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Soal CASR

1. The ICAO stand for :


a. international civil aviation organization
b. international civil administration
c. ,international civil authority
2. The 18 annexes to the convertation is knowing as:
a. Articles
b. international standard and recommended practices
c. the assembly
3. The convention took place in:
a. Chicago in November and December 1987
b. Montreal in November and December 1944
c. Chicago in November and December 1944
4. Each member country of the ICAO as known as a:
a. Contracting state
b. NAA
c. Council
5. Person certifying maintenance must be qualified with:
a. annex 1
b. annex 6
c. annex 8
6. There are . . . annex to the conventions.
a. 12
b. 18
c. 96
7. Prior to EASA being formed ,there was European organization called the :
a. CAA
b. FAA
c. DGCA
8. The EASA stand for:
a. Environmental aviation safety agency
b. European aviation safety authority
c. European aviation safety agency
9. The JAA regulations were:
a. Have the force of law within member stator
b. Legally binding the NAA
c. not legally binding the NAA
10. Regulation of the airworthiness and environmental certification of the aircraft and
related product is prescribed in:
a. EASA part 21
b. EASA part 66
c. EASA part 147
11. EASA part 145 prescribe regulation for:
a. continuing airworthiness
b. maintenance organization approval
c. certifying staff
12. What do the FAA stand for:
a. federal aviation agency
b. federal aviation authority
c. federal aviation administration
13. Today the term FAR, have been replaced by the:
a. 14 CFR part
b. FAA
c. CASR
14. The 14 CFR has:
a. 5 volumes
b. 4 volumes
c. 3 volumes
15. What do the CASR stand for:
a. civil aviation safety requirement
b. civil aviation safety regulation
c. civil aircraft safety requirement
16. Certification and operating requirement domestic flag and supplemental air carrier is
governed by :
a. CASR part 21
b. CASR part 121
c. CASR part 145
17. Approved maintenance organization is regulated by :
a. CASR part 65
b. CARS part 1
c. CASR part 145
18. Airworthiness means:
a. conform to type design and condition safe for operation
b. conform CASR 145 and condition safe for operation
c. both answers are correct
19. A precision instrument approach and landing with a decision weight not lower than 60
meter and with either visibility not less than 800 motors or a runaway visual range not
less than 550 meters is categorized as:
a. CAT I operation
b. CAT II operation
c. CAT III operation
20. ETOPS means:
a. Twin engine turbine powered airplane operation conducted over specified
router that contain a point further than 60 minutes flying time from an
adequate alternate airport at aircraft specified single engine cruise speed , as
determined for standard atmosphere condition in still air.
b. Twin engine turbine powered airplane operation conductor over specified
router that contain point further than 90 minute flying time from an
adequate alternate airport.
c. Single turbine engine powered airplane operation conductive over specified
router that contain a point further than 60 minute flying times from an
adequate alternate airport.
21. Changes requiring a new certificate in the case of the transport category aircraft are :
a. the numbers of engine or rotors
b. to engines or rotor using different principal of propulsions or to rotor using
different principles of propulsion
c. both answers are correct
22. An application for a type certificate is made an a form and in a manner prescribe by:
a. the DGCA
b. the TC holders
c. both answers are correct
23. Reporting of failure malfunction and defect shall be made by type certificate holder to
the DGCA within:
a. 36 Hours
b. 24 Hours
c. 72 Hours
24. The product means :
a. aircraft
b. aircraft
c. both answers and correct
25. Wing fuselage and landing gear are classified as:
a. class I product
b. class II product
c. class III product
26. Export airworthiness approval of class II product is issued in the from of:
a. standard airworthiness certificates
b. Airworthiness approval
c. special flight permit
27. Export airworthiness approval of class I Product is issued in the from of:
a. standard airworthiness certificates
b. Airworthiness export approval
c. airworthiness approval tag
28. The normal category is limited to airplane:
a. have the seating configuration excluding pilot seat is of nine or less
b. max. certificated T.O weight of 12,500 lbs or less and intended for non
aerobatic operation
c. both answers are correct
29. The commuter category is limited to:
a. propeller driven, multi engine airplane
b. have seating configuration excluding pilot seat of 19 or less weight of 19,000
lbs or less
c. both answers are correct
30. The empty weight included of the following except :
a. fixed ballast unusable fuel
b. portable water
c. full operating fluid
31. cable to be used in primary flight control is:
a. smaller than 1/8 inch in diameter
b. no smaller than 1/8 inch in diameter
c. bigger Than 1/8 inch in diameter
32. fairlead must be installed so they do not cause a change in cable direction :
a. more than 1 degrees
b. less than 3 degrees
c. more than 3 degrees
33. The aural landing gear warning devices must be provided when wing flap are standed
beyond the max. approach flap position if:
a. the landing gear is not fully extended and locked
b. the landing gear is not retracted
c. both answers are correct
34. control of the wing flap and auxiliary lift devices must be located:
a. centrally or to the right of the pedestal or power plant throttle control centre
line.
b. centrally or to the left of the pedestal or power plant throttle control centre
line.
c. both answers are correct
35. flight control must be design so that they operated in accordance with the following
movement and actuation:
a. aileron right (clock wise)for right wing down
b. elevator rearward for nose down
c. both answers are correct
36. Pressurized cabin must have :
a. warning indication of the pilot station to indicated when the safe or preset
pre-set pressure differential is excluded and when a cabin pressure altitude
of 15,000ft.
b. warning indication of the pilot station to indicated when the safe of preset
pressure differential is exceeded and when a cabin pressure altitude of
10,000ft.
c. warning indication of the pilot station to indicated when safe or preset
pressure differential is exceeded and when a cabin pressure altitude of
8000ft.
37. Each airplane accommodating more than 6 passengers:
a. There must be at least three hand fire extinguisher in the passengers
compartment.
b. There must be at least two hand for extinguisher in the passengers
compartment.
c. There must be at least one hand fire extinguisher in the passengers
compartment.
38. The designated fire zone for turbine engine are included:
a. the compressor section, the accessory section
b. the engine inlet duct
c. both answers are correct
39. Red light indicate:
a. Hazard which may required immediate corrective action.
b. the possible need future corrective action
c. both answers are correct
40. the cockpit voice recorded must:
a. be either bright yellow or orange
b. have reflective tape affixed to its external surface
c. both answers are correct
41. The T.O warning system must provide to the pilot an aural warning during the initial
portions of take off roll if :
a. the wing flap or leading edge device are not within the approved range of
take off portions
b. the wing spoiler, speed brakes , or longitudinal trim devices are in a potion
that would allow a safe take off.
c. both answers are correct
42. T.O warning unit must continue unit:
a. the configuration is changed to airflow the safe T.O
b. the throttle lever is more to more than idle
c. both answers are correct
43. Lavatories must have…..placard *certificate located on or adjacent to each side of the
entry door:
a. no smoking
b. no smoking in lavatory
c. both answers are correct
44. On airplane having only one passenger ….no more than …..seat abreast may be placed.
a. two
b. three
c. four
45. Pressurize cabin must be equipped to provide a cabin pressure altitude of not more than
…ft at the max operating altitude:
a. 8000ft
b. 10000ft
c. 15000ft
46. for airplane with passengers capacity of the more than 20 each lavatory must be
equipped with:
a. a smoke detector system
b. fire detector system
c. both answers are correct
47. for each airplane with nose wheel landing gear , there must be ground clearance for at
least:
a. 19 in
b. 11in
c. 7in
48. power and thrust control must arranged to allows:
a. separated control to each engines
b. simultaneous control off all engine
c. both answers are correct
49. pilot head indicating system must be designated to alert the flight crew if:
a. heating system is switched off
b. heating system is switched on and any pilot tube heating element is in-
operative
c. both answers are correct
50. The location of the automatic pilot system quick release control must be on:
a. both control wheel on the side of control wheel opposite the throttle
b. both sides of control wheels , opposite the throttle
c. both answers are correct
51. forward position light must consist of:
a. a red and a green light
b. a white light
c. both answers are correct
52. The following part shall be designed to minimum penetration by small arm fire and
grenade *….
a. wind shield
b. flight crew compartment panel and door
c. flight crew compartment bulkhead and door
53. CASR part 27prescribe airworthiness standard for the issue of TC for:
a. normal category a/c with max weight of 6000lbs or less
b. normal category rotor craft with max weight of 6000lbs or less
c. both answers are correct
54. it must Be…..for the tail rotor to contact the landing surface during a normal landing:
a. possible
b. impossible
c. not possible
55. Each closet cabin must have at least one adequate and easily accessible :
a. external door
b. external window
c. both answers are correct
56. category A rotor craft:
a. rotor craft with a max weight greater than 20,000lbs and 10 or less
passengers
b. rotorcraft with a may weight loss than 20,000lbs and 10 or more passengers
seat
c. rotor craft with a max weight greater than 20,0000 lbs and 10 or more
passengers special flight permit
57. category b rotor craft;
a. rotor craft with a max weight of 20,000 lbs or more and nine or less
passenger
b. rotor craft with a max weight of 20,000 lbs or less and nine passenger seat
c. rotorcraft with a max weight of 20,000 lbs or less and nine or more
passenger
58. he hub and retention arrangement or propeller with detachable blades must be
subjected to a centrifugal load of …..the max centrifugal force.
a. two time of
b. twice
c. 1.5time of
59. functional test of the feathering propeller must be done …cycles of fathering operation :
a. 50
b. 20
c. 10
60. in accordance with CASR 35 the variable pitch propeller is :
a. propeller the pitch setting of which can be changed by the flight crew or by
automatic means while the propeller is not rotating
b. A propeller the pitch setting of which can be changed by the flight crew or by
automatic means while the propeller is rotating
c. A propeller the pitch setting of which can be changed by the flight crew or by
automatic means while the propeller is on the ground.
61. CASR part 43 prescribes rules governing the maintenance preventive maintenance
rebuilding and Alteration of any of the following a/c part except ;
a. a/c having Indonesian airworthiness certificate
b. foreign a/c registered used under foreign operating certificate
c. component part of a/c having Indonesian airworthiness certificate
62. the following persons are authorized to perform maintenance, preventive maintenance,
Rebuilding and alteration except
a. the AMEL holder
b. the holder of Approved Maintenance Organization
c. the holder of Approved Maintenance Training Organization
63. The maintenance record shall be retained for a minimum period of :
a. 90 days after the unit has been returned to service
b. 90 days after the unit has been permanently withdrawn from service
c. 90 days after the unit has been overhauled
64. Alteration of the following parts are airframe major alteration, except :
a. change in blade design
b. fuselage
c. engine mount
65. Preventive maintenance is limited to the following work except ;
a. replenishing hydraulic fluid in the reservoir
b. rewinding the field coil of an electrical accessory
c. replacing detective safety wiring
66. The a/c identification plate must be on
a. adjeescent to and aft of the rearmost entrance door.
b. on the fuselage surface near the tail surface
c. both answer are correct
67. Aircraft nationally and registration marks must :
a. have no ornamentation
b. include type certificate number
c. both answers are correct
68. The identification marks on an aircraft shall
a. consist of nationality marks and registration marks
b. the nationality mark shall precede the registration marks
c. both answers are correct
69. The width of each character shall two third of the height of a character, except ;
a. the letter I
b. the length of the hypen
c. both answers are correct
70. Choose the correct statement :
a. The nationality shall precede the registration marks
b. The nationality marks shall be the letter PK
c. both answers are correct
71. The registration mark letter shall ;
a. precede by hyphen
b. consist of three letters
c. both answers are correct
72. . the following registration mark shall be used, except ;
a. GIA
b. QNE
c. MNA
73. the registration mark shall be assigned by:
a. the owner
b. the operator
c. the DGCA
74. For fixed wing aircraft the height of the identification mark on the wing shall be at least ;
a. 20cm
b. 50cm
c. 15cm
75. the mark on fixed wing aircraft shall be displayed on the wing and :
a. on fuselage or on vertical tail surfaces
b. on fuselage surface near the tail surface
c. both answers are correct
76. the mark shall be appear once on the upper wing structure and once on the ;
a. lower wing structure
b. the top of the mark shall be forward the wing leading edge
c. both answers are correct
77. The mark shall appear on each side of the fuselage :
a. between the wing and the tail surface
b. between the wing and the rear door
c. both answers are correct
78. An air carrier operating certificate who is utilizing airplane having a passenger seating
Configuration of more than 30 seat or a payload capacity of more than 3.409 kg could
be as :
a. domestic air carrier
b. flag and supplemental air carrier
c. both answers are correct
79. An air carrier whose operations specification authorized operation within Indonesian is
rfefered to as :
a. domestic air carrier
b. flag and supplemental air carrier
c. both answers are correct
80. An air operator certificate is valid for :
a. one year
b. two years
c. more than two years
81. the certificate holder will be issued three consecutive warning letter, each interval of
max of one month if a certificate holder does not conduct or cease operation for:
a. 30 consecutive calendar days
b. 60 consecutive calendar days
c. 90 consecutive calendar days
82. No air operator certificate holder may operate an aircraft unless carried onboard that
aircraft, except ;
a. certificate of registration
b. a/c maintenance manual
c. weight and balance document
83. Required inspection are same on maintenance and alteration that :
a. must be inspected include those that could result in a failure, malfunction or
defect endangering the safe operation of an aircraft of not performed
properly or
b. improper part of materials are used
c. both answers are correct
84. CASR part 135 prescribes the rules governing :
a. any commuter or charter air transportation utilizing aero planes or helicopter
which have an approved max seating capacity of 30 seats or less
b. or having a max payload of 3.400kg or less
c. both answers are correct
85. Large aircraft are ;
a. any aircraft having a max certificated take off weight of greater than 5.700 kg
b. any aircraft having a max certificated take off weight of greater than 3.409 kg
c. any aircraft having a max certificated take off weight of 5.700 kg or less
86. A certificate holder who wish to review his validity of his certificate shall :
a. Forward the application to the DGCA at least 30 consecutive calendar days
before expiration of his certificate
b. Forward the application to the DGCA at least 60 consecutive calendar days
before expiration of his certificate
c. Forward the application to the DGCA at least 90 consecutive calendar days
before expiration of his certificate
87. No air carrier shall allow and no person shall attempt to carry a fire arm on board an
aircraft unless :
a. that person is police a officer
b. such fire arm is not loaded and no ammunition is carried in aircraft cabin
c. both answers are correct
88. No air carrier shall allow passenger to remain on board the aircraft during station stop
unless:
a. the passenger are supervised by a flight attendant on board the aircraft
b. the passenger are supervised by an engineer on board the aircraft
c. both answer are correct
89. No person may operate any portable electronic devices on aircraft, except :
a. portable voice recorder
b. electric shaver
c. both answers are correct
90. No person may operate a passenger carrying aero plane unless;
a. each lavatory in the aero plane is equipped with a built-in fire extinguisher
for each disposal receptacle
b. each lavatory in the aero plane is equipped within a built-in fire extinguisher
for each galley
c. both answers are correct
91. No air carrier shall permit any person to handle, over or give direction to offer for
transport any Dangerous goods unless the persons :
a. has within the preceding 24 months receive training in accordance with CASR
part 135
b. has within the preceding 12 months receive training in accordance with CASR
part 135
c. has within the preceding 6 months receive training in accordance with CASR
part 135
92. choose the correct statement :
a. the pilot in command of an aircraft is directly responsible for, and is the final
authority as to the operation of that aircraft
b. the certifying personnel is directly responsible for, and is the final authority
as to the operation of that aircraft
c. both answers are correct
93. No person may act or attempt to act as a crew member of a civil aircraft :
a. within 8 hours after consuming alcohol
b. while under the influence of alcohol
c. both answers are correct
94. Each flight crew member shall on each flight carry :
a. a valid flight crew license with appropriate rating for the purpose of the flight
b. aircraft radio permit
c. both answers are correct
95. No person may operate an aircraft over or in the vicinity of any area to be visited or
travelled by :
a. the director
b. the president and or vice president
c. both answers are correct
96. Night VFR is prohibited unless authorized by :
a. the director
b. the director of operation
c. both answers are correct
97. Within RVSM , ATC separates aircraft by a minimum of :
a. 3000 ft vertically between flight level fl 290 and fl 410 inclusive
b. 1500 ft vertically between flight level fl 290 and fl 410 inclusive
c. 1000 ft vertically between flight level fl 290 and fl 410 inclusive

98. An carrier operating certificate who is utilizing airplane having a passanger seating
configuration more than 30 seat or a payload capacity of more than 3409 kg could be as a
a. Domestic air carrier
b. Flag and supplemental air carrier
c. Both answer are correct
99. An air carrier whose operation specification authorized operation within indonesia is referred to
as a...
a. Domestic air carrier
b. Flag air carrier
c. supplemental air carrier
100. an air operator certificate is valid for :
a. one year
b. two years
c. more than two years
101. Basic certificate has....categories.
a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
102. Group rating is :

a. A rating covering a group of component


b. A rating for specific individual component
c. Both answer correct
103. Group rating when added to a basic certificate is ;
a. Type rating
b. A license
c. Both answer correct
104. Licenses has.... categories
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
105. Basic certificate is equivalent to license without ;
a. Rating
b. Category
c. Both answer correct
106. The license remain valid for the period specified in the document and such period shall
not exceed ... year
a. Two year
b. One year
c. Five year
107. An aircraft maintenance engineer license authorizes the holder to ;
a. Perform or supervise the maintenance of an aircraft or component
b. Release an aircraft or component to service after maintenance has been performed
c. Both answer correct
108. A basic certificate may be issued to a person who is ;
a. Not less than 21 years of age
b. Not less than 19 years of age
c. Not less than 18 years of age
109. Group 1 of the aircraft group rating is ;

a. Metal stressed skin unpressurized aeroplane with fixed landing gear and not
exceeding 5700 kg
b. Metal stressed skin unpressurized aeroplane with fixed landing gear and more
than 5700 kg
c. Both answer correct
110. What kind of engine in include in the engine type rating ;
a. Turbine engine
b. Piston engine
c. Both answer correct
111. How to obtain an AMO is described in CASR part ;
a. CASR part 43
b. CASR part 145
c. CASR part 1
112. In accordance with CASR part 145,article means ;
a. Aircraft engine
b. Maintenance record
c. Both answer correct
113. What do the AMO stnd for...
a. Aircraft maintenance organization
b. Approved maintenance organization
c. Aircraft manual organization
114. Any unscheduled maintenance resulting from unforesean event is classified as...
a. Preventive maintenance
b. Altertion
c. Line maintenance
115. A certificate or rating issued to an AMO in the republic of indonesia shall remain
in force for...year
a. Shall not exceed three year
b. Shall not exceed two year
c. Shall not exceed one year
116. Each certifying personnel employed by crtificated AMO located inside the
republic of indonesia must be licenced under ;
a. EASA part 145
b. CASR part 145
c. CASR part 65
117. A certificated AMO must retain the record for at least ;
a. 1 years from date the article was approved for return to services
b. 2 years from date the article was approved for return to services
c. 90 days from date the article was approved for return to services
118. The AMO must make all required records available for inspection by ;
a. DGCA
b. NTSC
c. Both answer correct
119. A certificated AMO must allow the DGCA to inspect at any time to determine
compliance with the ;
a. CASR
b. EASA part
c. Both answer correct
120. Each inspection personnel must be trained in;
a. Inspection techniques and procedures
b. Sms,hazmat,and human factor
c. Both answer correct

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