Biophysics Test Questions 2015 1016

Biophysics test questions
Simple choice
Please find the answer that correctly completes the initial statement listed in each problem, and write the
corresponding letter in the box. Only one answer is correct.
Relation analysis
Please find below pairs of statements. Select the proper description of the statements and write the
corresponding letter in the box.
A) Both statements are correct and the second statement explains the first one.
B) Both statements are correct but the second statement does not explain the first one.
C) The first statement is correct and the second one is wrong.
D) The first statement is wrong and the second one is correct.
E) Both statements are wrong.
01. Quantum physics

1. The total energy (power) of the thermal radiation emitted by a black body
does not depend on the temperature of the blackbody.
is proportional to the square of the blackbody's temperature.
✓ is proportional to the fourth power of the blackbody's temperature.
2. The total energy emitted by a black body at a given T temperature

does not depend on temperature.
is inversely proportional to temperature.
is proportional to the square of temperature.
is inversely proportional to the square of temperature.
✓ is proportional to the fourth power of temperature.
3. The Planck constant's dimension is

energy/time. (J/s)
✓ energy×time. (J×s)
energy/length. (J/m)
energy×length. (J*m)
energy. (J)
4. Planck's constant
has the dimension of energy. (Has same unit as energy.)
is proportional to the square root of the atomic number.
✓ can be determined from the frequency dependence of the kinetic energy of photoelectrons.
is equal to the ratio of the charge and the mass of the electron.
depends on the quantum efficiency of processes.
Biophysics test questions 1 of 67

5. What is the photoelectric effect?
The current passing through a resistor makes the resistor glow.
✓ Electrons are emitted from an illuminated metal surface.
A luminous phenomenon produced in discharge tubes.
Light emission of a zinc-sulphide screen, hit by electrons.
6. During the photoelectric effect

current is induced in illuminated metals.
the produced current is inversely proportional to the frequency of light.
✓ the energy of the absorbed photons partly covers the work function of ejected electrons.
ions are emitted from an alcali metal due to illumination.
positrons are emitted from electropositive elements.
7. Which of the following phenomena proves most unambiguously the particle nature of light?
✓ The photoelectric effect.
The interference of light.
The refraction of light.
The reflection of light.
The total (internal) reflection of light.
8. During the photoelectric effect the energy of the individual electrons emitted from the surface of a metal
is not influenced by
✓ the intensity of light.
the frequency of light.
the wavelength of light.
the photon-energy of light.
9. In the photoelectric effect the number of the electrons emitted from the illuminated metal surface
depends on
the frequency of light.
the wavelength of light.
✓ the intensity of light.
none of the above.
all of the above.
10. The kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted during photoelectric effect

✓ is not influenced by intensity of the illuminating light.
is not influenced by the frequency of the illuminating light.
is not influenced by the wavelength of the illuminating light.
is not influenced by any of the given factors.
is influenced by all of the given factors.
11. The velocity of photoelectrons emitted from an illuminated alkali metal depends on
the intensity of light.
✓ the wavelength of light.

both on the intensity and the wavelength of light.
12. In the experimental study of the photoelectric effect, the stopping potential (the potential that stops the
current)
increases if the intensity of light increases.
decreases if the intensity of light increases.
✓ increases if the frequency of light increases.
decreases if the frequency of light increases.
13. What does the dual nature of light mean?

Light has electric and magnetic components.
✓ Light has both wave and particle properties.
Light that passes through Calcite crystals is split into two distinct polarized beams.
Optically active materials can rotate the polarization plane of light either clockwise or counter
clockwise.
Light can be linearly or circularly polarized.
14. According to de Broglie's matter wave theory a wave can be assigned to any moving particle, the
wavelength of which is
directly proportional to the momentum of the particle.
directly proportional to the speed and inversely proportional to the mass of the particle.
directly proportional to the mass and inversely proportional to the speed of the particle.
✓ inversely proportional to the momentum of the particle.
15. According to the de Broglie formula

the energy of photons is hc/m.
the wavelength of an electron is proportional to its momentum (impulse).
✓ the wavelength of an electron is inversely proportional to its velocity.
the wavelength of electrically charged particles is proportional to their electric charge.
16. The de Broglie formula is a relationship between

✓ the momentum (impulse) and the corresponding wavelength of a particle.
the kinetic energy and the corresponding wavelength of a particle.
the momentum (impulse) and the corresponding velocity of a particle.
the momentum (impulse) and the corresponding kinetic energy of a particle.
the momentum (impulse) and the corresponding angular momentum of a particle.
17. What is the frequency of light the wavelength of which is 500 nm (the speed of light is 3×108 m/s)?
150 Hz.
600 Hz.
6×105 Hz.
5×106 Hz.
✓ 6×1014 Hz.
18. What is the wavelength of a light, the frequency of which is 5×1014 Hz (the speed of light is 3×108
m/s)?

1.5×1023 m.
1.6×106 m.
600 m.
1.5×10-6 m.
✓ 6×10-7 m.
6.6×10-24 m.
19. What kind of phenomenon proves most unambiguously the wave property of light?
✓ Interference.
Photoelectric effect.
Refraction of light.
Reflection of light.
Total (internal) reflection.
20. During the photoelectric effect

the atom emits infrared radiation.
the atom releases an electron and a positron.
✓ the atom is being ionized.
none of the statements are true.
21. In the experimental study of the photoelectric effect, the stopping potential (the potential that stops the
current)
increases if the intensity of light increases.
decreases if the intensity of light increases.
increases if the wavelength of light increases.
✓ decreases if the wavelength of light increases.
22. The photoelectric effect proves that

✓ light consists of photons.
light is an electromagnetic wave.
the electron has the smallest charge in nature.
ionization energy exists.
the energy of an atom is quantized.
23. The correct form of de Broglie’s formula is:

λ = h×p
p=λ×h
✓ λ = h/p
24. According to Wien's shift law the wavelength of the maximal emmission capacity of the blackbody is
independent of the absolute temperature.
proportional to the absolute temperature.
✓ inversely proportional to the absolute temperature.
inversely proportional to the square of the absolute temperature
proportional to the cube of the absolute temperature.

25. When the temperature of a body increases, the spectrum of the electromagnetic radiation emitted by the
body is shifted towards longer wavelengths, BECAUSE electromagnetic radiation of longer wavelength
consists of photons with higher energy. [E]
02. Atomic physics

26. The order of magnitude of the radius of an atom is
1 pm.
✓ 0.1 nm.
1 nm.
100 nm.
1 μm.
27. The discrete values of which physical parameter are defined by Bohr's first postulate?
The energy of the electron.
The momentum of the electron.
✓ The angular momentum of the electron.
The radius of the electron's orbit.
28. According to the Bohr model, the energy of an electron in the atom
is proportional to the principal quantum number.
is proportional to the square of the principal quantum number.
is inversely proportional to the principal quantum number.
✓ is inversely proportional to the square of the principal quantum number.
29. According to the Bohr model of the atom, the radius of the electron's orbit
is proportional to the fourth power of the principal quantum number.
✓ is proportional to the square of the principal quantum number.
is proportional to the principal quantum number.
is inversely proportional to the principal quantum number.
is inversely proportional to the square of the principal quantum number.
30. Which part of the atom the visible light originates from?
The nucleus.
The inner electron shells.
✓ The outer electron shells.
Both of the inner and outer electron shells.
Both of the inner electron shells and the nucleus.
31. The 2p electron orbital

charactizes only diatomic molecules
has the same principal quantum number as the 3p orbital.
has spherically symmetric electron density.

✓ can contain up to six electrons.
is the ground state of the eletrons in a He atom.
32. The total number of electronic states for a given principal quantum number (n) is
n(n + 1).
n2.
2n + 1.
✓ 2n2.
n(n + 1)2.
33. According to Heisenberg's principle the values of which quantity-pair can not be determined
simultaneously with any precision?
Energy and momentum.
✓ Position and momentum.
Position and time.
Momentum and time.
34. The "plum pudding" expression is attributed to

Ernest Rutherford.
James Franck.
✓ John Joseph Thomson.
Niels Bohr.
35. The Franck-Hertz experiment proves

Rutherford's theory.
✓ Bohr's theory.
Thomson's theory.
36. What is the electron-tube filled with, in the Franck-Hertz experiment?

Neon gas.
Hydrogen gas.
Water vapour.
✓ Mercury vapour.
37. What does the Azimuthal quantum number define?

Energy.
Momentum.
✓ Angular momentum.
38. The values of which quantity are defined by the spin quantum number?
Momentum.
✓ Angular momentum around its own axis.
Orbital angular momentum.
Energy.
39. What is the name of the electrons on the most outer electronic shell (with the largest principal quantum

number)?
Equivalent electrons.
✓ Valency electrons.
Spin electrons.
Normal electrons.
Auger electrons.
40. Light emitted by a glowing He-gas has continuous spectrum, BECAUSE light emission occurs
according to Bohr’s second postulate. [D]
03. Laser
41. Population inversion
can only be generated by laser light.
means that states with lower energies are more populated.
✓ can only be maintained at the expense of external energy input.
results in populations on different energy levels described by the Boltzmann-distribution.
42. The elements of the optical resonator are

coil and capacitor.
capacitor and resistance.
two lenses.
✓ two mirrors.
43. The distance of mirrors for an optical resonator is

an integer multiple of the frequency of light.
an integer multiple of the wavelength of light.
an integer multiple of the half frequency of light.
✓ an integer multiple of the half wavelength of light.
44. The distance of the resonator mirrors in a 632-nm He-Ne laser tube is
31.6 nm.
63.2 nm.
632 nm.
✓ 31.6 cm.
45. What is coherence?

The beam is convergent.
The beams are parallel.
The energy of the beam is concentrated into a small point.
The energy of the beam is concentrated into a very short-time pulse.
✓ Different points of the beam are in phase.
46. What is the temporal coherence?

The phase identity at the beam's cross section.
Spectral bandwidth.
✓ The phase identity of photons emitted at different time.
Opportunity to operate lasers in pulse-mode.
Polarisation.
47. Hologram has the property that

it can be produced only by a laser light at specific wavelengths.
the whole holographic plate is needed to reproduce the 3D image.
Both of the above are true.
✓ None of the above is true.
48. The energy required for pumping a laser can be provided by

electric discharge.
intensive illumination.
✓ any of the two.
none of the two.
49. What was the active material of the first laser made in 1960?
Helium.
Argon.
✓ Ruby.
Thallium.
50. The acronym LASER stands for

light absorption by induced emission of radiation.
amplification of radiation by stimulated extinction of rays.
✓ light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation.
light absorbtion by spontaneous emission of radiation.
51. The probability of spontaneous emission compared to stimulated emission (from laser levels) is
very large.
the same.
✓ very small.
zero.
52. What is the spatial coherence?

Phasenumber of the surface.
✓ Phase identity at the beam cross section.
The beam is polarised.
The divergency is low.
53. Example of laser application in medicine:

Ophthalmology.
Dentistry.
Surgery.

✓ All of the above.
None of the above.
04. X-rays
54. X-rays
are dim light rays of green color.
are produced by fluorescence.
✓ are invisible electromagnetic radiations.
can be focused by metallic mirrors.
have a wavelength of a few hundred nanometers.
55. X-rays can have a wavelength in the range of

✓ 1 Å (10-10 m).
100 nm.
1 μm.
1 mm.
1 cm.
1 m.
56. X-ray differs from visible light in that

its speed is greater.
its wavelength is longer.
✓ its frequency is higher.
it cannot produce diffraction.
it is generated in the atomic nucleus.
57. If the accelerating voltage increases, the cutoff-wavelength (λmin) of the generated X-ray
increases.
does not change.
✓ decreases.
decreases to a limit, then it does not change.
increases to a limit, then it does not change.
58. When increasing the current in the cathode of an X-ray tube

the energy of X-ray photons will increase.
✓ the intensity of X-ray radiation will increase.
the wavelength of X-ray radiation will increase.
the penetrating power of X-ray will increase.
59. By changing the current flowing through the X-ray cathode, one can control the X-ray radiation's
✓ intensity.
wavelength.
temperature.

frequency.
60. The speed of the electrons arriving to the anode of the X-ray tube is
proportional to the square of the accelerating voltage.
✓ proportional to the square root of the accelerating voltage.
inversely proportional to the accelerating voltage.
inversely proportional to the square root of the accelerating voltage.
61. The kinetic energy of the electrons arriving to the anode of the X-ray tube is
✓ linearly proportional to the accelerating voltage.
proportional to the square root of the accelerating voltage.
inversely proportional to the accelerating voltage.
inversely proportional to the square root of the accelerating voltage.
62. Based on an X-ray spectrum one can identify

the material of the cathode.
✓ the material of the anode.
the gas filling the X-ray tube.
63. The line (peak) positions of the characteristic X-ray spectrum depend on
✓ the material of the anode.
the gas within the X-ray tube.
the temperature of the cathode.
the accelerating voltage.
64. The source of characteristic X-ray radiation in the atom is

the nucleus.
✓ the inner electron shells.
the outer electron shell.
both in the outer electron shell and the nucleus.
65. The production of the characteristic X-rays

is related to the outer electron shell.
✓ is related to inner electron shells.
is related to both outer and inner electron shells.
is not related to electron shells.
66. The frequency of braking X-ray radiation (Brehmsstrahlung) depends on

✓ the accelerating voltage.
the lenght of the X-ray tube.
the temperature of the anode.
67. The photoeffect, in case of the interaction of X-rays and gamma-rays with the matter, results in
emission of infrared radiation.

production of an electron-positron pair.
✓ ionization of the atom.
annihilation of an electron.
68. Increasing the cathod-current of an X-ray tube one can increase

the hardness of X-rays.
✓ the intensity of X-rays.
the wavelength of X-rays.
the penetration power of X-rays.
the frequency of X-rays.
69. The X ray is different from other electromagnetic wave, besause

its propagation speed is different.
its wavelength is longer.
can not be diffracted.
it is generated in the nucleus.
✓ the mentioned statements are not true.
70. The speed of propagation of X-rays is greater than that of visible light BECAUSE the frequency of
X-rays is greater than that of visible light. [D]
71. The frequency of the Kβ characteristic X-ray peak for a given atom is higher than that of the Kα peak,
BECAUSE the energy difference is higher between the K-M shells than between K-L shells. [A]
72. During generation of X-rays characteristic radiation is always preceded by the emission of a braking
X-ray photon, BECAUSE only slow electrons are able to hit electrons found on inner shells. [E]
73. The spectrum of braking X-ray radiation consists of a single well-defined frequency line, BECAUSE
the electrons gain an identical kinetic energy during acceleration. [D]
74. The wavelenght of characteristic X-rays are always smaller than the wavelength limit, BECAUSE the
accelerating voltage determines the maximum energy of X-ray photons. [D]
75. The wavelenght of characteristic X-ray spectral lines does not depend on what kind of chemical
compound the given metal is part of in the anode, BECAUSE chemical bonds are created by outer
electronshells. [A]
05. X-ray diffraction

76. During X-ray diffraction measurements the monocryrstal sample is usually rotated,
because this will decrease the effective size of the crystal lattice.
because this will increase the intensity of the scattered radiation.
✓ to find the position where the Laue conditions are fulfilled.
because this will increase the resolution of the method.

77. How will an X-ray diffraction image of an atomic grid change, if the distance between the atoms
decreases?
The distance between diffraction maxima decreases.
✓ The distance between diffraction maxima increases.
The intensity of diffraction maxima decreases.
The intensity of diffraction maxima increases.
The whole diffraction image will be rotated.
78. The resolution of X-ray diffraction can be increased by

increasing the wavelength of the used X-ray radiation.
✓ decreasing the wavelength of the applied X-ray radiation.
decreasing the energy of the X-ray radiation.
decreasing the temperature of the sample.
06. Nuclear physics, radioactivity

79. How does the neutron/proton ratio change with increasing atomic mass number?
It decreases.
It does not change.
✓ It increases.
80. The strong interaction between nucleons

✓ does not depend on the (electric) charge.
has a high range.
may be attractive or repulsive.
follows the 1/r2 distance dependence.
81. What is the definition of total binding energy of a nucleus?

✓ The energy needed to break the nucleus down into free protons and neutrons.
The energy calculated with the E=mc2 formula, where m is the total mass of the protons in the
nucleus, and c is the speed of light.
The energy calculated with the E=mc2 formula, where m is the total mass of the nucleons in the
nucleus, and c is the speed of light.
The energy emitted during negative beta-decay.
The energy released during the emission of gamma radiation.
82. The absolute (positive) value of the binding energy per nucleon
✓ has its maximum in the case of an iron nucleus.
is directly proportional to the mass number.
is inversely proportional to the mass number.
is a periodic function of the mass number.
does not depend on the mass number.

83. A radioactive sample has 10 Bq (Becquerel) activity, its decay rate is
10 decays / min.
✓ 10 decays / second.
10 decays / hour.
1 decay / 10 seconds.
1 decay / 10 min.
84. The radioactive decay probability per unit time

is greater than one.
✓ is positive, but smaller than one.
can have any value.
can only be zero or one.
is always an even number.
85. The decay probability of radioactive nuclei

is influenced by an external high-frequency magnetic field.
is influenced by external pressure.
is influenced by temperature.
is influenced by the oxygen content of the medium.
✓ is not influenced at all by external physical conditions.
86. The number of decayed nuclei per unit time in a radioactive sample depends on
the temperature.
the external pressure.
✓ the number of radioactive nuclei in the sample.
the external magnetic field.
the external electric field.
87. What is the relationship between the rate constant of the radioactive decay and half-life (time)?
Greater rate constant corresponds to longer half-life.
✓ Greater rate constant corresponds to shorter half-life.
They are not related to each other.
88. What is the relationship of half-life and average lifetime of a radioactive nuclei?
No relation (they are independent of each other).
✓ They are linearly proportional to each other.
They are inversely proportional to each other.
They depend on each other according to another function.
89. The half-life of a radioactive material

is the same as the average lifetime of the radioactive nuclei.
is always longer than the average lifetime of the radioactive nuclei.
✓ is always shorter than the average lifetime of the radioactive nuclei.
can be longer or shorter than the average lifetime of the radioactive nuclei.

90. If the half-life of a radioactive material is 1 day, in what time will the number of radioactive nuclei
become zero?
0,5 day.
1 day.
2 days.
4 days.
✓ A very long time.
91. After 9 (nine) half-lives the number or radioactive nuclei decays to

the 64th.
the 256th.
✓ the 512th.
the 1024th.
the 2048th of the initial number.
92. Alpha-radiation is composed of

electrons.
positrons.
✓ helium nuclei.
photons.
neutrons.
protons.
93. Negative beta-radiation is composed of

✓ electrons.
positrons.
helium nuclei.
photons.
neutrons.
protons.
94. Positive beta-radiation is composed of

electrons.
✓ positrons.
helium nuclei.
photons.
neutrons.
protons.
95. Gamma-radiation consists of

electrons.
positrons.
helium nuclei.
✓ photons.

neutrons.
protons.
96. Which one of the following statements is true?

Alpha-radiation is composed of helium-atoms.
Negative beta-radiation is composed of photons.
✓ Positive beta-radiation is composed of positrons (anti-electrons).
Gamma-radiation is composed of neutrons.
X-rays are composed of electrons.
97. Which part of the atom the gamma-radiation originates from?

✓ The nucleus.
The inner electron shells.
The outer electron shells.
Both in the inner electron shells and the nucleus.
98. Gamma-radiation
is generated when fast electrons are decelerated.
✓ is an electromagnetic wave of nuclear origin.
consists of electrically neutral particles which can be deflected by magnetic field.
is generated by transitions between two energy states of internal electron orbits.
99. Which of the following statements is true?

The alpha-, beta- and gamma-radiations all have continuous energy spectrum.
The alpha-, beta- and gamma-radiations all have line type energy spectrum.
The energy spectra of the alpha- and beta-radiation are continuous, while that of the gamma-radiation
is a line spectrum.
The energy spectra of the alpha- and gamma-radiation are continuous, while that of the beta-radiation
is a line spectrum.
✓ The energy spectrum of the beta-radiation is continuous, while those of the alpha- and gamma-
radiation are line spectra.
100. The mass number of the nucleus

✓ decreases by 4 in the case of alpha-radiation.
decreases by 1 (one) in the case of positive beta-radiation.
increases by 1 (one) in the case of negative beta-radiation.
101. During the emission of negative beta-radiation the atomic number

increases by two.
✓ increases by one.
does not change.
decreases by one.
decreases by two.
102. During the emission of negative beta-radiation the mass number

increases by two.

increases by one.
✓ does not change.
decreases by one.
decreases by two.
103. During the emission of positive beta-radiation the atomic number

increases by two.
increases by one.
does not change.
✓ decreases by one.
decreases by two.
104. During electron capture (K-capture) the atomic number

increases by two.
increases by one.
does not change.
✓ decreases by one.
decreases by two.
105. Electron capture (K-capture)

is accompanied by positron-emission.
is accompanied by proton-emission.
is accompanied by neutron-emission.
✓ is accompanied by emission of characteristic X-rays.
is not accompanied by any radiation.
106. For isotopes it is true that

they are radioactive variants of elements.
the are low binding energy variants of elements.
their mass decreases during radioactive decay.
they contain an even number of nucleons.
✓ they cannot be distinguished chemically.
107. Which is the correct form of the radioactive decay law (N0 = original number of radioactive nuclei, N
= number of radioactive nuclei after time t, T = half-life)?
N=N0×et/T
N=N0×e–t/T
N=N0×2t/T
✓ N=N0×2–t/T
108. The order of magnitude of the radius of the atomic nucleus

✓ 1 fm (10-15 m).
1 pm (10-12 m).
1 Å (10-10 m).
1 nm.

1 μm.
1 mm.
109. The stability rule of the atomic nucleus based on the shell-model:
there are more stable atomic nucleus with uneven (odd) atomic number, than with even atomic
number.
✓ there are more stable atomic nucleus with even neutron number, than with uneven neutron number.
there are more stable atomic nucleus with uneven mass number, than even mass number.
stable atomic nucleus with uneven mass number has generally even atomic number.
there are only two stable atomic nucleus wherein proton number is bigger than neutron number.
110. Neutrons are not capable of transforming nuclei, BECAUSE due to their negative charge they cannot
enter the nucleus of an atom. [E]
111. The decay rate of a radioactive sample cannot be influenced, BECAUSE radioactive decay probability
does not depend on external conditions. [A]
112. The average binding energy per one nucleon increases continuously with increasing atomic mass
number, BECAUSE the number of nucleons increases with the increase of the mass number. [D]
113. The linear absorption coefficient and the thickness of half-value layer are directly proportional to each
other, BECAUSE their product is constant. [D]
114. The decay probability per unit time of radioactive nuclei increases with time, BECAUSE the number
of undecayed nuclei decreases. [D]
115. The relative number of neutrons is larger in heavy nuclei, BECAUSE the binding energy per one
nucleon plotted versus the mass number has a maximum. [B]
116. An X-ray and a gamma photon with identical wavelengths differ only in their energy, BECAUSE both
are electromagnetic radiations. [D]
117. The half-life does not characterize the radioactive isotope, BECAUSE it is directly proportional to the
radioactive decay constant. [E]
07. Interaction of radiation with matter

118. The absorption of X-rays depends on
the atomic number of the absorber.
the density of the absorber.
the wavelength of X-ray radiation.
✓ all the above parameters.
119. Tha absorption of the X-rays does not depend on

the material of the absorber.

the wavelength of X-rays.
✓ the duration of the radiation.
the thickness of the absorber.
120. How does the linear ion density of alpha-radiation depends on the thickness of the absorber?
Increases linearly.
Decreases linearly.
✓ It is constant at first, then it increases steeply and finally it suddenly decreases.
It is constant at first, reaches a minimum, finally it increases.
It changes periodically.
121. Pair production can take place if a photon gets close to an atom and its energy is
arbitrary.
✓ minimum 1.02 MeV.
minimum 0.9 MeV.
maximum 1.4 MeV.
maximum 1.02 MeV.
122. The intensity of a radioactive radiation should be decreased by an absorber to approx. 1/1000 of the
original intensity. How many times wider layer than the half-value layer must be used?
4.
5.
9.
✓ 10.
The attenuation does not depend on the absorber thickness.
123. The range of alpha radiation in air is about

1 cm.
✓ 10 cm.
100 cm.
124. The photoeffect as the interaction of X-rays or gamma-rays with matter results in
emission of infrared radiation.
production of an electron-positron pair.
✓ ionization of the atom.
annihilation of an electron.
125. During the photoelectric effect the gamma-photon

interacts with the nucleus.
interacts with an outer-shell electron.
✓ interacts with an inner-shell electron.
interacts with an arbitrary electron.
126. The Compton effect is

the interaction of gamma-photons with the atomic nucleus.
production of gamma-photons during the annihilation of an electron-positron pair.

✓ scattering of photons on the outer electronic shells of an atom.
ejection of electrons from the surface of an illuminated metal.
scattering of electrons on the outer electronic shells of an atom.
127. The particles produced during pair production are

alpha- and beta-particle.
proton and neutron.
✓ electron and positron.
proton and electron.
128. Which one of the following formulas is used to calculate the minimum photon energy needed for pair
production (m = mass of the electron, v = speed of the electron, c = speed of light)?
E = 0.5 mc2
E = 0.5 mv2
E = mc2
E = mv2
✓ E = 2mc2
E = 2mv2
129. What is the minimum energy of a photon that can cause pair production?
0.75 MeV.
1.00 MeV.
0.95 MeV.
✓ 1.02 MeV.
1.32 MeV.
130. What type of radiation is produced during annihilation?

Neutron radiation.
Electron- and positron radiation.
✓ Electromagnetic radiation.
Positive beta-radiation.
Negative beta-radiation.
131. The density of ions in air (number of ions/cm) produced by the alpha-radiation
decreases exponentially along the trajectory of the particle.
decreases linearly along the trajectory of the particle.
is the greatest at the beginning of the particle's trajectory.
✓ is the greatest close to the end of the particle's trajectory.
132. The range of alpha radiation in air is

a few tenths of millimeters.
a few millimeters.
✓ a few centimeters.
a few meters.
133. The range of alpha radiation in soft tissue is

✓ a few tenths of millimeters.
a few millimeters.
a few centimeters.
a few meters.
134. The specific ionization of the gamma-radiation in air

✓ 1 pair of ions / cm.
10 pair of ions / cm.
The gamma-radiation does not cause ionization.
135. If, for a radioactive substance, the physical and biological half-lives are both 1 day, then the effective
half-life is 0,5 day, BECAUSE in this case the amount of radioactive substance decreases to zero in 1 day.
[C]
136. The intensity of beta-radiation decreases exponentially with the absorbent thickness, BECAUSE the
beta-particle originates from the electronic shells. [C]
137. The ionization capacity of beta-radiation is greater than that of the alpha- or gamma-radiation,
BECAUSE contrary to alpha- or gamma-radiation, the beta-radiation originates from the electronic shell,
not from the atomic nucleus. [E]
138. The two gamma-photons produced during annihilation travel in directions making an angle of 180º,
because the law of energy conservation holds for this process. [B]
139. The two gamma-photons produced during annihilation travel in directions making an angle of 180°,
BECAUSE the law of conservation of momentum holds for this process. [A]
140. The penetrating ability of alpha-radiation is higher than that of beta-radiation, BECAUSE, unlike
beta-particles, alpha-particles are neutral. [E]
141. Alpha-radiation is absolutely harmless under any conditions, BECAUSE even a few centimeters of air
absorbs it. [D]
142. The range of the alpha-radiation is small, BECAUSE the energy of alpha-radiation is discrete. [B]
143. The range of the alpha-radiation is relatively short, BECAUSE the lifetime of alpha-particles is very
short. [C]
144. The specific ionization of alpha-radiation is smaller than that of beta-radiation, BECAUSE alpha
radiation has a line spectrum, while beta-radiation has a continuous spectrum. [B]
145. Alpha-radiation can be absorbed by a few centimeters of air, BECAUSE it loses its energy on a short
distance because of its large specific ionization. [A]

08. Radiation biology
146. The effective half-life of a radioactive substance
is longer than the physical half life in the case of slow excretion.
✓ is practically the same as the biological half-life in the case of very long physical half-life.
is independent of the metabolic activity.
is a linear function of the physical half-life.
is an exponential function of the physical half-life.
147. When the physical and biological half-lives of a radioactive material are both 2 days, the effective
half-life is
0.5 day.
✓ 1 day.
2 days.
4 days.
148. When the physical and biological half-lives of a radioactive material are both 1 day, the effective
half-life is
✓ 0,5 day.
1 day.
2 days.
4 days.
149. Following irradiation the number of surviving objects

increases exponentially with increasing dose.
✓ decreases exponentially with increasing dose.
increases linearly with increasing dose.
decreases linearly with increasing dose.
150. The order of tissues according to their decreasing radiation resistance

lymphoid tissue, gametes, nervous tissue, blood vessels.
blood vessels, gametes, lymphoid tissue, nervous tissue.
✓ lymphoid tissue, gametes, blood vessels, nervous tissue.
nervous tissue, gametes, lymphoid tissue, blood vessels.
gametes, lymphoid tissue, blood vessels, nervous tissue.
151. Based on the value of D37 one can determine

✓ the volume of the radiosensitive site.
the activity of the radioactive sample.
the concentration of free radicals formed due to the radiation.
the charge produced by the radiation in the volume unit.
152. At the same irradiation in a more dilute solution a higher fraction of enzyme molecules are damaged,
BECAUSE the number of free radicals per enzyme molecule is higher in a more dilute solution than in a
more concentrated one. [A]

153. When irradiating an enzyme solution of lower concentration, a lower proportion of enzyme molecules
are inactivated, BECAUSE less enzyme molecules are directly hit by the particles of the radiation. [D]
154. After a certain limit the effect of a radioactive radiation cannot be enhanced by dilution, BECAUSE
the extra free radicals generated due to further dilution are recombined with high probability before they
can reach the biological objects. [A]
155. The KERMA (kinetic energy released in material) is always greater than the absorbed dose,
BECAUSE the produced secondary radiation cannot leave the given volume element. [E]
156. Identical exposures of any type of nuclear radiation produce the same biological effect BECAUSE the
biological effect is closely related to the specific ionization. [D]
157. The radiation resistance volume is proportional to the D37 value, BECAUSE the D37 is the dose at
which 37% of the individuals will survive. [D]
158. Stochastic radiation has a threshold dose, BECAUSE the radioactivity-caused diseases (e.g. cancers,
lymphomes) and genetic impairments of the descendants do not occur at all below a given dose. [E]
159. The idea of equivalent dose allows the comparison of the biological effect of different ionising
radiation types, BECAUSE it applies the same qualitative factor for all radiation types. [C]
160. The absorbtion of different ionising radiation types gives the same biological effect, BECAUSE the
biological effect depends only on the parameters of the metabolism. [E]
09. Thermodynamics
161. Which of the following quantities is not extensive?
Mass.
Volume.
✓ Temperature.
Internal energy.
Entropy.
162. Which of the thermodynamic quantities listed below is NOT a state function?
Entropy.
Enthalpy.
Gibbs free energy.
Internal energy.
✓ Heat exchange of a system.
163. What type of thermodynamic system is the living organism?

✓ Open.
Closed.

Isolated.
Adiabatic.
164. A thermodynamic system can be considered as open system,

if the value of the intensive quantities is independent of space and time.
if its mass is constant.
if it exchanges only energy with its environment.
✓ if it can exchange material and energy with its environment.
if it can exchange any kind of energy with its environment except material and heat.
165. According to the second law of thermodynamics

✓ heat is transported spontaneously only from a region of higher to a region of lower temperature.
it is possible to approach the absolute zero temperature with unlimited accuracy.
refrigerators can operate without energy input.
the efficiency of heat engines is greater than that of electric motors.
166. Entropy
is not a state function.
is directly proportional to the thermodynamic probability.
increases if the order in the system increases.
decreases during irreversible processes.
✓ does not change during reversible processes.
167. Which of the following processes is accompanied by the decrease of the entropy of the system?
Dissolution.
Evaporation.
✓ Freezing.
Expansion of a gas.
168. The change of Gibbs free energy (free enthalpy)

is zero in spontaneous processes.
is defined only for reversible processes and depends on the internal energy of the system.
✓ determines the direction of spontaneous processes at constant pressure and temperature.
is positive in case of spontaneous processes.
169. The enthalpy of a system

is always lower than its internal energy.
✓ is a state function.
can be changed only by heat exchange.
increases in spontaneous processes.
170. The value of an intensive quantity

depends on which part of the system it is measured in.
depends only on the mass of the system.
✓ equalizes when systems are united.
is a function of the volume of the system.

171. The heat capacity at constant volume (Cv)
is always higher than the heat capacity at constant pressure.
✓ defines the change of internal energy corresponding to unit change of temperature (1 K).
does not depend on the gas type.
does not depend on the mass.
172. In spontaneous processes the change of entropy

✓ is always positive.
is always negative.
results in increase of order.
depends only on the temperature of the initial state.
173. The classical thermodynamics is not able to describe

reversible processes.
the equilibrium conditions of a system.
the energy change of a system.
✓ the time course of processes.
the direction of processes.
174. Which of the following statements applies to reversible processes?

✓ The work done by the system is the greatest.
The work done on the system is the greatest.
To restore the original state one needs more energy than that released during the process.
The efficiency of the process is always 100%.
175. Which law of thermodynamics defines the direction of processes occuring in nature?
The zeroth law.
The first law.
✓ The second law.
The third law.
None of the above.
176. Thermodynamic probability

is directly proportional to mathematical probability.
is inversely proportional to mathematical probability.
is the ratio of the number of favorable cases and all cases.
✓ is the number of microstates corresponding to a given macrostate.
is always smaller than one.
177. During a phase transformation caused by heating

the degrees of freedom will not increase.
the new state's specific heat may remain equal to the intial state's specific heat.
volume increases.
✓ the temperature stays constant until the end of phase transition.
the kinetic energy of the molecules increases.

178. According to the 2nd law of thermodynamics during any process the total entropy of the universe
increases.
remains constant.
✓ increases or remains constant.
decreases.
All three are possible.
179. Find the forward reaction (involving gases) that results in pressure increase, if the process occurs in
closed reaction chamber.
A + B → AB
A+B→C+D
2A + B → C + 2D
✓ AC → A + C
180. What type of reaction produces heat?

Thermic.
Endothermic.
✓ Exothermic.
Thermogenic.
Adiabatic.
181. Spontaneus state changes in a closed system are possible until the entropy reaches a minimum,
BECAUSE, if the entropy of a closed system is minimal, the system is in equilibrium. [E]
10. Diffusion
182. The random molecular motion (free path) of a particle in a substance is the longest when the
substance is
solid.
liquid.
frozen.
✓ gas.
183. Diffusion is driven by

electric forces, because diffusing particles must be electrically charged.
the chemical interaction between the particles.
the velocity gradient between different sliding liquid layers.
✓ the random thermal motion of molecules (Brownian motion).
the pressure difference between the upper and lower parts of the experimental chamber.
184. Diffusion occurs

under the effect of an electric field.
under the effect of chemical interactions between the particles.

between sliding liquid layers moving with different velocities.
✓ as a result of random thermal motion of the particles.
if there is a pressure difference between the two ends of a flow canal.
185. Diffusion process in time can be described by

van't Hoff's law.
the universal gas law (equation).
✓ the 2nd law of Fick.
the 3rd law of Fick.
Stokes's law.
186. The diffusion constant provides information about

the viscosity of the diffusing particles.
✓ the mobility of the diffusing particles.
the density of the medium.
the chemical composition of the medium.
the attractive forces between the molecules of the medium.
187. The diffusion constant

does not depend on the shape of the molecules.
is only defined for spherical particles.
✓ depends on the temperature.
depends on the hydrostatic pressure in the medium.
188. By knowing the value of the diffusion constant, we also have an exact estimate about
the charge of the molecule.
the viscosity of the molecule.
the size of the molecule.
the specific charge of the molecule (the ratio of charge and mass).
the temperature of the molecule.
✓ None of the above options is true.
189. During equalization of concentration differences the diffusion constant

increases.
decreases to a value higher than zero.
decreases to zero.
✓ does not change.
190. What does the concentration gradient term mean?

A synonym for diffusion.
✓ The ratio of concentration difference over the distance between two points of the system.
High concentration in a particular point of the system.
Low concentration in a particular point of the system.
191. Simple diffusion is defined as

✓ the movement of molecules from areas of higher concentration to areas of lower concentration.

the movement of molecules from areas of lower concentration to areas of higher concentration.
movement of water molecules across a membrane.
movement of gas molecules across a membrane.
movement of gas or water molecules across a membrane.
192. What is the term used to describe the flow of particles from higher to lower concentrations?
✓ Diffusion.
Equilibrium.
Active transport.
Osmosis.
193. The process of simple diffusion

✓ occurs because of the random thermal movement of particles.
requires energy if occurrs across a membrane.
proceeds in the direction from lower to higher concentrations of the diffusing particle.
None of the mentioned statements.
194. What is the relationship between the magnitude of the concentration difference and the rate of
diffusion?
inverse proportionality
✓ direct (linear) proportionality
there is no correlation
it depends on the volume of the solution
195. What is the meaning of the diffusion constant?

The increase of concentration in unit volume induced by the change of temperature with 1 K.
✓ The amount of material diffusing through a unit surface in a unit time if the concentration
difference is also unit.
The change of concentration in defined time at the given temperature.
The number or molecules diffusing in unit volume in unit time if the decrease of temperature is unit
(1 K).
196. The diffusion coefficient

decreases when the viscosity of the medium decreases.
does not depend on the viscosity of the medium.
✓ increases when the molecules are smaller.
is not influenced by the size of molecules.
197. The II. law of Fick

states that the change of the internal energy is the sum of the heat distributed to the system and the
work done on system.
considers the concentration change only in space.
considers the concentration change only in time.
✓ considers the change of concentration in both space and time.
198. The diffusion time

is inversely proportional to the square root of the distance.
✓ is directly proportional to the square of the distance.
does not correlate with the distance.
is inversely proportional to the square of the distance.
199. Which of the following affects the rate of the diffusion?

The temperature.
The size of diffusing molecules.
The steepness (vaue) of the concentration gradient.
✓ Each of the above.
200. Diffusion can occur only in gases and liquids, BECAUSE in solids the atoms can perform only
oscillatory motion. [E]
201. Diffusion is very fast in some centimeters distance, BECAUSE the diffusion time is inversely
proportional to the square of the distance. [E]
202. Diffusion is very fast in some centimeters distance, BECAUSE the diffusion time increases with the
increase of the distance. [D]
203. Diffusion is quite fast till the distance of 100 micrometer, BECAUSE the diffusion time is directly
proportional to the square of the distance. [A]
204. According to the Einstein-Stokes law the viscosity has influence on the diffusion constant, BECAUSE
in a more viscous environment the diffusion constant is higher than in a less viscous fluid. [C]
205. The diffusion constant is not dependent on the shape of the molecules, BECAUSE the diffusion is the
result of random thermal motion of the particles. [D]
206. The Brownian motion is the visible result of the random thermal motion of the particles, BECAUSE
the particles can perform thermal motion only in fluids. [C]
207. In the case of thermal equilibrium the diffusion process will stop, BECAUSE the diffusion is
influenced only by the temperature. [E]
208. Fick's II. law can describe all of the diffusion processes, BECAUSE it takes into account both the
time and space dependence of the concentration of particles. [A]
209. Fick's I. law describes all of the diffusion processes, BECAUSE the concentration of the molecules
can change in time and space as well. [D]
11. Osmosis
210. During osmosis
a higher pressure develops in the compartment containing only the solvent.
there is a net fluid flow from the higher to the lower concentration compartment.

the solute concentration equilibrates by the motion of the solute particles.
✓ the more concentrated solution becomes diluted.
the temperature difference between the compartments results in heat transport.
211. Osmosis can occur only when

the concentrations are the same at the two sides of the membrane.
pressure is applied to one of the compartments.
there is a temperature difference between the compartments.
✓ the membrane is permeable only for the solvent.
212. Red blood cells placed in hypotonic salt solution

show no volume change.
✓ swell.
shrink.
213. Red blood cells are placed in isotonic, hypotonic and hypertonic solutions. Which relationship is true
for the volume of red blood cells?
Viso > Vhyper > Vhypo.
Vhyper > Viso > Vhypo.
Vhypo > Vhyper > Viso.
Vhyper > Vhypo > Viso.
✓ Vhypo > Viso > Vhyper.
214. The volume of red blood cells incubated in a hypotonic salt solution is
✓ greater than the volume of the cells incubated in isotonic solution.
smaller than the volume of the cells incubated in isotonic solution.
the same as the volume of the cells incubated in isotonic solution.
215. Thermoosmosis is
the motion of higher concentration solution parts due to the effect of gravity.
the vertical gas flow driven by the buoyancy force.
✓ the transport of a solvent caused by a temperature gradient.
the energy transport without mass flow.
216. In osmosis
the membrane does not play a role.
the membrane neutralizes the electrolyte solution.
✓ reflection coefficient of the membrane determines the direction of the fluid flow.
surface of the membrane is changing.
the membrane allows all the particules to go through.
217. In osmotic equilibrium

✓ equal amount of solvent goes through the membrane in both direction.
more solvent goes through the membrane toward the more concentrated solution.
more solvent goes through the membrane toward the less concentrated solution.

there is no solvent flow through the membrane.
218. What is the specific term used to describe what happens to red blood cells when the cells are put into
a distilled water solution?
Plasmolysis.
✓ Haemolysis.
Crenation (shrinking).
Hydrolysis.
219. In which of the following cases occurs plasmolysis?

When plant cells are put to a hypotonic environment.
✓ When plant cells are put to a hypertonic environment.
When animal cells are put to a hypertonic environment.
When animal cells are put to a hypotonic environment.
220. Red blood cells placed in a 5% salt solution will

swell.
remain the same.
✓ shrink.
221. If red blood cells are placed in a 0.9% salt solution, then the solution is considered as
hypotonic solution.
✓ isotonic solution.
hypertonic solution.
pentatonic solution.
222. The cell membrane allows some but not all the particles to pass through. How is this property called?
✓ Selective permeability.
Osmosis.
Fermentation.
Diffusion.
223. What is the phenomena when the amount of certain molecules moving in and out of a cell is equal?
Facilitated diffusion.
Active transport.
Osmosis.
✓ Equilibrium.
224. What is the movement of water through a selectively permeable membrane called?
✓ Osmosis.
Diffusion.
Active transport.
Equilibrium.
225. What happens to a cell if it is placed into distilled water?

The cell will shrink.
✓ There will be a net movement of water into the cell.
The water molecules cannot move out of the cell.
Most of the dissolved substances will move out of the cell.
226. A cell is placed in a solution and swells. What does it mean? The solution is
isotonic compared to the cell.
hypertonic compared to the cell.
✓ hypotonic compared to the cell.
227. If the cell has a solute concentration of 0.07%, which of the solutions would cause it to swell?
✓ 0.01% solute.
0.1% solute.
1% solute.
10% solute.
228. Which of the following is necessary for osmosis to occur?

A permeable membrane.
✓ A semi-permeable membrane.
An isotonic solution.
ATP.
229. When a cell is placed in an isotonic solution there would be

✓ no overall (net) movement of water.
net movement of water into the cell.
net movement of water out of the cell.
burst of the cell.
230. Which one of the following is NOT a function of the Eucaryotic cytoplasmic membrane?
✓ Energy generation.
Active transport.
Osmosis.
Passive diffusion.
231. When creating a temperature gradient in a homogeneous, dilute solution, after a certain time the
concentration of the solute will be higher at the colder site, BECAUSE the diffusion coefficient is directly
proportional to the absolute temperature. [A]
232. According to the Van't Hoff law the osmotic pressure of undiluted solutions is proportional to the
concentration, BECAUSE the osmotic pressure is independent of the quality of the solvent and the solute.
[D]
233. In osmotic equilibrium the absolute flow of the solvent is zero, BECAUSE equal amounts of solvent
goes through the membran in both direction. [A]

234. The concentraton of chemicals used in the treatment of oedema are hypotonic compared to the
interstitial space, BECAUSE the excess fluid goes toward the more concentrated solution. [D]
235. The semipermeable mebrane is a selectively permeable membrane, BECAUSE it allowes only the
solute molecules to go through the membrane. [C]
236. The concentration of molecules does not effect the osmotic pressure, BECAUSE only the water
molecules can pass through the semipermeable membrane. [D]
12. Fluid flow, circulation, heart

237. According to Bernoulli's law and the continuity equation the static pressure
decreases linearly along the length of the flow canal.
decreases exponentially with time.
increases when the flow rate increases.
is inversely proportional to the viscosity.
✓ increases when the cross section (size) of the flow canal increases.
238. According to Bernoulli's law

✓ the sum of the static, dynamic and hydrostatic pressures is constant.
the amount of fluid flowing through the cross-section of a tube in unit time is constant.
turbulent flow is more probable at higher diameters of the tube.
the static pressure decreases at the place where blood vessels dilate.
239. For newtonian fluids

they are not compressible.
✓ the viscosity depends on the shear stress.
the flow is laminar under any circomstances.
the flow is turbulent under any circomstances.
240. When the Reynolds number exceeds the critical value

the hydrostatic pressure decreases.
the dynamic pressure decreases.
the viscosity of the fluid increases.
✓ the fluid flow becomes turbulent.
241. The viscosity

✓ is the quotient of the shear stress and the velocity gradient.
has a dimension: Rayl.
is inversely proportional to the shear stress in Newtonian liquids.
Each of them above.
Non of them above.
242. The flow rate (m3/s) of a viscous fluid is proportional to

the cross-sectional area of the flow canal.
the length of the flow canal.
the fourth power of the length of the flow canal.
✓ the pressure difference.
the viscosity.
243. By what factor will the flow rate (m3/s) of a viscous fluid change (compared to the original value)
when the length of the tube increases twofold, but all other parameters remain unchanged?
1/4.
✓ 1/2.
It does not change.
2.
4.
16.
244. By what factor will the flow rate (m3/s) of a viscous fluid change (compared to the original value)
when the radius of the tube increases twofold, but all other parameters remain unchanged?
1/4.
1/2.
It does not change.
2.
4.
✓ 16.
245. According to the Hagen-Poiseuille law by what factor will the flow rate (m3/s) of a viscous fluid
change (compared to the original value) when the viscosity increases twofold, but all other parameters
remain unchanged?
1/4.
✓ 1/2.
It does not change.
2.
4.
16.
246. 1 ml of blood flows through an arteriole with the radius of 1 mm in unit time. How many ml-s of
blood will flow through if the radius is 2 mm, and the pressure conditions are the same?
1 ml.
2 ml.
4 ml.
8 ml.
✓ 16 ml.
247. The value of blood pressure

does not depend on the pulse rate.
✓ changes periodically.

cannot be higher than the atmospheric pressure.
is uniform within the body.
is higher in the veins than in the capillaries.
248. Blood
is an ideal fluid.
is a newtonian fluid.
✓ is a non-newtonian fluid.
has a constant viscosity.
249. Blood viscosity depends on

the diameter of the blood vessels.
the haematocrit value.
plasma viscosity.
✓ each of the above.
none of the above.
250. In which segment of the vascular system is the pressure drop the highest?
Aorta.
Arteries.
✓ Arterioles.
Capillaries.
Veins.
251. In which segment of the vascular system is the blood pressure the highest?
✓ Aorta.
Arteries.
Arterioles.
Capillaries.
Veins.
252. In which segment of the vascular system is the blood pressure the lowest?
Aorta.
Arteries.
Arterioles.
Capillaries.
✓ Veins.
253. In which segment of the vascular system is the total cross-sectional area of the blood vessels the
greatest?
Aorta.
Arteries.
Arterioles.
✓ Capillaries.
Veins.

254. In which segment of the vascular system is the flow speed of the blood the lowest?
Aorta.
Arteries.
Arterioles.
✓ Capillaries.
Veins.
255. The power of the heart

depends only on the volume of the heart.
depends only on the pulse frequency.
✓ is about 1 (one) watt.
does not depend on the body temperature.
is greater in the horizontal than in the vertical position of the body.
256. In the work of the heart

the dynamic component dominates.
✓ the volumic component dominates.
the dynamic and volumic components are roughly the same.
257. The indicator diagram of the heart shows

the pH of the blood running through the heart.
the electric activity of the heart.
✓ the pressure and volume changes during the heart cycle.
the movement of the heart wall as a function of time.
258. When advancing from the aorta toward the veins, the flow speed of the blood
gradually decreases.
gradually increases.
is the highest at the level of capillaries.
✓ is the lowest at the level of capillaries.
259. Which law can explain the formation of the aneurysm?

✓ Bernoulli's law.
Stokes' law.
Hagen-Poiseuille's law.
260. In the case of increased concentration of immunoglobulines, the viscosity of the blood
decreases.
✓ increases.
does not change.
261. In real fluids, in the axis of the vessel

is the concentration of the red blood cells the lowest.
is the velocity the lowest.
✓ is the static pressure the lowest.

is the viscosity the lowest.
262. Which physical law is similar to the Hagen-Poiseuille law?

Fick's 1st law.
✓ Kirchoff's law.
Stokes' low.
Ohm's law.
263. Which is TRUE for non-newtonian liquids?

They are ideal liquids.
Their viscosity is constant.
They can be described with Bernoulli's law.
✓ The friction force inside the fluid is not linearly proportional to the velocity drop (gradient).
264. Method used to measure the blood flow velocity.

Thermodilution.
Doppler Ultrasound.
✓ Both of the above.
None of the above.
265. The viscosity of the blood is influenced by

the plasticity of the red blood cells.
the aggregation of the red blood cells.
✓ both of the above.
none of the above.
266. Which is true for capacitive vessels?

They contain smooth muscle.
They are under vegetative innervation.
Both of the above.
✓ None of the above.
267. In which segment of the vascular system does the Reynolds number exceed the critical value?
Arterioles.
Arteries.
✓ The segment behind the aorta valve.
There is no segment like this.
268. In case of a steady, laminar flow the static pressure increases with increasing cross-sectional area of
the canal, BECAUSE liquids are compressible. [C]
269. Positive feedback has a central role in the development of the aneurysm, BECAUSE blood pressure
changes periodically in the artery. [B]
270. The velocity of blood flow is the smallest in the capillaries because the total cross-sectional area of
blood vessels is the greatest at the level of capillaries. [A]

271. The velocity of blood flow is the greatest in the capillaries because the diameter of a capillary is
smaller than that of any other vessel type. [D]
272. The constant flow rate is due to the elasticity of the vessel walls, because the tightness of the vessel
walls is always proportional to the stretching. [C]
273. The flow rate does not exceed the Reynolds-value in any segment of the vascular system, because the
elasticity of the vessel walls can decrease the risk of evolving any turbulent flows. [D]
274. The viscosity of liquids decreases with increasing temperature, because the inner friction of gases is
due to the impulse transport between layers. [B]
275. The elasticity of the blood vessel walls dampens pressure pulses, because it contains elastic, collagen
and smooth muscle components. [A]
276. When entering a thinner vessel from a thicker one, the blood contains less red blood cells, because
according to Bernoulli's law, near the vessel wall, the concentration of the red blood cells is low. [A]
13. Macromolecules, protein folding

277. The shape of a polymer chain free of interactions resembles
a straight line.
an arc.
a helix.
✓ the path of a particle performing random motion.
the railway network of a country.
278. The end-to-end length of an ideal polymer chain depends on

its bending rigidity.
its contour length.
✓ from both mentioned parameters.
none of the mentioned parameters.
279. Under the effect of mechanical force a chemical reaction (e.g. association or dissociation) may
proceed
faster.
slower.
✓ Both of the above is true.
None of the above is true.
280. When heated, an ideal polymer chain

✓ shortens.
expands.
elongates.

becomes thicker.
281. A protein molecule may be unfolded by

heat.
chemical effects.
mechanical force.
✓ any of the above.
none of the above.
282. When an ideal polymer chain is stretched,

its end-to-end length increases.
its entropy decreases.
it undergoes tension and generates force.
✓ Each of the above is true.
None of the above is true.
283. Which bond type does NOT have a role in the formation of the tertiary structure of proteins?
✓ Peptide bond.
Disulfide bridge.
Hydrogen bond.
Salt bridge.
Hidrophobic interactions.
284. The most important interaction in the first phase of the folding of a protein is
the peptide bond.
✓ the hydrophobic interaction.
the hydrogen bond.
the salt bridge.
the disulfide bridge.
285. The number of the possible configurations of the protein depends on

the number of H-bonds.
✓ the number of amino acids.
both of the above.
none of the above.
286. Which is NOT true? Proteins flexibility can be described by...

rotation around C-C bonds.
Freely Joint Chain model (rigid segments connected with frictionless, flexible joints).
✓ rotation around C=0 bonds.
torsion of peptide bonds (Worm Like Chain model, the segments are flexible as well).
287. How does the force generated in an entropic polymer chain depend on its persistence length (bending
rigidity)?
It is linearly proportional.
✓ It is inversely proportional.

It is proportional to its square.
It does not depend on it.
288. What measures the bending rigidity of a polymer?

✓ The persistence length.
The contour length.
Both of the mentioned parameters.
None of the mentioned parameters.
289. Which bond type has a role in the formation of the primary structure of proteins?
✓ Peptide bond.
Disulfide bridge.
Hydrogen bond.
Salt bridge.
Hydrophobic interactions.
290. Which statement is true for a peptide bond?

It is formed through a condensation reaction through the addition of a water molecule.
✓ Atoms forming the peptide bond are in the same plane.
Both of the above.
None of the above.
291. Which method is used to determine the structure of proteins?

X-ray crystallography.
NMR.
✓ Both of the above.
None of the above.
292. The relative extension of a polymer chain is inversely proportional to the

persistence length.
✓ absolute temperature.
Both of the above.
None of the above.
293. In the case of a rigid polymer chain the persistence length is

✓ longer than the contour length.
shorter than the contour length.
equal to the contour length.
294. In the case of a semiflexible polymer chain the persistence length is

longer than the contour length.
shorter than the contour length.
✓ approximately equal to the contour length.
295. In the case of a flexibile polymer chain the persistence length is

longer than the contour length.

✓ shorter than the contour length.
equal to the contour length.
296. Which statement is NOT true for the formation of non-covalent biopolymers?
The process is spontaneous.
It is a concentration-driven process.
A dynamic equilibrum sets on.
✓ The process must be catalysed by an enzyme.
297. During their folding some proteins can be trapped in misfolded states, BECAUSE these states
represent local minima on the folding energy profile. [A]
298. According to the Levinthal paradox protein folding does not occur randomly, by exploring all
possible conformations, BECAUSE this would take a much longer time than what the protein folding
actually needs. [A]
299. In the case of Alzheimer's disease amyloid proteins form plaques, BECAUSE the protein molecules
aggregate in a parallel ß-sheet structure. [C]
300. When temperature increases, the configurational entropy of a polymer chain increases, BECAUSE the
orientation entropy of elementary vectors increase. [A]
301. Immunoglobulin domains in titin have low mechanical stability, BECAUSE their structure is
stabilized by H-bonds that are parallel to the direction of the shear stress. [D]
302. The efficiency of protein folding in vivo is greater than in vitro, BECAUSE in living cells chaperones
assist the protein folding. [A]
14. Membrane structure, membrane potential

303. The intracellular Na+-concentration in a non-stimulated cell
is higher than the extracellular Na+-concentration.
✓ is lower than the extracellular Na+-concentration.
is approximately the same as the extracellular Na+-concentration.
304. The intracellular free Ca2+-concentration in a non-stimulated cell

✓ is lower than the extracellular Ca2+-concentration.
is higher than the extracellular Ca2+-concentration.
is approximately the same as the extracellular Ca2+-concentration.
305. The intracellular K+-concentration in a non-stimulated cell

is lower than the extracellular K+-concentration.
✓ is higher than the extracellular K+-concentration.
is approximately the same as the extracellular K+-concentration.

306. The sodium-potassium ATPase's function is
to catalyze ATP degradation.
to synthesize ATP on the expense of the electrochemical gradient of Na+ and K+.
to provide Na+ for intracellular enzymes.
to transport Na+ and K+ from higher to lower concentration through the cell membrane.
✓ to remove Na+ from inside the cell.
307. The ionic equilibrium between the two sides of a membrane is accompanied by equalization of the
chemical potential.
electrostatic potential.
magnetic potential.
✓ electrochemical potential.
308. The membrane potential of living cells

is a constant potential difference between the two sides of the membrane.
can be calculated based on the assumptions of the Donnan equilibrium.
cannot be less than +60 mV.
is always negative.
✓ depends on the concentration gradient of the ions and the membrane permeability.
309. Membrane potential

equals to the Donnan-potential.
✓ is releated to the selective membrane permeability .
is not supported by active ion transport.
does not depend on temperature.
310. Donnan-potential develops between two compartments separated by a membrane if

the membrane is permeable for cations but not for anions and macromolecules.
✓ the membrane is permeable for small ions but not for charged macromolecules.
the permeability of the membrane for cations is at least ten times higher than its permeability for
anions.
311. The condition of formation of the Donnan-potential is that

the membrane is permeable for all ion types.
the membrane is permeable for anions, but impermeable for cations.
the membrane is permeable for cations, but impermeable for anions.
✓ the membrane is permeable for cations and anions but impermeable for charged macromolecules.
312. When the temperature increases the value of the Donnan-potential

✓ increases.
decreases.
does not change.
313. Voltage gated Na+-channels

are open in the resting state of the membrane.

are activated by hyperpolarization.
✓ open when the membrane is depolarized.
when inactivated, will open even at a stimulus lower than the threshold stimulus.
314. The action potential's

amplitude is proportional to the stimulus intensity.
amplitude is proportional to the diameter of the axon.
propagation speed is independent of the conductivity of the interstitial fluid.
✓ last phase involves membrane hyperpolarization.
315. The threshold stimulus is the minimal stimulus intensity

whose duration is the half of chronaxie.
whose intensity is the double of rheobase.
below which no response is generated in the membrane.
✓ that always produces action potential.
316. During the action potential

K+-permeability increases during the first phase.
✓ Na+-permeability increases significantly during the first phase.
Na+-permeability increases significantly during the last phase.
neither the K+ nor the Na+-permeability changes in the last phase.
317. During the action potential which mechanism is mainly responsible for the restoration of the resting
membrane potential?
Na+ -influx.
Na+ -efflux.
K+ -influx.
✓ K+ -efflux.
Na+-K+ exchange via the Na-K pump.
318. Electrical synapses

function slower than chemical synapses.
transmit the nerve impulse only in one direction.
✓ is more widely spread in invertebrate animals.
cannot be found in human organism.
319. Chemical synapses are characterized by

a few nanosecond long synaptic delay.
a few 1/100 of millisecond long synaptic delay.
✓ unidirectional conduction.
lack of presynaptic potential.
320. A single neuron can have

a single synapse.
no more than two synapses.
no more than ten synapses.

✓ even hundreds of synapses.
321. The resting membrane potential is

✓ between minus 30 and minus 100 mV.
between plus 30 and plus 100 mV.
zero mV.
between minus 30 and plus 100 mV.
322. During the action potential the cell membrane

✓ at first becomes depolarized after repolarized and finally hyperpolarized.
at first becomes repolarized, depolarized and finally hyperpolarized.
at first becomes hyperpolarized, repolarized and finally depolarized.
at first becomes hyperpolarized, depolarized and finally repolarized.
323. The amplitude of the action potential is

in the μV (microvolt) range.
✓ in the mV (millivolt) range.
in the V (volt) range.
in the kV (kilovolt) range.
324. The duration of the action potential in nerve cells is

1-10 μs (microsecond).
✓ 1-10 ms (millisecond).
0.1-1.0 s (second).
325. In the process of the action potential

✓ ion currents are responsible for the depolarization of the membrane.
free electrons are responsible for the depolarization of the membrane.
charged residues of the lipid bilayer are responsible for the depolarization of the membrane.
326. Accomodation: If a receptor is excited with a continous uniform stimulus

✓ the amplitude of the receptor potential being decreased with the time.
the amplitude of the receptor potential being increased with the time.
the amplitude of the receptor potential remain the same.
327. The value of the Donnan potential is

✓ always negative in the cytoplasm
always pozitive in the cytoplasm
zero.
328. The value of the Donnan potential

✓ increases with the concentration of the non-permeable intracellular anions.
decreases with the concentration of the non-permeable intracellular anions.
does not depend on the concentration of the non-permeable intracellular anions.
329. The most concentrated ion in the intracellular space is

✓ the K+ ion.
the Na+ ion.
the Cl- ion.
330. If the resting membrane potential is measured on a membrane it means that

✓ the intracellular space is more negative than the extracellular space
the intracellular space is more pozitive than the extracellular space
the potential diffrence between the extra and intracellular space is zero.
331. The closed Na+ channels in final phase of the action potential
✓ are in absolute refracter phase.
can be activated immediately.
are in relative refracter phase.
332. In case of Donnan-equilibrium the products of the concentrations of permeable ions (on the two sides
of the membrane) are equal because there is electroneutrality on both sides. [B]
333. The permeability of the membrane for Na- and K-ions changes during the action potential because the
action potential causes an irreversible structural change in the membrane. [C]
334. The amplitude of a traveling action potential is constant, because sodium channels are not sensitive to
the change of the membrane potential. [C]
335. The amplitude of the action potential does not depend on the stimulus intensity, because the "all or
none" law also applies to the generation of the action potential. [A]
336. The amplitude of the action potential depends on the intensity of the stimulus , because the "all or
none" law applies to the generation of the action potential. [D]
337. The chemical composition of the extra- and intracellular fluid do not influence the resting membrane
potential BECAUSE the barrier-function of the cell membrane is the main factor to maintain the resting
membrane potential. [E]
338. The membrane potential can not be more negative than the resting membrane potential BECAUSE at
the end of the repolarization the K+ and Na+ channels are closed [E]
339. The ion concentration differencies between the extracelular and intracellular space is constant in a
resting cell BECAUSE the active tranport of the ions are important to maintain the resting membrane
potential [C]
340. The hyperpolarization of the membrane can be observed in the final phase of the action potential
BECAUSE the K+ channels get closed later than the Na+ channels. [A]
15. Sensory systems

341. When the stimulus intensity increases,

✓ the frequency of the action potential increases.
the frequency of the action potential decreases.
the amplitude of the action potential increases.
the amplitude of the action potential decreases.
the duration of the action potential increases.
the duration of the action potential decreases.
342. The function of sensory receptors

is characterized by the "all-or-none" rule.
does not involve signal encoding.
is not related to changes of the membrane potential.
✓ can be triggered by a stimulus energy as small as 10-18 J.
does not depend on the type (modality) of the stimulus.
343. Thermal receptors

generate higher receptor potential at higher temperature.
generate lower receptor potential at higher temperature.
are non-adapting receptors.
✓ generate a series of action-potentials the frequency of which depends on the temperature.
344. The order of magnitude of the threshold of an adequate stimulus is

✓ attojoule (10-18 J).
femtojoule (10-15 J).
pikojoule (10-12 J).
nanojoule (10-9 J).
microjoule (10-6 J).
millijoule (10-3 J).
345. The function of sensory receptors

does not involve signal conversion (transduction).
does not involve encoding.
✓ is related to changes of the membrane potential.
does not depend on the type of stimulus (modality).
346. Audible sound

is a transversal wave propagating in air.
has an intensity always less than 120 phon.
has higher frequency than ultrasound.
✓ is characterized by a pitch that is determined by its frequency.
347. According to Békésy's theory sound frequency recognition is based on

the different length of hair cells.
✓ a wave propagating along the basal membrane, with a maximum amplitude location depending on
the frequency.
the lever function of the ossicles in the middle ear that significantly amplifies the sound intensity.

electrical charging of the hair cells caused by friction between the perilymph and the basal membrane.
348. What is the frequency range of the audible sound (the normal human ear can sense)?
20 - 2 000 Hz.
2 - 2 000 Hz.
✓ 20 - 20 000 Hz.
2 - 20 000 Hz.
349. According to what type of function does the intensity level measured in decibels (dB) depend on the
sound intensity?
Linear.
Reciprocal.
Exponential.
✓ Logarithmic.
350. The isophon curve (Fletcher-curve) shows

✓ the intensity of sounds with the same loudness plotted as a function of frequency.
the loudness of sounds with the same intensity plotted as a function of frequency.
the loudness of sounds plotted as a function of intensity.
the frequency of a sound plotted as a function of the sound pitch.
351. If you compare a 3000 Hz, 30 dB, 40 phon sound with a 10000 Hz, 30 dB, 20 phon sound,
✓ the first sound feels louder.
the second sound feels louder.
the feeling of loudness is the same.
352. If you compare a 3000 Hz, 30 dB, 40 phon sound with a 200 Hz, 60 dB, 40 phon sound,
the first sound feels louder.
the second sound feels louder.
✓ the feeling of loudness is the same in both cases.
353. Rods in the retina

✓ are found mainly outside of the fovea.
can be found only in the fovea.
are evenly distributed over the whole retina.
can not be found at the periphery of the retina.
are sensitive only to the red and orange light.
354. The optical resolving power of the eye is influenced by

the diameter of the pupil only.
the wavelength of the light only.
the diameter of the rods only.
the diameter of the cones only.
✓ all of the mentioned factors.
none of the mentioned factors.

355. The critical angle in case of total internal reflection is
the refraction angle associated to the 90° incidence angle.
✓ the incidence angle associated to the 90° refraction angle.
the refraction angle associated to the 180° incidence angle.
the incidence angle associated to the 180° refraction angle.
356. Total internal reflection can occur

e.g. when light enters from air to water.
✓ e.g. when light enters from water to air.
in any of the above cases.
357. Total internal reflection can occur

✓ only when light enters a medium with a lower refractive index.
only when light enters a medium with a higher refractive index.
in any of the above cases.
358. The image formed by converging lenses can be

real and upright (erect).
✓ real and inverted.
virtual and inverted.
359. The image formed by diverging lenses is always

real and upright (erect).
real and inverted.
✓ virtual and upright (erect).
virtual and inverted.
360. The total refractive power of the human eye is approximately

5 diopters.
10 diopters.
28 diopters.
✓ 60 diopters.
361. Which of the following boundaries produces the highest refraction on the way of light towards the
retina?
✓ Air-cornea.
Cornea-aqueous humor.
Aqueous humor-lens.
Lens-vitreous humor.
362. The image on the retina is

real, smaller and upright (erect).
✓ real, smaller and inverted.
virtual, enlarged and upright (erect).
virtual, smaller and inverted.

363. When old-age vision (presbyopia) develops
the near-point moves closer, the far-point moves farther.
✓ the near-point moves farther, the far-point moves closer.
the near-point and far-point both move farther.
the near-point and far-point both move closer.
364. Rod cells

do not contain rhodopsin.
are mainly found in the fovea.
are color sensitive.
✓ are able to respond to very low light intensities (even a few photons).
365. Cone cells

are sensitive in a very narrow intensity range.
are mainly found at the periphery of the retina.
✓ are color sensitive.
are able to respond to very low light intensities (even a few photons).
366. In case of spherical aberration

the lens has a different focal length for different colors.
✓ light rays coming close and farther from the optical axis are focused into different points.
the focal length of the lens for directions that are perpendicular to each other is different.
367. The human eye will not lose its dark adaptation if the retina is exposed to
white light.
✓ red light.
blue light.
green light.
368. Which receptor type is responsible for vision at low light intensities?
✓ Rod cells.
Cone cells.
Hair cells.
All three cell types.
369. The human vision is trichromatic because

✓ the three different cone cells are sensitive to blue, red or green light.
the three different cone cells are sensitive to blue, red or yellow light.
the three different rod cells are sensitive to blue, red or green light.
the three different rod cells are sensitive to blue, red or yellow light.
370. Auditory ossicles

are located in the inner ear.
connect the tympanic membrane with the round window.
✓ work as (one side) levers in amplifying sound pressure.

act as passive elements and do not participate in the amplification of sound pressure.
371. In the internal ear the hair cells are located

on the Reissner membrane.
✓ on the membrana basilaris.
on the membrana tectoria.
372. Cone cells in the retina

are more sensitive to light than the rod cells.
provide vision at low light levels.
✓ allow the perception of color(s).
373. Outer hair cells in the organ of Corti

function as mechanoelectric signal converter (transducers).
function as electromechanic transducers.
✓ function as both electromechanic and mechanoelectric transducers.
374. Color vision is based on three different types of rhodopsin molecules, in which
✓ the chromophore groups (retinal) are identical, while the protein parts (opsin) are different.
the chromophore groups are different, while the protein parts are identical.
both components are identical.
both components are different.
375. When accommodating to a close object, the focal length of the eye lens increases, BECAUSE the eye
lens becomes more rounded when the ciliary muscle contracts. [D]
376. Two points can be seen as separate ones when photons emitted by these points excite two receptors
with at least one resting receptor between them, BECAUSE optical resolution depends on the wavelength
of light. [B]
377. Audible sound is a mechanical wave, BECAUSE it does not need a medium for propagation. [C]
378. Hair cells in the organ of Corti function as mechanoelectric transducers, BECAUSE the force-induced
displacement of their stereocillii initiate a depolarizing K+-current. [A]
16. Cytoskeleton, muscle

379. Which of the following ions plays the most important regulatory role in muscle function?
✓ Ca2+.
Fe2+.
Cu2+.
Mg2+.
380. In case of isotonic muscle contraction

the length of the muscle is constant.

✓ the force exerted by the muscle is constant.
the length and the force exerted by the muscle are both constant.
None of the statements is correct.
381. In case of isometric muscle contraction

✓ the length of the muscle is constant.
the force exerted by the muscle is constant.
the length and the force exerted by the muscle are both constant.
None of the above statements is correct.
382. It is characteristic of the sarcomere in striated muscle that

the thick filaments contain actin.
H-zone elongates when the muscle contracts.
✓ the length of A-band is unchanged when the muscle contracts.
the thin filaments contain myosin.
383. What is the role of the troponin complex in the muscle function?
It creates a contact between the myosin and the Z-disc.
✓ It is involved in the regulation of the contraction of a cross-striated muscle.
It provides the energy to the muscle function.
None of the statements is correct.
384. The smallest structural and functional unit of the cross-striated muscle is
the thick filament.
the thin filament.
✓ the sarcomere.
the troponin complex.
385. During the contraction of the cross-striated muscle

the A-band extends.
✓ the I-band shortens.
the H-zone extends.
ATP is produced.
386. The main component of the thin filament is

✓ actin.
titin.
tropomyosin.
myosin.
troponin.
387. The main component of the thick filament is

actin.
titin.
tropomyosin.
✓ myosin.

troponin.
388. Which of the following is a motor protein?

DNA polymerase.
RNA polymerase.
Kinesin.
✓ Each of the above.
None of the above.
389. The order of polymerization steps is the following:

equilibrium, lag phase, elongation.
lag phase, equilibrium, elongation.
elongation, equilibrium, lag phase.
equilibrium, elongation, lag phase.
✓ lag phase, elongation, equilibrium.
390. Which of the following cytoskeletal filaments are structurally apolar?

✓ Intermediate filaments.
Microtubules.
Microfilaments.
391. Which of the following motor proteins has the role to bind actin?
Dynamin.
Kinesin.
✓ Myosin.
Dynein.
DNA-polymerase.
392. During the duty cycle of a motor protein

✓ a conformational change occurs in the motor protein.
two ATP molecules are hydrolyzed.
two GTP molecules are hydrolyzed.
one molecule of ATP is synthesized.
393. In the rigor state

heads of myosin molecules are bound to each other.
actin filaments are bound to each other.
✓ the binding between actin filaments and myosin molecules is tight.
the binding between actin filaments and myosin molecules is weak.
394. In the relaxed state of muscle

myosin molecules are bound to each other.
actin filaments are bound to each other.
actin filaments and myosin molecules are tightly bound to each other.
✓ actin filaments and myosin molecules are detached from each other.

395. Which of the following proteins defines the passive elasticity of muscle?
Actin.
✓ Titin.
Tropomyosin.
Myosin.
Troponin.
396. Tetanus is
an infectious disease.
the contraction of cross-striated muscle due to a single stimulus.
the contraction of cross-striated muscle due to low frequency stimuli.
✓ the contraction of cross-striated muscle due to high frequency stimuli.
397. In skeletal muscle which of the following is responsible for the regulation of contraction?
Actin.
✓ Troponin complex.
Myosin.
Desmin.
398. In smooth muscle which of the following is responsible for the regulation of contraction?
Actin.
Troponin complex.
✓ Myosin.
Desmin.
399. According to the sliding filament theory, the exerted muscle force is
✓ proportional to the overlap of thin and thick filaments.
inversely proportional to the overlap of thin and thick filaments.
proportional to the overlap of A- and I-bands.
the muscle force is inversely proportional to the overlap of A- and I-bands.
400. Where does the name of the cross striated muscle come from?
It was detected for the first time in the body of zebras.
✓ Based on its microscopy image.
During contraction these muscles rotate around the axis of the muscle (i.e. "in cross").
The filaments contract "in cross" compared to the axis of the musclefiber.
401. Which Hungarian scientist had the most important contribution to the understanding of
muscle function?
Leó Szilárd.
✓ Albert Szent-Györgyi.
Ede Teller.
János Szentágothai.
402. The duty ratio

is the quotient between the mechanical and enzymatic cycle.
✓ is the ratio of: the time that the motor is attached to the filament over the whole cycle time.
is a parameter, which discribes the magnitude of the working stroke.
is the quotient of the attached time to the motor protein and the time of disconnected state.
403. A processive motor protein

✓ has a duty ratio value close to 1.
forwards its load towards the positive end of the associated filament.
has a duty ratio value close to 0.
forwards its load towards the negative end of the associated filament.
404. A non-processive motor protein

forwards its load towards the negative end of the associated filament.
✓ has a duty ratio value close to 0.
forwards its load towards the positive end of the associated filament.
has a duty ratio value close to 1.
405. The power of striated muscle can be calculated

✓ if we multiply the excerted force with the actual velocity of the contraction.
if we multiply the velocity of the contraction with the length of the contraction.
if we multiply the mass of the muscle with the average velocity of the contractions.
if we multiply the exerted force with the actual time of the contraction.
406. The striated muscle utilizes the chemical energy

with less than 5% efficiency.
with 10-20% efficiency.
with 20-40% efficiency.
✓ with more than 50% efficiency.
407. In the striated muscle one tropomyosin molecule - because of its geometrical features- is in
interaction
with 3 actin monomer.
✓ with 7 actin monomer.
408. The energy for muscle contraction comes from the conversion of ATP to ADP, BECAUSE during the
hydrolysis the energy stored in the high-energy phosphate bonds is released. [A]
409. Kinesins play important roles in intracellular transport processes, BECAUSE kinesins can only
function by interacting with actin flaments. [C]
410. Myosins gain energy for their mechanical work from the hydrolisis of ATP, BECAUSE myosins
interact with actin filaments during their function. [B]

17. Absorption, IR, Raman spectroscopy
411. The vibrational spectrum of molecules is within the range of
microwaves.
visible light.
✓ infrared radiation.
ultraviolet radiation.
X-rays.
412. Absorbance (extinction)

is the percentile decrease of light intensity.
✓ is the logarithm of the incident and transmitted light intensity ratio.
does not depend on wavelength.
is linearly proportional to the wavelength.
is inversely proportional to the wavelength.
413. Which is the correct formula for calculating the absorbance (extinction)? (I0 is the incident light
intensity, I is the transmitted light intensity, ΔI is the intensity change)?
I0/I
I/I0
✓ log (I0/I)
log (I/I0)
log (ΔI/I)
log (I/ΔI)
414. Optical extinction (absorbance)

✓ is the logarithm of the ratio of the incident and transmitted light intensities.
is the ratio of the incident and transmitted light intensities.
is the logarithm of the ratio of the transmitted and incident light intensities.
is the ratio of the transmitted and incident light intensities.
415. Raman scattering

is the scattering of light on colloids.
✓ is the consequence of the transitions between vibrational or rotational energy levels.
is characteristic for dipole substances only.
modifies the UV absorption.
consists of scattering of polarized light only.
416. If, during a Raman scattering experiment, the sample is illuminated with light of frequency f, the
scattered light will contain
components only with frequencies higher than f.
components only with frequencies lower than f.
components with frequencies f and higher than f.
components with frequencies f and lower than f.
✓ components with frequencies f, higher than f and lower than f.

417. Which part of a molecular spectrum gives the most information on the strength of chemical bonds?
The X-ray spectrum.
The spectrum of transitions between electronic states.
The rotational spectrum.
✓ The vibrational spectrum.
418. Which spectrum can be used to identify the chemical bond types within the molecules of a sample?
The X-ray spectrum.
The spectrum of transitions between electronic states.
The rotational spectrum.
✓ The vibrational spectrum.
419. Organic molecules have

✓ band absorption spectra.
line absorption spectra.
line emission spectra.
vibrational spectra in the visible wavelength range.
420. Transmittance is
✓ the ratio of transmitted and incident light intensities.
the logarithm of the ratio of incident and transmitted light intensities.
directly proportional to the wavelength.
is created by transitions between rotational and vibrational levels.
the reciprocal of absorbance.
421. If 10% of the incident light is transmitted through a sample then its extinction (absorbance) is
10.
✓ 1.
2.302.
0.1.
422. What percentage of the incident light is transmitted through a sample the extinction of which is 2?
0.5%.
✓ 1%.
2%.
10%.
50%.
423. During spectroscopic measurements the sample used as a reference is

distilled water.
50% alcohol solution.
✓ the solvent of the diluted substance.
an organic solvent having high refractive index.
424. By knowing the wavelength of a photon

one can determine its position.
one can determine its energy, but we cannot determine its frequency.
one can determine its frequency, but we cannot determine its energy.
one can determine its position, energy and frequency.
✓ one can determine its frequency and energy.
18. Fluorescence spectroscopy

425. Fluorescence occurs during molecular transitions
from excited singlet state (S1) to triplet state (T).
from triplet state (T) to singlet ground state (S0).
from singlet ground state (S0) to triplet state (T).
✓ from excited singlet state (S1) to singlet ground state (S0).
426. Phosphorescence occurs during molecular transitions

from excited singlet state (S1) to triplet state (T).
✓ from triplet state (T) to singlet ground state (S0).
from singlet ground state (S0) to triplet state (T).
from excited singlet state (S1) to singlet ground state (S0).
427. Fluorescence anisotropy means

✓ the magnitude of the difference in the degree of polarization between the emitted and the excitation
light.
the photoselection of molecules.
the rotational movement of molecules.
the movement of molecules in isotropic medium.
428. During fluorescence the wavelength of the emitted light compared to that of the exciting light is
not essentially different.
always lower.
✓ shifted to higher wavelength.
usually lower, but it may also be higher.
429. The wavelength of fluorescence emission is generally

✓ higher than the wavelength of the excitation light.
lower than the wavelength of the excitation light.
the same as the wavelength of the excitation light.
not essentially different from the wavelength of the excitation light.
430. The anisotropy of a fluorophore does NOT depend on the

anisotropy limit (r=0.4).
fluorescence lifetime.
✓ fluorophore concentration.

viscosity of the environment.
431. Fluorescence quenching provides information on

✓ the accessibility and charge distribution of chromophore groups within a molecule.
the chemical structure of the quencher molecule.
the concentration of the solution.
the position of amino acids containing sulfhydryl groups within a protein.
432. Phosphorescence emission spectra has higher wavelength than the fluorescence emmission spectra
because
the intensity of the emitted light is lower during fluorescence emission.
the lifetime of the phosphorescence is higher than that of the fluorescence.
✓ the S1 → S0 conversion has higher energy difference than T1 → S0 conversion.
the S1 → T1 is forbidden.
433. Förster-type energy transfer can occur only if the emission spectrum of the donor overlaps with the
absorption spectrum of the acceptor, BECAUSE the probability of the energy transfer is inversely
proportional to the 6th power of the donor-acceptor distance. [B]
19. Microscopy
434. Which microscope is suitable to record a topographic image of the sample?
Polarisation microscope.
Fluorescence microscope.
Confocal microscope.
Transmission electron microscope.
✓ Atomic force microscope.
435. What is the principle of confocal imaging?

✓ Only the light from a single layer of the sample is detected.
Only the light with a given wavelength is detected.
Light of two or even three different wavelengths are simultaneously detected.
Only the light scattered on the sample is detected.
Only that light is detected, of which polarization plane was rotated with 90° compared to the exciting
light.
436. In the buildup of a light microscope the following component is NOT essential:
light source.
objective lens.
✓ polariser.
condensor lens.
437. A laser scanning confocal microscope is NOT able to

record an image from a very thin section of the specimen.

detect two fluorescent labels simultaneously.
✓ resolve details smaller than the wavelength of light.
take images of live specimens.
438. The resolving power of microscopes can be increased by decreasing the wavelength of light,
BECAUSE the minimum distance between two resolvable points is proportional to the wavelength. [A]
439. Resolution of microscopes does not have a theoretical limit, BECAUSE the wavelength of light does
not limit the resolution of small details. [E]
440. Light microscopes are suitable for the determination of the atomic structure of proteins, BECAUSE
these microscopes provide detailed images in the subnanometer range. [E]
20. EPR, NMR

441. What is the magnitude of the nuclear spin for 1H?
-1
Zero
✓ 0.5
1
2
442. What is the magnitude of the nuclear spin for 12C?

✓ Zero
0.5
1
6
12
443. What is the magnitude of the nuclear spin for 16O?

✓ Zero
0.5
1
2
8
444. What is the magnitude of the nuclear spin for 14N?

Zero
0.5
✓1
3.5
7
445. Nuclear magnetic resonance absorption will NOT occur

if the mass number is even and the atomic number is odd.

✓ if both the mass number and atomic number are even.
if the mass number is odd.
if the atomic number is even and mass number is odd.
446. Atomic nuclei with a non-zero net magnetic spin

can be used to produce laser light.
can be excited by polarized light.
✓ behave as very small (elementary) bar magnets.
disintegrate while emitting nuclear radiation.
447. During the record of an ESR spectrum the sample

is excited by visible light.
✓ is placed simultaneously in magnetic and high-frequency electromagnetic field.
is warmed up and cooled down periodically.
is vaporized to obtain micron-size droplets.
448. If the spin of a nucleus is 1/2, how many possible orientations can the spin have when placed in a
magnetic field?
0.5.
1.
✓ 2.
4.
It can have any orientation.
449. What happens when radiation energy is absorbed by a 1/2 spin nucleus placed in a magnetic field?
The precession frequency of the nucleus increases.
The nucleus spins faster.
The nuclear spin increases from 1/2 to 1.
✓ The nuclear spin flips to the inverse orientation.
450. Which parameter of a peak on the ESR spectrum is proportional to the number of the absorbing
atoms?
The frequency associated to the peak.
The width of the peak.
The distance of the peak from the peak of the reference compound.
✓ The area under the peak.
451. Resonance condition in MRI means that

the value of nuclear spin can only be a multiple of 1/2.
the intensity of the applied X-ray is determined by the sum of the absorption in the individual layers.
✓ transition between energy levels can only be induced using an electromagnetic wave of a given
frequency.
only unpaired electrons can be excited.
452. The spin-labeling method is

fluorescent labeling of nuclei with a net magnetic spin.

labeling of nuclei having non-zero spin with radioactive isotopes.
fluorescent labeling of molecules containing unpaired electrons.
✓ labeling of molecules with a compound that contains unpaired electrons.
453. Longitudinal (T1) relaxation

✓ corresponds to the interaction of the nuclear spin with its environment.
corresponds to the interaction between nuclear spins.
Both of the statements is true.
None of the statements is true.
454. Transversal (T2) relaxation

corresponds to the interaction of the nuclear spin with its environment.
✓ corresponds to the interaction between nuclear spins.
Both statements is true.
None of the statements is true.
455. To achieve the spatial resolution in MRI

✓ gradient magnetic fields are used.
detectors rotating around the body are used.
a great number of detectors placed around the body are used.
a fan-shaped piezoelectric transducer is used.
456. Spin-echo
is the principle of the 3D ultrasound imaging.
is the method used for velocity determinations with ultrasound.
✓ response to a radio-frequency pulse sequence in MRI.
spin-labeling method used in ESR measurements.
457. The radiation applied in MRI is

✓ radio wave.
microwave.
visible light.
sound wave.
Gamma-ray.
X-ray.
458. The magnetic field applied in MRI is

homogeneous.
✓ changes along a linear gradient.
changes along an exponential gradient.
depends on the intensity of the radio frequency signal.
459. In an external magnetic field the energy level of the proton (1H)
✓ splits to two new energy levels.
decreases.

increases.
fluctuates between two new energy levels.
460. The radiation applied in ESR spectroscopy is

✓ microwave.
visible light.
ultrasound.
Gamma-ray.
X-ray.
461. How many orientations can the spin of an unpaired electron have in an external magnetic field?
1.
✓ 2.
4.
It can have any orientation.
462. ESR spectroscopy can be used to determine the concentration of protons, BECAUSE the area below
the absorption peaks is proportional to the number of absorbing atoms. [D]
463. Using NMR small conformational changes can be detected, BECAUSE the magnetic field of
surrounding nuclei will cause perturbations in the magnetic field acting on nuclei with a net spin. [A]
464. The orientation of nuclear spins in a tissue sample placed in the magnetic field of an MRI instrument
is random, BECAUSE the nuclear spin of nuclei in biological samples is zero. [E]
21. Flow cytometry

465. In flow cytometry the intensity of the forward-scattered light (FSC) signal provides information on
the
✓ size of the cells.
granularity of the cells.
fluorescence of the cells.
DNA content of the cells.
viability of the cells.
466. During a flow cytometric analysis helper T-cells can be distinguished from other cell types based on
their size.
their granularity.
✓ their cell-surface receptors.
their DNA content.
their intracellular Ca2+ concentration.
22. Sedimentation, electrophoresis

467. If we double the rotation speed of a centrifuge, the centrifugal force
decreases four times.
decreases twofold.
does not change.
increases twofold.
✓ increases four times.
468. The sedimentation constant is

the ratio of the sedimentation time and the angular velocity.
✓ the ratio of the sedimentation speed and the centrifugal acceleration.
the product of the form factor and the sedimentation speed.
the ratio of the form factor and the sedimentation speed.
469. Which method is by itself capable of determining the absolute molecular weight?
The sedimentation velocity method.
✓ The sedimentation equilibrium method.
None of the given methods.
Both of the given methods.
470. The electrophoretic mobility

✓ is the ratio of the velocity of the particle and the gradient of the electric field.
is the ratio of the velocity of the particle and the voltage.
is the distance traveled by the particle divided by the product of time and voltage.
is the distance traveled by the particle divided by the voltage.
471. SDS-Polyacrylamid Gel Electrophoresis is capable of separating proteins with the same molecular
weight, because
the mobility of molecules depends only on their charge.
although the mobility of molecules depends on their weight and charge as well, but due to their
different charges, their mobility will differ also.
✓ They cannot be separated, because the SDS agent creates similar charge density on the molecules'
surfaces.
472. What is the relative centrifugal force (RCF) produced by a cetrifuge spinning at 1000 rpm with a rotor
radius of 10 cm?
1100.
✓ 110.
11000.
110000.
473. The unit of the sedimentation constant is

1/s.
✓ Sv (Svedberg).
1/m.
S (Siemens).

474. For gradient centrifugation the following medium should be chosen:
low density, high molecular weight material.
high density, high molecular weight material.
✓ high density, low molecular weight material.
low density, low molecular weight material.
475. During isoelectric focusing the motion of the protein stops when
✓ the protein reaches its isoelectric point.
its density and the density of the running medium are the same.
the net charge of the protein is greater than zero.
its isoelectric point is greater than the pH of the running medium.
476. During electrophoresis of blood serum the slowest moving fraction according to the molecule weight
is
albumin.
alpha-globulin.
✓ gamma-globulin.
beta-globulin.
477. An electrophoretic densitogram directly shows

✓ the percentile amount of the individual fractions.
the molecular weight of the individual fractions.
the exact molecular mass of the examined proteins.
the exact charge of the examined proteins.
478. During serum electrophoresis the fastest moving component is albumin, BECAUSE the size of
albumin is the smallest among the main serum proteins. [A]
24. Diagnostic methods

479. The X-rays
are not appropriate for the examination of soft tissues.
are proposed for the examination of the foetus only after the fourth month of pregnancy.
✓ can be used for examination of the vascular system with the help of a contrast agent.
can be used for diagnostic purposes only if the patient is laying.
480. Using X-rays we cannot examine

the working heart.
the structure of nucleic acids.
✓ the flow velocity of blood.
the presence of tumor.
481. The X-rays

✓ can produce ionization within tissues.

warms up the tissues in a short time.
cannot pass through bones at all.
cannot be used to the examine the structure of globular proteins.
482. The plane of a CT image compared to the plane of human body is

✓ transversal.
sagittal.
frontal.
parasagittal.
483. The positron emission tomograph (PET)

detects positrons produced by pair production.
✓ detects gamma-photons produced by annihilation.
detects particles emitted by the gamma-emitting isotope injected into the body.
produces layer images based on X-ray absorption.
484. The isotope generator

produces electric current by using the energy of radioactive radiations.
✓ produces technecium-99m isotope for diagnostic purposes.
is a part of nuclear reactors, where isotopes are produced.
activates certain elements using neutron source.
485. The frequency of ultrasound is

lower than 20 Hz.
higher than 20 Hz.
lower than 20 000 Hz.
✓ higher than 20 000 Hz.
486. The frequency of ultrasound is

higher than 2000 Hz but lower than 8000 Hz.
independent of the speed of the reflecting object.
independent of the frequency of alternating voltage applied to the crystal.
✓ greater than 20 kHz.
487. Which of the following phenomena can be used to detect ultrasound?

✓ Direct piezoelectric effect.
Inverse piezoelectric effect.
Electrostriction.
Magnetostriction.
488. The pulse-echo principle

is the basis of 3D ultrasound imaging.
✓ is the method of measuring distance using ultrasound.
is a time-correlated response to a radio frequency pulse sequence in MRI.
is a special form of spin labeling.

489. The echo of the ultrasound pulse returns from the reflecting object after 0.2 ms. What is the distance
between the transducer and the object (the speed of ultrasound is 1500 m/s)?
0.15 cm.
0.3 cm.
0.6 cm.
0.75 cm.
✓ 15 cm.
30 cm.
490. During propagation of ultrasound in media with different acustic properties,

its frequency is constant.
its velocity changes.
its wavelenght changes proportionally to its velociy.
✓ All of the given statements are true.
None of the given statements is true.
491. Due to the Doppler-effect the sound arriving from an object that moves toward the observer has
increasing intensity.
decreasing intensity.
✓ increasing frequency.
decreasing frequency.
increasing wavelength.
492. Cavitation is
the pathomechanism of the formation of dental caries.
the temperature increase caused by ultrasound irradiation.
✓ cavity formation due to high frequency ultrasound.
a tooth-plaque removal method using ultrasound.
493. Radiation originating from radiopharmacons injected in the human body can be detected using
gamma camera.
positron emission tomograph.
✓ both of given instruments..
none of given instruments.
494. Radiation used in computer tomography (CT) imaging is

gamma radiation.
beta radiation.
radio wave.
✓ X-rays.
cathode rays.
495. Effect suitable to generate ultrasound is

Direct piezoelectric effect.
✓ Inverse piezoelectric effect.

Doppler effect.
Compton effect.
496. During the annihilation phenomena

one positron and one electron is converted into one gamma photon.
two electrons are converted into one gamma photon.
✓ one positron and one electron is converted into two gamma photons.
a He-nucleus is formed.
two gamma photons are being absorbed.
497. The half-life of isotopes applied in positron emission tomography (PET) is

✓ a couple of minutes-one hour.
days-weeks.
months.
years.
seconds.
498. During computer tomography (CT)

✓ X-ray absorption is detected.
nuclear spin relaxation is detected.
annihilation photons are detected.
the Compton-effect is detected.
positrons produced during pair production are detected.
499. Radiopharmacons used in positron emission tomography are

alpha-emitting.
✓ positive beta-emitting.
gamma-emitting.
negative beta-emitting.
500. The advantage of positron emission tomography versus computer tomography is that
✓ the metabolism can be measured quantitatively.
it yields better spatial resolution.
no contrast material is needed.
does not cause radiation exposure.
501. Wich fusion technique is used to create an image of both the anatomical structure and funcional status
of a body area?
✓ PET-CT.
CT-MRI.
PET-Gamma camera.
Ultrasound-CT.
X-ray-Ultrasound.
502. Which diagnostic method also can be used as a therapy?

Scintigraphy.

CT.
✓ Ultrasound.
MRI.
Functional MRI.
503. Diagnostic ultrasound

is a transversal wave.
✓ is a longitudinal wave.
has a frequency of 10 kHz.
has a frequency that changes during propagation.
is transformed into light during absorption.
504. Ultrasound is a transversal wave, BECAUSE its plane of oscillation is paralell to the direction of
propagation. [D]

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Biophysics test questions

01. Quantum physics

2. The total energy emitted by a black body at a given T temperature

3. The Planck constant's dimension is

Biophysics test questions 1 of 67

6. During the photoelectric effect

10. The kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted during photoelectric effect

Biophysics test questions 2 of 67

13. What does the dual nature of light mean?

15. According to the de Broglie formula

16. The de Broglie formula is a relationship between

Biophysics test questions 3 of 67

20. During the photoelectric effect

22. The photoelectric effect proves that

23. The correct form of de Broglie’s formula is:

Biophysics test questions 4 of 67

02. Atomic physics

31. The 2p electron orbital

Biophysics test questions 5 of 67

34. The "plum pudding" expression is attributed to

35. The Franck-Hertz experiment proves

36. What is the electron-tube filled with, in the Franck-Hertz experiment?

37. What does the Azimuthal quantum number define?

Biophysics test questions 6 of 67

42. The elements of the optical resonator are

43. The distance of mirrors for an optical resonator is

45. What is coherence?

46. What is the temporal coherence?

Biophysics test questions 7 of 67

47. Hologram has the property that

48. The energy required for pumping a laser can be provided by

50. The acronym LASER stands for

52. What is the spatial coherence?

53. Example of laser application in medicine:

Biophysics test questions 8 of 67

55. X-rays can have a wavelength in the range of

56. X-ray differs from visible light in that

58. When increasing the current in the cathode of an X-ray tube

Biophysics test questions 9 of 67

62. Based on an X-ray spectrum one can identify

64. The source of characteristic X-ray radiation in the atom is

65. The production of the characteristic X-rays

66. The frequency of braking X-ray radiation (Brehmsstrahlung) depends on

Biophysics test questions 10 of 67

68. Increasing the cathod-current of an X-ray tube one can increase

69. The X ray is different from other electromagnetic wave, besause

05. X-ray diffraction

Biophysics test questions 11 of 67

78. The resolution of X-ray diffraction can be increased by

06. Nuclear physics, radioactivity

80. The strong interaction between nucleons

81. What is the definition of total binding energy of a nucleus?

Biophysics test questions 12 of 67

84. The radioactive decay probability per unit time

85. The decay probability of radioactive nuclei

89. The half-life of a radioactive material

Biophysics test questions 13 of 67

91. After 9 (nine) half-lives the number or radioactive nuclei decays to

92. Alpha-radiation is composed of

93. Negative beta-radiation is composed of

94. Positive beta-radiation is composed of

95. Gamma-radiation consists of

Biophysics test questions 14 of 67

96. Which one of the following statements is true?