MEC132: Tutorial Sheet Fluids 3:

Major and Minor Losses

Covered in Semester 1: Week 10 lectures
1. What is the pressure loss down one kilometre of steel pipeline? The internal diameter of the
pipe is 40 cm and its roughness is that of structural steel. The mass flow rate is half a tonne
per second. For physical properties, assume that the fluid is unused engine oil at 10C.

1) As this uses a Moody diagram, we need to find out the velocity of the First of all we must look
flow, and the Reynolds number. up the properties in the
m 500 little book. Density
The velocity is C   = 4.45 m s-1.
A   0.4 2 893.7 kg m-3, viscosity
 893.7 1.819 kgm-1s-1
4
Now we have to find the friction factor f. This is based on the Reynolds
This is in the laminar
Cd 893  4.45  0.4
number: Re   = 875. As this less than 2000 region so we can ignore
 1.819 the roughness. We can
f=64/Re =0.07314 therefore either use
We can get an f of 0.073. with this, we can get the pressure loss for 1km f = 16/Re , or use the
of pipe Moody diagram.
l 1000
P  12 C 2   f = 12 893.7  4.45 2   0.073 = 157680Pa = 15.8 Bar
d 0.4

2. A ventilation system pumps air around a large building. One of the pipes is 84 metres long
and its internal diameter of 40 cm. Its roughness is that of coarse concrete. The pressure
drop down the pipe is 200 Pa. What is the volumetric flow rate down the pipe? Treat the fluid
as air at 100kPa and 300K assume the density is 1.2 kg m -3.
2) As this uses a moody diagram, we need to find out the friction factor of First of all we must look
the flow from the Reynolds number and the relative roughness. The up the properties in the
relative roughness is /d = 0.25/400 = 0.000625. little book. Density 1.2
As we do not know the velocity, we must guess a Reynolds number. kg m-3, viscosity
I usually try 105. 1.8610-5 kgm-1s-1.
Using these, we can get a friction factor from the Moody diagram of 0.02. Roughness for coarse
The velocity with this Reynolds number is thus (iteration 1): concrete is 0.25mm.
P d 200 0.4
C 1   1  = 8.91 ms-1. The Reynolds number
2  fl 2  1. 2 84  0.02
is now 230000. This will
We can now work out a Reynolds number based on this. not change the friction
Cd 1.2  8.91 0.4 factor appreciably, so
Re   = 230000.
 1.86 10 5
we can stop the
Using these, we can get a friction factor from the Moody diagram of iteration here (5%
0.018. The velocity with this Reynolds number is thus (iteration 2): change is good enough
P d 200 0.4 for these examples).
C 1   1  = 9.39 ms-1.
2  fl 2  1.2 84  0.018
When multiplied by the area of the pipe we get the flow rate
CA = 7.36  d 2 / 4  7.36    0.4 2 / 4 = 1.18 m3 s-1.
 3. A basic central heating system contains 8 radiators in series and has 40 metres of copper
pipe of 13mm internal diameter. The flow rate through the pipework is 6 litres per minute.
There are 15 sharp right-angled bends in the system. Assume that the pipe is smooth. The
entry and exit to each radiator can be deemed to be sudden with the area inside the radiator
four times that of the pipe.

a) What is the pressure loss in the system?

(35.0 kPa)
b) Which of these three pumps is the correct one for the job?
i. The Pumping Iron 1000 with a 10 m head,
ii. The Everwarm AX14C with a 5 m head,
iii. The Econopump 1.1 with a 3 meter head?

Q 0.006 / 60 The pressure loss is

3) a) Velocity = C =  = 0.752 ms-1.
A   0.0132 / 4 made out of two
Pipe friction. elements: the major
Cd 1000  0.752  0.013 losses from the pipe
Re   = 7465. fl
 0.00132 friction P  12 C 2 
d
As the pipe is smooth, we can use the Reynolds number and the Moody
and the minor losses
diagram to get a friction factor of 0.033.
from the fittings etc
fl 0.033  40
 = 101.5 P  k  12 C 2 . As both
d 0.013
Losses for fittings. of these have 12 C 2
A right angled bend has a k of 1.0 , so the kb for 15 of these is 15.0. terms, we will produce
2
 A   1
2 a total loss coefficient.
The entry losses for a sudden expansion is k  1  1   1    0.563
 A2   4  Using viscosities and
there are 8 of these, so the total ke for these is 4.5 . density from the little
Interpolating from the table in little book, the losses for a sudden book, (viscosity
contraction with d1/d2 of 0.5 is 0.33. There are 8 of these, so the total ke 1.3210-3 kg m-1 s-1,
for these is 2.64 . density 1000 kg m-3) we
The total pressure loss is produce a Reynolds
 fl  number.
P  12 C 2    k b  k e  k c   12  1000  0.752 2  101.6  15  4.5  2.6
d 
= 34976 Pa.

P 34976
b)In terms of head, this is h   3.56 metres, so we need
g 1000  9.81
to install the Everwarm AX14C pump.
 4.Air in a circular pipe at 970 mbar and 20C approaches a bell-mouth (loss coefficient, k=0.05)
at a velocity of 10 m s-1. The area after the bell-mouth is 1/4 the area before. After it has settled
down, the air goes through a diffuser whose exit area is the same as the original pipe. The
diffuser has an angle between the sides of the pipe of 20. Assume the density of the air is
1.2 kg m-3.

a) Construct a suitable diagram from the above information.

b) What is the pressure loss between bell-mouth and the diffuser? Use velocity in the
middle to calculate the losses. (432 Pa)
c) Using Bernoulli's equation with losses, calculate the pressure at a point between the
bell-mouth and the diffuser.
(96052 Pa)

4) We have to work out the pressure loss. The loss coefficient for
This will be based on P  k  12 C 2 where k is the combined loss the bellmouth is 0.05.
1
2
V  CD  2
P

coefficient.
With a velocity in the throat of 40 ms-1, the pressure loss is Flow
separation

P  0.45  12  1.2  40 2 = 432 Pa

Pressure

Contraction
Flow Pressure
down recovery as Flow down pipe

pipe
pipe Throat Diffuser flow settles (pressure lost)

b) Bernoulli's equation with losses is Using the little book, the

2  C 2  C1   g  z"  z1   P2  P1  Ploss  0
2 2
1 loss coefficient for a
So ignoring the potential term we get diffuser with this angle
P2  12  C12  C22   P1  Ploss  0
is 0.4. the total loss
coefficient is therefore
In this case, the losses are due to the nozzle alone. 0.45 . This is based on
P  0.05  12  1.2  402 the throat.
=48 Pa
So,
P2  12  1.210 2  40 2   97000  48  97000  900  48
By continuity, as the
area in the middle is 1/4
= 96052 Pa the area on either side
of the venturi, the
velocity in the middle
must be 4 times that on
the approach. C2 = 4C1.
 5. Water flows from the Redmires Reservoir at the end of Lodge Moor to the water treatment
plant at the bottom of the Rivelin valley. The pipe is a 50 cm diameter PVC one, which is 3.74km
long. The Reservoir is 143 metres above the water works. There are 7 sharp right angle and five
sharp 45 bends on the way. The entry and exit to the pipe are sharp and the areas of the
reservoir and treatment accumulator tank can be treated as infinite. What flow rate of water will
travel down the pipe?

5) The pressure driving the flow is provided by the head. This is Look up the properties
P  gh . of water in the little
For this case, P  gh  1000  9.81 143 = 1.403106 Pa. book. Density
The pressure loss is made out of the minor losses, and the major losses. 1000 kg m-3, viscosity
1.3210-3 kg m-1 s-1.
As these are both related to the dynamic head, 12  C 2 , the total pressure
 fl 
loss is P   k total    12 C 2
 d The k values for the
A sharp 90 bend has a k of 1.0 and a sharp 45 bend has a k of 0.3 the minor losses are found
kb for all the bends is therefore kb  7 1  5  0.3  8.5 from the little book.
2
 A   1
2

The expansion has a value of k e  1  1   1    1.0

 A2    
The contraction has a kc of 0.5.
The total loss coefficient for the minor losses is therefore
ktotal  kc  kb  ke = 8.5+1.0+0.5 = 10.
l
For the major loses P  12 C 2   f , we must find the friction factor f
d
from the Reynolds number and the relative roughness. Roughness for PVC is
The relative roughness of the pipe is therefore /d = 0.0025/500 = 510-6. 2.510-6.
As we do not know the velocity, we must guess a Reynolds number. I
usually try 105. Using these, the value of f with these is thus 0.018
We can now find the velocity based on this Reynolds number
P  fl  1.40  10 6  3740  0.018  2.8  10 3
C   k  k  k     10  
 d  1000  134.6  10
c b e
1
2  1
2
0.5 
= 4.40 ms-1. Using this and the
We can now work out a Reynolds number based on this. relative roughness, we
Cd 1000  4.45  0.5 can get a new friction
Re   = 1.67106.
 0.00132 factor from the Moody
The velocity with this Reynolds number is thus (iteration 2): diagram of 0.011.
P 1.40  10 6 The iteration gives a
 fl   3740  0.011  2.8  10 3
C   k  k  k e    10   = 20% change so keep
 2  1000 71.1  10
c b
1
2 d  1
 0.5  going.
5.51 ms-1.
We can now work out a Reynolds number based on this.
Cd 1000  5.86  0.5
Re   = 2.08106.
 0.00132
We get a new friction factor from the Moody diagram of 0.0105. The
velocity with this Reynolds number is thus (iteration 3):
 P  fl  1.40  10 6  4  3740  0.0105  2.8  10 3
C    k  k  k     10   2% change so we can
2  2  1000 68.8  10
c b e
1
d  1
 0.5 
stop the iteration.
= 5.62 ms-1.
The flow rate is C  A = 5.97  d 2 / 4  5.97    0.52 / 4
= 1.104 m3 s-1.

6. In the fluids research lab, there is a tank that can supply water to various experiments
(figure 1). All the pipes are smooth PVC.

Main
Tank
3
5 m
m Pressu
Transduc
re 4
Fill er
pip Discharge m
Pipe
e valv
e Measuring
scale
Pum
p
Drain Flang
5 e Valv
Pipe e
m
Measuring
storage Tank
tank

Figure 1: Constant head tank system

The discharge pipe is 50mm internal diameter and is 7 metres long. It has two sharp right
angled bends in it. There is a ball valve which can be assumed lossless. The top of the pipe is
submerged in the tank, and the outlet, which is 4 metres below the surface of the tank allows the
flow to exit to air. The tank is filled by a pump attached to a vertical 75mm diameter pipe of 5
metre length.

a) What is the maximum flow rate of water through the discharge pipe? (7.52 l s-1)
b) If the pump is designed to keep up with this flowrate, what pressure must this pump provide?
(53 kPa)
c) What power pump is required? (411 W)

6) a) 1
2  C 22  C12   g z 2  z1   P2  P1  Ploss  0 The best plan here is to
. use Bernoulli’s equation
As the pressure at both the top of the tank and the outlet is atmospheric, with losses:
then, P1=P2. Also, the initial velocity C1 is zero. The equation for this
2 C 2  g  z 2  z1   Ploss  0
1 2
The k values for the
problem thus becomes
minor losses are found
from the little book page
84.
A sharp 90 bend has a k of 1.0 so the kb for all the bends is 2. A
contraction with a diameter ratio of 0 has a kc of 0.5. The total loss Look up the properties
coefficient for the minor losses is therefore ktotal  kc  kb = 2.5. of water in the little
l book. Density
For the major loses P  12 C 2   f , we must find the friction factor f 1000 kg m-3, viscosity
d
1.3210-3 kgm-1s-1.
from the Reynolds number and the relative roughness. The relative
roughness of the pipe is therefore (mm) /d = 0.0025/50 = 510-5.
Roughness for PVC is
As we do not know the velocity, we must guess a Reynolds number. I
2.510-6(m).
usually try 105. Using these, the value of f is 0.018
 fl 
As 12 C22  g z 2  z1   Ploss  0 Ploss   k total    12 C 2 then
and  d
 fl  1 2
2 C 2  g  z 2  z1   
  k total  d   2 C   0 or
1 2

  
 fl 
1
2C 22 1  k total    g z 2  z1   0
 d
2 g z1  z 2  2  9.81 4 Using this and the
The velocity is C2   relative roughness, we
fl 0.018  7 = 3.61 ms-1.
1  ktotal  1  2.5  can get a new friction
d 0.05
factor from the Moody
We can now find the Reynolds number based on this velocity
diagram of 0.017.
Cd 1000  3.61 0.05
Re   = 1. 37105.
 0.00132
The velocity with this Reynolds number is thus (iteration 2):
2 g z1  z 2  2  9.81 4
C2   = 3.65 ms-1.
fl 4  0.0017  7
1  ktotal  1  2.5 
d 0.05
Further iteration hardly changes this number.
Flow rate is 𝑉 = 𝐶̇ × 𝐴 = 3.79d 2 / 4  3.83    0.052 / 4 = 0.00717 m3 s-1
=7.17 l s-1. Now, this requires the
b) 12  C 22  C12   g z 2  z1   Ploss  P Steady Flow Energy
.
Equation
 fl 
g z 2  z1   Ploss  g z 2  z1   12 C 2  k minor  
 d .
The velocity is Q/A = 0.00752 / (d2/4) = 1.702 ms-1.
The major loss part is from the 5 metre long, 75mm straight PVC pipe. (you can also do this
The relative roughness is 2/3 that for the 50mm pipe, 510-5. using area ratios)
Cd 1000  1.702  0.075
The Reynolds number is Re   =97290.
 0.00132
The minor loss portion
From the Moody diagram, this gives a friction factor of 0.018.
of Ploss is made up from
The pump pressure is therefore,
an expansion, and a
contraction, both with
𝟏. 𝟕𝟎𝟐𝟐 𝟎. 𝟎𝟏𝟖 × 𝟓 infinite reservoirs. From
𝒑 = 𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎 ((𝟗. 𝟖𝟏𝒙𝟓) + (𝟏. 𝟓 + ))
𝟐 𝟎. 𝟎𝟕𝟓 part a), we can state
that the loss coefficient
 = 1000(49.05 + 1.448(1.5 + 1.2)) will be 1 and 0.5
respectively. So the
= 52959.6 Pa = 53 kPa total kminor is 1.5.
c) Power = 𝑊̇ = 𝑉̇ ∆𝑝 = 0.00717 × 52959.6 = 379.72𝑊 = 380W

𝑝 𝑎𝑙𝑠𝑓ℎ𝑎𝑘𝑑𝑗𝑓ℎ𝑙𝑠𝑘𝐷𝐹
These last two questions are quite involved
= and its easy to make a mistake. Remember that
the minor and major losses need to both be part of the losses calculation to determine the
flow velocity, C.