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Cardiology I
Sheryl L. Chow, Pharm.D., FCCP, BCPS
Western University of Health Sciences
College of Pharmacy
Pomona, California
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Cardiology I
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Cardiology I
6. S.V. is a 75-year-old woman with a history of D. Only severe or life-threatening ADRs need to
NYHA class III HF (left ventricular ejection frac- be reported.
tion [LVEF] 25%) and several non–ST-elevation
myocardial infarctions (MIs). She had an episode 9. Your Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee
of sustained VT during hospitalization for pneu- wants you to perform a pharmacoeconomic analy-
monia. Her QTc interval was 380 milliseconds on sis of a new drug available to treat decompensated
the telemetry monitor, and her serum potassium HF. This drug works through a unique mechanism
(K+) and magnesium (Mg) were 4.6 mmol/L and of action. Unlike other available inotropic thera-
2.2 mg/dL, respectively. Which one of the follow- pies that can increase mortality, this drug appears
ing is the best treatment option for S.V.? to reduce long-term mortality. However, the cost is
A. Procainamide. 10 times greater than that of other available drugs.
B. Metoprolol. Your findings will be presented at the next Pharma-
C. Intravenous Mg. cy and Therapeutics Committee meeting to make a
D. Amiodarone. formulary decision. Which of the following types
of pharmacoeconomic analysis would be best to
7. You are working on a review article about newer determine whether this new drug is a better formu-
treatment strategies for hypertensive crises. You lary choice than currently available agents?
want to ensure that you retrieve all relevant clinical A. Cost-minimization analysis.
trials and related articles on your subject. Which B. Cost-effectiveness analysis.
one of the following comprehensive databases C. Cost-benefit analysis.
is best to search next to ensure that you have not D. Cost-utility analysis.
missed key articles?
A. International Pharmaceutical Abstracts. 10. A.S. is a 56-year-old African American man with
B. Iowa Drug Information Service. a long history of poorly controlled HTN secondary
C. Clin-Alert. to medication nonadherence and subsequent di-
D. Excerpta Medica. lated cardiomyopathy (LVEF 35%). He is assessed
in a community health clinic today and reports not
8. A physician on your team asks that you report an having taken his medications for the past week.
adverse drug reaction (ADR) experienced by a pa- A.S. is asymptomatic, and his examination is un-
tient taking nesiritide. The patient had severe hy- remarkable except for BP 180/120 mm Hg and HR
potension after the initial bolus dose of nesiritide, 92 beats/minute. All laboratory values are within
even though his BP was in the normal range before normal limits except for a serum creatinine (SCr)
therapy initiation. The hypotension led to reduced of 1.4 mg/dL and urinalysis with 2+ proteinuria.
renal perfusion, resulting in oliguric acute kidney Which one of the following therapeutic options
injury and subsequent hemodialysis. The patient would be best to manage A.S.’s condition in the
had no known renal insufficiency before develop- clinic?
ing this complication. Which one of the following A. Nifedipine 10 mg sublingually.
statements best describes the Joint Commission re- B. Clonidine 0.2 mg orally.
quirements for institutional ADR reporting? C. Captopril 12.5 mg orally.
A. A MedWatch form must be completed that D. Labetalol 200 mg orally.
explains the situation in which the ADR
occurred.
B. Institutions must create their own definition
of ADR with which practitioners will be
familiar.
C. Hospital staff must use the Naranjo algorithm
for assessing the severity of the ADR.
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A. Hemodynamic Parameters
B. Clinical Presentation
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4. Digoxin
a. Continue at dose to achieve serum digoxin concentration of 0.5–0.8 ng/mL.
b. Avoid discontinuation unless there is a compelling reason because digoxin withdrawal has been
associated with worsening of HF symptoms.
c. Caution if renal function begins to deteriorate or frequently fluctuates
E. Diuretics are primarily used to medically manage patients with pulmonary and peripheral congestion or
“wet” (subset II or IV) HF.
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F. Inotropic therapy is primarily used to manage hypoperfusion or “cold” (subset III or IV) HF. It is
important to confirm that patients in subset III have adequate filling pressures (i.e., PCWP 15–18 mm Hg)
before administering inotropic therapy.
AC = adenylate cyclase; ADHF = acute decompensated heart failure; ATP = adenosine triphosphate; cAMP = cyclic adenosine monophosphate;
CO = cardiac output; CrCl = creatinine clearance; IV = intravenous(ly); IVB = intravenous bolus; PCWP = pulmonary capillary wedge pressure;
PDE = phosphodiesterase; SVR = systemic vascular resistance.
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Cardiology I
G. Vasodilator therapy is primarily used to manage pulmonary congestion or “wet” (subset II or IV) HF.
Venous vasodilation results in a reduction in pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) and acute relief
of shortness of breath while awaiting the onset of diuretic effects. Vasodilators with arterial vasodilating
properties (nitroprusside and nesiritide) may also be used as an alternative to inotropes in patients with
elevated systemic vascular resistance (SVR) and low cardiac output (CO).
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Patient Cases
1. D.D. is a 72-year-old man admitted to the hospital for HF decompensation. D.D. notes progressively in-
creased dyspnea when walking (now 10 ft [3 m], previously 30 ft [6 m]) and orthopnea (now four pillows,
previously two pillows), increased bilateral lower extremity swelling (3+), 13-kg weight gain in the past
3 weeks, and dietary nonadherence. He has a history of idiopathic dilated cardiomyopathy (LVEF 25%,
NYHA class III), paroxysmal atrial fibrillation (AF), and hyperlipidemia. Pertinent laboratory values are
as follows: B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) 2300 pg/mL (0–50 pg/mL), K+ 4.9 mEq/L, blood urea nitrogen
(BUN) 32 mg/dL, SCr 2.0 mg/dL, aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 40 IU/L, alanine aminotransferase
(ALT) 42 IU/L, international normalized ratio (INR) 1.3, activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) 42
seconds, BP 108/62 mm Hg, and HR 82 beats/minute. Home drugs include carvedilol 12.5 mg 2 times/day,
lisinopril 40 mg/day, furosemide 80 mg 2 times/day, spironolactone 25 mg/day, and digoxin 0.125 mg/day.
Which one of the following is best for treating his ADHF?
A. Carvedilol 25 mg 2 times/day.
B. Nesiritide 2-mcg/kg bolus; then 0.01 mcg/kg/minute.
C. Furosemide 120 mg intravenously 2 times/day.
D. Milrinone 0.5 mcg/kg/minute.
2. After initiation of intravenous loop diuretics with only minimal urine output, D.D. is transferred to the coro-
nary care unit for further management of diuretic-refractory decompensated HF. His O2 saturation is now 87%
on 4-L nasal cannula, and an arterial blood gas is being obtained. His BP is 110/75 mm Hg, and his HR is 75
beats/minute. D.D.’s SCr and K+ concentrations have begun to rise; they are now 2.7 mg/dL and 5.4 mmol/L,
respectively. In addition to a one-time dose of intravenous chlorothiazide, which one of the following best
represents ways in which D.D.’s decompensated HF should be treated?
A. Nitroglycerin 20 mcg/minute.
B. Sodium nitroprusside 0.3 mg/kg/minute.
C. Dobutamine 5 mcg/kg/minute.
D. Milrinone 0.5 mcg/kg/minute.
3. D.D. initially responds with 2 L of urine output overnight, and his weight decreases by 1 kg the next day.
However, by day 5, his urine output has diminished again, and his SCr has risen to 4.3 mg/dL. He was drowsy
and confused this morning during rounds. His extremities are cool and cyanotic, BP is 89/58 mm Hg, and HR
is 98 beats/minute. It is believed that he is no longer responding to his current regimen. A Swan-Ganz cath-
eter is placed to determine further management. Hemodynamic values are cardiac index (CI) 1.5 L/minute/
m2, SVR 2650 dynes/cm-5, and PCWP 30 mm Hg. Which one of the following is the best drug given his
current symptoms?
A. Milrinone 0.2 mcg/kg/minute.
B. Dobutamine 5 mcg/kg/minute.
C. Nesiritide 2-mcg/kg bolus; then 0.01 mcg/kg/minute.
D. Phenylephrine 20 mcg/minute.
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Cardiology I
II. ARRHYTHMIAS
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Table 9. Antiarrhythmic Drug Properties and Dosing (class I and III agents only)
Adverse Effects, Contraindications, Drug
Drug Interactions, Pharmacokinetics Dosing by Indication
Class IA – Na channel blockers
+
Lidocaine AEs: CNS (perioral numbness, seizures, Pulseless VT/VF conversion or VT with a pulse:
(Xylocaine) confusion, blurry vision, tinnitus) 1–1.5 mg/kg IVP; repeat 0.5–0.75 mg/kg every
CI: Third-degree AV heart block 3–5 minutes (maximum 3 mg/kg)
PK: Reduce dose in those with HF, liver (If LVEF < 40%: 0.5–0.75 mg/kg IVP)
disease, low body weight and renal (Amiodarone DOC in pulseless VT/VT –
dysfunction and in the elderly lidocaine acceptable if amiodarone not available)
DI: Amiodarone (increased lidocaine levels) VT maintenance: 1–4 mg/minute
Mexiletine AEs: CNS (tremor, dizziness, ataxia, VT maintenance: 200–300 mg every 8 hours
(Mexitil) nystagmus)
CI: Third-degree AV heart block
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Table 9. Antiarrhythmic Drug Properties and Dosing (class I and III agents only) (continued)
Adverse Effects, Contraindications, Drug
Drug Interactions, Pharmacokinetics Dosing by Indication
Class IC – Na channel blockers (Note: Avoid in patients with HF or post-MI – Increased risk of sudden death)
+
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Table 9. Antiarrhythmic Drug Properties and Dosing (class I and III agents only) (continued)
Adverse Effects, Contraindications, Drug
Drug Interactions, Pharmacokinetics Dosing by Indication
Dofetilide AEs: TdP (0.8%; 4% if no renal adjustment), AF conversion (based on CrCl)
(Tikosyn) diarrhea (efficacy 12% at 1 month)
DIs: CYP3A4 inhibitors and drugs secreted 500 mcg PO BID (> 60 mL/minute)
by kidney (cimetidine, ketoconazole, 250 mcg PO BID (40–60 mL/minute)
verapamil, trimethoprim, prochlorperazine, 125 mcg PO BID (20–40 mL/minute)
megestrol), HCTZ Contraindicated < 20 mL/minute
CI: Baseline QTc > 440 milliseconds or AF maintenance:
CrCl < 20 mL/minute Titrate down based on QTc NTE 500 milliseconds
PK: Renally eliminated or > 15% ↑ in QTc
* Hospitalization mandatory for initiation,
obtain QTc 2–3 hours after each of the first
5 doses, reduce 50% if QTc ↑ > 15%; NTE
QTc > 500 milliseconds
* Does not increase mortality in patients
with HF
Ibutilide AEs: TdP 8%, heart block (β-blocking AF conversion:
(Covert) properties) 1 mg IV (≥ 60 kg)
DIs: CYP3A4 inhibitors or QT-prolonging or 0.01 mg/kg IV (< 60 kg),
drugs repeat in 10 minutes if ineffective
CIs: Baseline QTc > 440 milliseconds, LVEF < (efficacy 47% at 90 minutes)
30%, concomitant antiarrhythmic drugs
* ECG monitoring during and 4 hours
after CV
Dronedarone AEs: Worsening HF, QT prolongation, AF maintenance:
(Multaq) hypokalemia or hypomagnesemia with 400 mg PO BID
potassium-sparing diuretics, hepatic failure Discontinue if QTc ≥ 500 milliseconds
DIs: CYP3A4 inhibitors, QT-prolonging drugs,
simvastatin, tacrolimus/sirolimus, warfarin,
and other CYP3A4 substrates with narrow
therapeutic range, digoxin and other pgp
substrates (dabigatran)
CIs: QTc ≥ 500 milliseconds or PR ≥ 280
milliseconds, NYHA class IV HF or NYHA
class II–III HF with recent ADHF, severe
hepatic impairment, second- or third-degree
AVB or HR < 50 beats/minute
PK: Half-life 13–19 hours
a
Indicates pill-in-pocket approach can be used for selected patients.
ADHF = acute decompensated heart failure; AE = adverse effect; AF = atrial fibrillation; AV = atrioventricular; AVB = atrioventricular block;
BID = twice daily; CAD = coronary artery disease; CI = contraindication; CNS = central nervous system; CR = controlled release; CrCl =
creatinine clearance; CV = cardioversion; CYP = cytochrome P450; D5W = dextrose 5%; DI = drug interactions; DOC = drug of choice; ECG
= electrocardiogram; GI = gastrointestinal; HCL = hydrochloride; HCTZ = hydrochlorothiazide; HF = heart failure; HMG-CoA = 3-hydroxy-
3-methylglutaryl coenzyme A; HR = heart rate; IR = immediate release; IV = intravenous; IVB = intravenous bolus; IVP = intravenous push;
LVEF = left ventricular ejection fraction; MI = myocardial infarction; MOA = mechanism of action; NS = normal saline; NTE = not to exceed;
NYHA = New York Heart Association; pgp = P-glycoprotein; PK = pharmacokinetics; PO = oral; QD = once daily; QOD = once every other
day; TdP = torsades de pointes; VF = ventricular fibrillation; VT = ventricular tachycardia.
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C. Symptomatic Bradycardia
1. If unstable, atropine 0.5 mg every 3–5 minutes (maximal dose 3 mg or 0.04 mg/kg) (Note: Unstable =
hypotension, acutely altered mental status, signs of shock, ischemic chest discomfort, acute HF)
2. If atropine fails, transcutaneous pacing, dopamine infusion, or epinephrine infusion
D. Symptomatic Tachycardia
1. If unstable, synchronized cardioversion
2. If stable, determine whether QRS complex is narrow or wide.
a. Narrow complex tachycardia (QRS less than 120 milliseconds) – Usually atrial arrhythmias
i. Regular ventricular rhythm – Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) or sinus tachycardia likely
(a) Vagal maneuvers and/or adenosine 6-mg intravenous push followed by a 20-mL saline
flush; then a 12-mg intravenous push (may repeat once) – Use adenosine cautiously in
severe coronary artery disease (CAD). Decrease initial dose to 2–3 mg if given through a
centrally placed line.
(1) If converts, likely atrial tachycardia, paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
(PSVT), or Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome
(2) If PSVT (not WPW) and conversion is temporary, a longer-acting agent such as
diltiazem or verapamil may be considered.
(3) If WPW syndrome, avoid verapamil, diltiazem, and digoxin.
(b) Do not give adenosine for unstable or for irregular or polymorphic wide complex
tachycardias because it may cause degeneration to VF.
ii. Irregular ventricular rhythm – AF (or possibly atrial flutter)
(a) Rate control plus anticoagulation if persistent/permanent AF
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b. Wide complex tachycardia (QRS greater than 120 milliseconds) – Usually ventricular
arrhythmias
i. VT or unknown mechanism
(a) Consider adenosine only if regular and monomorphic.
(b) Intravenous procainamide, amiodarone (or sotalol); lidocaine second line
(c) Avoid procainamide and sotalol if prolonged QT.
ii. Definite SVT with aberrancy – Likely transiently slowed or converted by adenosine
iii. Polymorphic (irregular) VT
(a) Induced primarily when QTc interval is greater than 500 milliseconds (torsades de
pointes)
(b) Withdrawal of QT-prolonging medications, correction of low magnesium ion (Mg2+) or K+
(1) Class I and III antiarrhythmic drugs
(2) Assess for drug interactions by cytochrome P450 (CYP) 3A4 (e.g., azole antifungals,
erythromycin).
(3) Assess for other QT-prolonging drugs such as haloperidol, ziprasidone, droperidol,
sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim, promethazine, and tricyclic amine antidepressants.
(c) If unstable, immediate cardioversion
(d) If stable, intravenous Mg2+ 1- to 2-g intravenous bolus (maximum 16 g/24 hours)
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Patient Cases
4. C.D. is a 68-year-old man admitted after an episode of syncope, with a presyncopal syndrome of seeing
black spots and experiencing dizziness before passing out. Telemetry monitor showed sustained VT for 45
seconds. His medical history includes HF NYHA class III, LVEF 30%, MI × 2, HTN × 20 years, LV hyper-
trophy, diabetes mellitus, and diabetic nephropathy. His drugs include lisinopril 5 mg/day, furosemide 20
mg 2 times/day, metoprolol 25 mg 2 times/day, digoxin 0.125 mg/day, glyburide 5 mg/day, and aspirin 325 mg/
day. His laboratory tests show BP 120/75 mm Hg, HR 80 beats/minute, BUN 30 mg/dL, and SCr 2.2 mg/dL.
Which one of the following is the best therapy to initiate for conversion of his sustained VT?
A. Amiodarone 150 mg intravenously for 10 minutes; then 1 mg/minute for 6 hours; then 0.5 mg/minute.
B. Sotalol 80 mg 2 times/day titrated to QTc of about 450 milliseconds.
C. Dofetilide 500 mcg 2 times/day titrated to QTc of about 450 milliseconds.
D. Procainamide 20 mg/minute, with a maximum of 17 mg/kg.
5. C.D. presents to the emergency department 3 months after amiodarone maintenance initiation (he refused
ICD placement) after a syncopal episode during which he lost consciousness for 30 seconds, according to
witnesses. He also has rapid HR episodes during which he feels dizzy and light-headed. He feels very warm
all the time (he wears shorts, even though it is winter), is unable to sleep, and has experienced a 3-kg weight
loss. He received a diagnosis of hyperthyroidism caused by amiodarone therapy. On telemetry, he shows
runs of nonsustained VT. Which of the following would best predict the duration of amiodarone-associated
tachyarrhythmia in this patient?
A. Never.
B. 1 month.
C. 6 months.
D. 1 year.
6. S.L., a 64-year-old woman, presents to the emergency department with a chief concern of palpitations. Her
medical history includes HTN controlled with a diuretic and inferior-wall MI 6 months ago. She is pale and
diaphoretic but able to respond to commands. S.L.’s laboratory parameters are within normal limits. Her
vital signs include BP 95/70 mm Hg and HR 145 beats/minute; telemetry shows sustained VT. Although
initially unresponsive to β-blockers, S.L. is successfully treated with lidocaine. Subsequent electrophysi-
ologic testing reveals inducible VT, and sotalol 80 mg orally twice daily is prescribed. Two hours after the
second dose, S.L.’s QTc is 520 milliseconds. Which one of the following changes would be best with respect
to S.L.’s antiarrhythmic regimen?
A. Continue sotalol at 80 mg orally twice daily.
B. Increase sotalol to 120 mg orally twice daily.
C. Discontinue sotalol and initiate dofetilide 125 mcg orally twice daily.
D. Discontinue sotalol and initiate amiodarone 400 mg orally 3 times/day.
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Table 14. World Health Organization Classification of Functional Status for PAH
Class Definition
Class I No symptoms (dyspnea, fatigue, syncope, chest pain) with normal daily activities
Class II Symptoms with strenuous normal daily activities that slightly limit functional status and activity level
Class III Symptoms of dyspnea, fatigue, syncope, and chest pain with normal daily activities that severely limit
functional status and activity level
Class IV Symptoms at rest; cannot conduct normal daily activities without symptoms
PAH = pulmonary arterial hypertension.
4. Treatment goals
a. Relieve acute dyspnea symptoms.
b. Improve exercise capacity/quality of life and prevent death.
5. For acute vasodilator response testing:
a. Use intravenous epoprostenol, inhaled nitric oxide, or intravenous adenosine.
b. Positive response: Reduction in mean pulmonary arterial pressure (mPAP) of at least 10 mm Hg to
an absolute mPAP of less than 40 mm Hg
c. Positive response predicts mortality reduction with long-term calcium channel blocker or
vasodilator use.
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B. Treatment of PAH
1. Reassessment should include functional class determination and 6-minute walk test every 3–6 months,
with right heart catheterization less often.
2. Satisfactory condition – Functional class I–II, ambulated 380 m or greater (or 1250 ft) during 6-minute
walk test, with a CI of 2.2 L/minute/m2 or greater and mPAP less than 12 mm Hg.
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Treprostinil 1.25- to Severe erythema and Longer half-life (t1/2 – 3 hours) – Longer to seek
(Remodulin, 40-ng/kg/ induration (83%) and medical attention
Tyvaso) minute SC injection site pain Premixed, prefilled syringe easier to administer
Prostanoid infusion, IV (85%) limits use; also Local treatments (hot/cold packs or topical
Inhaled headache, nausea, analgesics) can be used to minimize infusion
Class II–IV PAH diarrhea, rash site discomfort
Moving infusion site every 3 days minimizes
irritation
Inhaled iloprost 2.5 × 1; then Mild, transient cough, Requires 6–9 inhalations daily (15 minutes each
(Ventavis) 5 mcg/ flushing, headache, with jet nebulizer)
Prostanoid inhalation syncope Prodose AAD nebulization system required
by nebulizer Inhaled form has fewer systemic adverse
Class III–IV PAH 6–9 times/ reactions
day while Use no more than every 2 hours
awake
Bosentan 62.5–125 mg Peripheral edema Severe drug interactions with glyburide
(Tracleer) PO twice 5%–14%, hypotension (increased LFTs) and cyclosporine (decreased
Nonselective daily 7%, increased LFTs efficacy of both cyclosporine and bosentan)
endothelin receptor 11%, flushing 7%–14%, Monitor LFTs monthly
antagonist palpitations 5% Monitor hemoglobin/hematocrit every 3 months
(ETA and ETB) Potential teratogen; if childbearing age, use two
contraceptive methods (reduced efficacy of
Class III–IV PAH hormonal contraceptives); monthly pregnancy
test required
Efficacy decreased with inducers and toxicity
increased with inhibitors of CYP2C8/9 and 3A4
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Patient Cases
7. R.W. is a 38-year-old obese woman who presents with increasing symptoms of fatigue and shortness of
breath. She could walk only 10–20 ft at baseline and is now short of breath at rest. Her arterial blood gas is
pH 7.31/Pco2 65/Po2 53/85% O2 saturation. She has three-pillow orthopnea and 3+ pitting edema in her lower
extremities. Medical history is significant only for AF. Computerized tomographic angiography shows that
her pulmonary artery trunk is substantially enlarged, with a mean pressure of 56 mm Hg. Echocardiography
shows right atrial and ventricular hypertrophy. Chest radiography detects prominent interstitial markings.
Pertinent laboratory test values are BUN 21 mg/dL, SCr 1.2 mg/dL, AST 145 IU/L, ALT 90 IU/L, INR 2.1,
and PTT 52 seconds; vital signs include BP 108/62 mm Hg and HR 62 beats/minute. Home medications are
warfarin 2.5 mg/day, ipratropium 2 puffs every 6 hours, salmeterol 2 puffs 2 times/day, and diltiazem 480
mg/day. Her diagnosis is IPAH. From the options below, which one of the following is the best evidence-
based management strategy?
A. Increase diltiazem to 600 mg/day.
B. Start sildenafil 20 mg 3 times/day.
C. Start epoprostenol 2 ng/kg/minute.
D. Start bosentan 62.5 mg 2 times/day.
8. L.S., a 48-year-old man with IPAH, is admitted to the medical intensive care unit for severe respiratory
distress. Medications before admission include bosentan and sildenafil. His vital signs include BP 87/45
mm Hg, HR 130 beats/minute, and respiratory rate 24 breaths/minute, and his oxygen requirements are
increasing. Recently, during a previous hospital admission, pulmonary artery catheter placement revealed
an mPAP of 40 mm Hg, right atrial pressure 16 mm Hg, CI 1.2 L/minute, and PCWP 15 mm Hg. Echocar-
diography reveals EF 60% with significant right ventricular dilation. Which one of the following is the best
therapy?
A. Epoprostenol and add phenylephrine if needed for BP support.
B. Furosemide and add norepinephrine if needed for BP support.
C. Nitroprusside and add epinephrine if needed for BP support.
D. Dobutamine to increase CO.
A. Definitions
1. Hypertensive urgency – Acutely elevated BP, particularly diastolic BP greater than 110 mm Hg (and
systolic BP greater than 180 mm Hg), without evidence of target organ damage
2. Hypertensive emergency – HTN with evidence of target organ damage (may be preexisting) to brain,
heart, kidneys, eyes (e.g., hypertensive encephalopathy, intracranial hemorrhage, or other acute
neurologic deficit; unstable angina or acute MI; acute HF; pulmonary edema [shortness of breath];
aortic dissection; retinopathy or papilledema; decreased urine output or acute renal failure; eclampsia)
B. Goals
1. Hypertensive urgency – Lower MAP to goal or near goal within 24 hours; oral medications can be used.
2. Hypertensive emergency – Lower MAP by 25% or diastolic BP to 100–110 mm Hg within 30–60 minutes.
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C. Treatment Options
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Patient Cases
9. A.W., a 68-year-old man with a history of chronic kidney disease stage V on hemodialysis, HTN, CAD post-
MI, moderately depressed LVEF, and gastroesophageal reflux disease, presents with acute-onset shortness
of breath and chest pain. After his recent dialysis, he had a large barbecue meal with salt and smoked some
marijuana laced with cocaine. He was nonadherent to medical therapy for 2 days and noticed he had gained
2 kg in 24 hours. His baseline orthopnea worsened to sleeping sitting up in a chair for the 2 nights before
admission. He developed acute-onset chest tightness with diaphoresis and nausea, pain 7/10. He went to the
emergency department, where a BP of 250/120 mm Hg was noted. He had crackles halfway up his lungs on
examination, and chest radiography detected bilateral fluffy infiltrates with prominent vessel cephalization.
Electrocardiography showed sinus tachycardia HR 122 beats/minute and ST depressions in leads 2, 3, and
aVF. He was admitted for hypertensive emergency. Laboratory results are as follows: BUN 48 mg/dL, SCr
11.4 mg/dL, BNP 2350 pg/mL, troponin T 1.5 mcg/L (less than 0.1 mcg/L), creatine kinase 227 units/L, and
creatine kinase-MB 22 units/L. Which one of the following medications is best to manage A.W.’s hyperten-
sive emergency?
A. Intravenous nitroglycerin 5 mcg/minute titrated to a 25% reduction in MAP.
B. Labetalol 2 mcg/minute titrated to a 50% reduction in MAP.
C. Sodium nitroprusside 0.25 mcg/kg/minute titrated to a 25% reduction in MAP.
D. Clonidine 0.1 mg orally every 2 hours as needed for a 50% reduction in MAP.
10. M.R., a 56-year-old white woman with a long history of HTN because of nonadherence and recently diag-
nosed HF (EF 35%), presents to the local emergency department with the sudden onset of severe, sharp, and
diffuse chest pain that radiates to her back. A physical examination reveals BP 210/120 mm Hg and HR 105
beats/minute but otherwise within normal limits. Current laboratory values are also within normal limits,
except for a toxicology screen positive for cocaine. A chest radiograph reveals a widened mediastinum, and
a subsequent chest computed tomography scan reveals aortic arch dissection. Which one of the following
medications is best to manage M.R.’s hypertensive emergency?
A. Esmolol 25 mcg/minute.
B. Esmolol 25 mcg/minute followed by sodium nitroprusside 0.5 mcg/kg/minute.
C. Sodium nitroprusside 0.5 mcg/kg/minute.
D. Labetalol 2 mg/minute followed by sodium nitroprusside 0.5 mcg/kg/minute.
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References
Acute Decompensated Heart Failure and the European Society of Cardiology Com-
1. Hunt SA, Abraham WT, Chin MH, et al. 2009 mittee for Practice Guidelines. J Am Coll Cardiol
focused update incorporated into the ACC/AHA 2003;42:1493–531.
2005 guidelines for the diagnosis and management 5. American Heart Association. 2010 guidelines for
of heart failure in adults: a report of the American cardiopulmonary resuscitation and emergency car-
College of Cardiology Foundation/American Heart diovascular care. Circulation 2010;122:S729–S767.
Association Task Force on Practice Guidelines
developed in collaboration with the International
Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension
Society for Heart and Lung Transplantation. J Am
Coll Cardiol 2009;53:1343–82. 1. McLaughlin VV, Archer SL, Badesch DB, et al.
ACCF/AHA 2009 expert consensus document
2. Lindenfeld J, Albert NM, Boehmer JP, et al. HFSA
on pulmonary hypertension. J Am Coll Cardiol
2010 comprehensive heart failure practice guide-
2009;53:1573–619.
line. J Card Fail 2010;16:e1–194.
2. Badesch DB, Abman SH, Simonneau G, et al.
Medical therapy for pulmonary arterial hyperten-
Acute Dysrhythmias sion: updated ACCP evidence-based clinical prac-
1. Fuster V, Ryden LE, Cannom DS. ACC/AHA/ tice guidelines. Chest 2007;131:1917–28.
ESC 2006 guidelines for the management of pa- 3. McLaughlin VV, McGoon MD. Pulmonary arte-
tients with atrial fibrillation – executive summary: rial hypertension. Circulation 2006;114:1417–31.
a report of the American College of Cardiology/
American Heart Association Task Force on Prac-
tice Guidelines and the European Society of Car- Hypertensive Emergency
diology Committee for Practice Guidelines. J Am 1. Rhoney D, Peacock WF. Intravenous therapy for
Coll Cardiol 2006;48:854–906. hypertensive emergencies, part 1. Am J Health
2. Wann LS, Curtis AB, January CT, et al. 2011 Syst Pharm 2009;66:1343–52.
ACCF/AHA/HRS focused update on the manage- 2. Rhoney D, Peacock WF. Intravenous therapy for
ment of patients with atrial fibrillation (updating hypertensive emergencies, part 2. Am J Health
the 2006 guideline): a report of the American Col- Syst Pharm 2009;66:1448–57.
lege of Cardiology Foundation/American Heart 3. Haas AR, Marik PE. Current diagnosis and man-
Association Task Force on Practice Guidelines. agement of hypertensive emergency. Semin Dial
Circulation 2011;123:104–23. 2006;19:502–12.
3. Zipes DP, Camm AJ, Borggrefe M, et al. ACC/ 4. Marik PE, Varon J. Hypertensive crises: challenges
AHA/ESC 2006 guidelines for the management of and management. Chest 2007;131:1949–62.
patients with ventricular arrhythmias and the pre-
vention of sudden cardiac death – executive sum-
mary: a report of the American College of Car-
diology/American Heart Association Task Force
and the European Society of Cardiology Com-
mittee for Practice Guidelines. J Am Coll Cardiol
2006;48:1064–108.
4. Blomström-Lundqvist C, Scheinman MM, Aliot
EM, et al. ACC/AHA/ESC 2003 guidelines for the
management of patients with supraventricular ar-
rhythmias – executive summary: a report of the
American College of Cardiology/American Heart
Association Task Force on Practice Guidelines
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8. Answer: A
Epoprostenol is now warranted to manage this patient’s
underlying disease because he has not responded to
two oral PAH therapies and is now considered high
risk because of the presence of right ventricle (RV)
dysfunction and low CI. The patient has normal filling
pressures for a patient with RV dysfunction, and diure-
sis with furosemide may only worsen his low CI. The
underlying cause of his low CI is not elevated arterial
resistance; thus, nitroprusside would likely worsen his
hypotension. Correcting the elevated pulmonary pres-
sures should correct the low CI; thus, dobutamine is not
indicated at this time, and it would likely only worsen
his tachycardia.
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death was significantly reduced in patients with an ICD Recently published articles appear in the system within
(33% vs. 13%, p=0.005). The AVID (Antiarrhythmics 10 days of article publication, and it often contains data
Versus Implantable Defibrillators) trial also evaluated not found in a typical MEDLINE search.
ICD implantation versus antiarrhythmic drug therapy
(primarily amiodarone) in survivors of sudden cardiac 8. Answer: B
death. Patients with ICDs had a significantly higher rate MedWatch is a post–U.S. Food and Drug Administra-
of survival than those treated with drug therapy (89% tion (FDA) approval program established by the FDA
vs. 82%, p<0.02). for health care professionals to report the adverse
events that occur after a drug is approved. Although it
6. Answer: D is commonly used only for reporting serious reactions
This patient has a depressed LVEF less than 40%, so to the FDA, it can be used to report any adverse event.
her drug therapy options are limited to prevent the de- Information recorded on these forms is reported to the
velopment of worsening HF, which could occur if she manufacturer and is used to determine whether black
were administered procainamide for treatment of her box warnings are necessary or whether new adverse ef-
arrhythmia. Procainamide is indicated only in second- fects are seen with a drug. The Joint Commission re-
ary prevention of sustained VT in patients with a nor- quires that all institutions have a definition of an ADR
mal LVEF greater than 40%. Metoprolol is indicated for the institution that all health care professionals can
only for the treatment of patients with asymptomatic understand and remember. In addition, the Joint Com-
nonsustained VT and SVT associated with CAD. This mission requires that each drug dose administered be
patient had an episode of sustained VT. Her QTc inter- monitored for adverse effects, that each institution have
val is not prolonged at 380 milliseconds, and her serum a system in place for reporting ADRs, and that the in-
magnesium level is within normal limits, so she does stitution ensure that the reporting mechanism identifies
not require intravenous magnesium therapy. She quali- all key ADRs.
fies for treatment with either amiodarone or lidocaine.
Amiodarone is first-line treatment of patients without 9. Answer: B
contraindications because of its efficacy. Because the Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee
wants to discover whether the new drug is worth the
7. Answer: D extra cost for the added mortality benefits it can pro-
International Pharmaceutical Abstracts is a database vide for patients with decompensated HF compared
of primarily pharmaceutical abstracts in more than 750 with available therapies, a cost-effectiveness analysis is
journals, including foreign and state pharmacy journals, the best pharmacoeconomic analysis to perform. Cost-
in addition to key U.S. medical and pharmacy journals. minimization analysis is used to determine whether a
Many of the citations are not included on MEDLINE, therapeutically equivalent drug within a class that pro-
so a broader search can be performed; however, subject vides a therapeutic outcome the same as others avail-
descriptors are not consistently defined in a uniform able can be used for less cost. Cost-utility analysis is
way, and multiword terms are often cited backward. used to determine whether a drug can improve the qual-
The Iowa Drug Information Service database offers ity of a patient’s life more than other available therapies.
full-text articles from 1966 to present in about 200 Cost-benefit analysis is used to evaluate new programs
medical and pharmacy journals (primarily based in the or services to determine whether they provide enough
United States). It is updated monthly, so newly avail- benefit to justify the cost of running the program.
able articles may take longer to be accessed from this
service. The Clin-Alert database contains more than 10. Answer: C
100 medical and pharmacy journals focused on adverse This patient is experiencing hypertensive urgency, con-
events, drug interactions, and medical-legal issues. It sidering that he has no evidence of target organ dam-
is used primarily to look up adverse events (especially age. Thus, his BP may be reduced over 24 hours us-
recent reports) associated with medications. Excerpta ing oral medications. Given this patient’s concomitant
Medica is a comprehensive database of more than 7000 comorbidities, HF, and microalbuminuria, an ACEI
journals from 74 countries dating from 1974 to present. would be indicated. Sublingual nifedipine is no longer
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