1. Indicate which of the following systems is resistance of 300 ohms.

Find the reflection

digital. coefficient.
a. Pulse-position modulation a. 0.71
b. Pulse-code modulation b. 0.77
c. Pulse–width modulation
c. 0.97
d. Pulse-frequency modulation
2. One of the following is not a bounded d. 0.76
media. 8. Not more than _______ digits make up an
a. Coaxial line international telephone number as
recommended by CCITT REC. E. 161.
b. Two-wire line
a. 8
c. Waveguide
b. 10
d. Ocean
c. 11
3. The velocity factor for a transmission line
d. 12
a. depends on the dielectric constant of the
material used 9. What is the ratio of the reflected voltage to
the incident voltage?
b. increases the velocity along the
transmission line a. VSWR

c. is governed by the skin effect b. ISWR

d. is higher for a solid dielectric than for air c. SWR

4. When load impedance equals to Zo, of the d. Coefficient of reflection

line, it means that the load _____ all the 10. Quarter-wavelength line is used as ___.
power.
a. impedance transformer
a. reflects
b. lecher line
b. absorbs
c. transmission line
c. attenuates
d. harmonic suppressor
d. radiates
11. The guide wavelength, in a rectangular
5. What is the standard test tone? waveguide is
a. 0 dB a. equal to the free-space wavelength at the
b. 0 dBW cutoff frequency

c. 0 dBm b. equal to the free-space wavelength for

the same signal frequency
d. 0 dBrn
c. less than the free-space wavelength at
6. Micron is equal to _______ meter. the cut-off frequency
-10
a. 10 d. greater than the free-space wavelength
-9 at the same signal frequency
b. 10
-6
12. Emission designation for a facsimile.
c. 10 a. H3E and A4E
-3
d. 10 b. R3E and A4E
7. A transmitter operating at 30 MHz with 4 W c. F4E and J3E
output is connected via 10 m of RG-8A/u d. F3C and A3E
cable to an antenna that has an input
13. The impedance of a TV transmission line c. Mel
depends on several factors. Which is not d. Phon
one of those factors?
19. The sound power level of a certain jet plane
a. Diameter
flying at a height of 1km is 160 dB (re10-
12
b. Length of the wire W). Find the maximum sound pressure
c. Dielectric material level on the ground directly below the flight
path assuming that the aircraft radiates
d. Separation between conductors sound equally in all directions.
14. How is it possible to lower the resonant a. 59.1 dB
frequency of Hertz dipole antenna?
b. 69.1 dB
a. By reducing the frequency at the
c. 79.1 dB
transmitter
b. By connecting a capacitor in series with d. 89.1 dB
the antenna 20. An instrument designed to measure a
c. By the connecting a resistor in series with frequency-weighted value of the sound
the antenna pressure level.

d. By connecting an inductor in series with a. Sound-level meter

the antenna b Transducer
15. The shortest distance measured along the c. Sound pressure meter
earth’s surface that a skywave is returned d. Sound analyzer
to earth.
21. When VSWR is equal to zero, this means
a. MUF
a. that no power is applied
b. Quarter-wavelength
b. that the load is purely resistive
c. Skip distance
c. that the load is a pure reactance
d. Skip zone
d. that the load is opened
16. A microwave-transmitting antenna is 550ft
high. The receiving antenna is 200ft high. 22. Radio communications between points
The minimum transmission distance is using a single share frequency.
a. 20 mi a. Simplex
b. 33.2 mi b. Full duplex
c. 38.7 mi c. Half-duplex
d. 53.2 mi d. Full/full duplex
17. Light leaves a slab of transparent material 23. One of the following transmits only one
whose index of refraction is 2 at an angle of sideband.
refraction of 0 degrees. The angle of A. H3E
incidence is
B. R3E
a. 0 degrees
C. A3E
b. 45 degrees
D. B8E
c. 30 degrees
24. An 891 kHz carrier having an amplitude of
d. 90 degrees 80 V is modulated by a 4.5 kHz audio signal
18. The unit of loudness level having an amplitude of 45 V. The
modulation factor is
a. Sone
A. 0.56
b. dB
 B. 0.65 B. Diplexer
C. 1.78 C. Lecher wire
D. 1.25 D. Duplexer
25. What is the carrier swing of an FM 31. Which antenna does not use the ground?
transmitter when modified by 75%? A. Marconi
A. 53.2 kHz
B. Yagi
B. 48 kHz C. Hertz
C. 56.25 kHz D. Rhombic
D. 112.5 kHz 32. If Ns=250, determine the earth radius k-
26. When a carrier is modulated 100%, the total factor.
power increases by what percentage over A. 1.98
that of the carrier alone?
B. 1.23
A. 25%
C. 1.33
B. 50%
D. 1.29
C. 75%
33. A receiver connected to an antenna whose
D. 100%
resistance is 50 ohms has an equivalent
27. A 1200 kHz carrier is amplitude-modulated noise resistance of 30 ohms. What is the
by two tones of 500 Hz and 700 Hz. Which receiver’s noise temperature?
one is a frequency component of the A. 754 K
modulated wave?
B. 464 K
A. 1195 kHz
C. 174 K
B. 1199.3 kHz
D. 293 K
C. 1199.7 kHz
34. At 17˚ C, the noise voltage generated by
D. 1205 kHz 5kΩ resistor, operating over a bandwidth of
28. A second modulating tone having the same 20KHz is
amplitude but a different frequency is A. 1.3 nV
added to the first at the input to the
modulator. The modulation index will be B. 1.3 μV
increased by a factor of C. 1.3 pV
A. √3 D. 1.3 mV
B. √𝟐 35. An amplifier operating over the frequency
C. 2 range of 455 to 460 kHz has a 200 kΩ input
resistor. What is the RMS noise voltage at
D. 3
the input to this amplifier if the ambient
29. What is the advantage of PTM over PAM? temperature is 17˚C ?
A. All of these A. 40 μV
B. Low sampling rate is required B. 4.0 μV
C. Much better noise immunity C. 400 μV
D. Simpler to generate D. 4.0 mV
30. Which one is an antenna coupling unit? 36. A unit of noisiness related to the perceived
A. Coupler noise level
a. Noy
 b. Sone C. Nyquist theorem
c. dB D. Shannon theorem
d. phone 44. What is the effective radiated power of a
37. Redundancy measures repeater with 200 watts transmitter power
output, 4 dB feline loss, 4 dB duplexer and
a. Transmission rate of a system circulator loss, and 10 dB antenna gain?
b. How likely symbols are to be repeated A. 317 W
c. Time between failures B. 2000 W
d. System cost C. 126 W
38. Go-ahead sequence D. 260 W
01111111 45. Data is
39. Which characteristic of a radio receiver Digital
refers to its ability to reject an unwanted
46. Digital modulation technique used in
signal?
modems.
A. Sensitivity
A. ASK
B. Selectivity
B. PSK
C. Fidelity
C. FSK
D. Quality
D. All of these
40. Steps to follow to produce PCM signal.
47. Mixer is
A. Quantizing, sampling, and coding
Converter
B. Sampling, quantizing, and coding
48. Waveguide becomes compulsory above
C. Sampling, coding and quantizing what frequencies?
D. Coding, quantizing and coding a. Above 3 GHz
41. What is the reference noise level? b. Above 10 kHz
A. 10 pW c. At 300 MHz
B. 0 dBm d. Above 10 GHz
C. 1mW 49. Asynchronous signal
D. -90 dBm FSK
42. Calculated the noise figure of the amplifier 50. What determines which network
whose Req equals 2518Ω (RT=600Ω) if its configuration is most appropriate?
driven by a generator whose output
A. Network layer
impedance is 50Ω.
A. 39.4 B. Application layer

B. 3.94 C. Presentation layer

C. 394 D. Data link layer

D. 0.394
43. _____ sets a limit on the maximum capacity
of a channel with a give noise level.
A. Hartley theorem
B. Shannon-Hartley theorem
Question 1 Question 4

Which digital modulation technique is A microwave transmitting antenna is 550-ft

appropriate for a transmission media that has a high. The receiving antenna is 200-ft high. The
bandwidth of 40 kHz and an input data rate to minimum transmission distance is
the modulator is equal to 4 kbps?
Select one:
Select one:
1. 20 mi
1. 512 PSK
2. 33.2 mi
2. 1024 QAM
3. 38.7 mi
3. 2048 QAM
4. 53.2 mi
4. None of the choices
Sq root of (2*550) + sq root of (200*2) = 53.2

Question 2
Question 5
Per ANSI/EIA/TIA 568, cat 5E twisted pair can
support up to this rate. Which statement is TRUE?

a. 16 MHz Select one:

2. 100 MHz 1. SDH and PDH both interleave data bit by bit

3. 250 MHz 2. SDH interleaves bits ; PDH interleaves bytes

4. 600 MHz 3. SDH interleaves bytes; PDH interleaves bits

4. SDH and PDH both interleave data byte by

byte
Question 3

Coaxial cables are categorized by ___ ratings.

Question 6
Select one:
In FHSS, the pseudorandom code is applied to
1. Bayone – Neill - Concelman
Select one:
2. Registered Jack
1. the digital data
3. Radio Government
2. the carrier frequency
4. Government Recommendation
3. the chirp

4. the output of the phase shifter

Question 7 Question 10

How many octets can be sent out in 250 micro The capture area of an antenna is directly
seconds with SDH STM-1? proportional to the

Select one: Select one:

1. 4860 1. frequency of the received signal

2. 810 2. distance between transmitter and receiver

3. 1620 3. gain of the antenna

4. 2430 4. power density of the signal

Question 11

Question 8 The video signal amplitude determines the

quality of the picture otherwise known as
Select one:
Select one:
1. A
1. hue
2. B
2. luminance
3. C
3. chrominance
4. D
4. contrast

Question 12
Question 9
What is the carrier to interference power ratio
A communications channel has a bandwidth of expressed in dB for a mobile system with a
2MHz, what appropriate signal level should be propagation coefficient of 4.084, a frequency
used if the signal to noise voltage ratio of the reuse number of five and with four adjacent
channel is 26dB? interfering cells?
Select one: Select one:
1. 4 1. 63 ((3*5)^(4.084/2))/4
2. 5 2. 54
3. 6 3. 42
4. none of the choices 4. 18
 3. Radiation

4. Emission

Question 13

Diffraction of electromagnetic waves Question 16

Select one: An amplifier has output S/N that is half of its

input S/N. What is its noise figure?
1. Is caused by reflections from the ground
Select one:
2. May occur around the edge of a sharp
obstacle 1. 3 dB

3. Arises only with spherical wavefronts 2. -3 dB

4. Will occur when the waves pass through a 3. 2 dB

large slot
4. none of the choices

Question 14
Question 17
Envelop detection is concerned with the
___ is the measurement of how fast data can
process of
pass through an entity.
Select one:
Select one:
1. mixing
1. Data rate
2. heterodyning
2. Propagation time
3. modulation
3. Propagation speed
4. rectification
4. Throughput

Question 15
Question 18
The transmission and reception of information
Of the following elements, which one is not
is known as
used as dopant for FOC amplifiers?
Select one:
Select one:
1. Modulation
1 . Iridium
2. Communications
2. Praseodymium
3. Thulium 3. Condenser

4. Erbium 4. Crystal

Question 19 Question 22

Select one: Frequency modulation and phase modulation

are collectively referred to as
1. 36.22 dB
Select one:
2. 100.95 dB
1. stereo
3. 50.95 dB
2. angle modulation
4. 25.49 dB
3. high fidelity modulation

4. FCC modulation
Question 20

Transmission lines when connected to antennas

have Question 23

Select one: Disregard signalling overhead and guard bands,

1. Capacitive load
2. Resistive load whose resistance is greater
than the line impedance
3. Resistive load whose resistance is less than
the line impedance
4. Resistive load at resonant frequency
how many simultaneous calls are possible at
any one time in a GSM900 system given 3.2
MHz BW for uplink, 15 clusters with a 6 cells
reuse pattern and exactly the same number of
FDD carriers each cell? Recall that GSM is
FDMA/TDMA
Select one:
1. 1890 not sure

2. 1440
Question 21
3. 3780
Which of the following is not a low-impedance
microphone? 4. 3840

Select one:

1. Dynamic Question 24

2. Velocity For a 20 km subscriber loop, how long is the

finer gauge wire to meet a supervision limit of
1300 O when using 19 and 22 AWG category 3 2. 145 K
UTP cables with resistances of 52.8 and 106.3
O/km, respectively? 3. 290 K

Select one: 4. 580 K

1. 2.68 km

2. 3.98 km Question 27

3. 4.56 km Given: the switch power source is 100 v DC;

from the MDF on-hook resistance of the OSP
4. 15.44 km was measured 30 KO and off-hook resistance
was measured 1800 ohms. Find the current
106.3 X + 52.8Y = 1300 needed to supervise the local loop.
X + Y= 20 Select one:

1. 3.33 mA
Question 25 2. 3.55 mA
The bandwidth necessary to send an 8-QAM
3. 3.67 mA
signal is ___ when the input bit rate is 24kbps.
4. 55.56 mA
Select one:

1. 2kbps
Question 28
2. 3 kbps
The type of AM signal that is used in TV
3. 8 kHz
broadcasting is called
4. None of the choices
Select one:
2^3 =8 1. B8E
24 kbps/3 bits/symbol =8 kBaud or 8 kHz 2. C3F

3. R3E
Question 26 4. H3E
What is the equivalent noise temperature for a
noise figure of 3dB?
Question 29
Select one:
Select one:
1. 17 K
1. 372.28 mV 1. Three

2. 37.228 mV 2. Four

3. 36.228 mV 3. Five

4. 34.5 mV 4. Six

Question 30 Question 33

The power density of "flicker" noise is Increasing the transmitter power of an AM

Select one:
1. the same at all frequencies
2. greater at low frequencies
3. greater at high frequencies
4. the same as "white" noise
station will
Select one:
1. Increase the field intensity at the end point
of the original transmitter
2. Increase the ground conductivity
3. Decrease the ground conductivity

4. A and B
Question 31

The video signal amplitude determines the

Question 34
quality of the picture otherwise known as
The coding efficiency of a PCM system is ___
Select one: when the system requires a minimum number
1. hue of bits of 6.3234 (excluding the sign bit).

2. luminance Select one:

3. chrominance 1. 89.21

4. contrast 2. 90.38

3. 91.54

Question 32 4. None of the choices

How many loading points are there for a 9.86

km H66 loaded distribution cable with loss Question 35
parameter of 0.053 dB/km?

Select one:
Determine the image frequency of a broadcast 1. Shot Noise
band receiver using a 455kHz IF tuned to
630kHz 2. External Noise

Select one: 3. Transit Time Noise

1. 2500 kHz 4. Thermal Noise

2. 1540 kHz

3. 1000 kHz Question 38

4. 960 kHz Product detection requires the process of

LO = (655+455) kHz Select one:

X- LO = 455 kHz 1. rectification

X= 1540 kHz 2. heterodyning

3. decoding

Question 36 4. phase shifting

An FM broadcast station operates with a peak-

to-peak deviation of 120 kHz. Calculate the Question 39
percentage modulation.
What is the frame rate of 5 – device
Select one: synchronous TDM system, when the bit rate of
1. 62.5% each channel is 1000 kbps, no synchronization
bits are added and bit interleaving is used?
2. 80%
Select one:
3. 82.5%
1. 200 frames per second
4. 100%
2. 1000 frames per second
60/75=0.8
3. 5000 frames per second

4. None of the choices

Question 37

A noise that shows up as a random noise within

the device and is directly proportional to the Question 40
frequency of operation The maximum value of quantization error is
Select one: always _____.
Select one: Question 43

1. equal to the minimum step size The signal from a color camera has R = 0.75, G =
0.5, and B = 0.15, where 1 represents the
2. equal to half of the resolution maximum signal possible, find the value Q for
3. equal to twice the resolution the transmitted signal.

4. none of the choices Select one:

1. 0.5365

Question 41 2. 0.262

The phenomenon of a strong FM signal 3. 1.5365

dominating a weaker signal on a common
4. -0.056
frequency is referred to as the

Select one:
Question 44
1. Doppler effect
Spacing: DWDM is by ____ while CWDM is by
2. Capture effect ____. Fill in the blanks by choosing the letter of
3. Faraday's rotation the appropriate word pair.

4. none of the above Select one:

1. wavelength, frequency

Question 42 2. wavelength, wavelength

Non – linear coding is a solution to minimizing 3. frequency, wavelength

quantization error by making the resolution ___
4. frequency, frequency
at low amplitude signals and ___ at high
amplitude signals.

Select one: Question 45

1. Smaller, larger A 300? line is terminated by a 200 –j200?,

determine the nearest distance in electrical
2. Larger, smaller degrees where the input impedance is a purely
3. Smaller, equal resistive.

4. Equal, larger Select one:

1. 42.62 degrees

2. 32.62 degrees
3. 48.62 degrees A 100 MHz carrier is deviated 50 kHz by a 4 kHz
signal. The modulation index is
4. 22.62 degrees
Select one:

1. 250
Question 46
2. 0.08
CDMA utilizes what type of wideband
technology? 3. 2

4. 12.5

Select one:

1. FDM Question 49

2. TDM Which encoding method attempts to solve the

loss of synchronization in long strings of 0s?
3. Spread Spectrum
Select one:
4. Fiber Optic Communication
1. NRZ – L

2. NRZ – I
Question 47
3. RZ
In _______ propagation, the beam of
propagated light is almost horizontal, and the 4. B8ZS
low-density core has a small diameter
compared to the cores of the other propagation
modes. Question 50

Why is it impossible to use a waveguide at low

Select one: frequencies?

1. Single-mode Select one:

2. Multimode step-index 1. Because of the size of the waveguide

3. Multimode graded-index 2. Due to severe attenuation

4. Multimode single-index 3. Due to too much radiation

4. All of the choices

Question 48
1. For an earth station transmitter with an antenna 6. The zone between the point where the ground
input power of 50dBW, a back-off loss of 6dB, a wave becomes too weak for reception and the
total branching and feeder loss of 2dB, and a point where the sky wave is first returned to earth.
transmitter antenna gain of 30dB. Calculate the
EIRP. a. Twilight
b. Gray
a. 60dBW c. Neutral
b. 68dBW d. Skip
c. 70dBW
d. 72dBW 7. A narrow beam linear array of parallel alternating
dipoles all of which are energized, this fractal
2. What type of propagation is used by two 1kw antenna is broadband.
stations a few miles apart separated by a low hill
blocking their line-of-sight path and are a. LPDA
communicating on 3.725 MHz? b. Turnstile
c. Yagi-Uda
a. Evaporation ducting d. Marconi
b. Knife edge diffraction
c. Ground wave 8. Hours a LOS link can take as cumulative outage
d. Tropospheric scattering in a year and still meet a reliability objective of 97%.

3. Calculate the bandwidth necessary to pass an FSK a. 10.96

signal whose input bit rate is 30kbps, a VCO b. 43.2
sensitivity of 10kHz per volt and input amplitude of c. 263
2 volts. d. 0.72

a. 100 kHz 9. Which encoding method attempts to solve the

b. None of the choices loss of synchronization in long strings of 0s?
c. 300 kHz
d. 200 kHz a. NRZ-I
b. RZ
4. An FM transmitter has a maximum deviation of c. B8ZS
12kHz and a maximum modulating frequency of 12 d. NRZ-L
kHz bandwidth by Carson's rule is
10. Determine the M-ary encoding bandwidth of a
a. 48 kHz system that has 32-possible output phases using a
b. 12 kHz data rate of 600 kbps.
c. 36 kHz
d. 24 kHz a. 320 kHz
b. 120 kHz
5. A CCITT standard that refers to various aspects of c. 18.75 kHz
Integrated Service Digital Network (ISDN). d. None of the choices

a. V-series
b. D-series
c. X-cseries
d. I-series
11. A coherent BPSK transmitter operates at a bit 16. Determine the frequencies of the video and the
rate of 20Mbps.. For a C/No=81.81dB, determine audio carriers for channel 9 of the TV broadcast
the Eb/No ratio. system

a. 6.6dB a. 187.25MHz and 191.25MHz

b. 5.6dB b. 188.35MHz and 191.75MHz
c. 4.5dB c. 186MHz and 192MHz
d. 8.8dB d. 187.25MHz and 191.75MHz

12. What is the FSL, in dB, between two 100 meters 17. An analog pulse modulation technique in which
parabolic antenna 38.0 km apart operating at 7.0 the duration of each resulting pulse is varied in step
GHz? with the amplitude of the modulating signal at the
time. It is sampled and the sampled pulses have the
a. 140.90 same amplitude.
b. 75.0
c. 138.5 a. Pulse Amplitude Modulation
d. 145.6 b. Pulse Code Modulation
c. Pulse Width Modulation
13. The EIRP at 7 GHz of a 10m parabolic antenna in d. Pulse Position Modulation
a 90 km hop when the median received signal is
zero dBm? 18. An AM broadcast station transmits 29.93-kW
PEP. With an average plate current of 1 A and a
a. 208dBm 75% plate efficiency, find the maximum audio
b. 148.4dB power
c. 148.4dBm
d. 55dB a. 5kW
b. 6kW
14. This is the minimum range of frequencies c. 11.25kW
required propagating the source information d. 7.5kW
through the system.
19. In a given network, there are 360 lines
a. None of the choices connected for services and 7 blocked calls during
b. Cut-off frequency busy hour, what is the grade of service?
c. Resonant frequency
d. Bandwidth a. 0.1910
b. 0.0911
15. How long does it take to dial the number 761- c. 0.9101
4832 using pulse dialing with 0.5s interdigit time? d. 0.0191

a. 6.1s 20. For an I=0.4 and Q=0.3, find the value of the C
b. 6.8s voltage and the approximate hue of this color
c. 5.8s
d. 5.1s a. 0.5V, blue
b. 0.5V, magenta
c. 0.5V, green
d. 0.5V, red
21. Wavelength at 14.52 GHz? 26. Which of the following could not be an Ethernet
multicast destination?
a. 16.4cm
b. 2.064cm a. 7B-AA-C1-23-45-32
c. 2.062cm b. B7-7B-6C-DE-10-00
d. 31.73cm c. 83-32-21-21-4D-34
d. 7C-56-21-1A-DE-F4
22. It is the reciprocal of the time of one output
signaling element. 27. When the code subfield in an S-frame is 10, it
means that
a. Baud
b. Frequency deviation a. The receiver sent an NAK frame
c. Bit rate b. The receiver is not ready to receive
d. Bandwidth information
c. The receiver is ready to receive information
23. The primary service area in AM broadcasting is d. The receiver sent an ACK frame
bounded by a field strength of
28. The diameters of the parabolic antennas of a
a. 1mmho/m radio link using space waves were changed from 7
b. 0dB to 9.8 feet, how much in dB did the fade margin
c. None of the choices change?
d. 1mV/m
a. 1.759
24. For frequency diversity system improvement is b. 4.681
directly proportional to the ______. Which choice is c. 2.923
wrong? d. 2.271

a. 10 raised to 1/10th of the fade margin 29. It is the measurement of how fast data can pass
b. Distance through an entity.
c. Frequency separation
d. Inverse of the square of the frequency a. Propagation time
b. Throughput
25. He set the following rules, lateral density of the c. Propagation speed
lines indicates intensity of the field, evenly spaced d. Data rate
arrows indicate field is evenly distributed, direction
is indicated by tangent line to the field and the 30. The sub-network address of 174.15.26.85/27 is
right hand rule
a. 174.15.26.0
a. Faraday b. 174.15.26.64
b. Maxwell c. 174.15.26.32
c. Fresnel d. 174.15.0.0
d. Einstein
31. Per ANSI/TIA 568 standards, the buffer color of
the 12th fiber in a fiber optic cable should be

a. Aqua
b. Red
c. Orange
d. Rose
 37. This is a transmission line loss resulting wave
32. The minimum local station spacing is harmonics and interference among wavelengths
propagating in a single fiber
a. 10 kHz
b. 36 kHz a. four wave mixing
c. 9 kHz b. dielectric loss
d. None of the choices c. radiation loss
d. induction loss
33. A Pi-pad attenuator circuit is required to reduce
the level of an audio signal by 10dB while matching 38. All fast Ethernet LANs are connected using ___
the impedance of a 75Ω network. Calculate the topology
values of the three resistors required
a. Bus
a. 144.4Ω, 106.7Ω and 75Ω b. Ring
b. 144.4Ω, 106.7Ω and 144.4Ω c. Star
c. 144.4Ω, 106.7Ω and 106.7Ω d. Mesh
d. 144.4Ω, 75Ω and 75Ω
39. A service area served by ground waves but are
34. A 10GHz signal travelling in a rectangular subjected to some interference and fading
waveguide with an inner cross section of 22.86 x
10.16 mm. Calculate the characteristic impedance. a. Secondary
b. Primary
a. 589.5 Ω c. None of the choices
b. 499.5 Ω d. Intermittent
c. 488.5 Ω
d. 599.5 Ω 40. Find the frequency at slant range of 100 km that
yields approximately 146.4 dB line of sight (LOS)
35. A form of digital modulation where the path loss
amplitude of the modulating signal is converted
into binary coded pulses. a. 7.07 GHz
b. 15 GHz
a. Pulse Code Modulation c. 3.5 GHz
b. Pulse Position Modulation d. 5 GHz
c. Pulse Amplitude Modulation
d. Pulse Width Modulation
41. What is the wasted bandwidth when 100Base-T
36. A car horn outdoors, produces a sound intensity is transported in SONET STS3.
level of 90dB at 10-ft away. What is the sound
power at this distance? a. 37.5%
b. 73.5%
a. 0.20W c. 75.3%
b. 0.18W d. 35.7%
c. 0.15W
d. 0.12W
42. How long does it take to horizontally scan 20 47. When layers of warm air form above layers of
pixels? cold air, conduction ducts are formed. This is called

a. 2.3us a. subsidence
b. 2.5us b. advection
c. 3.2us c. temperature inversion
d. 1.5us d. radiative cooling

43. A satelite operates at 4.5GHz with a transmitter 48. What is the total power in dBm of a three
power of 7W and an antenna gain of 40dB, and the circuits having 6dBm, 3dBm and 8dBm respectively?
path length is 45,000km. Determine the signal
strength at the receiver. a. 10.891 dBm
b. 9.108 dBm
a. 89.19dBm c. 10.189 dBm
b. -89.19dBm d. 8.910 dBm
c. -90.18dBm
d. 90.18dBm 49. The fade margin was increased by 10 dB, by
how much did the reliablity, originally 99%,
44. He tested in 1894, the structure for guiding of increased?
waves proposed by the Nobel Lauriat who
discovered the electron a. 0.009%
b. 0.008%
a. AC Clarke c. 0.006%
b. JJ Thomson d. 0.007%
c. OJ Lodge
d. PH Smith 50. What is the spacing distance between adjacent
elements for a broadside array optimized for 29
45. The end-connector used by twisted pair cable is MHz?

a. SC Connector a. 2.271m
b. RG11 b. 0.833m
c. ST connector c. 5.16897m
d. RJ45 d. 5.686m

51. How long is the longest element of a LPDA

optimized for TV reception from Channel 4 to 7?

46. In fiber optic cables, at rates higher than 2.5 a. 5.16897m

Gbps with one wavelenght, this must be considered b. 5.686m
c. 2.271m
a. intra modal dispersion d. 0.833m
b. total internal reflection
c. four wave mixing
d. chromatic dispersion

-
52. Convert 5W to dBm 57. Determine the input impedance of a T-pad with
a series arm of 100 Ω and shunt arm of 175 Ω and a
a. 36.99dBm terminating impedance of 450 Ω.
b. 6.99dBm
c. 73.98dBm a. 571.88 Ω
d. 13.98dBm b. 514.781 Ω
c. 581.748 Ω
53. What is the gain in dBd of a ten feet diameter d. 518.478 Ω
parabolic antenna operating at two GHz?
58. A Smith Chart cannot be used to solve problems
a. 21.37 involving
b. 23.37
c. 42 a. transients
d. 31.37 b. continuous waves
c. fields varying harmonically with time
54. Digital transmission basically requires the d. steady state conditions
following except
59. Three telephone circuits each having a S/N ratio
a. Multiplexing of 20dB are connected in tandem. Determine the
b. Precise time synchronization overall S/N ratio.
c. Large bandwidth
d. Encoding and decoding circuitry a. 15.23dB
b. 23.32dB
55. A piece of RG-59B/U coaxial cable has a 75-ohm c. 12.53dB
characteristic impedance. If the diameter of the d. 13.25dB
inner conductor is 0.584 mm, and the dielectric
constant of the insulation is 2.23, what is the outer 60. A figure of merit that determines the sharpness
conductor diameter? of the frequency response curve in filters.

a. 5.21 mm a. Shape factor

b. 4.56 mm b. Bandwidth
c. 3.77 mm c. Quality factor
d. 6.02 mm d. Roll-off rate
56. By how much dB did the fade margin increased
if the reliability improved from 96% to 99% for a
hop with very smooth terrain in a hot and humid
climate?

a. six
b. five
c. four
d. three
1. Determine the bandwidth for an FSK signal with 7. MPEG video standards for video compression
a mark frequency of 32 KHz, a space frequency were introduced in
of 24 KHz and a bit rate of 4 Kbps. a. 1986
a. 22 KHz b. 1971
b. 20 KHz c. 1991
c. 16 KHz d. 1966
d. 12 KHz 8. When the terrain a large body of water, the
2. Indicate the three types of transmission line appropriate k-factor to use to account
energy losses. refractivity of the atmosphere is
a. Conductor heating, dielectric heating a. 4/3
and radiation resistance b. 2/3
b. Radiation, I ^2R, and dielectric heating c. 5/12
c. Dielectric separation, insulation d. 0.75
breakdown, and radiation 9. How many points in the constellation diagram
d. I^2R, RL, and temperature are there in a 16-QAM modulation?
3. Indicate which of the following frequencies a. 16
cannot be used for reliable beyond-the-horizon b. 8
terrestrial communication without repeaters. c. 24
a. 900MHz d. 32
b. 12GHz 10. It is an array of simple dipoles fed in phase and
c. 15MHz having a radiation pattern whose maximum
d. 20KHz directivity is along the axis normal to the plane
4. Which radio wave is primarily transmitted along of the array.
the surface of the earth? a. Broadside array
a. Direct Wave b. Yagi-uda
b. Ground Wave c. End-fire array
c. Space Wave d. Log-periodic
d. Sky Wave 11. In _______ propagation, the beam of
5. Sound is fastest in which of the following propagated light is almost horizontal, and the
media? low-density core has a small diameter
a. None of the choices compared to the cores of the other propagation
b. Solids modes.
c. Liquid a. Multimode single-index
d. Gas b. Single-mode
6. If the equivalent eart radius factor k c. Multimode step-index
deteriorates and the East station antenna is d. Multimode graded-index
lower that the West station antenna, the point 12. In the designation of bandwidth and emission,
of reflection shift to what direction of the what letter in the first symbol represent an ISB
compass? signal?
a. West a. C
b. South b. J
c. East c. B
d. North d. A
13. Which mobile system came first 19. A FM transmitter has a maximum deviation of
a. WiMax 806 16e 12kHz and a maximum modulation frequency of
b. AMPS 12kHz. The bandwidth by Carson’s rule is
c. GSM900 a. 24kHz
d. LTE b. 48kHz
14. VLF waves are used for some types of services c. 12kHz
because d. 36kHz
a. The transmitting antennas are of 20. What is the approximate frequency of the
convenient size modulating signal having a bandwidth (using
b. They penetrate the ionosphere easily Carson’s rule) of 15kHz and a frequency
c. They are very reliable deviation of 6kHz?
d. Of the low power required a. 3kHz
15. Find the input impedance of a transmission line b. 1.5kHz
4.3 lambda long when Zo=100Ω and Zl=200- c. 6kHz
j150Ω d. 4.5kHz
a. 41.09 + 54.64Ω 21. Most internal noise comes from
b. 41.09 + 56.64Ω a. thermal agitation
c. 54.64 + 41.09Ω b. skin effect
d. 56.64 + 41.09Ω c. shot noise
16. Using a TDR, a pulse is transmitted down a d. transmit time noise
cable with a velocity factor of 0.7c. The 22. Indicate which one of the following terms
reflected signal is received 1.2µs later. How far applies to troposcatter propagation.
down the cable is the impairment? a. Faraday rotation
a. 124m b. SIDs
b. 123m c. Fading
c. 126m d. Atmospheric storms
d. 125m 23. To provide two or more voice circuits with the
17. The modulation index of an AM wave is same carrier, it is necessary to use
changed from 0 to 1. The transmitted power is a. Carrier reinsertion
a. Unchanged b. SSB with pilot carrier
b. Halved c. Lincompex
c. Increase by 50% d. ISB
d. Doubled 24. The minimum voltage of a transmission line
18. 1000 Base-TX is mapped into and transported with a load of ZL = 100 – j200Ω is 6.39mV. An
by SONET STS-26, how much bandwidth is input impedance of magnitude of 44.721 and an
wasted? angle of 63.435Ω at 20 MHz was measured
a. 25.81% 33.75m from the load. Find the value of the
b. 80.71% characteristic impedance.
c. 35.70% a. 25Ω
d. 59.81% b. 100Ω
c. 50Ω
d. 75Ω
25. The maximum deviation of an FM carrier is 2kHz 31. For frequency diversity system improvement is
by a maximum modulating signal of 400Hz. The directly proportional to the ___. Which choice is
deviation ratio is wrong?
a. 5 a. 10 raised to 1/10th of the fade margin
b. 0.2 b. Inverse of the square of the frequency
c. 800 c. Frequency separation
d. none of the choices d. Distance
26. Three tones (5V 10kHz, 7.5V 3kHz and 15v 5 32. The power density of the “flicker” noise is
kHz) simultaneously modulate a 20V carrier. a. greater at low frequencies
Compute for the percentage modulation. b. the same as “white” noise
a. 83.33% c. greater at high frequencies
b. 87.50% d. the same at all frequencies
c. 45.83% 33. Find the input reactance of a 600Ω line
d. 57.50% terminated in an inductive reactance equivalent
27. The angle measured between the 3dB down to 240Ω when the line has a length of 0.1λ.
points on the major lobe of an antenna’s a. j92.836Ω
radiation pattern. b. 952.836Ω
a. Null Angle c. j952.836Ω
b. Azimuth d. –j952.836Ω
c. Beamwidth 34. A transmission line has a characteristic
d. Bandwidth impedance of 50Ω. Find the inductance of the
28. Which of the following is true about AM? line if it is operating at 1MHz with a velocity of
a. LSB contains identical information with 2.4 x10^8 m/sec.
the USB signal. a. 20.8333 nH/m
b. In AM, information is present in the b. 28.3333 nH/m
carrier. c. 208.3333 nH/m
c. During 100% modulation, 1/3 of the d. 0.208333 nH/m
total power is wasted by transmitting 35. These are systems involving the transmission of
the sidebands. digital pulses.
d. In AM, information is present in the a. Digital transmission
carrier and in the sidebands. b. Digital communications
29. What does an open transmission line look like a c. Frequency transmission
short to the source? d. Digital radio
a. at less than λ/4 36. The local AM broadcast band is:
b. at quarter-wavelength a. 525-1705 kHz
c. at half-wavelength b. none of the choices
d. at less than λ/5 c. c.525-1605 kHz
30. It is the reciprocal of the time of one output d. d. 535-1605 kHz
signaling element. 37. A type of microwave antenna in which the
a. Bandwidth feed-point is located at the vertex of the
b. Frequency Deviation parabola and is directed against a secondary
c. Bit Rate hyperbolic reflector.
d. Baud a. Lens antenna
b. Spherical reflector
c. Parabolic dish
d. Cassegrain antenna
38. To install an antenna with a line-of-sight 45. An electromagnetic wave is ___ polarized when
transmission at a distance of 75 miles, the electric field lies wholly in one place
determine the height of a receiving antenna if containing the direction of propagation.
the transmitting antenna is 250ft. a. Horizontally
a. 255 ft b. Linearly
b. 600 ft c. Vertically
c. 1,385 ft d. Circularly
d. 400ft 46. A 70kHz carrier has a frequency deviation of
39. What is the encoding scheme, the number of 4kHz with a 1000 Hz signal. How many
outputs possible, the bandwidth and the baud significant sideband pairs are produced?
of a 32-QAM modulation? a. 0.25
a. Six bits, 64, fb/3, fb/3 b. 7
b. Five bits, 32, fb/5, fb/5 c. none of the choices
c. Five bits, 16, fb/3, fb/3 d. 17.5
d. Six bits, 32, fb/5, fb/5 47. What is the service area LOS radius for a
40. In an FM signal, the power ___ as the receiver with a sensitivity of minus 90 dBm, a
modulation index increase. 100 mW transmitter and isotropic antennas at
a. remains constant 755MHz?
b. none of the choices a. 14.99km
c. increases b. 15km
d. reduces c. 10km
41. What is the value of N and M for a QPSK d. 6.67km
modulation? 48. A TV channel can accommodate ___ FM
a. 2, 4 stations.
b. 1, 3 a. 7
c. 2, 3 b. 9
d. 1, 2 c. 6
42. The captured area of an antenna is directly d. 8
proportional to the 49. What modulation technique is used if the
a. power density of the signal encoding scheme has 2 outputs possible, and
b. distance between transmitter and the bandwidth and baud is equal to the bit
receiver rate?
c. frequency of the received signal a. 8-QAM
d. gain of the antenna b. BPSK
43. What is the relative amplitude of the third pair c. 8-PSK
of sidebands of an FM signal with m = 6 d. QPSK
a. 0 50. Phase reversal keying is another name for.?
b. 0.50 a. FSK
c. 1 b. PSK
d. 0.11 c. BPSK
44. The cladding which surrounds the core d. QPSK
a. is used to reduce optical interferen
b. acts to help guide the light in the core
c. ensure that the refractive index remains
constant
d. is used to protect the fiber
1. What is the opposition to the transfer of energy which is considered the dominant characteristics of a
cable or circuit that emanates from its physical structure?
A. Conductance
B. Resistance
C. Reactance
D. Impedance
ANSWER: D

2. When load impedance equals to Zo of the line, It means that the load _____ all the power.
A. Reflects
B. Absorbs
C. Attenuates
D. Radiates
ANSWER: B

3. Impedance matching ratio of a coax balun.

A. 1:4
B. 4:1
C. 2:1
D. 3:2
ANSWER: B

4. Which stands for dB relative level?

A. dBrn
B. dBa
C. dBr
D. dBx
ANSWER: C

5. Standard test tone used for audio measurement.

A. 800 Hz
B. 300 Hz
C. 100 Hz
D. 1000 Hz
ANSWER: D

6. When VSWR is equal to zero, this means

A. That no power is applied
B. That the load is purely resistive
C. That the load is a pure reactance
D. That the load is opened
ANSWER: A

7. _________ is the ratio of reflected voltage to the forward travelling voltage.

A. SWR
B. VSWR
C. Reflection coefficient
D. ISWR
ANSWER: C

8. Transmission line must be matched to the load to ___________.

A. Transfer maximum voltage to the load
B. Transfer maximum power to the load
C. Reduce the load current
D. Transfer maximum current to the load
ANSWER: B

9. Which indicate the relative energy loss in a capacitor?

A. Quality factor
B. Reactive factor
C. Dissipation factor
D. Power factor
ANSWER: C

10. What is the standard test tone?

A. 0 dB
B. 0 dBW
C. 0 dBm
D. 0 dBrn
ANSWER: C

11. The energy that neither radiated into space nor completely transmitted.
A. Reflected waves
B. Captured waves
C. Incident waves
D. Standing waves
ANSWER: D

12. Micron is equal _______ meter.

A. 10^-10
B. 10^-9
C. 10^-6
D. 10^-3
ANSWER: C

13. 1 Angstrom (A) is equal to

A. 10^-3 micron
B. 10^-10 m
C. 10^-6 micron
D. 10^-6 m
ANSWER: B

14. Why is it impossible to use a waveguide at low radio frequencies?

A. Because of the size of the waveguide
B. Due to severe attenuation
C. Due to too much radiation
D. All of these
ANSWER: A

15. ___________ is the transmission and reception of information.

A. Modulation
B. Communications
C. Radiation
D. Emission
ANSWER: B

16. What is the loss of the circuit in dB if the power ratio of output to input is 0.01?
A. 20
B. -20
C. 40
D. -40
ANSWER: A

17. Transmission lines are either balanced or unbalanced with respect to

A. Negative terminal
B. Reference
C. Ground
D. Positive terminal
ANSWER: C

18. The standing wave ratio is equal to ________ if the load is properly matched with the transmission
line.
A. Infinity
B. 0
C. -1
D. 1
ANSWER: D

19. ________ is the advantage of the balanced transmission line compared to unbalance line.
A. Low attenuation
B. Easy installation
C. Low radiation loss
D. Tensile strength
ANSWER: A

20. _________ is the method of determining the bandwidth of any processing system.
A. Fourier series
B. Spectral analysis
C. Frequency analysis
D. Bandwidth analysis
ANSWER: B

21. What causes the attenuation present in a waveguide?

A. The air dielectric filling the guide.
B. The coating of silver inside
C. Losses in the conducting walls of the guide
D. Radiation loss
ANSWER: C

22. A device that converts a balanced line to an unbalanced line of a transmission line.
A. Hybrid
B. Stub
C. Directional coupler
D. Balun
ANSWER: D

23. What is the approximate line impedance of a parallel-strip line spaced 1 cm apart with the length of
50 cm?
A. 10 ohms
B. 15 ohms
C. 18 ohms
D. 23 ohms
ANSWER: A

24. What is the average power of rating of RG-58 C/u?

A. 25 W
B. 50 W
C. 75 W
D. 200 W
ANSWER: B

25. A coaxial cable used for high temperatures.

A. RG-58C
B. RG11A
C. RG-213
D. RG-211A
ANSWER: D

26. If you have available number of power amplifiers with a gain of 100 each, how many such amplifiers
do you need to cascade to give an overall gain of 60 dB?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
ANSWER: B

27. You are measuring noise channel at a -4 dB test point level, the meter reads -73 dBm, convert the
reading into dBrnCO.
A. 12
B. 16
C. 18
D. 21
ANSWER: D

28. The velocity factor of a transmission line

A. Depends on the dielectric constant of the material used
B. Increases the velocity along the transmission line
C. Is governed by the skin effect
D. Is higher for a solid dielectric than for air
ANSWER: A

29. Impedance inversion can be obtained by

A. A short-circuited stub
B. An open-circuited stub
C. A quarter-wave line
D. A half-wave line
ANSWER: C

30. Transmission lines when connected to antennas have

A. Capacitive load
B. Resistive load whose resistance is greater than the characteristic impedance of the line
C. Resistive load whose resistance is less than characteristic impedance of the line
D. Resistive load at the resonant frequency
ANSWER: D

31. One of the following is not a bounded media.

A. Coaxial line
B. Two-wire line
C. Waveguide
D. Ocean
ANSWER: D

32. The impedance measured at the input of the transmission line when its length is infinite.
A. Input impedance
B. Open circuit impedance
C. Characteristic impedance
D. Short circuit impedance
ANSWER: C

33. The following are considered primary line constants except

A. Conductance
B. Resistance
C. Capacitance
D. Complex propagation constant
ANSWER: D

34. The dielectric constants of materials commonly used in transmission lines range about
A. 1.2 to 2.8
B. 2.8 to 3.5
C. 3.5 to 5.2
D. 1.0 to 1.2
ANSWER: A

35. Typically, the velocity factor of the materials used in transmission lines range from
A. 0.6 to 0.9
B. 0.1 to 0.5
C. 1.0 to 0.9
D. 0.6 to 0.8
ANSWER: A

36. For an air dielectric two-wire line, the minimum characteristic impedance value is
A. 85 ohms
B. 83 ohms
C. 90 ohms
D. 88 ohms
ANSWER: B

37. When a quarter-wave section transmission lines is terminated by a short circuit ad us connected to
an RF source at the other end, its put impedance is
A. Inductive
B. Capacitive
C. Resistive
D. Equivalent to a parallel resonant LC circuit
ANSWER: D

38. A transmitter operating at 30 MHz with 4 W output is connected via 10 m of RG-8A/u cable to an
antenna that has an input resistance of 300 ohms. Find the reflection coefficient.
A. 0.71
B. 0.77
C. 0.97
D. 0.76
ANSWER: A

39. A quaterwave transformer is connected to a parallel wire line in order to match the line to a load of
100 ohms. The transformer has a characteristic impedance of 316.23 ohms. The distance between
centers is 4 inches. What is the percentage reduction in diameter of the line?
A. 85%
B. 83%
C. 86%
D. 90%
ANSWER: B

40. The concept use to make one Smith chart universal is called
A. Ionization
B. Normalization
C. Rationalization
D. Termination
ANSWER: B
41. What are the basic elements of communication system?
A. Source, transmission channel, transmitter
B. Transmitter, receiver, transmission channel
C. Information, transmission channel, receiver
D. Sender and receiver
ANSWER: B

42. _________ is the transmission of printed material over telephone lines.

A. Internet
B. Data communication
C. Telegraphy
D. Facsimile
ANSWER: D

43. _________ is a continuous tone generated by the combination of two frequencies of 350 Hz and 440
Hz used in telephone sets.
A. DC tone
B. Ringing tone
C. Dial tone
D. Call waiting tone
ANSWER: D

44. __________ are unidirectional amplifiers having 20-25 decibel gain that are placed about 75 km
apart used to compensate for losses along the telephone line.
A. VF repeaters
B. Loading coils
C. Loop extenders
D. Echo suppressors
ANSWER: A

45. __________ is a component in the telephone set that has the primary function of interfacing the
handset to the local loop.
A. Resistor
B. Capacitor
C. Varistor
D. Induction coil
ANSWER: D

46. Pulse dialing has __________ rate.

A. 20 pulses/min
B. 10 pulses/min
C. 10 pulses/sec
D. 80 pulses/sec
ANSWER: C

47. __________ is a telephone wire that connects two central offices.

A. 2-wire circuit
B. Trunk line
C. Leased line
D. Private line
ANSWER: B

48. The central switching office coordinating element for all cell sites that has cellular processor and
cellular switch. It interfaces with telephone company zone offices, control call processing and handle
billing activities.
A. MTSO
B. Cell Site
C. PTSN
D. Trunk Line
ANSWER: A

49. __________ in a cellular system performs radio-related functions for cellular site.
A. Switching system
B. Base station
C. Operation and support system
D. Mobile station
ANSWER: B

50. A technology used to increase the capacity of a mobile phone system.

A. Frequency re-use
B. Cell splitting
C. TDM
D. FDM
ANSWER: A

51. If the grade of service of a telephone system indicated P = 0.05, what does it mean?
A. Completed call of 5 %
B. Lost calls of 5 %
C. Lost calls of 95 %
D. Lost calls of 105 %
ANSWER: B

52. __________ is the Out-of-Band signaling between Toll Central Offices.

A. 3,825 Hz
B. 3700 Hz
C. 2600 Hz
D. 800 Hz
ANSWER: B

53. In a telephone system, the customer’s telephone directory numbering is from 000 to 999, what is
the capacity of a telephone system numbering from 000 to 999?
A. 100 lines
B. 1000 lines
C. 10000 lines
D. 100000 lines
ANSWER: B
54. If the SWR is infinite, what type of load transmission line has?
A. Purely reactive
B. Purely resistive
C. Purely capacitive
D. Purely inductive
ANSWER: A

55. Not more than __________ digits make up an international telephone number as recommended by
CCITT REC. E. 161.
A. 8
B. 10
C. 11
D. 12
ANSWER: D

56. One Erlang is equal to __________.

A. 360 CCS
B. 36 CCS
C. 3.6 CCS
D. 100 CCS
ANSWER: B

57. Standard tariff for flat rate telephone service beyond the normal flat rate in that area.
A. WATS
B. OTLP
C. TIP
D. DTWX
ANSWER: A

58. The standard analog telephone channel bandwidth.

A. 300-3400 Hz
B. 1200 Hz
C. 200-3200 Hz
D. 300-3000 Hz
ANSWER: A

59. Type of switching in which a pair of wire from the telephone set terminates in a jack and the switch
is supervised by an operator.
A. Crossbar switching
B. Manual switching
C. Electronic switching
D. Step-by-step switching
ANSWER: B

60. Every time when the telephone is idle, the handset is in the __________ state.
A. On-hook
B. Off-hook
C. Busy
D. Spare
ANSWER: A

61. __________ is a component in the telephone set that has the primary function of compensating for
the local loop length.
A. Resistor
B. Varistor
C. Capacitor
D. Induction coil
ANSWER: B

62. What kind of receiver is used in conventional telephone handset?

A. Carbon
B. Electromagnetic
C. Ceramic
D. Capacitor
ANSWER: B

63. A voice-grade circuit using the PTN has an ideal passband of

A. 0 to 4 Hz
B. 0 to 4 MHz
C. 0 to 4 kHz
D. 0 to 4 GHz
ANSWER: C

64. __________ is the minimum-quality circuit available using the PTN.

A. Basic voice grade
B. Basic voice channel
C. Basic voice band
D. Basic telephone channel
ANSWER: A

65. Direct distance dialing network is called

A. Private-line network
B. PT network
C. Dial-up network
D. Trunk network
ANSWER: C

66. What is the advantage of sidetone?

A. Transmission efficiency is increased
B. Speaker increases his voice resulting in a strengthened signal
C. No dissipation of energy in the balancing network
D. Assure the customer that the telephone is working
ANSWER: D

67. __________ is a special service circuit connecting two private branch exchanges.
A. Phantom line
B. Tie trunk
C. Tandem trunk
D. Private trunk
ANSWER: B

68. The published rates, regulations, and descriptions governing the provision of communications
service for public use
A. Toll rate
B. Tariff
C. Bulk billing
D. Detailed billing
ANSWER: B

69. What is the power loss of a telephone hybrid?

A. 1 dB
B. 2 dB
C. 3 dB
D. 6 dB
ANSWER: C

70. Telephone channel has a band-pass characteristic occupying the frequency range of __________.
A. 300-400 Hz
B. 300-3400 Hz
C. 300-3000 Hz
D. 300-2700 Hz
ANSWER: B

71. The first Strowger step-by-step switch was used in __________.

A. 1875
B. 1890
C. 1897
D. 1913
ANSWER: C

72. What is the phase delay of an 800 Hz voice signal if the phase shift is 15 degrees?
A. 52 µsec
B. 1.25 µsec
C. 83.33 µsec
D. 26 µsec
ANSWER: A

73. What is the CCITT recommendation for a preparation of loss plan, a variable loss plans and a fixed
loss plan?
A. G. 133
B. G. 141
C. G. 132
D. G. 122
ANSWER: D
74. What is the diameter of a copper wire to be used in a 16 km loop with a dc loop resistance of 100
ohms/km?
A. 0.838 mm
B. 0.465 mm
C. 1.626 mm
D. 2.159 mm
ANSWER: B

75. What kind of cell is appropriate for load management, fast moving mobiles and low-usage areas?
A. Pico cells
B. Micro cells
C. Nano cells
D. Umbrella cells
ANSWER: D

76. In cellular networks, standard base station antennas are replaced by __________
A. Adaptive array
B. Flat plate antenna
C. Dipole array
D. Focused antenna
ANSWER: A

77. What is the basis of the first generation wireless local loop?
A. Digital cellular technology
B. Analogue cellular technology
C. PSTN
D. AMPS technology
ANSWER: B

78. When the calling party hears a “busy” tone on his telephone, the call is considered
A. Lost
B. Disconnected
C. Completed
D. Incomplete
ANSWER: C

79. Short-circuited stubs are preferred to open circuited stubs because the latter are
A. More difficult to make and connect
B. Made of a transmission line with a different characteristic impedance
C. Liable to radiate
D. Incapable of giving a full range of reactances
ANSWER: C

80. What is the ratio of the reflected voltage to the incident voltage?
A. VSWR
B. ISWR
C. SWR
D. Coefficient of reflection
ANSWER: D

81. One method of determined antenna impedance.

A. Stub matching
B. Trial and error
C. Smith chart
D. Quarter-wave matching
ANSWER: D

82. __________ is a single conductor running from the transmitter to the antenna.
A. Single-wire line
B. Microstrip
C. Twin lead
D. Coaxial line
ANSWER: A

83. Coaxial cable impedance is typically __________.

A. 150 to 300 ohms
B. 50 to 75 ohms
C. 30 to 45 ohms
D. 300 to 600 ohms
ANSWER: B

84. Waveguide becomes compulsory above what frequencies?

A. Above 3 GHz
B. Above 10 kHz
C. At 300 MHz
D. Above 10 GHz
ANSWER: A

85. Nominal voice channel bandwidth is __________.

A. 20 to 30 kHz
B. 0 to 3 kHz
C. 4 kHz
D. 55 kHz above
ANSWER: C

86. Echo suppressors are used on all communications system when the round trip propagation time
exceeds __________.
A. 50 ms
B. 30 ms
C. 100 ms
D. 1 ms
ANSWER: A

87. A radio transmission line of 300 ohms impedance is to be connected to an antenna having an input
impedance of 150 ohms. What is the impedance of a quarter-wave matching line?
A. 212 ohms
B. 250 ohms
C. 200 ohms
D. 150 ohms
ANSWER: A

88. Quarter-wavelength line is used as __________.

A. Impedance transformer
B. Lecher line
C. Transmission line
D. Harmonic suppressor
ANSWER: A

89. The transmission lines which can convey electromagnetic waves only in higher modes is us usually
called
A. Coaxial cable
B. Waveguide
C. Power lines
D. Twisted wire of telephone line
ANSWER: B

90. Why is nitrogen gas sometimes used in waveguide?

A. To increase the distributed capacitance
B. To keep the waveguide dry
C. To reduce the skin effect at the walls of the guide
D. To raise the guide’s wave impedance
ANSWER: B

91. The apparent speed of propagation along a waveguide based on the distance between wavefronts
along the walls of the guide is called
A. Group velocity
B. Phase velocity
C. Normal velocity
D. Abnormal velocity
ANSWER: B

92. How do you couple In and out of a waveguide?

A. Wrap coil of wire around one end of the waveguide
B. Insertion of an E-probe into the waveguide
C. Insertion of an H-loop into the waveguide
D. Both B and C
ANSWER: D

93. A rectangular waveguide is operating in the dominant TE10 mode. The associated flux lines are
established
A. Transversely across the narrow dimension of the waveguide
B. Transversely across the wide dimension of the waveguide
C. In the metal walls parallel to the direction of propagation
D. In the metal walls perpendicular to the direction of propagation
ANSWER: A

94. For dominant mode of a rectangular waveguide, the distance between 2 instantaneous consecutive
position of maximum field intensity is referred to as half of the
A. Free-space wavelength
B. Cut-off wavelength in the wide dimension
C. Guide wavelength
D. Group wavelength
ANSWER: C

95. The guide wavelength in a rectangular waveguide is

A. Equal to the free-space wavelength at the cut-off frequency
B. Equal to the free-space wavelength for the same signal frequency
C. Less than the free-space wavelength at the cut-off frequency
D. Greater than the free-space wavelength at the same signal frequency
ANSWER: D

96. Using the TE10 mode, microwave power can only be transmitted in free rectangular guide provided
A. The wider dimension is less than one-half of the wavelength in free space
B. The narrow dimension is less than one-quarter of the wavelength in free space
C. The wide dimension is greater than one-half of the guide wavelength
D. The wide dimension is greater than one-half of the wavelength in free space
ANSWER: D

97. If the signal frequency applied to a rectangular guide is increased and the dominant mode is
employed
A. The free space wavelength is increased
B. The phase velocity increased
C. The guide wavelength is increased
D. The group velocity is increased
ANSWER: D

98. If a 6 GHz signal is applied to a arectangular waveguide and the reflection angle is 20 degrees, what
is the value of the guide wavelength?
A. 6.10 cm
B. 5.32 cm
C. 4.78 cm
D. 5.00 cm
ANSWER: B

99. The inner dimension of a rectangular waveguide are 1.75 cm by 3.5 cm. the cutoff wavelength for
the dominant mode is
A. 1.75 cm
B. 3.5 cm
C. 7.0 cm
D. 0.4375 cm
ANSWER: C
100. A signal whose wavelength is 3.5 cm is being propagated along a guide whose inner dimensions are
2 cm by 4 cm. What is the value of the guide wavelength?
A. 3.12 cm
B. 3.89 cm
C. 3.57 cm
D. 6.30 cm
ANSWER: B

1. The frequency range over which a rectangular waveguide is excited in the dominant mode is limited
to
A. The difference between the frequency for which the reflection angle is 90 degrees and the frequency
for which angle is zero.
B. The difference between the frequency for which the free space wavelength is equal to cutoff value
and the frequency for which the free-space wavelength is equal to the guide wavelength
C. The difference between the frequency at which the cutoff wavelength is twice the narrow
dimension.
D. None of these
ANSWER: C

2. If a rectangular waveguide is to be excited in the dominant mode, the E-probe should be inserted
A. At the sealed end
B. At a distance of one quarter-wavelength from the sealed end
C. At a distance of one-half wavelength from the sealed end
D. At a distance of three-quarters of a wavelength from the sealed end
ANSWER: B

3. A quarter-wave line is connected to an RF generator and is shorted out at the far end. What is the
input impedance to the line generator?
A. A low value of resistance
B. A high value of resistance
C. A capacitive resistance which is equal in the value to the line’s surge impedance
D. An inductive resistance which is equal to the value to line’s surge impedance
ANSWER: B

4. If the SWR on a transmission line has a high value, the reason could be
A. An impedance mismatch between the line and the load.
B. That the line is non-resonant
C. A reflection coefficient of zero at the load
D. That the load is matched to the line
ANSWER: A

5. If a quarter-wave transmission line is shorted at one end

A. There is minimum current at the shorted end
B. The line behaves as a parallel-tuned circuit in relation to the generator
C. The line behaves as a series-turned circuit in relation to the generator
D. There is a minimum voltage at the shorted end.
ANSWER: B
6. A 50 ohm transmission line is feeding an antenna which represents a 50 ohms resistive load. To
shorten the line, the length must be
A. Any convenient value
B. An odd multiple of three-quarters of a wavelength
C. An odd multiple of half a wavelength
D. An even multiple of a quarter of a wavelength
ANSWER: A

7. The outer conductor of the coaxial cable is usually grounded

A. At the beginning and at the end of the cable
B. Only at the beginning of the cable and only at the end of the cable
C. Only at the end of the cable
D. At the middle of the cable
ANSWER: A

8. A feature of an infinite transmission line is that

A. Its input impedance at the generator is equal to the line’s surge impedance
B. Its phase velocity is greater than the velocity of light
C. No RF current will be drawn from the generator
D. The impedance varies at different positions on the line
ANSWER: A

9. When the surge impedance of a line is matched to a load, the line will
A. Transfer maximum current to the load
B. Transfer maximum voltage to the load
C. Transfer maximum power to the load
D. Have a VSWR equal to zero
ANSWER: C

10. A lossless line is terminated by a resistive load which is not equal to the surge impedance. If the
value of the reflection coefficient is 0.5, the VSWR is
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 15
ANSWER: B

11. Ratio of the mismatch between the antenna and the transmitter power.
A. Standing wave pattern
B. Reflection coefficient
C. SWR
D. Index of refraction
ANSWER: C

12. Emission designation for a facsimile.

A. H3E and A4E
B. R3E and A4E
C. F4E and J3E
D. F3C and A3E
ANSWER: D

13. Commonly used telephone wire.

A. AWG #19
B. AWG #18
C. AWG #30
D. AWG #33
ANSWER: A

14. What is the distance traveled by a wave in the time of one cycle?
A. Frequency
B. Hop
C. Wavelength
D. Crest
ANSWER: C

15. The velocity factor is inversely proportional with respect to the __________.
A. Square of the dielectric constant
B. Square root of the dielectric constant
C. Dielectric constant
D. Square root of refractive index
ANSWER: B

16. __________ is a hollow structure that has no center conductor but allows waves to propagate down
its length.
A. Waveguide
B. Hybrid
C. Pipe
D. Directional coupler
ANSWER: A

17. To connect a coaxial line to a parallel wire line, __________ is used.

A. Hybrid circuit
B. Balun
C. Directional coupler
D. Quarter-wave transformer matching circuit
ANSWER: B

18. What length for which the input power has been halved for a transmission line with an attenuation
of 6 dB/km?
A. 1.5 km
B. 0.5 km
C. 63 km
D. 2 km
ANSWER: B
19. In a waveguide, __________ is a specific configuration of electric and magnetic fields that allows a
wave to propagate.
A. Set-up
B. Coupler
C. Channel
D. Mode
ANSWER: D

20. A rectangular waveguide has dimensions of 3 cm x 5 cm. what is the dominant mode cut-off
frequency?
A. 2 GHz
B. 3 GHz
C. 2.5 GHz
D. 3.5 GHz
ANSWER: B

21. __________ are transmission lines which can convey electromagnetic waves only in higher order
modes?
A. Coaxial cables
B. Twisted pairs of telephone wire
C. Power cables
D. Waveguides
ANSWER: D

22. The amount of uncertainty in a system of symbols is also called

A. Bandwidth
B. Loss
C. Entropy
D. Quantum
ANSWER: C

23. The twist in twisted wire pairs

A. Reduced electromagnetic interference
B. Occur at a 30 degree angle
C. Eliminate loading
D. Were removed due to cost
ANSWER: A

24. An example of a bounded medium is

A. Coaxial cable
B. Waveguide
C. Fiber-optic cable
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D

25. Loading means the addition of

A. Resistor
B. Capacitor
C. Bullet
D. Inductance
ANSWER: D

26. What is the most commonly used transmission line for high frequency application?
A. Two-wire balance line
B. Single wire
C. Three-wire line
D. Coaxial
ANSWER: D

27. The characteristic impedance of a transmission line does not depend upon its
A. Length
B. Conductor diameter
C. Conductor spacing
D. Dielectric material
ANSWER: A

28. One of the following is not a common transmission line impedance.

A. 50 ohms
B. 75 ohms
C. 120 ohms
D. 300 ohms
ANSWER: C

29. For maximum absorption of power at the antenna, the relationship between the characteristic
impedance of the line Zo and the load impedance ZL should be
A. Zo = ZL
B. Zo > ZL
C. Zo < ZL
D. Zo = 0
ANSWER: A

30. The mismatch between antenna and transmission line impedance cannot be corrected for by
A. Using LC matching network
B. Adjusting antenna length
C. Using a balun
D. Adjusting the length of transmission line
ANSWER: D

31. __________ is a pattern of voltage and current variations along a transmission line not terminated in
its characteristic impedance.
A. An electric field
B. Radio wave
C. Standing waves
D. A magnetic field
ANSWER: C
32. Which is the desirable SWR on a transmission line?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. Infinity
ANSWER: B

33. A 50 ohms coax is connected to a 73 ohms antenna. What is the SWR?

A. 0.685
B. 1
C. 1.46
D. 2.92
ANSWER: C

34. What is the most desirable reflection coefficient?

A. 0
B. 0.5
C. 1
D. Infinity
ANSWER: A

35. What is the ratio expressing the percentage of incident voltage reflected on a transmission line?
A. Velocity factor
B. Standing-wave ratio
C. Reflection coefficient
D. Line efficiency
ANSWER: C

36. The minimum voltage along a transmission line is 260 V, while the maximum is 390 V the SWR is
A. 0.67
B. 1
C. 1.2
D. 1.5
ANSWER: D

37. One meter is one wavelength at a frequency of

A. 150 MHz
B. 164 MHz
C. 300 MHz
D. 328 MHz
ANSWER: C

38. At very high frequencies, transmission lines act as

A. Tuned circuits
B. Antennas
C. Insulators
D. Resistors
ANSWER: B
39. A shorted quarter-wave line at the operating frequency acts like a/an
A. Capacitor
B. Inductor
C. Series resonant circuit
D. Parallel resonant circuit
ANSWER: D

40. A shorted half-wave line at the operating frequency acts like a/an
A. Capacitor
B. Inductor
C. Series resonant circuit
D. Parallel resonant circuit
ANSWER: C

41. A medium least susceptible to noise?

A. Shielded pair
B. Twisted pair
C. Fiber-optic
D. Coaxial
ANSWER: D

42. A medium most widely used in LANs?

A. Parallel-wire line
B. Twisted pair
C. Fiber-optic
D. Coaxial
ANSWER: B

43. The most commonly used transmission line in television system.

A. Parallel-wire line
B. Coaxial cable
C. Waveguide
D. Open-wire with ceramic supports
ANSWER: B

44. The impedance of a TV transmission line depends on several factors. Which is not one of those
factors?
A. Diameter
B. Length of the wire
C. Dielectric material
D. Separation between conductors
ANSWER: B

45. DC blocks are used in coaxial transmission line for the purpose of
A. Passing DC while blocking AC
B. Passing AC voltage but prevent DC
C. Preventing AC voltage from reaching the pre-amplifier
D. Preventing AC power supply voltage from being shorted by a balun or band splitter
ANSWER: D

46. __________ is a type of interference caused by off-air TV channels 2 and 4, plus a satellite dish
operating on channel 3.
A. Adjacent channel interference
B. Ghost
C. Co-channel interference
D. CrosstalK
ANSWER: A

47. Dithering is a process for

A. Reducing the effect of noise on the TVRO video signal
B. Centering the video fine tuning on TVRO channels
C. Moving the feedhorn rotor to the precise angle
D. Moving the actuator exactly onto the desired satellite beam
ANSWER: A

48. A network that has an input of 75 dB and an output of 35 dB. The loss of the network is __________.
A. -40 dB
B. 40 dB
C. 40 dBm
D. -40 dBm
ANSWER: B

49. Important useful quantities describing waveforms.

A. Time and frequency
B. Voltage an current
C. Frequency and voltage
D. Power and frequency
ANSWER: C

50. Halving the power means

A. 6-dB gain
B. 3-dB loss
C. 3-dB gain
D. 6-dB loss
ANSWER: B

51. One neper (Np) is how many decibels?

A. 8.866
B. 8.686
C. 8.688
D. 8.868
ANSWER: B

52. A signal is amplified 100 times in power. The dB gain is

A. 20 dB
B. 119 dB
C. 15 dB
D. 25 dB
ANSWER: A

53. Which of the following is used to measure SWR?

A. Spectrum analyzer
B. Reflectometer
C. Oscilloscope
D. Multimeter
ANSWER: B

54. 214-056 twin lead which is commonly used for TV lead-in has a characteristics impedance of
A. 52 ohms
B. 75 ohms
C. 600 ohms
D. 300 ohms
ANSWER: D

55. What is the characteristics impedance of a transmission line which is to act as a quarterwave
matching transformer between a 175 ohms transmission line and 600 ohms load?
A. 300.04 ohms
B. 324.04 ohms
C. 310.04 ohms
D. 320.04 ohms
ANSWER: B

56. What is the EIRP in dBW of a 50 dB antenna connected to transmitter with an output of 10 kW
through a transmission line with a loss of 5 dB?
A. 85 dBW
B. 955 dBW
C. 90 dBW
D. 80 dBw
ANSWER: A

57. If a quarterwave transformer is required to match a 180 ohms load to a transmission line with an
impedance of 300 ohms, what should be the characteristic impedance of the matching transformer?
Assume that the matching transformer is to be connected directly to the load.
A. 180 ohms
B. 232 ohms
C. 300 ohms
D. 480 ohms
ANSWER: B

58. A transmitter of 100 W RF power output, 100 % modulated is operating on a frequency of 169 MHz.
the antenna transmission line consists of a 50 ohms coaxial cable 150 ft. long. The coaxial inner
conductor outer diameter is 0.162 in. Determine the outside diameter of the outer conductor if the
outer conductor has a thickness of 0.05 in (Assume k = 1).
A. 1 in
B. 0.9 in
C. 0.7 in
D. 0.5 in
ANSWER: D

59. In the preceding problem, calculate the line current.

A. 1.7 A
B. 1.3 A
C. 1.5 A
D. 1.0 A
ANSWER: A

60. Determine also the total attenuation of the line in the preceding problem.
A. 2.0 dB
B. 1.5 dB
C. 2.5 dB
D. 1.0 dB
ANSWER: B

61. What is the maximum subscriber loop length, in ft., of a telephone system of the signaling resistance
is 1800 ohms using a telephone cable pair of gauge # 26 with a loop resistance of 83.5 ohms per 100 ft.
assume the telephone set resistance is equal of 200 ohms.
A. 15, 161.7 feet
B. 19, 161 feet
C. 15, 300 feet
D. 20, 000 feet
ANSWER: B

62. If the same subscriber loop above limits the voice attenuation to a maximum of 6 dB, what is the
maximum allowable subscriber loop length, in feet, using the same gauge # 26 telephone wire? Assume
a 2.7 dB loss per mile.
A. 20,000 ft
B. 13,900 ft
C. 15,280 ft
D. 11, 733 ft
ANSWER: D

63. The input is 0.1 W and the network gain is 13 dB, the output is
A. 2 W
B. 2.5 W
C. 1.5 W
D. 1.8 W
ANSWER: A

64. Known as one-tenth of a neper.

A. dB
B. dBm
C. dBp
D. dNp
ANSWER: D

65. The input impedance of a quarterwave short-circuited transmission line at its resonant frequency is
A. 0 ohms
B. Infinite or an open circuit
C. Ohms
D. 70 ohms
ANSWER: B

66. The ratio of the largest rms value to the smallest rms value of the voltage in the line is called
A. SWR
B. ISWR
C. VSWR
D. Coefficient of reflection
ANSWER: C

67. An open-wire, two-wire transmission line is to be connected to a dipole antenna through a quarter-
wave matching stub. At a frequency of 10 MHz, compute the length of the dipole.
A. 20 m
B. 7.5 m
C. 15 m
D. 25 m
ANSWER: C

68. From the preceding problem, compute also the length of the quarterwave stub.
A. 15 m
B. 7.5 m
C. 20 m
D. 25 m
ANSWER: B

69. To find the characteristic impedance of a coaxial cable, measurements are made with (a) the far end
open circuited and (b) far end short circuited, the corresponding readings being
a) Ro = 3 ohms and Xc = 55 ohms capacitive
b) Rs = 10 ohms and XL = 90 ohms inductive
What is the characteristic impedance, Zo, of the line?
A. 75.7 – j2.0 ohms
B. 70.7 + j1.19 ohms
C. 87.5 – j5 ohms
D. 70.7 – j1.97 ohms
ANSWER: D

70. A TV antenna receives a signal measured at 200 mV and is immediately amplified by a preamplified
with a 15 dB gain. This amplified signal then passes through a coaxial cable with 3 dB loss, what is the
resulting input to the TV set, in dBmV?
A. 1.98
B. 13.98
C. -1.98
D. -13.98
ANSWER: C

71. The characteristic impedance of a transmission line does not depend upon its __________.
A. Conductor spacing
B. Conductor diameter
C. Length
D. Conductor radius
ANSWER: C

72. What does a power difference of -3 dB mean?

A. A loss of one third of the power
B. A loss of one half of the power
C. A loss of three watts of power
D. No significant change
ANSWER: B

73. Which of the following is an advantage of the balance transmission line?

A. Easy installation
B. Outer shield eliminates radiation losses
C. Low attenuation
D. None of these
ANSWER: C

74. Waveguides are used mainly for microwave transmission because

A. They are bulky at lower frequencies
B. Losses are heavy at lower frequencies
C. They depend on straight line propagation
D. No generators are powerful enough to excite them
ANSWER: D

75. The input is 1 W and the network loss is 27 dB, the output is
A. 1 mW
B. 3 mW
C. 2 mW
D. 4 mW
ANSWER: C

76. A combiner has two inputs +30 dBm and +30 dBm, what is the resultant output?
A. +36 dBm
B. +30 dBm
C. +60 dBm
D. +33 dBm
ANSWER: D

77. The ratio of the smallest to the largest rms current value is called
A. SWR
B. VSWR
C. ISWR
D. Coefficient of reflection
ANSWER: C

78. If the ratio of the maximum current to minimum current in a transmission line is 2:1 then the ratio of
maximum voltage to minimum voltage is
A. 4:1
B. 1:2
C. 1:4
D. 2:1
ANSWER: D

79. Two wires of 600 ohms characteristics impedance is to be constructed out of a number 12 wire (81
mils). Find the attenuation of the line at 0.6 GHz per 100 feet length.
A. 0.05 dB
B. 0.55 dB
C. 0.44 dB
D. 0.35 dB
ANSWER: C

80. In the preceding problem, determine the spacing between wires from center to center.
A. 6 in
B. 4 in
C. 5 in
D. 3 in
ANSWER: A

81. A lossless transmission line has a shunt capacitance of 100 nF/m and a series inductance of 4 mH/m.
What is the characteristic impedance?
A. 500 ohms
B. 400 ohms
C. 300 ohms
D. 200 ohms
ANSWER: D

82. A ten times power change in transmission system is equivalent to

A. 10 dBm
B. 10 dB
C. 20 dB
D. 100 dB
ANSWER: B

83. A type of transmission line employed where balanced properties are requied.
A. Balun
B. Parallel-wire line
C. Coaxial line
D. Quarterwave line
ANSWER: B

84. What is the characteristic impedance of a transmission line which has a capacitance of 40 nF/ft and
an inductance of 0.5 mH/ft
A. 111.8 ohms
B. 110.8 ohms
C. 112.8 ohms
D. 109.8 ohms
ANSWER: A

85. The input power to a loss-free cable is 5 W. If the reflected power is 7 dB down on the incident
power, the output power to the load is
A. 4 W
B. 5 W
C. 6 W
D. 7 W
ANSWER: A

86. To be properly matched the ratio of a maximum voltage along a transmission line should be equal to
A. 1
B. 10
C. 50
D. 2
ANSWER: A

87. A coaxial line with an outer diameter of 6 mm has a 50 ohms characteristic impedance. If the
dielectric constant of the insulation is 1.60, calculate the inner diameter.
A. 2.09 cm
B. 2.09 in
C. 2.09 mm
D. 2.09 mm
ANSWER: C

88. If an amplifier has equal input and output impedances, what voltage ratio does the gain of 50 dB
represent?
A. 316.2
B. 325.2
C. 320.1
D. 315
ANSWER: A

89. What is the inductance per foot of a cable that has a capacitance of 50 pF per ft and a characteristic
impedance of 60 ohms?
A. 0.167 µH per ft
B. 0.178 µH per ft
C. 0.19 µH per ft
D. 0.18 µH per ft
ANSWER: D
90. The ratio between the energy absorbed by a surface to the total energy received by the surface.
A. Reflection coefficient
B. Absorption coefficient
C. Linear coefficient
D. Thermal coefficient
ANSWER: B

91. When the diameter of the conductors of a 2 wire transmission line is held constant, the effect of
decreasing the distance between the conductors is
A. Increase the surge impedance
B. Increase the radiation resistance
C. Decrease the SWR
D. Decrease the impedance
ANSWER: D

92. The higher the gauge number of a conductor

A. The bigger the diameter
B. The higher the resistance of the smaller the diameter
C. The higher the resistance
D. None of these
ANSWER: B

93. A short length of transmission line used to a reduce/eliminate standing waves in the main
transmission line.
A. Stub
B. Balun
C. ?/4 transformer
D. slot
ANSWER: C

94. Ratio of reflected power to incident power?

A. Incidence
B. Reflectance
C. Reflection index
D. None of these
ANSWER: B

95. A quarter wave transformer is used to match a 600 ohms load antenna to a line of 52 ohms
impedance, the characteristic impedance of the matching transformer is
A. 200 ohms
B. 150 ohms
C. 176 ohms
D. 300 ohms
ANSWER: C

96. What is the capacitance of 55 miles #44 copper wire spaced 18 inches? From wire tables, # 44 wire
has a radius to 0.10215 in.
A. 0.467 µF
B. 0.467 nF
C. 0.467 pF
D. 0.467 fF
ANSWER: A

97. A two-wire transmission line consists of No. 12 wire AWG (81 mils). The distance between wire
centers is 10 inches. What is the characteristic impedance of the line?
A. 650 ohms
B. 300 ohms
C. 600 ohms
D. 660 ohms
ANSWER: D

98. In the preceding problem, what is the attenuation in dB per 100 ft. of the line for a frequency of
4MHz?
A. 0.05
B. 0.03
C. 0.04
D. 0.06
ANSWER: B

99. What is the SWR when the transmission line is terminated in a short circuit?
A. Zero
B. One
C. Infinite
D. Indeterminate
ANSWER: C

100. An instrument designed to measure a frequency-weighted value of the sound pressure level.
A. Sound level meter
B. Transducer
C. Sound pressure meter
D. Sound analyzer
ANSWER: A

A unit of noisiness related to the perceived noise level

A. Noy
B. Sone
C. dB
D. Phone
ANSWER: A

1. An agreed set of empirical curves relating octave-band sound pressure level to the center frequency
of the octave bands.
A. C-message weighting curve
B. Psophometric weighting curve
C. Noise rating curves
D. F1A weighting curve
ANSWER: C

2. The frequency of a free vibration.

A. Resonant frequency
B. Natural frequency
C. Center frequency
D. Normal frequency
ANSWER: B

3. The transmission of sound from one room to an adjacent room, via common walls, floors or ceilings.
A. Flanking transmission
B. Refraction
C. Reflection
D. Reverberation
ANSWER: A

4. A measure of threshold of hearing expressed in decibels relative to a specified standard of normal

hearing.
A. Hearing loss
B. Sensation level
C. Hearing level
D. Sound pressure level
ANSWER: C

5. A certain machine with a slightly out-of-balance motor rotating at 1800 per min is fixed on a perfectly
elastic mount with a static compression of 2.50 mm. Calculate the resonant frequency of mount.
A. 10 Hz
B. 20 Hz
C. 30 Hz
D. 40 Hz
ANSWER: A

6. Calculate the lowest resonant frequency for a brick partition 120 mm thick, 4m by 2 m in area with
longitudinal wave velocity of 2350 meter per sec.
A. 10 Hz
B. 20 Hz
C. 30 Hz
D. 40 Hz
ANSWER: D

7. Velocity of sound in air

A. 300 meter per sec
B. 330 meter per sec
C. 1130 meter per sec
D. 344 meter per sec
ANSWER: B
8. What is the expected critical frequency for a 120 mm thick brick wall? Assume a longitudinal wave
velocity in brick of 2350 meter per sec. and that the velocity of sound in air is 330 meter per sec.
A. 114.5 Hz
B. 214.5 Hz
C. 314.5 Hz
D. 414.5 Hz
ANSWER: B

9. The sound power level of a certain jet plane flying at a height of 1km is 160 dB (re10^-12 W). Find the
maximum sound pressure level on the ground directly below the flight path assuming that the aircraft
radiates sound equally in all directions.
A. 59.1 Hz
B. 69.1 Hz
C. 79.1 Hz
D. 89.1 Hz
ANSWER: D

10. Speaker is a device that

A. Converts sound waves into current and voltage
B. Converts current variations into sound waves
C. Converts electrical energy to mechanical energy
D. Converts electrical energy into electromagnetic energy
ANSWER: B

11. Which type of microphone operates on the principle that the electrical resistance of carbon granules
varies as the pressure on the granules vary?
A. Dynamic
B. Cystal
C. Carbon
D. Ribbon-type
ANSWER : C

12. Bass response is

A. maximum high frequency response
B. emphasizing the high audio frequencies
C. bypassing high audio frequencies
D. bypassing low audio frequesncies
ANSWER : C

13. Pure tone of sound used as standard on testing.

A. 1Hz
B. 10Hz
C. 100Hz
D. 1000Hz
ANSWER : D

14. _______ is early reflection of sound.

A. Echo
B. Reverberation
C. Pure sound
D. Intelligible sound
ANSWER : A

15. Noise reduction system used for film sound in movie.

A. dolby
B. dBa
C. dBx
D.dBk
ANSWER : A

16. What is the sound energy per unit area at right angles to the propagation direction per unit time?
A. Loudness
B. Coherence
C. Sound pressure
D. Sound intensity
ANSWER : D

17. _______ is the unit of loudness level of a sound.

A. Sone
B. Decibel
C. Mel
D. Phon
ANSWER : D

18. __________ is the average rate of transmission of sound energy in a given direction through a cross-
section area of 1 sq. m. at right angles to the direction.
A. Sound pressure
B. Loudness
C. Sound intensity
D. Pressure variation
ANSWER : C

19. What is the unit of pitch?

A. Sone
B. Phon
C. Decibel
D. Mel
ANSWER : D

20. A measure of the intensity of sound in comparison to another sound intensity..

A. Phon
B. Decibel
C. Pascal
D. Watts
ANSWER : B
21. Sound wave has two main characteristics which are
A. highness and loudness
B. tone and loadness
C. pitch and loudness
D. rarefraction and compression
ANSWER : C

22. Which type of microphone operated by electromagnetic induction that generates an output signal
voltage?
A. Carbon
B. Dynamic
C. Crystal
D. Condenser
ANSWER : B

23. The exciter lamp in the optical sound part of a film projector draws 5 A at 10 V. How much power in
watts is this light bulb consuming
A. 10 watts
B. 20 watts
C. 40 watts
D. 50 watts
ANSWER : D

24. Assume the speed of sound is 1,130 ft per sec. What frequency has a wavelength of 1 foot, 1.5
inches?
A. 500 Hz
B. 1000 Hz
C. 1500 Hz
D. 2000 Hz
ANSWER : B

25. The wire that must bring 100 average watts to a 4 ohms loudspeaker must safely carry what rms
current?
A. 2 A
B. 4 A
C. 5 A
D. 6 A
ANSWER : C

26. A church has an internal volume of 90, 05 cu. ft (2,550 cu. m). When it contains 2,000 customary
sabines of absorption (186 metric sabines), what will be its reverberation time in seconds.
A. 2.0
B. 2.2
C. 2.5
D. 3.0
ANSWER : B

27. If the RMS sound pressure is 5 lb per sq. ft, what is the sound pressure level?
A. 7.6 dB
B. 108 dB
C. 88 dB
D. 10 dB
ANSWER : A

27. Speed that is faster than speed of sound.

A. Ultrasonic
B. Supersonic
C. Subsonic
D. Transonic
ANSWER : B

28. Sound waves travel in water at a _______ speed.

A. 12.4 miles per sec
B. 5000 ft per sec
C. 186, 000 ft per sec
D. 3141 ft per sec
ANSWER : B

29. What is the sound power from a motor car whose SPL at a distance of 7.5 m is 87 dB assuming that it
radiates sound uniformly?
A. 0.15 W
B. 0.21 W
C. 0.24 W
D. 0.18 W
ANSWER : D

30. Crest-to-crest distance along the direction of wave travel.

A. Compression
B. Wavelength
C. Period
D. Sound wave
ANSWER : B

31. Sound intensity level is _______.

A. 10 log l per lref
B. 10 log P per Pref
C. 20 log l per lref
D. 30 log P per Pref
ANSWER : A

32. Sound pressure level is _______.

A. 20 log P per Pref
B. 30 log P per Pref
C. 10 log P per Pref
D. 20 log l per lref
ANSWER : A
33. The most important specification of loudspeakers and microphones.
A. Frequency response
B. Field strength
C. Power density
D. Gain
ANSWER : A

34. Lowest frequency produced by a musical instrument.

A. Midrange
B. Harmonic
C. Fundamental
D. Period
ANSWER : C

35. Tendency of a sound energy to spread.

A. Diffraction
B. Rarefaction
C. Reflection
D. Refraction
ANSWER : A

36. When waves bend away from straight lines of travel, it is called _______.
A. reflection
B. diffraction
C. rarefaction
D. refraction
ANSWER : D

37. Required time for any sound to decay to 60 dB.

A. Echo time
B. Delay time
C. Reverberation time
D. Transient time
ANSWER : C