debug dialer packet” command but it seems to be the most
reasonable answer left.
Question 46
Which command do you enter to determine wheter LACP is in use on a device?
A. Show port-channel summary

B. Show etherchannel summary
Answer: B
Question 47
Which three commands do you use to verify that IPsec over a GRE tunnel is working
properly? (Choose three)
A. clear crpto iskamp

B. ppp encrypt mppe auto
C. show crypto engine connections active
D. show crypto ipsec sa
E. show crypto isakmp sa
F. debug crypto isakmp
Answer: D E F
Question 48
Which two types of cloud services may require you to alter the design of your network
infrastructure? (Choose two)
A. Sudo as a service
B. Platform as a service
C. IaaS
D. SaaS
E. Business as a service
Answer: C D
Explanation
There are only three types of cloud services. These different types of cloud computing
services delivery models are called
infrastructure as a service (IaaS), platform as a service (PaaS), and software as a service
(SaaS).
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/en/US/services/ps2961/ps10364/ps10370/ps11104/need-
for-cloud-services-catalog_whitepaper.pdf
Question 49
Which purpose of the network command in the BGP configuration of a router is true?
A. It enables route advertisement in the BGP routing process

B. It advertises any route in BGP with no additional configuration
C. It advertises a valid network as local to the autonomous system of a router
Answer: C
Question 50
Through with three states does a BGP routing process pass when it establishes a peering
session?
A. open receive
B. inactive
C. active
D. connected
E. open sent
F. idle
Answer: C E F
Explanation
BGP forms a TCP session with neighbor routers called peers. The BGP session may report in
the following states:
+ Idle
+ Connect
+ Active
+ OpenSent
+ OpenConfirm
+ Established
Question 51
Which encryption method does CHAP authentication use for the peer response?
A. EAP
B. MD5
C. DES
D. DSS
E. AES
F. 3DES
Answer: B
Question 52
Which two characteristics of stacked switches are true? (Choose two)
A. They reduce management complexity

B. They are less scalable than modular switches
C. They can manage multiple ip addresses across multiple switches
D. They have a single management interface
E. Each unit in the stack can be assigned its own IP address
Answer: A D
Question 53
Which option describes a drawback of proxy ARP?
A. It overwrites MAC addresses

B. It can make it more difficult for the administrator to locale device misconfigurations
C. It dynamically establishes layer 2 tunneling protocol which increase network overhead
D. If proxy ARP is configured on multiple devices , the internal L2 network may become
vulnerable to DDOS
Answer: D
Question 54
Which layer 2 attack is specifically mitigated by changing the native VLAN to an unused
VLAN?
A. Double tagging
B. DHCP spoofing
C. VLAN spoofing
D. switch hopping
Answer: A
Explanation
Let us learn about double-tagging attack.
In double-tagging attack, the attacking computer generates frames with two 802.1Q tags. The
first tag matches the native VLAN of the trunk port (VLAN 10 in this case), and the second
matches the VLAN of a host it wants to attack (VLAN 20).
When the packet from the attacker reaches Switch A, Switch A only sees the first VLAN 10
and it matches with its native VLAN 10 so this VLAN tag is removed. Switch A forwards the
frame out all links with the same native VLAN 10. Switch B receives the frame with an tag
of VLAN 20 so it removes this tag and forwards out to the Victim computer.
Note: This attack only works if the trunk (between two switches) has the same native VLAN
as the attacker.
According to this link

http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=2181837&seqNum=10
“The best approach to mitigating double-tagging attacks is to ensure that the native VLAN of
the trunk ports is different from the VLAN of any user ports. In fact, it is considered a
security best practice to use a fixed VLAN that is distinct from all user VLANs in the
switched network as the native VLAN for all 802.1Q trunks.” -> Answer A is correct.
Question 55
Which feature or value must be configured to enable EIGRPv6?
Answer: Router id
New ICND2v3 Questions Part 2
Question 1
What two options are causes of network slowness that can result from inter-VLAN routing
problem? (Choose two)
A. Root guard disabled on an etherchannel

B. Packet Loss
C. DTP disabled on a switchport
D. BPDU guard enabled on a switchport
E. Hardware forwarding issues
Answer: B E
Explanation
Causes for Network Slowness

Packet Loss
In most cases, a network is considered slow when higher-layer protocols (applications)

require extended time to complete an operation that typically runs faster. That slowness is
caused by the loss of some packets on the network, which causes higher-level protocols like
TCP or applications to time out and initiate retransmission.
Hardware Forwarding Issues
With another type of slowness, caused by network equipment, forwarding (whether Layer 2
[L2] or L3) is performed slowly. This is due to a deviation from normal (designed) operation
and switching to slow path forwarding. An example of this is when Multilayer Switching
(MLS) on the switch forwards L3 packets between VLANs in the hardware, but due to
misconfiguration, MLS is not functioning properly and forwarding is done by the router in
the software (which drops the interVLAN forwarding rate significantly).
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/lan-switching/virtual-lans-vlan-
trunking-protocol-vlans-vtp/23637-slow-int-vlan-connect.html#network_slow
Question 2
Which two commands debug a PPPoE connection that has failed to establish? (Choose two)
A. debug ppp compression

B. debug ppp negotiation
C. debug dialer events
D. debug ppp cbcp
E. debug dialer packet
Answer: B E
Explanation
According to this link https://supportforums.cisco.com/t5/network-infrastructure-

documents/troubleshooting-for-pppoe-connection-failure-part-1/ta-p/3147204
The following debug commands can be used to troubleshoot PPPoE connection that failed:
+ debug ppp authentication

+ debug ppp negotiation
+ debug pppoe event
The debug ppp negotiation command enables you to view the PPP negotiation transactions,
identify the problem or stage when the error occurs, and develop a resolution.
We are not sure about the “debug dialer packet” command but it seems to be the most
reasonable answer left.
Question 3
Which command do you enter to determine wheter LACP is in use on a device?
A. Show port-channel summary

B. Show etherchannel summary
Answer: B
Question 4
Which three commands do you use to verify that IPsec over a GRE tunnel is working
properly? (Choose three)
A. clear crpto iskamp

B. ppp encrypt mppe auto
C. show crypto engine connections active
D. show crypto ipsec sa
E. show crypto isakmp sa
F. debug crypto isakmp
Answer: D E F
Question 5
Which two types of cloud services may require you to alter the design of your network
infrastructure? (Choose two)
A. Sudo as a Service
B. Platform as a Service
C. Infrastructure as a Service
D. Software as a Service
E. Business as a Service
Answer: B C
Explanation
There are only three types of cloud services. These different types of cloud computing
services delivery models are called
infrastructure as a service (IaaS), platform as a service (PaaS), and software as a service
(SaaS).
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/en/US/services/ps2961/ps10364/ps10370/ps11104/need-
for-cloud-services-catalog_whitepaper.pdf
+ SaaS (Software as a Service): SaaS uses the web to deliver applications that are managed
by a third-party vendor and whose interface is accessed on the clients‟ side. Most SaaS
applications can be run directly from a web browser without any downloads or installations
required, although some require plugins. In other words, SaaS are applications designed for
end-users, delivered over web.
+ PaaS (Platform as a Service): are used for applications, and other development, while
providing cloud components to software. What developers gain with PaaS is a framework
they can build upon to develop or customize applications. PaaS makes the development,
testing, and deployment of applications quick, simple, and cost-effective. With this
technology, enterprise operations, or a third-party provider, can manage OSes, virtualization,
servers, storage, networking, and the PaaS software itself. Developers, however, manage the
applications. In other words, PaaS is a set of tools and services designed to make coding
and deploying those applications quick and efficient.
+ IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service): self-service models for accessing, monitoring, and
managing remote datacenter infrastructures, such as compute (virtualized or bare metal),
storage, networking, and networking services (e.g. firewalls). Instead of having to purchase
hardware outright, users can purchase IaaS based on consumption, similar to electricity or
other utility billing. In other words, IaaS is the hardware and software (servers, storage,
networks, operating systems) that powers PaaS & SaaS.
Only the two lower layers services (IaaS, PaaS) may require us to alter the design of the
network infrastructure.
Question 6
Which purpose of the network command in the BGP configuration of a router is true?
A. It enables route advertisement in the BGP routing process

B. It advertises any route in BGP with no additional configuration
C. It advertises a valid network as local to the autonomous system of a router
Answer: C
Question 7
Through with three states does a BGP routing process pass when it establishes a peering
session?
A. open receive
B. inactive
C. active
D. connected
E. open sent
F. idle
Answer: C E F
Explanation
BGP forms a TCP session with neighbor routers called peers. The BGP session may report in
the following states:
+ Idle
+ Connect
+ Active
+ OpenSent
+ OpenConfirm
+ Established
Question 8
Which encryption method does CHAP authentication use for the peer response?
A. EAP
B. MD5
C. DES
D. DSS
E. AES
F. 3DES
Answer: B
Question 9
Which two characteristics of stacked switches are true? (Choose two)
A. They reduce management complexity

B. They are less scalable than modular switches
C. They can manage multiple ip addresses across multiple switches
D. They have a single management interface
E. Each unit in the stack can be assigned its own IP address
Answer: A D
Question 10
Which option describes a drawback of proxy ARP?
A. It overwrites MAC addresses

B. It can make it more difficult for the administrator to locale device misconfigurations
C. It dynamically establishes layer 2 tunneling protocol which increase network overhead
D. If proxy ARP is configured on multiple devices, the internal L2 network may become
vulnerable to DDOS
Answer: D
Question 11
Which layer 2 attack is specifically mitigated by changing the native VLAN to an unused
VLAN?
A. Double tagging
B. DHCP spoofing
C. VLAN spoofing
D. switch hopping
Answer: A
Explanation
Let us learn about double-tagging attack.
In double-tagging attack, the attacking computer generates frames with two 802.1Q tags. The
first tag matches the native VLAN of the trunk port (VLAN 10 in this case), and the second
matches the VLAN of a host it wants to attack (VLAN 20).
When the packet from the attacker reaches Switch A, Switch A only sees the first VLAN 10
and it matches with its native VLAN 10 so this VLAN tag is removed. Switch A forwards the
frame out all links with the same native VLAN 10. Switch B receives the frame with an tag
of VLAN 20 so it removes this tag and forwards out to the Victim computer.
Note: This attack only works if the trunk (between two switches) has the same native VLAN
as the attacker.
According to this link

http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=2181837&seqNum=10
“The best approach to mitigating double-tagging attacks is to ensure that the native VLAN of
the trunk ports is different from the VLAN of any user ports. In fact, it is considered a
security best practice to use a fixed VLAN that is distinct from all user VLANs in the
switched network as the native VLAN for all 802.1Q trunks.” -> Answer A is correct.
Question 12
Which feature or value must be configured to enable EIGRPv6?
Answer: Router id
Question 13
Which command do you enter to enable local authentication for MPPP on an interface?
A. l2tp authentication
B. username router password x1
C. ppp chap password password1
D. aaa authentication ppp default local
Answer: C
Explanation
Multilink PPP (also referred to as MP, MPPP, MLP, or Multilink) provides a method for
spreading traffic across multiple physical WAN links while providing packet fragmentation
and reassembly, proper sequencing, multivendor interoperability, and load balancing on
inbound and outbound traffic.
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wan/point-to-point-protocol-
ppp/10239-mppp-ddr.html
The command “aaa authentication ppp default local” is used to specify the local username
database as the default method for user authentication but this command is configured under
global configuration mode only, not on an interface.
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2/security/configuration/guide/fsecur_c/scfathe
n.html
The command “username router password x1” is used under global configuration mode too.
So maybe the “ppp chap password…” command is the best choice here.
Question 14
Which options are the two differences between HSRP V1 and V2? (Choose two)
A. Only HSRPv2 can be configured to use authentication

B. Only HSRPv2 send hello packet to 224.0.0.2
C. Only HSRPv1 send hello packet to FF02:66
D. Only HSRPv1 can be configured with a group number of 4095
E. Only HSRPv2 can be configured with a group number of 4095
F. Only HSRPv2 send hello to 224.0.0.102
Answer: E F
Explanation
In HSRP version 1, group numbers are restricted to the range from 0 to 255. HSRP version 2
expands the group number range from 0 to 4095 -> E is correct.
HSRP version 2 uses the new IP multicast address 224.0.0.102 to send hello packets instead
of the multicast address of 224.0.0.2, which is used by version 1 -> F is correct.
Question 15
For which reason can a GRE tunnel have an up/down status?
A. the tunnel source interface is up

B. a tunnel destination is undefined
C. the tunnel destination is routable via a route that is separate from the tunnel
D. tunnel has been shut down
Answer: B
Explanation
Normally, a P2P GRE Tunnel interface comes up as soon as it is configured with a valid
tunnel source address or interface which is up and a tunnel destination IP address which is
routable -> B is correct.
Question 16
Which utility do you use to view IP traffic that is switched through the router to locate erros
in a TCP stream?
A. wireshark
B. packet debugging
C. ethereal
D. ping
E. traceroute
Answer: B
Explanation
Cisco routers provide a basic method of viewing IP traffic switched through the router called
packet debugging. Packet debugging enables a user to determine whether traffic is travelling
along an expected path in the network or whether there are errors in a particular TCP stream.
Although in some cases packet debugging can eliminate the need for a packet analyzer, it
should not be considered a replacement for this important tool.
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/internetworking/troubleshooting/guide/tr1907.html
Question 17
Which command do you enter so that a port enters the forwarding state immediately when a
PC is connected to it ?
A. spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default

B. spanning-tree portfast default
C. spanning-tree portfast trunk
D. no spanning tree portfas
Answer: B
Explanation
If there is a “spanning-tree portfast” answer then it will surely be a correct answer. If not then
answer B is the most suitable one even though the “spanning-tree portfast default” command
enables PortFast globally on all non-trunking ports, not a single port.
Question 18
Which term represents the minimum bandwidth provided in a metro Ethernet connection?
A. UNI
B. CIR
C. EVC
D. PIR
Answer: B
Explanation
Committed information rate (CIR): The minimum guaranteed data transfer rate agreed to by
the routing device.
Question 19
Which three effects of using local span are true? (Choose three)
A. It doubles the load on the forwarding engine

B. It prevents span destination from using port security
C. It double internal switch traffic
D. It reduces the supervisor engine
E. It reduces the load on the switch fabric
Answer: A B C
Question 20
Which tree fields can be marked with QoS? (Choose three)
A. Header checksum
B. IP precedence
C. DSCP
D. total length
E. discard class
F. TTL
Answer: B C E
Explanation
For a single class, you can set operations on any two out of the following five fields: CoS, IP
Precedence, DSCP, QoS Group, and Discard Class.
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus1000/sw/4_2_1_s_v_1_4/qo
s/configuration/guide/n1000v_qos/n1000v_qos_3marking.pdf
Question 21
Which two values are needed to run the APIC-EM ACL analysis tool?
A. Destination port
B. Source address
C. Protocol
D. Source port
E. Periodic refresh interval
F. Destination address
Answer: B F
Explanation
We must type the source and destination addresses. Other parameters are just optional.
Question 22
In which two models can control plane functionality be implemented? (Choose two)
A. Dispersed
B. Distributed
C. Fragmented
D. Centralized
E. Allocated
Answer: B D
Explanation
Control Plane Function
In its simplest form, the control plane provides layer-2 MAC reachability and layer-3 routing
information to network devices that require this information to make packet forwarding
decisions. In the case of firewalls, the control plane would include stateful flow information
for inspection. Control plane functionality can implemented as follows:
+ Distributed – Conventional routers and switches operate using distributed protocols for
control, i.e. where each device makes its own decisions about what to do, and communicate
relevant information to other devices for input into their decision making process. For
example, the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP), Fabric Path, and routing protocols such as IS-IS
and BGP provide distributed control of packet forwarding functionality to networking
devices.
+ Centralized – In this case, a centralized controller provides the necessary information for a
network element to make a decision. For example, these controller(s) instruct networking
devices on where to forward packets by explicitly programming their MAC and FIBs.
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Data_Center/VMDC/SDN/SDN.
html#wp1440878
Question 23
Which PPPoE authentication method is the least secure?
A. CHAP
B. PAP
Answer: B
Question 24
What do you need to reduce with GRE tunnel? (Choose two)
A. PMTUD
B. MSS
C. MTU
Answer: B C
Question 25
Which choice permit congestion management on QOS? (Choose three)
Answer: FIFO CBWFQ PQ
Or
Which two QoS tools can provide congestion management? (Choose two)
A. CBWFQ
B. FRTS
C. CAR
D. PQ
E. PBR
Answer: A D
Explanation
This module discusses the types of queueing and queueing-related features (such as
bandwidth management) which constitute the congestion management QoS features:
Class-based WFQ (CBWFQ): extends the standard WFQ functionality to provide support
for user-defined traffic classes. For CBWFQ, you define traffic classes based on match
criteria including protocols, access control lists (ACLs), and input interfaces. Packets
satisfying the match criteria for a class constitute the traffic for that class.
Priority queueing (PQ): With PQ, packets belonging to one priority class of traffic are sent
before all lower priority traffic to ensure timely delivery of those packets.
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/qos_conmgt/configuration/xe-
3s/qos-conmgt-xe-3s-book/qos-conmgt-oview.html
Note: Committed Access Rate (CAR) is only used for bandwidth limitation by dropping
excessive traffic.
Question 26
Which three protocols can you use with APIC-EM path trace? (Choose three)
Answer: ECMP SNMP SMTP
Question 27
Drag the term on the left to its definition on the right (not all options are used)
Answer:
+ poison reverse: A router learns from its neighbor that a route is down and the router sends
an update back to the neighbor with an infinite metric to that route
+ LSA: The packets flooded when a topology change occurs, causing network routers to
update their topological databases and recalculate routes
+ split horizon: This prevents sending information about a route back out the same interface
that originally learned about the route
+ holddown timer: For a given period, this causes the router to ignore any updates with
poorer metrics to a lost network
Question 28
Which three effects of using local span are true? (Choose three)
A. It doubles the load on the forwarding engine

B. It prevents span destination from using port security
C. It double internal switch traffic
D. It reduces the supervisor engine
E. It reduces the load on the switch fabric
Answer: A B C
=========================New Questions added on 29th-Mar-

2018============================
Question 29
Which component of the Cisco SDN solution serves as the centralized management system?
A. Cisco OpenDaylight
B. Cisco ACI
C. Cisco APIC
D. Cisco IWAN
Answer: C
Explanation
Cisco Application Policy Infrastructure Controller (APIC)

The infrastructure controller is the main architectural component of the Cisco ACI solution. It
is the unified point of automation and management for the Cisco ACI fabric, policy
enforcement, and health monitoring. The APIC appliance is a centralized, clustered controller
that optimizes performance and unifies operation of physical and virtual environments. The
controller manages and operates a scalable multitenant Cisco ACI fabric.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/cloud-systems-
management/application-policy-infrastructure-controller-apic/datasheet-c78-732414.html
Question 30
Which mode are in PAgP? (Choose two)
A. Auto
B. Desirable
C. Active
D. Passive
E. On
Answer: A B
Explanation
There are two PAgP modes:
Responds to PAgP messages but does not aggressively negotiate a PAgP

Auto EtherChannel. A channel is formed only if the port on the other end is set to
Desirable. This is the default mode.
Port actively negotiates channeling status with the interface on the other end of
Desirable
the link. A channel is formed if the other side is Auto or Desirable.
The table below lists if an EtherChannel will be formed or not for PAgP:
PAgP Desirable Auto
Desirable Yes Yes

Auto Yes No
Question 31
Which LACP mode sends offer to connect device?
A. active
B. passive
C. desirable
D. auto
Answer: A
Question 32
Which feature can prevent switch to become Root Bridge?
A. VTP
B. DTP
C. Root Guard
C. BPDU Guard filter
Answer: C
Question 33
what does this monitor session command mean?
monitor session 16 source interface Gi0/11
A. source monitoring session – unidirection

B. destination monitoring session – bi-direction
C. source monitoring session – bi-direction
Answer: C
Question 34
Which IPv6 ACL rules are applied as first?
A. ACL port filter

B. ACL router filter
C. ?
D. ?
Answer: A
ICND2 200-105
ICND2 – OSPF Hotspot
http://www.9tut.net/icnd2-200-105/ospf-hotspot
Question 1
Question
This item contains several questions that you must answer. You can view these questions by
clicking on the corresponding button to the left. Changing questions can be accomplished by
clicking the numbers to the left of each question. In order to complete the questions, you will
need to refer to the topology.
To gain access to the topology, click on the topology button at the bottom of the screen.
When you have finished viewing the topology, you can return to your questions by clicking
on the Questions button to the left.
Each of the windows can be minimized by clicking on the [-]. You can also reposition a
window by dragging it by the title bar.
Question 1
R1 is configured with the default configuration of OSPF.
From the following list of IP addresses configured on R1, which address will the OSPF
process select as the router ID?
A. 192.168.0.1
B. 172.16.1.1
C. 172.16.2.1
D. 172.16.2.225
Answer: A
Question 2
After the network has converged, what type of messaging, if any, occurs between R3 and R4?
A. No messages are exchanged.

B. Hellos are sent every 10 seconds.
C. The full database from each router is sent every 30 seconds.
D. The routing table from each router is sent every 60 seconds.
Answer: B
Question 3
To allow or prevent load balancing to network 172.16.3.0/24, which of the following

commands could be used in R2? (Choose two)
A. R2(config-if)#clock rate
B. R2(config-if)#bandwidth
C. R2(config-if)#ip ospf cost
D. R2(config-if)#ip ospf priority
E. R2(config-router)#distance ospf
Answer: B C
Question 4
R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3. What are possible reasons
for this problem? (Choose two)
A. All of the routers need to be configured for backbone Area 1

B. R1 and R2 are the DR and BDR, so OSPF will not establish neighbor adjacency with R3
C. A static route has been configured from R1 to R3 and prevents the neighbor adjacency
from being established.
D. The hello and dead interval timers are not set to the same values on R1 and R3
E. EIGRP is also configured on these routers with a lower administrative distance
F. R1 and R3 are configured in different areas
Answer: D F
Question 5
OSPF is configured using default classful addressing. With all routers and interfaces
operational, how many networks will be in the routing table of R1 that are indicated to be
learned by OSPF?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
F. 7
Answer: C
ICND2 – Access list Questions

http://www.9tut.net/icnd2-200-105/access-list-questions
Question 1
Which statement about named ACLs is true?
A. They support standard and extended ACLs.

B. They are used to filter usernames and passwords for Telnet and SSH.
C. They are used to filter Layer 7 traffic.
D. They support standard ACLs only.
E. They are used to rate limit traffic destined to targeted networks.
Answer: A
Question 2
Which identification number is valid for an extended ACL?
A. 1
B. 64
C. 99
D. 100
E. 299
F. 1099
Answer: D
Question 3
What three pieces of information can be used in an extended access list to filter traffic?
(Choose three)
A. VLAN number
B. TCP or UDP port numbers
C. source switch port number
D. source IP address and destination IP address
E. protocol
F. source MAC address and destination MAC address
Answer: B D E
Question 4
Which statement about access lists that are applied to an interface is true?
A. you can apply only one access list on any interface

B. you can configure one access list, per direction, per layer 3 protocol
C. you can place as many access lists as you want on any interface
D. you can configure one access list, per direction, per layer 2 protocol
Answer: B
Question 5
When you are troubleshooting an ACL issue on a router, which command can help you to
verify which interfaces are affected by the ACL?
A. show ip access-lists
B. show access-lists
C. show interface
D. show ip interface
E. list ip interface
Answer: D
Question 6
In which solution is a router ACL used?
A. filtering packets that are passing through a router

B. to change the default administrative distance of a route in the route table
C. protecting a server from unauthorized access
D. controlling path selection, based on the route metric
Answer: A
Question 7

R1# show access-lists
Extended IP access list 175
10 deny tcp any any time-range nonworkhours (active)
20 permit tcp any any time-range workhours (inactive)
While you troubleshoot a connectivity issue to a PC behind R1, you enter the show access-
lists command to generate this output. Which reason for the problem is most likely true?
A. The permit all ACL entry on R1 is inactive.

B. The ACL of R1 is misconfigured.
C. A deny all ACL entry is currently active on R1.
D. An implicit deny is causing R1 to block network traffic.
Answer: D
ICND2 – VLAN Questions

http://www.9tut.net/icnd2-200-105/vlan-questions
Question 1
Which two circumstances can cause collision domain issues on VLAN domain? (Choose
two)
A. duplex mismatches on Ethernet segments in the same VLAN

B. multiple errors on switchport interfaces
C. congestion on the switch inband path
D. a failing NIC in an end device
E. an overloaded shared segment
Answer: A C
Question 2
Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangements? (Choose three)
A. A new switch has no VLANs configured.

B. Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device.
C. VLANs typically decrease the number of collision domains.
D. Each VLAN uses a separate address space.
E. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN.
F. VLANs cannot span multiple switches.
Answer: B D E
Question 3
What is the default VLAN on an access port?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 10
D. 1024
Answer: B
Question 4
What are three valid reasons to assign ports to VLANs on a switch? (Choose three)
A. to make VTP easier to implement

B. to isolate broadcast traffic
C. to increase the size of the collision domain
D. to allow more devices to connect to the network
E. to logically group hosts according to function
F. to increase network security
Answer: B E F
Question 5
What command can you enter to assign an interface to the default VLAN?
A. Switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1

B. Switch(config-if)# switchport trunk native vlan 1
C. Switch(config-if)# vlan 1
D. Switch(config)# int vlan 1
Answer: A
Question 6
Which statement about switch access ports is true?

A. They drop packets with 802.1Q tags.
B. A VLAN must be assigned to an access port before it is created.
C. They can receive traffic from more than one VLAN with no voice support
D. By default, they carry traffic for VLAN 10.
Answer: A
Question 7
Which feature facilitates the tagging of frames on a specific VLAN?
A. Routing
B. hairpinning
C. switching
D. encapsulation
Answer: D
Question 8
Which three options are types of slow Vlan connectivity? (Choose three)
A. Slow broadcast domain connectivity.

B. Slow routing domain connectivity.
C. Slow default gateway connectivity.
D. Slow application domain connectivity.
E. Slow collision domain connectivity.
F. Slow inter Vlan connectivity.
Answer: A E F
Question 9
Which statement about VLAN configuration is true?
A. The switch must be in config-vlan mode before you configure an extended VLAN.
B. Dynamic inter-vlan routing is supported on VLAN 2 through VLAN 4064.
C. A switch in VTP transparent mode saves the VLAN database to the running configuration
only.
D. The switch must be in VTP server or transparent mode before you configure a VLAN.
Answer: D
ICND2 – DTP Questions
http://www.9tut.net/icnd2-200-105/dtp-questions
Question 1
Which statement about DTP is true?
A. It uses the native VLAN.

B. It negotiates a trunk link after VTP has been configured.
C. It uses desirable mode by default.
D. It sends data on VLAN 1.
Answer: D
Question 2
How can you disable DTP on a switch port?
A. Configure the switch port as a trunk.

B. Add an interface on the switch to a channel group.
C. Change the operational mode to static access.
D. Change the administrative mode to access.
Answer: A (no correct answer, in fact)
Question 3
Which three statements about DTP are true? (Choose three)
A. It is enabled by default.
B. It is a universal protocol.
C. It is a proprietary protocol.
D. It is disabled by default.
E. It is a Layer 3-based protocol.
F. It is a Layer 2-based protocol.
Answer: A C F
Question 4
What is the DTP‟s default mode in a switch?
A. ON
B. OFF
C. Dynamic Desirable
D. Dynamic Auto
Answer: D
ICND2 – Trunking Questions

http://www.9tut.net/icnd2-200-105/trunking-questions
Question 1
What can be determined about the interfaces of the Main_Campus router from the output
shown?
A. The LAN interfaces are configured on different subnets.

B. Interface FastEthernet 0/0 is configured as a trunk.
C. The Layer 2 protocol of interface Serial 0/1 is NOT operational.
D. The router is a modular router with five FastEthernet interfaces.
E. Interface FastEthernet 0/0 is administratively deactivated.
Answer: B
Question 2
Refer to the exhibit. A technician has configured the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Sw11 as an
access link in VLAN 1. Based on the output from the show vlan brief command issued on
Sw12, what will be the result of making this change on Sw11?
A. Only the hosts in VLAN 1 on the two switches will be able to communicate with each
other.
B. The hosts in all VLANs on the two switches will be able to communicate with each other.
C. Only the hosts in VLAN 10 and VLAN 15 on the two switches will be able to
communicate with each other.
D. Hosts will not be able to communicate between the two switches.
Answer: D
Question 3
Which three of these statements regarding 802.1Q trunking are correct? (Choose three)
A. 802.1Q native VLAN frames are untagged by default.

B. 802.1Q trunking ports can also be secure ports.
C. 802.1Q trunks can use 10 Mb/s Ethernet interfaces.
D. 802.1Q trunks require full-duplex, point-to-point connectivity.
E. 802.1Q trunks should have native VLANs that are the same at both ends.
Answer: A C E
Question 4
Which three commands must you enter to create a trunk that allows VLAN 20? (Choose
three)
A. Switch(config-if)#switchport mode dynamic auto

B. Switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
C. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 20
D. Switch(config-if)#switchport mode dynamic desirable
E. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
F. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk native vlan 20
Answer: B C E
ICND2 – EtherChannel Questions

http://www.9tut.net/icnd2-200-105/etherchannel-questions
Question 1
Refer to the exhibit. While troubleshooting a switch, you executed the “show interface port-
channel 1 etherchannel” command and it returned this output. Which information is provided
by the Load value?
A. the percentage of use of the link

B. the preference of the link
C. the session count of the link
D. the number source-destination pairs on the link
Answer: D
Question 2
Which two actions must you take to configure a PAgP EtherChannel between two switches,
S1 and S2? (Choose two)
A. Configure the channel-group 1 mode auto command on S1.

B. Configure the channel-group 1 mode desirable command on S2.
C. Configure the channel-group 1 mode active command on S2.
D. Configure the channel-group 1 mode on command on S2.
E. Configure the channel-group 1 mode active command on S1.
Answer: A B
ICND2 – VTP Questions

http://www.9tut.net/icnd2-200-105/vtp-questions
Question 1
Which protocol provides a method of sharing VLAN configuration information between two
Cisco switch?
A. VTP
B. 802.1Q
C. RSTP
D. STP
Answer: A
Question 2
Which protocol supports sharing the VLAN configuration between two or more switches?
A. multicast
B. STP
C. VTP
D. split-horizon
Answer: C
Question 3
What are two characteristics of a switch that is configured as a VTP client? (Choose two)
A. If a switch that is configured to operate in client mode cannot access a VTP server, then
the switch reverts to transparent mode.
B. The local vlan configuration is updated only when an update that has a higher
configuration revision number is received.
C. VTP advertisements are not forwarded to neighboring switches that are configured in vtp
transparent mode.
D. When switches in vtp client mode are rebooted, they send a vtp advertisement request to
the vtp servers.
E. VTP client is the default vtp mode.
F. On switches that are configured to operate in client mode, vlans can be created, deleted or
renamed locally.
Answer: B D
Question 4
Which three statements about VTP features are true? (Choose three)
A. VTP works at Layer 3 of the OSI model and requires that a management VLAN IP
address be configured.
B. When properly configured, VTP minimizes VLAN misconfigurations and configuration
inconsistencies.
C. When properly configured, VTP maintains VLAN configuration consistency and
accelerates trunk link negotiation.
D. Each broadcast domain on a switch can have its own unique VTP domain.
E. VTP pruning is used to increase available bandwidth in trunk links.
F. To configure a switch to be part of two VTP domains, each domain must have its own
passwords.
G. Client, server, and transparent are valid VTP modes.
Answer: B E G
ICND2 – STP Questions

http://www.9tut.net/icnd2-200-105/stp-questions-2
Question 1
Which IEEE standard does PVST+ use to tunnel information?
A. 802.1x
B. 802.1q
C. 802.1w
D. 802.1s
Answer: B
Explanation
Cisco developed PVST+ to allow strolling numerous STP instances, even over an 802.1Q
network via the use of a tunneling mechanism. PVST+ utilizes Cisco gadgets to hook up with
a Mono Spanning Tree area to a PVST+ region. No particular configuration is needed to
attain this. PVST+ affords assist for 802.1Q trunks and the mapping of a couple of spanning
trees to the single spanning tree of popular 802.1Q switches strolling Mono Spanning Tree.
Question 2
What is one benefit of PVST+?
A. PVST+ reduces the CPU cycles for all the switches in the network.
B. PVST+ automatically selects the root bridge location, to provide optimization.
C. PVST+ allows the root switch location to be optimized per vlan.
D. PVST+ supports Layer 3 load balancing without loops.
Answer: C
Explanation
Per VLAN Spanning Tree (PVST) maintains a spanning tree instance for each VLAN
configured in the network. It means a switch can be the root bridge of a VLAN while another
switch can be the root bridge of other VLANs in a common topology. For example, Switch 1
can be the root bridge for Voice data while Switch 2 can be the root bridge for Video data. If
designed correctly, it can optimize the network traffic.
Question 3
Which spanning-tree feature places a port immediately into a forwarding stated?
A. BPDU guard
B. PortFast
C. loop guard
D. UDLD
E. Uplink Fast
Answer: B
Explanation
When you enable PortFast on the switch, spanning tree places ports in the forwarding state
immediately, instead of going through the listening, learning, and forwarding states.
Question 4
If primary and secondary root switches with priority 16384 both experience catastrophic
losses, which tertiary switch can take over?
A. a switch with priority 20480

B. a switch with priority 8192
C. a switch with priority 4096
D. a switch with priority 12288
Answer: A
Explanation
This is a tricky question. We know the switch with lowest value of priority is elected the root
switch. Therefore in this question the switches with priority of 4096, 8192, 12288 (which are
lower than the current value of the root bridge 16384) are not joining the root bridge election
by somehow. The only suitable answer is the switch with priority 20480 will become the root
bridge.
Question 5
Which factors generate bridge ID? (Choose two)
A. MAC address
B. IP Address
C. STP Priority
D. Bridge Priority
Answer: A D
ICND2 – STP Questions 2

http://www.9tut.net/icnd2-200-105/icnd2-stp-questions-2
Question 1
Which process is associated with spanning-tree convergence?
A. determining the path cost

B. electing designated ports
C. learning the sender bridge ID
D. assigning the port ID
Answer: B
Question 2
Which term describes a spanning-tree network that has all switch ports in either the blocking
or forwarding state?
A. redundant
B. spanned
C. provisioned
D. converged
Answer: D
Question 3
Refer to the exhibit. Which switch provides the spanning-tree designated port role for the
network segment that services the printers?
A. Switch1
B. Switch2
C. Switch3
D. Switch4
Answer: C
Question 4
If primary and secondary root switches with priority 16384 both experience catastrophic
losses, which tertiary switch can take over?
A. a switch with priority 20480

B. a switch with priority 8192
C. a switch with priority 4096
D. a switch with priority 12288
Answer: A
Question 5
What kind of data message is send to elect the root bridge?
A. BPDU
B. Segment
C. Packets
D. Hello
Answer: A
Question 6
Which type does a port become when it receives the best BPDU on a bridge?
A. the backup port

B. the root port
C. the designated port
D. the alternate port
Answer: B
Question 7
Which value can you modify to configure a specific interface as the preferred forwarding
interface?
A. the VLAN priority

B. the hello time
C. the port priority
D. the interface number
Answer: C
Question 8
Which VLAN bridge priority value is assigned by the set spantree root command?
A. 8192
B. 16384
C. 28672
D. 32768
Answer: A
Question 9
Which two statements about the spanning-tree bridge ID are true? (Choose two)
A. It is composed of a 4-bit bridge priority and a 12-bit system ID extension.
B. The bridge ID is transmitted in the IP header to elect the root bridge.
C. The system ID extension is a value between 1 and 4095.
D. It is composed of an 8-bit bridge priority and a 16-bit system ID extension.
E. The bridge priority must be incremented in blocks of 4096.
Answer: A E
ICND2 – RSTP Questions

http://www.9tut.net/icnd2-200-105/rstp-questions
Question 1
Refer to the exhibit. Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as
being configured to run RSTP. No other configuration changes have been made. Which three of these
show the correct RSTP port roles for the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three)
A. SwitchA, Fa0/2, designated

B. SwitchA, Fa0/1, root
C. SwitchB, Gi0/2, root
D. SwitchB, Gi0/1, designated
E. SwitchC, Fa0/2, root
F. SwitchD, Gi0/2, root
Answer: A B F
Question 2
Refer to the exhibit. At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will
assume the discarding role?
A. Switch3, port fa0/1

B. Switch3, port fa0/12
C. Switch4, port fa0/11
D. Switch4, port fa0/2
E. Switch3, port Gi0/1
Answer: C
Question 3
At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops?
A. data link
B. network
C. physical
D. transport
Answer: A
Question 4
Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three)
A. RSTP significantly reduces topology reconvening time after a link failure.

B. RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles.
C. RSTP port states are blocking, discarding, learning, or forwarding.
D. RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP
does.
E. RSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence.
F. RSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links.
Answer: A B D
Question 5
Which two switch states are valid for 802.1w? (Choose two)
A. listening
B. backup
C. disabled
D. learning
E. discarding
Answer: D E
Question 6
Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two)
A. RSTP cannot operate with PVST+.

B. RSTP defines new port roles.
C. RSTP defines no new port states.
D. RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802.1D STP.
E. RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP.
Answer: B E
Question 7
Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (choose two)
A. discarding
B. learning
C. disabled
D. forwarding
E. listening
Answer: A D
Question 8

Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1?
A. It has more than one internee that is connected to the root network segment.
B. It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802.1d spanning tree.
C. It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge.
D. It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge.
Answer: D
Question 9
Refer to the exhibit. The output that is shown is generated at a switch. Which three of these statements
are true? (Choose three)
A. All ports will be in a state of discarding, learning or forwarding.
B. Thirty VLANs have been configured on this switch.
C. The bridge priority is lower than the default value for spanning tree.
D. All interfaces that are shown are on shared media.
E. All designated ports are in a forwarding state.
F. The switch must be the root bridge for all VLANs on this switch.
Answer: A C E
Question 10
Refer to the exhibit. Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as
being configured to run RSTP. No other configuration changes have been made. Which three of these
show the correct RSTP port roles for the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three)
A. SwitchA, Fa0/2, designated
B. SwitchA, Fa0/1, root
C. SwitchB, Gi0/2, root
D. SwitchB, Gi0/1, designated
E. SwitchC, Fa0/2, root
F. SwitchD, Gi0/2, root
Answer: A B F
ICND2 – RSTP Questions 2

http://www.9tut.net/icnd2-200-105/icnd2-rstp-questions-2
Question 1
Refer to the exhibit. Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the most
likely reason that interface FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2?
Switch# show spanning-tree interface fastethernet0/10
A. This switch has more than one interface connected to the root network segment in VLAN
2.
B. This switch is running RSTP while the elected designated switch is running 802.1d
Spanning Tree.
C. This switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the topology.
D. This switch has a lower bridge ID for VLAN 2 than the elected designated switch.
Answer: C
Question 2
Which option describes how a switch in rapid PVST+ mode responds to a topology change?
A. It immediately deletes dynamic MAC addresses that were learned by all ports on the
switch.
B. It sets a timer to delete all MAC addresses that were learned dynamically by ports in the
same STP instance.
C. It sets a timer to delete dynamic MAC addresses that were learned by all ports on the
switch.
D. It immediately deletes all MAC addresses that were learned dynamically by ports in the
same STP instance.
Answer: D
Question 3
Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?
A. learning
B. listening
C. discarding
D. forwarding
Answer: C
Question 4
Which command enables RSTP on a switch?
A. spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst

B. spanning-tree uplinkfast
C. spanning-tree backbonefast
D. spanning-tree mode mst
Answer: A
Question 5
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?

A. The Fa0/11 role confirms that SwitchA is the root bridge for VLAN 20.
B. VLAN 20 is running the Per VLAN Spanning Tree Protocol.
C. The MAC address of the root bridge is 0017.596d.1580.
D. SwitchA is not the root bridge, because not all of the interface roles are designated.
Answer: D
ICND2 – InterVLAN Questions

http://www.9tut.net/icnd2-200-105/intervlan-questions
Question 1
Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the
exhibit? (Choose two)
A. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.

B. Routed and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
C. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
D. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.
E. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the
exhibit.
F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and Switch2 trunk ports must be configured
using the same encapsulation type.
Answer: D F
Question 2
Which statement about slow inter VLAN forwarding is true?
A. The VLAN is experiencing slowness in the point-to-point collisionless connection.

B. The VLANs are experiencing slowness because multiple devices are connected to the
same hub.
C. The local VLAN is working normally, but traffic to the alternate VLAN is forwarded
slower than expected.
D. The entire VLAN is experiencing slowness.
E. The VLANs are experiencing slowness due to a duplex mismatch.
Answer: E
Question 3
Which configuration can you apply to enable encapsulation on a subinterface?
A. interface FastEthernet 0/0

encapsulation dot1Q 30
ip address 10.1.1.30 255.255.255.0
B. interface FastEthernet 0/0.30

ip address 10.1.1.30 255.255.255.0
C. interface FastEthernet 0/0.30

description subinterface vlan 30
D. interface FastEthernet 0/0.30

encapsulation dot1Q 30
ip address 10.1.1.30 255.255.255.0
Answer: D
Question 4

What commands must be configured on the 2950 switch and the router to allow
communication between host 1 and host 2? (Choose two)
A. Router(config)#interface fastethernet 0/0

Router(config-if)#ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
Router(config-if)#no shut down
B. Router(config)#interface fastethernet 0/0

Router(config-if)#no shutdown
Router(config)#interface fastethernet 0/0.1
Router(config-subif)#encapsulation dot1q 10
Router(config-subif)#ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0
Router(config-subif)#interface fastethernet 0/0.2
Router(config-subif)#encapsulation dot1q 20
Router(config-subif)#ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0
C. Router (config)#router eigrp 100

Router(config-router)#network 192.168.10.0
Router(config-router)#network 192.168.20.0
D. Switch1(config)# vlan database

Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp domain XYZ
Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp server
E. Switch1(config) # interface fastEthernet 0/1

Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
F. Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1

Switch1(config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.1.1
Answer: B E
Question 5

C-router is to be used as a “router-on-a-stick” to route between the VLANs. All the interfaces
have been properly configured and IP routing is operational. The hosts in the VLANs have
been configured with the appropriate default gateway. What can be said about this
configuration?
A. These commands need to be added to the configuration:

C-router(config)# router eigrp 123
C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0
B. No further routing configuration is required.
C. These commands need to be added to the configuration:

C-router(config)# router ospf 1
C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
D. These commands need to be added to the configuration:

C-router(config)# router rip
C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0
Answer: B
ICND2 – WAN Questions

http://www.9tut.net/icnd2-200-105/icnd2-wan-questions
Question 1
Refer to the exhibit. The show interfaces serial 0/1 command was issued on the R10-1
router. Based on the output displayed which statement is correct?
A. The cable connected to the serial 0/1 interface of the R10-1 router is a DTE cable.
B. The R10-1 router can ping the router interface connected to the serial 0/1 interface.
C. The clock rate used for interface serial 0/1 of the R10-1 router is 1,544,000 bits per
second.
D. The CSU used with the serial 0/1 interface of the R10-1 router has lost connection to the
service provider.
E. The interface of the remote router connected to the serial 0/1 interface of the R10-1 router
is using the default serial interface encapsulation.
Answer: E
Question 2
Which two options are valid WAN connectivity methods? (Choose two)
A. PPP
B. WAP
C. DSL
D. L2TPv3
E. Ethernet
Answer: A C
Question 3
Which device classes are used over serial links?
A. DCE
B. DTE
C. LCP
D. HDLC
E. PPP
F. LMI
Answer: A B
Question 4
Which WAN technology uses labels to make decisions about data forwarding?
A. Metro Ethernet
B. Frame Relay
C. MPLS
D. ISDN
E. VSAT
Answer: C
Question 5
Which WAN solution is secured by default?
A. VPN
B. DSL
C. LCP
D. PPP
Answer: A
Question 6
Which WAN topology provides a direct connection from each site to all other sites on the
network?
A. single-homed
B. full mesh
C. point-to-point
D. hub-and-spoke
Answer: B
Question 7
After you configure a GRE tunnel between two networks, the tunnel comes up normally, but
workstations on each side of the tunnel cannot communicate. Which reason for the problem is
most likely the true?
A. The tunnel source address is incorrect.

B. The tunnel destination address is incorrect.
C. The route between the networks is undefined.
D. The IP MTU is incorrect.
E. The distance configuration is missing.
Answer: C
Question 8
What is the default encapsulation type for Cisco WAN serial interfaces?
A. GRE
B. PPP
C. Frame Relay
D. IEEE 802.1Q
E. HDLC
Answer: E
ICND2 – PPP Questions

http://www.9tut.net/icnd2-200-105/icnd2-ppp-questions
Question 1
Which feature does PPP use to encapsulate multiple protocols?
A. NCP
B. LCP
C. IPCP
D. IPXP
Answer: A
Question 2
Which two statements about using the CHAP authentication mechanism in a PPP link are true?
(Choose two)
A. CHAP uses a two-way handshake.

B. CHAP uses a three-way handshake.
C. CHAP authentication periodically occurs after link establishment.
D. CHAP authentication passwords are sent in plaintext.
E. CHAP authentication is performed only upon link establishment.
F. CHAP has no protection from playback attacks.
Answer: B C
Question 3
What is the purpose of LCP?
A. to perform authentication
B. to negotiate control options
C. to encapsulate multiple protocols
D. to specify asynchronous versus synchronous
Answer: B
Question 4
Which command is used to enable CHAP authentication with PAP as the fallback method on a serial
interface?
A. (config-if)# authentication ppp chap fallback ppp

B. (config-if)# authentication ppp chap pap
C. (config-if)# ppp authentication chap pap
D. (config-if)# ppp authentication chap fallback ppp
Answer: C
Question 5
What are three reasons that an organization with multiple branch offices and roaming users might
implement a Cisco VPN solution instead of point-to-point WAN links? (Choose three)
A. reduced cost
B. better throughput
C. broadband incompatibility
D. increased security
E. scalability
F. reduced latency
Answer: A D E
Question 6
Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuits and has
built-in security mechanisms?
A. HDLC
B. PPP
C. X.25
D. Frame Relay
Answer: B
Question 7
Which PPP subprotocol negotiates authentication options?
A. NCP
B. ISDN
C. SUP
D. LCP
E. DLCI
Answer: D
Question 8
At which layer of the OSI model does PPP perform?
A. Layer 2
B. Layer 3
C. Layer 4
D. Layer 5
Answer: A
ICND2 – PPPoE Questions

http://www.9tut.net/icnd2-200-105/pppoe-questions
Question 1
Which type of interface can negotiate an IP address for a PPPoE client?
A. Ethernet
B. dialer
C. serial
D. Frame Relay
Answer: B
Question 2
Which part of the PPPoE server configuration contains the information used to assign an IP address to
a PPPoE client?
A. virtual-template interface
B. DHCP
C. dialer interface
D. AAA authentication
Answer: A
Question 3
Which command do you enter to enable an interface to support PPPoE on a client?
A. Dev1(config)# bba-group pppoe bba 1

B. Dev1(config-if)# pppoe-client dial-pool-number 1
C. Dev1(config-if)# pppoe enable group bba1
D. Dev1(config-if)# pppoe enable
Answer: D
ICND2 – DMVPN Questions

http://www.9tut.net/icnd2-200-105/dmvpn-questions
Question 1
Which type of topology is required by DMVPN?
A. ring
B. full mesh
C. hub-and-spoke
D. partial mesh
Answer: C
ICND2 – MPLS Questions

http://www.9tut.net/icnd2-200-105/mpls-questions
Question 1
Which statement about MPLS is true?
A. It operates in Layer 1.
B. It operates between Layer 2 and Layer 3.
C. It operates in Layer 3.
D. It operates in Layer 2.
Answer: B
ICND2 – HSRP Questions

http://www.9tut.net/icnd2-200-105/hsrp-questions
Question 1
Which three statements about HSRP operation are true? (Choose three)
A. The virtual IP address and virtual MAC address are active on the HSRP Master router.
B. The HSRP default timers are a 3 second hello interval and a 10 second dead interval.
C. HSRP supports only clear-text authentication.
D. The HSRP virtual IP address must be on a different subnet than the routers‟ interfaces on
the same LAN.
E. The HSRP virtual IP address must be the same as one of the router‟s interface addresses on
the LAN.
F. HSRP supports up to 255 groups per interface, enabling an administrative form of load
balancing.
Answer: A B F
Question 2
What is a valid HSRP virtual MAC address?

A. 0000.5E00.01A3
B. 0007.B400.AE01
C. 0000.0C07.AC15
D. 0007.5E00.B301
Answer: C
Question 3
Which three options are the HSRP states for a router? (Choose three)
A. initialize
B. learn
C. secondary
D. listen
E. speak
F. primary
Answer: B D E
Question 4
What about HSRP IP Address is true?
A. If its part of the LAN

B. Part of all other networks
C. Local to the interface
D. Appears in the routing table
E. Acts as default route for that interface
Answer: E
Question 5
Which of the following HSRP router states does an active router enter when it is preempted by a
higher priority router?
A. active
B. speak
C. learn
D. listen
E. init
F. standby
Answer: B
Question 6
Which protocol specified by RFC 2281 provides network redundancy for IP networks, ensuring that
user traffic immediately and transparently recovers from first-hop failures in network edge devices or
access circuits?
A. ICMP
B. IRDP
C. HSRP
D. STP
Answer: C
ICND2 – Cloud & Virtual Services

http://www.9tut.net/icnd2-200-105/icnd2-cloud-virtual-services
Question 1
Which option is the benefit of implementing an intelligent DNS for a cloud computing
solution?
A. It reduces the need for a backup data center.

B. It can redirect user requests to locations that are using fewer network resources.
C. It enables the ISP to maintain DNS records automatically.
D. It eliminates the need for a GSS.
Answer: B
ICND2 – QoS Questions

http://www.9tut.net/icnd2-200-105/icnd2-qos-questions
Question 1
Which statement about QoS default behavior is true?
A. Ports are untrusted by default.

B. VoIP traffic is passed without being tagged.
C. Video traffic is passed with a well-known DSCP value of 46.
D. Packets are classified internally with an environment.
E. Packets that arrive with a tag are untagged at the edge of an administrative domain.
Answer: A
Question 2
Which option describes the purpose of traffic policing?
A. It prioritizes routing protocol traffic.

B. It remarks traffic that is below the CIR
C. It drops traffic that exceeds the CIR.
D. It queues and then transmits traffic that exceeds the CIR.
Answer: C
ICND2 – Switch Stacking & Chassis

Aggregation
http://www.9tut.net/icnd2-200-105/icnd2-switch-stacking-chassis-aggregation
Question 1
Which option is a benefit of switch stacking?
A. It provides redundancy with no impact on resource usage.

B. It simplifies adding and removing hosts.
C. It supports better performance of high-needs applications.
D. It provides higher port density with better resource usage.
Answer: D
ICND2 – IP Routing Questions

http://www.9tut.net/icnd2-200-105/ip-routing-questions
Question 1
If host Z needs to send data through router R1 to a storage server, which destination MAC address
does host Z use to transmit packets?
A. the host Z MAC address

B. the MAC address of the interface on R1 that connects to the storage server
C. the MAC address of the interface on R1 that connects to host Z
D. the MAC address of the storage server interface
Answer: C
Question 2
Refer to the exhibit. RTA is configured with a basic configuration. The link between the two routers is
operational and no routing protocols are configured on either router. The line shown in the exhibit is
then added to router RTA. Should interface Fa0/0 on router RTB shut down, what effect will the
shutdown have on router RTA?
A. A route to 172.16.14.0/24 will remain in the RTA routing table.

B. A packet to host 172.16.14.225 will be dropped by router RTA
C. Router RTA will send an ICMP packet to attempt to verify the route.
D. Because router RTB will send a poison reverse packet to router RTA, RTA will remove
the route.
Answer: A
Question 3
A router is running three routing processes: RIP, OSPF, and EIGRP, each configured with default
characteristics. Each process learns a route to the same remote network.
If there are no static routes to the destination and none of the routes were redistributed, which route
will be placed in the IP routing table?
A. the route learned through EIGRP

B. the route learned through OSPF
C. the route learned through RIP
D. the route with the lowest metric
E. all three routes with the router load balancing
Answer: A
Question 4
Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when a dynamic
protocol is also being used?
A. hop count
B. administrative distance
C. link bandwidth
D. link delay
E. link cost
Answer: B
Question 5
A router receives information about network 192.168.10.0/24 from multiple sources. What will the
router consider the most reliable information about the path to that network?
A. an OSPF update for network 192.168.0.0/16

B. a static router to network 192.168.10.0/24
C. a static router to network 192.168.10.0/24 with a local serial interface configured as the
next hop
D. a RIP update for network 192.168.10.0/24
E. a directly connected interface with an address of 192.168.10.254/24
F. a default route with a next hop address of 192.168.10.1
Answer: E
Question 6
Which statement is true, as relates to classful or classless routing?
A. RIPV1 and OSPF are classless routing protocols.

B. Classful routing protocols send the subnet mask in routing updates.
C. Automatic summarization at classful boundaries can cause problems on discontigous
networks.
D. EIGRP and OSPF are classful routing protocols and summarize routes by default.
Answer: C
Question 7
Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing? (Choose two)
A. Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing tables.
B. Configuration complexity decreases as network size increases.
C. Routing updates are automatically sent to neighbors.
D. Route summarization is computed automatically by the router.
E. Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links.
F. An efficient algorithm is used to build routing tables using automatic updates.
G. Routing tables adapt automatically to topology changes.
Answer: A E
Question 8
A technician pastes the configurations in the exhibit into the two new routers shown. Otherwise, the
routers are configured with their default configurations. A ping from Host1 to Host2 fails, but the
technician is able to ping the S0/0 interface of R2 from Host1. The configurations of the hosts have
been verified as correct. What is the cause of the problem?
A. The serial cable on R1 needs to be replaced.

B. The interfaces on R2 are not configured properly.
C. R1 has no route to the 192.168.1.128 network.
D. The IP addressing scheme has overlapping subnetworks.
E. The ip subnet-zero command must be configured on both routers.
Answer: C
Question 9
How does a router handle an incoming packet whose destination network is missing from the Routing
table?
A. It discards the packet.

B. It broadcasts the packet to each network on the router.
C. It routes the packet to the default route.
D. It broadcasts the packet to each interface on the router.
Answer: A
Question 10
What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two)
A. the sequencing and acknowledgment of link-state packets

B. the requirement for a hierarchical IP addressing scheme for optimal functionality
C. the high volume of link-state advertisements in a converged network
D. the high demand on router resources to run the link-state routing algorithm
E. the large size of the topology table listing all advertised routes in the converged network
Answer: B D
Question 1
Refer to the exhibit, Host A pings interface S0/0 on router 3, what is the TTL value for that
ping?
A. 253
B. 252
C. 255
D. 254
Answer: A
ICND2 – OSPF Questions

http://www.9tut.net/icnd2-200-105/ospf-questions-4
Question 1
What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two)
A. the sequencing and acknowledgment of link-state packets

B. the requirement for a hierarchical IP addressing scheme for optimal functionality
C. the high volume of link-state advertisements in a converged network
D. the high demand on router resources to run the link-state routing algorithm
E. the large size of the topology table listing all advertised routes in the converged network
Answer: B D
Question 2
Which two statements describe the process identifier that is used in the command to
configure OSPF on a router? (Choose two)
Router(config)# router ospf 1

A. All OSPF routers in an area must have the same process ID.
B. Only one process number can be used on the same router.
C. Different process identifiers can be used to run multiple OSPF processes
D. The process number can be any number from 1 to 65,535.
E. Hello packets are sent to each neighbor to determine the processor identifier.
Answer: C D
Question 3
What are three characteristics of the OSPF routing protocol? (Choose three)
A. It converges quickly.
B. OSPF is a classful routing protocol.
C. It uses cost to determine the best route.
D. It uses the DUAL algorithm to determine the best route.
E. OSPF routers send the complete routing table to all directly attached routers.
F. OSPF routers discover neighbors before exchanging routing information.
Answer: A C F
Question 4
Which two statements about the OSPF Router ID are true? (Choose two)
A. It identifies the source of Type 1 LSA

B. It should be the same on all routers in an OSPF routing instance
C. By default, the lowest IP address on the router becomes the OSPF router ID
D. The router automatically chooses the IP address of a loopback as the OSPF Router ID
E. It is created using the MAC Address of the loopback interface
Answer: A D
Question 5
What are two enhancements that OSPFv3 supports over OSPFv2? (Choose two)
A. It requires the use of ARP.

B. It can support multiple IPv6 subnets on a single link.
C. It supports up to 2 instances of OSPFv3 over a common link.
D. It routes over links rather than over networks.
Answer: B D
Question 6
You enter the “show ipv6 route” command on an OSPF device and the device displays a
route. Which conclusion can you draw about the environment?
A. OSPF is distributing IPv6 routes to BGP.

B. The router is designated as an ABR.
C. The router is designated as totally stubby.
D. OSPFv3 is in use.
Answer: D
Question 7
What are OSPF default hello and dead timers? (Choose two)
A. The hello timer is 10 seconds.

B. The hello timer is 60 seconds.
C. The dead timer is 40 seconds.
D. The dead timer is 120 seconds.
E. The hello timer is 20 seconds.
Answer: A C
Question 8
Refer to the exhibit. Router edge-1 is unable to establish OSPF neighbor adjacency with
router ISP-1. Which two configuration changes can you make on edge-1 to allow the two
routers to establish adjacency? (Choose two)
A. Set the subnet mask on edge-1 to 255 255.255.252.

B. Reduce the MTU on edge-1 to 1514.
C. Set the OSPF cost on edge-1 to 1522.
D. Reduce the MTU on edge-1 to 1500.
E. Configure the ip ospf mtu-ignore command on the edge-1 Gi0/0 interface.
Answer: D E
Question 9
Which commands are required to properly configure a router to run OSPF and to add network
192.168.16.0/24 to OSPF area 0? (Choose two)
A. Router(config)# router ospf 0

B. Router(config)# router ospf 1
C. Router(config)# router ospf area 0
D. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 0
E. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
F. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
Answer: B E
Question 10

The internetwork infrastructure of company XYZ consists of a single OSPF area as shown in
the graphic. There is concern that a lack of router resources is impeding internetwork
performance.
As part of examining the router resources the OSPF DRs need to be known.
All the router OSPF priorities are at the default and the router IDs are shown with each
router.
Which routers are likely to have been elected as DR? (Choose two)
A. Corp-1
B. Corp-2
C. Corp-3
D. Corp-4
E. Branch-1
F. Branch-2
Answer: D F
ICND2 – OSPF Questions 2

http://www.9tut.net/icnd2-200-105/ospf-questions-2-2
Question 1
Refer to the exhibit. The network is converged. After link-state advertisements are received
from Router_A, what information will Router_E contain in its routing table for the subnets
208.149.23.64 and 208.149.23.96?
A. 208.149.23.64[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:00:07, FastEthernet0/0

208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:00:16, FastEthernet0/0
B. 208.149.23.64[110/1] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:00:07, Serial1/0

C. 208.149.23.64[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:00:07, Serial1/0

208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:00:16, Serial1/0
D. 208.149.23.64[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:00:07, Serial1/0

208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:00:16, Serial1/0
Answer: A
Question 2
What OSPF command, when configured, will include all interfaces into area 0?
A. network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0

B. network 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 area 0
C. network 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0 area 0
D. network all-interfaces area 0
Answer: A
Question 3
What are two benefits of using a single OSPF area network design? (Choose two)
A. It is less CPU intensive for routers in the single area.

B. It reduces the types of LSAs that are generated.
C. It removes the need for virtual links.
D. It increases LSA response times.
E. It reduces the number of required OSPF neighbor adjacencies.
Answer: B C
Question 4
What can cause two OSPF neighbors to be stuck in the EXSTART state?
A. There is a low bandwidth connection between neighbors.

B. The neighbors have different MTU settings.
C. The OSPF interfaces are in a passive state.
D. There is only layer one connectivity between neighbors.
Answer: B
Question 5
Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers?
A. Bandwidth, Delay and MTU

B. Bandwidth
C. Bandwidth and MTU
D. Bandwidth, MTU, Reliability, Delay and Load
Answer: B
Question 6
What is the default maximum number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing
of a Cisco OSPF router?
A. 16
B. 2
C. unlimited
D. 4
Answer: D
Question 7
A. hello packets
Answer: A C
Question 8
If the router Cisco returns the given output and has not had its router ID set manually, what
value will OSPF use as its router ID?
A. 192.168.1.1
B. 172.16.1.1
C. 1.1.1.1
D. 2.2.2.2
Answer: D
Question 9
What is the default administrative distance of OSPF?
A. 90
B. 100
C. 110
D. 120
Answer: C
Question 10
When a router undergoes the exchange protocol within OSPF, in what order does it pass
through each state?
A. exstart state > loading state > exchange state > full state
B. exstart state > exchange state > loading state > full state
C. exstart state > full state > loading state > exchange state
D. loading state > exchange state > full state > exstart state
Answer: B

http://www.9tut.net/icnd2-200-105/ospf-questions-3
Question 1
Refer to the exhibit. The network associate is configuring OSPF on the Core router. All the
connections to the branches should be participating in OSPF. The link to the ISP should NOT
participate in OSPF and should only be advertised as the default route. What set of
commands will properly configure the Core router?
A. Core(config-router)#default-information originate
Core(config-router)#network 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 area 0
Core(config-router)#exit
Core(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.2.14
B. Core(config-router)#default-information originate
C. Core(config-router)#default-information originate
D. Core(config-router)#default-information originate
Answer: C
Question 2
Assume that all of the router interfaces are operational and configured correctly. How will
router R2 be affected by the configuration of R1 that is shown in the exhibit?
A. Router R2 will not form a neighbor relationship with R1.

B. Router R2 will obtain a full routing table, including a default route, from R1.
C. R2 will obtain OSPF updates from R1, but will not obtain a default route from R1.
D. R2 will not have a route for the directly connected serial network, but all other directly
connected networks will be present, as well as the two networks connected to R1.
Answer: B
Question 3
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is
configured on RouterB? (Choose two)
A. It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB.
B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB.
C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1.
D. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB.
E. It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN.
Answer: B C
Question 4
R1 routing commands:
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial0/0
router ospf 1
network 172.16.100.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
network 172.16.100.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
network 172.16.100.128 0.0.0.31 area 0
default-information originate
Assuming that all router interfaces are operational and correctly configured, that OSPF has
been correctly configured on router R2, how will the default route configured on R1 affect
the operation of R2?
A. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R1 will be
dropped.
B. Any packet destined for a network that is not referenced in the routing table of router R2
will be directed to R1. R1 will then send that packet back to R2 and a routing loop will occur.
C. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R2 will be
dropped immediately.
D. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R2 will be
dropped immediately because of the lack of a gateway on R1.
Answer: B
Question 5
RouterD# show ip interface brief
Given the output for this command, if the router ID has not been manually set, what router ID
will OSPF use for this router?
A. 10.1.1.2
B. 10.154.154.1
C. 172.16.5.1
D. 192.168.5.3
Answer: C
Question 6
Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states?
A. show ip ospf link-state

B. show ip ospf lsa database
C. show ip ospf neighbors
D. show ip ospf database
Answer: D
Question 7
Which statement describes the process ID that is used to run OSPF on a router?
A. It is globally significant and is used to represent the AS number.

B. It is locally significant and is used to identify an instance of the OSPF database.
C. It is globally significant and is used to identify OSPF stub areas.
D. It is locally significant and must be the same throughout an area.
Answer: B
Question 8
A network associate has configured OSPF with the command:

City(config-router)# network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
After completing the configuration, the associate discovers that not all the interfaces are
participating in OSPF.
Which three of the interfaces shown in the exhibit will participate in OSPF according to this
configuration statement? (Choose three)
A. FastEthernet0/0
B. FastEthernet0/1
C. Serial0/0
D. Serial0/1.102
E. Serial0/1.103
F. Serial0/1.104
Answer: B C D
Question 9
What is the default values for hello and dead packets in OSPF?
A. hello 10
B. hello 60
C. dead 40
D. dead 120
Answer: A C

http://www.9tut.net/icnd2-200-105/icnd2-ospf-questions-4
Question 1
Which configuration enables OSPF for network 192.168.1.0/24?
A. router ospf
router-id 192.168.1.0
B. router ospf 1
network 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
C. router ospf 1
neighbor 192.168.1.0
D. router ospf 1
area 0 virtual-link 192.168.1.0
Answer: B
Question 2
Which purpose of the network command in OSPF configuration mode is true?
A. It defines a wildcard mask to identify the size of the network.

B. It defines the area ID.
C. It defines the network by its classful entry.
D. It defines which networks are used for virtual links.
Answer: A
ICND2 – EIGRP Questions
http://www.9tut.net/icnd2-200-105/eigrp-questions-3
Question 1
Which EIGRP for IPv6 command can you enter to view the link-local addresses of the
neighbors of a device?
A. show ipv6 eigrp 20 interfaces

B. show ipv6 route eigrp
C. show ipv6 eigrp neighbors
D. show ip eigrp traffic
Answer: C
Question 2
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the exhibited routing table, how will packets from a host within
the 192.168.10.192/26 LAN be forwarded to 192.168.10.1?
A. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1

B. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1
C. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1 to R2
D. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1 AND from R3 to R1
Answer: D
Question 3
Which option describes a difference between EIGRP for IPv4 and IPv6?
A. Only EIGRP for IPv6 advertises all connected networks.

B. Only EIGRP for IPv6 requires a router ID to be configured under the routing process
C. AS numbers are configured in EIGRP but not in EIGRPv3.
D. Only EIGRP for IPv6 is enabled in the global configuration mode.
Answer: B
Question 4
Refer to the exhibit. If the router R1 returns the given output and has not had its router ID set
manually, what address will EIGRP use as its router ID?
A. 192.168.1.2
B. 172.16.4.1
C. 192.168.10.2
D. 1.1.1.1
Answer: D
Question 5
When running EIGRP what is required for RouterA to exchange routing updates with
RouterC?
A. AS numbers must be changed to match on all the routers.
B. Loopback interface must be configured so a DR is elected.
C. The no auto-summary command is needed on Router A and Router C.
D. Router B needs to have two network statements, one for each connected network.
Answer: A
Question 6
Refer to the exhibit. A packet with a source IP address of 192.168.2.4 and a destination IP
address of 10.1.1.4 arrives at the HokesB router. What action does the router take?
A. forwards the received packet out the Serial0/0 interface

B. forwards a packet containing an EIGRP advertisement out the Serial0/1 interface
C. forwards a packet containing an ICMP message out the FastEthemet0/0 interface
D. forwards a packet containing an ARP request out the FastEthemet0/1 interface
Answer: C
Question 7
Refer to the exhibit. Given the output from the show ip eigrp topology command, which
router is the feasible successor?
Router# show ip eigrp topology 10.0.0.5 255.255.255.255
IP-EIGRP topology entry for 10.0.0.5/32 State is Passive, Query origin flag is 1, 1
Successor(s), FD is 41152000
A.
10.1.0.3 (Serial0), from 10.1.0.3, Send flag is 0x0
Composite metric is (46866176/46354176), Route is Internal
Vector metric:
Minimum bandwidth is 56 Kbit
Total delay is 45000 microseconds
Reliability is 255/255
Load is 1/255
Minimum MTU is 1500
Hop count is 2
B.
10.0.0.2 (Serial0.1), from 10.0.0.2, Send flag is 0x0

Composite metric is (53973248/128256), Route is Internal
Vector metric:
Load is 1/255
Minimum MTU is 1500
Hop count is 1
C.
10.1.0.1 (Serial0), from 10.1.0.1, Send flag is 0x0

Composite metric is (46152000/41640000), Route is Internal Vector metric:
Load is 1/255
Minimum MTU is 1500
Hop count is 2
D.
10.1.1.1 (SerialO.1), from 10.1.1.1, Send flag is 0x0

Composite metric is (46763776/46251776), Route is External
Vector metric:
Load is 1/255
Minimum MTU is 1500
Hop count is 2
Answer: B
Question 8
Which type of EIGRP route entry describes a feasible successor?
A. a backup route, stored in the routing table

B. a primary route, stored in the routing table
C. a backup route, stored in the topology table
D. a primary route, stored in the topology table
Answer: C
Question 9
What are the two default metrics used by EIGRP for route selection? (Choose two)
A. Bandwidth
B. Delay
C. Reliability
D. Load
E. MTU
Answer: A B
Question 10
Which three EIGRP routes will be present in the router R4‟s routing table? (Choose three)
A. 172.16.1.0/24
B. 10.1.10.0/30
C. 10.0.0.0/8
D. 10.1.11.0/30
E. 172.16.0.0/16
F. 192.168.1.0/24
Answer: C E F
ICND2 – EIGRP Questions 2
http://www.9tut.net/icnd2-200-105/eigrp-questions-2-2
Question 1
What does a router do if it has no EIGRP feasible successor route to a destination network
and the successor route to that destination network is in active status?
A. It routes all traffic that is addressed to the destination network to the interface indicated in
the routing table.
B. It sends a copy of its neighbor table to all adjacent routers.
C. It sends a multicast query packet to all adjacent neighbors requesting available routing
paths to the destination network.
D. It broadcasts Hello packets to all routers in the network to re-establish neighbor
adjacencies.
Answer: C
Question 2
Which statement describes an EIGRP feasible successor route?
A. A primary route, added to the routing table

B. A backup route, added to the routing table
C. A primary route, added to the topology table
D. A backup route, added to the topology table
Answer: D
Question 3
Refer to the exhibit. How will the router handle a packet destined for 192.0.2.156?
A. The router will drop the packet.
B. The router will return the packet to its source.
C. The router will forward the packet via Serial2.
D. The router will forward the packet via either Serial0 or Serial1.
Answer: C
Question 4
Refer to the exhibit. From RouterA, a network administrator is able to ping the serial
interface of RouterB but unable to ping any of the subnets attached to RouterB. Based on
the partial outputs in the exhibit, what could be the problem?
A. EIGRP does not support VLSM.
B. The EIGRP network statements are incorrectly configured.
C. The IP addressing on the serial interface of RouterA is incorrect.
D. The routing protocol has summarized on the classful boundary.
E. EIGRP has been configured with an invalid autonomous system number.
Answer: D
Question 5
Refer to the exhibit. The Lakeside Company has the internetwork in the exhibit. The
Administrator would like to reduce the size of the routing table to the Central Router. Which
partial routing table entry in the Central router represents a route summary that represents
the LANs in Phoenix but no additional subnets?
A – 10.0.0.0 /22 is subnetted, 1 subnet
D 10.0.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2 6w0d, serial 0/1
B – 10.0.0.0 /28 is subnetted, 1 subnet

D 10.2.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2 6w0d, serial 0/1
C – 10.0.0.0 /30 is subnetted, 1 subnet

D 10.2.2.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2 6w0d, serial 0/1
D – 10.0.0.0 /22 is subnetted, 1 subnet

D 10.4.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2 6w0d, serial 0/1
E – 10.0.0.0 /28 is subnetted, 1 subnet

D 10.4.4.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2 6w0d, serial 0/1
F – 10.0.0.0 /30 is subnetted, 1 subnet

D 10.4.4.4 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2 6w0d, serial 0/1
Answer: D
Question 6
The company uses EIGRP as the routing protocol.

R3# show ip route
Gateway of last resort is not set
192 168.20.0/24 is variably subnetted, 6 subnets, 2 masks
D 192.168.20.64/26 [90/2195456] via 192.168.20.9, 00:03:31, Serial0/0
D 192.168.20.0/30 [90/2681856] via 192.168.20.9, 00:03:31, Serial0/0
C 192.168.20.4/30 is directly connected, Serial 0/1
C 192.168.20.8/30 is directly connected, Serial 0/0
C 192.168.20.192/26 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0
D 192.168.20.128/26 [90/2195456] via 192.168.20.5,00:03 31, Serial 0/1
What path will packets take from a host on 192.168.20.192/26 network to a host on the LAN
attached to router R1?
A. The path of the packets will be R3 to R2 to R1.

B. The path of the packets will be R3 to R1 to R2.
C. The path of the packets will be both R3 to R2 to R1 and R3 to R1.
D. The path of the packets will be R3 to R1.
Answer: D
Question 7
Which statements are true about EIGRP successor routes? (Choose two)
A. A successor route is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to a destination.

B. Successor routes are saved in the topology table to be used if the primary route fails.
C. Successor routes are flagged as “active” in the routing table.
D. A successor route may be backed up by a feasible successor route.
E. Successor routes are stored in the neighbor table following the discovery process.
Answer: A D
Question 8
What address is a feasible successor?
A. 172.16.4.0
B. 10.1.4.4
C. 10.1.2.2
D. 172.16.3.0
Answer: C
Question 9
A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP problem on a router and needs to

confirm the IP addresses of the devices with which the router has established adjacency.
The retransmit interval and the queue counts for the adjacent routers also need to be
checked.
What command will display the required information?
A. Router# show ip eigrp topology

B. Router# show ip eigrp interfaces
C. Router# show ip eigrp adjacency
D. Router# show ip eigrp neighbors
Answer: D
ICND2 – EIGRP Questions 3

http://www.9tut.net/icnd2-200-105/icnd2-eigrp-questions-3
Question 1
Which routing protocols are compatible with stubs? (Choose two)

A. OSPF
B. EIGRP
C. EGP
D. BGP
E. IS-IS
F. RIP
Answer: A B
Question 2
Which three checks must you perform when troubleshooting EIGRPv6 adjacencies? (Choose
three)
A. Verify that IPv6 is enabled.

B. Verify that the network command has been configured.
C. Verify that auto summary is enabled.
D. Verify that the interface is up.
E. Verify that an IPv4 address has been configured.
F. Verify that the router ID has been configured.
Answer: A D F
Question 3
Which command do you enter to view EIGRPv6 adjacencies?
A. show ipv6 eigrp 1 interface

B. show ipv6 route eigrp
C. show ipv6 eigrp neighbors
D. show running-configuration eigrp
Answer: C
ICND2 – BGP Questions

http://www.9tut.net/icnd2-200-105/bgp-questions
Question 1
Which two components are used to identify a neighbor in a BGP configuration? (Choose two)
A. autonomous system number

B. version number
C. router ID
D. subnet mask
E. IP address
Answer: A E
ICND2 – IP SLA Questions

http://www.9tut.net/icnd2-200-105/ip-sla-questions
Question 1
Which statement about the IP SLAs ICMP Echo operation is true?
A. The frequency of the operation specified in milliseconds.

B. It is used to identify the best source interface from which to send traffic.
C. It is configured in enable mode.
D. It is used to determine the frequency of ICMP packets.
Answer: D
Question 2
Which statement about the IP SLAs ICMP Echo operation is true?
A. It is configured in enable mode.

B. It is used to determine the one-way delay between devices
C. It is used to identify the best source interface from which to send traffic to a destination.
D. The frequency of the operation is specified in milliseconds.
Answer: B
ICND2 – Security Questions

http://www.9tut.net/icnd2-200-105/security-questions
Question 1
Which protocol authenticates connected devices before allowing them to access the LAN?
A. 802.1d
B. 802.11
C. 802.1w
D. 802.1x
Answer: D
Question 2
What is a difference between TACACS+ and RADIUS in AAA?
A. Only TACACS+ allows for separate authentication.

B. Only RADIUS encrypts the entire access-request packet.
C. Only RADIUS uses TCP.
D. Only TACACS+ couples authentication and authorization.
Answer: A
Question 3
What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two)
A. Administratively shut down the interface.

B. Physically secure the interface.
C. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group
command.
D. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.
E. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class
command.
Answer: D E
Question 4
Which protocol is an open standard protocol framework that is commonly used in VPNs, to provide
secure end-to-end communications?
A. RSA
B. L2TP
C. IPsec
D. PPTP
Answer: C
Question 5
Which IPsec security protocol should be used when confidentiality is required?

A. MD5
B. PSK
C. AH
D. ESP
Answer: D
Question 6
Which three options are types of Layer 2 network attack? (Choose three.)
A. ARP attacks
B. brute force attacks
C. spoofing attacks
D. DDOS attacks
E. VLAN hopping
F. botnet attacks
Answer: A C E
Question 7
Disadvantages of using proxy ARP?
A. It rewrite MAC in the database

B. It can be used for DDos attack
C. ?
D. ?
Answer: B
Question 8
What type of attack is when trusted source replace MAC tables with untrusted?
A. DHCP snooping
B. port snooping
C.
D.
Answer: A
Question 9
Which three response does TACAS+ give while querying..something like that. (Choose three)
A. error
B. accept
C. continue
D. persist
E. fault
Answer: A B C
Question 10
Which feature can validate address requests and filter out invalid messages?
A. IP Source Guard
B. port security
C. DHCP snooping
D. dynamic ARP inspection
Answer: C
ICND2 – Port Security Questions

http://www.9tut.net/icnd2-200-105/port-security-questions
Question 1
The following configuration is applied to a Layer 2 Switch:
interface fastethernet 0/4

switchport mode access
switchport port-security
switchport port-security mac-address 0000.1111.1111
switchport port-security maximum 2
What is the result of the above configuration being applied to the switch?
A. A host with a mac address of 0000.1111.1111 and up to two other hosts can connect to
FastEthernet 0/4 simultaneously
B. A host with a mac address of 0000.1111.1111 and one other host can connect to
FastEthernet 0/4 simultaneously
C. Violating addresses are dropped and no record of the violation is kept
D. The switch can send an SNMP message to the network management station
E. The port is effectively shutdown
Answer: B
Question 2
Refer to the exhibit. Which of these correctly describes the results of port security violation of an
unknown packet?
Switch(config)#interface fastethernet 0/1

Switch(config-if)#switchport mode access
Switch(config-if)#switchport port-security
Switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 3
Switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address sticky
Switch(config-if)#end
A. port enabled; unknown packets dropped; no SNMP or syslog messages

B. port enabled; unknown packets dropped; SNMP or syslog messages
C. port disabled; no SNMP or syslog messages
D. port disabled; SNMP or syslog messages
Answer: D
Question 3
Refer to the exhibit. What three actions will the switch take when a frame with an unknown source
MAC address arrives at the interface? (Select three)
A. Send an SNMP trap.

B. Send a syslog message.
C. Increment the Security Violation counter.
D. Forward the traffic.
E. Write the MAC address to the startup-config.
F. Shut down the port.
Answer: A B C
Question 4
A network administrator needs to configure port security on a switch. Which two statements are true?
(Choose two)
A. The network administrator can apply port security to dynamic access ports
B. The network administrator can configure static secure or sticky secure mac addresses in
the voice vlan.
C. The sticky learning feature allows the addition of dynamically learned addresses to the
running configuration.
D. The network administrator can apply port security to EtherChannels.
E. When dynamic mac address learning is enabled on an interface, the switch can learn new
addresses up to the maximum defined.
Answer: C E
Question 5
Refer to the exhibit. The following commands are executed on interface fa0/1 of 2950Switch.
2950Switch(config-if)#switchport port-security
2950Switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address sticky
2950Switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives on interface fa0/1. What two functions will occur
when this frame is received by 2950Switch? (Choose two)
A. The MAC address table will now have an additional entry of fa0/1 FFFF.FFFF.FFFF.
B. Only host A will be allowed to transmit frames on fa0/1.
C. This frame will be discarded when it is received by 2950Switch.
D. All frames arriving on 2950Switch with a destination of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be forwarded
out fa0/1.
E. Hosts B and C may forward frames out fa0/1 but frames arriving from other switches will
not be forwarded out fa0/1.
F. Only frames from source 0000.00bb.bbbb, the first learned MAC address of 2950Switch,
will be forwarded out fa0/1.
Answer: B D
ICND2 – SNMP Questions

http://www.9tut.net/icnd2-200-105/snmp-questions
Question 1
Which version of SNMP first allowed user-based access?
A. SNMPv3 with RBAC

B. SNMPv3
C. SNMPv1
D. SNMPv2
Answer: B
Question 2
What is the first step you perform to configure an SNMPv3 user?
A. Configure server traps.

B. Configure the server group.
C. Configure the server host.
D. Configure the remote engine ID.
Answer: B
Question 3
Which feature can you use to restrict SNMP queries to a specific OID tree?
A. a server group
B. a view record
C. a community
D. an access group
Answer: B
Question 4
What is the minimum command to turn on encryption on SNMP?
A. SNMPV3authpriv
B. SMNPV3authnopriv
C. SNMPV3noauthpriv
D. SMNPV2authnopriv
E. SNMPV2NOAUTHPRIV
F. SNMPV2AUTHNOPRIV
Answer: A
ICND2 – SPAN Questions
http://www.9tut.net/icnd2-200-105/icnd2-span-questions
Question 1
Which feature can you use to monitor traffic on a switch by replicating it to another port or
ports on the same switch?
A. copy run start

B. traceroute
C. the ICMP Echo IP SLA
D. SPAN
Answer: D
ICND2 – Syslog Questions

http://www.9tut.net/icnd2-200-105/syslog-questions
Question 1
If you configure syslog messages without specifying the logging trap level, which log
messages will the router send?
A. error conditions only

B. warning and error conditions only
C. normal but significant conditions only
D. all levels except debugging
E. informational messages only
Answer: D
ICND2 – Troubleshooting Questions

http://www.9tut.net/icnd2-200-105/troubleshooting-questions
Question 1
Which two pieces of information are provided by the “show controllers serial 0” command?
(Choose two)
A. the type of cable that is connected to the interface.

B. The uptime of the interface
C. the status of the physical layer of the interface
D. the full configuration of the interface
E. the interface‟s duplex settings
Answer: A C
Question 2
What is the best way to verify that a host has a path to other hosts in different networks?
A. Ping the loopback address.

B. Ping the default gateway.
C. Ping the local interface address.
D. Ping the remote network.
Answer: D
Question 3
While you were troubleshooting a connection issue, a ping from one VLAN to another
VLAN on the same switch failed. Which command verifies that IP routing is enabled on
interfaces and the local VLANs are up?
A. show ip interface brief

B. show ip nat statistics
C. show ip statistics
D. show ip route
Answer: D
Question 4
Which command would you use on a Cisco router to verify the Layer 3 path to a host?
A. tracert address
B. traceroute address
C. telnet address
D. ssh address
Answer: B
Question 5
A network administrator has configured access list 173 to prevent Telnet and ICMP traffic
from reaching a server with the address of 192.168.13.26. Which commands can the
administrator issue to verify that the access list is working properly? (Choose three)
A. Router# ping 192.168.13.26

B. Router# debug access-list 173
C. Router# show open ports 192.168.13.26
D. Router# show access-lists
E. Router# show ip interface
Answer: A D E
Question 6
Assuming that the entire network topology is shown, what is the operational status of the
interfaces of R2 as indicated by the command output shown?
A. One interface has a problem.

B. Two interfaces have problems.
C. The interfaces are functioning correctly.
D. The operational status of the interfaces cannot be determined from the output shown.
Answer: C
Question 7
Refer to the exhibit. Hosts in network 192.168.2.0 are unable to reach hosts in network
192.168.3.0. Based on the output from RouterA, what are two possible reasons for the
failure? (Choose two)
A. The cable that is connected to S0/0 on RouterA is faulty.

B. Interface S0/0 on RouterB is administratively down.
C. Interface S0/0 on RouterA is configured with an incorrect subnet mask.
D. The IP address that is configured on S0/0 of RouterB is not in the correct subnet.
E. Interface S0/0 on RouterA is not receiving a clock signal from the CSU/DSU.
F. The encapsulation that is configured on S0/0 of RouterB does not match the encapsulation
that is configured on S0/0 of RouterA.
Answer: E F
Question 8
Which interface counter can you use to diagnose a duplex mismatch problem?
A. runts
B. CRC errors
C. no carrier
D. late collisions
E. deferred
F. giants
Answer: B
ICND2 – Troubleshooting 2
http://www.9tut.net/icnd2-200-105/icnd2-troubleshooting-2
Question 1
Which two Cisco IOS commands, used in troubleshooting, can enable debug output to a
remote location? (Choose two)
A. no logging console
B. logging host ip-address
C. terminal monitor
D. show logging | redirect flashioutput.txt
E. snmp-server enable traps syslog
Answer: B C
Question 2
Routers R1 and R2 are on the same network segment, and both routers use interface
GigabitEthernet0/0. If R1 loses communication to R2, which two items should you check as
you begin troubleshooting? (Choose two)
A. Verify that R2 is using 802.1q encapsulation.

B. Verify that the GigabitEthernet0/0 interfaces on R1 and R2 are configured with the same
subnet mask.
C. Verify that the R1 GigabitEthernet0/0 interface is up and line protocol is down.
D. Verify that R1 and R2 both are using HDLC encapsulation.
E. Verify that R1 GigabitEthernet0/0 interface is up and line protocol is up.
Answer: B E
Question 3
After you configure a new router to connect to a host through the GigabitEthernet0/0 port of
the router, you log in to the router and observe that the new link is down. Which action
corrects the problem?
A. Use a crossover cable between the host and R1.

B. Use a straight through cable between the host and R1.
C. Configure the host to use R1 as the default gateway.
D. Use a rollover cable between the host and R1.
Answer: A
ICND2 – IPv6 Questions
http://www.9tut.net/icnd2-200-105/ipv6-questions
Question 1
Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router?
A. ipv6 local
B. ipv6 host
C. ipv6 unicast-routing
D. ipv6 neighbor
Answer: C
Question 2
The network administrator has been asked to give reasons for moving from IPv4 to IPv6. What are
two valid reasons for adopting IPv6 over IPv4? (Choose two)
A. telnet access does not require a password

B. nat
C. no broadcast
D. change of destination address in the IPv6 header
E. change of source address in the IPv6 header
F. autoconfiguration
Answer: C F
Question 3
Which of these represents an IPv6 link-local address?
A. FE08::280e:611:a:f14f.3d69
B. FE81::280f.512b:e14f:3d69
C. FE80::380e:611a:e14f:3d69
D. FEFE:0345:5f1b::e14d:3d69
Answer: C
Question 4
Which three approaches can be used while migrating from an IPv4 addressing scheme to an IPv6
scheme? (Choose three)
A. enable dual-stack routing
B. configure IPv6 directly
C. configure IPv4 tunnels between IPv6 islands
D. use proxying and translation to translate IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets
E. statically map IPv4 addresses to IPv6 addresses
F. use DHCPv6 to map IPv4 addresses to IPv6 addresses
Answer: A C D
ICND2 – SDN Questions

http://www.9tut.net/icnd2-200-105/sdn-questions
Question 1
Which component of the Cisco SDN solution serves as the centralized management system?
A. Cisco OpenDaylight
B. Cisco ACI
C. Cisco APIC
D. Cisco IWAN
Answer: C
Question 2
Which two options are primary responsibilities of the APIC-EM controller? (Choose two)
A. It automates network actions between different device types.

B. It provides robust asset management.
C. It tracks license usage and Cisco IOS versions.
D. It automates network actions between legacy equipment.
E. It makes network functions programmable.
Answer: A E
Question 3
Which Cisco platform can verify ACLs?
A. Cisco Prime Infrastructure

B. Cisco Wireless LAN Controller
C. Cisco APIC-EM
D. Cisco IOS-XE
Answer: C
ICND2 – Voice Questions

http://www.9tut.net/icnd2-200-105/icnd2-voice-questions
Question 1
Which command should you enter to allow carrying voice, options:
A. switchport ?? (VLAN 10, maybe?)

B. switchport access
C. switchport trunk
D. switchport host
Answer: B
Question 2
What is the Cisco recommended DSCP value for voice traffic?
A. 101110
B. 100110
C. 101111
D. 111110
Answer: A
Question 3
Which feature can you implement to reserve bandwidth for VoIP calls across the call path?
A. PQ
B. Round Robin
C. CBWFQ
D. RSPV
Answer: D
ICND2 – Miscellaneous Questions

http://www.9tut.net/icnd2-200-105/miscellaneous-questions-2
Question 1
Which two statement about proxy ARP are true ? (Choose two)
A. It is supported on networks without ARP.

B. It allows machines to spoof packets.
C. It requires larger ARP tables.
D. It reduces the amount of ARP traffic.
Answer: B C
Question 2
Which two statements about Ethernet standards are true? (Choose two)
A. Ethernet is defined by IEEE standard 802.2.

B. Ethernet is defined by IEEE standard 802.3.
C. Ethernet 10BASE-T does not support full-duplex.
D. When an Ethernet network uses CSMA/CD, it terminates transmission as soon as a
collision occurs.
E. When an Ethernet network uses CSMA/CA. it terminates transmission as soon as a
collision occurs.
Answer: B D
Question 3
If three devices are plugged into one port on a switch and two devices are plugged into a
different port, how many collision domains are on the switch?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: A
ICND2 – Drag and Drop

http://www.9tut.net/icnd2-200-105/drag-and-drop
Question 1
Drag the term on the left to its definition on the right (not all options are used)
Answer:
+ poison reverse: A router learns from its neighbor that a route is down and the router sends
an update back to the neighbor with an infinite metric to that route
+ LSA: The packets flooded when a topology change occurs, causing network routers to
update their topological databases and recalculate routes
+ split horizon: This prevents sending information about a routeback out the same interface
that originally learned about the route
+ holddown timer: For a given period, this causes the router to ignore any updates with
poorer metrics to a lost network
Question 2
The above provides some descriptions, while the below provides some routing protocols.
Drag the above items to the proper locations.
Answer:
EIGRP:
+ has a default administrative distance of 90

+ is vendor-specific
OSPF:
+ uses cost as its metric

+ elects a DR on each multiaccess network
Question 3
Drag each description on the left to the appropriate term on the right. Not all the descriptions
are used.
Answer:
+ holddown timer: prevents a router from improperly reinstating a route from a regular
routing update
+ split horizon: prevents information about a route from being sent in the direction from
which the route was learned
+ defining a maximum: prevents invalid updates from looping the internetwork indefinitely
+ route poisoning: causes a routing protocol to advertise an infinite metric for a failed route
+ triggered update: decreases convergence time by immediately sending route information in
response to a topology change
GRE Multilink Sim

http://www.9tut.net/icnd2/icnd2-labsim/gre-multilink-sim
Refer to the topology below and answer the following questions.

Question 1
Why is the Branch2 network 10.10.20.0/24 unable to communicate with the Server farm 1
network 10.10.10.0/24 over the GRE tunnel?
A. The GRE tunnel destination is not configured on the R2 router.

B. The GRE tunnel destination is not configured on the Branch2 router.
C. The static route points to the tunnel0 interface that is misconfigured on the Branch2 router.
D. The static route points to the tunnel0 interface that is misconfigured on the R2 router.
Answer: C
Question 2
Why has the Branch3 router lost connectivity with R1? Use only show commands to
troubleshoot because usage of the debug command is restricted on the Branch3 and R1
routers?
A. A PPP chap hostname mismatch is noticed between Branch3 and R1.

B. A PPP chap password mismatch is noticed between Branch3 and R1.
C. PPP encapsulation is not configured on Branch3.
D. The PPP chap hostname and PPP chap password commands are missing on the Branch3
router.
Answer: A
Question 3
Which statement about the router configurations is correct?
A. PPP PAP is authentication configured between Branch2 and R1.

B. Tunnel keepalives are not configured for the tunnel0 interface on Branch2 and R2.
C. The Branch2 LAN network 192.168.11.0/24 is not advertised into the EIGRP network.
D. The Branch3 LAN network 192.168.10.0/24 is not advertised into the EIGRP network.
E. PPP CHAP is authentication configured between Branch1 and R1.
Answer: D
Question 4
Why did Branch1 router lose WAN connectivity with R1 router?
A. The IP address is misconfigured on PPP multilink interface on the Branch1 router.

B. The PPP multilink group is misconfigured on the Branch1 serial interfaces.
C. The PPP multilink group is misconfigured on the R1 serial interfaces.
D. The Branch1 serial interfaces are placed in a shutdown condition.
Answer: A
EIGRP Troubleshooting Sim

http://www.9tut.net/icnd2/icnd2-labsim/eigrp-troubleshooting-sim
Refer to the topology. The EIGRP routing protocol is configured. You are required to
troubleshoot and resolve the EIGRP issues between the various routers. Use the appropriate
show commands to troubleshoot the issues.
Topology:
Question 1
Why are the two loopback interfaces on R4 (10.4.4.4/32 & 10.4.4.5/32) not showing in the routing
table of R5?
A. The two loopback interfaces are shutdown.

B. By default, automatic summarization is enabled, so only the 10.0.0.0 network is shown.
C. R4 has been incorrectly configured in another AS, so it does not form neighbor adjacency
with R5.
D. The „network‟ command is missing in the configuration of R4 so the loopback addresses
haven‟t been advertised.
Answer: C
Question 2
A user on R1 wants to send data to R5. Which path are the packets sent?
A. Packets from R1 to R5 will go through R2.

B. Packets from R1 to R5 will go through R3.
C. Packets are equally load-balanced over R2 and R3.
D. Packets are unequally load-balanced over R2 and R3.
Answer: A
Question 3
Why does R1 not form EIGRP neighbor relationship with R6?
A. K values are mismatched.

B. The AS does not match.
C. A network command is missing.
D. Passive-interface is configured.
Answer: C
Question 4
Refer to the following output on R1:
R1#ping 10.5.5.55 source 10.1.1.1

Packet sent with a source address of 10.1.1.1
.....
Success rate is 0 percent (0/5)
Why can R1 not reach 10.5.5.5 with source 10.1.1.1?
A. R5 is missing a network statement.

B. The loopback interface on R5 is shut down.
C. R1 is missing a network statement.
D. Incorrect IP address configured on the Loopback 1 interface on R5.
Answer: C
OSPF Neighbor Sim

http://www.9tut.net/icnd2/icnd2-labsim/ospf-neighbor-sim
The topology below is running OSPF. You are required to troubleshoot and resolve the OSPF
issues between the various routers. Use the appropriate show commands to troubleshoot the
issues.
Topology:
Instead of posting the output of “show run” commands we post here the commands entered
on each router to reduce some useless lines. Also you can try solving questions by yourself
before reading the answers.
R3
username R6 password
CISCO36
!
R1 R2 interface Loopback0
interface Loopback0 ! description **Loopback**
description ***Loopback*** interface Loopback0 ip address 192.168.3.3
ip address 192.168.1.1 description **Loopback** 255.255.255.255
255.255.255.255 ip address 192.168.2.2 ip ospf 3 area 0
ip ospf 1 area 0 255.255.255.255 !
! ip ospf 2 area 0 interface Ethernet0/0
interface Ethernet0/0 ! description **Connected to
description **Connected to interface Ethernet0/0 L2SW**
R1-LAN** description **Connected to ip address 10.10.230.3
ip address 10.10.110.1 R2-LAN** 255.255.255.0
255.255.255.0 ip address 10.10.120.1 ip ospf 3 area 0
ip ospf 1 area 0 255.255.255.0 !
! ip ospf 2 area 0 interface Serial1/0
interface Ethernet0/1 ! description **Connected to
description **Connected to interface Ethernet0/1 R4-Branch1 office**
L2SW** description **Connected to ip address 10.10.240.1
ip address 10.10.230.1 L2SW** 255.255.255.252
255.255.255.0 ip address 10.10.230.2 encapsulation ppp
ip ospf hello-interval 25 255.255.255.0 ip ospf 3 area 0
ip ospf 1 area 0 ip ospf 2 area 0 !
! ! interface Serial1/1
router ospf 1 router ospf 2 description **Connected to
log-adjacency-changes log-adjacency-changes R5-Branch2 office**
ip address 10.10.240.5
255.255.255.252
encapsulation ppp
ip ospf hello-interval 50
ip ospf 3 area 0
!
interface Serial1/2
description **Connected to
R6-Branch3 office**
ip address 10.10.240.9
255.255.255.252
encapsulation ppp
ip ospf 3 area 0
ppp authentication chap
!
router ospf 3
router-id 192.168.3.3
!
R6
username R3 password
R4 R5 CISCO36
! ! !
interface Loopback0 interface Loopback0 interface Loopback0
description **Loopback** description **Loopback** description **Loopback**
ip address 192.168.4.4 ip address 192.168.5.5 ip address 192.168.6.6
255.255.255.255 255.255.255.255 255.255.255.255
ip ospf 4 area 2 ip ospf 5 area 0 ip ospf 6 area 0
! ! !
interface Ethernet0/0 interface Ethernet0/0 interface Ethernet0/0
255.255.255.0 255.255.255.0 255.255.255.0
! ! !
interface Serial1/0 interface Serial1/0 interface Serial1/0
description **Connected to description **Connected to description **Connected to
R3-Main Branch office** R3-Main Branch office** R3-Main Branch office**
255.255.255.252 255.255.255.252 255.255.255.252
encapsulation ppp encapsulation ppp encapsulation ppp
! ! ppp authentication chap
router ospf 4 router ospf 5 !
log-adjacency-changes log-adjacency-changes router ospf 6
router-id 192.168.3.3
!
Note: Packet Tracer does not support enabling OSPF under interface mode (ip ospf 3 area 0).
We don‟t know why such a popular command is not supported so we can‟t make a pkt file for
this lab.
Question 1
R3 and R4 cannot form an OSPF neighborship. What is the problem?
A. The area IDs of R3 and R4 are mismatched

B. The Layer 2 encapsulation of the serial links is mismatched
C. The OSPF hello and dead interval are mismatched
D. The router ID of R3 is configured on R4
Answer: A
Question 2

Answer: C
Question 3

B. Ethernet0/1 of R1 is configured with a non-default OSPF hello interval
C. The Layer 2 encapsulation of the serial links is mismatched
D. The OSPF hello and dead interval are mismatched
Answer: B
Question 4

Answer: D
VTP Configuration Sim

http://www.9tut.net/icnd2/icnd2-labsim/vtp-configuration-sim
Question
A new switch is being added to the River Campus LAN. You will work to complete this
process by first configuring the building_2 switch with an IP address and default gateway.
For the switch host address, you should use the last available IP address on the management
subnet. In addition, the switch needs to be configured to be in the same VTP domain as the
building_1 switch and also needs to be configured as a VTP client. Assume that the IP
configuration and VTP configuration on building_1 are complete and correct.
The configuration of the router is not accessible for this exercise. You must accomplish the
following tasks:
Determine and configure the IP host address of the new switch.

Determine and configure the default gateway of the new switch.
Determine and configure the correct VTP domain name for the new switch.
Configure the new switch as a VTP client.
Note: In the exam, you might be asked to use first, second… available IP address on the
management subnet.
Nat Sim
http://www.9tut.net/icnd2/icnd2-labsim/nat-sim-question
Question
A network associate is configuring a router for the weaver company to provide internet
access. The ISP has provided the company six public IP addresses of 198.18.184.105
198.18.184.110. The company has 14 hosts that need to access the internet simultaneously.
The hosts in the company LAN have been assigned private space addresses in the range of
192.168.100.17 – 192.168.100.30.
The following have already been configured on the router：
– The basic router configuration

– The appropriate interfaces have been configured for NAT inside and NAT outside
– The appropriate static routes have also been configured (since the company will be a stub network, no routing protocol will be required.)
– All passwords have been temporarily set to “cisco”
OSPF Sim
http://www.9tut.net/icnd2/icnd2-labsim/ospf-sim
Question
Acme company has decided to network three locations to improve efficiency in inventory
control. The routers have been named to reflect the location: Boston, Frankfurt, Lancaster.
The necessary networking has been completed at each location, and the routers have been
configured with single area OSPF as the routing protocol. The Boston router was recently
installed but connectivity is not complete because of incomplete routing tables. Identify and
correct any problem you see in the configuration.

ICND1 2 Questions Apr 2018

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ICND1 2 Questions Apr 2018

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New ICND1 Questions

Syslog – what does not belong?

What does a switch use for communication between VLANs?

Which option does the route 0.0.0.0/0 represent?

What is the purpose of a standard access list?

A. to filter traffic based on destination address

A. Drops the packet

Drag drop question about cable types

Coaxial <-> TV connection

Which forwarding technology stores destination addresses in the cache?

Which route is the most secured : connected route

Which syslog severity level logs informational messages?

Answer: The switch forwards the frame to port 0/1 only.

What cable use in star topology? (Choose two)

Answer: 10Base-T, 100Base-T and 1000Base-T

What is the binary of the IPv6 multicast address

What is the lowest AD (IS-IS, IBGP, EIGRP, RIPv2 or OSPF)?

The Administrative Distances (AD) of popular routing protocols is shown below:

Note: For IS-IS, the AD is 115; Internal BGP (IBGP) is 200

In which circumstances is static routing most useful?

Which statement describes the dynamic route correctly?

A. more secure than static

A. static route is more secure

Which of the following description is correct about DNS?

A. Host will sends a request to a DNS server…

Which statement about standard access list is true?

For which important purpose was IPv6 addressing developed?

A. To reduce the number of public IP addresses on the internet

What does the 0.0.0.0/0 mean in a routing table?

Answer: should be default route

+ switch access port to router: straight-through

– To connect two serial interfaces of 2 routers we use serial cable

Which IPv6 address type is a public address?

Which statement describes the effect of exec-timeout 30 command?

A. The router disconnects the user session if it is inactive for 30 minutes

exec-timeout minutes [seconds]

Which statement is true about port-security violations is true?

Which statement is true about static and dynamic routing is true?

A. Only static routes are shared between connected interfaces

A. Bandwidth and delay

Refer to the exhibit.

A. It forwards the frame back out of interface Fa0/1

Which protocol can identify connected devices within a mixed-vendor infrastructure?

A. Virtual terminal protocol

Which interface configuration is used with a router-on-a-stick configuration?

A. Two host computers may be assigned manually on each host

Router(config)#ip dhcp pool CLIENTS

Where is private IPv4 addressing used?

A. On the endpoints of a VPN tunnel that traverses outside an administrator domain

Which protocol allows VLANs to be dynamically configured between multiple switches?

A. The connected router is using the default domain lookup configuration

==================New Questions added on 9th-Dec-2017==================

Which route option can be used to back-up in case of fail?

Answer: floating route

Answer: only TCP order the transmission packets

A. It will interrupt the frames

Which of the following true about access point?

A. It used physically to connect network devices

Which of the following used to identify immediate destination?

A. Disable DNS look up

Which symbol ping of the following is for unknown packet?

Each exclamation point indicates receipt of

Each period indicates the network server