D.

Simplex*
Chapter 1: Introduction 9. Simultaneous two-way communications is
to Elec Comm called
1. Communication is the process of
A. Half duplex
A. keeping in touch B. Full duplex
B. Broadcasting C. Bicomm
C. Exchanging information* D. Half duplex
D. Entertainment by electronics 10. The original electrical information signal to
2. Two key barriers to human be transmitted is called the
communication are
A Modulating signal
A. distance* B. Carrier
B. cost C. Baseband signal*
C. ignorance D. Source signal
D. language* 11. The process of modifying a high frequency
3. Electronic communications was carrier with the information to be transmitted is
discovered in which century? called

A. Sixteenth A. Multiplexing
B. Eighteen B. Telemetry
C. Nineteenth* C. Detection
D. Twentieth D. Modulation*
4. Which of the following is not a major 12. The process of transmitting two or more
communications medium? information signals simultaneously over the
same channel is called
A .Free space
B. Water* A. Multiplexing*
C. Wires B. Telemetry
D. Fiber-optic cable C. Mixing
5. Random interference to transmitted D. Modulation
signals is called 13. Continuous voice or video signals are
referred to as being
A. Adjacent channel overlap
B. Cross talk A. Baseband*
C. Garbage-in-Garbage-out B. Analog
D. Noise* C. Digital
6. The communications medium causes D. Continuous waves
the signal to be 14. Recovering information from a carrier is
known as
A. Amplified
B. Modulated A. Demultiplexing
C. Attenuated* B. Modulation
D. Interfered with C. Detection*
7. Which of the following is not a source D. Carrier recovery
of noise? 15. Transmission of graphical information over
the telephone network is accomplished by
A. Another communication signal*
B. Atmospheric effects A. Television
C. Manufactured electrical system B. CATV
D. thermal agitation in electronic C. Videotext
components D. Facsimile*
8. One-way communications is called 16. Measuring physical conditions at some
remote location and transmitting this data for
A. Half duplex analysis is the process of
B. Full duplex
C. Monocomm A. Telemetry*
B. Instrumentation 25. Electromagnetic waves produced primarily
C Modulation by heat are called
D. Multiplexing
17. Receiving electromagnetic emissions from A. Infrared rays*
stars is called B. Microwaves
C. Shortwave
A. Astrology D. X-rays
B. Optical Astronomy 26. A micron is
C. Radio Astronomy*
D. Space Surveillance A. One-million of a foot
18. A personal communications hobby for B. One-million of a meter*
individuals is C. One-thousandth of a meter
D. One Ten-Thousand of a meter
A. Ham radio* 27. The frequency range of infrared rays is
B. Electronic bulletin board approximately
C. CB radio
D. Cellular radio A. 30 to 300 GHz.
19. Radar is based upon B. 4000 to 8000 A.
C. 1000 to 10,000 A.
A. Microwaves D. 0.7 to 100 pm.*
B. A water medium 28. The approximately wavelength of red light
C. The directional nature of radio signal is
D. Reflected radio signals*
20. A frequency of 27MHz has a wavelength of A. 1000 pm.
approximately B. 7000 A.*
C. 3500 A.
A. 11 m.* D. 4000 A.
B. 27 m. 29. Which of the following is not used for
C. 30 m. communications
D. 81 m.
21. Radio signals are made up of A. X-rays*
B. Infrared
A. Voltages and currents C. Millimeter waves
B. Electric and magnetic fields* D. Microwaves
C. Electrons and protons 30. A signal occupies the spectrum space from
D. Noise and data 1.115 to 1.122 GHz. The bandwidth
.
22. The voice frequency range is Is
A. 0.007 MHz
A. 30 to 300 Hz. B. 7 MHz*
B. 300 to 3000 Hz.* C. 237 MHz
C. 20 Hz to 20 kHz D. 700 MHz
D. 0 Hz to 15 kHz 31. In the united states, the electromagnetic
23. Another name for signals in the HF range spectrum is regulated and managed by
is
A. Business industry
A. Microwaves B. ITU
B. RF waves C. FCC*
C. Shortwaves* D. The united nation
D. Millimeter waves 32. For a given bandwidth signal, more
24. Television broadcasting occurs in which channel space is available for signals in the
ranges? range of

A. HF A. VHF
B. EHF B. UHF
C. VHF* C. SHF
D. UHF
D. EHF* C. Carrier frequency shifts
D. Information signal is distorted*
8. For ideal AM, which of the following is true?
Chapter 2: AM and SSB
Modulation A. m = 0
1. Having an information signal change some B. m = 1*
characteristic of a carrier signal is called C. m < 1
D. m > 1
A. Multiplexing 9. The outline of the peaks of a carrier has the
B. Modulation* shape of the modulating signal and is called
C. Duplexing the
D. Linear Mixing A. Trace
2. Which of the following is not true about AM? B. Waveshape
C. Envelop*
A. The carrier amplitude varies D. Carrier variation
B. The carrier frequency remains constant 10. Overmodulation occurs when
C. The carrier frequency changes * A. Vm > Vc *
D. the information signal amplitude changes B. Vm < Vc
the carrier amplitude C. Vm = Vc
3. The opposite of modulation is D. Vm = Vc = 0
11. The values of Vmax and Vmin as read
A. Reverse modulation from an AM wave on an oscilloscope are 2.8
B. Downward modulation and 0.3. The percentage of modulation is
C. Unmodulation A. 10.7 percent
D. demodulation* B. 41.4 percent
4. The circuit used to produced modulation is C. 80.6 percent*
called a D. 93.3 percent
12 The new signals produced by modulation
A. Modulator are called
B. Demodulator* A. Spurious emission
C. Variable gain amplifier B. Harmonics
D. Multiplexir C. Intermodulation product
5. A modulator circuit performs what D. Sidebands*
mathematical operation on its two inputs? 13. A carrier of 880 kHz is modulated by a 3.5
kHz sine wave. The LSB and USB are,
A. Addition respectively,
B. Multiplication* A. 873 and 887 kHz
C. Division B. 876.5 and 883.5 kHz*
D. Square root C. 883.5 and 876.5 kHz
6. The ratio of the peak modulating signal D. 887 and 873 kHz
voltage to the peak carrier voltage is referred 14. A display of signal amplitude versus
to as frequency is called the
A. Time domain
A. The voltage ratio B. Frequency spectrum
B. Decibels C. Amplitude spectrum
C. The modulation index* D. Frequency domain*
D. The mix factor 15. Most of the power in an AM signal is the
7. If m is greater than 1, what happens? A. Carrier*
B. Upper sideband
A. Normal operation C. Lower sideband
B. Carrier drops of zero D. Modulating signal
16. An AM signal has a carrier power of 5 W. A. Carrier plus sideband
The percentage of modulation is 80 percent. B. Carrier only
The total sideband power is C. One sideband*
A. 0.8 W D. Both sidebands
B. 1.6 W* 24. The main advantage of SSB over standard
C. 2.5 W AM or DSB is
D. 4.0 W A. Less spectrum space is used*
17. For 100 percent modulation, what B. Simpler equipment is used
percentage of power is in each sideband? C. Less power is consumed
A. 25 percent* D. A higher modulation percentage
B. 33.3 percent 25. In SSB, which sideband is the best to use?
C. 50 percent A. Upper *
D. 100 percent B. Lower*
18. An AM transmitter has a percentage of C. Neither*
modulation of 88. The carrier power is 440 W. D. depends upon the use
The power in one sideband is 26. The typical audio modulating frequency
A. 85 W* range used in radio and telephone
B. 110 W communications is
C. 170 W A. 50 Hz to 5 kHz
D. 610 W B. 50 Hz to 15 kHz
19. An AM transmiiter antenna current is C. 100 Hz to 10 kHz
measured with no modulation and found to be D. 300 Hz to 3 kHz*
2.6 A. With modulation, the current rises to 2.9 27. An AM signal with a maximum modulating
A. The percentage of modulation is signal frequency of 4.5 kHz has a total
A. 35 percent bandwidth of
B. 70 percent* A. 4.5 kHz
C. 42 percent B. 6.75 kHz
D. 89 percent C. 9 kHz*
20. What is the carrier power in the problem D. 18 kHz
above if the antenna resistance is 75 ohms? 28. Distortion of the modulating signal
A. 195 W produces harmonics which cause an increase
B. 631 W in the signal
C. 507 W* A. Carrier power
D. 792 W B. Bandwidth*
21. In an AM signal, the transmitted C. Sideband power
information is contained within the D. Envelop voltage
A. carrier 29. The process of translating a signal, with or
B. Modulating signal without modulation, to a higher or lower
C. Sidebands* frequency for processing is called
D. Envelop A. Frequency multiplication
22. An AM signal without the carrier is called B. Frequency division
a(n C. Frequency shift
A. SSB D. Frequency conversion*
B. Vestigial sideband 30. Frequency translation is carried out by a
C. FM signal circuit called a
D. DSB* A. Translator
23 What is the minimum AM signal needed to B. Converter*
transmit information? C. Balanced Modulator
D. Local oscillator 2. In a diode modulator, the negative half of
31. An input signal of 1.8 MHz is mixed with a the AM wave is supplied by a(n)
local oscillation of 5 MHz. A filter selects the
difference signal. The output is A. Tuned circuit*
A. 1.8 MHz B. Transformer
B. 3.2 MHz* C. Capacitor
C. 5 MHz D. Inductor
D. 6.8 MHz 3. Amplitude modulation can be produced by
32. The output of an SSB transmitter with a
3.85 MHz carrier and a 1.5 kHz sine wave A. Having the carrier vary a resistance*
modulating tone is B. Having the modulating signal vary a
A. a 3.8485-MHz sine wave capacity
B. a 3.85-MHz sine wave C. Varying the carrier frequency
C. a 3.85-, 3.8485-, and 3.8515-MHz sine D. Varying the gain an amplifier
waves* 4. Amplitude modulators that vary the carrier
D. 3848.5- and 3851.5-MHz sine waves amplitude with the modulating signal by
33. An SSB transmitter produces a 400 V passing it through an attenuator work on the
peak-to-peak signal across a 52 ohms principle of
antenna load. The PEP output is
A. 192.2 W A. Rectification
B. 384.5 W* B. Resonance
C. 769.2 W C. Variable resistance*
D. 3077 W D. Absorption
Solution: 5. In Fig. 3-4, D1 is a
400V 2 2 PEP 52 Ω
34. The output power of an SSB transmitter is A. Variable resistor*
usually expressed in terms of B. Mixer
A. Average power C. Clipper
B. RMS power D. Rectifier
C. Peak-to-peak power 6. The component used to produce AM at very
D. Peak envelops power* high frequencies is a
35. An SSB transmitter has a PEP rating of 1
kW. The average output power is in the range A. Varactor*
of B. Thermistor
A. 150 to 450 W C. Cavity resonator
B. 100 to 300 W D. PIN diode
C. 250 to 333 W* 7. Amplitude modulation generated at a very
D. 3 to 4 kW low voltage or power amplitude is known as
Solution:
, 333W 3 PEP Vavg1 250W 4 PEP Vavg2 A. High-level modulation
B. Low-level modulation*
C. Collector modulation
D. Minimum mudulation
Chapter 3: AM Circuits 8. A collector modulator has a supply voltage
of 48 V. The peak-to-peak amplitude of the
modulating signal for 100 percent modulation
1. Amplitude modulation is the same as is
A. Linear mixing A. 24 V
B. Analog multiplication* B. 48 V
C. Signal summation
D. Multiplexing
C. 96 V* 15. In a diode ring modulator, the diodes act
D. 120 V like
Solution:
Vmp-p = 2Vc . m = A. Variable resistors
9. A collector modulated transmitter has a B. Switches*
supply voltage of 24 V and a collector current C. Rectifiers
of 0.5 A. The modulator power for 100 percent D. Variable capacitors
modulation is 16. The output of a balanced modulator is

A. 6 W A. AM
B. 12 W* B. FM
C. 18 W C. SSB
D. 24 W D. DSB*
Solution: 17. The principal circuit in th popular 1496/1596
P = VI = 24 x 0.5 = IC balanced modulator is a
10. The circuit that recovers the original
modulating information from an AM signal is A. Differential amplifier*
known as a B. Rectifier
C. Bridge
A. Modulator D. Constant current
B. Demodulator* 18. The most commonly used filter in SSB
C. Mixer generator uses
D. Crystal set
11. The most commonly used amplitude A. LC network
demodulator is the B. Mechanical resonators
C. Crystals
A. Diode mixer D. RC network and op-amps*
B. Balance modulator 19. The equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal is a
C. Envelop detector*
D. Crystal filter A. Series resonant circuit
12. A circuit that generates the upper and B. Parallel resonant circuit
lower sidebands but no carrier is called a(a) C. Neither A and B
D. Both A and B*
A. Amplitude modulator 20. A crystal lattice filter has crystal frequencies
B. Diode detector of 27.5 and 27.502 MHz. The bandwidth is
C. Class C amplifier approximately
D. Balanced modulator *
13. The inputs to a balanced modulator are 1 A. 2 kHz*
MHz and a carrier of 1.5 MHz. The outputs are B. 3 kHz
C. 27.501 MHz
A. 500 kHz D. 55.502 MHz
B. 2.5 MHz Solution:
C. 1.5 MHz BW = f2 – f1 = 27.502MHz–27.5MHz =
D. All of the above 21. An SSB generator has a sideband filter
E. A and B* centered at 3.0 MHz. The modulating signal is 3
14. A widely used balanced modulator is kHz. To produce both upper and lower
called the sidebands, the following carrier frequencies
must be produced:
A. Diode bridge circuit
B. Full-wave bridge rectifier A. 2.7 and 3.3 MHz
C. Lattice modulator* B. 3.3 and 3.6 MHz
D. Balanced bridge modulator C. 2997 and 3003 kHz*
D. 3000 and 3003
Solution: A. Modulator
LSB = 3.0 MHz – 3 kHz = B. filter
USB = 3.0 MHz + 3 kHz = C. Antenna
22. In the phasing method of SSB generation, D. LO*
one sideband is canceled out due to 30. An NE602 mixer IC has a difference output
of 10.7 MHz. The input is 146.8 MHz. The
A Phase shift* local oscillator frequency is
B. Product detector A. 101.9 MHz
C. Carrier Suppression B. 125.4 MHz
D. Phase inversion C. 131.6 MHz
23. A balanced modulator used to demodulate D. 157.5 MHz*
a SSB signal is called a(n) Solution:
fo = 146.8 MHz + 10.7 MHz
A. Transponder
B. Product detector
C. Converter*
D. Modulation Chapter 4: FM
24. Frequency translation is done with a circuit
called a 1. The amount of frequency deviation from the
carrier center frequency in an FM transmitter is
A. Summer proportional to what characteristic of the
B. Multiplier modulating signal?
C. Filter
D. Mixer* A. Amplitude*
25. The inputs to a mixer are fo and fm. In down B. Frequency
conversion, which of the following mixer output C. Phase
signals is selected D. Shape
2. Both FM and PM are types of kind of
A. fo modulation?
B. fm
C. fo - fm * A. Amplitude
D. fo + fm B. Phase
26. Mixing for frequency conversion is the C. Angle*
same as D. Duty circle
3. If the amplitude of the modulating signal
A. Rectification decreases, the carrier deviation
B. AM
C. Linear summing* A. Increases
D. filtering B. Decreases*
27. Which of the following can be used as a C. Remains constant
mixer D. Goes to zer0
4. On an FM signal, maximum deviation
A. Balanced modulator occurs at what point on the modulating signal?
B. FET
C. Diode modulator A. Zero-crossing point
D. All of the above* B. Peak positive amplitude
28. The desired output from a mixer is usually C. Peak negative amplitude
selected with a D. Both A and B*
5. In PM, a frequency shift occurs while what
A. Phase-shift circuit characteristic of the modulating signal is
B. Crystal filter* changing?
C. Resonant circuit
D. Transformer A. Shape
29. The two main inputs to a mixer are the
signal to be translated and a signal from a (n)
B. Phase 12. The maximum deviation of an FM carrier is
C. Frequency 2 kHz by a maximum modulating signal of 400
D. Amplitude* Hz. The deviation ratio is
6. Maximum frequency deviation of a PM A. 0.2
signal occurs at B. 5*
C. 8
A. Zero crossing point* D. 40
B. Peak positive amplitude Solution:
C. Peak negative amplitude 2 000 m400
D. Peak positive and negative amplitude 13. A 70 kHz carrier has a frequency deviation
7. In PM, carrier frequency deviation is not of 4 kHz with a 1000 Hz signal. How many
proportional to: significant sideband pairs are produced?
A. 4
A. Moduliting signal amplitude B. 5
B. Carrier amplitude and frequency* C. 6
C. Moduliting signal amplitude D. 7
D. Modulator phase shift Ans: 7
8. To compensate for increases in carrier Solution:
frequency deviation with an increase in 4 1000 000 4 m
modulating signal frequency, what circuit is By using Bessel’s Table, a modulation index of
used between the modulating signal and the 4, has 7 significant sidebands.
phase modulator? 14. What is the bandwidth of the FM signal
described in question 13 above?
A. Low-past filter* A. 4 kHz
B. High-past filter B. 7 kHz
C. Phase shifter C. 14 kHz*
D Bandpass filter D. 28 kHz
9. The FM produced by PM is called Solution:
BW = 2Nfmax
A. FM BW = 2 (7) (1000) =
B. PM 15. What is the relative amplitude of the third
C. Indirect FM* pair of sidebands of an FM signal with m = 6
D. Indirect PM A. 0.11*
10. If the amplitude of the modulating signal B. 0.17
applied to a phase modulator is constant, the C. 0.24
output signal will be D. 0.36
A. Zero 16. A 200 kHz carrier is modulated by a 2.5
B. The carrier frequency* kHz signal. The fourth pair of sidebands is
C. Above the carrier frequency spaced from the carrier by
D. Below the carrier frequency A. 2.5 kHz
11. A 100 MHz carrier is deviated 50 kHz by a B. 5 kHz
4 kHz signal. The modulation index is C.10 kHz*
A. 5 D.15 kHz
B. 8 Solution: Communications Electronics by
C. 12.5* Frenzel, 2nd ed | 9
D. 20
Solution:
50 000 m 4000
4th sideband = 4 (2.5 kHz) = B. Blot out
17. An FM transmitter has a maximum C. Quieting factor
deviation of 12 kHz and a maximum D. Domination syndrome
modulating frequency of 12 kHz. The 24. The AM signals generated at a low level
bandwidth by Carson’s rule is may only be amplified by what type of
A. 24 kHz amplifier?
B. 33.6 kHz A. Op amp
C. 36.8 kHz B. Linear*
D. 48 kHz* C. Class C
Solution: D. Push-pill
BW = 2 (δmax + fmax) 25. Frequency modulation transmitters are
BW = 2 (12 kHz + 12 kHz) = more efficient because their power is
18. The maximum allowed deviation of the FM increased by what type of amplifier
sound signal in TV is 25 kHz. If the actual A. Class A
deviation is 18 kHz, the percent modulation is B. Class B
A. 48 percent C. Class C*
B. 72 percent* D. All of the above
C. 96 percent 26. Noise interferes mainly with modulating
D. 139 percent signals that are
Solution: A. Sinusoidal
18 000 m 25000 B. Nonsinusoidal
19. Which of the following is not a major C. Low frequency
benefit of FM over AM? D. High frequency*
A. Greater efficiency 27. Pre-emphasis circuits boost what
B. Noise immunity modulating frequencies before modulation?
C. Capture effect A. High frequencies*
D. Lower complexity and cost* B. Nonsinusoidal
20. The primary disadvantage of FM is its C. Low frequency
A. Higher cost and complexity D. High frequency
B. Excessive use of spectrum space* 28. A pre-emphasis circuit is a
C. Noise susceptibility A. Low-past filter
D. Lower efficiency B. High-past filter*
21. Noise is primarily C. Phase shifter
A. High-frequency spikes* D. Bandpass filter
B. Low-frequency variations 29. Pre-emphasis is compensated for at the
C. Random level shifts receiver by
D. Random frequency variation A. Phase inverter
22. The receiver circuit that rids FM of noise is B. Bandpass filter
the C. High-past filter
A. Modulator D. Low-past filter*
B. Demodulator 30. The cut-off frequency of pre-emphasis and
C. Limiter* de-emphasis circuits is
D. Low-past filter A.1 kHz
23. The phenomenon of a strong FM signal B. 2.122 kHz*
dominating a weaker signa on a common C. 5 kHz
frequency is referred to as the D. 75 kHz
A. Capture effect *
 9. The widest phase variation is obtained with
Chapter 5: FM a(n)

Circuits A. RC low-pass filter

B. RC high-pass filter
1. Another name for a VVC is C. LR low-pass filter
D. LC resonant circuit*
A. PIN diode 10. In Fig. 5-7, R4 is the
B. Varactor diode*
C. Snap diode A. Pre-emphasis circuit
D. Hot-carrier diode B. De-emphasis circuit
2. The depletion region in a junction diode C. Deviation control*
forms what part of a capacitor D. Frequency determining component in the
turned circuit
A. Plates 11. The small frequency change produced by
B. Leads a phase modulator can be increased by using
C. Package a(n)
D. Dielectric* A. Amplifier
3. Increasing the reverse bias on a varactor B. Mixer
diode will cause its capacitance C. Frequency multiplier*
D. Frequency Divider
A. Decreases* 12. A crystal oscillator whose frequency can
B. Increases be changed by an input voltage is called a(n)
C. Remain the same A. VCO
D. Drop to zero B. VXO*
4. The capacitance of a varactor diode is in C. VFO
what general range D. VHF
13. Which oscillators are preferred for carrier
A. pF* generators because of their good frequency
B. nF stability?
C. uf A. LC
D. F B. RC
5. In Fig. 5-3, the varactor diode is biased by C. LR
which components? D. Crystal*
14. Which of the following frequency
A. R1, R2* demodulators requires an input limiter?
B. R1, C2 A. Foster –Seeley discrimination*
C. L1, C1 B. Pulse-average discrimination
D. RFC, C3 C. Quadrature detector
6. In Fig. 5-3, if the reverse bias on D1 is D. PLL
reduced, the resonant frequency of C1 15. Which discriminator averages pulses in a
low-pass filter?
A. Increases A. Ratio detector
B. Decreases* B. PLL
C. Remain the same C. Quadrature detector*
D. Cannot be determined D. Foster –Seeley discrimination
7. The frequency change of a crystal oscillator 16. Which frequency demodulator is
produced by a varactor diode is considered the best overall?
A. Ratio detector
A. Zero
B. Small*
C. Medium
D. Large
8. A phase modulator varies the phase shift of
the

A. Carrier*
B. Modulating signal
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A and B
B. PLL* D. Pulse-average discrimination
C. Quadrature
17. In Fig. 5-8, the voltage at point A when the frequency variations into voltage variations is
input frequency is below the FM center the
frequency is A. Quadrature detector
A. Negative B. foster-seeley discrimination
B. Positive* C. Differential peak detector*
C. Zero D Phase-locked loop
D. Inderminant 24. The output amplitude of the phase detector
18. In Fig. 5-8, R3 and C6 form which kind of in a quadrature detector is proportional to
circuit A. Pulse width*
A. Carrier filter B. Pulse frequency
B. Pulse-average discrimination C. Input Amplitude
C. Pre-emphasis D. The phase shift value at center frequency
D. De-emphasis* 25. The input to a PLL is 2 MHz. In order for
19. In Fig. 5-10, the voltage across C6 is the PLL to be locked, the VCO output must be
A. Inversely proportional to signal amplitude A. 0 MHz
B. Directly proportional to signal amplitude B. 1 MHz
C. Directly proportional to frequency deviation* C. 2 MHz*
D. Constant D. 4 MHz
20. In a pulse averaging discriminator, the 26. Decreasing the input frequency to a locked
pulses are produced by a(n) PLL will cause the VCO output to
A. Astable multivibrator A. Decrease
B. Zero-crossing detector* B. Increase
C. One shot C. Remain constant
D. Low-pass filter D Jump to free-running frequency*
21. A reactance modulator looks like a 27. The range of frequencies over which a PLL
capacitance of 35 pF in parallel with the will track input signal variations is known as
oscillator-tuned circuit whose inductance is 50 the
μH and capacitance is 40 pF. What is the A. Circuit bandwidth
center frequency of the oscillator prior to FM? B. Capture range
A. 1.43 MHz C. Band of acceptance
B. 2.6 MHZ* D Lock range*
C. 3.56 MHz 28. The band of frequencies over which a PLL
D. 3.8 MHz will acquire or recognize an input signal is
Solution: called the
LC 2 1 f A. Circuit bandwidth
CT = 35 pF + 40 pF =75 pF B. Capture range*
1 f 2Π (50 H)(75pF) C. Band of acceptance
22. Which of the following is true about the D Lock range
NE566 IC? 29. Over a narrow range of frequencies, the
A. It is a VCO* PLL acts like a
B. Its output is sinusoidal A. Low-past filter
C. It is an FM demodulator B. Bandpass filter*
D. It uses LC-tuned circuit C. Tunable oscillator
23. An FM demodulator that uses a differential D. Frequency modulator
amplifier and tuned circuits to convert
30. The output of a PLL frequency Solution
demodulator is taken from f = 9 MHz x 2 x 3 x 4 =
A. Low-pass filter* 7. The most efficient RF power amplifier is
B. VCO which class amplifier?
C. Phase detector
D None of the above A. A
B. AB
C. B
D. C*
8. Collector current in a class C amplifier is a
Chapter 6: Radio A. Sine wave
Transmitters B. Half sine wave
C. Pulse*
D. Square wave
1. Which of the following circuits is not typically 9. The maximum power of typical transistor RF
part of every radio transmitter power amplifiers is in what range?
A. Carrier oscillator A. Milliwatts
B. Drive amplifier B. Watts
C. Mixer* C. Hundred of watts*
D. Final power amplifier D. Kilowatts
2. Class C amplifiers are not used in which 10. Self-oscillation in a transistor amplifier is
type of transmitter? usually caused by
A. AM A. Excessive game
B. SSB* B. Stray inductance
C. CW C. Internal capacitance*
D. FM D. Unmatched impedance
3. A circuit that isolates the carrier oscillator 11. Neutralization is the process of
from load changes is called a
A. Cancelling the effect of internal device
A. Final amplifier capacitance*
B. Driver amplifier B. By passing undesired alternating current
C. Linear amplifier C. Reducing gain
D. Buffer amplifier* D. Eliminating harmonics
4. A class B amplifier conducts for how many 12. Maximum power transfer occurs when
degrees of an input sine wave? what relationship exists between the generator
impedance ZI and the load impedance Zl?
A. 90o to 150o
B. 180o * A. Zi = Zi *
C. 180o to 360o B. Zi > Zi
D. 360o C. Zi < Zi
5. Bias for a class C amplifier produced by an D. Zi = O Ω
input RC network is known as 13. Which of the following is not a benefit of a
toroid RF inductor?
A. Signal bias*
B. Self bias A. No shielding required
C. Fixed internal bias B. Fewer turns of wire
D. Threshold bias C. Higher Q
6. An FM transmitter has a 9 MHz crystal D. Self-supporting*
carrier oscillator and frequency multipliers of 2, 14. A toroid is a
3, 4. The output frequency is
A. Type of inductor
A. 54 MHz B. Transformer
B. 108 MHz C. Magnetic core*
C. 216 MHz* D. Coil holder
D. 288 MHz
15. Which of the following is not commonly B. Overmodulation
used for impedance matching in a transmitter? C. High gain
A. Resistive attenuator* D. Excessive signal bandwidth*
B. Transformer 22. The gain of a transistor amplifier is
C. L network A. Inversely proportional to collector current
D. T network B. Directly proportional to frequency
16. To a match a 6 Ω amplifier impedance to a C. Directly proportional to collector current*
72 Ω antenna load, a transformer must have a D. Inversely proportional to fequency
turns ration NP/NS of 23. What values of L and C in an L network
A. 0.083 are required to match a 10 Ω transistor
B. 0.289* amplifier impedance to a 50 Ω load at 27
C. 3.46 MHz?
D. 12. A. L=47 nH, C= 185 pF
Solution: B. L= 118 nH, C= 236 pF*
ZS ZP Ns NP C. L= 0.13 pH, C= 220 pF
Ps 6 72 NN D. L= 0.3 pH, C= 330 pF
17. Impedance matching in a broadband linear Solution:
RF amplifier is handled with a(n) R2 1 R2 R1XL
A. L network XL= 2πfL
B. Parallel turned circuit 20Ω 10 (10)(50) XL 2
C. Pi network 118nH 117.89nH (27M) 2 XL L
D. Balun* 25 20 10(50) XR R X L 2 1 C
18. A class C amplifier has a supply voltage of 235.78pF (27M)(25) 2 1 X f 2 1 C C
24 V and a collector current of 2.5 A. Its
efficiency is 80 %. The RF output power is
A. 24 W
B. 48 W*
C. 60 W Chapter 7:
D. 75 W
Solution: Communications
@ 100 %:
P100 = VI = Receivers
@ 80 %:
P80 = 0.8 P100 1. The simplest receiver is a(n)
P80 = 0.8 (60) =
19. Which of the following is not a benefit of A. RF amplifier
speech-processing circuits? B. Demodulator
A. Improved frequency stability* C. AF amplifier
B. Increase average output power D. Tuned circuit*
C. Limited bandwidth 2. The key conceptual circuit in a superhet
D. Prevention of over modulation receiver is the
20. In an AM transmitter, a clipper circuit
eliminates A. Mixer*
A. Harmonics B. RF amplifier
B. Splatter*
C. Overdeviation c. demodulator
D. Excessive gain
21. In a speech-processing circuit, a low-pass
filter prevents d. af amplifier
A. Overdeviation
 10. For best image rejection, the IF for a 30
3. Most of the gain and selectivity in a MHz signal would be
superhet is obtained in the
A. 455 kHz
A. RF amplifier B. 3.3 MHz
B. Mixer C. 9 MHz
C. IF amplifier* D. 55 MHz*
D. AF amplifier 11. A tuned circuit is resonant at 4 MHz. Its Q
4. The sensitivity of a receiver depends upon is 100. The bandwidth is
the receiver’s overall
A. 400 Hz.
A. Bandwidth B. 4 kHz
B. Selectivity C. 40 kHz*
C. Noise response D 400 kHz
D. Gain* Solution:
5. The ability of a receiver to separate one BW = fr / Q = 4 MHz / 100 = 40 kHz
signal from others on closely adjacent 12. A crystal filter has a 6 dB bandwidth of 2.6
frequencies is called the kHz and a 60 dB bandwidth of 14 kHz. The
shape factor is
A. Sensitivity *
B. S/N ratio A. 0.186.
C. Selectivity B. 5.38. *
D. Gain C. 8.3.
6. A mixer has a signal input of 50 MHz and an D. 36.4.
LO frequency of 59 MHz. The IF is Solution:
Shape factor = 60 dB BW / 6 dB BW
A. 9 MHz* Shape factor = 14 kHz / 2.6 kHz =
B. 50 MHz 13. Most internal noise comes from
C. 59 MHz
D. 109 MHz A. Shot noise
Solution: B. Transit-time noise
IF = fo – fs = 59 MHz – 50 MHz = 9 MHz C. Thermal agitation*
7. A signal 2 times the IF away from the D. Skin effect
desired signal that causes interference is 14. Which of the following is not a source of
referred to as a(n) external noise

A. Ghost A. Thermal agitation*

B. Image* B. Auto ignitions
C. Phantom C. The sun
D Inverted signal D. Fluorescent light
8. A receiver has a desired input signal of 18 15. Noise can be reduced by
MHz and an LO frequency of 19.6 MHz. The
image frequency is A. Widening the bandwidth
B. narrowing the bandwidth*
A. 1.6 MHz C. Increasing temperature
B. 18 MHz D. Increasing transistor current level
C. 19.6 MHz
D 21.2 MHz*
Solution:
IF = 19.6 MHz – 18 MHz = 1.6 MHz
fsi = fs + 2IF
fsi = 18 MHz + 2 (1.6 MHz)
fsi =
9. The main cause of image interference is

A. Poor front-end selectivity*

B. low gain
C. A high IF
D. A low S/N ratio
16. Noise at the input to a receiver can be as A. Undercoupling
high as several B. Critical coupling
C. Optimum coupling
A. Microvolts* D. Overcoupling*
B. Millivolts 25. Automatic gain control permits a wide
C. Volts range of signal amplitudes to be
D. Kilovolts accommodated by controlling the gain of the
17. Which circuit contributes most to the noise
in a receiver? A. RF amplifier
B. IF amplifier*
A. IF amplifier C. Mixer
B. Demodulation D. AF amplifier
C. AF amplifier 26. In an IF amplifier with reverse AGC, a
D. Mixer* strong signal will cause the collector current to
18. Which noise figure represents the lowest
noise A. Increase
B. Decrease*
A. 1.6 dB* C. Remain the same
B. 2.1 dB D. Drop to zero
C. 5.3 dB 27. Usually AGC voltage is derived by the
D. 3.4 dB
19. Which filter shape factor represents the A. RF amplifier
best skirt selectivity? B. IF amplifier
C. Demodulator*
A. 1.6* D. AF amplifier
B. 2.1 28. An AFC circuit is used to correct for
C. 5.3
D. 8 A. Audio distortion
20. Which input signal below represents the B. Strong input signal
best receiver sensitivity? C. Instability in the IF amplifier
D. Frequency drift in the LO*
A. 0.5 pV* 29. A circuit keeps the audio cut off until a
B. 1 pV signal is received is known as
C. 1.8 pV
D. 2 pV A. A squelch*
21. Transistor with the lowest noise figure in B. AFC
the microwave region is a(n) C. AGC
D A noise blanker
A. MOSPET 30. A BFO is used in the demodulation of
B. Dual-gate MOSPET which types of signals?
C. JFET
D. MESPET* A. AM
22. The AGC circuits usually control the gain B. FM
of the C. SSB or CW*
D. QPSK
A. Mixer 31. Which of the following circuits are not
B. Detector typically shared in an SSB transceiver?
C. IF amplifier*
D. Audio amplifier A. Crystal filter
23. Selectivity is obtained in most receivers B. Mixers*
from C. Power supply
D. LO
A. Crystal filter
B. Mechanical filter
C. Double-tuned circuit*
D Audio filter
24. Widest bandwidth in a double-tuned circuit
is obtained with
 4kTBWR V
32. The basic frequency synthesizer circuit is MHz)(300) 30)(6 4k(273V
a(n) Where k = 1.3806503 x 10-23-
V=
A. Mixer 39. The stage gains in a superheterodyne are
B. Frequency multiplier follows RF amplifier, 10dB; mixer, 6dB; two IF
C. Frequency divider amplifiers, each 33 dB; detector, -4 dB; AF
D. PLL* amplifier, 28 dB. The total gain is
33. The output frequency increment of a
frequency synthesizer is determined by the A. 73 dB
B. 82 dB
A. Frequency division ratio C.106 dB*
B. Reference input to the phase detector* D.139 dB
C. Percentage of output frequency Solution:
D. Frequency multiplication factor GT = G1 + G2 + .. + Gn
34. The output of the frequency synthesizer is GT = 10 + 6 + 33 + 33 + -4 + 28 =
changed by varying the 40. A tuned circuit resonates at 12 MHz with
an inductance of 5 μH whose resistance is 6
A. Reference frequency input to the phase Ω. The circuit bandwidth is
detector
B. Frequency division ratio* A. 98 kHz
C. Frequency multiplication factor B. 191 kHz*
D. Mixer LO frequency C. 754 kHz
35. In Fig 7-28, if the input reference is 25 kHz D. 1.91 MHz
and the divide ratio is 144, the VCO output Solution:
frequency XL = 2πfL = 2π(12 MHz)( 5 μH) = 376.99
Q = XL / R = 376.99 / 6 = 62.83
A. 173.61 Hz BW = fr / Q = 12 MHz / 62.83 = 190.99 kHz
B. 144 kHz 41. In a receiver with noise-derived squelch,
C. 3.6 MHz* the presence of an audio signal causes the
D. 5.76 MHz audio amplifier to be
36. The bandwidth of a parallel LC circuit can
be increased by A. Enable*
B. Disable
A. Increasing XC
B. Decreasing XL *
C. Decreasing coil resistance Chapter 8:
D. A resistor connected in parallel
37. The upper and lower cutoff frequencies of Multiplexing
a tuned circuit are 1.7 and 1.5 MHz
respectively. The circuit Q is 1. Multiplexing is the process of

A. 8* A. Several signal source transmitting

B. 10 simultaneously to a receiver on a common
C. 16 frequency
D. 24 B. Sending the same signal over multiple
Solution: channels to multiple destination
BW = 1.7 MHz – 1.5 MHz = 200 kHz C. Transmitting multiple signals over a single
fr = 1.5 MHz + (200 kHz / 2) = 100 kHz channel
Q = fr / BW = D. Sending multiple signals simultaneously
38. The noise voltage across a 300 Ω input over a single channel*
resistance to a TV set with a 6 MHz bandwidth
and a temperature of 30oC is

A. 2.3 pV
B. 3.8 pV
C. 5.5 pV*
D. 6.4 pV
Solution:
 A. Increasing the multiplexer size
2. In FDM, multiple signals B. Using many final carriers
C. Narrowing the bandwidth of each
A. Transmit a different time D. Using multiple levels of multiplexing*
B. Share a common bandwidth* 11. In FM stereo broadcasting, the L + R
C. Use multiple channels signal
D. Modulate one another
3. Each signal in a an FDM system A. Double –sideband modulates a subcarrier
B. Modulates the FM carrier*
A. Modulate a subcarrier* C. Frequency modulates a subcarrier
B. Modulates the final carrier D. Is not transmitted
C. Is mixed with all the others before 12. In FM stereo broadcasting, the L – R
modulating signal
D. Serves as a subcarrier
4. Frequency modulation in FDM systems is A. Double-sideband modulates a subcarrier*
usually accomplished with a B. Modulates the FM carrier
C. frequency modulates a subcarrier
A. Reactance modulation D. Is not transmitted
B. Varactor 13. The SCA signal if used in FM broadcasting
C. VCO* is transmitted via
D. PLL
5. Which of the following is not a typical FDM A. A 19-kHz subcarrier
application B. A 38-kHz subcarrier
C. A 67-kHz subcarrier*
A. Telemetry D. The main FM carrier
B. Stereo broadcasting 14. In TDM, multiple signals
C. Telephone
D. Secure communication* A. Share a common bandwidth
6. The circuit the performs demultiplexing in an B. Modulate subcarrier
FDM system is a(n) C. Are sampled a high speed
D. Take turns transmitting*
A. OP amp 15. In TDM, each signal may use he full
B. Bandpass filter* bandwidth of the channel
C. Discriminator
D Subcarrier oscillator A. True*
7. Most FDM telemetry systems use B. False
16. Sampling an analog signal produces
A. AM
B. FM* A. PAM*
C. SSB B. AM
D. PSK C. FM
8. The best frequency demodulator is the D. PCM
17. The maximum bandwidth that an analog
A. PLL discriminator* signal use with a sampling frequency of 108
B. Pulse-averaging discriminator kHz is
C. Foster-seeley discriminator
D. Ratio detector A. 27 kHz
9. The modulation used in FDM telephone B. 54 kHz*
systems is C.108 kHz
D. 216 kHz
A. AM Solution:
B. FM fn = fb / 2 = 108 kHz / 2 =
C. SSB* 18. Pulse-amplitude modulation signals are
D. PSK multiplexed by using
10. The FDM telephone systems
accommodate many channels by A. Subcarrier
B. Bandpass filters D. Bell 212
C. A/D converters 27. An IC that contains A/D and D/A converters,
D. FET swithes* companders and parallel-to-serial converters is
19. In PAM demultiplexing, the receiver clock called
is derived from
A. Codec*
A. Standard radio station WWV. B. Data converter
B. A highly accurate internal oscillator C. Multiplexer
C. The PAM signal itself* D. Modem
D. The 60-Hz power line 28. Pulse-code modulation is preferred to PAM
20. In PAM/TDM system, keeping the because of its
multiplexer and DEMUX channels step with
one another is done by a A. Resistance to quantizing error
B. Simplicity
A. Clock recovery circuit C. Lower cost
B. Sync pulse* D. Superior noise immunity*
C. Sampling
D. Sequencer
21. Transmitting data as serial binary words is Chapter 9: Antennas
called
and Transmission
A. Digital communication
B. Quantizing lines
C. PAM
D. PCM*
22. Converting analog signals to digital is done 1. The most commonly used transmission line is
by sampling and a

A. Quantizing* A. Two-wire balance line

B. Companding B. Single wire
C. pre-emphasis C. Three-wire line
D. Mixing D. Coax*
23. A quantizer is a(n) 2. The characteristic impedance of a
transmission line does not depend upon its
A. Multiplexer
B. Demultiplexer A. Length
C. A/D converter* B. Conductor diameter
D. D/A converter C. Conductor spacing
24. Emphasizing low-level signals and D. None of the above*
compressing higher-level signals is called Choices were:
Length, Conductor Diameter and Conductor
A. Quantizing spacing
B. Companding* 3. Which of the following is not a common
C. Pre-emphasis transmission line impedance?
D. Sampling
25. Which of the following is not a benefit of A. 50 Ω
companding? B. 75 Ω
C. 120 Ω *
A. Minimizes noise D. 300 Ω
B. Minimizes number of bites 4. For maximum absorption of power at the
C. Minimize quantizing error antenna, the relationship between the
D. Minimizes signal bandwidth* characteristic impedance of the line ZO and the
26. A telephone system using TDM and PCM load impedance Zl should be
is called
A. Z0 = Z1 *
A. PBX. B. Z0 > Z1
B. RS-232 C. Z0 < Z1
C. T-1 *
D. Z0 = 0 B. 1.0
5. The mismatch between antenna and C. 1.2
transmission line impedances cannot be D. 1.5*
corrected for by Solution:
0.2 260 390 260 - 390Vmin Vmax Vmin - Vmax | Γ |
A. Using an LC matching network
B. Adjusting antenna length 1 | Γ | 1 0.2 SWR 1 | Γ | 1 0.2
C. Using a balun 12. Three feet is one wavelength at a frequency
D. Adjusting the length of transmission line* of
6. A pattern of voltage and current variations
along a transmission line not terminated in its A. 100 MHz
characteristic impedance is called B. 164 MHz
C. 300 MHz
A. An electric field D. 328 MHz*
B. Radio waves 13. At very high frequencies, transmission lines
C. Standing waves* are used as
D. a magnetic field
7. The desirable SWR on a transmission line is A. Tuned circuit*
B. Antennas
A. 0. C. Insulators
B. 1.* D. Resistors
C. 2. 14. A shorted quarter-wave line at the operating
D. Infinity frequency acts like a(n)
8. A 50 Ω coax is connected to a 73 Ω
antenna. The SWR is A. Series resonant circuit
B. Parallel resonant circuit*
A. 0.685. C. Capacitors
B. 1. D. Inductor
C. 1.46.* 15. A shorted half-wave line at the operating
D. 2.92. frequency acts like a(n)
Solution:
If RL > ZO : A. Capacitors
SWR = RL / ZO = 73 / 50 = B. Inductor
9. The most desirable reflection coefficient is C. Series resonant circuit*
D. Parallel resonant circuit
A. 0.* 16. A popular half-wavelength antenna is the
B. 0.5.
C. 1. A. Ground plane
D. Infinity B. End-fire
10. A ratio expressing the percentage of C. Collinear
incident voltage reflected on a transmission D. Dipole*
line is known as the 17. The length of a doublet at 27 MHz is

A. Velocity factor A. 8.67 ft.

B. standing wave ratio B. 17.33 ft*
C. Reflection coefficient* C. 18.2 ft
D. Line efficiency D. 34.67 ft
11. The minimum voltage along a transmission Solution:
line is 260 V, while the maximum voltage is MHz 468 468 L 27 f
390 V. The SWR is 18. A popular vertical antenna is the

A. 0.67 A. Collinear
B. Dipole B. Driven element
C. Ground Plane* C. Reflector
D. Broadside D. Sky
19. The magnetic field of an antenna is 27. Conductors in multielement antennas that
perpendicular to the earth. The antenna’s do not receive energy directly from the
polarization transmission line are known as

A. Is vertical A. Parasitic elements*

B. Is horizontal* B. Driven elements
C. Is circuit C. The boom
D. Cannot be determined from the information D. Receptors
given 28. A coax has an attenuation of 2.4 db per
20. An antenna that transmits or receives 100 ft. The attenuation for 275 ft is
equally well in all directions is said to be
A. 2.4 dB
A. Omnidirectional* B. 3.3 dB
B. Bidirectional C. 4.8 dB
C. Unidirectional D. 6.6 dB*
D. Quasidirectional Solution:
21. The horizontal radiation pattern of a dipole dB 2.4db 275 100 ft A
is a 29. An antenna has a power gain of 15. The
power applied to the antenna is 32 W. The
A. Circle effective radiated power is
B. Figure eight*
C. Clover left A. 15 W
D. Narrow beam B. 32 W
22. the length of a ground plane vertical at 146 C.120 W
MHz is D. 480 W*
Solution:
A. 1.6 ft.* P = GTPT = (15)(32) =
B. 1.68 ft. 30. Which beamwidth represents the best
C. 2.05 ft. antenna directivity
D. 3.37 ft.
Solution: A. 70 **
MHz L 468 468 2 22(146) f B. 120
23. The impedance of a dipole is about C.190
D. 280
A. 50 Ω 31. The radiation pattern of collinear and
B. 73 Ω * broadside antennas
C. 93 Ω
D. 300 Ω A. Omnidirectional
24. A direction antenna with two or more B. Bidirectional*
elements is known as a(n) C. Unidirectional
D. Clover-leaf shape
A. Folded dipole
B. Ground plane
C. Loop
D. Array*
25. The horizontal radiation pattern o a vertical
dipole is

A. Figure eight
B. Circle*
C. Narrow beam
D. Clover leaf
26. In a Yagi antenna, maximum direction of
radiation is toward the

A. Direction*
32. Which antenna has a unidirectional A. VHF
radiation pattern and gain B. UHF
C. HF*
A. Dipole D. Microwave
B. Ground plane 40. A microwave-transmitting antenna is 550 ft
C. Yagi* high. The receiving antenna is 200 ft high. The
D. Collinear maximum transmission distance is
33. A wide-bandwidth multielement driven
array is the A. 20 mi.
B. 33.2 mi.
A. End-fire C. 38.7 mi.
B. Log-periodic* D. 53.2 mi.*
C. Yagi Solution:
D Collinear h2h 2d r t
34. Ground-wave communications is most d2(550)2(400)
effective in what frequency range? 41. To increase the transmission distance of a
UHF signal, which of the following should be
A. 300 kHz to 3 MHz * done Above 300 MHz?
B. 3 to 30 MHz
C. 3o to 300 MHz A. Increase antenna gain
D. Above 300 MHz B. Increase antenna height*
35. The ionosphere causes radio signals to be C. Increase transmitter power
D. Increase receiver sensitivity
A. Diffused 42. A coax has a velocity factor of 0.68. What
B. Absorbed is the length of a half wave at 30 MHz?
C. Refracted*
D. Reflected A. 11.2 ft*
36. The ionosphere has its greatest effect on B. 12.9 ft
signals in what frequency range? C. 15.6 ft
D. 16.4 ft
A. 300 kHz to 3 MHz Solution:
B. 3 to 30 MHz* 3.4m 2(30) ) (300)(0.682f c V 2fV 2λ f MHzf
C. 3o to 300 MHz MHz p 11.152ft 1m 3.28ft 3.4m 2λ
D. Above 300 MHz
37. The type of radio wave responsible for 43. Which transmission line has the lowest
long-distance communications by multiple attenuation?
skips is the
A. Twin lead *
A. Ground wave B. RG-11/U
B. Direct wave C. RG-59/U
C. Surface wave D. RG-214/U
D. Sky wave * 44. Refer to Fig. 9-39. The beam width of this
38. Microwave signals propagate by way of antenna patter is approximately
the
A. 300
A. Direct wave* B. 380
B. Sky wave C. 450 Communications Electronics by
C. Surface wave Frenzel, 2nd ed | 22
D. Standing wave
39. The line-of-sight communications is not a
factor in which frequency range?
D. 600 * 7. Stripline and microstrip transmission lines
45. A receiver-transmitter station used to are usually made with
increase the communications range of VHF,
UHF, and microwave signals is called a(n) A. Coax
B. Parallel wires
A. Transceiver C. Twisted pair
B. Remitter D. PCB’s*
C. Repeater* 8. The most common cross section of a wave
D. Amplifier guide is a

A. Square
B. Circle
Chapter 10: C. Triangle
D. Rectangle *
Microwave 9. A rectangular waveguide has a width of 1 in.
and a height of 0.6 in. Its cutoff frequency is
Techniques
A. 2.54 GHz
1. The main benefit of using microwaves is B. 3.0 GHz
C. 5.9 GHz*
A. Lower-cost equipment D. 11.8 GHz
B. Simpler equipment Solution:
C. Greater transmission distance 1 in = 0.0254 m
D. More spectrum space for signals* 8 c 3 10 m/s f 2Width 2(0.0254)
2. Radio communications are regulated in the 10. A waveguide has a cutoff frequency of 17
United States by the GHz. Which of the signals will not be passed
by the waveguide?
A. Federal trade commission
B. Congress A. 15 GHz*
C. Federal communication commission* B. 18 GHz
D. Military C. 22 GHz
3. Which of the following is not a disadvantage D. 25 GHz
of microwaves? 11. Signal propagation in a waveguide is by

A. Higher-cost equipment* A. Electrons

B. Line-of-sight transmission B. Electric and magnetic fields*
C. Conventional components are not useable C. Holes
D. Circuit are more difficult to analyze D. Air pressure
4. Which of the following is a microwave 12. When the electric field in a waveguide is
frequency perpendicular to the direction of wave
propagation, the mode is said to be
A. 1.7 MHz
B. 750 MHz A. Vertical polarization
C. 0.98 GHz B. Horizontal polarization
D. 22 GHz* C. Transverse electric*
5. Which of the following is not a common D. Transverse magnetic
microwave application? 13. The dominant mode in most waveguides is

A. Radar A. TE0, 1 *
B. Mobile radio* B. TE1, 2
C. Telephone C. TM0, 1
D. Spacecraft communication D. TM1, 1
6. Coaxial cable is not widely used for long
microwave transmission lines because of its

A. High loss*
B. High cost
C. Large size
D. Excessive radiation
14. A magnetic field is introduced into a A. Traveling-wave tube
waveguide by a B. Cathode-ray tube*
C. Klystron
A. Prove* D. Magnetron
B. Dipole 23. In a klystron amplifier, velocity modulation
C. Stripline of the electron beam is produced by the
D. Capacitor
15. A half-wavelength, closed section of a A. Collector
waveguide that acts as a parallel resonant B. Catcher cavity
circuit is known as a(n) C. Cathode
D. Buncher cavity*
A. Half-wave section 24. A reflex klystron is used as a(n)
B. Cavity resonator*
C. LCR circuit A. Amplifier
D. Directional coupler B. Oscillator*
16. Decreasing the volume of a cavity causes C. Mixer
its resonant frequency to D. Frequency multiplier
25. For proper operation, a magnetron must
A. Increase* be accompanied by a
B. Decrease
C. Remain the same A. Cavity resonator
D. Drop to zero B. Strong electric field
17. A popular microwave mixer diode is the C. Permanent magnetic*
D. High de voltage
A. Gunn* 26. The operating frequency of klystrons and
B. Varactor magnetrons is set by the
C. Hot carrier
D. IMPATT A. Cavity resonator*
18. Varactor and step-recovery diodes are B. DC supply voltage
widely used in what type of circuit C. Input signal frequency
D. number of cavities
A. Amplifier 27. A magnetron is used only as a(n)
B. Oscillator
C. Frequency multiplier* A. Amplifier
D. Mixer B. Oscillator*
19. Which diode is a popular microwave C. Mixer
oscillator D. Frequency multiplier
28. A common application for magnetrons is in
A. IMPATT
B. Gunn* A. Radar*
C. Varactor B. Satellites
D. Schottky C. Two-way radio
20. Which type of diode does not ordinarily D. TV sets
operate with reverse bias 29. In a TWT, the electron beam is density-
modulated by a
A. Varactor
B. TWT’s A. Permanent magnet
C. Magnetrons B. Modulation transformer
D. Tunnel* C. Helix*
21. Low-power Gunn diodes are replacing D. Cavity resonator
30. The main advantage of a TWT over a
A. Reflex klystrons* klystron for microwave amplification is
B. TWT’s
C. Magnetrons
D. Varactor diodes
22. Which of the following is not a microwave
tube?
A. Lower cost
B. Smaller size
C. Higher power
D. Wider bandwidth*
31. High-power TWTs are replacing what in microwave amplifiers?

A. MESFET’s
B. Magnetrons
C. Klystrons*
D. IMPATT diodes
32. The most widely used microwave antenna is a

A. Half-wave dipole
B. Quarter-wave probe
C. Single loop
D. Horn*
33. What happens when a horn antenna is made longer?

A. Gain increases*
B. Beam width decreases
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
34. A pyramidal horn used at 5 GHz has an aperture that is 7 by 9 cm. The gain is about

A. 10.5 dB*
B. 11.1 dB
C. 22.6 dB
D. 35.8 dB
Solution:
( 2 2 89 (7)(9) 4 0.5 ) 4 A 10000 G λ 3 10 5 10
GdB = 10 log 10.9956 =
35. Given the frequency and dimensions in Question 34 above the beamwidth is about

A. 270
B. 530 *
C. 600
D. 800
Solution:
89 80 80 G w/λ w 3 10 5 10
36. The diameter of a parabolic reflector should be at least how many wavelengths at the operating frequency?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 10*
37. The point where the antenna is mounted with respect to the parabolic reflector is called

A. Focal point*
B. Center
C. Locus
D. Tangent
38. Using a small reflector to beam waves to the larger parabolic reflector is known as
A. Focal feed
B. Horn feed
C. Cassegrain feed*
D. Coax feed
39. Increasing the diameter of a parabolic reflector causes which of the following
A. Decreased beam width
B. Increased gain
C. Increased beam width
D. A and B*
E. B and A
F. None of the above
40. A helical antenna is made up of a coil and a
A. Director
B. Reflector*
C. Dipole
D. Horn
41. The output of a helical antenna is
A. Vertical polarized
B. Horizontally polarized
C. Circular polarized*
D. Both A and B
42. A common omnidirectional microwave antenna is the
A. Horn
B. Parabolic reflector
C. Helical
D. Bicone*

Chapter 11: Introduction to Sat-Com

1. As the height of a satellite orbit gets lower, the speed of the satellite

A. Increases*
B. Decreases
C. Remain the same
D. None of the above
2. The main functions of a communications satellite is a a(a)

A. Repeater*
B. Reflector
C. Beaon
D. Observation
3. The key electronic component in a communications satellite is the

A. Telemetry
B. On-board computer
C. Command and control system
D. Transponder*
4. A circular orbit around the equator with a 24 h period is called a(n)

A. Elliptical orbit
B. Geostationary orbit *
C. Polar orbit
D. Transfer orbit
5. A satellite stays in orbit because the following 2 factor are balanced

A. Satellite weight and speed

B. Gravitational pull and inertia*
C. Centripetal force and speed
D. Satellite weight and the pull of the moon and sun
6. The height of a satellite in a synchronous equatorial orbit is

A. 100 mi
B. 6800 mi
C. 22,300 mi*
D. 35,860 mi
7. Most satellites operate in which frequency band?

A. 30 to 300 MHz
B. 300 to 3 MHz
C. 3 GHz to 30 GHz*
D. Above 300 GHz
8. The main power sources for a satellite are

A. Batteries
B. Solar cells*
C. Fuel cells
D. Thermoelectric generators
9. The maximum height of an elliptical orbit is called

A. Perigee
B. Apex
C. Zenith
D. Apogee*
10. Batteries are used to power all satellite subsystems

A. At all time
B. Only during emergencies
C. During eclipse period*
D. To give the solar arrays a rest
11. The satellite subsystem that monitors and controls the satellite is the

A. Propulsion subsystem
B. Power subsystem
C. Communication subsystem
D. Telemetry, tracking, and command subsystem*
12. The basic technique used to stabilize a satellite is

A. Gravity-forward motion balance

B. Spin*
C. Thruster control
D. Solar panel orientation
13. The jet thrusters are usually fired to

A. Maintain attitude*
B. Put the satellite into the transfer orbit
C. Inject the satellite into the geosynchronous
D. Bring the satellite back to earth
14. Most commercial satellite activity occurs in which bands?

A. L
B. C and Ku*
C. X
D. S and P
15. How can multiple earth stations share a satellite on the same frequency

A. Frequency reuse*
B. multiplexing
C. Mixing
D. They can’t
16. The typical bandwidth of a satellite band is

A. 36 MHz
B. 40 MHz
C. 70 MHz
D. 500 MHz* Communications Electronics by Frenzel, 2 nd ed | 26
17. Which of the following is not usually a part of a transponder

A. LNA
B. Mixer
C. Modulator*
D. HPA
18. The satellite communications channels in a transponder are defined by the

A. LNA
B. Bandpass filter *
C. Mixer
D. Input signal
19. The HPAs in most satellites are

A. TST’s
B. Klystrons*
C. Vacuum tubes
D. Position related to the sun
20. The physical location of a satellite is determined by its

A. Distance from the earth

B. Latitude and longitude*
C. Reference to the star
D. Position relative to the sun
21. The receive GCE system in an earth station performs what function(s)

A. Modulating and multiplexing

B. Latitude and longitude
C. Demodulation and demultiplexing*
D. Down conversion
22. Which of the following types of HPA is not used in earth stations

A. TWT
B. Transistor
C. Klystron
D. Magnetron*
23. A common up-converter and down-converter IF is

A. 36 MHz
B. 40 MHz
C. 70 MHz*
D. 500 MHz
24. The type of modulation used on voice and video signals is

A. AM
B. FM*
C. SSB
D. QPSK
25. The modulation normally used with digital data is

A. AM
B. FM
C. SSB
D. QPSK*
26. Which of the following is not a typical output from a GPS receiver?

A. Latitude
B. Speed*
C. Altitude
D. Longitude

Chapter 12: Data Communications

1. Data communications refer to the transmission of

A. Voice
B. Video
C. Computer
D. All of the above*
2. Data communications uses

A. Analog methods
B. Digital methods*
C. Either of the above
D. Neither of the above
3. Which of the following is not primarily a type of data communications

A. Telephone
B. Teletype*
C. Telegram
D. CW
4. The main reason that serial transmission is preferred to parallel transmission is that

A. Serial faster
B. Serial requires only a single channel
C. Serial requires multiple channels*
D. Parallel is to expensive
5. Mark and space refer respectively to

A. Dot and dash

B. Message and interval
C. Binary 1 and binary 0*
D. On and Off
6. The number of amplitude, frequency, or phase changes that take place per second is known as the

A. Data rates in bits per second

B. Frequency of operation
C. Speed limit
D. Baud rate* A. BPSK
B. QPSK
7. Data transmission of one character at a time C. DPSK*
with start and stop bits is known as what type D. QAM
of transmission? 16. The basic modulator and demodulator
circuits in PSK are
A. Asynchronous*
B. Serial A. PLL’s
C. Synchronous B. Balanced modulators*
D. Parallel C. Shift register
8. The most widely used data communications D. Linear summer
code is 17. The carrier used with a BPSK demodulator
is
A. Morse
B. ASCII* A. Generated by an oscillator
C. Baudot B. The BPSK signal itself*
D. EBCDIC C. Twice the frequency of the transmitted
9. The ASCII code has carrier
D. Recovered from the BPSK signal
A. 4 bits 18. A 9600 baud rate signal can pass over the
B. 5 bits voice-grade telephone line if which kind of
C. 7 bits* modulation is used?
D. 8 bits
10. Digital signals may be transmitted over the A. BPSK
telephone network if B. QPSK
C. DPSK
A. Their speed is low enough D. QAM*
B. They are converted to analog first* 19. Quadrature amplitude modulation is
C. They are ac instead of dc
D. They are digital only A. Amplitude modulation only
11. Start and stop bits, respectively, are B. QPSK only
C. AM plus QPSK*
A. Mark, space D. AM plus FSK
B. Space, mark* 20. A QAM modulator does not use a(n)
C. Space., space
D. Mark, mark A. XNOR*
12. Which of the following is correct? B. Bit splitter
C. Balanced modulator
A. The bit rate may be greater than the baud D. 2-to-4 level converter
rate* 21. A rule or procedure that defines how data
B. The baud rate may be greater than the bit is to be transmitted is called a(n)
rate
C. The bit and baud rates are always the same A. Handshake
D. The bit and baud rates are not relates B. Error-detection scheme
13. A modem converts C. Data specification
D. Protocol*
A. Analog signals to digital* 22. A popular PC protocol is
B. Digital signals to analog*
C. Both A and B A. Parity
D. None of the above B. Xmodem*
14. Slow-speed modems use C. CRC
D. LRC
A. FSK*
B. BPSK
C. QPSK
D. QAM
15. A carrier recovery circuit is not needed
with
 D. UART
23. A synchronous transmission usually 31. A longitudinal redundancy check produces
begins with which character? a(n)

A. SYN* A. Block check character *

B. STX B. Parity bit
C. SOH C. CRC
D. ETB D. Error correction
24. The characters making up the message in 32. Dividing the data block by a constant
a synchronous transmission are collectively produces a remainder that is used for error
referred to as a data detection. It is called the

A. Set A. Vertical redundancy check

B. Sequence B. Horizontal redundancy check
C. Block* C. Block check character
D. Collection D. Cyclical redundancy check*
25. Bit errors in data transmission are usually 33. A CRC generator uses which
cause by components?

A. Equipment failure A. Balance modulation

B. Typing mistake B. Shift register*
C. Noise* C. Binary adder
D. Poor S/N ratio at the receiver D. Multiplexer
26. Which of the following is not a commonly 34. Which of the following is not a LAN?
used method of error detection?
A. PBX system
A. Parity B. Hospital system
B. BCC C. Office building system
C. CRC D. Cable TV system*
D. Redundancy* 35. The fastest LAN topology is the
27. Which of the following words has the
correct parity bit? Assume odd parity. The last A. Ring
bit is the parity bit B. Bus*
C. Star
A. 1111111 1 D. Square
B. 1100110 1* 36. Which is not a common LAN medium?
C. 0011010 1
D. 0000000 0 A. Twin lead*
28. Another name for parity is B. Twisted pair
C. Fiber-optic cable
A. Vertical redundancy check* D. Coax
B. Block check character 37. A mainframe computer connected to
C. Longitudinal redundancy check multiple terminals and PCs usually uses which
D. Cyclical redundancy check configuration?
29. Ten bit errors occur in two million
transmitted. The bit error rate is A. Bus
B. Ring
A. 2x10-5 C. Star*
B. 5x10-5 D. Tree
C. 5x10-6 *
D. 2x10-6
Solution:
6 10 e 2 10
30. The building block of a parity or BCC
generator is a(n)

A. Shift register
B. XOR*
C. 2-to-4 level converter
 45. What is the bandwidth required to transmit
38. A small telephone switching system that at a rate of 10Mbits/s in the presence of a 28-
can be used as a LAN is called a db S/N ratio?

A. Ring A. 1.075 MHz *

B. WAN B. 5 MHz
C. UART C. 10 MHz
D. PBX* D. 10.75 MHz
39. Which medium is the least susceptible to Solution:
noise? C = BW log2(1+S/N)
S/NdB = 10 log (S/N)
A. Twin lead 630.96 10 NS 10 NSdB
B. Twisted pair
C. Fiber-optic cable* 210Mbits/s BW log 1 630.96
D. Coax 46. Which circuit is common to both
40. Which medium is the most widely used in frequency-hopping and direct-sequence SS
LANs? transmitters?

A. Twin lead A. Correlator

B. Twisted pair* B. PSN code generator*
C. Fiber-optic cable C. Frequency synthesizer
D. Coax D. Sweep generator
41. Transmitting the data signal directly over 47. Spread spectrum stations sharing a band
the medium is referred to as are identified by and distinguished from one
another by
A. Baseband*
B. Broadband A. PSN code*
C. Ring B. Frequency operation
D. Bus C. Clock rate
42. The techniques of using modulation and D. Modulation type
FDM to transmit multiple data channels of a 48. The type of modulation most often used
common medium is known as with direct-sequence SS is

A. Baseband A. QAM
B. Broadband* B. SSB
C. Ring C. FSK
D. Bus D. PSK*
43. What is the minimum bandwidth required 49. The main circuit in a PSN generator is a(n)
to transmit a 56 kbits/s binary signal with no
noise? A. X-OR *
B. Multiplexer
A. 14 kHz C. Shift register
B. 28 kHz* D. Mixer
C. 56 kHz
D. 112 kHz
Solution:
BW = fb/2 = 56 kbits/2 =
44. Sixteen different levels (symbols) are used
to encode binary data. The channel bandwidth
is 36 MHz. The maximum channel capacity is

A. 18 Mbits/s
B. 72 Mbits/s
C. 288 Mbits/s*
D. 2.176 Mbits/s
Solution
M 2BWlog C 2
2 C 2(36MHz) (log (16))
 A. Single –mode step-index
50. To a conventional narrowband receiver, an B. Multimode graded-index
SS signal appears to be like C. Single –mode graded-index*
D. Multimode step-index
A. Noise* 5. Cable attenuation is usually expressed in
B. Fading terms of
C. A jamming signal
D. An intermittent collection A. Loss per foot
51. Which of the following is not a benefit of B. dB/km*
SS? C. Intensity per mile
D. Voltage drop per inc
A. Jam-proof 6. Which cable length has the highest
B. Security attenuation?
C. Immune fading
D. Noise proof* A. 1 km
52. Spread spectrum is a form of multiplexing B. 2 km*
C. 95 ft
A. True* D. 500 ft
B. False 7. The upper pulse rate and information-
53. The most critical and difficult part of carrying capacity of a cable is limited by
receiving a direct-sequence SS signal is
A. Pulse shortening
A. Frequency synthesis B. Attenuation*
B. Synchronism* C. Light leakage
C. PSN code generator D. Modal depression
D. Carrier recovery 8. The core of a fiber-optic cable is made of

A. Air
Chapter 13: Fiber B. Glass*
C. Diamond
Optic D. Quarts
9. The core of a fiber-optic cable is surrounded
Communications by

1. Which of the following is not a common A. Wire braid shield

application of fiber-optic cable? B. Kevlar
C. Cladding*
A. Computer networks D. Plastic isolation
B. Long-distance telephone 10. The speed of light in plastic compared to
C. Closed circuit the speed of light in air is
D. Consumer TV*
2. Total internal reflection takes place if the A. Less*
light ray strikes the interface at an angle with B. More
what relationship to the critical angle? C. The same
D. Zero
A. Less than 11. Which of the following is not a major
B. Greater than* benefit of fiber-optic cable?
C. Equal to
D. Zero A. Immunity from interference
3. The operation of a fiber-optic cable is based B. No electrical safety problems
on the principle of C. Excellent data security
D. Lower cost*
A. Refraction 12. The main benefit of light-wave
B. Reflection* communications over microwaves or any other
C. Dispersion communications media are
D. Absorption
4. Which of the following is not a common type A. Lower cost
of fiber-optic cable? B. Better security
C. Wider bandwidth*
D. Freedom from interference
 A. Single-mode step-index*
13. Which of the following is not part of the B. Multimode step-index
optical spectrum C. Sing-mode graded-index
D. Multimode graded index
A. Infrared 22. Which of the following is not a factor in
B. Ultraviolet cable light loss?
C. Visible color
D. X-rays* A. Reflection*
14. The wavelength of visible light extends B. Absorption
from C. Scattering
D. Dispersion
A. 0.8 to 1.6 pm 23. A distance of 8 km is the same as
B. 400 to 750 nm*
C. 200 to 660 nm A. 2.5 mi
D. 700 to 1200nm B. 5 mi*
15. The speed of light is C. 8 mi
D. 12.9 mi
A. 186,000mi/h 24. A fiber-optic cable has a loss of 15 db/km.
B. 300,000 mi/h The attenuation in a cable 1000ft long is
C. 300,000 m/s
D. 300,000,000 m/s* A. 4.57 dB*
16. Refraction is the B. 9.3 dB
C. 24 dB
A. Bending of light waves* D. 49.2 dB
B. Reflection of light waves Solution:
C. Distortion of light waves 1000ft = 0.3048 km
D. Diffusion of light waves σ 150.3048
17. The ratio of the speed of light in air to the 25. Fiber-optic with attenuations of 1.8, 3.4,
speed of light in another substance is called 5.9 and 18 dB are linked together. The total
the loss is

A. Speed factor A. 7.5 dB

B. Index of reflection* B. 19.8 dB
C. Index of refraction C. 29.1 dB*
D. Speed gain D. 650 dB
18. A popular light wavelength in fiber-optic Solution:
cable is LossT = 1.8 + 3.4 + 5.9 + 18 =
26. Which light emitter is preferred for high-
A. 0.7 pm speed data in a fiber-optic system?
B. 1.3 pm*
C. 1.5 pm A. Incandescent
D. 1.8 pm B. LED
19. Which type of fiber-optic cable is the most C. Neon
widely used? D. Laser*
27. Most fiber-optic light sources emit light in
A. Single-mode step-index which spectrum?
B. Multimode step-index*
C. Sing-mode graded-index A. Visible*
D. Multimode graded index B. Infrared
20. Which type of fiber-optic cable is best for C. Ultraviolet
very high speed data? D. X-ray

A. Single-mode step-index*
B. Multimode step-index
C. Sing-mode graded-index
D. Multimode graded index
21. Which type of fiber-optic cable has the
least modal dispersion?
28. Both LEDs and ILDs operate correctly with Chapter 14: Modern
A. Forward bias* Comm Apps
B. Reverse bias
C. Neither a or b 1. Printed documents to be transmitted by fax
D. Either a or b are converted into a baseband electrical signal
29. Single-frequency light is called by the process of

A. Pure A. Reflection
B. Intense B. Scanning*
C. Coherent C. Modulation
D. Monochromatic* D. Light variation
30. Laser light is very bright because it is 2. The most commonly used light sensor in a
modern fax machine is a
A. Pure
B. Intense A. Phototube
C. Coherent* B. Phototransistor
D. Monochromatic C. Liquid-crystal display
31. Which of the following is not a common D. Charge couple devises*
detector? 3. In FM fax, the frequencies for black and
white are
A. PIN photodiode
B. Photovoltaic diode* A. 1500 and 2300 Hz*
C. Photodiode B. 2300 and 1500 Hz
D. Avalanche photodiode C. 1300 and 2400 Hz
32. Which of the following is the fastest light D. 1070 and 1270 Hz
sensor? 4. Which resolution produces the best quality
fax?
A. PIN photodiode
B. Photovoltaic diode A. 96 lines per inch
C. Photodiode B. 150 lines per inch
D. Avalanche photodiode* C. 200 lines per inch
33. Photodiodes operate properly with D. 400 lines per inch*
5. Group 2 fax uses which modulation?
A. Forward bias
B. Reverse bias* A. SSB
C. Neither a or b B. FSK
D. Either a or b C. Vestigial sideband AM*
34. The product of the bit rate and distance of D. PSK
a fiber-optic system is 2Gbits-km/s. What is 6. The most widely used fax standard is
the maximum rate at 5 km?
A. Group 1
A. 100 Mbits/s B. Group 2
B. 200 Mbits/s C. Group 3*
C. 400 Mbits/s* D. Group 4
D. 1000 Mbits/s 7. Group 3 fax uses which modulation?
Solution:
Ratemax = 20 Gbits -km/s 5 km A. QAM*
35. Which fiber-optic system is better? B. FSK
C. Vestigial sideband AM
A. 3 Repeaters D. FM
B. 8 Repeaters* 8. Most fax printers are of which type?
C. 11 Repeaters
D. 20 Repeaters A. Impact
B. Thermal*
C. Electrosensitive
D. Laser
9. Facsimile standards are set by the A. 4.75 mW
B. 1.5 W
A. FCC C. 3 W*
B. DOD D. 5 W
C. CCITT* 18. Receive channel 22 is 870.66 MHz.
D. IEEE Receive channel 23 is
10. What type of graphics is commonly
transmitted by radio fax? A. 870.36 MHz
B. 870.63 MHz
A. Newspaper text C. 870.96 MHz
B. Architectural drawing D. 870.69 MHz*
C. Cable movies Solution:
D. Satellite weather photos * fCH 23 = fCH 22 + 30 kHz*
11. The transmission speed of group 4 fax is fCH 23 = 870.66 MHz + 30 kHz
fCH 23 =
A. 4800 baud *in cellular radio systems, receive channels
B. 9600 baud are spaced 30 kHz apart
C. 56 kbits/s* 19. A transmit channel has a frequency of
D. 192 kbits/s 837.6 MHz. The receive channel frequency is
12. The master control center for a cellular
telephone system is the A. 729.6 MHz
B. 837.6 MHz
A. Cell site C. 867.6 MHz
B. Mobile telephone switching office* D. 882.6 MHz*
C. Central office Solution:
D. Branch office freceive = ftransmit + 45 MHz*
13. Each cell site contains freceive = 837.6 MHz + 45 MHz
freceive = 882.6 MHz
A. Repeater* *in cellular radio systems, the transmit and
B. Control computer receive frequencies are spaced 30 kHz apart
C. Direct link to a branch exchange 20. A receive channel frequency is 872.4 MHz.
D. Touch tone processor To develop an 82.2 MHz IF, the frequency
14. Multiple cells within an area may use the synthesizer must supply an LO signal of
same channel frequencies
A. 790.2 MHz
A. True* B. 827.4 MHz
B. False C. 954.6 MHz*
15. Cellular telephones use which type of D. 967.4 MHz
operation? Solution:
fLO = fr + IF
A. Simplex fLO = 872.4 MHz + 82.2 MHz
B. Half-duplex fLO = 954.6 MHz
C. Full-duplex* 21. The output power of a cellular radio is
D. Triplex controlled by the
16. The maximum frequency deviation of an
FM cellular transmitter is A. User caller
B. Cell site
A. 6 kHz C. Called party
B. 12 kHz* D. MTSO*
C. 30 kHz 22. When the signal from a mobile cellular unit
D. 45 kHz drops below a certain level, what action
17. The maximum output power of a cellular occurs?
transmitter is
A. The unit is “handed off” to a closer cell* 30. The most widely used radar transmitter
B. The call is terminated component is a
C. The MTSO Increase power level
D. The cell site switches antennas A. Klystron
23. In a cellular radio, the duplexer is a B. Magnetron*
C. TWT
A. Ferrite isolator D. Power transistor
B. Waveguide assembly 31. Low-power radar transmitters and receiver
C. Pair of TR/ATR tubes LOs use which component?
D. Pair of sharp bandpass filter*
24. The time from the transmission of a radar A. GaAs Fet
pulse to its reception is 0.12 ms. The distance B. Magnetron
to the target is how many nautical miles? C. Gunn diode*
D. Klystron
A. 4.85 nmi 32. What component in a duplexer protects the
B. 9.7 nmi* receiver from the high-power transmitter
C. 11.2 nmi output?
D. 18.4 nmi
Solution: A. Waveguide
D = 9.7nmi 12.36 120μ2 12.36 T B. Bandpass filter
25. The ability of a radar to determine the C. Notch filter
bearing to a target depends upon the D. Spark gap*
33. Most radar antennas usa a
A. Antenna directivity*
B. Speed of the light A. Dipole
C. Speed of the target B. Broadside array
D. Frequency of the signal C. Horn and parabolic reflector*
26. The pulse duration of a radar signal is 600 D. Collinear array
ns. The PRF is 185 pulses per second. The 34. The most common radar display is the
duty cycle is
A. A scan
A. 1.1 percent* B. Color CRT
B. 5.5 percent C. Liquid-crystal display
C. 31 percent D. Plan position indicator*
D. 47 percent 35. A radar antenna using multiple dipoles or
Solution: slot antennas in a matrix with variable phase
PRT = 1 1 PRF 185 shifters is called a(n)
Duty Cycle = PRT PWT
Duty Cycle = 600ns 100 5.405ms A. A scan
27. The Doppler effect is used to produce B. Phase array*
modulation of which type of radar signal?

A. Pulse
B. CW*
28. The Doppler Effect allows which
characteristics of a target to be measured?

A. Distance
B. Azimuth
C. Altitude
D. Speed*
29. The Doppler Effect is a change in what
signal characteristic produced by relative
motion between the radar set and a target?

A. Amplitude
B. Phase
C. Frequency*
D. Duty circle
C. Broadside
D. Circular polarized array
36. Police radars use which technique?

A. Pulse
B. CW*
37. Which of the following is a typical radar operating frequency?

A. 60 MHz
B. 450 MHz
C. 900 GHz
D. 10 GHz*
38. The TV signal uses which types of modulation for picture and sound respectively?

A. AM, FM*
B. DSB, FM
C. FM, AM
D. AM, DSB
39. If a TV sound transmitter has a carrier frequency of 197.75 MHz, the picture carrier is

A. 191.75 MHz
B. 193.25 MHz*
C. 202.25 MHz
D. 203.75 MHz
Solution:
SCARRIER = PCARRIER + 4.5 MHz
PCARRIER = SCARRIER - 4.5 MHz
PCARRIER = 197.75 MHz - 4.5 MHz
PCARRIER =
40. The total bandwidth of an NTSC TV signal is

A. 3.58 MHz
B. 4.5 MHz
C. 6 MHz*
D. 10.7 MHz
41. What is the total number of interlaced scan lines in one complete frame of a NTSC U.S. TV signal?

A. 262 1/2
B. 525*
C. 480
D. 625
42. What keeps the scanning process at the receiver in step with the scanning in the picture tube at
receiver?

A. Nothing
B. Color burst
C. Sync pulses*
D. Deflection oscillators
43. What is the black-and-white or monochrome brightness signal in TV called

A. RGB
B. Color subcarrier
C. Q and I
D .Luminance Y*
44. What is the name of the solid-state imaging device used int TV cameras that convert the light in a
scene into an electrical signal?
A. CCD*
B. Photodiode matrix
C. Vidicon
D. MOSFET array
45. The I and Q composite color signals are multiplexed onto the picture carrier by modulating a 3.58
MHz subcarrier using

A. FM
B. PM
C. DSB AM*
D. Vestigial sideband AM
46. The assembly around the neck of a picture tube that produces the magnetic fields that deflect and
scan the electron beams is called the

A. Shadow mask
B. Phosphor
C. Electric gun
D. Yoke*
47. The picture and sound carrier frequencies in a TV receiver IF are respectively

A. 41.25 and 45.75 MHz

B. 45.75 and 41.25 MHz*
C. 41.75 and 45.25 MHz
D. 45.25 and 41.25 MHz
48. The sound IF in a TV receiver is

A. 4.5 MHz
B. 10.7 MHz
C. 41.25 MHz*
D. 45.75 MHz
49. What type of circuit is used to modulate and demodulate the color signals?

A. Phase-locked look
B. Differential peak detector
C. Quadrature detector
D. Balance demodulator*
50. What circuit in the TV receiver is used to develop the high voltage needed to operate the picture
tube?

A. Low-voltage power supply

B. Horizontal output*
C. Vertical sweep
D. Sync separator
51. What ensures proper color synchronization at the receiver?

A. Sync pulses
B. Quadrature modulation
C. 4.5-MHz
D. 3.58-MHz color burst*
52. Which of the following is not a benefit of cable TV?

A. Lower-cost reception*
B. Greater reliability
C. Less noise, stronger signal
D. Premium cable channel
53. What technique is used to permit hundreds of TV signals to share a common cable?

A. Frequency
B. Mixing
C. Frequency division multiplexing*
D. Time division multiplexing