Jimma University Specialized Teaching Hospital

Pharmacy department
Code

Choose the best answers and write then on the separate answer sheet.

1. Which of the following oral hypoglycaemic drugs stimulates both synthesis and release
of insulin from beta islet cells:
a) Glibenclamide c) Buformine
b) Phenformin d) Metformin
2. Dependence is often associated with tolerance to a drug, a physical abstinence
syndrome, and psychological dependence (craving). This consideration is:
a) True b) False
3. Local anesthetics produce:
a) Analgesia, amnesia, loss of consciousness
b) Blocking pain sensation without loss of consciousness
c) Alleviation of anxiety and pain with an altered level of consciousness
d) A stupor or somnolent state
4. Which one of the following local anesthetics produces short duration?
a) Lidocaine c) Ropivacaine
b) Procaine d) cocaine
5. 7. Which of the following cholinomimetics is commonly used in the treatment of
glaucoma?
a) Pilocarpine c) Acethylcholine
b) Lobeline d) Neostigmine
6. Rational anti-microbial combination is used to:
a. Provide synergism when microorganisms are not effectively eradicated with a
single agent
b. Provide broad coverage
c. Prevent the emergence of resistance
d. All of the above
7. All of the following drugs are antibiotics, EXCEPT:
a) Streptomycin c) Co-trimoxazole
b) Penicillin d) Chloramphenicol
8. Which of the following groups of antibiotics demonstrates a bactericidal effect?
a) Tetracyclines c) Penicillins
b) Macrolides d) All of the above
9. Bacteristatic effect is:
a) Inhibition of bacterial cell division c) Destroying of bacterial cells
b) Inhibition of young bacterial cells growth d) Formation of bacterial L-form
10. Tick the drug belonging to antibiotics-macrolides:
a) Neomycin c) Erythromycin
b) Doxycycline d) Cefotaxime
11. Tick the drug belonging to antibiotics-tetracyclines:
a) Doxycycline c) Clarithromycin
b) Streptomycin d) Amoxacillin
12. All of antibiotics are aminoglycosides, EXCEPT:
a) Gentamycin c) Clindamycin
b) Streptomycin d) Neomycin
13. Antibiotics inhibiting the bacterial cell wall synthesis are:
a) Beta-lactam antibiotics c) Aminoglycosides
b) Tetracyclines d) Macrolides
14. Which of the following drugs is a gastric acid resistant:
a) Penicillin G c) Carbenicillin
b) Penicillin V d) Procain penicillin
15. Pick out the beta-lactamase inhibitor for co-administration with penicillins:
a) Clavulanic acid c) Tazobactam
b) Sulbactam d) All of the above
16. Aminoglycosides are effective against:
a) Gram positive microorganisms, anaerobic microorganisms, spirochetes
b) Broad-spectum, except Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c) Gram negative microorganisms, anaerobic microorganisms
d) Broad-spectum, except anaerobic microorganisms and viruses
17. Aminoglycosides have the following unwanted effects:
a) Pancytopenia c) Ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity
b) Hepatotoxicity d) Irritation of gastrointestinal mucosa
18. Chloramphenicol has the following unwanted effects:
a) Nephrotoxicity c) Hepatotoxicity
b) Pancytopenia d) Ototoxicity
19. Which of the following drugs is used for systemic and deep mycotic infections
treatment:
a) Co-trimoxazol c) Amphotericin B
b) Griseofulvin d) Nitrofungin
20. All of the following antifungal drugs are antibiotics, EXCEPT:
a) Amphotericin B c) Myconazol
b) Nystatin d) Griseofulvin
21. Amfotericin B has the following unwanted effects:
a) Psychosis c) Hypertension, cardiac arrhythmia
b) Renal impairment, anemia d) Bone marrow toxicity
22. Sulfonamides are effective against:
a) Bacteria and Chlamidia c) Protozoa
b) Actinomyces d) All of the above
23. Combination of sulfonamides with trimethoprim:
a) Decreases the unwanted effects of sulfonamides
b) Increases the antimicrobial activity
c) Decreases the antimicrobial activity
d) Increases the elimination of sulfonamides
24. Tick the antimycobacterial drug, belonging to second-line agents:
a) Isoniazid c) Rifampin
b) PAS d) Streptomycin
25. Isoniazid has following unwanted effect:
a) Cardiotoxicity
b) Hepatotoxicity, peripheral neuropathy
c) Loss of hair d) Immunotoxicity
26. Combined chemotherapy of tuberculosis is used to:
a) Decrease mycobacterium drug-resistance
b) Increase mycobacterium drug-resistance
c) Decrease the antimicrobal activity
d) Decrease the onset of antimycobacterial drugs biotransformation:
27. Tick the antibacterial drug – a nitroimidazole derivative:
a) Clavulanic acid c) Nitrofurantoin
b) Metronidazole d) Doxycycline
28. Tick the antibacterial drug – a quinolone derivative:
a) Nitrofurantoin c) Streptomycin
b) Nalidixic acid d) Metronidazole
29. Tick the indications for nitrofuranes:
a) Infections of respiratory tract
b) Infections of urinary and gastro-intestinal tracts
c) Syphilis d) Tuberculosis
30. Tick the drug used for malaria chemoprophylaxis and treatment:
a) Chloroquine c) Quinine
b) Quinidine d) Sulfonamides
31. Tick the group of antibiotics having an antimalarial effect:
a) Aminoglycosides c) Carbapenems
b) Tetracyclins d) Penicillins
32. Tick the drug for the treatment of a hepatic form of amebiasis:
a) Diloxanide or iodoquinol c) Metronidazole
b) Tetracycline or doxycycline d) Erythromycin or azitromycin
33. Tick the drug of choice for herpes and cytomegalovirus infection treatment:
a) Saquinavir c) Didanozine
b) Interferon alfa d) Acyclovir
34. All of the following antiviral drugs are antiretroviral agents, EXCEPT:
a) Acyclovir c) Zalcitabine
b) Zidovudine d) Didanozine
35. Tick the drug used for HIV infection treatment, a derivative of nucleosides:
a) Acyclovir c) Gancyclovir
b) Zidovudine d) Trifluridine
36. Insulin is a polypeptide hence:
a) It is resistant to destruction by gastric juice
b) It is destroyed by gastric juice
c) It is not a polypeptide
d) It is metabolized immediately by cellular enzymes
37. Insulin causes reduction in blood sugar level by the following mechanisms, EXCEPT:
a) Increased glucose uptake in the peripheral tissue
b) Reduction of breakdown of glycogen
c) Diminished gluconeogenesis
d) Decreased glucose absorption from the gut
38. Insulin can not be administered by:
a) Oral route c) Subcutaneous route
b) Intravenous route d) Intramuscular route
39. Sources of human insulin production are:
a. Recombinant DNA techniques by inserting the proinsulin gene into E. coli or
yeast
b. Postmortem insulin extraction from human autopsy pancreas
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
40. Diabetic coma is treated by the administration of:
a) Lente insulin c) Crystalline insulin
b) Glucose d) Oral anti-diabetic drugs.
41. Which of the following is not a sterile product?
a) Ophthalmic preparations c) Parenteral products
b) Otic preparations d) None
42. Which of the following base is suitable for preparation ointments to be used on the dry
skin?
a) Hydrocarbon bases c) Water miscible bases
b) Water soluble bases d) Water washable bases
43. Which of the following route provide rapid onset of action?
a) IV route c) Intramuscular route
b) Oral route d) Buccal route
44. Which of the following products could be administered by IV route?
a) Suspension c) Solution
b) Water in oil emulsion d) all
45. Following oral administration, a drug is absorbed into the body, wherein it can exert its
action. For a drug given orally, the primary site of drug absorption is:
a) The esophagus b) The stomach
c) the small intestine d) The large intestine
46. Which one of the following statements is correct?
a) Weak bases are absorbed efficiently across the epithelial cells of the stomach.
b) Co-administration of atropine speeds the absorption of a second drug.
c) Drugs showing a large Vd can be efficiently removed by dialysis of the plasma.
d) Stressful emotions can lead to a slowing of drug absorption.
47. Which of the following method is used for preparation of ointments/pastes
a) Incorporation method c) Molding
b) Fusion method d) a and b
48. A 30 year old male suffering from cerebral edema will be best treated with:
a) Furosemide c) Manitol
b) Amiloride d) acetazolamide
49. 52. With prolonged use in seizure states, which of the following drugs can cause
coarsening of facial features, hirsutism, gingival hyperplasia and osteomalacia?
a) Valproic acid c) Ethosuximide
b) Carbamazepine d) Phenytoin
50. 53. All of the following drugs are proton pump inhibitors EXCEPT:
a) Pantoprozole c) Famotidine
b) Omeprazole d) Rabeprazole
51. One of the following is not the right Pharmaceutical procurement method
a) Open tender and /or Restricted tender
b) Competitive negotiation (negotiated procurement or local or inter shopping)
c) Direct procurement
d) None of the above
52. _____________ is the drug requisition to be sent to the immediate supplier and should
be prepared in triplicate
a) Purchase order c) Open tender
b) Lead time d) None of the above
53. One of the following is not true about Central Medical Stores system(CMS)
a) Drugs are procured and distributed by a centralized government unit and
Selection, procurement, and distribution are all handled by the government.
b) Drug Procurement office established contracts with drug suppliers and separate
contract negotiated with a single prime vendor, which warehouses and distributes
drugs to districts and facilities
c) It is a decentralized approach, government procurement office tenders to establish
prices and suppliers for each essential drug, but the suppliers deliver the drugs
directly to individual regional stores, district stores or major health facilities.
d) All of the above
54. One of the following is not part of Principles of Good Pharmaceutical Procurement
Practices
a) Procurement by generic name (INN)
b) procurement limited to Essential Drug List or formulary list
c) Procurement not in bulk
d) Competitive procurement
55. Identify the one which is not the Importance of drug quantification
a) To prepare and justify a drug budget and To optimize drug budgets & cost
effective treatment approaches.
b) To compare current drug consumption with public health priorities & usage
in other health systems.
c) All
d) None
56. The storage environment should possess the following except:
a) Adequate temperature and insufficient lighting.
b) Clean conditions.
c) Humidity control and Cold storage facilities.
d) Adequate shelving to ensure integrity of the stored drugs.
e) None
57. The following guidelines are for arranging drugs.
a) Shelves should not be made of steel or treated wood;
b) Shelves should be strong and robust.
c) Each dosage form of drug is arranged in separate and distinct areas.
d) All Except A
58. Correctly matched Storage temperature and environment
a) “…In a dry place”RH less than25%
b) “… Protect from heat”not more than 45oc
c) “… At room temperature” 0-15oc
d) “…In a cool place”8 to 15oc
59. What is the reason of complicated penetration of some drugs through brain-blood
barrier?
a) High lipid solubility of a drug
b) Meningitis
c) Absence of pores in the brain capillary endothelium
d) High endocytosis degree in a brain capillary

60. Conjugation of a drug includes the following EXCEPT:

a) Glucoronidation c) Hydrolysis
b) Sulfate formation d) Methylation

Good luck!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!