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2012 INSTRUMENTATION ENGINEERING - IN

IN : INSTRUMENTATION ENGINEERING
Duration: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 100

Read the following instructions carefully.

1. Do not open the seal of the Question Booklet until you are asked to do so by the invigilator.
2. Take out the Optical Response Sheet (ORS) from this Question Booklet without breaking the seal
and read the instructions printed on the ORS carefully.
3. On the right half of the ORS, using ONLY a black ink ball point pen, (i) darken the bubble
corresponding to your test paper code and the appropriate bubble under each digit of your registration
number and (ii) write your registration number, your name and name of the examination centre and
put your signature at the specified location.
4. This Question Booklet contains 20 pages including blank pages for rough work. After you are
permitted to open the seal, please check all pages and report discrepancies, if any, to the invigilator.
5. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. All these questions are of objective type. Each
question has only one correct answer. Questions must be answered on the left hand side of the ORS
by darkening the appropriate bubble (marked A, B, C, D) using ONLY a black ink ball point pen
against the question number. For each question darken the bubble of the correct answer. More
than one answer bubbled against a question will be treated as an incorrect response.
6. Since bubbles darkened by the black ink ball point pen cannot be erased, candidates should darken
the bubbles in the ORS very carefully.
7. Questions Q.1 – Q.25 carry 1 mark each. Questions Q.26 – Q.55 carry 2 marks each. The 2 marks
questions include two pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The
answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first
question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is unattempted, then
the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.
8. Questions Q.56 – Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA) section and carry a total of 15 marks.
Questions Q.56 – Q.60 carry 1 mark each, and questions Q.61 – Q.65 carry 2 marks each.
9. Unattempted questions will result in zero mark and wrong answers will result in NEGATIVE marks.
For all 1 mark questions, ⅓ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions,
⅔ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, in the case of the linked answer question
pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question and no negative marks
for wrong answer to the second question.
10. Calculator is allowed whereas charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall.
11. Rough work can be done on the question paper itself. Blank pages are provided at the end of the
question paper for rough work.
12. Before the start of the examination, write your name and registration number in the space provided
below using a black ink ball point pen.

Name

Registration Number IN
IN 1/20
2012 INSTRUMENTATION ENGINEERING - IN

Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.


Q.1 If x   1 , then the value of x x is

(A) e  / 2 (B) e / 2 (C) x (D) 1


Q.2 With initial condition x(1)  0.5 , the solution of the differential equation,
dx
t  x  t is
dt

(A) x  t 
1
(B) x  t 2 
1 t2 (D) x 
t
(C) x 
2 2 2 2
Q.3 Two independent random variables X and Y are uniformly distributed in the interval [–1, 1]. The
probability that max[X, Y] is less than 1 2 is

(A) 3 4 (B) 9 16 (C) 1 4 (D) 2 3

1
Q.4 The unilateral Laplace transform of f (t) is . The unilateral Laplace transform of t f (t ) is
s  s 1
2

s 2s  1
(A)  (B)  2
( s  s  1)
2 2
( s  s  1) 2
s 2s  1
(C) (D)
( s  s  1)
2 2
( s  s  1) 2
2

Q.5 Given
1 2
f ( z)   . If C is a counterclockwise path in the z-plane such that z  1  1 , the value of
z 1 z  3
1

2 j C
f ( z ) dz is

(A) –2 (B) –1 (C) 1 (D) 2


Q.6 The average power delivered to an impedance (4  j3) by a current 5cos(100 t  100) A is

(A) 44.2 W (B) 50 W (C) 62.5 W (D) 125 W


Q.7 In the circuit shown below, the current through the inductor is

j1 
1
1 0A

1 0V 1 0V
- + + -
1 0A

- j1  1

2 1 1
(A) A (B) A (C) A (D) 0 A
1 j 1 j 1 j
IN 2/20
2012 INSTRUMENTATION ENGINEERING - IN

Q.8 In the following figure, C1 and C2 are ideal capacitors. C1 has been charged to 12 V before the ideal
switch S is closed at t = 0. The current i(t) for all t is

S t =0

C1 C2
i(t)

(A) zero (B) a step function


(C) an exponentially decaying function (D) an impulse function

Q.9 The impedance looking into nodes 1 and 2 in the given circuit is
ib

1k 99ib

9k
1
100
2

(A) 50  (B) 100  (C) 5 k (D) 10.1 k

Q.10 The i-v characteristics of the diode in the circuit given below are
 v  0.7
 A, v  0.7 V
i   500

 0 A, v  0.7 V
1k
i
+ +
v
- 10V -

The current in the circuit is


(A) 10 mA (B) 9.3 mA (C) 6.67 mA (D) 6.2 mA

Q.11 A system with transfer function


( s 2  9 ) ( s  2)
G( s) 
( s  1) ( s  3) ( s  4)
is excited by sin ( t ) . The steady-state output of the system is zero at

(A)   1 rad/s (B)   2 rad/s


(C)   3 rad/s (D)   4 rad/s

IN 3/20
2012 INSTRUMENTATION ENGINEERING - IN

Q.12 The output Y of a 2-bit comparator is logic 1 whenever the 2-bit input A is greater than the 2-bit
input B. The number of combinations for which the output is logic 1, is
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 10

Q.13 In the sum of products function f ( X , Y , Z )  (2, 3, 4, 5) , the prime implicants are
(A) X Y , X Y (B) X Y , X Y Z , X Y Z
(C) X Y Z , X Y Z , X Y (D) X Y Z , X Y Z , X Y Z , X Y Z

Q.14 Consider the given circuit.


A

CLK

B
In this circuit, the race around
(A) does not occur (B) occurs when CLK = 0
(C) occurs when CLK = 1 and A = B = 1 (D) occurs when CLK = 1 and A = B = 0

If x [n]  (1 / 3)  (1 / 2) n u[n] , then the region of convergence (ROC) of its Z-transform in the
n
Q.15
Z-plane will be
(A) 1
3
 z 3 (B) 1
3
 z  1
2
(C) 1
2
 z 3 (D) 1
3
 z

Q.16 A capacitive motion transducer circuit is shown. The gap d between the parallel plates of the
capacitor is varied as d (t )  103 [1  0.1sin (1000 t )] m . If the value of the capacitance is 2pF at
t  0 ms , the output voltage VO at t  2 ms is
1M

5 Volts DC
d

Capacitive
transducer VO


(A) mV (B)  mV (C) 2 mV (D) 4 mV
2

Q.17 A psychrometric chart is used to determine


(A) pH (B) Sound velocity in glasses
(C) CO 2 concentration (D) Relative humidity

IN 4/20
2012 INSTRUMENTATION ENGINEERING - IN

Q.18 A strain gauge is attached on a cantilever beam as shown. If the base of the cantilever vibrates
according to the equation x(t )  sin 1t  sin 2 t , where 2 rad/s  1 , 2  3 rad/s , then the output
of the strain gauge is proportional to
x
Cantilever beam:
Stiffness=8N/m y
Damping=0.1Ns/m
Base

Strain gauge Mass=0.001Kg

dx d 2x d ( x  y)
(A) x (B) (C) (D)
dt dt 2 dt

Q.19 The transfer function of a Zero-Order-Hold system with sampling interval T is


1 1 1 T s 1 T s
(A) (1  e T s ) (B) (1  e T s ) 2 (C) e (D) e
s s s s2

Q.20 An LED emitting at 1 m with a spectral width of 50 nm is used in a Michelson interferometer. To


obtain a sustained interference, the maximum optical path difference between the two arms of the
interferometer is
(A) 200 m (B) 20 m (C) 1 m (D) 50 nm

Q.21 Light of wavelength 630 nm in vacuum, falling normally on a biological specimen of thickness
10 m, splits into two beams that are polarized at right angles. The refractive index of the tissue for
the two polarizations are 1.32 and 1.333. When the two beams emerge, they are out of phase by
(A) 0.13 (B) 74.3 (C) 90.0 (D) 128.6

Q.22 The responsivity of the PIN photodiode shown is 0.9 A/W. To obtain Vout of –1 V for an incident
optical power of 1 mW, the value of R to be used is
R

+5V

Vout

-5V

(A) 0.9  (B) 1.1  (C) 0.9 k (D) 1.1 k

IN 5/20
2012 INSTRUMENTATION ENGINEERING - IN

Q.23 A periodic voltage waveform observed on an oscilloscope across a load is shown. A permanent
magnet moving coil (PMMC) meter connected across the same load reads
v(t)
10V

5V

0 10 12 20
time (ms)
-5V

(A) 4 V (B) 5 V (C) 8 V (D) 10 V


Q.24 For the circuit shown in the figure, the voltage and current expressions are
v(t )  E1 sin ( t )  E3 sin (3 t ) and i (t )  I1 sin ( t  1 )  I 3 sin (3 t  3 )  I 5 sin (5 t ) .
The average power measured by the Wattmeter is
i(t)

+ Wattmeter

Load
v(t)

1 1
(A) E1 I 1 cos1 (B) [ E1 I 1 cos1  E1 I 3 cos3  E1 I 5 ]
2 2
1 1
(C) [ E1 I 1 cos1  E3 I 3 cos3 ] (D) [ E1 I 1 cos1  E3 I 1 cos1 ]
2 2
Q.25 The bridge method commonly used for finding mutual inductance is
(A) Heaviside Campbell bridge (B) Schering bridge
(C) De Sauty bridge (D) Wien bridge
Q. 26 to Q. 55 carry two marks each.
Q.26 A fair coin is tossed till a head appears for the first time. The probability that the number of
required tosses is odd, is
(A) 1/3 (B) 1/2 (C) 2/3 (D) 3/4
Q.27 Given that
 5  3 1 0
A  and I    , the value of A 3 is
2 0 0 1 
(A) 15 A + 12 I (B) 19 A + 30 I
(C) 17 A + 15 I (D) 17 A + 21 I
Q.28 The direction of vector A is radially outward from the origin, with A  k r n where
r 2  x 2  y 2  z 2 and k is a constant. The value of n for which   A  0 is

(A) –2 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 0


IN 6/20
2012 INSTRUMENTATION ENGINEERING - IN

Q.29 The maximum value of f ( x)  x 3  9 x 2  24 x  5 in the interval [1, 6] is

(A) 21 (B) 25 (C) 41 (D) 46


Q.30 Consider the differential equation
d 2 y (t ) dy(t ) dy
2
2  y (t )   (t ) with y (t ) t 0 
 2 and  0.
dt dt dt t 0
dy
The numerical value of is
dt t 0

(A) –2 (B) –1 (C) 0 (D) 1


Q.31 If VA  VB  6 V, then VC  VD is

R VA 2 VB R

R
R R
-
10 V
R 1 R

+
R
+ - VC VD
5V 2A

(A) –5 V (B) 2 V (C) 3 V (D) 6 V


Q.32 Assuming both the voltage sources are in phase, the value of R for which maximum power is
transferred from circuit A to circuit B is
2 R

+ - j1  +
10 V 3V
- -

Circuit A Circuit B

(A) 0.8  (B) 1.4  (C) 2 (D) 2.8 


Q.33 The voltage gain Av of the circuit shown below is
13.7 Volts

12k

C vo
100k
C
b=100
vi 10k

(A) Av  200 (B) Av  100 (C) Av  20 (D) Av  10


IN 7/20
2012 INSTRUMENTATION ENGINEERING - IN

Q.34 The state variable description of an LTI system is given by

 x1   0 a1 0   x1   0 
      
 x 2    0 0 a2   x2    0  u
 x   a 0   x3   1 
 3  3 0

 x1 
 
y  1 0 0  x2 
x 
 3

where y is the output and u is the input. The system is controllable for
(A) a1  0 , a 2  0 , a3  0 (B) a1  0 , a 2  0 , a3  0
(C) a1  0 , a 2  0 , a3  0 (D) a1  0 , a 2  0 , a3  0

Q.35 The state transition diagram for the logic circuit shown is

2-1 MUX
D Q
X1
Y
CLK X0
Q Select

A=1 A=0 A=0 A=0

A=1 A=1
(A) (B)
Q=0 Q=1 Q=0 Q=1
A=0 A=1

A=0 A=1 A=1 A=1

A=0 A=0
(C) (D)
Q=0 Q=1 Q=0 Q=1
A=1 A=0

Q.36 The Fourier transform of a signal h(t) is H ( j )  (2 cos) (sin 2) /  . The value of h(0) is

(A) 1/4 (B) 1/2 (C) 1 (D) 2

Q.37 Let y[n] denote the convolution of h[n] and g[n], where h [n]  (1 / 2) n u[n] and g[n] is a causal
sequence. If y[0] = 1 and y[1] = 1/2, then g[1] equals
(A) 0 (B) 1/2 (C) 1 (D) 3/2

IN 8/20
2012 INSTRUMENTATION ENGINEERING - IN

Q.38 The feedback system shown below oscillates at 2 rad/s when

R(s) + K ( s  1) Y(s)
s  as 2  2 s  1
3

(A) K = 2 and a = 0.75 (B) K = 3 and a = 0.75


(C) K = 4 and a = 0.5 (D) K = 2 and a = 0.5
Q.39 The circuit shown is a
R2

C R1 +5V
+ - +
Input Output
- + -
-5V

1
(A) low pass filter with f3dB = rad/s
( R1  R2 ) C
1
(B) high pass filter with f3dB = rad/s
R1C
1
(C) low pass filter with f3dB = rad/s
R1C
1
(D) high pass filter with f3dB = rad/s
( R1  R2 ) C
t
Q.40 The input x(t) and output y(t) of a system are related as y (t )   x( ) cos(3 ) d .

The system is

(A) time-invariant and stable (B) stable and not time-invariant


(C) time-invariant and not stable (D) not time-invariant and not stable
Q.41 A double convex lens is used to couple a laser beam of diameter 5 mm into an optical fiber with a
numerical aperture of 0.5. The minimum focal length of the lens that should be used in order to
focus the entire beam into the fiber is
(A) 1.44 mm (B) 2.50 mm (C) 4.33 mm (D) 5.00 mm
Q.42 An analog voltmeter uses external multiplier settings. With a multiplier setting of 20 kit reads
440 V and with a multiplier setting of 80 kit reads 352 V. For a multiplier setting of 40 k the
voltmeter reads
(A) 371 V (B) 383 V (C) 394 V (D) 406 V
Q.43 The open loop transfer function of a unity negative feedback control system is given by
150
G( s)  . The gain margin of the system is
s ( s  9) ( s  25)

(A) 10.8 dB (B) 22.3 dB (C) 34.1 dB (D) 45.6 dB

IN 9/20
2012 INSTRUMENTATION ENGINEERING - IN

Q.44 A dynamometer arm makes contact with the piezoelectric load cell as shown. The g-constant of the
piezoelectric material is 50  103 Vm/N and the surface area of the load cell is 4 cm2. If a torque
  20 Nm is applied to the dynamometer, the output voltage VO of the load cell is
0.5 m

Area A=4cm2

VO
Torque τ d= 1mm Load cell
Dynamometer

(A) 4 V (B) 5 V (C) 10 V (D) 16 V

Q.45 Water (density: 1000 kgm–3) stored in a cylindrical drum of diameter 1 m is emptied through a
horizontal pipe of diameter 0.05 m. A pitot-static tube is placed inside the pipe facing the flow.
At the time when the difference between the stagnation and static pressures measured by the pitot-
static tube is 10 kPa, the rate of reduction in water level in the drum is,
1 1 1 1
(A) ms1 (B) ms1 (C) ms1 (D) ms1
200 5 75 10 50 10 40 5

Q.46 A U-tube manometer of tube diameter D is filled with a liquid of zero viscosity. If the volume of
the liquid filled is V, the natural frequency of oscillations in the liquid level about its mean position,
due to small perturbations, is

D g 2 2 gV 1 gD 1 g
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 2 V  D 2
2  V
1/ 3
 D

Q.47 The open loop transfer function of a unity gain negative feedback control system is given by
s 2  4s  8
G( s)  . The angle  , at which the root locus approaches the zeros of the system,
s ( s  2) ( s  8)
satisfies

1 3 1
(A)     tan1   (B)    tan1  
4 4  3
 1  1
(C)    tan1   (D)    tan1  
2 4 4  3

IN 10/20
2012 INSTRUMENTATION ENGINEERING - IN

Common Data Questions


Common Data for Questions 48 and 49:
With 10 V dc connected at port A in the linear nonreciprocal two-port network shown below, the following
were observed:
(i) 1  connected at port B draws a current of 3 A
(ii) 2.5  connected at port B draws a current of 2 A
+
A B

-
Q.48 With 10 V dc connected at port A, the current drawn by 7  connected at port B is
(A) 3/7 A (B) 5/7 A (C) 1 A (D) 9/7 A

Q.49 For the same network, with 6 V dc connected at port A, 1  connected at port B draws 7/3 A.
If 8 V dc is connected to port A, the open circuit voltage at port B is
(A) 6 V (B) 7 V (C) 8 V (D) 9 V

Common Data for Questions 50 and 51:

The deflection profile y (x ) of a cantilever beam due to application of a point force F (in Newton), as a
 x
function of distance x from its base, is given by y ( x )  0.001F x 2 1   m . The angular deformation 
 3
at the end of the cantilever is measured by reflecting a laser beam off a mirror M as shown in the figure.

90°
Photodetector
Laser θ

3m
y(x) M
x Cantilever
beam
F
1m

Q.50 The translation S of the spot of laser light on the photodetector when a force of F  1 N is applied
to the cantilever is
(A) 1 mm (B) 3 mm (C) 6 mm (D) 12 mm

1 1
Q.51 If linear variable differential transformers (LVDTs) are mounted at x  m and x  m on the
2 4
cantilever to measure the effect of time varying forces, the ratio of their outputs is
(A) 12/7 (B) 40/11 (C) 176/23 (D) 112/15
IN 11/20
2012 INSTRUMENTATION ENGINEERING - IN

Linked Answer Questions


Statement for Linked Answer Questions 52 and 53:

The transfer function of a compensator is given as


sa
Gc ( s )  .
sb
Q.52 Gc (s) is a lead compensator if
(A) a =1, b = 2 (B) a = 3, b = 2
(C) a = –3, b = –1 (D) a = 3, b = 1

Q.53 The phase of the above lead compensator is maximum at

(A) 2 rad/s (B) 3 rad/s (C) 6 rad/s (D) 1 / 3 rad/s

Statement for Linked Answer Questions 54 and 55:

In the circuit shown, the three voltmeter readings are V1  220 V , V2  122 V , V3  136 V .

R I
V2
RL
Load

V1 V3
X

Q.54 The power factor of the load is


(A) 0.45 (B) 0.50 (C) 0.55 (D) 0.60

Q.55 If RL  5  , the approximate power consumption in the load is

(A) 700 W (B) 750 W (C) 800 W (D) 850 W

IN 12/20
2012 INSTRUMENTATION ENGINEERING - IN

General Aptitude (GA) Questions (Compulsory)

Q. 56 – Q. 60 carry one mark each.

Q.56 Choose the most appropriate alternative from the options given below to complete the following
sentence:
If the tired soldier wanted to lie down, he ___ the mattress out on the balcony.
(A) should take
(B) shall take
(C) should have taken
(D) will have taken

Q.57 If (1.001)1259 = 3.52 and (1.001)2062 = 7.85, then (1.001)3321 =


(A) 2.23 (B) 4.33 (C) 11.37 (D) 27.64

Q.58 One of the parts (A, B, C, D) in the sentence given below contains an ERROR. Which one of the
following is INCORRECT?

I requested that he should be given the driving test today instead of tomorrow.
(A) requested that
(B) should be given
(C) the driving test
(D) instead of tomorrow

Q.59 Which one of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word given below?

Latitude
(A) Eligibility (B) Freedom (C) Coercion (D) Meticulousness

Q.60 Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following
sentence:
Given the seriousness of the situation that he had to face, his ___ was impressive.
(A) beggary (B) nomenclature (C) jealousy (D) nonchalance

Q. 61 - Q. 65 carry two marks each.


Q.61 Raju has 14 currency notes in his pocket consisting of only Rs. 20 notes and Rs. 10 notes. The total
money value of the notes is Rs. 230. The number of Rs. 10 notes that Raju has is
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 9 (D) 10

IN 13/20
2012 INSTRUMENTATION ENGINEERING - IN

Q.62 One of the legacies of the Roman legions was discipline. In the legions, military law prevailed
and discipline was brutal. Discipline on the battlefield kept units obedient, intact and fighting,
even when the odds and conditions were against them.

Which one of the following statements best sums up the meaning of the above passage?
(A) Thorough regimentation was the main reason for the efficiency of the Roman legions even in
adverse circumstances.
(B) The legions were treated inhumanly as if the men were animals.
(C) Discipline was the armies’ inheritance from their seniors.
(D) The harsh discipline to which the legions were subjected to led to the odds and conditions being
against them.

Q.63 A and B are friends. They decide to meet between 1 PM and 2 PM on a given day. There is a
condition that whoever arrives first will not wait for the other for more than 15 minutes. The
probability that they will meet on that day is
(A) 1/4 (B) 1/16 (C) 7/16 (D) 9/16

Q.64 The data given in the following table summarizes the monthly budget of an average household.

Category Amount (Rs.)


Food 4000
Clothing 1200
Rent 2000
Savings 1500
Other expenses 1800

The approximate percentage of the monthly budget NOT spent on savings is


(A) 10% (B) 14% (C) 81% (D) 86%

Q.65 There are eight bags of rice looking alike, seven of which have equal weight and one is slightly
heavier. The weighing balance is of unlimited capacity. Using this balance, the minimum number
of weighings required to identify the heavier bag is
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 8

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

IN 14/20
GATE 2012 ‐ Answer Key ‐ Paper : IN

Paper Question no. Key       Paper Question no. Key      


IN  1 A                         IN  46 A                        
IN  2 D                         IN  47 D                        
IN  3 B                         IN  48 C                        
IN  4 D                         IN  49 C                        
IN  5 C                         IN  50 C                        
IN  6 B                         IN  51 B                        
IN  7 C                         IN  52 A                        
IN  8 D                         IN  53 A                        
IN  9 A                         IN  54 A                        
IN  10 D                         IN  55 B                        
IN  11 C                         IN  56 A                        
IN  12 B                         IN  57 D                        
IN  13 A                         IN  58 B                        
IN  14 A                         IN  59 B                        
IN  15 C                         IN  60 D                        
IN  16 B                         IN  61 A                        
IN  17 D                         IN  62 A                        
IN  18 C                         IN  63 C                        
IN  19 A                         IN  64 D                        
IN  20 B                         IN  65 A                        
IN  21 B                        
IN  22 D                        
IN  23 A                        
IN  24 C                        
IN  25 A                        
IN  26 C                        
IN  27 B                        
IN  28 A                        
IN  29 C                        
IN  30 D                        
IN  31 A                        
IN  32 A                        
IN  33 D                        
IN  34 D                        
IN  35 D                        
IN  36 C                        
IN  37 A                        
IN  38 A                        
IN  39 B                        
IN  40 D                        
IN  41 Marks to All             
IN  42 Marks to All             
IN  43 C                        
IN  44 Marks to All             
IN  45 D                        
SESSION - 1
2013 Question Booklet Code
A
IN : INSTRUMENTATION ENGINEERING
Duration: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 100

Read the following instructions carefully.

1. Do not open the seal of the Question Booklet until you are asked to do so by the invigilator.
2. Take out the Optical Response Sheet (ORS) from this Question Booklet without breaking the seal
and read the instructions printed on the ORS carefully. If you find that either:
a. The Question Booklet Code printed at the right hand top corner of this page does not match with
the Question Booklet Code at the right hand top corner of the ORS or
b. The Question Paper Code preceding the Registration number on the ORS is not IN,
then exchange the booklet immediately with a new sealed Question Booklet.
3. On the right hand side of the ORS, using ONLY a black ink ballpoint pen, (i) darken the appropriate
bubble under each digit of your registration number and (ii) write your registration number, your
name and name of the examination centre and put your signature at the specified location.
4. This Question Booklet contains 20 pages including blank pages for rough work. After you are
permitted to open the seal, check all pages and report discrepancies, if any, to the invigilator.
5. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. All these questions are of objective type. Each
question has only one correct answer. Questions must be answered on the left hand side of the ORS
by darkening the appropriate bubble (marked A, B, C, D) using ONLY a black ink ballpoint pen
against the question number. For each question darken the bubble of the correct answer. More
than one answer bubbled against a question will be treated as an incorrect response.
6. Since bubbles darkened by the black ink ballpoint pen cannot be erased, candidates should darken the
bubbles in the ORS very carefully.
7. Questions Q.1 – Q.25 carry 1 mark each. Questions Q.26 – Q.55 carry 2 marks each. The 2 marks
questions include two pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The
answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first
question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is not attempted,
then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.
8. Questions Q.56 – Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA) section and carry a total of 15 marks.
Questions Q.56 – Q.60 carry 1 mark each, and questions Q.61 – Q.65 carry 2 marks each.
9. Questions not attempted will result in zero mark and wrong answers will result in NEGATIVE
marks. For all 1 mark questions, ⅓ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks
questions, ⅔ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, in the case of the linked
answer question pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question and no
negative marks for wrong answer to the second question.
10. Calculator is allowed whereas charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall.
11. Rough work can be done on the Question Booklet itself. Blank pages are provided at the end of the
Question Booklet for rough work.
12. Before the start of the examination, write your name and registration number in the space provided
below using a black ink ballpoint pen.

Name

Registration Number IN

IN-A 1/20
2013 INSTRUMENTATION ENGG. - IN

Q.1 to Q.25 carry one mark each.

0 1 1
Q.1 The dimension of the null space of the matrix  1 −1 0  is
 −1 0 −1
 
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3

Q.2 If the A-matrix of the state space model of a SISO linear time invariant system is rank deficient, the
transfer function of the system must have
(A) a pole with a positive real part
(B) a pole with a negative real part
(C) a pole with a positive imaginary part
(D) a pole at the origin

Q.3 Two systems with impulse responses h1 (t ) and h2 (t ) are connected in cascade. Then the overall
impulse response of the cascaded system is given by
(A) product of h1 (t ) and h2 (t ) (B) sum of h1 (t ) and h2 (t )
(C) convolution of h1 (t ) and h2 (t ) (D) subtraction of h2 (t ) from h1 (t )

Q.4 The complex function tanh ( s ) is analytic over a region of the imaginary axis of the complex
s-plane if the following is TRUE everywhere in the region for all integers n
(A) Re ( s ) = 0 (B) Im ( s ) ≠ n π
nπ (2n + 1) π
(C) Im ( s ) ≠ (D) Im ( s ) ≠
3 2

Q.5 For a vector E, which one of the following statements is NOT TRUE?
(A) If ∇ ⋅ E = 0, E is called solenoidal.
(B) If ∇ × E = 0, E is called conservative.
(C) If ∇ × E = 0, E is called irrotational.
(D) If ∇ ⋅ E = 0, E is called irrotational.

Q.6 For a periodic signal v(t ) = 30 sin100 t + 10 cos 300 t + 6 sin (500 t + π / 4) , the fundamental frequency in
rad/s is
(A) 100 (B) 300 (C) 500 (D) 1500

IN-A 2/20
2013 INSTRUMENTATION ENGG. - IN

Q.7 In the transistor circuit as shown below, the value of resistance RE in kΩ is approximately,
+10 V

I C = 2.0 mA

1.5 kΩ

15k Ω

0.1µF
VCE =5.0 V
0.1µF

6kΩ Vout

RE

(A) 1.0 (B) 1.5 (C) 2.0 (D) 2.5

Q.8 A source vs (t ) = V cos100π t has an internal impedance of 4 + j3 Ω. If a purely resistive load


connected to this source has to extract the maximum power out of the source, its value in Ω should be
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 7
Q.9 Which one of the following statements is NOT TRUE for a continuous time causal and stable
LTI system?
(A) All the poles of the system must lie on the left side of the jω axis.
(B) Zeros of the system can lie anywhere in the s-plane.
(C) All the poles must lie within s = 1 .
(D) All the roots of the characteristic equation must be located on the left side of the jω axis.
Q.10 The operational amplifier shown in the circuit below has a slew rate of 0.8 Volts / µ s . The input
signal is 0.25 sin (ω t ) . The maximum frequency of input in kHz for which there is no distortion in
the output is

(A) 23.84 (B) 25.0 (C) 50.0 (D) 46.60

IN-A 3/20
2013 INSTRUMENTATION ENGG. - IN

Q.11 Assuming zero initial condition, the response y (t ) of the system given below to a unit step input
u (t ) is

2
(A) u (t ) (B) t u (t ) (C) t u (t ) (D) e − t u (t )
2

V2 ( s)
Q.12 The transfer function of the circuit shown below is
V1 ( s )

0.5 s + 1 3s + 6 s+2 s +1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
s +1 s+2 s +1 s+2

2
∂f ∂ f
Q.13 The type of the partial differential equation = 2
is
∂t ∂x

(A) Parabolic (B) Elliptic (C) Hyperbolic (D) Nonlinear

Q.14 1 − 2 z −1
The discrete-time transfer function is
1 − 0.5 z −1
(A) non-minimum phase and unstable.
(B) minimum phase and unstable.
(C) minimum phase and stable.
(D) non-minimum phase and stable.
Q.15 Match the following biomedical instrumentation techniques with their applications
P : Otoscopy U : Respiratory volume measurement
Q : Ultrasound Technique V : Ear diagnostics
R : Spirometry W : Echo-cardiography
S : Thermodilution Technique X : Heart volume measurement
(A) P-U, Q-V, R-X, S-W (B) P-V, Q-U, R-X, S-W
(C) P-V, Q-W, R-U, S-X (D) P-V, Q-W, R-X, S-U
Q.16 A continuous random variable X has a probability density function f ( x) = e − x , 0 < x < ∞ . Then
P { X > 1} is
(A) 0.368 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.632 (D) 1.0
IN-A 4/20
2013 INSTRUMENTATION ENGG. - IN

Q.17 A band-limited signal with a maximum frequency of 5 kHz is to be sampled. According to the
sampling theorem, the sampling frequency in kHz which is not valid is
(A) 5 (B) 12 (C) 15 (D) 20
Q.18 The differential pressure transmitter of a flow meter using a venturi tube reads 2.5 × 105 Pa for a
flow rate of 0.5 m3/s. The approximate flow rate in m3/s for a differential pressure 0.9 × 105 Pa is
(A) 0.30 (B) 0.18 (C) 0.83 (D) 0.60
Q.19 A bulb in a staircase has two switches, one switch being at the ground floor and the other one at the
first floor. The bulb can be turned ON and also can be turned OFF by any one of the switches
irrespective of the state of the other switch. The logic of switching of the bulb resembles
(A) an AND gate (B) an OR gate (C) an XOR gate (D) a NAND gate

Q.20 The impulse response of a system is h(t ) = t u (t ) . For an input u (t − 1) , the output is
2 t (t − 1)
(A) t u (t ) (B) u (t − 1) (t − 1) 2 t2 −1
2 2 (C) u (t − 1) (D) u (t − 1)
2 2

Q.21 Consider a delta connection of resistors and its equivalent star connection as shown. If all elements
of the delta connection are scaled by a factor k, k> 0, the elements of the corresponding star
equivalent will be scaled by a factor of

Ra RC RB
Rb Rc
RA

(A) k2 (B) k (C) 1/k (D) k


Q.22 An accelerometer has input range of 0 to 10g, natural frequency 30 Hz and mass 0.001 kg. The
range of the secondary displacement transducer in mm required to cover the input range is
(A) 0 to 2.76 (B) 0 to 9.81 (C) 0 to 11.20 (D) 0 to 52.10
Q.23 In the circuit shown below what is the output voltage (Vout ) in Volts if a silicon transistor Q and an
ideal op-amp are used?

(A) 15 (B) 0.7 (C) 0.7 (D) 15

IN-A 5/20
2013 INSTRUMENTATION ENGG. - IN

Q.24 In the feedback network shown below, if the feedback factor k is increased, then the

+ v + + vout
in v1 A0 –
– –

vf = kvout+ k +
– –

(A) input impedance increases and output impedance decreases


(B) input impedance increases and output impedance also increases
(C) input impedance decreases and output impedance also decreases
(D) input impedance decreases and output impedance increases

Q.25 The Bode plot of a transfer function G (s ) is shown in the figure below.
Gain (dB)

The gain (20 log G ( s) ) is 32 dB and –8 dB at 1 rad/s and 10 rad/s respectively. The phase is
negative for all ω. Then G (s ) is

39.8 39.8 32 32
(A) (B) (C) (D)
s s2 s s2

IN-A 6/20
2013 INSTRUMENTATION ENGG. - IN

Q.26 to Q.55 carry two marks each.


dy
Q.26 While numerically solving the differential equation + 2 xy 2 = 0 , y (0) = 1 using Euler’s predictor-
dx
corrector (improved Euler-Cauchy) method with a step size of 0.2, the value of y after the first step
is
(A) 1.00 (B) 1.03 (C) 0.97 (D) 0.96

0 − 1
Q.27 One pair of eigenvectors corresponding to the two eigenvalues of the matrix  is
1  0 

1   j 0 − 1 1  0 1   j 
(A)   ,   (B)   ,   (C)   ,   (D)   ,  
− j  − 1 1  0   j  1  j  1 

Q.28 The digital circuit shown below uses two negative edge-triggered D-flip-flops. Assuming initial
condition of Q1 and Q0 as zero, the output Q1Q0 of this circuit is

Q1 D0 Q0
D1

D-Flip-flop D-Flip-flop
Q1 Q0

clock

(A) 00,01,10,11,00 …
(B) 00,01,11,10,00 …
(C) 00,11,10,01,00 …
(D) 00,01,11,11,00 …

Q.29 Considering the transformer to be ideal, the transmission parameter ‘A’ of the 2-port network
shown in the figure below is
1 2Ω 2Ω 2
1:2
I1 I2
V1 5Ω 5Ω V2

1′ 2′
(A) 1.3 (B) 1.4 (C) 0.5 (D) 2.0

IN-A 7/20
2013 INSTRUMENTATION ENGG. - IN

Q.30 The following arrangement consists of an ideal transformer and an attenuator, which attenuates
by a factor of 0.8. An ac voltage VWX 1 = 100V is applied across WX to get an open circuit voltage
VYZ 1 across YZ. Next, an ac voltage VYZ 2 = 100V is applied across YZ to get an open circuit
voltage VWX 2 across WX. Then, VYZ 1 / VWX 1 , VWX 2 / VYZ 2 are respectively,

W
1:1.25
Y

X Z

(A) 125/100 and 80/100 (B) 100/100 and 80/100


(C) 100/100 and 100/100 (D) 80/100 and 80/100

ω (s) 10
Q.31 The open-loop transfer function of a dc motor is given as = . When connected in
V a ( s ) 1 + 10 s
feedback as shown below, the approximate value of K a that will reduce the time constant of the
closed loop system by one hundred times as compared to that of the open-loop system is

(A) 1 (B) 5 (C) 10 (D) 100

Q.32 Two magnetically uncoupled inductive coils have Q factors q1 and q2 at the chosen operating
frequency. Their respective resistances are R1 and R2. When connected in series, the effective
Q factor of the series combination at the same operating frequency is
(A) q1 + q2 (B) (1/ q1 ) + (1/ q2 )
(C) ( q1 R1 + q2 R2 ) / ( R1 + R2 ) (D) ( q1 R2 + q2 R1 ) / ( R1 + R2 )

IN-A 8/20
2013 INSTRUMENTATION ENGG. - IN

Q.33 For the circuit shown below, the knee current of the ideal Zener diode is 10 mA. To maintain 5 V
across RL , the minimum value of the load resistor RL in Ω and the minimum power rating of the
Zener diode in mW, respectively, are

100 Ω

10 V ILoad

VZ = 5 V RL

(A) 125 and 125 (B) 125 and 250


(C) 250 and 125 (D) 250 and 250

Q.34 The impulse response of a continuous time system is given by h (t ) = δ (t − 1) + δ (t − 3) . The value
of the step response at t = 2 is
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
Q.35 Signals from fifteen thermocouples are multiplexed and each one is sampled once per second with a
16-bit ADC. The digital samples are converted by a parallel to serial converter to generate a serial
PCM signal. This PCM signal is frequency modulated with FSK modulator with 1200 Hz as 1 and
960 Hz as 0. The minimum band allocation required for faithful reproduction of the signal by the
FSK receiver without considering noise is
(A) 840 Hz to 1320 Hz (B) 960 Hz to 1200 Hz
(C) 1080 Hz to 1320 Hz (D) 720 Hz to 1440 Hz
Q.36 Three capacitors C1, C2 and C3 whose values are 10µF, 5µF, and 2µF respectively, have breakdown
voltages of 10V, 5V, and 2V respectively. For the interconnection shown below, the maximum safe
voltage in Volts that can be applied across the combination, and the corresponding total charge
in µC stored in the effective capacitance across the terminals are, respectively,
C2 C3

C1

(A) 2.8 and 36 (B) 7 and 119


(C) 2.8 and 32 (D) 7 and 80

Q.37 The maximum value of the solution y (t ) of the differential equation y (t ) + &y&(t ) = 0 with initial
conditions y& (0) = 1 and y (0) = 1 , for t ≥ 0 is

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) π (D) 2


IN-A 9/20
2013 INSTRUMENTATION ENGG. - IN

Q.38 The Laplace Transform representation of the triangular pulse shown below is

1 1
(A) 2
[1 + e −2 s ] (B) [1 − e − s + e − 2 s ]
s s2
1 1
(C) [1 − e− s + 2 e− 2 s ] (D) [1 − 2 e − s + e − 2 s ]
s2 s2

Q.39 In the circuit shown below, if the source voltage VS = 100∠53.13° Volts, then the Thevenin’s
equivalent voltage in Volts as seen by the load resistance RL is

3Ω j4 Ω j6 Ω 5Ω

VL1

VS j40I2 10VL1 RL=10 Ω

I1 I2

(A) 100∠90° (B) 800∠0° (C) 800∠90° (D) 100∠60°

Q.40 A signal Vi (t ) = 10 + 10 sin 100 π t + 10 sin 4000 π t + 10 sin 100000 π t is supplied to a filter circuit
(shown below) made up of ideal op-amps. The least attenuated frequency component in the output
will be

0.1µ F Ω 1µ
2kΩ
F

Ω 0.1µ
F
1kΩ
750Ω 0.1µ
F

Vi(t) V0(t)

(A) 0 Hz (B) 50 Hz (C) 2 kHz (D) 50 kHz

IN-A 10/20
2013 INSTRUMENTATION ENGG. - IN

Y ( s)
Q.41 The signal flow graph for a system is given below. The transfer function for this system is
U (s)
given as

s +1 s +1
(A) (B)
5s2 + 6s + 2 s2 + 6 s + 2

s +1 1
(C) (D)
s + 4s + 2
2
5s + 6s + 2
2

Q.42 A voltage 1000 sin ω t Volts is applied across YZ. Assuming ideal diodes, the voltage measured
across WX in Volts, is

1kΩ
W Y X
Z

+ 1kΩ _

(A) sin ω t (B) (sin ω t + sin ω t ) / 2


(C) (sin ω t − sin ω t ) / 2 (D) 0 for all t

Q.43 In the circuit shown below the op-amps are ideal. Then Vout in Volts is

1 kΩ 1 kΩ
–2V
+15 V
+15 V

+ Vout
+

1 kΩ – 15 V
– 15 V

+1 V 1 kΩ
1 kΩ

(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 10

IN-A 11/20
2013 INSTRUMENTATION ENGG. - IN

Q.44 In the circuit shown below, Q1 has negligible collector-to-emitter saturation voltage and the diode
drops negligible voltage across it under forward bias. If Vcc is +5 V, X and Y are digital signals
with 0 V as logic 0 and Vcc as logic 1, then the Boolean expression for Z is

(A) X Y (B) X Y (C) X Y (D) XY

Q.45 The circuit below incorporates a permanent magnet moving coil milli-ammeter of range 1 mA
having a series resistance of 10 kΩ. Assuming constant diode forward resistance of 50 Ω, a forward
diode drop of 0.7 V and infinite reverse diode resistance for each diode, the reading of the meter in
mA is
_
mA
+
10k Ω

10k Ω

5V,
50Hz Vo

(A) 0.45 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.7 (D) 0.9


Q.46 Measurement of optical absorption of a solution is disturbed by the additional stray light falling at
the photo-detector. For estimation of the error caused by stray light the following data could be
obtained from controlled experiments.
Photo-detector output without solution and without stray light is 500 µW.
Photo-detector output without solution and with stray light is 600 µW.
Photo-detector output with solution and with stray light is 200 µW.
The percent error in computing absorption coefficient due to stray light is
(A) 12.50 (B) 31.66 (C) 33.33 (D) 94.98
Q.47 Two ammeters A1 and A2 measure the same current and provide readings I1 and I 2 , respectively.
The ammeter errors can be characterized as independent zero mean Gaussian random variables of
standard deviations σ 1 and σ 2 , respectively. The value of the current is computed as :
I = µ I1 + (1 − µ ) I 2
The value of µ which gives the lowest standard deviation of I is

σ 22 σ 12 σ2 σ1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
σ 12+ σ 22 σ 12 + σ 22 σ1 + σ 2 σ1 + σ 2

IN-A 12/20
2013 INSTRUMENTATION ENGG. - IN

Common Data Questions


Common Data for Questions 48 and 49:

A tungsten wire used in a constant current hot wire anemometer has the following parameters :

Resistance at 0° C is 10Ω, Surface area is 10 −4 m 2 , Linear temperature coefficient of resistance of the


tungsten wire is 4.8 ×10 −3 /°C, Convective heat transfer coefficient is 25.2 W / m 2 /°C, flowing air
temperature is 30°C, wire current is 100 mA, mass-specific heat product is 2.5 ×10 −5 J /°C

Q.48 The thermal time constant of the hot wire under flowing air condition in ms is
(A) 24.5 (B) 12.25 (C) 6.125 (D) 3.0625

Q.49 At steady state, the resistance of the wire in Ω is


(A) 10.000 (B) 10.144 (C) 12.152 (D) 14.128

Common Data for Questions 50 and 51:

A piezo-electric force sensor, connected by a cable to a voltage amplifier, has the following parameters :

Crystal properties : Stiffness 10 9 N/m, Damping ratio 0.01, Natural frequency 105 rad/s, Force-to-Charge
sensitivity 10 −9 C/N, Capacitance 10 −9 F with its loss angle assumed negligible
Cable properties : Capacitance 2 × 10 −9 F with its resistance assumed negligible
Amplifier properties : Input impedance 1 MΩ, Bandwidth 1MHz , Gain 3

Q.50 The maximum frequency of a force signal in Hz below the natural frequency within its useful mid-
band range of measurement, for which the gain amplitude is less than 1.05, approximately is,
(A) 35 (B) 350 (C) 3500 (D) 16 ×103

Q.51 The minimum frequency of a force signal in Hz within its useful mid-band range of measurement,
for which the gain amplitude is more than 0.95, approximately is,

(A) 16 (B) 160 (C) 1600 (D) 16 ×103

IN-A 13/20
2013 INSTRUMENTATION ENGG. - IN

Linked Answer Questions

Statement for Linked Answer Questions 52 and 53:


Consider a plant with the transfer function G ( s ) = 1 ( s + 1) . Let K u and Tu be the ultimate gain and
3

ultimate period corresponding to the frequency response based closed loop Ziegler-Nichols cycling
method, respectively. The Ziegler-Nichols tuning rule for a P-controller is given as : K = 0.5 K u .

Q.52 The values of K u and Tu , respectively, are


(A) 2 2 and 2 π (B) 8 and 2 π (C) 8 and 2 π 3 (D) 2 2 and 2 π 3

Q.53 The gain of the transfer function between the plant output and an additive load disturbance input of
frequency 2π Tu in closed loop with a P-controller designed according to the Ziegler-Nichols
tuning rule as given above is
(A) –1.0 (B) 0.5 (C) 1.0 (D) 2.0

Statement for Linked Answer Questions 54 and 55:

A differential amplifier with signal terminals X,Y,Z is connected as shown in Fig. (a) below for CMRR
measurement where the differential amplifier has an additional constant offset voltage in the output. The
observations obtained are: when Vi = 2V , V0 = 3 mV , and when Vi = 3V , V0 = 4 mV .

Fig. (a) Fig. (b)


Q.54 Assuming its differential gain to be 10 and the op-amp to be otherwise ideal, the CMRR is
(A) 10 2 (B) 103 (C) 10 4 (D) 105

Q.55 The differential amplifier is connected as shown in Fig. (b) above to a single strain gage bridge.
Let the strain gage resistance vary around its no-load resistance R by ±1%. Assume the input
impedance of the amplifier to be high compared to the equivalent source resistance of the bridge,
and the common mode characteristic to be as obtained above. The output voltage in mV varies
approximately from
(A) +128 to –128 (B) +128 to –122 (C) +122 to –122 (D) +99 to –101

IN-A 14/20
2013 INSTRUMENTATION ENGG. - IN

General Aptitude (GA) Questions


Q.56 to Q.60 carry one mark each.
Q.56 Statement: You can always give me a ring whenever you need.
Which one of the following is the best inference from the above statement?
(A) Because I have a nice caller tune.
(B) Because I have a better telephone facility.
(C) Because a friend in need is a friend indeed.
(D) Because you need not pay towards the telephone bills when you give me a ring.
Q.57 Complete the sentence:
Dare _______________ mistakes.
(A) commit (B) to commit (C) committed (D) committing
Q.58 Choose the grammatically CORRECT sentence:
(A) Two and two add four.
(B) Two and two become four.
(C) Two and two are four.
(D) Two and two make four.
Q.59 They were requested not to quarrel with others.
Which one of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word quarrel?
(A) make out (B) call out (C) dig out (D) fall out
Q.60 In the summer of 2012, in New Delhi, the mean temperature of Monday to Wednesday was 41°C
and of Tuesday to Thursday was 43°C. If the temperature on Thursday was 15% higher than that of
Monday, then the temperature in °C on Thursday was
(A) 40 (B) 43 (C) 46 (D) 49
Q.61 to Q.65 carry two marks each.
Q.61 Find the sum to n terms of the series 10+84+ 734 + .....

(A)
(
9 9n + 1) +1
10
(B)
(
9 9n − 1) +1
8
(C)
(
9 9n −1 )+n
8
(D)
(
9 9 −1
n
)+ n 2

8
Q.62 The set of values of p for which the roots of the equation 3x2+2x+p(p–1) = 0 are of opposite sign is
(A) (–∞, 0) (B) (0, 1) (C) (1, ∞) (D) (0, ∞)

Q.63 A car travels 8 km in the first quarter of an hour, 6 km in the second quarter and 16 km in the third
quarter. The average speed of the car in km per hour over the entire journey is
(A) 30 (B) 36 (C) 40 (D) 24
IN-A 15/20
2013 INSTRUMENTATION ENGG. - IN

Q.64 What is the chance that a leap year, selected at random, will contain 53 Saturdays?
(A) 2/7 (B) 3/7 (C) 1/7 (D) 5/7

Q.65 Statement: There were different streams of freedom movements in colonial India carried out by the
moderates, liberals, radicals, socialists, and so on.
Which one of the following is the best inference from the above statement?
(A) The emergence of nationalism in colonial India led to our Independence.
(B) Nationalism in India emerged in the context of colonialism.
(C) Nationalism in India is homogeneous.
(D) Nationalism in India is heterogeneous.

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

IN-A 16/20
SESSION - 2
2013 Question Booklet Code
B
IN : INSTRUMENTATION ENGINEERING
Duration: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 100

Read the following instructions carefully.

1. Do not open the seal of the Question Booklet until you are asked to do so by the invigilator.
2. Take out the Optical Response Sheet (ORS) from this Question Booklet without breaking the seal
and read the instructions printed on the ORS carefully. If you find that either:
a. The Question Booklet Code printed at the right hand top corner of this page does not match with
the Question Booklet Code at the right hand top corner of the ORS or
b. The Question Paper Code preceding the Registration number on the ORS is not IN,
then exchange the booklet immediately with a new sealed Question Booklet.
3. On the right hand side of the ORS, using ONLY a black ink ballpoint pen, (i) darken the appropriate
bubble under each digit of your registration number and (ii) write your registration number, your
name and name of the examination centre and put your signature at the specified location.
4. This Question Booklet contains 20 pages including blank pages for rough work. After you are
permitted to open the seal, check all pages and report discrepancies, if any, to the invigilator.
5. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. All these questions are of objective type. Each
question has only one correct answer. Questions must be answered on the left hand side of the ORS
by darkening the appropriate bubble (marked A, B, C, D) using ONLY a black ink ballpoint pen
against the question number. For each question darken the bubble of the correct answer. More
than one answer bubbled against a question will be treated as an incorrect response.
6. Since bubbles darkened by the black ink ballpoint pen cannot be erased, candidates should darken the
bubbles in the ORS very carefully.
7. Questions Q.1 – Q.25 carry 1 mark each. Questions Q.26 – Q.55 carry 2 marks each. The 2 marks
questions include two pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The
answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first
question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is not attempted,
then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.
8. Questions Q.56 – Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA) section and carry a total of 15 marks.
Questions Q.56 – Q.60 carry 1 mark each, and questions Q.61 – Q.65 carry 2 marks each.
9. Questions not attempted will result in zero mark and wrong answers will result in NEGATIVE
marks. For all 1 mark questions, ⅓ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks
questions, ⅔ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, in the case of the linked
answer question pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question and no
negative marks for wrong answer to the second question.
10. Calculator is allowed whereas charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall.
11. Rough work can be done on the Question Booklet itself. Blank pages are provided at the end of the
Question Booklet for rough work.
12. Before the start of the examination, write your name and registration number in the space provided
below using a black ink ballpoint pen.

Name

Registration Number IN

IN-B 1/20
2013 INSTRUMENTATION ENGG. - IN

Q.1 to Q.25 carry one mark each.


Q.1 1 − 2 z −1
The discrete-time transfer function is
1 − 0.5 z −1
(A) non-minimum phase and unstable.
(B) minimum phase and unstable.
(C) minimum phase and stable.
(D) non-minimum phase and stable.

2
∂f ∂ f
Q.2 The type of the partial differential equation = 2
is
∂t ∂x

(A) Parabolic (B) Elliptic (C) Hyperbolic (D) Nonlinear

Q.3 Match the following biomedical instrumentation techniques with their applications
P : Otoscopy U : Respiratory volume measurement
Q : Ultrasound Technique V : Ear diagnostics
R : Spirometry W : Echo-cardiography
S : Thermodilution Technique X : Heart volume measurement
(A) P-U, Q-V, R-X, S-W (B) P-V, Q-U, R-X, S-W
(C) P-V, Q-W, R-U, S-X (D) P-V, Q-W, R-X, S-U

Q.4 A continuous random variable X has a probability density function f ( x) = e − x , 0 < x < ∞ . Then
P { X > 1} is
(A) 0.368 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.632 (D) 1.0

Q.5 A band-limited signal with a maximum frequency of 5 kHz is to be sampled. According to the
sampling theorem, the sampling frequency in kHz which is not valid is
(A) 5 (B) 12 (C) 15 (D) 20

Q.6 The differential pressure transmitter of a flow meter using a venturi tube reads 2.5 × 105 Pa for a
flow rate of 0.5 m3/s. The approximate flow rate in m3/s for a differential pressure 0.9 × 105 Pa is
(A) 0.30 (B) 0.18 (C) 0.83 (D) 0.60

Q.7 A bulb in a staircase has two switches, one switch being at the ground floor and the other one at the
first floor. The bulb can be turned ON and also can be turned OFF by any one of the switches
irrespective of the state of the other switch. The logic of switching of the bulb resembles
(A) an AND gate (B) an OR gate (C) an XOR gate (D) a NAND gate

Q.8 The impulse response of a system is h(t ) = t u (t ) . For an input u (t − 1) , the output is
2 t (t − 1)
(A) t u (t ) (B) u (t − 1) (t − 1) 2 t2 −1
2 2 (C) u (t − 1) (D) u (t − 1)
2 2

IN-B 2/20
2013 INSTRUMENTATION ENGG. - IN

Q.9 Consider a delta connection of resistors and its equivalent star connection as shown. If all elements
of the delta connection are scaled by a factor k, k> 0, the elements of the corresponding star
equivalent will be scaled by a factor of

Ra RC RB
Rb Rc
RA

(A) k2 (B) k (C) 1/k (D) k


Q.10 An accelerometer has input range of 0 to 10g, natural frequency 30 Hz and mass 0.001 kg. The
range of the secondary displacement transducer in mm required to cover the input range is
(A) 0 to 2.76 (B) 0 to 9.81 (C) 0 to 11.20 (D) 0 to 52.10
Q.11 In the circuit shown below what is the output voltage (Vout ) in Volts if a silicon transistor Q and an
ideal op-amp are used?

(A) 15 (B) 0.7 (C) 0.7 (D) 15


Q.12 The Bode plot of a transfer function G (s ) is shown in the figure below.
Gain (dB)

The gain (20 log G ( s) ) is 32 dB and –8 dB at 1 rad/s and 10 rad/s respectively. The phase is
negative for all ω. Then G (s ) is

39.8 39.8 32 32
(A) (B) (C) (D)
s s2 s s2
IN-B 3/20
2013 INSTRUMENTATION ENGG. - IN

Q.13 In the feedback network shown below, if the feedback factor k is increased, then the

(A) input impedance increases and output impedance decreases


(B) input impedance increases and output impedance also increases
(C) input impedance decreases and output impedance also decreases
(D) input impedance decreases and output impedance increases

0 1 1
Q.14 The dimension of the null space of the matrix  1 −1 0  is
 −1 0 −1
 
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
Q.15 If the A-matrix of the state space model of a SISO linear time invariant system is rank deficient, the
transfer function of the system must have
(A) a pole with a positive real part
(B) a pole with a negative real part
(C) a pole with a positive imaginary part
(D) a pole at the origin

Q.16 Two systems with impulse responses h1 (t ) and h2 (t ) are connected in cascade. Then the overall
impulse response of the cascaded system is given by
(A) product of h1 (t ) and h2 (t ) (B) sum of h1 (t ) and h2 (t )
(C) convolution of h1 (t ) and h2 (t ) (D) subtraction of h2 (t ) from h1 (t )
Q.17 The complex function tanh ( s ) is analytic over a region of the imaginary axis of the complex
s-plane if the following is TRUE everywhere in the region for all integers n
(A) Re ( s ) = 0 (B) Im ( s ) ≠ n π
nπ (2n + 1) π
(C) Im ( s ) ≠ (D) Im ( s ) ≠
3 2
Q.18 For a vector E, which one of the following statements is NOT TRUE?
(A) If ∇ ⋅ E = 0, E is called solenoidal.
(B) If ∇ × E = 0, E is called conservative.
(C) If ∇ × E = 0, E is called irrotational.
(D) If ∇ ⋅ E = 0, E is called irrotational.
IN-B 4/20
2013 INSTRUMENTATION ENGG. - IN

Q.19 For a periodic signal v(t ) = 30 sin100 t + 10 cos 300 t + 6 sin (500 t + π / 4) , the fundamental frequency in
rad/s is
(A) 100 (B) 300 (C) 500 (D) 1500

Q.20 In the transistor circuit as shown below, the value of resistance RE in kΩ is approximately,
+10 V

I C = 2.0 mA

1.5 kΩ

15k Ω

0.1µF
VCE =5.0 V
0.1µF

6kΩ Vout

RE

(A) 1.0 (B) 1.5 (C) 2.0 (D) 2.5

Q.21 A source vs (t ) = V cos100π t has an internal impedance of 4 + j3 Ω. If a purely resistive load


connected to this source has to extract the maximum power out of the source, its value in Ω should be
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 7

Q.22 Which one of the following statements is NOT TRUE for a continuous time causal and stable
LTI system?
(A) All the poles of the system must lie on the left side of the jω axis.
(B) Zeros of the system can lie anywhere in the s-plane.
(C) All the poles must lie within s = 1 .
(D) All the roots of the characteristic equation must be located on the left side of the jω axis.

IN-B 5/20
2013 INSTRUMENTATION ENGG. - IN

Q.23 The operational amplifier shown in the circuit below has a slew rate of 0.8 Volts / µ s . The input
signal is 0.25 sin (ω t ) . The maximum frequency of input in kHz for which there is no distortion in
the output is

(A) 23.84 (B) 25.0 (C) 50.0 (D) 46.60

Q.24 Assuming zero initial condition, the response y (t ) of the system given below to a unit step input
u (t ) is

2
(A) u (t ) (B) t u (t ) (C) t u (t ) (D) e − t u (t )
2

V2 ( s)
Q.25 The transfer function of the circuit shown below is
V1 ( s )

0.5 s + 1 3s + 6 s+2 s +1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
s +1 s+2 s +1 s+2

IN-B 6/20
2013 INSTRUMENTATION ENGG. - IN

Q.26 to Q.55 carry two marks each.


Q.26 The maximum value of the solution y (t ) of the differential equation y (t ) + &y&(t ) = 0 with initial
conditions y& (0) = 1 and y (0) = 1 , for t ≥ 0 is

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) π (D) 2


Q.27 The Laplace Transform representation of the triangular pulse shown below is

1 1
(A) [1 + e −2 s ] (B) [1 − e − s + e − 2 s ]
s2 s2
1 1
(C) [1 − e− s + 2 e− 2 s ] (D) [1 − 2 e − s + e − 2 s ]
s2 s2

Q.28 In the circuit shown below, if the source voltage VS = 100∠53.13° Volts, then the Thevenin’s
equivalent voltage in Volts as seen by the load resistance RL is
3Ω j4 Ω j6 Ω 5Ω

VL1

VS j40I2 10VL1 RL=10 Ω

I1 I2

(A) 100∠90° (B) 800∠0° (C) 800∠90° (D) 100∠60°

IN-B 7/20
2013 INSTRUMENTATION ENGG. - IN

Q.29 A signal Vi (t ) = 10 + 10 sin 100 π t + 10 sin 4000 π t + 10 sin 100000 π t is supplied to a filter circuit
(shown below) made up of ideal op-amps. The least attenuated frequency component in the output
will be

0.1µ F Ω 1µ
2kΩ
F

Ω 0.1µ
F
1kΩ
750Ω 0.1µ
F

Vi(t) V0(t)

(A) 0 Hz (B) 50 Hz (C) 2 kHz (D) 50 kHz

Y ( s)
Q.30 The signal flow graph for a system is given below. The transfer function for this system is
U (s)
given as

s +1 s +1
(A) (B)
5s2 + 6s + 2 s2 + 6 s + 2

s +1 1
(C) (D)
s2 + 4 s + 2 5s2 + 6s + 2

IN-B 8/20
2013 INSTRUMENTATION ENGG. - IN

Q.31 A voltage 1000 sin ω t Volts is applied across YZ. Assuming ideal diodes, the voltage measured
across WX in Volts, is

1kΩ
W Y X
Z

+ 1kΩ _

(A) sin ω t (B) (sin ω t + sin ω t ) / 2


(C) (sin ω t − sin ω t ) / 2 (D) 0 for all t

Q.32 In the circuit shown below the op-amps are ideal. Then Vout in Volts is

(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 10

Q.33 In the circuit shown below, Q1 has negligible collector-to-emitter saturation voltage and the diode
drops negligible voltage across it under forward bias. If Vcc is +5 V, X and Y are digital signals
with 0 V as logic 0 and Vcc as logic 1, then the Boolean expression for Z is

(A) X Y (B) X Y (C) X Y (D) XY

IN-B 9/20
2013 INSTRUMENTATION ENGG. - IN

Q.34 The circuit below incorporates a permanent magnet moving coil milli-ammeter of range 1 mA
having a series resistance of 10 kΩ. Assuming constant diode forward resistance of 50 Ω, a forward
diode drop of 0.7 V and infinite reverse diode resistance for each diode, the reading of the meter in
mA is
_
mA
+
10k Ω

10k Ω

5V,
50Hz Vo

(A) 0.45 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.7 (D) 0.9

Q.35 Two ammeters A1 and A2 measure the same current and provide readings I1 and I 2 , respectively.
The ammeter errors can be characterized as independent zero mean Gaussian random variables of
standard deviations σ 1 and σ 2 , respectively. The value of the current is computed as :
I = µ I1 + (1 − µ ) I 2
The value of µ which gives the lowest standard deviation of I is

σ 22 σ 12 σ2 σ1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
σ 12 + σ 22 σ 12 + σ 22 σ1 + σ 2 σ1 + σ 2

Q.36 Measurement of optical absorption of a solution is disturbed by the additional stray light falling at
the photo-detector. For estimation of the error caused by stray light the following data could be
obtained from controlled experiments.
Photo-detector output without solution and without stray light is 500 µW.
Photo-detector output without solution and with stray light is 600 µW.
Photo-detector output with solution and with stray light is 200 µW.
The percent error in computing absorption coefficient due to stray light is
(A) 12.50 (B) 31.66 (C) 33.33 (D) 94.98

0 − 1
Q.37 One pair of eigenvectors corresponding to the two eigenvalues of the matrix  is
1  0 

1   j 0 − 1 1  0 1   j 
(A)   ,   (B)   ,   (C)   ,   (D)   ,  
− j  − 1 1   0   j  1   j  1 

IN-B 10/20
2013 INSTRUMENTATION ENGG. - IN

dy
Q.38 While numerically solving the differential equation + 2 xy 2 = 0, y (0) = 1 using Euler’s predictor-
dx
corrector (improved Euler-Cauchy) method with a step size of 0.2, the value of y after the first step
is
(A) 1.00 (B) 1.03 (C) 0.97 (D) 0.96

Q.39 The digital circuit shown below uses two negative edge-triggered D-flip-flops. Assuming initial
condition of Q1 and Q0 as zero, the output Q1Q0 of this circuit is

Q1 D0 Q0
D1

D-Flip-flop D-Flip-flop
Q1 Q0

clock

(A) 00,01,10,11,00 …
(B) 00,01,11,10,00 …
(C) 00,11,10,01,00 …
(D) 00,01,11,11,00 …

Q.40 Considering the transformer to be ideal, the transmission parameter ‘A’ of the 2-port network
shown in the figure below is
1 2Ω 2Ω 2
1:2
I1 I2
V1 5Ω 5Ω V2

1′ 2′
(A) 1.3 (B) 1.4 (C) 0.5 (D) 2.0

IN-B 11/20
2013 INSTRUMENTATION ENGG. - IN

Q.41 The following arrangement consists of an ideal transformer and an attenuator, which attenuates
by a factor of 0.8. An ac voltage VWX 1 = 100V is applied across WX to get an open circuit voltage
VYZ 1 across YZ. Next, an ac voltage VYZ 2 = 100V is applied across YZ to get an open circuit
voltage VWX 2 across WX. Then, VYZ 1 / VWX 1 , VWX 2 / VYZ 2 are respectively,
W
1:1.25
Y

X Z

(A) 125/100 and 80/100 (B) 100/100 and 80/100


(C) 100/100 and 100/100 (D) 80/100 and 80/100
ω (s) 10
Q.42 The open-loop transfer function of a dc motor is given as = . When connected in
Va ( s) 1 + 10 s
feedback as shown below, the approximate value of K a that will reduce the time constant of the
closed loop system by one hundred times as compared to that of the open-loop system is

(A) 1 (B) 5 (C) 10 (D) 100


Q.43 Two magnetically uncoupled inductive coils have Q factors q1 and q2 at the chosen operating
frequency. Their respective resistances are R1 and R2. When connected in series, the effective
Q factor of the series combination at the same operating frequency is
(A) q1 + q2 (B) (1/ q1 ) + (1/ q2 )
(C) ( q1 R1 + q2 R2 ) / ( R1 + R2 ) (D) ( q1 R2 + q2 R1 ) / ( R1 + R2 )
Q.44 For the circuit shown below, the knee current of the ideal Zener diode is 10 mA. To maintain 5 V
across RL , the minimum value of the load resistor RL in Ω and the minimum power rating of the
Zener diode in mW, respectively, are

(A) 125 and 125 (B) 125 and 250


(C) 250 and 125 (D) 250 and 250
Q.45 The impulse response of a continuous time system is given by h (t ) = δ (t − 1) + δ (t − 3) . The value
of the step response at t = 2 is
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
IN-B 12/20
2013 INSTRUMENTATION ENGG. - IN

Q.46 Signals from fifteen thermocouples are multiplexed and each one is sampled once per second with a
16-bit ADC. The digital samples are converted by a parallel to serial converter to generate a serial
PCM signal. This PCM signal is frequency modulated with FSK modulator with 1200 Hz as 1 and
960 Hz as 0. The minimum band allocation required for faithful reproduction of the signal by the
FSK receiver without considering noise is
(A) 840 Hz to 1320 Hz (B) 960 Hz to 1200 Hz
(C) 1080 Hz to 1320 Hz (D) 720 Hz to 1440 Hz
Q.47 Three capacitors C1, C2 and C3 whose values are 10µF, 5µF, and 2µF respectively, have breakdown
voltages of 10V, 5V, and 2V respectively. For the interconnection shown below, the maximum safe
voltage in Volts that can be applied across the combination, and the corresponding total charge
in µC stored in the effective capacitance across the terminals are, respectively,
C2 C3

C1

(A) 2.8 and 36 (B) 7 and 119


(C) 2.8 and 32 (D) 7 and 80

Common Data Questions


Common Data for Questions 48 and 49:
A piezo-electric force sensor, connected by a cable to a voltage amplifier, has the following parameters :
Crystal properties : Stiffness 10 9 N/m, Damping ratio 0.01, Natural frequency 10 5 rad/s, Force-to-Charge
sensitivity 10 −9 C/N, Capacitance 10 −9 F with its loss angle assumed negligible
Cable properties : Capacitance 2 × 10 −9 F with its resistance assumed negligible
Amplifier properties : Input impedance 1 MΩ, Bandwidth 1MHz , Gain 3

Q.48 The maximum frequency of a force signal in Hz below the natural frequency within its useful mid-
band range of measurement, for which the gain amplitude is less than 1.05, approximately is,
(A) 35 (B) 350 (C) 3500 (D) 16 ×103
Q.49 The minimum frequency of a force signal in Hz within its useful mid-band range of measurement,
for which the gain amplitude is more than 0.95, approximately is,
(A) 16 (B) 160 (C) 1600 (D) 16 ×103

Common Data for Questions 50 and 51:


A tungsten wire used in a constant current hot wire anemometer has the following parameters :
Resistance at 0° C is 10Ω, Surface area is 10 −4 m 2 , Linear temperature coefficient of resistance of the
tungsten wire is 4.8 ×10 −3 /°C, Convective heat transfer coefficient is 25.2 W / m 2 /°C, flowing air
temperature is 30°C, wire current is 100 mA, mass-specific heat product is 2.5 ×10 −5 J /°C

Q.50 The thermal time constant of the hot wire under flowing air condition in ms is
(A) 24.5 (B) 12.25 (C) 6.125 (D) 3.0625
Q.51 At steady state, the resistance of the wire in Ω is
(A) 10.000 (B) 10.144 (C) 12.152 (D) 14.128

IN-B 13/20
2013 INSTRUMENTATION ENGG. - IN

Linked Answer Questions


Statement for Linked Answer Questions 52 and 53:
A differential amplifier with signal terminals X,Y,Z is connected as shown in Fig. (a) below for CMRR
measurement where the differential amplifier has an additional constant offset voltage in the output. The
observations obtained are: when Vi = 2V , V0 = 3 mV , and when Vi = 3V , V0 = 4 mV .

Fig. (a) Fig. (b)

Q.52 Assuming its differential gain to be 10 and the op-amp to be otherwise ideal, the CMRR is
(A) 10 2 (B) 103 (C) 10 4 (D) 10 5

Q.53 The differential amplifier is connected as shown in Fig. (b) above to a single strain gage bridge.
Let the strain gage resistance vary around its no-load resistance R by ±1%. Assume the input
impedance of the amplifier to be high compared to the equivalent source resistance of the bridge,
and the common mode characteristic to be as obtained above. The output voltage in mV varies
approximately from
(A) +128 to –128 (B) +128 to –122 (C) +122 to –122 (D) +99 to –101
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 54 and 55:
Consider a plant with the transfer function G ( s ) = 1 ( s + 1) . Let K u and Tu be the ultimate gain and
3

ultimate period corresponding to the frequency response based closed loop Ziegler-Nichols cycling
method, respectively. The Ziegler-Nichols tuning rule for a P-controller is given as : K = 0.5 K u .

Q.54 The values of K u and Tu , respectively, are


(A) 2 2 and 2 π (B) 8 and 2 π (C) 8 and 2 π 3 (D) 2 2 and 2 π 3
Q.55 The gain of the transfer function between the plant output and an additive load disturbance input of
frequency 2π Tu in closed loop with a P-controller designed according to the Ziegler-Nichols
tuning rule as given above is
(A) –1.0 (B) 0.5 (C) 1.0 (D) 2.0

IN-B 14/20
2013 INSTRUMENTATION ENGG. - IN

General Aptitude (GA) Questions

Q.56 to Q.60 carry one mark each.


Q.56 Choose the grammatically CORRECT sentence:
(A) Two and two add four.
(B) Two and two become four.
(C) Two and two are four.
(D) Two and two make four.

Q.57 Statement: You can always give me a ring whenever you need.
Which one of the following is the best inference from the above statement?
(A) Because I have a nice caller tune.
(B) Because I have a better telephone facility.
(C) Because a friend in need is a friend indeed.
(D) Because you need not pay towards the telephone bills when you give me a ring.
Q.58 In the summer of 2012, in New Delhi, the mean temperature of Monday to Wednesday was 41°C
and of Tuesday to Thursday was 43°C. If the temperature on Thursday was 15% higher than that of
Monday, then the temperature in °C on Thursday was
(A) 40 (B) 43 (C) 46 (D) 49
Q.59 Complete the sentence:
Dare _______________ mistakes.
(A) commit (B) to commit (C) committed (D) committing
Q.60 They were requested not to quarrel with others.
Which one of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word quarrel?
(A) make out (B) call out (C) dig out (D) fall out

Q.61 to Q.65 carry two marks each.

Q.61 A car travels 8 km in the first quarter of an hour, 6 km in the second quarter and 16 km in the third
quarter. The average speed of the car in km per hour over the entire journey is
(A) 30 (B) 36 (C) 40 (D) 24

Q.62 Find the sum to n terms of the series 10+84+ 734 + .....

(A)
(
9 9n + 1 ) +1
10
(B)
(
9 9n − 1 ) +1
8
(C)
(
9 9 −1
n
)+n
8
(D)
(
9 9n − 1 )+ n 2

IN-B 15/20
2013 INSTRUMENTATION ENGG. - IN

Q.63 Statement: There were different streams of freedom movements in colonial India carried out by the
moderates, liberals, radicals, socialists, and so on.
Which one of the following is the best inference from the above statement?
(A) The emergence of nationalism in colonial India led to our Independence.
(B) Nationalism in India emerged in the context of colonialism.
(C) Nationalism in India is homogeneous.
(D) Nationalism in India is heterogeneous.

Q.64 The set of values of p for which the roots of the equation 3x2+2x+p(p–1) = 0 are of opposite sign is
(A) (–∞, 0) (B) (0, 1) (C) (1, ∞) (D) (0, ∞)

Q.65 What is the chance that a leap year, selected at random, will contain 53 Saturdays?
(A) 2/7 (B) 3/7 (C) 1/7 (D) 5/7

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

IN-B 16/20
SESSION - 3
2013 Question Booklet Code
C
IN : INSTRUMENTATION ENGINEERING
Duration: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 100

Read the following instructions carefully.

1. Do not open the seal of the Question Booklet until you are asked to do so by the invigilator.
2. Take out the Optical Response Sheet (ORS) from this Question Booklet without breaking the seal
and read the instructions printed on the ORS carefully. If you find that either:
a. The Question Booklet Code printed at the right hand top corner of this page does not match with
the Question Booklet Code at the right hand top corner of the ORS or
b. The Question Paper Code preceding the Registration number on the ORS is not IN,
then exchange the booklet immediately with a new sealed Question Booklet.
3. On the right hand side of the ORS, using ONLY a black ink ballpoint pen, (i) darken the appropriate
bubble under each digit of your registration number and (ii) write your registration number, your
name and name of the examination centre and put your signature at the specified location.
4. This Question Booklet contains 20 pages including blank pages for rough work. After you are
permitted to open the seal, check all pages and report discrepancies, if any, to the invigilator.
5. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. All these questions are of objective type. Each
question has only one correct answer. Questions must be answered on the left hand side of the ORS
by darkening the appropriate bubble (marked A, B, C, D) using ONLY a black ink ballpoint pen
against the question number. For each question darken the bubble of the correct answer. More
than one answer bubbled against a question will be treated as an incorrect response.
6. Since bubbles darkened by the black ink ballpoint pen cannot be erased, candidates should darken the
bubbles in the ORS very carefully.
7. Questions Q.1 – Q.25 carry 1 mark each. Questions Q.26 – Q.55 carry 2 marks each. The 2 marks
questions include two pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The
answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first
question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is not attempted,
then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.
8. Questions Q.56 – Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA) section and carry a total of 15 marks.
Questions Q.56 – Q.60 carry 1 mark each, and questions Q.61 – Q.65 carry 2 marks each.
9. Questions not attempted will result in zero mark and wrong answers will result in NEGATIVE
marks. For all 1 mark questions, ⅓ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks
questions, ⅔ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, in the case of the linked
answer question pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question and no
negative marks for wrong answer to the second question.
10. Calculator is allowed whereas charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall.
11. Rough work can be done on the Question Booklet itself. Blank pages are provided at the end of the
Question Booklet for rough work.
12. Before the start of the examination, write your name and registration number in the space provided
below using a black ink ballpoint pen.

Name

Registration Number IN

IN-C 1/20
2013 INSTRUMENTATION ENGG. - IN

Q.1 to Q.25 carry one mark each.


V2 ( s)
Q.1 The transfer function of the circuit shown below is
V1 ( s )

0.5 s + 1 3s + 6 s+2 s +1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
s +1 s+2 s +1 s+2

Q.2 Assuming zero initial condition, the response y (t ) of the system given below to a unit step input
u (t ) is

2
(A) u (t ) (B) t u (t ) (C) t u (t ) (D) e − t u (t )
2

Q.3 The operational amplifier shown in the circuit below has a slew rate of 0.8 Volts / µ s . The input
signal is 0.25 sin (ω t ) . The maximum frequency of input in kHz for which there is no distortion in
the output is

(A) 23.84 (B) 25.0 (C) 50.0 (D) 46.60

IN-C 2/20
2013 INSTRUMENTATION ENGG. - IN

Q.4 Which one of the following statements is NOT TRUE for a continuous time causal and stable
LTI system?
(A) All the poles of the system must lie on the left side of the jω axis.
(B) Zeros of the system can lie anywhere in the s-plane.
(C) All the poles must lie within s = 1 .
(D) All the roots of the characteristic equation must be located on the left side of the jω axis.

Q.5 A source vs (t ) = V cos100π t has an internal impedance of 4 + j3 Ω. If a purely resistive load


connected to this source has to extract the maximum power out of the source, its value in Ω should be
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 7

Q.6 In the transistor circuit as shown below, the value of resistance RE in kΩ is approximately,
+10 V

I C = 2.0 mA

1.5 kΩ

15k Ω

0.1µF
VCE =5.0 V
0.1µF

6kΩ Vout

RE

(A) 1.0 (B) 1.5 (C) 2.0 (D) 2.5

Q.7 For a periodic signal v(t ) = 30 sin100 t + 10 cos 300 t + 6 sin (500 t + π / 4) , the fundamental frequency in
rad/s is
(A) 100 (B) 300 (C) 500 (D) 1500

Q.8 For a vector E, which one of the following statements is NOT TRUE?
(A) If ∇ ⋅ E = 0, E is called solenoidal.
(B) If ∇ × E = 0, E is called conservative.
(C) If ∇ × E = 0, E is called irrotational.
(D) If ∇ ⋅ E = 0, E is called irrotational.

Q.9 The complex function tanh ( s ) is analytic over a region of the imaginary axis of the complex
s-plane if the following is TRUE everywhere in the region for all integers n
(A) Re ( s ) = 0 (B) Im ( s ) ≠ n π
nπ (2n + 1) π
(C) Im ( s ) ≠ (D) Im ( s ) ≠
3 2
IN-C 3/20
2013 INSTRUMENTATION ENGG. - IN

Q.10 Two systems with impulse responses h1 (t ) and h2 (t ) are connected in cascade. Then the overall
impulse response of the cascaded system is given by
(A) product of h1 (t ) and h2 (t ) (B) sum of h1 (t ) and h2 (t )
(C) convolution of h1 (t ) and h2 (t ) (D) subtraction of h2 (t ) from h1 (t )

Q.11 If the A-matrix of the state space model of a SISO linear time invariant system is rank deficient, the
transfer function of the system must have
(A) a pole with a positive real part
(B) a pole with a negative real part
(C) a pole with a positive imaginary part
(D) a pole at the origin

0 1 1
Q.12 The dimension of the null space of the matrix  1 −1 0  is
 −1 0 −1
 
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3

Q.13 The Bode plot of a transfer function G (s ) is shown in the figure below.
Gain (dB)

The gain (20 log G ( s) ) is 32 dB and –8 dB at 1 rad/s and 10 rad/s respectively. The phase is
negative for all ω. Then G (s) is

39.8 39.8 32 32
(A) (B) (C) (D)
s s 2 s s2

IN-C 4/20
2013 INSTRUMENTATION ENGG. - IN

Q.14 In the feedback network shown below, if the feedback factor k is increased, then the

(A) input impedance increases and output impedance decreases


(B) input impedance increases and output impedance also increases
(C) input impedance decreases and output impedance also decreases
(D) input impedance decreases and output impedance increases
Q.15 In the circuit shown below what is the output voltage (Vout ) in Volts if a silicon transistor Q and an
ideal op-amp are used?

(A) 15 (B) 0.7 (C) 0.7 (D) 15


Q.16 An accelerometer has input range of 0 to 10g, natural frequency 30 Hz and mass 0.001 kg. The
range of the secondary displacement transducer in mm required to cover the input range is
(A) 0 to 2.76 (B) 0 to 9.81 (C) 0 to 11.20 (D) 0 to 52.10
Q.17 Consider a delta connection of resistors and its equivalent star connection as shown. If all elements
of the delta connection are scaled by a factor k, k> 0, the elements of the corresponding star
equivalent will be scaled by a factor of

Ra RC RB
Rb Rc
RA

(A) k2 (B) k (C) 1/k (D) k

IN-C 5/20
2013 INSTRUMENTATION ENGG. - IN

Q.18 The impulse response of a system is h(t ) = t u (t ) . For an input u (t − 1) , the output is
2 t (t − 1)
(A) t u (t ) (B) u (t − 1) (t − 1) 2 t2 −1
2 2 (C) u (t − 1) (D) u (t − 1)
2 2

Q.19 A bulb in a staircase has two switches, one switch being at the ground floor and the other one at the
first floor. The bulb can be turned ON and also can be turned OFF by any one of the switches
irrespective of the state of the other switch. The logic of switching of the bulb resembles
(A) an AND gate (B) an OR gate (C) an XOR gate (D) a NAND gate

Q.20 The differential pressure transmitter of a flow meter using a venturi tube reads 2.5 × 105 Pa for a
flow rate of 0.5 m3/s. The approximate flow rate in m3/s for a differential pressure 0.9 × 105 Pa is
(A) 0.30 (B) 0.18 (C) 0.83 (D) 0.60

Q.21 A band-limited signal with a maximum frequency of 5 kHz is to be sampled. According to the
sampling theorem, the sampling frequency in kHz which is not valid is
(A) 5 (B) 12 (C) 15 (D) 20

Q.22 A continuous random variable X has a probability density function f ( x) = e − x , 0 < x < ∞ . Then
P { X > 1} is

(A) 0.368 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.632 (D) 1.0

Q.23 Match the following biomedical instrumentation techniques with their applications
P : Otoscopy U : Respiratory volume measurement
Q : Ultrasound Technique V : Ear diagnostics
R : Spirometry W : Echo-cardiography
S : Thermodilution Technique X : Heart volume measurement
(A) P-U, Q-V, R-X, S-W (B) P-V, Q-U, R-X, S-W
(C) P-V, Q-W, R-U, S-X (D) P-V, Q-W, R-X, S-U

Q.24 1 − 2 z −1
The discrete-time transfer function is
1 − 0.5 z −1
(A) non-minimum phase and unstable.
(B) minimum phase and unstable.
(C) minimum phase and stable.
(D) non-minimum phase and stable.

2
∂f ∂ f
Q.25 The type of the partial differential equation = 2
is
∂t ∂x

(A) Parabolic (B) Elliptic (C) Hyperbolic (D) Nonlinear

IN-C 6/20
2013 INSTRUMENTATION ENGG. - IN

Q.26 to Q.55 carry two marks each.


Q.26 Three capacitors C1, C2 and C3 whose values are 10µF, 5µF, and 2µF respectively, have breakdown
voltages of 10V, 5V, and 2V respectively. For the interconnection shown below, the maximum safe
voltage in Volts that can be applied across the combination, and the corresponding total charge
in µC stored in the effective capacitance across the terminals are, respectively,
C2 C3

C1

(A) 2.8 and 36 (B) 7 and 119


(C) 2.8 and 32 (D) 7 and 80

Q.27 Signals from fifteen thermocouples are multiplexed and each one is sampled once per second with a
16-bit ADC. The digital samples are converted by a parallel to serial converter to generate a serial
PCM signal. This PCM signal is frequency modulated with FSK modulator with 1200 Hz as 1 and
960 Hz as 0. The minimum band allocation required for faithful reproduction of the signal by the
FSK receiver without considering noise is
(A) 840 Hz to 1320 Hz (B) 960 Hz to 1200 Hz
(C) 1080 Hz to 1320 Hz (D) 720 Hz to 1440 Hz

Q.28 The impulse response of a continuous time system is given by h (t ) = δ (t − 1) + δ (t − 3) . The value
of the step response at t = 2 is
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3

Q.29 For the circuit shown below, the knee current of the ideal Zener diode is 10 mA. To maintain 5 V
across RL , the minimum value of the load resistor RL in Ω and the minimum power rating of the
Zener diode in mW, respectively, are

100 Ω

10 V ILoad

VZ = 5 V RL

(A) 125 and 125 (B) 125 and 250


(C) 250 and 125 (D) 250 and 250

IN-C 7/20
2013 INSTRUMENTATION ENGG. - IN

Q.30 Two magnetically uncoupled inductive coils have Q factors q1 and q2 at the chosen operating
frequency. Their respective resistances are R1 and R2. When connected in series, the effective
Q factor of the series combination at the same operating frequency is
(A) q1 + q2 (B) (1/ q1 ) + (1/ q2 )
(C) ( q1 R1 + q2 R2 ) / ( R1 + R2 ) (D) ( q1 R2 + q2 R1 ) / ( R1 + R2 )

ω (s)
10
Q.31 The open-loop transfer function of a dc motor is given as = . When connected in
V a ( s ) 1 + 10 s
feedback as shown below, the approximate value of K a that will reduce the time constant of the
closed loop system by one hundred times as compared to that of the open-loop system is

(A) 1 (B) 5 (C) 10 (D) 100

Q.32 The following arrangement consists of an ideal transformer and an attenuator, which attenuates
by a factor of 0.8. An ac voltage VWX 1 = 100V is applied across WX to get an open circuit voltage
VYZ 1 across YZ. Next, an ac voltage VYZ 2 = 100V is applied across YZ to get an open circuit
voltage VWX 2 across WX. Then, VYZ 1 / VWX 1 , VWX 2 / VYZ 2 are respectively,

W
1:1.25
Y

X Z

(A) 125/100 and 80/100 (B) 100/100 and 80/100


(C) 100/100 and 100/100 (D) 80/100 and 80/100

Q.33 Considering the transformer to be ideal, the transmission parameter ‘A’ of the 2-port network
shown in the figure below is
1 2Ω 2Ω 2
1:2
I1 I2
V1 5Ω 5Ω V2

1′ 2′

(A) 1.3 (B) 1.4 (C) 0.5 (D) 2.0


IN-C 8/20
2013 INSTRUMENTATION ENGG. - IN

Q.34 The digital circuit shown below uses two negative edge-triggered D-flip-flops. Assuming initial
condition of Q1 and Q0 as zero, the output Q1Q0 of this circuit is

Q1 D0 Q0
D1

D-Flip-flop D-Flip-flop
Q1 Q0

clock

(A) 00,01,10,11,00 …
(B) 00,01,11,10,00 …
(C) 00,11,10,01,00 …
(D) 00,01,11,11,00 …

dy
Q.35 While numerically solving the differential equation + 2 xy 2 = 0, y (0) = 1 using Euler’s predictor-
dx
corrector (improved Euler-Cauchy) method with a step size of 0.2, the value of y after the first step
is
(A) 1.00 (B) 1.03 (C) 0.97 (D) 0.96

0 − 1
Q.36 One pair of eigenvectors corresponding to the two eigenvalues of the matrix  is
1  0 

1   j 0 − 1  1   0 1   j 
(A)   ,   (B)   ,   (C)   ,   (D)   ,  
− j  − 1 1  0   j  1  j  1 

Q.37 Measurement of optical absorption of a solution is disturbed by the additional stray light falling at
the photo-detector. For estimation of the error caused by stray light the following data could be
obtained from controlled experiments.
Photo-detector output without solution and without stray light is 500 µW.
Photo-detector output without solution and with stray light is 600 µW.
Photo-detector output with solution and with stray light is 200 µW.
The percent error in computing absorption coefficient due to stray light is
(A) 12.50 (B) 31.66 (C) 33.33 (D) 94.98

Q.38 Two ammeters A1 and A2 measure the same current and provide readings I1 and I 2 , respectively.
The ammeter errors can be characterized as independent zero mean Gaussian random variables of
standard deviations σ 1 and σ 2 , respectively. The value of the current is computed as :
I = µ I1 + (1 − µ ) I 2
The value of µ which gives the lowest standard deviation of I is

σ 22 σ 12 σ2 σ1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
σ 12+ σ 22 σ 12+ σ 22 σ1 + σ 2 σ1 + σ 2

IN-C 9/20
2013 INSTRUMENTATION ENGG. - IN

Q.39 The circuit below incorporates a permanent magnet moving coil milli-ammeter of range 1 mA
having a series resistance of 10 kΩ. Assuming constant diode forward resistance of 50 Ω, a forward
diode drop of 0.7 V and infinite reverse diode resistance for each diode, the reading of the meter in
mA is
_
mA
+
10k Ω

10k Ω

5V,
50Hz Vo

(A) 0.45 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.7 (D) 0.9


Q.40 In the circuit shown below, Q1 has negligible collector-to-emitter saturation voltage and the diode
drops negligible voltage across it under forward bias. If Vcc is +5 V, X and Y are digital signals
with 0 V as logic 0 and Vcc as logic 1, then the Boolean expression for Z is

(A) X Y (B) X Y (C) X Y (D) XY

Q.41 In the circuit shown below the op-amps are ideal. Then Vout in Volts is

(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 10

IN-C 10/20
2013 INSTRUMENTATION ENGG. - IN

Q.42 A voltage 1000 sin ω t Volts is applied across YZ. Assuming ideal diodes, the voltage measured
across WX in Volts, is

1kΩ
W Y X
Z

+ 1kΩ _

(A) sin ω t (B) (sin ω t + sin ω t ) / 2


(C) (sin ω t − sin ω t ) / 2 (D) 0 for all t

Y ( s)
Q.43 The signal flow graph for a system is given below. The transfer function for this system is
U (s)
given as

s +1 s +1
(A) (B)
5s + 6s + 2
2
s + 6s + 2
2

s +1 1
(C) (D)
s2 + 4 s + 2 5s2 + 6s + 2

IN-C 11/20
2013 INSTRUMENTATION ENGG. - IN

Q.44 A signal Vi (t ) = 10 + 10 sin 100 π t + 10 sin 4000 π t + 10 sin 100000 π t is supplied to a filter circuit
(shown below) made up of ideal op-amps. The least attenuated frequency component in the output
will be
0.1µ F Ω 1µ
2kΩ
F

Ω 0.1µ
F
1kΩ
750Ω 0.1µ
F

Vi(t) V0(t)

(A) 0 Hz (B) 50 Hz (C) 2 kHz (D) 50 kHz


Q.45 In the circuit shown below, if the source voltage VS = 100∠53.13° Volts, then the Thevenin’s
equivalent voltage in Volts as seen by the load resistance RL is

3Ω j4 Ω j6 Ω 5Ω

VL1

VS j40I2 10VL1 RL=10 Ω

I1 I2

(A) 100∠90° (B) 800∠0° (C) 800∠90° (D) 100∠60°


Q.46 The Laplace Transform representation of the triangular pulse shown below is

1 1
(A) 2
[1 + e −2 s ] (B) [1 − e − s + e − 2 s ]
s s2
1 1
(C) [1 − e− s + 2 e− 2 s ] (D) [1 − 2 e − s + e − 2 s ]
s2 s2

Q.47 The maximum value of the solution y (t ) of the differential equation y (t ) + &y&(t ) = 0 with initial
conditions y& (0) = 1 and y (0) = 1 , for t ≥ 0 is

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) π (D) 2


IN-C 12/20
2013 INSTRUMENTATION ENGG. - IN

Common Data Questions


Common Data for Questions 48 and 49:

A tungsten wire used in a constant current hot wire anemometer has the following parameters :

Resistance at 0° C is 10Ω, Surface area is 10 −4 m 2 , Linear temperature coefficient of resistance of the


tungsten wire is 4.8 ×10 −3 /°C, Convective heat transfer coefficient is 25.2 W / m 2 /°C, flowing air
temperature is 30°C, wire current is 100 mA, mass-specific heat product is 2.5 ×10 −5 J /°C

Q.48 At steady state, the resistance of the wire in Ω is


(A) 10.000 (B) 10.144 (C) 12.152 (D) 14.128

Q.49 The thermal time constant of the hot wire under flowing air condition in ms is
(A) 24.5 (B) 12.25 (C) 6.125 (D) 3.0625

Common Data for Questions 50 and 51:

A piezo-electric force sensor, connected by a cable to a voltage amplifier, has the following parameters :

Crystal properties : Stiffness 10 9 N/m, Damping ratio 0.01, Natural frequency 10 5 rad/s, Force-to-Charge
sensitivity 10 −9 C/N, Capacitance 10 −9 F with its loss angle assumed negligible
Cable properties : Capacitance 2 × 10 −9 F with its resistance assumed negligible
Amplifier properties : Input impedance 1 MΩ, Bandwidth 1MHz , Gain 3

Q.50 The minimum frequency of a force signal in Hz within its useful mid-band range of measurement,
for which the gain amplitude is more than 0.95, approximately is,

(A) 16 (B) 160 (C) 1600 (D) 16 ×103

Q.51 The maximum frequency of a force signal in Hz below the natural frequency within its useful mid-
band range of measurement, for which the gain amplitude is less than 1.05, approximately is,
(A) 35 (B) 350 (C) 3500 (D) 16 ×103

IN-C 13/20
2013 INSTRUMENTATION ENGG. - IN

Linked Answer Questions


Statement for Linked Answer Questions 52 and 53:
A differential amplifier with signal terminals X,Y,Z is connected as shown in Fig. (a) below for CMRR
measurement where the differential amplifier has an additional constant offset voltage in the output. The
observations obtained are: when Vi = 2V , V0 = 3 mV , and when Vi = 3V , V0 = 4 mV .

Fig. (a) Fig. (b)

Q.52 Assuming its differential gain to be 10 and the op-amp to be otherwise ideal, the CMRR is
(A) 10 2 (B) 103 (C) 10 4 (D) 105
Q.53 The differential amplifier is connected as shown in Fig. (b) above to a single strain gage bridge.
Let the strain gage resistance vary around its no-load resistance R by ±1%. Assume the input
impedance of the amplifier to be high compared to the equivalent source resistance of the bridge,
and the common mode characteristic to be as obtained above. The output voltage in mV varies
approximately from
(A) +128 to –128 (B) +128 to –122 (C) +122 to –122 (D) +99 to –101
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 54 and 55:

Consider a plant with the transfer function G ( s ) = 1 ( s + 1) . Let K u and Tu be the ultimate gain and
3

ultimate period corresponding to the frequency response based closed loop Ziegler-Nichols cycling
method, respectively. The Ziegler-Nichols tuning rule for a P-controller is given as : K = 0.5 K u .

Q.54 The values of K u and Tu , respectively, are


(A) 2 2 and 2 π (B) 8 and 2 π (C) 8 and 2 π 3 (D) 2 2 and 2 π 3
Q.55 The gain of the transfer function between the plant output and an additive load disturbance input of
frequency 2π Tu in closed loop with a P-controller designed according to the Ziegler-Nichols
tuning rule as given above is
(A) –1.0 (B) 0.5 (C) 1.0 (D) 2.0

IN-C 14/20
2013 INSTRUMENTATION ENGG. - IN

General Aptitude (GA) Questions

Q.56 to Q.60 carry one mark each.


Q.56 They were requested not to quarrel with others.
Which one of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word quarrel?
(A) make out (B) call out (C) dig out (D) fall out

Q.57 In the summer of 2012, in New Delhi, the mean temperature of Monday to Wednesday was 41°C
and of Tuesday to Thursday was 43°C. If the temperature on Thursday was 15% higher than that of
Monday, then the temperature in °C on Thursday was
(A) 40 (B) 43 (C) 46 (D) 49

Q.58 Complete the sentence:


Dare _______________ mistakes.
(A) commit (B) to commit (C) committed (D) committing

Q.59 Choose the grammatically CORRECT sentence:


(A) Two and two add four.
(B) Two and two become four.
(C) Two and two are four.
(D) Two and two make four.

Q.60 Statement: You can always give me a ring whenever you need.
Which one of the following is the best inference from the above statement?
(A) Because I have a nice caller tune.
(B) Because I have a better telephone facility.
(C) Because a friend in need is a friend indeed.
(D) Because you need not pay towards the telephone bills when you give me a ring.

Q.61 to Q.65 carry two marks each.


Q.61 What is the chance that a leap year, selected at random, will contain 53 Saturdays?
(A) 2/7 (B) 3/7 (C) 1/7 (D) 5/7

Q.62 Statement: There were different streams of freedom movements in colonial India carried out by the
moderates, liberals, radicals, socialists, and so on.
Which one of the following is the best inference from the above statement?
(A) The emergence of nationalism in colonial India led to our Independence.
(B) Nationalism in India emerged in the context of colonialism.
(C) Nationalism in India is homogeneous.
(D) Nationalism in India is heterogeneous.

Q.63 The set of values of p for which the roots of the equation 3x2+2x+p(p–1) = 0 are of opposite sign is
(A) (–∞, 0) (B) (0, 1) (C) (1, ∞) (D) (0, ∞)
IN-C 15/20
2013 INSTRUMENTATION ENGG. - IN

Q.64 A car travels 8 km in the first quarter of an hour, 6 km in the second quarter and 16 km in the third
quarter. The average speed of the car in km per hour over the entire journey is
(A) 30 (B) 36 (C) 40 (D) 24

Q.65 Find the sum to n terms of the series 10+84+ 734 + .....

(A)
(
9 9n + 1 ) +1
10
(B)
(
9 9n − 1) +1
8
(C)
(
9 9 −1
n
)+n
8
(D)
(
9 9n − 1 )+ n 2

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

IN-C 16/20
SESSION - 4
2013 Question Booklet Code
D
IN : INSTRUMENTATION ENGINEERING
Duration: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 100

Read the following instructions carefully.

1. Do not open the seal of the Question Booklet until you are asked to do so by the invigilator.
2. Take out the Optical Response Sheet (ORS) from this Question Booklet without breaking the seal
and read the instructions printed on the ORS carefully. If you find that either:
a. The Question Booklet Code printed at the right hand top corner of this page does not match with
the Question Booklet Code at the right hand top corner of the ORS or
b. The Question Paper Code preceding the Registration number on the ORS is not IN,
then exchange the booklet immediately with a new sealed Question Booklet.
3. On the right hand side of the ORS, using ONLY a black ink ballpoint pen, (i) darken the appropriate
bubble under each digit of your registration number and (ii) write your registration number, your
name and name of the examination centre and put your signature at the specified location.
4. This Question Booklet contains 20 pages including blank pages for rough work. After you are
permitted to open the seal, check all pages and report discrepancies, if any, to the invigilator.
5. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. All these questions are of objective type. Each
question has only one correct answer. Questions must be answered on the left hand side of the ORS
by darkening the appropriate bubble (marked A, B, C, D) using ONLY a black ink ballpoint pen
against the question number. For each question darken the bubble of the correct answer. More
than one answer bubbled against a question will be treated as an incorrect response.
6. Since bubbles darkened by the black ink ballpoint pen cannot be erased, candidates should darken the
bubbles in the ORS very carefully.
7. Questions Q.1 – Q.25 carry 1 mark each. Questions Q.26 – Q.55 carry 2 marks each. The 2 marks
questions include two pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The
answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first
question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is not attempted,
then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.
8. Questions Q.56 – Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA) section and carry a total of 15 marks.
Questions Q.56 – Q.60 carry 1 mark each, and questions Q.61 – Q.65 carry 2 marks each.
9. Questions not attempted will result in zero mark and wrong answers will result in NEGATIVE
marks. For all 1 mark questions, ⅓ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks
questions, ⅔ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, in the case of the linked
answer question pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question and no
negative marks for wrong answer to the second question.
10. Calculator is allowed whereas charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall.
11. Rough work can be done on the Question Booklet itself. Blank pages are provided at the end of the
Question Booklet for rough work.
12. Before the start of the examination, write your name and registration number in the space provided
below using a black ink ballpoint pen.

Name

Registration Number IN

IN-D 1/20
2013 INSTRUMENTATION ENGG. - IN

Q.1 to Q.25 carry one mark each.

Q.1 In the feedback network shown below, if the feedback factor k is increased, then the

+ v + + vout
in v1 A0 –
– –

vf = kvout+ k +
– –

(A) input impedance increases and output impedance decreases


(B) input impedance increases and output impedance also increases
(C) input impedance decreases and output impedance also decreases
(D) input impedance decreases and output impedance increases

Q.2 The Bode plot of a transfer function G (s ) is shown in the figure below.
Gain (dB)

The gain (20 log G ( s) ) is 32 dB and –8 dB at 1 rad/s and 10 rad/s respectively. The phase is
negative for all ω. Then G (s ) is

39.8 39.8 32 32
(A) (B) (C) (D)
s s 2 s s2

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Q.3 In the circuit shown below what is the output voltage (Vout ) in Volts if a silicon transistor Q and an
ideal op-amp are used?

(A) 15 (B) 0.7 (C) 0.7 (D) 15

Q.4 An accelerometer has input range of 0 to 10g, natural frequency 30 Hz and mass 0.001 kg. The
range of the secondary displacement transducer in mm required to cover the input range is
(A) 0 to 2.76 (B) 0 to 9.81 (C) 0 to 11.20 (D) 0 to 52.10

Q.5 Consider a delta connection of resistors and its equivalent star connection as shown. If all elements
of the delta connection are scaled by a factor k, k> 0, the elements of the corresponding star
equivalent will be scaled by a factor of

Ra RC RB
Rb Rc
RA

(A) k2 (B) k (C) 1/k (D) k

Q.6 The impulse response of a system is h(t ) = t u (t ) . For an input u (t − 1) , the output is
2 t (t − 1)
(A) t u (t ) (B) u (t − 1) (t − 1) 2 t2 −1
2 2 (C) u (t − 1) (D) u (t − 1)
2 2

Q.7 A bulb in a staircase has two switches, one switch being at the ground floor and the other one at the
first floor. The bulb can be turned ON and also can be turned OFF by any one of the switches
irrespective of the state of the other switch. The logic of switching of the bulb resembles
(A) an AND gate (B) an OR gate (C) an XOR gate (D) a NAND gate

Q.8 The differential pressure transmitter of a flow meter using a venturi tube reads 2.5 × 105 Pa for a
flow rate of 0.5 m3/s. The approximate flow rate in m3/s for a differential pressure 0.9 × 105 Pa is
(A) 0.30 (B) 0.18 (C) 0.83 (D) 0.60

IN-D 3/20
2013 INSTRUMENTATION ENGG. - IN

Q.9 A band-limited signal with a maximum frequency of 5 kHz is to be sampled. According to the
sampling theorem, the sampling frequency in kHz which is not valid is
(A) 5 (B) 12 (C) 15 (D) 20

Q.10 A continuous random variable X has a probability density function f ( x) = e − x , 0 < x < ∞ . Then
P { X > 1} is

(A) 0.368 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.632 (D) 1.0

Q.11 Match the following biomedical instrumentation techniques with their applications
P : Otoscopy U : Respiratory volume measurement
Q : Ultrasound Technique V : Ear diagnostics
R : Spirometry W : Echo-cardiography
S : Thermodilution Technique X : Heart volume measurement
(A) P-U, Q-V, R-X, S-W (B) P-V, Q-U, R-X, S-W
(C) P-V, Q-W, R-U, S-X (D) P-V, Q-W, R-X, S-U

2
∂f ∂ f
Q.12 The type of the partial differential equation = 2
is
∂t ∂x

(A) Parabolic (B) Elliptic (C) Hyperbolic (D) Nonlinear

Q.13 1 − 2 z −1
The discrete-time transfer function is
1 − 0.5 z −1
(A) non-minimum phase and unstable.
(B) minimum phase and unstable.
(C) minimum phase and stable.
(D) non-minimum phase and stable.

V2 ( s)
Q.14 The transfer function of the circuit shown below is
V1 ( s )

0.5 s + 1 3s + 6 s+2 s +1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
s +1 s+2 s +1 s+2

IN-D 4/20
2013 INSTRUMENTATION ENGG. - IN

Q.15 Assuming zero initial condition, the response y (t ) of the system given below to a unit step input
u (t ) is

2
(A) u (t ) (B) t u (t ) (C) t u (t ) (D) e − t u (t )
2

Q.16 The operational amplifier shown in the circuit below has a slew rate of 0.8 Volts / µ s . The input
signal is 0.25 sin (ω t ) . The maximum frequency of input in kHz for which there is no distortion in
the output is

(A) 23.84 (B) 25.0 (C) 50.0 (D) 46.60

Q.17 Which one of the following statements is NOT TRUE for a continuous time causal and stable
LTI system?
(A) All the poles of the system must lie on the left side of the jω axis.
(B) Zeros of the system can lie anywhere in the s-plane.
(C) All the poles must lie within s = 1 .
(D) All the roots of the characteristic equation must be located on the left side of the jω axis.

Q.18 A source vs (t ) = V cos100π t has an internal impedance of 4 + j3 Ω. If a purely resistive load


connected to this source has to extract the maximum power out of the source, its value in Ω should be
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 7

IN-D 5/20
2013 INSTRUMENTATION ENGG. - IN

Q.19 In the transistor circuit as shown below, the value of resistance RE in kΩ is approximately,
+10 V

I C = 2.0 mA

1.5 kΩ

15k Ω

0.1µF
VCE =5.0 V
0.1µF

6kΩ Vout

RE

(A) 1.0 (B) 1.5 (C) 2.0 (D) 2.5


Q.20 For a periodic signal v(t ) = 30 sin100 t + 10 cos 300 t + 6 sin (500 t + π / 4) , the fundamental frequency in
rad/s is
(A) 100 (B) 300 (C) 500 (D) 1500
Q.21 For a vector E, which one of the following statements is NOT TRUE?
(A) If ∇ ⋅ E = 0, E is called solenoidal.
(B) If ∇ × E = 0, E is called conservative.
(C) If ∇ × E = 0, E is called irrotational.
(D) If ∇ ⋅ E = 0, E is called irrotational.
Q.22 The complex function tanh ( s ) is analytic over a region of the imaginary axis of the complex
s-plane if the following is TRUE everywhere in the region for all integers n
(A) Re ( s ) = 0 (B) Im ( s ) ≠ n π
nπ (2n + 1) π
(C) Im ( s ) ≠ (D) Im ( s ) ≠
3 2
Q.23 Two systems with impulse responses h1 (t ) and h2 (t ) are connected in cascade. Then the overall
impulse response of the cascaded system is given by
(A) product of h1 (t ) and h2 (t ) (B) sum of h1 (t ) and h2 (t )
(C) convolution of h1 (t ) and h2 (t ) (D) subtraction of h2 (t ) from h1 (t )
Q.24 If the A-matrix of the state space model of a SISO linear time invariant system is rank deficient, the
transfer function of the system must have
(A) a pole with a positive real part
(B) a pole with a negative real part
(C) a pole with a positive imaginary part
(D) a pole at the origin

0 1 1
Q.25 The dimension of the null space of the matrix  1 −1 0  is
 −1 0 −1
 
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
IN-D 6/20
2013 INSTRUMENTATION ENGG. - IN

Q.26 to Q.55 carry two marks each.


Q.26 Measurement of optical absorption of a solution is disturbed by the additional stray light falling at
the photo-detector. For estimation of the error caused by stray light the following data could be
obtained from controlled experiments.
Photo-detector output without solution and without stray light is 500 µW.
Photo-detector output without solution and with stray light is 600 µW.
Photo-detector output with solution and with stray light is 200 µW.
The percent error in computing absorption coefficient due to stray light is
(A) 12.50 (B) 31.66 (C) 33.33 (D) 94.98

Q.27 Two ammeters A1 and A2 measure the same current and provide readings I1 and I 2 , respectively.
The ammeter errors can be characterized as independent zero mean Gaussian random variables of
standard deviations σ 1 and σ 2 , respectively. The value of the current is computed as :
I = µ I1 + (1 − µ ) I 2
The value of µ which gives the lowest standard deviation of I is

σ 22 σ 12 σ2 σ1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
σ 12 + σ 22 σ 12 + σ 22 σ1 + σ 2 σ1 + σ 2

Q.28 The circuit below incorporates a permanent magnet moving coil milli-ammeter of range 1 mA
having a series resistance of 10 kΩ. Assuming constant diode forward resistance of 50 Ω, a forward
diode drop of 0.7 V and infinite reverse diode resistance for each diode, the reading of the meter in
mA is
_
mA
+
10k Ω

10k Ω

5V,
50Hz Vo

(A) 0.45 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.7 (D) 0.9

IN-D 7/20
2013 INSTRUMENTATION ENGG. - IN

Q.29 In the circuit shown below, Q1 has negligible collector-to-emitter saturation voltage and the diode
drops negligible voltage across it under forward bias. If Vcc is +5 V, X and Y are digital signals
with 0 V as logic 0 and Vcc as logic 1, then the Boolean expression for Z is

(A) X Y (B) X Y (C) X Y (D) XY

Q.30 In the circuit shown below the op-amps are ideal. Then Vout in Volts is

(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 10

Q.31 A voltage 1000 sin ω t Volts is applied across YZ. Assuming ideal diodes, the voltage measured
across WX in Volts, is

1kΩ
W Y X
Z

+ 1kΩ _

(A) sin ω t (B) (sin ω t + sin ω t ) / 2


(C) (sin ω t − sin ω t ) / 2 (D) 0 for all t

IN-D 8/20
2013 INSTRUMENTATION ENGG. - IN

Y ( s)
Q.32 The signal flow graph for a system is given below. The transfer function for this system is
U (s)
given as
1

U(s) 1 s-1 s-1 1 Y(s)

–4

–2

s +1 s +1
(A) (B)
5s + 6s + 2
2
s + 6s + 2
2

s +1 1
(C) (D)
s + 4s + 2
2
5s + 6s + 2
2

Q.33 A signal Vi (t ) = 10 + 10 sin 100 π t + 10 sin 4000 π t + 10 sin 100000π t is supplied to a filter circuit
(shown below) made up of ideal op-amps. The least attenuated frequency component in the output
will be

0.1µ F Ω 1µ
2kΩ
F

Ω 0.1µ
F
1kΩ
750Ω 0.1µ
F

Vi(t) V0(t)

(A) 0 Hz (B) 50 Hz (C) 2 kHz (D) 50 kHz

IN-D 9/20
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Q.34 In the circuit shown below, if the source voltage VS = 100∠53.13° Volts, then the Thevenin’s
equivalent voltage in Volts as seen by the load resistance RL is

3Ω j4 Ω j6 Ω 5Ω

VL1

VS j40I2 10VL1 RL=10 Ω

I1 I2

(A) 100∠90° (B) 800∠0° (C) 800∠90° (D) 100∠60°

Q.35 The Laplace Transform representation of the triangular pulse shown below is

1 1
(A) 2
[1 + e −2 s ] (B) 2
[1 − e − s + e − 2 s ]
s s
1 1
(C) [1 − e −s
+ 2e −2s
] (D) [1 − 2 e − s + e − 2 s ]
s2 s 2

Q.36 The maximum value of the solution y (t ) of the differential equation y (t ) + &y&(t ) = 0 with initial
conditions y& (0) = 1 and y (0) = 1 , for t ≥ 0 is

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) π (D) 2

Q.37 Three capacitors C1, C2 and C3 whose values are 10µF, 5µF, and 2µF respectively, have breakdown
voltages of 10V, 5V, and 2V respectively. For the interconnection shown below, the maximum safe
voltage in Volts that can be applied across the combination, and the corresponding total charge
in µC stored in the effective capacitance across the terminals are, respectively,
C2 C3

C1

(A) 2.8 and 36 (B) 7 and 119


(C) 2.8 and 32 (D) 7 and 80

IN-D 10/20
2013 INSTRUMENTATION ENGG. - IN

Q.38 Signals from fifteen thermocouples are multiplexed and each one is sampled once per second with a
16-bit ADC. The digital samples are converted by a parallel to serial converter to generate a serial
PCM signal. This PCM signal is frequency modulated with FSK modulator with 1200 Hz as 1 and
960 Hz as 0. The minimum band allocation required for faithful reproduction of the signal by the
FSK receiver without considering noise is
(A) 840 Hz to 1320 Hz (B) 960 Hz to 1200 Hz
(C) 1080 Hz to 1320 Hz (D) 720 Hz to 1440 Hz
Q.39 The impulse response of a continuous time system is given by h (t ) = δ (t − 1) + δ (t − 3) . The value
of the step response at t = 2 is
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
Q.40 For the circuit shown below, the knee current of the ideal Zener diode is 10 mA. To maintain 5 V
across RL , the minimum value of the load resistor RL in Ω and the minimum power rating of the
Zener diode in mW, respectively, are

(A) 125 and 125 (B) 125 and 250


(C) 250 and 125 (D) 250 and 250

Q.41 Two magnetically uncoupled inductive coils have Q factors q1 and q2 at the chosen operating
frequency. Their respective resistances are R1 and R2. When connected in series, the effective
Q factor of the series combination at the same operating frequency is
(A) q1 + q2 (B) (1/ q1 ) + (1/ q2 )
(C) ( q1 R1 + q2 R2 ) / ( R1 + R2 ) (D) ( q1 R2 + q2 R1 ) / ( R1 + R2 )
ω (s) 10
Q.42 The open-loop transfer function of a dc motor is given as = . When connected in
Va ( s) 1 + 10 s
feedback as shown below, the approximate value of K a that will reduce the time constant of the
closed loop system by one hundred times as compared to that of the open-loop system is

(A) 1 (B) 5 (C) 10 (D) 100

IN-D 11/20
2013 INSTRUMENTATION ENGG. - IN

Q.43 The following arrangement consists of an ideal transformer and an attenuator, which attenuates
by a factor of 0.8. An ac voltage VWX 1 = 100V is applied across WX to get an open circuit voltage
VYZ 1 across YZ. Next, an ac voltage VYZ 2 = 100V is applied across YZ to get an open circuit
voltage VWX 2 across WX. Then, VYZ 1 / VWX 1 , VWX 2 / VYZ 2 are respectively,
W
1:1.25
Y

X Z

(A) 125/100 and 80/100 (B) 100/100 and 80/100


(C) 100/100 and 100/100 (D) 80/100 and 80/100

Q.44 Considering the transformer to be ideal, the transmission parameter ‘A’ of the 2-port network
shown in the figure below is
1 2Ω 2Ω 2
1:2
I1 I2
V1 5Ω 5Ω V2

1′ 2′

(A) 1.3 (B) 1.4 (C) 0.5 (D) 2.0

Q.45 The digital circuit shown below uses two negative edge-triggered D-flip-flops. Assuming initial
condition of Q1 and Q0 as zero, the output Q1Q0 of this circuit is

Q1 D0 Q0
D1

D-Flip-flop D-Flip-flop
Q1 Q0

clock

(A) 00,01,10,11,00 …
(B) 00,01,11,10,00 …
(C) 00,11,10,01,00 …
(D) 00,01,11,11,00 …

IN-D 12/20
2013 INSTRUMENTATION ENGG. - IN

dy
Q.46 While numerically solving the differential equation + 2 xy 2 = 0, y (0) = 1 using Euler’s predictor-
dx
corrector (improved Euler-Cauchy) method with a step size of 0.2, the value of y after the first step
is
(A) 1.00 (B) 1.03 (C) 0.97 (D) 0.96

0 − 1
Q.47 One pair of eigenvectors corresponding to the two eigenvalues of the matrix  is
1  0 

1   j 0 − 1  1   0 1   j 
(A)   ,   (B)   ,   (C)   ,   (D)   ,  
− j  − 1 1  0   j  1  j  1 

Common Data Questions


Common Data for Questions 48 and 49:

A piezo-electric force sensor, connected by a cable to a voltage amplifier, has the following parameters :

Crystal properties : Stiffness 109 N/m, Damping ratio 0.01, Natural frequency 105 rad/s, Force-to-Charge
sensitivity 10 −9 C/N, Capacitance 10 −9 F with its loss angle assumed negligible
Cable properties : Capacitance 2 × 10 −9 F with its resistance assumed negligible
Amplifier properties : Input impedance 1 MΩ, Bandwidth 1MHz , Gain 3

Q.48 The minimum frequency of a force signal in Hz within its useful mid-band range of measurement,
for which the gain amplitude is more than 0.95, approximately is,

(A) 16 (B) 160 (C) 1600 (D) 16 ×103


Q.49 The maximum frequency of a force signal in Hz below the natural frequency within its useful mid-
band range of measurement, for which the gain amplitude is less than 1.05, approximately is,
(A) 35 (B) 350 (C) 3500 (D) 16 ×103

Common Data for Questions 50 and 51:

A tungsten wire used in a constant current hot wire anemometer has the following parameters :
Resistance at 0° C is 10Ω, Surface area is 10 −4 m 2 , Linear temperature coefficient of resistance of the
tungsten wire is 4.8 ×10 −3 /°C, Convective heat transfer coefficient is 25.2 W / m 2 /°C, flowing air
temperature is 30°C, wire current is 100 mA, mass-specific heat product is 2.5 ×10 −5 J /°C

Q.50 At steady state, the resistance of the wire in Ω is


(A) 10.000 (B) 10.144 (C) 12.152 (D) 14.128
Q.51 The thermal time constant of the hot wire under flowing air condition in ms is
(A) 24.5 (B) 12.25 (C) 6.125 (D) 3.0625

IN-D 13/20
2013 INSTRUMENTATION ENGG. - IN

Linked Answer Questions


Statement for Linked Answer Questions 52 and 53:
Consider a plant with the transfer function G ( s ) = 1 ( s + 1) . Let K u and Tu be the ultimate gain and
3

ultimate period corresponding to the frequency response based closed loop Ziegler-Nichols cycling
method, respectively. The Ziegler-Nichols tuning rule for a P-controller is given as : K = 0.5 K u .

Q.52 The values of K u and Tu , respectively, are


(A) 2 2 and 2 π (B) 8 and 2 π (C) 8 and 2 π 3 (D) 2 2 and 2 π 3
Q.53 The gain of the transfer function between the plant output and an additive load disturbance input of
frequency 2π Tu in closed loop with a P-controller designed according to the Ziegler-Nichols
tuning rule as given above is
(A) –1.0 (B) 0.5 (C) 1.0 (D) 2.0

Statement for Linked Answer Questions 54 and 55:


A differential amplifier with signal terminals X,Y,Z is connected as shown in Fig. (a) below for CMRR
measurement where the differential amplifier has an additional constant offset voltage in the output. The
observations obtained are: when Vi = 2V , V0 = 3 mV , and when Vi = 3V , V0 = 4 mV .

Fig. (a) Fig. (b)


Q.54 Assuming its differential gain to be 10 and the op-amp to be otherwise ideal, the CMRR is
(A) 10 2 (B) 103 (C) 10 4 (D) 105
Q.55 The differential amplifier is connected as shown in Fig. (b) above to a single strain gage bridge.
Let the strain gage resistance vary around its no-load resistance R by ±1%. Assume the input
impedance of the amplifier to be high compared to the equivalent source resistance of the bridge,
and the common mode characteristic to be as obtained above. The output voltage in mV varies
approximately from
(A) +128 to –128 (B) +128 to –122 (C) +122 to –122 (D) +99 to –101

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General Aptitude (GA) Questions


Q.56 to Q.60 carry one mark each.
Q.56 Complete the sentence:
Dare _______________ mistakes.
(A) commit (B) to commit (C) committed (D) committing
Q.57 They were requested not to quarrel with others.
Which one of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word quarrel?
(A) make out (B) call out (C) dig out (D) fall out
Q.58 Statement: You can always give me a ring whenever you need.
Which one of the following is the best inference from the above statement?
(A) Because I have a nice caller tune.
(B) Because I have a better telephone facility.
(C) Because a friend in need is a friend indeed.
(D) Because you need not pay towards the telephone bills when you give me a ring.
Q.59 In the summer of 2012, in New Delhi, the mean temperature of Monday to Wednesday was 41°C
and of Tuesday to Thursday was 43°C. If the temperature on Thursday was 15% higher than that of
Monday, then the temperature in °C on Thursday was
(A) 40 (B) 43 (C) 46 (D) 49
Q.60 Choose the grammatically CORRECT sentence:
(A) Two and two add four.
(B) Two and two become four.
(C) Two and two are four.
(D) Two and two make four.

Q.61 to Q.65 carry two marks each.


Q.61 The set of values of p for which the roots of the equation 3x2+2x+p(p–1) = 0 are of opposite sign is
(A) (–∞, 0) (B) (0, 1) (C) (1, ∞) (D) (0, ∞)

Q.62 What is the chance that a leap year, selected at random, will contain 53 Saturdays?
(A) 2/7 (B) 3/7 (C) 1/7 (D) 5/7

Q.63 Find the sum to n terms of the series 10+84+ 734 + .....

(A)
(
9 9n + 1 ) +1
10
(B)
(
9 9n − 1 ) +1
8
(C)
(
9 9 −1
n
)+n
8
(D)
(
9 9n − 1 )+ n 2

8
IN-D 15/20
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Q.64 Statement: There were different streams of freedom movements in colonial India carried out by the
moderates, liberals, radicals, socialists, and so on.
Which one of the following is the best inference from the above statement?
(A) The emergence of nationalism in colonial India led to our Independence.
(B) Nationalism in India emerged in the context of colonialism.
(C) Nationalism in India is homogeneous.
(D) Nationalism in India is heterogeneous.

Q.65 A car travels 8 km in the first quarter of an hour, 6 km in the second quarter and 16 km in the third
quarter. The average speed of the car in km per hour over the entire journey is
(A) 30 (B) 36 (C) 40 (D) 24

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

IN-D 16/20
GATE 2014: General Instructions during Examination

1. Total duration of the GATE examination is 180 minutes.


2. The clock will be set at the server. The countdown timer at the top right corner of
screen will display the remaining time available for you to complete the examination.
When the timer reaches zero, the examination will end by itself. You need not
terminate the examination or submit your paper.
3. Any useful data required for your paper can be viewed by clicking on the Useful
Common Data button that appears on the screen.
4. Use the scribble pad provided to you for any rough work. Submit the scribble pad at
the end of the examination.
5. You are allowed to use a non-programmable type calculator, however, sharing of
calculators is not allowed.
6. The Question Palette displayed on the right side of screen will show the status of
each question using one of the following symbols:

The Marked for Review status for a question simply indicates that you would like to look at
that question again. If a question is answered, but marked for review, then the answer will
be considered for evaluation unless the status is modified by the candidate.

Navigating to a Question :

7. To answer a question, do the following:


a. Click on the question number in the Question Palette to go to that question
directly.
b. Select an answer for a multiple choice type question by clicking on the bubble
placed before the 4 choices, namely A, B, C and D. Use the virtual numeric
keypad to enter a number as answer for a numerical type question.
c. Click on Save & Next to save your answer for the current question and then go
to the next question.
d. Click on Mark for Review & Next to save your answer for the current question
and also mark it for review, and then go to the next question.
Caution: Note that your answer for the current question will not be saved, if you navigate
to another question directly by clicking on a question number without saving the answer to
the previous question.

You can view all the questions by clicking on the Question Paper button. This feature is
provided, so that if you want you can just see the entire question paper at a glance.

Answering a Question :

8. Procedure for answering a multiple choice (MCQ) type question:


a. Choose one answer from the 4 options (A,B,C,D) given below the question,
click on the bubble placed before the chosen option.
b. To deselect your chosen answer, click on the bubble of the chosen option again
or click on the Clear Response button.
c. To change your chosen answer, click on the bubble of another option.
d. To save your answer, you MUST click on the Save & Next button.

9. Procedure for answering a numerical answer type question:


a. To enter a number as your answer, use the virtual numerical keypad.
b. A fraction (e.g. -0.3 or -.3) can be entered as an answer with or without '0'
before the decimal point. As many as four decimal points, e.g. 12.5435 or
0.003 or -932.6711 or 12.82 can be entered.
c. To clear your answer, click on the Clear Response button.
d. To save your answer, you MUST click on the Save & Next button
10. To mark a question for review, click on the Mark for Review & Next button. If an
answer is selected (for MCQ) or entered (for numerical answer type) for a question
that is Marked for Review, that answer will be considered in the evaluation unless
the status is modified by the candidate.

11. To change your answer to a question that has already been answered, first select
that question for answering and then follow the procedure for answering that type of
question.
12. Note that ONLY Questions for which answers are saved or marked for review after
answering will be considered for evaluation.

Choosing a Section :

13. Sections in this question paper are displayed on the top bar of the screen. Questions
in a Section can be viewed by clicking on the name of that Section. The Section you
are currently viewing will be highlighted.
14. A checkbox is displayed for every optional Section, if any, in the Question Paper. To
select the optional Section for answering, click on the checkbox for that Section.
15. If the checkbox for an optional Section is not selected, the Save & Next button and
the Mark for Review & Next button will NOT be enabled for that Section. You will
only be able to see questions in this Section, but you will not be able to answer
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16. After clicking the Save & Next button for the last question in a Section, you will
automatically be taken to the first question of the next Section in sequence.
17. You can move the mouse cursor over the name of a Section to view the answering
status for that Section.

Changing the Optional Section :

18. After answering the chosen optional Section, partially or completely, you can change
the optional Section by selecting the checkbox for a new Section that you want to
attempt. A warning message will appear along with a table showing the number of
questions answered in each of the previously chosen optional Sections and a
checkbox against each of these Sections. Click on a checkbox against a Section that
you want to reset and then click on the RESET button. Note that RESETTING a Section
will DELETE all the answers for questions in that Section. Hence, if you think that you
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deselect, click on the RESET button. If you do not want to deselect, click on the BACK
button.

20. You can shuffle between different Sections or change the optional Sections any
number of times.
GATE 2014 Examination
IN: Instrumentation Engineering
Duration: 180 minutes Maximum Marks: 100

Read the following instructions carefully.

1. To login, enter your Registration Number and password provided to you. Kindly go through the various
symbols used in the test and understand their meaning before you start the examination.
2. Once you login and after the start of the examination, you can view all the questions in the question
paper, by clicking on the View All Questions button in the screen.
3. This question paper consists of 2 sections, General Aptitude (GA) for 15 marks and the subject
specific GATE paper for 85 marks. Both these sections are compulsory.
The GA section consists of 10 questions. Question numbers 1 to 5 are of 1-mark each, while question
numbers 6 to 10 are of 2-mark each.
The subject specific GATE paper section consists of 55 questions, out of which question numbers 1 to
25 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 26 to 55 are of 2-mark each.
4. Depending upon the GATE paper, there may be useful common data that may be required for
answering the questions. If the paper has such useful data, the same can be viewed by clicking on the
Useful Common Data button that appears at the top, right hand side of the screen.
5. The computer allotted to you at the examination center runs specialized software that permits only one
answer to be selected for multiple-choice questions using a mouse and to enter a suitable number for
the numerical answer type questions using the virtual keyboard and mouse.
6. Your answers shall be updated and saved on a server periodically and also at the end of the
examination. The examination will stop automatically at the end of 180 minutes.
7. In each paper a candidate can answer a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks.
8. The question paper may consist of questions of multiple choice type (MCQ) and numerical answer
type.
9. Multiple choice type questions will have four choices against A, B, C, D, out of which only ONE is the
correct answer. The candidate has to choose the correct answer by clicking on the bubble (⃝) placed
before the choice.
10. For numerical answer type questions, each question will have a numerical answer and there will not be
any choices. For these questions, the answer should be enteredby using the virtual keyboard that
appears on the monitor and the mouse.
11. All questions that are not attempted will result in zero marks. However, wrong answers for multiple
choice type questions (MCQ) will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all MCQ questions a wrong
answer will result in deduction of⅓ marks for a 1-mark question and ⅔ marks for a 2-mark question.
12. There is NO NEGATIVE MARKING for questions of NUMERICAL ANSWER TYPE.
13. Non-programmable type Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets, and mathematical tables are NOT
allowed in the Examination Hall. You must use the Scribble pad provided to you at the examination
centre for all your rough work. The Scribble Pad has to be returned at the end of the examination.

Declaration by the candidate:

“I have read and understood all the above instructions. I have also read and understood clearly the
instructions given on the admit card and shall follow the same. I also understand that in case I am found to
violate any of these instructions, my candidature is liable to be cancelled. I also confirm that at the start of
the examination all the computer hardware allotted to me are in proper working condition”.
GATE 2014 SET- 2 General Aptitude -GA

Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.


Q.1 Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following
sentence.

A person suffering from Alzheimer’s disease short-term memory loss.


(A) experienced (B) has experienced
(C) is experiencing (D) experiences

Q.2 Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following
sentence.

____________ is the key to their happiness; they are satisfied with what they have.

)
14
(A) Contentment (B) Ambition (C) Perseverance (D) Hunger

Q.3 Which of the following options is the closest in meaning to the sentence below?

20
“As a woman, I have no country.”
(A) Women have no country.
(B) Women are not citizens of any country.
(C) Women’s solidarity knows no national boundaries.
(D) Women of all countries have equal legal rights.

Q.4
E
In any given year, the probability of an earthquake greater than Magnitude 6 occurring in the
Garhwal Himalayas is 0.04. The average time between successive occurrences of such earthquakes
AT
is ____ years.

Q.5 The population of a new city is 5 million and is growing at 20% annually. How many years would
it take to double at this growth rate?
(G

(A) 3-4 years (B) 4-5 years (C) 5-6 years (D) 6-7 years
02

Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

Q.6 In a group of four children, Som is younger to Riaz. Shiv is elder to Ansu. Ansu is youngest in the
group. Which of the following statements is/are required to find the eldest child in the group?
A

Statements
1. Shiv is younger to Riaz.
G

2. Shiv is elder to Som.


(A) Statement 1by itself determines the eldest child.
(B) Statement 2 by itself determines the eldest child.
(C) Statements 1 and 2 are both required to determine the eldest child.
(D) Statements 1 and 2 are not sufficient to determine the eldest child.

GA 1/2
GATE 2014 SET- 2 General Aptitude -GA
Q.7 Moving into a world of big data will require us to change our thinking about the merits of
exactitude. To apply the conventional mindset of measurement to the digital, connected world of
the twenty-first century is to miss a crucial point. As mentioned earlier, the obsession with
exactness is an artefact of the information-deprived analog era. When data was sparse, every data
point was critical, and thus great care was taken to avoid letting any point bias the analysis.
From “BIG DATA” Viktor Mayer-Schonberger and Kenneth Cukier

The main point of the paragraph is:


(A) The twenty-first century is a digital world
(B) Big data is obsessed with exactness
(C) Exactitude is not critical in dealing with big data
(D) Sparse data leads to a bias in the analysis

)
Q.8 The total exports and revenues from the exports of a country are given in the two pie charts below.
The pie chart for exports shows the quantity of each item as a percentage of the total quantity of

14
exports. The pie chart for the revenues shows the percentage of the total revenue generated through
export of each item. The total quantity of exports of all the items is 5 lakh tonnes and the total
revenues are 250 crore rupees. What is the ratio of the revenue generated through export of Item 1
per kilogram to the revenue generated through export of Item 4 per kilogram?

20
Exports Revenues

Item 6
16%
Item 1
11%
E Item 6
19%
Item 1
12%
AT
Item 5 Item 2
12% 20% Item 2
Item 5 20%
20%
Item 3
Item 4 19%
Item 4 Item 3
22%
(G

6% 23%
02

(A) 1:2 (B) 2:1 (C) 1:4 (D) 4:1

Q.9 X is 1 km northeast of Y. Y is 1 km southeast of Z. W is 1 km west of Z. P is 1 km south of W. Q is


1 km east of P. What is the distance between X and Q in km?
A

(A) 1 (B) √2 (C) √3 (D) 2

10% of the population in a town is HIV+. A new diagnostic kit for HIV detection is available; this
G

Q.10
kit correctly identifies HIV+ individuals 95% of the time, and HIV− individuals 89% of the time. A
particular patient is tested using this kit and is found to be positive. The probability that the
individual is actually positive is _______

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

GA 2/2
GATE 2014 INSTRUMENTATION - IN

Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.


Q.1 Given
𝜋𝜋
𝑥𝑥(𝑡𝑡) = 3 sin(1000 𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋)and 𝑦𝑦(𝑡𝑡) = 5 cos �1000 𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋 + 4 �

The x-yplot will be

(A) a circle (B)a multi-loop closed curve

(C)a hyperbola (D)an ellipse

)
Q.2 Given that x is a random variable in the range[0,∞]with a probability densityfunction
𝑥𝑥

14
𝑒𝑒 2
, the value of the constant K is___________.
𝐾𝐾

20
Q.3 The figure shows the plot of y as a function of x
E
AT
(G

The function shown is the solution of the differential equation (assuming all initial conditions to be
IN

zero) is :

(A)
d2y
=1 (B)
dy
=x (C) dy = − x (D)
dy
= x
dx 2 dx dx dx

Q.4 A vector is defined as


f = yˆi + xˆj + zkˆ
where ˆi , ˆj and kˆ are unit vectors in Cartesian (x,y,z) coordinate system.
The surface integral ∯ 𝐟𝐟. 𝐝𝐝𝐝𝐝 over the closed surface S of a cube with vertices having the following
coordinates: (0,0,0), (1,0,0), (1,1,0), (0,1,0), (0,0,1), (1,0,1), (1,1,1), (0,1,1) is
___________.

IN 1/15
GATE 2014 INSTRUMENTATION - IN

Q.5 The figure shows the schematic of a production process with machines A, B and C. An input job
needs to be pre-processed either by A or by B before it is fed to C, from which the final finished
product comes out. The probabilities of failure of the machines are given as:
PA=0.15, PB=0.05, PC=0.1.

A
Input job
C Finished
product

B
Assuming independence of failures of the machines, the probability that a given job is successfully

)
processed (up to the third decimal place) is ___________.

14
Q.6 The circuit shown in figure was at steady state for𝑡𝑡 < 0 with the switch at position ‘A’. The switch
is thrown to position ‘B’ at time 𝑡𝑡 = 0. The voltage 𝑉𝑉 (volts) across the 10 Ω resistor at time
𝑡𝑡 = 0+ is___________.

+ A
2Ω

B
20
E
10 Ω V t=0 5H
AT

_ 6V

Q.7 The average real power in watts delivered to a load impedance 𝑍𝑍𝐿𝐿 = (4 − 𝑗𝑗2)Ω by an ideal current
(G

source 𝑖𝑖(𝑡𝑡) = 4 sin(ω𝑡𝑡 + 20°)A is ___________.

Q.8 Time domain expressions for the voltage 𝑣𝑣1 (𝑡𝑡) and 𝑣𝑣2 (𝑡𝑡) are given as
𝑣𝑣1 (𝑡𝑡) = 𝑉𝑉𝑚𝑚 sin(10𝑡𝑡 − 130°)and𝑣𝑣2 (𝑡𝑡) = 𝑉𝑉𝑚𝑚 cos(10𝑡𝑡 + 10°).
Which one of the following statements is TRUE?
IN

(A)𝑣𝑣1 (𝑡𝑡)leads 𝑣𝑣2 (𝑡𝑡) by 130o (B)𝑣𝑣1 (𝑡𝑡) lags 𝑣𝑣2 (𝑡𝑡) by 130o

(C)𝑣𝑣1 (𝑡𝑡) lags 𝑣𝑣2 (𝑡𝑡) by −130o (D)𝑣𝑣1 (𝑡𝑡) leads𝑣𝑣2 (𝑡𝑡)by −130o

Q.9 A pHelectrode obeys Nernst equation and is being operated at 25°C. The change in the open
circuit voltage in millivolts across the electrode for a pH change from 6 to 8 is ___________.

IN 2/15
GATE 2014 INSTRUMENTATION - IN

Q.10 The pressure and velocity at the throat of a Venturi tube, measuring the flow of a liquid, are related
to the upstream pressure and velocity, respectively, as follows:
(A) pressure is lower but velocity is higher

(B) pressure is higher but velocity is lower

(C) both pressure and velocity are lower

(D) pressure and velocity are identical

Q.11 Semiconductor strain gages typically have much higher gage factors than those of metallic strain
gages, primarily due to :

)
(A) higher temperature sensitivity

14
(B) higher Poisson’s ratio

(C) higher piezoresitive coefficient

(D) higher magnetostrictive coefficient

Q.12
20
For a rotameter, which one of the following statements is TRUE?
(A) the weight of the float is balanced by the buoyancy and the drag force acting on the float

(B) the velocity of the fluid remains constant for all positions of the float
E
(C) the measurement of volume flow rate of gas is not possible
AT

(D) the volume flow rate is insensitive to changes in density of the fluid

Q.13 For the op-amp shown in the figure, the bias currents are Ib1= 450 nA and Ib2=350 nA. The values
of the input bias current (IB) and the input offset current (If) are:
(G
IN

(A) IB= 800 nA, If=50 nA (B) IB= 800 nA, If=100nA

(C) IB= 400 nA, If=50nA (D) IB= 400 nA, If=100nA

IN 3/15
GATE 2014 INSTRUMENTATION - IN

Q.14 The amplifier in the figure has gain of −10 and input resistance of 50 kΩ. The values of Ri and
Rfare:
Rf

Ri

V0
Vin +

(A) Ri= 500 kΩ, Rf = 50 kΩ (B) Ri= 50 kΩ, Rf = 500 kΩ

)
14
(C) Ri= 5 kΩ, Rf = 10 kΩ (D) Ri= 50 kΩ, Rf = 200 kΩ

Q.15 For the circuit shown in the figure assume ideal diodes with zero forward resistance and zero

20
forward voltage drop. The current through the diode D2 in mAis ___________.
E
AT
(G

Q.16 The system function of an LTI system is given by


1 − 13𝑧𝑧−1
𝐻𝐻(𝑧𝑧) =
1 − 14𝑧𝑧−1
IN

The above system can have stable inverse if the region of convergence of H(z)is defined as
1 1 1 1
(A) |𝑧𝑧| < 4 (B) |𝑧𝑧| < 12 (C) |𝑧𝑧| > 4 (D) |𝑧𝑧| < 3

IN 4/15
GATE 2014 INSTRUMENTATION - IN

Q.17 The figure is a logic circuit with inputs A and B and output Y.Vss = + 5 V. The circuit is of type

)
14
(A) NOR (B) AND 20
(C) OR (D) NAND
E
Q.18 The impulse response of an LTI system is given as :
 ωc
 π n=0
AT

h [ n] = 
 sin ωc n n ≠ 0
 π n
It represents an ideal
(A)non-causal, low-pass filter (B) causal, low-pass filter
(G

(C) non-causal, high-pass filter (D) causal, high-pass filter

Q.19 A discrete-time signal 𝑥𝑥[𝑛𝑛] is obtained by sampling an analog signal at 10 kHz. The signal 𝑥𝑥[𝑛𝑛]is
filtered by a system with impulse response ℎ[𝑛𝑛] = 0.5{𝛿𝛿[𝑛𝑛] + 𝛿𝛿[𝑛𝑛 − 1]}. The 3dB cutoff
IN

frequency of the filter is:


(A) 1.25 kHz (B) 2.50 kHz (C) 4 .00 kHz (D) 5.00 kHz

Q.20 A full duplex binary FSK transmission is made through a channel of bandwidth 10 kHz. In each
direction of transmission the two carriers used for the two states are separated by 2 kHz. The
maximum baud rate for this transmission is:
(A) 2000 bps (B) 3000 bps (C) 5000 bps (D) 10000 bps

IN 5/15
GATE 2014 INSTRUMENTATION - IN

Q.21 A loop transfer function is given by :


𝐾𝐾(𝑠𝑠 + 2)
𝐺𝐺(𝑠𝑠)𝐻𝐻(𝑠𝑠) =
𝑠𝑠 2 (𝑠𝑠 + 10)
The point of intersection of the asymptotes of 𝐺𝐺(𝑠𝑠)𝐻𝐻(𝑠𝑠)on the real axis in the 𝑠𝑠-plane is at
___________.

Q.22 The resistance and inductance of an inductive coil are measured using an AC bridge as shown in
the figure. The bridge is to be balanced by varying the impedance Z2.

)
14
For obtaining balance, Z2 should consist of element(s):
(A) R and C (B) R and L 20
(C) L and C (D) Only C
E
Q.23 A plant has an open-loop transfer function,
20
Gp ( s ) = .
( s + 0.1)( s + 2 )( s + 100 )
AT

The approximate model obtained by retaining only one of the above poles, which is closest to the
frequency response of the original transfer function at low frequency is

0.1 2 100 20
(G

(A) (B) (C) (D)


s + 0.1 s+2 s + 100 s + 0.1

Q.24 In order to remove respiration related motion artifacts from an ECG signal, the following filter
should be used:
IN

(A) low-pass filter with fc = 0.5 Hz

(B) high-pass filter with fc = 0.5 Hz

(C)high-pass filter with fc = 49.5 Hz

(D)band-pass filter with passband between 0.1 Hz and 0.5 Hz

Q.25 In a time-of-flight mass spectrometerif𝑞𝑞 is the charge and 𝑚𝑚 the mass of the ionized species,then
the time of flight is proportional to

√𝑚𝑚 √𝑞𝑞 𝑚𝑚 𝑞𝑞
(B) (C) (D)
(A)
√𝑞𝑞 √𝑚𝑚 √𝑞𝑞 √𝑚𝑚

IN 6/15
GATE 2014 INSTRUMENTATION - IN

Q. 31 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Q.26 A scalar valued function is defined as f ( x ) = xT Ax + bT x + c , where A is a symmetric positive


definite matrix with dimension n× n ; b and x are vectors of dimension n×1. The minimum value
of f ( x ) will occur when x equals

( ) ( )
−1 −1
(A) AT A b (B) − AT A b

-1
A b A-1 b
(C)− � � (D)
2 2

)
14
Q.27 The iteration step in order to solvefor the cube roots of a given number Nusing the Newton-
Raphson’s method is

1 N
( N − xk3 )

20
1
(A) xk +1 =xk + =
(B) xk +1  2 xk + 2 
3 3 xk 

1 N
(C) xk +1 =xk −
1
3
( N − xk3 ) =
(D) xk +1  2 xk − 2 
3 xk 
E
Q.28 For the matrix A satisfying the equation given below, the eigenvaluesare
AT

1 2 3 1 2 3
[ A ] 7 8 9  =  4 5 6
 4 5 6  7 8 9 

(A)(1, −𝑗𝑗, 𝑗𝑗) (B)(1, 1, 0)


(G

(C)(1, 1, −1) (D)(1, 0, 0)

Q.29 In the circuit shown in the figure, initially the capacitor is uncharged. The switch ‘S’ is closed at
𝑡𝑡 = 0. Two milliseconds after the switch is closed, the current through the capacitor (in mA) is
IN

___________.

2 kΩ S
ic (t)
t= 0
5V 4 µF
2 kΩ

IN 7/15
GATE 2014 INSTRUMENTATION - IN

Q.30 A capacitor ‘C’ is to be connected across the terminals ‘A’ and ‘B’ as shown in the figure so that
the power factor of the parallel combination becomes unity. The value of the capacitance required
in µF is___________.

4Ω

60 V
50 Hz
j1Ω

)
14
B

Q.31 The resistance of a wire is given by the expression

20
4ρ𝐿𝐿
𝑅𝑅 = ,
𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋 2
where, ρis the resistivity (Ω-meter),L is the length (meter) and D (meter) is the diameter of the
wire. The error in measurement of each of the parameters ρ, L, and D is ±1.0% . Assuming that
the errors are independent random variables, the percent error in measurement of R is
___________.
E
Q.32 The circuit shown in the figure contains a dependent current source between A and B terminals.
AT

The Thevenin’s equivalent resistance in kΩbetween the terminals C and D is ___________.


5 kΩ A 5 kΩ
C

+
10−4 Vx
(G

10 V vx
_
B D
IN

Q.33 A thermistor has a resistance of 1 kΩ at temperature 298 Kand 465 Ω at temperature 316 K. The
temperature sensitivity in K-1[i.e. (1/R)(dR/dT), where R is the resistance at the temperature T(in
K)], of this thermistor at 316 K is ___________.

Q.34 A barium titanate piezoelectric crystal with d33=150 pC/N, Ccrystal = 25 pF and Rcrystal = 1010 Ω is
used to measure the amplitude of a step force. The voltage output is measured using a digital
voltmeter with input impedance 1013 Ω connected across the crystal. All other capacitances and
resistances may be neglected. A step force of 2 N is applied from direction “3” on the crystal. The
time in milliseconds within which the voltmeter should sample the crystal output voltage so that the
drop from the peak value is no more than 0.12V is ___________.

IN 8/15
GATE 2014 INSTRUMENTATION - IN

Q.35 A thermopile is constructed using 10 junctions of Chromel-Constantan (sensitivity 60µV/°C for


each junction) connected in series. The output is fed to an amplifier having an infinite input
impedance and a gain of 10. The output from the amplifier is acquired using a 10-bit ADC, with
reference voltage of 5 V. The resolution of this system in units of °C is ___________.

Q.36 A transit time ultrasonic flowmeter uses a pair of ultrasonic transducers placed at 45° angle, as
shown in the figure.

)
14
20
The inner diameter of the pipe is 0.5 m. The differential transit time is directly measured using a
clock of frequency 5 MHz. The velocity of the fluid is small compared to the velocity of sound in
the static fluid, which is 1500 m/s and the size of the crystals is negligible compared to the diameter
of the pipe. The minimum change in fluid velocity (m/s) that can be measured using this system is
___________.
E
Q.37 Assuming an ideal op-amp in linear range of operation, the magnitude of the transfer impedance
𝑣𝑣0
AT

in MΩ of the current to voltage converter shown in the figure is ___________.


𝑖𝑖
(G
IN

IN 9/15
GATE 2014 INSTRUMENTATION - IN

Q.38 For the circuit shown in the figure, the transistor has β = 40, 𝑉𝑉𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 = 0.7 V, and the voltage across
the Zener diode is 15 V.The current (in mA) through the Zener diode is ___________.

+30 V

330 Ω 100 Ω

)
Q.39 In the figure, transistors T1 and T2 have identical characteristics. 𝑉𝑉𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶(𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 ) of transistor T3 is 0.1 V.

14
The voltage 𝑉𝑉1 is high enough to put T3 in saturation. Voltage 𝑉𝑉𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 of transistors T1, T2 and T3is 0.7
V. The value of (𝑉𝑉1 − 𝑉𝑉2 ) in Vis ___________.

9V

5 kΩ
V1 T3 20
E
3 kΩ
V2
AT

T1 T2
(G

Q.40 The figures show an oscillator circuit having an ideal Schmitt trigger and its input-output
characteristics. The time period (in ms) of vo ( t ) is___________.
IN

IN 10/15
GATE 2014 INSTRUMENTATION - IN

Q.41 An N-bit ADC has an analog reference voltage V. Assuming zero mean and uniform distribution of
the quantization error, the quantization noise power will be:

𝑉𝑉 2 𝑉𝑉 2
(A) (B)
12(2𝑁𝑁 −1)2 12(2𝑁𝑁 −1)

𝑉𝑉 𝑉𝑉 2
(C) (D)
12(2𝑁𝑁 −1) √12

Q.42 A microprocessor accepts external interrupts (Ext INT) through a Programmable Interrupt

)
Controller as shown in the figure.

14
20
Assuming vectored interrupt, a correct sequence of operations when a single external interrupt (Ext
INT1) is received will be :
E
(A) Ext INT1→ INTA→Data Read→INT

(B) Ext INT1→ INT→INTA→Data Read


AT

(C) Ext INT1→ INT→INTA→Address Write

(D) Ext INT1→ INT→ Data Read→Address Write


(G
IN

IN 11/15
GATE 2014 INSTRUMENTATION - IN

Q.43 The circuit in the figure represents a counter-based unipolar ADC. When SOC is asserted the
counter is reset and clock is enabled so that the counter counts up and the DAC output grows.
When the DAC output exceeds the input sample value, the comparator switches from logic 0 to
logic 1, disabling the clock and enabling the output buffer by asserting EOC. Assuming all
components to be ideal, 𝑉𝑉ref , DAC output and input to be positive, the maximum error in
conversion of the analog sample value is:

)
14
(A)directly proportional to𝑉𝑉ref
20
(B) inversely proportional to 𝑉𝑉ref
E
(C)independent of𝑉𝑉ref (D)directly proportional to clock frequency
AT

Q.44 𝑋𝑋(𝑘𝑘)is the Discrete Fourier Transform of a 6-point real sequence 𝑥𝑥(𝑛𝑛).

If 𝑋𝑋(0) = 9 + 𝑗𝑗0, 𝑋𝑋(2) = 2 + 𝑗𝑗2, 𝑋𝑋(3) = 3 – 𝑗𝑗0, 𝑋𝑋(5) = 1 – 𝑗𝑗1, 𝑥𝑥(0) is


(A) 3 (B) 9 (C) 15 (D) 18
(G

Q.45 The transfer function of a digital system is given by:

𝑏𝑏0
−1 −2
; where𝑎𝑎2 is real.
1− 𝑧𝑧 + 𝑎𝑎 2 𝑧𝑧

The transfer function is BIBO stable if the value of 𝑎𝑎2 is:


IN

(A) −1.5 (B) −0.75 (C) 0.5 (D) 1.5

Q.46 The transfer function of a system is given by


−𝑠𝑠
𝑒𝑒 �500
𝐺𝐺(𝑠𝑠) =
𝑠𝑠 + 500
The input to the system is 𝑥𝑥(𝑡𝑡) = sin 100𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋. In periodic steady state the output of the system is
found to be 𝑦𝑦(𝑡𝑡) = 𝐴𝐴sin(100𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋 − 𝜙𝜙). The phase angle (𝜙𝜙) in degree is ___________.

IN 12/15
GATE 2014 INSTRUMENTATION - IN

Q.47 In the microprocessor controlled measurement scheme shown in the figure, Rx is the unknown
resistance to be measured, while Rref and Cref are known. Cref is charged from voltage VL to VH (by
a constant DC voltage source VS), once through Rref in Tref seconds and then discharged to VL . It
isagain charged from voltage VL to VH throughRxin Tx seconds.

)
If Tx = kTref then

14
 VL   VH 
=
(A) Rx kRref 1 −  (B) Rx = kRref ln  
 VH   VL 

20
(C) Rx = kRref (D) Rx = Rref ln k

Q.48 Frequency of an analog periodic signal in the range of 5kHz - 10kHz is to be measured with a
E
resolution of 100Hz by measuring its period with a counter. Assuming negligible signal and
transition delays the minimum clock frequency and minimum number of bits in the counter
needed, respectively, are:
AT

(A) 1 MHz, 10-bits (B) 10 MHz, 10-bits

(C) 1 MHz, 8-bits (D) 10MHz, 8-bits


(G

Q.49 The loop transfer function of a feedback control system is given by


1
G (s) H (s) =
s ( s + 1)( 9 s + 1)
Its phase crossover frequency (in rad/s), approximated to two decimal places, is ___________.
IN

Q.50 Consider a transport lag process with a transfer function


𝐺𝐺𝑝𝑝 (𝑠𝑠) = 𝑒𝑒 −𝑠𝑠 .
The process is controlled by a purely integral controller with transfer function
𝐾𝐾𝑖𝑖
𝐺𝐺𝑐𝑐 (𝑠𝑠) =
𝑠𝑠
in a unity feedback configuration. The value of𝐾𝐾𝑖𝑖 for which the closed loop plant has a pole
at𝑠𝑠 = −1, is ___________.

IN 13/15
GATE 2014 INSTRUMENTATION - IN

Q.51 Consider the control system shown in figurewith feedforwardaction for rejection of a measurable
disturbance d ( t ) . The value of K, for whichthe disturbance response at the output 𝑦𝑦(𝑡𝑡) is zero
mean, is:

)
(A) 1 (B)−1 (C) 2 (D) −2

14
Q.52 A mixture contains two mutually inert solutions ‘X’ and ‘Y’ in equal volumes. The mixture is
examined in a spectrophotometer using a cuvette. It is observed that the transmittance is 0.40. With
only the solution ‘X’ in the same cuvette, the transmittance is 0.20. With only solution ‘Y’ in the
cuvette the transmittance is___________.

Q.53

20
Monochromatic light from a step index (n1 = 1.500; n2 = 1.485), multimode optical fiber of core
diameter 100 µm is incident through air (n = 1.000) onto a linear photo-detector array placed at 1
mm distance from the tip of the fiber. The tip of the fiber is polished and its exit plane is
perpendicular to the axis of the fiber. The detector array is oriented parallel to the exit plane of the
tip. The array consists of photo-detector elements each of 5 µm diameter. The distance between the
edges of two adjacent elements can be assumed to be zero. The number of elements illuminated by
E
the light coming out of the fiber is___________.
AT

Q.54 An image of the chest of a patient is taken with an X-ray machine on a photographic film. The
Hurter-Driffield (HD) curve of the film is shown in the figure. The highly absorbing parts of the
body (e.g. bones), show up as low exposure regions(mapped near A) and the less absorbing parts
(e.g. muscles) show up as high exposure regions(mapped near B).
(G
IN

If the exposure time is increased 10 times, while keeping the voltages and currents in the X-ray
machine constant, in the image,
(A)contrast decreases since B moves into the shoulder region

(B)contrast decreases since both A and B move into the shoulder region

(C)contrast increases sinceA moves into the toe region

(D)contrast decreases since both A and B move into the toe region
IN 14/15
GATE 2014 INSTRUMENTATION - IN

Q.55

)
14
For the given low-pass circuit shown in the figure, the cutoff frequency in Hz will be ___________.

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER


20
E
AT
(G
IN

IN 15/15
GATE 2014
 Answer Keys for IN ‐ Instrumentation Engineering
Section Q. No. Key / Range Marks Section Q. No. Key / Range Marks
GA 1 D 1 IN 24 B 1
GA 2 A 1 IN 25 A 1
GA 3 C 1 IN 26 C 2
GA 4 25 to 25 1 IN 27 B 2
GA 5 A 1 IN 28 C 2
GA 6 A 2 IN 29 1.5 to 1.6 2
GA 7 C 2 IN 30 186 to 188 2
GA 8 D 2 IN 31 2.3 to 2.5 2
GA 9 C 2 IN 32 20 to 20 2
GA 10 0.48 to 0.49 2 IN 33 ‐0.042 to ‐0.038 2
IN 1 D 1 IN 34 2.48 to 2.52 2
IN 2 2 to 2 1 IN 35 0.800 to 0.833 2
IN 3 D 1 IN 36 0.45 to 0.45 2
IN 4 1 to 1 1 IN 37 0.6 to 0.6 2
IN 5 0.890 to 0.899 1 IN 38 40 to 43 2
IN 6 ‐30 to ‐30 1 IN 39 5.5 to 5.8 2
IN 7 32 to 32 1 IN 40 8.0 to 8.5 2
IN 8 A 1 IN 41 A 2
IN 9 117 to 120 1 IN 42 B 2
IN 10 A 1 IN 43 A 2
IN 11 C 1 IN 44 A 2
IN 12 A 1 IN 45 C 2
IN 13 D 1 IN 46 67 to 69 2
IN 14 B 1 IN 47 C 2
IN 15 10 to 10 1 IN 48 C 2
IN 16 C 1 IN 49 0.30 to 0.34 2
IN 17 D 1 IN 50 0.36 to 0.38 2
IN 18 A 1 IN 51 D 2
IN 19 B 1 IN 52 0.795 to 0.805 2
IN 20 B 1 IN 53 106 to 108 2
IN 21 ‐4 to ‐4 1 IN 54 A 2
IN 22 B 1 IN 55 15 to 16 2
IN 23 A 1
Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering

Notations :

Question Paper Name: IN: INSTRUMENTATION ENGINEERING ACTUAL 1st Feb shift2
Number of Questions: 65
Total Marks: 100.0

Wrong answer for MCQ will result in negative marks, (-1/3) for 1 mark Questions and (-2/3) for 2 marks Questions.

Number of Questions: 10
Section Marks: 15.0

Q.1 to Q.5 carry 1 mark each & Q.6 to Q.10 carry 2 marks each.

Question Number : 1 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 2 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 3 Question Type : MCQ


Options :

Question Number : 4 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 5 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 6 Question Type : MCQ


Options :

Question Number : 7 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 8 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
280
Question Number : 9 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 10 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Number of Questions: 55
Section Marks: 85.0

Q.11 to Q.35 carry 1 mark each & Q.36 to Q.65 carry 2 marks each.

Question Number : 11 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 12 Question Type : MCQ


Options :

Question Number : 13 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 14 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 15 Question Type : NAT


Correct Answer :
0.24 to 0.26

Question Number : 16 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
3.6 to 3.7

Question Number : 17 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 18 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
1020
Question Number : 19 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 20 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 21 Question Type : MCQ

Options :
Question Number : 22 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 23 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 24 Question Type : MCQ


Options :

Question Number : 25 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 26 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 27 Question Type : MCQ


Options :

Question Number : 28 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
3

Question Number : 29 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 30 Question Type : MCQ


Options :

Question Number : 31 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 32 Question Type :NAT


Correct Answer :
100

Question Number : 33 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 34 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
-1

Question Number : 35 Question Type : MCQ

Options :
Question Number : 36 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 37 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
4

Question Number : 38 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 39 Question Type : NAT


Correct Answer:
1

Question Number : 40 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
1.75

Question Number : 41 Question Type : NAT


Correct Answer:
1

Question Number : 42 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
98 to 102

Question Number : 43 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
95 to 96

Question Number : 44 Question Type : NAT


Correct Answer :
1.2 to 1.3

Question Number : 45 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
1.3 to 1.4

Question Number : 46 Question Type : NAT


Correct Answer:
92 to 94

Question Number : 47 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 48 Question Type : NAT


Correct Answer :
1

Question Number : 49 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 50 Question Type : MCQ


Options :

Question Number : 51 Question Type : MCQ


Options :

Question Number : 52 Question Type : MCQ


Options :

Question Number : 53 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
20

Question Number : 54 Question Type : MCQ


Options :

Question Number : 55 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
22

Question Number : 56 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 57 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
6

Question Number : 58 Question Type : NAT


Correct Answer:
33 to 34

Question Number : 59 Question Type : MCQ

Options :

Question Number : 60 Question Type : MCQ


Options :

Question Number : 61 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer:
-3

Question Number : 62 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
7.9 to 8.1

Question Number : 63 Question Type : NAT


Correct Answer :
40

Question Number : 64 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer:
0.74 to 0.76

Question Number : 65 Question Type : MCQ

Options :
GATE 2016 General Aptitude - GA Set-4

Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.


Q.1 An apple costs Rs. 10. An onion costs Rs. 8.

Select the most suitable sentence with respect to grammar and usage.
(A) The price of an apple is greater than an onion.

(B) The price of an apple is more than onion.

(C) The price of an apple is greater than that of an onion.

(D) Apples are more costlier than onions.

Q.2 The Buddha said, “Holding on to anger is like grasping a hot coal with the intent of throwing it at
someone else; you are the one who gets burnt.”

Select the word below which is closest in meaning to the word underlined above.

(A) burning (B) igniting (C) clutching (D) flinging

Q.3 M has a son Q and a daughter R. He has no other children. E is the mother of P and daughter-in-
law of M. How is P related to M?

(A) P is the son-in-law of M. (B) P is the grandchild of M.

(C) P is the daughter-in law of M. (D) P is the grandfather of M.

Q.4 The number that least fits this set: (324, 441, 97 and 64) is ________.

(A) 324 (B) 441 (C) 97 (D) 64

Q.5 It takes 10 s and 15 s, respectively, for two trains travelling at different constant speeds to
completely pass a telegraph post. The length of the first train is 120 m and that of the second train is
150 m. The magnitude of the difference in the speeds of the two trains (in m/s) is ____________.

(A) 2.0 (B) 10.0 (C) 12.0 (D) 22.0

1/3
GATE 2016 General Ap
ptitude - GA Set-44

Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry tw
wo marks each.
Q.6 Thee velocity V of a vehiclle along a sttraight line is
i measured in m/s and plotted as shown
s with
resppect to timee in seconds. At the endd of the 7 seconds,
s howw much willl the odomeeter reading
incrrease by (in m)?

(A)) 0 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

Q.7 Thee overwhelm ming numberr of people innfected with h rabies in Inndia has beenn flagged by
y the World
Heaalth Organizzation as a soource of conncern. It is esstimated thatt inoculatingg 70% of petts and stray
doggs against rabbies can leadd to a significcant reductio
on in the num
mber of peoplle infected with
w rabies.

Whhich of the foollowing can be logicallyy inferred from


m the above sentences?
(A)) The numbber of people in India infeected with raabies is high.

(B)) The number of people in other partts of the world who are innfected with rabies is low
w.

(C)) Rabies cann be eradicated in India by


b vaccinatin
ng 70% of strray dogs.

(D)) Stray dogss are the main source of rabies


r worldw
wide.

Q.8 f is shared by four firstt year underggraduate stud


A flat dents. They agreed
a to alloow the oldestt of them to
enjoy some exttra space in the flat. Maanu is two months
m olderr than Sravann, who is thhree months
youunger than Trrideep. Pavaan is one monnth older than
n Sravan. Who
W should occcupy the ex xtra space in
the flat?

(A)) Manu (B) Sravan (C) Trideep (D) Pavan

Q.9 Finnd the area boounded by thhe lines 3x+22y=14, 2x-3y


y=5 in the firrst quadrant.
(A)) 14.95 (B) 15.25 (C) 15.70 (D) 20.35

2/33
GATE 2016 General Aptitude - GA Set-4

Q.10 A straight line is fit to a data set (ln x, y). This line intercepts the abscissa at ln x = 0.1 and has a
slope of −0.02. What is the value of y at x = 5 from the fit?

(A) −0.030 (B) −0.014 (C) 0.014 (D) 0.030

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

3/3
GATE 2016 Instrumentation Engineering - IN

Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.


Q.1 A straight line of the form y = mx + c passes through the origin and the point (x, y) = (2, 6). The
value of m is ________ .

Q.2 lim
n →∞
( )
n 2 + n − n 2 + 1 is __________________.

Q.3 A voltage V1 is measured 100 times and its average and standard deviation are 100 V and 1.5 V
respectively. A second voltage V2, which is independent of V1, is measured 200 times and its
average and standard deviation are 150 V and 2 V respectively. V3 is computed as: V3 = V1 + V2.
Then the standard deviation of V3 in volt is ____.

Q.4 The vector that is NOT perpendicular to the vectors (i + j + k) and (i + 2j + 3k) is ______.
(A) (i –2j + k) (B) (–i + 2j –k) (C) (0i + 0j + 0k) (D) (4i +3 j + 5k)

Q.5 In the neighborhood of z = 1, the function f(z) has a power series expansion of the form
𝑓𝑓 (𝑧𝑧) = 1 + (1 − 𝑧𝑧) + (1 − 𝑧𝑧)2 + …………
Then f(z) is

1 −1 z −1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
z z−2 z +1 2z −1

Q.6 Three currents i1, i2 and i3 meet at a node as shown in the figure below. If i1 = 3 cos(ωt) ampere,
i2 = 4 sin(ωt) ampere and i3 = I3 cos(ωt + θ) ampere, the value of I3 in ampere is __________.

Q.7 An air cored coil has a Q of 5 at a frequency of 100 kHz. The Q of the coil at 20 kHz (neglecting
skin effect) will be ________.

Q.8 A current i(t) shown in the figure below is passed through a 1 F capacitor that had zero initial
charge. The voltage across the capacitor for t > 2 s in volt is _________

IN 1/12
GATE 2016 Instrumentation Engineering - IN

Q.9 The signal x[n] shown in the figure below is convolved with itself to get y[n]. The value of y[−1]
is ________ .

Q.10 In the circuit shown below (v1 + v2) = [1 sin(2π10000t) + 1 sin(2π30000t)] V. The RMS value of
the current through the resistor R will be minimum if the value of the capacitor C in microfarad is
______.

( s + 2)
Q.11 If X (s ) , the Laplace transform of signal x(t ) is given by X ( s ) = , then the value
( s + 1)( s + 3) 2
of x(t ) as t → ∞ is ______.

s −1
Q.12 The number of times the Nyquist plot of G ( s ) = will encircle the origin clockwise is ______.
s +1

Q.13 The value of a0 which will ensure that the polynomial s3 + 3s2 + 2s + a0 has roots on the left half of
the s-plane is
(A) 11 (B) 9 (C) 7 (D) 5

8
Q.14 =
The input i (t ) 2sin(3t + π ) is applied to a system whose transfer function G ( s ) = .
( s + 10 )
2

The amplitude of the output of the system is______.

Q.15 The diode D used in the circuit below is ideal. The voltage drop Vab across the 1 kΩ resistor in volt
is _________.

IN 2/12
GATE 2016 Instrumentation Engineering - IN

Q.16 In the circuit given below, the opamp is ideal. The output voltage VO in volt is ____.

Q.17 In the circuit given below, the diodes D1 and D2 have a forward voltage drop of 0.6 V. The opamp
used is ideal. The magnitude of the negative peak value of the output VO in volt is ________.

Q.18 The Boolean expression XY + ( X′+ Y′ )Z is equivalent to


(A) XYZ′ + X′Y′Z (B) X′Y′Z′ + XYZ

(C) ( X + Z )( Y+Z ) (D) ( X′ + Z )( Y′ + Z )

Q.19 In the digital circuit given below, F is

(A) XY + YZ (B) XY + YZ
(C) XY + YZ (D) XZ + Y

Q.20 A 3 ½ digit DMM has an accuracy specification of ± 1 % of full scale (accuracy class 1). A reading
of 100.0 mA is obtained on its 200 mA full scale range. The worst case error in the reading in
milliampere is ±______ .

IN 3/12
GATE 2016 Instrumentation Engineering - IN

Q.21 A dc potentiometer, shown in figure below, is made by connecting fifteen 10 Ω resistors and a 10 Ω
slide wire of length 1000 mm in series. The potentiometer is standardized with the current
Ip = 10.0000 mA. Balance for an unknown voltage is obtained when the dial is in position 11
(11 numbers of the fixed 10 Ω resistor are included) and the slide wire is on the 234th mm position.
The unknown voltage (up to four decimal places) in volt is _______.

Q.22 In the circuit given below, each input terminal of the opamp draws a bias current of 10 nA.
The effect due to these input bias currents on the output voltage VO will be zero, if the
value of R chosen in kilo-ohm is _______.

Q.23 A peizo-electric type pressure sensor has a sensitivity of 1 mV/kPa and a bandwidth of 300 Hz to
300 kHz. For a constant (dc) pressure of 100 kPa, the steady state output of the sensor in mllivolt is
______.

Q.24 The signal m(t) = cos(ωmt) is SSB (single side-band) modulated with a carrier cos(ωct) to get s(t).
The signal obtained by passing s(t) through an ideal envelope detector is
(A) cos(ωmt) (B) sin(ωmt)
(C) cos(ωmt) + sin(ωmt) (D) 1

IN 4/12
GATE 2016 Instrumentation Engineering - IN

 t − 3
Q.25 Let s (t ) = rect   be a signal passed through an AWGN (additive white Gaussian noise)
 3 
N
channel with noise power spectral density (PSD) 0 to get v(t ) . If v(t ) is passed through a
2
matched-filter that is matched to s (t ), then output signal-to noise ratio (SNR) of the matched-filter
is
1 2 3 4
(A) (B) (C) (D)
N0 N0 N0 N0

Q. 26 – Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Let f : [ −1, 1] →  , where f ( x) = 2 x − x − 10. The minimum value of f ( x) is______.


3 4
Q.26

Q.27 An urn contains 5 red and 7 green balls. A ball is drawn at random and its colour is noted. The
ball is placed back into the urn along with another ball of the same colour. The probability of
getting a red ball in the next draw is

65 67 79 89
(A) (B) (C) (D)
156 156 156 156

2 1 1
 
Q.28 Consider the matrix A = 2
 3 4  whose eigenvalues are 1, −1 and 3. Then Trace of
 −1 −1 −2 
 
( A − 3 A ) is _______.
3 2

Q.29 The relationship between the force f(t) and the displacement x(t) of a spring-mass system (with a
mass M, viscous damping D and spring constant K) is
d 2 x (t ) d x (t )
M 2
+D + Kx (t ) =
f (t ) .
dt dt
X(s) and F(s) are the Laplace transforms of x(t) and f(t) respectively. With M = 0.1, D = 2, K =10
X ( s)
in appropriate units, the transfer function G ( s ) = is
F ( s)

10 10s 2 s
(A) (B) s 2 + 20 s + 100 (C) (D)
s + 20s + 100
2
s 2 + 20s + 100 s + 20s + 100
2

1 z2 + 1
2π j C∫ z 2 − 1
Q.30 The value of the integral dz where z is a complex number and C is a unit circle with

center at 1 + 0 j in the complex plane is_____________.

IN 5/12
GATE 2016 Instrumentation Engineering - IN

Q.31 The current IX in the circuit given below in milliampere is __________.

Q.32 In the circuit shown below, V=


S 101∠0 V , R = 10 Ω and ωL= 100 Ω. The current IS is in phase
with VS. The magnitude of I S in milliampere is _________.

Q.33 A symmetrical three-phase three-wire RYB system is connected to a balanced delta-connected load.
The RMS values of the line current and line-to-line voltage are 10 A and 400 V respectively. The
power in the system is measured using the two wattmeter method. The first wattmeter connected
between R-line and Y-line reads zero. The reading of the second wattmeter (connected between B-
line and Y-line) in watt is ______.

Q.34 In the strain gauge bridge circuit given below, R1 = R3 = R (1 − x) and R2 = R4 = R (1 + x), where
R is 350 Ω. The voltage sources vs and vn represent the dc excitation and the undesired
noise/interference, respectively. The value of capacitor C in microfarad that is required to ensure
that the output across a and b is low-pass filtered with a cutoff frequency of 150 Hz is ________.

IN 6/12
GATE 2016 Instrumentation Engineering - IN

Q.35 The voltage v(t ) shown below is applied to the given circuit. v(t ) = 3 V for t < 0 and v(t ) = 6 V
for t > 0. The value of current i (t ) at t = 1 s, in ampere is _____ .

Q.36 For the periodic signal x(t ) shown below with period T = 8 s, the power in the 10th harmonic is

2
1 4 
2 2
1 2  1 4 
(A) 0 (B)   (C)   (D)  
2  10π  2  10π  2  5π 

 301 
Q.37 The fundamental period N 0 of the discrete-time sinusoid x[n] = sin  π n  is _______.
 4 

Q.38 The transfer function G(s) of a system which has the asymptotic Bode plot shown below is

4 ( s − 1)
2
4 ( s + 1)
2
(C) 10 4 ( s + 1) 4 ( s − 1)
2

(A) 10 (B) 10 (D) 10


( s + 100)
2
( s + 100 ) ( s + 100 ) ( s − 100 )
2 2 2

IN 7/12
GATE 2016 Instrumentation Engineering - IN

1
Q.39 For the feedback system given below, the transfer function G ( s ) = . The system CANNOT
( s + 1) 2
be stabilized with

3 7
(A) C ( s ) = 1 + (B) C ( s )= 3 +
s s
9 1
(C) C ( s )= 3 + (D) C ( s ) =
s s

Q.40 Match the unit-step responses (1), (2) and (3) with the transfer functions P(s), Q(s) and R(s), given
below.

−1
P(s) =
( s + 1)
2 ( s − 1)
Q(s) =
( s + 10) ( s + 2)
1
R(s) =
( s + 1)
2

(A) P(s) – (3), Q(s) – (2), R(s) – (1) (B) P(s) – (1), Q(s) – (2), R(s) – (3)
(C) P(s) – (2), Q(s) – (1), R(s) – (3) (D) P(s) – (1), Q(s) – (3), R(s) – (2)

Q.41 An ideal opamp is used to realize a difference amplifier circuit given below having a gain of 10. If
x = 0.025, the CMRR of the circuit in dB is _______.

IN 8/12
GATE 2016 Instrumentation Engineering - IN

Q.42 In the circuit given below, the opamp is ideal. The input vx is a sinusoid. To ensure vy = vx, the
value of CN in picofarad is _____.

Q.43 In the circuit given below, the opamp is ideal. The value of current IL in microampere is ______.

Q.44 A 4 to 1 multiplexer to realize a Boolean function F (X, Y, Z) is shown in the figure below. The
inputs Y and Z are connected to the selectors of the MUX (Y is more significant). The canonical
sum-of-product expression for F ( X, Y, Z ) is

(A) ∑ m ( 2, 3, 4, 7 ) (B) ∑ m ( 1, 3, 5, 7)
(C) ∑ m ( 0, 2, 4, 6 ) (D) ∑ m (2, 3, 5, 6 )

IN 9/12
GATE 2016 Instrumentation Engineering - IN

Q.45 A synchronous counter using two J - K flip flops that goes through the sequence of states:
Q1 Q2 = 00 → 10 → 01→ 11→ 00 ⋅⋅⋅ is required. To achieve this, the inputs to the flip flops are

(A) J1 = Q2, K1 = 0 ; J2 = Q1′, K2 = Q1 (B) J1 = 1, K1 = 1 ; J2 = Q1 , K2 = Q1


(C) J1 = Q2, K1 = Q2′ ; J2 = 1 , K2 = 1 (D) J1 = Q2′, K1 = Q2 ; J2 = Q1 , K2 = Q1′

Q.46 A 1 Kbyte memory module has to be interfaced with an 8-bit microprocessor that has 16 address
lines. The address lines A0 to A9 of the processor are connected to the corresponding address lines
of the memory module. The active low chip select CS of the memory module is connected to the y5
output of a 3 to 8 decoder with active low outputs. S0, S1, and S2 are the input lines to the decoder,
with S2 as the MSB. The decoder has one active low EN1 and one active high EN 2 enable lines as
shown below. The address range(s) that gets mapped onto this memory module is (are)

(A) 3000H to 33FFH and E000H to E3FFH (B) 1400H to 17FFH


(C) 5300H to 53FFH and A300 H to A3FFH (D) 5800H to 5BFFH and D800 H to DBFFH

Q.47 A coil is tested with a series type Q-meter. Resonance at a particular frequency is obtained with a
capacitance of 110 pF. When the frequency is doubled, the capacitance required for resonance is
20 pF. The distributed capacitance of the coil in pico farad is ______.

IN 10/12
GATE 2016 Instrumentation Engineering - IN

Q.48 The comparators (output = ‘1’, when input ≥ 0 and output =‘0’, when input < 0), exclusive-OR gate
and the unity gain low-pass filter given in the circuit are ideal. The logic output voltages of the
exclusive-OR gate are 0 V and 5 V. The cutoff frequency of the low-pass filter is 0.1 Hz. For
V1 = 1 sin (3000t + 36o) V and V2 = 1 sin (3000t) V, the value of VO in volt is ______.

Q.49 A 200 mV full scale dual-slope 3 ½ digit DMM has a reference voltage of 100 mV and a first
integration time of 100 ms. For an input of [100 + 10 Cos(100πt)] mV, the conversion time
(without taking the auto-zero phase time into consideration) in millisecond is ______.

Q.50 In the circuit below, the opamp is ideal and the sensor is an RTD whose resistance
Rθ = 1000 (1 + 0.004 θ) Ω , where θ is temperature in °C. The output sensitivity in mV/°C is ___.

Q.51 The photo diode in the figure below has an active sensing area of 10 mm2, a sensitivity of 0.5 A/W
and a dark current of 1 µA. The i-to-v converter has a sensitivity of 100 mV/µA. For an input light
intensity of 4 W/m2, the output VO in volt is ____.

IN 11/12
GATE 2016 Instrumentation Engineering - IN

Q.52 The velocity of flow of water (density 1000 kg/m3) in a horizontal pipe is measured using the
PITOT tube shown below. The fluid in the U-tube manometer is mercury with a density of
13534 kg/m3. Assume g = 9.81 m/s2. If the height difference (h) is measured as 94.1 mm, the
velocity of flow of water in m/s is ______.

Q.53 The bandgap in eV of a semiconductor material required to construct an LED that emits peak power
at the wavelength of 620 nm is ______.
(Plank constant h = 4.13567×10-15 eV s and speed of light c = 2.998×108 m/s).

sin(100 π t )
Q.54 The signal m(t ) = is frequency modulated (FM) with an FM modulator of frequency
100 π t
deviation constant of 30 kHz/V. Using Carson’s rule, the approximate bandwidth of the modulated
wave in kilohertz is ________.

Q.55 A signal m(t) varies from −3.5 V to +3.5 V with an average power of 3 W . The signal is
quantized using a midtread type quantizer and subsequently binary encoded. With the codeword of
length 3, the signal to quantization noise ratio in dB is _______.

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

IN 12/12
Q. No Type Section Key Marks
1 MCQ GA C 1
2 MCQ GA C 1
3 MCQ GA B 1
4 MCQ GA C;D 1
5 MCQ GA A 1
6 MCQ GA D 2
7 MCQ GA A 2
8 MCQ GA C 2
9 MCQ GA B 2
10 MCQ GA A 2
1 NAT IN 3:3 1
2 NAT IN 0.5 : 0.5 1
3 NAT IN 2.5 : 2.5 1
4 MCQ IN D 1
5 MCQ IN A 1
6 NAT IN 5:5 1
7 NAT IN 1:1 1
8 NAT IN 8:8 1
9 NAT IN 2:2 1
10 NAT IN 0.280 : 0.283 1
11 NAT IN 0:0 1
12 NAT IN 1:1 1
13 MCQ IN D 1
14 NAT IN 0.14 : 0.15 1
15 NAT IN 0:0 1
16 NAT IN -1 : -1 1
17 NAT IN 1.55 : 1.65 1
18 MCQ IN C 1
19 MCQ IN B 1
20 NAT IN 2:2 1
21 NAT IN 1.1234 : 1.1234 1
22 NAT IN 20:20 1
23 NAT IN 0:0 1
24 MCQ IN D 1
25 MCQ IN B 1
26 NAT IN -13 : -13 2
27 MCQ IN A 2
28 NAT IN -6 : -6 2
29 MCQ IN A 2
30 NAT IN 1 :1 2
31 NAT IN 10 : 10 2
32 NAT IN 99.5 : 100.5 2
33 NAT IN 3463 : 3465 2
34 NAT IN 2.9 : 3.1 2
35 NAT IN 1.55 : 1.65 2
36 MCQ IN A 2
37 NAT IN 8:8 2
38 MCQ IN B 2
39 MCQ IN C 2
40 MCQ IN MTA 2
41 NAT IN 40 : 41 2
42 NAT IN 100 : 100 2
43 NAT IN 100 : 100 2
44 MCQ IN A 2
45 MCQ IN B 2
46 MCQ IN D 2
47 NAT IN 10 : 10 2
48 NAT IN 1: 1 2
49 NAT IN 199 : 201 2
50 NAT IN 10 : 10 2
51 NAT IN -2 : -2 ; 2 : 2 2
52 NAT IN 4.8 : 5.2 2
53 NAT IN 1.9 : 2.1 2
54 NAT IN 60.0 : 60.2 2
55 NAT IN 15 : 16 2

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