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CDI

QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS NA PO ITO :) (1 to 50)


B1. It deals with the identity, location and arrest of a person who commits a crime and
simultaneously identify, collect, preserve and evaluate evidence for the purpose of bringing criminal
offender to justice.
a. Investigation c. Investigative process
b. Criminal investigation d. Criminal inquest
D2. After identifying, collecting and preserving information gathered about the crime, the investigator
shall _______________ such information to determine whether it can stand prosecution and trial.
a. Recognize c. Preserve
b. Collect d. Evaluate
C3. Which of the following is not one of the form of information the investigator obtained from
regular, cultivated or grapevine sources?
a. Sensory c. Concrete
b. Written d. Physical forms
C4. Through this tool of criminal investigation tangible things maybe used to detect crimes, identify
the criminals, facilitate, and assist the investigator in its task in achieving the objectives of criminal
investigation.
a. Information c. Instrumentation
b. Criminalistics d. Interview/Interrogation
B5. Which phase of criminal Investigation that the investigator apprised the person of his right under
Republic Act
7438?
a. During the identification of criminal offender
b. During the arrest, detention and interrogation of the offender
c. During the gathering of evidence to prove the guilt of criminal offender
d. During police line-up
A6. What specific offence has been committed? Who committed it? When it was committed? Where
it was committed? Why it was committed? And how it was committed? This are
called_______________________ of criminal investigation.
a. Cardinal Points c. Golden Rule
b. Three I’s d. Bridges burn
B7. One of the stages of criminal investigation is the identification of criminals, which can be done in
any or a combination of the following, except:
a. By confession or admission by the criminal
b. By corpus delicti
c. By circumstantial evidence
d. By eyewitness
B8. Coerced and uncounselled statements are considered involuntary or forced confession which
are usually an:
a. Judicial c. Prosecutorial
b. Extra judicial d. Admission
A9. After apprising him of his rights under Republic Act 7438, Lauro Galit who was invited and
interrogated for the crime of murder executed an extra-judicial confession acknowledging his guilt to
the crime charged. What is the effect of such confession to his case?
a. It can be used as evidence against him
b. He will be convicted for the crime of murder
c. He waived his rights to prove his innocence
d. His case will prosper
C10. Which of the following is not an element of corpus delicti?
a. Proof of the occurrence of certain event
b. Person’s criminal responsibility for the acts
c. Additional evidence of a different character to the same point
d. Proper chain of custody
A11. An act or declaration made in the presence and within the hearing or observation of a party
who does or says nothing, when the act or declaration naturally calls for action if comment is not
true.
a. Admission by Silence c. Admission
b. Res inter alios acta d. Negative pregnant
B12. In this process, written confession of the accused is used as a script in describing events of the
crime. This strengthens the prosecutor’s case and serves to convince the judge that the accused
was not maltreated nor affected by sinister psychological influence.
a. Mental reconstruction c. Reconstruction
b. Crime reenactment d. Physical reconstruction
C13. Statement no. 1. Confession is a voluntary statement, either oral or written, made by a person
charged with the commission of a crime which he admits participation in, or commission of, the
criminal act. It cannot be implied, it should be direct and positive acknowledgment of guilt. Statement
no. 2 Admission is a statement by the accused regarding facts pertinent to the crime. It tends, in
connection with the proof of other facts, to prove the suspect’s guilt. It can be implied.
a. Statement No. 1 is true while statement no. 2 is false
b. Statement No. 1 is false while statement no. 2 is true
c. Statements No. 1 and 2 are both true
d. Statements No. 1 and 2 are both false
D14. Which of the following need not be present in order to prove the guilt of the accused by means
of confession or admission?
a. Confession must be supported by corroborative evidence
b. Corpus delicti must be established separately
c. Confession must be voluntarily and freely given
d. Confession must be ratified by the judge or the fiscal
D15. Assume that you are an investigator who investigates a murder case perpetrated by an
unknown suspect. A person in the name of Ruel, a call center agent, saw the crime and he is willing
to identify the suspect. Which of the following methods will you not utilize to establish the identity of
the suspect?
a. Verbal Description (Portrait Parle) and Rogue’s Gallery (Photographic Files)
b. General Photographs and Cartographic Sketch (Artist’s Assistance) [Composite Artist]
c. Police Line-up
d. Systematic interview that may lead to the identity of a known criminals
C16. You are an investigator, investigating a suspected rape-slaying case which was allegedly
witnessed by a certain person who volunteered to identify and testify against the perpetrator. What
are the factors that you should not consider to determine the accuracy of his identification of the
suspect?
a. His ability to observe and remember the distinct appearance of the suspect
b. The prevailing conditions of visibility and observation when the crime was committed
c. His state of mind when he witnessed the commission of the crime
d. The lapse of time between the criminal event and when identification was made
D17. Circumstantial Evidence is an evidence that indirectly proves a fact in issue through an
inference which fact-finder draws from the evidence presented. It is sufficient to produce the
conviction of the accused if:
a. There are more than one circumstances present
b. The facts from which the inferences derived are proven
c. The combination of all the circumstances is such as to produce a conviction beyond reasonable
doubt
d.All of the above
D18. You are an investigator who investigates an alleged robbery with homicide case perpetrated by
an unknown suspects. Since there are no witnesses to the crime the following may give you a hint to
identify the suspect, except one.
a. Motive and opportunity
b. Declaration and acts indicative of guilt, preparation for a commission of crime and possession of
fruits of a crime of the perpetrator
c. Modus Operandi, associative evidence and criminal potentiality
d. Knowledge, skills, tools or facilities that could easily be adopted to criminal use by the suspect
B19. Person who by social or professional position possesses or has access to information of
continuing interest, and who willingly provides information to the police either in response to a
specific request or his own initiative.
a. Incidental informant c. Automatic informant
b. Casual informant d. Recruited informant
A20. Covert observation of a person, place, or things by human or technical means to acquire
information.
a. Surveillance c. Mobile
b. Stationary surveillance d. Technical
B21. In this method of shadowing, operatives are station at a fixed point assuming that subject
followed the same general route each day.
a. ABC Method c. Combined Foot- Auto Surveillance
b. Leap Frog Method d. None of the above
A22. Sometimes called “roping”. An investigation technique whereby the operative conceals his true
identity and adopts an assumed role to obtain information or accomplish a specific mission.
a. Undercover assignment c. Work assignment and social assignment
b. Dwelling assignment d. Personal contact assignment
D23. You are an investigator tasked to investigate a suspected murder case which the there is no
known suspect, no witnesses nor any other circumstantial evidence, except physical evidence.
Where can you get these pieces of evidence that may lead you to the identity of the suspect?
a. The Crime Scene c. The Suspect
b. The Victim d. All of the above
D24. You were an investigator who tries to reconstruct the crime scene. What are the components of
the crime scene situation which you would analyzed?
a. Suspect arrival at the scene and place of entry
b. Movement of suspect from point of entry and his contact with the victim
c. Place of exit
d. All of the above
D25. What is the type of reasoning whereby the collected information is analyzed carefully to
develop a theory of the crime.
a. Inductive c. Systematic
b. Deductive d. Logical
C26. Statement no. 1. In the reconstruction of a crime, the investigator rational theory of the crime
may begins with deductive logic and later on inductive logic; Statement no. 2. A rational theory of
crime is more than a learned guess, but less than a certainty, but have very high order of probability.
a. Statement no. 1 is true while statement no. 2 is false
b. Statement no. 1 is false while statement no. 2 is true
c. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both true
d. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both false
C27. Statement no. 1. In Physical of reconstruction, the physical appearance of the crime scene is
reconstructed from the description, of the witnesses and the indication of the physical evidence.
Statement no. 2. In mental reconstruction after physical reconstruction, conclusions are made about
the consistency of the accounts of the various witnesses. No assumption is made without supporting
evidence.
a. Statement no. 1 is correct
b. Statement no. 2 is incorrect
c. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both correct
d. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both incorrect
D28. After reconstructing the crime scene, the following are the minimal requirements to be
observed by the investigator to insure admissibility of photographs in court.
a. The object which is represented should not be immaterial or irrelevant
b. The photograph should not unduly incite prejudice and sympathy
c. The photograph should be free from distortion
d. All of the above
B29. Why does the dead body of the victim of violence needs to be photographed after its removal
from the crime scene?
a. To have a set of view showing the relationship of the body with the surrounding
b. To identify the victim and have close-up picture of the wounds
c. To provide reserve picture in case of loss or damage
d. All of the above
C30. Photographs to be taken at the scene of the crime
a. Over-All and environment’s photograph
b. Photographs of articles of evidence and photographs of the deceased
c. Photographs of the scene of the crime operatives showing their identity
d. Special techniques photograph of the body after removal
A31. It supplements photographs of the crime scene and considered to be the simplest and the most
effective way of showing actual measurements and of identifying significant items of evidence in
their location at the scene.
a. Crime scene sketch c. Finished sketch
b. Rough sketch d. Direction sketch
C32. In searching for physical evidence at the crime scene, the following types of search could be
used depending upon locale, number of personnel available, type of object sought and speed
desired, except:
a. Strip and double strip or grid search
b. Zone search
c. Rectangular and circular search
d. Spiral and wheel search
C33. Which of the following must be done to maintain the physical integrity of evidence?
a. Evidence must be photographed and packaged
b. Evidence must be properly documented
c. Maintain its chain of custody
d. Identify, tag and seal the evidence
B34. Which of the following must be done to maintain the legal integrity of evidence?
a.Evidenced must be properly documented
b. Maintain its chain of custody
c. Identify, tag and seal the evidence
d. Photographed and packaged the evidence
D35. The methodology involving the systematic searching, handling, distribution and accountability
of all evidence found at the crime scene, including the documentation of every article of evidence
from the point of initial discovery at the scene, to its collection and transport to the point of
examination, its temporary storage and its final disposal is referred to us.
a. Corpus delicti c. Blotter
b. Necropsy report d. Chain of custody
A36. To prove the chain of custody of evidence the following must be demonstrated except:
a. The evidence must be free from alteration, contamination and switching
b. The evidence offered is the same evidence found at the scene
c. There is no opportunity to replace or improperly alter the evidence
d. Any change in the condition of the evidence can be explained
D37. Which of the following is not one of the questioning techniques that should be utilized in
interrogation?
a. Chronological c. Going backward
b. General to specific d. Going upward
B38. In questioning a witness, an ideal type of written statement is:
a. Narrative type because it is easier and will be short
b. Question and answer because it provides details of acts
c. Combination of the two
d. Your convenient type
A39. Jessie was invited by the NBI operatives to answer questions pertinent to the murder case
investigated. After the questioning at the NBI Headquarters however, he was held for further
questioning and considered him a suspect already. Persons who can visit him are as follows,
except:
a. Lovers, friends and countrymen
b. Immediate member of his family
c. Any medical doctor, priest or religious minister
d. Personnel of the C.H.R.
D40. Republic Act No. 7438 defines immediate members of the family are as follows, except:
a. Spouse, fiancé/fiancée, parents, child, brother or sister
b. Grandparents, grandson/daughter, great granddaughter/grandson
c. Uncle, aunt, guardian, ward
d. Relatives, intimate friends and best friends
C41. What are the Golden Rules in homicide investigation?
a. Never touch, alter and change the position of anything until identified, measured and
photographed
b. If article has been move it can never be restored again to its original position
c. A and B are true
d. All of the above
D42. The interview of a witness can be described by the acronym IRONIC, which stands for:
a. Inquiry, Recognition, Organization, Novelty, Identity, Continuity
b. Identity, Rapport, Omnipresent, Narration, Inquiry, Conclusion
c. Identity, Recognition, Opening statement, Narration, Inquiry, Conclusion
d. Identity, Rapport, Opening statement, Narration, Inquiry, Conclusion
D43. Which one is not a means of recording crime a scene?
a. By photographs
b. By notes
c. By sketches
d. Surveying
B44. Application of all procedures for the search of missing persons.
a. Rogues gallery c. manhunt
b. Tracing d. order of battle
??45. Physical evidence are contaminated, altered of shape, damaged or lost because of:
a. Improper packaging
b. Corruption of investigator
c. Non-maintenance of chain of custody
?
C46. Statement No. 1-The systematic procedure for verbal description of a person after a short
period of visual observation is termed Portrait Parle; Statement No. 2-Description of police
characters which a witness may refer and that is kept by police unit for purpose of references is
Rogue’s Gallery
a. Statement No. 1 is correct while statement No. 2 is incorrect
b. Statement No. 2 is correct while statement 1 is incorrect
c. Statement No.1 and 2 are both correct
d. Statement No.1 and 2 are both incorrect
C47. Statement no. 1-Tagging of physical evidence aside from the marking should be made
immediately after receipt by the evidence custodian; Statement no. 2- Marking or labeling of physical
evidence should be made at the crime scene upon collection.
a. Statement No. 1 is correct
b. Statement No. 2 is incorrect
c. Statement No.1 and 2 are both correct
d. Statement No.1 and 2 are both incorrect
D48. Under Republic Act 7438, when does the police’ custody of suspect to a crime commence,
hence the latter is entitled to be informed of his rights under the Miranda doctrine which cannot be
waived?
a. At the time of custodial investigation
c. During the announcement that he is under arrest
b. During the actual questioning
d. At the moment that he is invited for questioning
A49. What is the principal psychological factor that contributes to a successful interrogation?
a. Privacy
b. Rapport between the interrogator and the subject
c. Legality
d. It should be done in the interrogation room with one way mirror
D50. Statement no. 1- In spiral method of search, the searchers gather at the center and proceed
outward along radius or spokes. Statement no. 2- In wheel method, the searchers follow each other
along the path of a spiral, beginning on the outside and spiraling in toward the center.
a. Statement No. 1 is correct
b. Statement No. 2 is incorrect
c. Statements No.1 and 2 are both correct
d. Statements No.1 and 2 are both incorrect
CDI
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS (51 to 100)
C51. “Eavesdropping the crime scene” means:
a. Extent the estimate of the scene
b. Search physical evidence at the scene
c. Playing the role of a curious spectator and mix with the crowd to listen to their conversation
d. None of the above
C52. Criminal investigative activities virtually deals with:
a. Recognition and collection of facts which may be sensory, documentary and physical forms
b. Preservation and evaluation of information gathered from the regular, cultivated and grapevine
sources
c. Persons and things
d. A and B only
A53. Crimes involving destruction of life, except:
a. Mutilation serious physical injuries and rape
b. Duel, abortion and infanticide
c. Homicide and murder
d. Parricide
C54. Vincent killed his adoptor after the rendition of judgment of the petition for adoption. What was
the crime committed by Vincent?
a. Parricide c. Homicide
b. Murder d. None of the above
C55. Principles in homicide investigation that should be borne in mind are, mistakes of the homicide
investigator cannot be corrected and the homicide investigator should not cross the three bridges
which he burns behind him. Which of the following is not one of this so called “Burned bridge”?
a. When the dead person has been moved
b. When the dead body has been embalmed
c. When the dead body has been contaminated and the chain of custody was not properly
accounted
d. When the body is burned or cremated
A56. Considered to be the beginning of any homicide investigation is:
a. Process of establishing the accurate cause of death
b. Process of determining who is responsible for the death
c Process of determining how the victim was killed
d. Process of determining when the victim was killed
B57. In a case of dead person, when autopsy should be performed?
a. Death has been caused by violence
b. At once when there is the slightest reason to suspect the probability of homicide.
c. Upon the request of the dead person’s family
d. In all cases involving death
A58. Which of the following is the primary role of the investigator upon arrival at the homicide scene?
a. Verification of death
b. Identification of the person who is responsible for the death
c. Call a physician for the proper declaration of death
d. All of the above
D59. Legally, when does death considered to have occurred?
a. Respiratory system is no longer performing within the body
b. Cardiac activity is no longer performing within the body
c. Central nervous system activity is no longer performing within the body
d. All of the above
D60. You were a police officer responded in a violent crime just recently occurred. How would you
determine signs of death?
a. By detecting signs of breathing and respiratory movement
b. By hearing heart sounds
c. By applying pressure in the fingernails of a person
d. Any of the above
A61. Uses of physical evidence, except:
a. Determine the cause of crime
b. Reconstruct the crime
c. Identify the participants
d. Confirm or discredit an alibi
C62. In order to introduce physical evidence in trial, three important factors may be considered,
except:
a. The article must be properly identified
b. Continuity or chain of custody
c. Legality of the procurement
d. Competency must be proved, that the evidence is material and relevant
B63. Evidence of violence characterized by the removal of the superficial epithelial layer of the skin
brought about by the friction against a hard rough surface.
a. Contusion c. Patterned wound
b. Abrasions d. Hematoma
C64. You are a police officer responding to a crime which there is a dying person. You will obtain
dying declaration from him. Which of the following is not one of your duties in regard to dying
declaration?
a. Observe the victim as to whether he is manifesting a feeling of his impending death
b. Observe carefully the mental condition of the victim and jot down immediately his statements
c. Attempt to save the life of the victim
d. Avoid leading questions and produce the statement.
C65. Statement no. 1-Admissibility of dying declaration is not dependent on their being made in any
particular form. Statement no. 2- Dying declaration has no definite form required and need not be
under oath.
a. Statement no. 1 is true
b. Statement no. 2 is false
c. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both true
d. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both false
D66. Before the dead body is removed from the crime scene, the investigator must be sure that the
following had already been performed.
1. Crime scene search, sketch and photograph taken.
2. Possible witnesses are identified, leads taken into considerations and relative position of the body
was determined.
3. Notes are properly taken cared, evidence are identified, collected and preserved.
4. Close coordination between the medico-legal officer, the prosecutor and the homicide investigator
was established.
a. 1 and 4 c. 2 and 3
b. 1, 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
C67. Rape by sexual assault, except::
a. Inserting penis into another person’s mouth
b. Inserting penis into another person’s anal orifice
c. Inserting penis while the woman is sleeping
d Inserting any instrument or object, into the genital or anal orifice of another person.
A68. Post-mortem change that is characterized by the discoloration of the body after death.
A. livor mortis C. algor mortis
B. rigor mortis D. all of the above
C69. What injury would a person sustain if hit in the head with a hard object?
A. lacerated wound C. hematoma
B. incised wound D. abrasions
B70. This is the Anti-sexual Harassment Act of 1995:
A. RA 8049 C. RA 8505
B. RA 7877 D. RA 6235
C71. Which of the following body system coincide the stopping of a mental organ function of a
person to medically “dead”?
A. cardiac C. central nervous
B. respiratory D. digestive
C72. Identification of a dead body through examination of the teeth:
A. Forensic pathology C. Forensic odontology
B. Forensic chemistry D. Forensic medicine
A73. This is known as the Anti-Plunder Act:
A. RA 7080 C. RA 7610
B. RA 10054 D. RA 3019
C74. Which of the following is not a crime against persons?
A. Physical injury C. Abduction
B. Mutilation D. Parricide
A75. This is known as the Anti-Hazing Law:
A. RA 8049 C. RA 3553
B. RA 4200 D. RA 7877
B76. The notion, which declares that human behavior tends to repeat itself, can serve as basis of the
investigator in determining:
A. Criminal behavior C. Nature of the crime
B. Modus operandi D. Criminal intent
D77. This is the first that an investigator must do upon his arrival at the scene of the crime:
A. Secure the crime scene C. Interview of witness
B. Taking a picture D. Attend to emergency
C78. It refers to the forcible expulsion of a fetus from the mother’s womb:
A. Infanticide C. Abortion
B. Parricide D. Murder
D79. In this case, a price, reward or promise has been considered to kill the victim:
A. Homicide C. Infanticide
B. Parricide D. Murder
A80. It is one of the oldest methods of suspect identification:
A. Cartographic sketch C. Rouge’s gallery
B. Composite D. Police lineup
A81. You are Criminologist-Police Commissioned Officer who leads the execution of a valid search
warrant. Who must be present when a valid search warrant is conducted on a domicile?
A. The house owner
B. Any member of the house owner’s family
C. Two witnesses residing in the same community
D. All of the above
C82. Which of the following is not one of the acts of committing violation of domicile?
A. Searching domicile without witness
B. Search warrants maliciously obtained and abuse in the service of search warrant
C. Search of the domicile without warrant
D. Entering a dwelling against the will of the owner, searching documents, papers and effects
without the previous consent of the owner or refusing to leave having surreptitiously entered a
dwelling when required by the owner
B83. Senior Police Officer III Judean and Police Officer II Castro arrested and detained Pedro
Yengco without warrant for the crime of theft. When brought to the inquest prosecutor, the latter
issued release order for further investigation. What crime if any do the dou commits?
A. Arbitrary detention
B. Delaying release
C. Delay in the delivery of detained persons to the proper judicial authorities
D. Illegal detention
C84. Any person who killed his father, mother or child, whether legitimate or illegitimate, or any of his
ascendants, or his spouse, is guilty of what crime?
a. Homicide c. Parricide
b. Murder d. Any of the choices
A85. A and B are husband and wife, while working as security guard of Landbank, A felt sick one
night and decided to go home around midnight and saw B having sexual intercourse with a neighbor
C. A grabbed C and hacked the latter to death. As Criminologist-Investigator what crime if any would
you charged against A?
a. Homicide c. Parricide
b. Murder d. None because A is exempted from criminal liability
A86. In attempted or frustrated homicide, the offender must have the intent to kill the victim. If there
is no intent to kill, the offender is liable for-
a. Physical injury c. Serious physical injury
b. Homicide d. Consummated physical injury
B87. Under RA 8294 the use of unlicensed firearm in the commission of a crime is not considered as
a separate crime but shall be appreciated as a-
a. Mere alternative circumstance c. Qualifying circumstance
b. Mere aggravating circumstance d. Generic aggravating circumstance
B88. X a male, takes Y another male, to a motel and there, through threat and intimidation succeeds
in inserting his penis into the anus of Y. What crime, if any does X commit?
a. Sexual assault c. Acts of lasciviousness
b. Rape d. None
A89. Known as Anti Fencing Law of 1979.
a. PD 1612 c. BP 22
b. RA 3019 d. PD 532
C90. In what order would the steps be done by the investigator upon the finding of an evidential
cigarette butt?
1. making sketch
2. photographing
3. recording
A. 2, 1 and 3 C. 2, 3 and 1
B. 3, 2 and 1 D. 1, 2 and 3
A91. What is the first action of an investigator upon arriving at a homicide scene?
A. Bring the dying victim in the hospital
B. Crime scene search
C. Witness interviewing
D. Identification of witness
C92. In the course of investigating the house where a stabbing took place, police find what to be
bloodstains on the front door. Since the unknown perpetrator and the victim who may die were both
cut their identities need to be established through the bloodstains. How will the police collect the
stains?
A. Moisten a piece of clean cotton with a saline solution and rub gently
B. Remove the door and submit it to the crime lab
C. Scrap the stain into white paper using a clean razor blade
D. Blot the stain with a clean tissue soaked in alcohol
D93. Majority of the mistakes committed relative to evidence, take place:
1. during periods of transportation
2. in the collection of samples
3. a contaminated sampling
4. the wrong type material
A. 1 and 2 C. 2 and 4
B. 3 and 4 D. 2 and 3
C94. Once the crime scene has been thoroughly documented and locations of evidence was noted,
the collection process begins and will usually starts with:
A. point of exit C. fragile evidence
B. large objects D. removal of cadaver
D95. What is the final phase of crime scene investigation?
A. preliminary survey C. documentation of scene
B. collection of evidence D. release of crime scene
B96. How can plaster cast and photograph be marked for identification?
A. Affixing a seal on the front C. No mark at all
B. Marking at the back D. Tagging
D97. Which among the five human senses is considered the most objective?
A. Hearing C. Tasting
B. Smelling D. Seeing
D98. How can identification be made on a decomposed cadaver?
A. study his bones C. study his dentures
B. study his skull D. all of these
A99. Known as an Anti-Child Pornography Act of 2009.
a. RA 9775 c. RA 9194
b. RA 8484 d. RA 9995
B100. Philippine Act on Crimes Against International Humanitarian Law, Genocide, and other
Crimes against Humanity.
a. RA 9208 c. RA 9262
b. RA 9851 d. RA 8049
101. Called “ Exclusionary Rules on Evidence” whereby evidence obtained in violation of any of this
is inadmissible, except one.
a. Rights against unreasonable search and seizures
b. Right to privacy and communication and correspondence
c. In-custodial investigation rights and right against self-incrimination
d. Right to counsel
ANSWER: D
102. Known as “ Rape Victim Assistance and protection Act of 1998”
a. RA 9745 c. RA 6539
b. RA 8505 d. RA 7832
ANSWER: B
103. Rape by fraudulent machinations under RA 8353 can be committed either among the choices
except one.
a. Promise to marry
b. Prostitute who has not been paid as agreed
c. Person in authority who arrest another and having sex with the latter with the promise of release
from custody
d. Sexual intercourse while the victim is unconscious or otherwise deprive of reason
ANSWER: D
104. Rights that can be waived except one.
a. Right to be informed of the provisions of RA 7438
b. Right to remain silent
c. Right to counsel
d. Right to be visited
ANSWER:
105. A case wherein the violation of law or ordinances has just been unearthed or discovered and
the suspect and witness are still emotionally affected, upset, or shocked.
a. Hot case c. In flagrate delicto case
b. Cold case d. Hot pursuit case
ANSWER: A
106. The essence of this crime is the taking and transporting of a person against his will from one
place to another.
a. Kidnapping c. Abduction
b. Illegal detention d. Coercion
ANSWER: A
107. The narrow portion of the roadway due to traffic congestions or where “build up” usually occurs
is called:
A. Gridlock C. Traffic jam
B. Congestion D. Bottleneck
108. Republic Act 8750 is:
A. Clean Air Act C. Seatbelt Law
B. Philippine Land Transportation Code D. Anti-Carnapping Law
ANSWER: C
109. If the driver is involved in a traffic accident, he must report to the nearest police station:
A. Within 48 hours C. After 3 hours
B. Within 72 hours D. At once
ANSWER: D
110. Detection, apprehension and penalization of traffic violators.
A. Traffic Engineering C. Traffic Economy
B. Traffic Enforcement D. Traffic Ecology
ANSWER: B
111. Maintenance and construction of roads, traffic ways and other traffic facilities by the DPWH,
City Engineer’s Office, City or Municipal Council’s, etc.
A. Traffic Engineering C. Traffic Enforcement
B. Traffic Education D. Traffic Economy
ANSWER: A
112. Poor control measures as a major cause of traffic congestion is characterized by:
A. Narrow bridges and absence of catwalk to control pedestrians
B. Lack of traffic enforcers along intersections
C. Insufficient mechanical control devices and ineffective traffic officers
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D
113. Human errors as one of the cause of traffic congestion is best characterized by, except:
A. Poor legislative activities
B. Slow drivers or bad driving habit
C. Lack of foresight on the part of pedestrians
D. Presence of traffic officers
ANSWER: D
114. The entire width between boundary lines of every way or place of which any part is open to the
use of the public for purposes of vehicular traffic as a matter of right or custom.
A. Traffic way C. Traffic units
B. Road way D. Subway
ANSWER: A
115. The Land Transportation Office (LTO) is under the___________, and part of
traffic_____________:
A. DILG-engineering C. DPWH-engineering
B. DOTC-enforcement D. DEPED-traffic education
ANSWER: B
116. Known as Clean air Act.
A. RA 8749 C. RA 8750
B. LOI No. 22 D. PPD 1181
ANSWER: A
117. The study of biorhythm is an important aspect of traffic safety because a person can avoid
accident:
A. By hinting on how he will tend to feel in a certain day
B. By knowing his intellectual capacity on certain day
C. By knowing his physical capacity on certain day
D. By ascertaining his physical, emotional and intellectual condition in a certain day
ANSWER: A
118. Safety campaign is an important aspect of traffic safety education because:
A. It is designed to make road users behave more safely
B. It informs the public of any updates in traffic
C. It focuses on the strict compliance to traffic signs
D. It can prevent accident
ANSWER: A
119. What is the primary aim of driver instruction programs?
A. To teach the rudiments of driving
B. To instill awareness of one’s legal and moral responsibilities in traffic
C. To teach the abilities required for one to be eligible for a driving license
D. To help the learners know the basic of traffic rules and regulations
ANSWER: A
120. Traffic safety education for children needs to be systematic to:
A. Instill safety consciousness among the children
B. Cope up with the demands of time
C. Lessen the fatalities among children while they are young
D. Learn easier than adults
ANSWER: C
121. Land Transportation Code of the Philippines is:
A. RA 4136 C. RA 6975
B. PD 4136 D. RA 9708
ANSWER: A
122. When a driver unloads passengers on the middle of the road, he committed:
A. Illegal unloading C. Illegal loading
B. Traffic obstruction D. illegal stopping
ANSWER: B
123. An accident which is accompanied by an unidentified road user who flees immediately
thereafter.
A. Hit and Run cases C. Motor vehicle non-traffic accident
B. Motor vehicle traffic accident D. Non motor vehicle none traffic accident
ANSWER: A
124. Separation of traffic units in a vehicular accident is referred to as:
A. final position C. hazards
B. disengagement D. stopping
ANSWER: B
125. Seeing, feeling or hearing and understanding of an unusual or unexpected condition indicative
of a sign that the accident might takes place.
A. perception of hazards C. starts of evasive action
B. initial contact D. maximum engagement
ANSWER: A
126. An enforcement action which the violator is commanded to appear in court without detaining
him.
A. traffic arrest C. traffic citation
B. traffic warning D. dogwatch
ANSWER: C
127. Marks left on the roadway by tires when the brakes were applied strongly, hence the wheels
locked, and not free to rotate.
A. skid marks C. scuff marks
B. key event D. debris
ANSWER: A
128. Used when traffic enforcer observed a minor violation but preoccupied at a moment.
A. visual warning C. verbal warning
B. written warning D. oral warning
ANSWER: A
129. Considered as emergency vehicle, except:
A. Police car on call C. Ambulance on call
B. Fire truck on call D. Physician’s car
ANSWER: D
130. Motor vehicle used by ambassador of Singapore.
A. government C. diplomatic
B. foreign D. gate away
ANSWER:
131. What is the most common cause of road accident in the Philippines?
A. road condition C. pedestrian
B. whether condition D. reckless driving
ANSWER: D
132. What is the general rule for the movement of vehicular traffic in the Philippines?
A. “keep to the left” C. none of these
B. “keep to the right” D. “watch out”
ANSWER: B
133. Movement of persons, good, and vehicles either powered by an animal or an animal- drawn
vehicle on by combustion system from one place to another.
A. Engineering C. Traffic
B. Traffic management D. Construction
ANSWER: C
134. Systematic examination of all facts relating to conditions, actions and physical features
associated with motor collision.
A. traffic accident investigation C. traffic engineering
B. hit and run investigation D. traffic collision
ANSWER: A
135. What are the devices mounted on a portable support where a message to the road users is
conveyed by means of words or symbols
A. traffic light C. traffic island
B. traffic signs D. pavement marking
ANSWER: B
136. It warn road users of the danger that lies ahead of the road and its nature.
A. informative signs C. warning signs
B. regulatory signs D. all of these
ANSWER: C
137. The effectiveness of traffic law enforcement program is best measured by which of the
following.
A. Decrease in the ratio of convictions to enforcement actions
B. Reduction of traffic accidents and delay
C. Increase in traffic enforcement actions
D. None of the foregoing
ANSWER: B
138. When you combine verbal warning and citations in the traffic enforcement you are performing
or issuing:
A. Traffic rules implementation C. Citation warnings
B. Traffic consultation D. Written warnings
ANSWER: D
139. You are a police officer who wants to determine whether a driver is authorized to drive. What is
the evidence that you will ask him to show to prove that he is allowed by the Land Transportation
Office (LTO) to operate a vehicle on public highways?
A. driver’s ID C. driver’s license
B. franchise D. operator’s license
ANSWER: C
140. How should a driver approach an intersection?
A. Be at the right of way C. Be at the full stop
B. Give a signal D. Overtake other vehicles
ANSWER: C
141. Which of the following evidence is important to gather from fatal motor crash?
A. Spare tire C. Footwear of driver and skid mark of vehicle
B. Unusual odor D. All of these
ANSWER: D
142. The first action taken by a traffic unit to escape from collision course or otherwise avoid hazard.
A. Start of evasive action C. Point of no escape
B. Point of possible perception D. Final position
ANSWER: A
143. Painted on the pavement and placed at intersections and other places to provide pedestrians
with safety zone when crossing:
A. Center C. Cross walk
B. Lane D. Stop lines
ANSWER: C
144. A device mounted on a portable support where a message is conveyed by means of words or
symbols, officially erected or installed for the purpose of regulating warning or guiding traffic.
A. Center line C. Refuge Island
B. Stop line D. Traffic Signs
ANSWER: D
145. Motor vehicle accident occurs at a place other than on a highway:
A.Motor vehicle non-traffic accident
D. Non-motor vehicle traffic accident
B. Motor vehicle traffic accident
C. Motor vehicle accident
ANSWER: A
146. Friction mark on a pavement made by a tire, which is both rotating a slipping is called:
A. Centrifugal skid C. Scuff mark
B. Centrifugal force D. Skid mark
ANSWER: C
147. A motor vehicular accident resulting to the death of a puppy.
A. Fatal accident C. Property damage
B. Non-fatal accident D. Vehicular accident
ANSWER: C
148. Frontal collision of the vehicles.
A. Full impact collision C. Frontal collision
B. Head on collision D. Collision
ANSWER: B
149. Law concerning authority of the MMDA to manage traffic in metropolitan Manila area:
A. RA 4136 C. RA 7924
B. RA 6539 D. RA 8551
ANSWER: C
150. A driver who was in traffic accident is justified to leave from the accident area, if any of the
circumstances below are present, except:
A. He is in imminent danger of being harmed by other persons by reason of an accident
B. He surrenders to proper authority
C. He summons the assistance of a physician or nurse to aid the victim
D. He hides from the police for justifiable cause
ANSWER: D