TOPIC 1: PRINCIPLES OF RADIOLOGY

GENERALITIES
1. Types of radiation in the electromagnetic spectra: ULTRASOUND, UV RAY, X-RAY,
GAMMA RAY
2. The highest source of radiation exposure of the world’s population after 2006 is due to:
DECREASING OZONE LAYER IN THE ATMOSPHERE
3. The different forms of electromagnetic energies differ only from each other because of
the difference in: FREQUENCY
4. The basic principle of the characteristics of the different electromagnetic energies as far
as their inherent energy levels are concerned: THOSE WITH HIGHER FREQUENCY HAVE
HIGHER ENERGY LEVELS
5. The energy carried by each photon is proportional to the frequency, this proportionality
constant is called: PLANCK’S CONSTANT
6. True of radiation: IT IONIZES THE WATER MOLECULE AND ALLOWS THE PRODUCTION
OF FREE RADICALS
7. Free radicals are fixed in the presence of: OXYGEN
8. They demonstrated radiation dermatitis as a reaction, when the radioactive source is
placed on the skin: PIERRE CURIE AND BECQUEREL
9. This process entails showing a data set with different width of gray scale values and at
different density levels: WINDOWING
10. It uses sealed sources of radiation: NUCLEAR MEDICINE
11. The average propagation velocity of sound: 1540 M/SEC
12. Pleural fluid accumulation may be best imaged with: ULTRASOUND

X-RAY
1. X-ray photons that reach the film are called: PRIMARY BEAM
2. The blackening of a film is proportionate to the amount of: RADIATION EXPOSURE
3. Produce the significant influence on the resulting density on an x-ray film: ATOMIC
WEIGHT/TISSUE THICKNESS
4. Tungsten is chosen as material for the anode because of its: HIGH MELTING POINT
5. Maximal conversion of the kinetic energy of electrons that are traveling towards the
anode from the filament of the tube is achieved when it: COLLIDES WITH THE NUCLEUS
OF A SURFACE TUNGSTEN ATOM
6. Higher penetrating characteristics of x-ray photons will be due to: HIGH KILOVOLTAGE
ELECTRICAL ENERGY APPLIED TO THE X-RAY TUBE
7. Increasing kilovoltage is beneficial to the patient because it: REDUCES RADIATION DOSE
8. Increase in kilovoltage will reduce image contrast because: ABSORPTION PROCESS WILL
DECREASE
9. Inside the x-ray tube, the number of electrons is indicative of: HIGHER MILIAMPERAGE
LEVEL OF ELECTRIC CURRENT
10. The shadow of tissue that attentuates the x-ray beam less effectively than surrounding
tissue: LUCENCY
11. The chest wall may best be imaged with: X-RAY
 12. The chest x-ray is taken in the PA projection in order to: REDUCE MAGNIFICATION OF
THE HEART
13. Fat is seen on x-ray as: RADIOLUCENCY (DARK)
14. Removing scatter radiation is achieved with the: USE OF IMPLEMENTS CALLED GRIDS
15. The effect of secondary radiation to the image in the radiographic film is: DECREASE
CONTRAST OF THE IMAGE
16. Bending fracture of the radius in a 7 y/o patient is best diagnosed by: PLAIN
RADIOGRAPH
17. Appearance of malignant primary bone tumors on plain radiograph: POORLY
MARGINATED BORDERS
18. Patients no longer with radiation after procedure: DIAGNOSTIC IMAGING
19. Utilizes energy within the kv range: DIAGNOSTIC X-RAY
20. Utilizes energy in the megavoltage range: THERAPEUTIC X-RAY
21. Absorbed in tissues of high density: DIAGNOSTIC X-RAY
22. Little differential absorption in tissues of different densities: THERAPEUTIC X-RAY
23. The equipment usually have very limited rotation: DIAGNOSTIC X-RAY
24. The linear accelerations can rotate 360 degrees around the patient: THERAPEUTIC X-RAY

CT SCAN
1. Cross-sectional imaging modality: CT SCAN
2. Involves the highest radiation exposure but displays a digital image: CT SCAN
3. This is the basis for the different densities noted in a CT scan image: ELECTRON DENSITY
OF THE STRUCTURES
4. The main disadvantage of using multidetector CT scan: HIGHER RADIATION DOSE
5. The advantages of multidetector helical CT over conventional CT in evaluating organs
with possible disease: MULTIPLANAR DEMONSTRATION OF IMAGES WITHOUT LOSS OF
RESOLUTION, IMPROVED RESOLUTION TO DEMONSTRATE SMALL LESIONS, ABILITY TO
DEMONSTRATE THE DIFFERENT PHASES OF CONTRAST ENHANCEMENT
6. CT scan is superior to MRI in showing: LUNG PARENCHYMA
7. This will give a negative CT number: FAT
8. The combination of Positron Emission Tomography (PET) and Computed Tomography
(CT) produces an image that is: DISTINCTLY DIFFERENT
9. This will be a hindrance to performing CT scan of the brain: RESTLESS AND HIGHLY
AGITATED PATIENT WHO CANNOT BE SEDATED

MRI
1. Produces the least spatial resolution: MRI
2. Produces better soft tissue resolution: MRI
3. This poses no radiation hazards to the patient: MRI
4. This is the basis for the different intensities noted in an image using T2 weighted MRI:
PROTON DENSITY
5. The important component of MRI that is responsible for making the protons of hydrogen
susceptible to radiofrequency stimulation that is needed in image production:
RADIOFREQUENCY
 6. MRI is superior to CT in showing involvement of the following: BRACHIAL PLEXUS AND
SUBCLAVIAN ARTERY, CHEST WALL AND MEDIASTINUM, VERTEBRAL BODIES AND
SPINAL CANAL
7. The bright signal appearance of normal tissues in T1 weigted pulse sequences is due to:
FAST VERTICAL RELAXATION OF THE PROTONS OF HYDROGEN IN FAT
8. This is dark in T1 weighted image: SUBCUTANEOUS FAT
9. These are bright in T1 weighted image: METHEMOGLOBIN, CALCIUM, GADOLINIUM
10. Lung T2 image will mean: BRIGHT SIGNAL, HYDROGEN PROTONS STAYS IN PHASE FOR A
LONG TIME, TYPICAL OF HEALTHY CEREBROSPINAL FLUID
11. The best example of short T2 structure in the normal subject is: BONE
12. The longer the protons of hydrogen maintains uniform movement in transverse phase,
THE BRIGHTER IS T2WI
13. The cortical part of bones will be seen as dark in MRI due to: SCANTY AMOUNT OF
HYDROGEN PROTONS PRESENT
14. Flowing blood is seen on MRI as: HYPOINTENSITY

RADIATION THERAPY
1. Radiation therapy may destroy the DNA through an indirect approach and this is the
event that occur during indirect cell killing: THERE IS HYDROLYSIS OF WATER AND
FORMATION OF HYDROGEN ION
2. Steps needed in the preparation for radiation therapy: PREPARATION OF
IMMOBILIZATION DEVICES, CT STIMULATION, IDENTIFICATION OF TUMOR TARGETS
AND CRITICAL ORGANS, DOSIMETRY
3. Immobilization devices are: THERMOPLASTIC MASKS USED FOR HEAD AND NECK
IMMOBILIZATION, ALLOWS US TO TREAT PATIENTS WITH BETTER PRECISION
4. Palliative radiation therapy is given for: SYMPTOM-DIRECTED TREATMENT, BONE PAIN
AND BLEEDING TUMORS
5. To properly prepare a treatment program for a patient with malignancy, it is important
that we stage the patient. This means that: WE NEED TO KNOW THE TUMOR SIZE,
EXTENT OF LYMPH NODE INVOLVEMENT, SITES OF METASTASIS
6. Radiation therapy is a localized treatment hence, precision in identifying target volume is
important, this treatment is given: ONCE DAILY OVER FIVE DAYS A WEEK UNTIL THE
TOTAL PRESCRIBED DOSE IS GIVEN
7. In radiation therapy, treatment course is usually: OVER 6-8 WEEKS
8. One of the main methods to improve the results of radiation therapy is through
biological optimization and this is done via: ADDING A RADIOSENSITIZER LIKE
CHEMOTHERAPY TO MAKE RADIATION MORE EFFECTIVE, HYPERFRACTIONATION

BRACHYTHERAPY
1. This refers to internal radiation or radiation source that is directly implanted into the
tumor: BRACHYTHERAPY
2. Used for tumors in various sites, it is most commonly used a part of complete treatment
regimen for uterine malignancies, an applicator is needed to serve as a conduit for the
passage of radioactive source: BRACHYTHERAPY
 3. Advancement in brachytherapy technology has now allowed us to: TREAT PATIENTS ON
AN OUTPATIENT BASIS

EXTERNAL BEAM RADIATION THERAPY

1. In this therapy, the radiation source is delivered from a distance to the tumor,
teletherapy, and one of the equipment used is a linear accelerator: EXTERNAL BEAM
RADIATION THERAPY
2. It is one of the modality used for organ preservation like in glottic malignancy:
EXTERNAL BEAM RADIATION THERAPY

TOPIC 2: PULMONARY RADIOLOGY

GENERALITIES
1. The right hemidiaphragm is normally at this level: 10th POSTERIOR RIB
2. Will not show water density on x-ray: ALVEOLAR AIR
3. A sharply defined, discrete, circular opacity up to <30 mm in diameter within the lung:
NODULE
4. A mass is a lesion seen on a radiograph as a well-defined opacity greater than: 30 MM
5. Cavity can be easily differentiated from bullae by assessing their: WALL OUTLINE
THICKNESS
6. A sharply demarcated area of lucency within the lung measuring 1 cm or more in
diameter with a wall less than 1 mm: BLEB
7. A gas containing space within the lung surrounded by a wall whose thickness is greater
than 1 mm: BULLA
8. This characteristic CT scan finding can be considered a benign feature of a pulmonary
nodule: NO GROWTH OBSERVED OVER A TWO-YEAR PERIOD
9. A density that is seen within the thoracic cage is most likely in these locations: LUNG
PARENCHYMA, MEDIASTINUM, PLEURA
10. A density that is seen within the thoracic cage is least likely in this location: CHEST WALL
11. May be mistaken for a lung parenchyma nodule: NIPPLE SHADOW
12. Small lung nodules are considered possibly malignant if they are: NON-CALCIFIED
13. Common cause of solitary pulmonary nodules fall into: MALIGNANT NEOPLASMS
(PRIMARY OR METASTATIC)
14. A newly discovered solitary pulmonary nodule may have been visible on a prior
radiographs in this percentage of cases: 90%
15. Involvement of the superior sulcus by pulmonary malignancy may manifest as: PTOSIS
16. A normal x-ray of the chest is important for these reasons: A LATER ABNORMAL
FINDING MAY HAVE ALREADY BEEN PRESENT AND WAS MISSED, IT ESTABLISHES A
BASELINE UPON WHICH LATER EXAMINATIONS MAY BE COMPARED, INDICATES THAT
ANY PREVIOUS FINDING HAS COMPLETELY CLEARED
17. The basic difference between the neonatal chest and that of the older child or adult is:
GLOBULAR CONFIGURATION OF THE HEART
18. Purposes of teleradiography in conjunction with evaluating the chest: ASSESS THE
HEART, SHOW ANY ABNORMALITIES IN THE PLEURAL SPACE, DEMONSTRATE DEGREE
OF AERATION OF THE LUNGS
 19. Not a purpose of teleradiography in conjunction with evaluating the chest:
DEMONSTRATE THORACIC DEFORMITIES

MECHANICS
1. If the patient cannot assume an upright projection, this is an alternative position: LEFT
LATERAL DECUBITUS
2. To demonstrate small lesions in the apex of the lung that can be obscured by bones, this
examination is helpful: APICO-LORDOTIC RADIOGRAPH
3. The important mechanism of expiratory radiograph in evaluating the lung fields for small
amount: INCREASE THE DENSITY OF THE LUNG PARENCHYMA, REDUCE VOLUME OF
THE PLEURAL SPACE, RENDER THE VOLUME OF PNEUMOTHORAX RELATIVELY LARGER
IN RELATION TO THAT OF THE PLEURAL SPACE
4. The appearance of the heart in an underinflated lung is: MAY BE SLIGHTLY TO
MODERATELY WIDENED
5. The chest x-ray is taken at the end of a moderately deep inspiratory effort in order to:
INFLATE THE ALVEOLI WITH AIR
6. Patient is examined with moderate to full inspiratory effort: TELERADIOGRAPHY

INFECTIONS
1. When an adult presents with multiple pulmonary nodules, this feature will favor
infection: VARYING SIZES OF LESIONS
2. Components of the inverted S-sign of Golden: APICAL LUNG MASS, CENTRAL TUMOR,
ATELECTASIS
3. True of lobular pneumonia or bronchopneumonia: HAZY AND PATCHY INFILTRATES
4. The difference between a Ghon’s lesion and a round pneumonia: A GHON’S LESION
DOES NOT CLEAR COMPLETELY BUT GRADUALLY DECREASES IN SIZE AND CALCIFIES
AFTER MONTHS OF ANTI-KOCH’S TREATMENT
5. Characteristics of gram-negative pneumonias: NECROSIS
6. Common finding in Staphyloccal pneumonia: PNEUMATOCOELE FORMATION
7. Characteristics of Klebsiella pneumonias: BULGING FISSURE
8. Millet seed pattern is often correlated with: MILIARY TB
9. True for pneumococcal pneumonia: USUALLY COMMUNITY ACQUIRED
10. True of interstitial pneumonia: SELF-LIMITED AND RESOLVES SPONTANEOUSLY AFTER 7-
14 DAYS, USUALLY VIRAL IN ORIGIN, HYPERAERATED LUNGS
11. In Pneumocystis jirovecci, cavitary lesions are: REVERSIBLE
12. The prototype of cavities resulting from pulmonary vasculitis is: WEGENER’S
GRANULOMATOSIS
13. Most common and diagnostic sign of pleural effusion: PLEURAL MENISCUS
14. In the face of multiple pulmonary nodules, one should be thinking of: TUBERCULOSIS

TRAUMA
1. Barotrauma commonly presents as: PNEUMOTHORAX
2. Signs of pneumoperitoneum: CRESCENT SIGN, FALCIFORM LIGAMENT, DOGE’S SIGN
 3. Relevant in the diagnosis of patients with atelectasis: HOMOGENOUS OPACITY OF A
LUNG AREA, DISPLACEMENT OF A FISSURAL MARKING, ELEVATION OF THE
DIAPHRAGM AT THE AFFECTED SIDE

HYALINE DISEASE
1. A branching lucency that represents air-containing bronchus surrounded by airless lung:
AIR BRONCHOGRAM
2. A peripheral or pathologic air bronchogram is commonly seen in: HYALINE MEMBRANE
DISEASE
3. True of hyaline membrane disease: DUE TO SURFACTANT DEFICIENCY
4. Adhesive atelectasis can be caused by: LACK OF SURFACTANT FUNCTION IN THE
ALVEOLAR MEMBRANE
5. Air space disease usually presents with: AIR BRONCHOGRAM/INTERSTITIAL
INFILTRATES
6. A thin-walled lucency within or contiguous to the visceral pleura: ATELECTASIS

SQUAMOUS CELL CARCINOMA

1. A lung tumor which is most commonly central (within the main, lobar or segmental
bronchi) typically producing post-obstructive pneumonia and atelectasis because of total
or partial bronchial obstruction: SQUAMOUS CELL CARCINOMA
2. Strongly associated with cigarette smoking, most common type to cavitate and has been
associated with hypercalcemia: SQUAMOUS CELL CARCINOMA
3. Component of Pancoast tumor: BRACHIAL PLEXUS INVOLVEMENT
4. Scalloping of the margins of a nodule into the surrounding lung, a finding very suggestive
of bronchogenic carcinoma: SPICULATION

ADENOCARCINOMA
1. Characteristics of adenocarcinoma involving the lungs: MOST COMMON CELL TYPE IS
SEEN IN WOMEN, SEEN AMONG NON-SMOKERS, FREQUENTLY SEEN IN THE UPPER
LOBES
2. Characteristic of bronchioalveolar carcinoma: SUBTYPE OF ADENOCARCINOMA
3. This type of malignancy may be difficult to diagnose because it can mimic pneumonia:
BRONCHOALVEOLAR CARCINOMA
4. Non-small cell bronchogenic carcinoma can be considered when the presentation of the
lesion is: PERIPHERALLY LOCATED

SMALL CELL CARCINOMA

1. Has the worst prognosis of all lung malignancies: SMALL CELL CARCINOMA
2. Superior vena cava syndrome is most commonly associated with: SMALL CELL
CARCINOMA

LARGE CELL CARCINOMA

1. Large cell carcinoma is characterized by: LEAST COMMON TYPE, BULKY TUMOR,
STRONG ASSOCIATION WITH CIGARETTE SMOKING
FINDINGS
1. Increased pulmonary pressure on the chest x-ray is manifested by: PRUNING OF THE
PULMONARY ARTERY BRANCES, THICKENING OF THE MAJOR FISSURE, CEPHALIZATION
CHANGES
2. The biggest branches of the normal pulmonary vascularity are seen in this portion of the
lung field: INNER ONE-THIRD
3. Less than normal inflation of a portion or all of the lung with corresponding decrease in
volume: CAVITY
4. This is one of the strongest evidence of pleural fluid accumulation: BLUNTED
COSTOPHRENIC SULCI
5. This is described as increase in the size of the pulmonary artery proximal to a large
central pulmonary embolus: FLEISCHNER’S SIGN
6. The effacement of an anatomic soft tissue by either a normal anatomic structure or a
pathologic lesion: HILUM CONVERGENCE SIGN

TOPIC 3: CARDIAC RADIOLOGY

ANATOMY
1. In the normal chest x-ray, this cardiac chamber is border-forming in the lateral view, but
not in the PA view: LEFT ATRIUM
2. Part of the heart that does not contribute to the cardiac margin in the lateral radiograph:
RIGHT ATRIUM
3. In the normal chest x-ray, this cardiac chamber is border-forming in the PA view but not
in the lateral view: LEFT VENTRICLE

CARDIAC CHAMBER ENLARGEMENT

1. Radiologic features of chamber enlargement in mitral regurgitation seen on the PA
Chest: LEFT ATRIAL AND LEFT VENTRICULAR ENLARGEMENT
2. Radiologic features of cardiac enlargement with atrial septal defect include: RIGHT
ATRIAL AND RIGHT VENTRICULAR ENLARGEMENT
3. An early sign of left atrial enlargement that could be seen on the chest x-ray: POSTERIOR
DISPLACEMENT OF THE BARIUM-FILLED ESOPHAGUS
4. True regarding measurement of the heart to assess enlargement by chest x-ray: A
FASTER THOUGH NOT ACCURATE MEANS FOR ASSESSING THE HEART

FINDINGS
1. Likened to a ‘heart of a cow’ appearance of the heart is seen in: AORTIC INSUFFICIENCY
2. The figure of eight configuration of the heart maybe seen in: SUPRACARDIAC PAPVD
3. Scimitar sign on chest x-ray may indicate the presence of: ANOMALOUS PULMONARY
VASCULAR DISEASE
4. Coronary artery calcification is best detected this imaging modality: CT SCAN
5. Presence of an aortic aneurysm could be considered in the following radiologic findings
in the chest: PRESENCE OF A MEDIASTINAL MASS DENSITY WITH A SMOOTH BORDER
AND CONTOUR
 6. Mitral heart form in radiology means that the heart has the following findings on chest
x-ray: CONVEX MAIN PA SEGMENT
7. This congenital heart disease has a convex main pulmonary artery segment: ATRIAL
SEPTAL DEFECT
8. Pulmonary oligemia is seen in this condition: TOTAL ANOMALOUS PULMONARY
VENOUS RETURN
9. A dilated aortic knob is seen in this condition: PATENT DUCTUS ARTERIOSUS

TOF
1. Congenital heart disease with right to left shunt: PULMONARY VALVE ATRESIA WITH
VENTRICULAR SEPTAL DEFECT
2. TOF main pathology stem from the: INTERVENTRICULAR SEPTAL DEFECT AND
PULMONIC STENOSIS
3. Pentalogy of Fallot is Tetralogy of Fallot with: ATRIAL SEPTAL DEFECT
4. Pulmonic stenosis in TOF could give rise to: CONCAVE MAIN PULMONARY ARTERY
SEGMENT

COARCTATION OF THE AORTA

1. Rib notching maybe present in coarctation of the aorta and usually found: ONLY IN THE
UPPER RIBS BECAUSE OF ARTERIAL COLLATERALS

PERSISTENT TRUNCUS ARTERIOSUS

1. Patients with this condition may present with cyanosis at birth with increased
pulmonary vascularity, biventricular enlargement and a wide superior mediastinum:
PERSISTENT TRUNCUS ARTERIOSUS
2. Right-sided aortic arch is a common finding in: PERSISTENT TRUNCUS ARTERIOSUS

CHF
1. Radiographic features of CHF: KERLEY LINES, PLEURAL EFFUSION, THICKENED MINOR
FISSURE
2. Caused by distension of anastomotic channels between peripheral and central
lymphatics: KERLEY LINES
3. When Kerley lines are seen on chest x-ray, it may suggest: MEAN LA OR PVR OF >20 MM
HG
4. Sluggish movement of the heart on cardiac fluoroscopy could be seen in: PERICARDIAL
EFFUSION
5. This radiographic finding is characteristic of interstitial edema: PERIBRONCHIAL
CUFFING

TGA
1. In Transposition of the Great Arteries: PATIENT MAY SURVIVE WITH AN ASSOCIATED
SHUNT AT ANY LEVEL

TOPIC 4: GIT RADIOLOGY

PHARYNX
1. This cannot be used to evaluate the pharynx: ULTRASOUND
2. Pharyngeal study is best done in: FRONTAL AND LATERAL PROJECTIONS

ESOPHAGUS
1. The most common structural abnormality of the upper GIT: HIATAL HERNIA
2. The most common cause of tapered narrowing of distal esophagus with absence of
peristalsis: ACHALASIA
3. Symmetric narrowing at the lower end of the esophagus: LOWER ESOPHAGEAL
MUCOSAL RING
4. Smooth, tapered, narrowing above a hiatal hernia: REFLUX ESOPHAGITIS

STOMACH
1. In the supine position, barium will not stay in this structure: GASTRIC BODY
2. Barium studies poorly evaluate: GASTRIC FUNCTION
3. Lesser curvature gastric lesion: BENIGN GASTRIC ULCER
4. Hampton’s line is seen in: BENIGN GASTRIC ULCER
5. Hourglass deformity is seen in: BENIGN GASTRIC ULCER
6. Causes of polypoid gastric mass: GASTRIC LYMPHOMA, GASTRIC LEIOMYOSARCOMA,
MALIGNANT GASTRIC ULCER
7. Least likely cause of polypoid gastric mass: LARGE GASTRIC ADENOMA

SMALL INTESTINES
1. The most sensitive examination for flat or small intestinal erosions: CAPSULE
ENDOSCOPY
2. This is the least effective method of evaluating the small intestine: PER ORAL SMALL
BOWEL STUDY
3. Barium collection in the duodenal bulb: DUODENAL POLYP
4. Nodular appearance of the duodenal bulb: DUODENAL CARCINOMA
5. Saccular structure at the distal small bowel: MECKEL’S DIVERTICULUM
6. Differentials for diffuse fold thickening in the central small bowel: SMALL BOWEL
HEMORRHAGE, SMALL BOWEL EDEMA, SMALL BOWEL MALIGNANCY
7. Least likely etiology of diffuse fold thickening in the central small bowel: ISCHEMIC
ENTERITIS

SIGMOID
1. Two adjacent loops of distended colon: SIGMOID VOLVULUS
2. Large polypoid lesion in the sigmoid colon: POLYPOID CARCINOMA

RECTUM
1. Irregular, annular narrowing of the rectum: RECTAL CARCINOMA

LIVER
1. On sonography, the portal vein is dilated if it measures: 13-15 MM
 2. Ultrasound follow-up revealed internal echoes in a previously seen large hepatic cyst.
This may be due to: HEMORRHAGE
3. This is an invasive procedure that can be done under sonographic guidance:
PERCUTANEOUS TRANSHEPATIC CHOLANGIOGRAM
4. True about hepatic adenomas: CAN BE ASSOCIATED WITH TYPE 1 GLYCOGEN STORAGE
DISEASE, MAY UNDERGO MALIGNANT TRANSFORMATION, MAY BE ENCAPSULATED,
OFTEN SEEN IN WOMEN OF CHILD-BEARING AGE
5. Calcified hepatic matastases are seen secondary to: COLON CARCINOMA
6. True about hepatocellular carcinoma: APPEARANCE ON ULTRASOUND IS VARIABLE
7. On ultrasound, fatty infiltration of the liver can show: DECREASED VISUALIZATION OF
THE PORTAL VEINS
8. The hepatorenal area is also known as: MORRISON’S POUCH
9. In ultrasound, the Morrison’s pouch is an important location to identify: ASCITES

GALLBLADDER
1. Bilomas on CT scan will show this CT number: 15-20 HU
2. This is true about GB cholesterolosis: IT IS FIXED TO THE WALL DURING GB
SONOGRAPHIC SCANNING
3. This is true about hydrops of the GB on ultrasound: SHAPE BECOMES BICONVEX
4. Postprandial ultrasound of the gallbladder will normally show evidence of:
CONTRACTION
5. True about cholesterolosis: DIFFUSE FORM CANNOT BE APPRECIATED
SONOGRAPHICALLY
6. Porcelain gallbladder will show: WALL CALCIFICATION
7. Postprandial sonography is used for: GALLBLADDER
8. This is a characteristic of a simple cyst on ultrasound: POSTERIOR SHADOWING
9. Aerobilia is seen as white on: CT SCAN
10. This component will make gallstones opaque on scout film: CALCIUM
11. This is a cost effective study for gallstones: ULTRASOUND

PANCREAS
1. This is true about pseudocyst of the pancreas as seen on CT scan: HAS THICK CAPSULE
2. This procedure will better show calcifications in chronic pancreatitis: CT SCAN
3. The majority of pancreatic carcinoma is seen on the: HEAD
4. On CT scan, the head of the pancreas lies: ANTERIOR TO THE INFERIOR VENA CAVA
5. CT scan finding in chronic pancreatitis: CALCIFICATION
6. This is the better modality to document complicated pancreatitis in an obese patient: CT
SCAN
7. Used as landmarks for localizing the pancreas on sonography: SPLENIC VEIN, SUPERIOR
MESENTERIC ARTERY, CELIAC ARTERY

SPLEEN
1. This organ is hard to visualize if obscured by the overlying gas on ultrasound: SPLEEN
TOPIC 5: GENITOURINARY RADIOLOGY
ANATOMY
1. There is communication of the three retroperitoneal spaces in the: PELVIC BRIM
2. Located in the perirenal space: ADRENAL GLAND
3. On CT, this structure appears as a linear, arrowhead or inverted Y: ADRENAL GLAND
4. Total number of narrowing in the ureters: 3
5. The normal course of the ureter is: BETWEEN THE TIP OF THE TRANSVERSE PROCESS
AND PEDICLE

DIAGNOSTIC PROCEDURES
1. The most realistic role of the KUB as an imaging tool for the GUT is: SHOW PRESENCE OF
ABNORMAL CALCIFICATIONS
2. To be useful in identifying calcifications or lithiasis in the GUT, KUB film would need this
preparation: ADMINISTRATION OF ORAL CATHARTICS OR LAXATIVES
3. Visualization of the GUT collecting system by means of injection of contrast thru a
percutaneous nephrostomy tube: ANTEROGRADE PYELOGRAPHY
4. Procedure which utilizes cystoscope followed by ureteral catherization and finally
retrograde injection of contrast to visualize urinary collecting system: RETROGRADE
PYELOGRAPHY
5. Intravenous pyelography (IVP) is a procedure used to evaluate: BOTH FUNCTION AND
ANATOMY OF THE KIDNEYS
6. In intravenous urography (IVU), the ability of the proximal tubules to reabsorb water and
concentrate the contrast can be seen in the: NEPHROGRAM PHASE
7. After contrast injection, the corticomedullary phase is seen, if the scanning is performed
during the first: 20-70 SECONDS
8. Intravenous contrast agent used in IVU is visible in the radiograph because of this agent:
IODINE SALT
9. ‘One-shot IVU’ can be done in the following condition: RENAL TRAUMA
10. This is the present standard for diagnosing renal stone: CT STONOGRAM

FINDINGS
1. This is the initial finding of pyelonephritis: RENAL ENLARGEMENT/PYELOCALIECTASIS
2. Clubbing of the renal calyces by IVP would be a diagnosis of: HYDRONEPHROSIS
3. This is the most characteristic finding of grade IV hydronephrosis: THINNED OUT RENAL
PARENCHYMA
4. Disease entity which may cause non-obstructive hydronephrosis: HYPOKALEMIA
5. Calcifications in the renal parenchyma is secondary to: NEPHROCALCINOSIS
6. CT without contrast is typically performed for: RENAL AND URETERAL CALCULI
7. If a nephrolithiasis is visualized by CT scan and not by x-ray, the stone would most likely
be: STRUVITE CALCULI
8. In T2 weighted image of MRI, a nephrolithiasis would appear as: HYPERECHOIC
9. Recent studies show that no more than this range of percentage of urinary tract stones
are detected on plain radiograph: 40-60%
 10. In ultrasound, if there is splitting of the central collecting complex of the kidney, it would
denote: STONE
11. A discrepancy of this value, in the size between the two kidneys is indicative of presence
of a pathology: GREATER THAN 2 CM
12. Emphysematous pyelonephritis by ultrasound will show: HYPERECHOIC FOCI WITH
DIRTY SHADOWING
13. Features of renal abscess: LOCAL ENLARGEMENT OF THE KIDNEY, INDISTINCT PSOAS
MUSCLE IN THE IPSILATERAL SIDE, SCOLIOSIS WITH CONCAVITY OPPOSITE THE
INVOLVED SIDE
14. The ‘claw sign’ is seen in: RENAL CYST
15. Renal cyst with thin septation and minimal calcium along the wall in a Bosniak
classification belongs to: TYPE II
16. ‘Flower vase’ appearance of the ureter can be seen in: HORSESHOE KIDNEY
17. Cobra head deformity of the distal ureter is produced by: UTEROCELE
18. UB ultrasound is requested to diagnose these conditions: URINARY RETENTION,
CYSTITIS, CYSTOLITHIASIS
19. Tuberous sclerosis is commonly associated with: RENAL CELL CA
20. This is considered as a urologic emergency with high mortality rate and maybe
diagnosed on plain film: EMPHYSEMATOUS PYELONEPHRITIS

TOPIC 6: PELVIC IMAGING

1. A non-sexually active woman needs to undergo a detailed examination of the uterus and
adnexa. This is the route of the examination best for her particular situation:
TRANSRECTAL ROUTE
2. The corpus luteum cyst of pregnancy persists up to this period of gestation: 1ST
TRIMESTER
3. The age of gestation at which time the embryo begins to be called a fetus: 8 WEEKS
4. The type of placenta where there is cotyledon formation with extensive basal
calcifications is: GRADE 3
5. A grade 3 placenta should not be present before this age of gestation: 34 WEEKS
6. Differential diagnosis for physiologic gut herniation: OMPHALOCELE
7. A woman in her 2nd trimester is being examined as part of her prenatal check-up. An
amniotic fluid index of 25 cm was found. The fetal organ that should be thoroughly
examined in her sonographic examination: STOMACH
8. A woman of 30 weeks should have this finding as a normal finding: 3-VESSEL UMBILICAL
CORD
9. Identification of this structure in a sonographic examination of the ovaries is a must to
have an accurate examination: FOLLICLES

TOPIC 7: BREAST IMAGING

6. Main purpose of screening mammograms: EARLY DETECTION OF LESIONS WHEN THERE
IS STILL NO PALPABLE MASS
7. Cancers will show on mammograms as: DENSITY
8. Early finding of breast cancer on mammograms: MICROCALCIFICATIONS
 9. Microcalcifications seen in mammograms are localized to be within the anatomic
structure of the breast: LACTIFEROUS DUCTS
10. A malignant characteristic of a circumscribed masses in either breast ultrasound or
mammography: PRESENCE OF CAPSULE
11. A nodular breast as seen on mammography can be further evaluated by: ULTRASOUND
WITH COLOR DOPPLER IMAGING
12. Pre-operative needle localization can be guided by which imaging modality:
ULTRASOUND, MAMMOGRAPHY
13. On breast ultrasound, a complicated cyst can best be additionally studied by: COLOR
DOPPLER IMAGING
14. The best way to determine the consistency of a palpable breast mass is: CT SCAN
15. Physiologic process that is usually seen in postmenopausal breasts: FATTY INVOLUTION

TOPIC: DIAGNOSTIC IMAGING METHODS IN CNS DISORDERS

1. This sign of hyperacute stroke seen in CT scan that is due to presence of clot retraction
of an embolus in a large intracranial vessel is: HYPERDENSE MIDDLE CEREBRAL ARTERY
SIGN
2. This is a sign of hyperacute stroke as seen in brain CT Scan: LOSS OF THE HYPERDENSE
APPEARANCE OF THE INSULAR CORTEX
3. The middle cerebral artery sign is seen in this cerebral infarct: HYPERACUTE
4. This imaging test is best for showing if hyperacute ischemic stroke is the cause of the
neurologic deficit in a patient: MAGNETIC RESONANCE DIFFUSION WEIGHTED IMAGING
(DWI)
5. The most significant problem encountered while performing magnetic resonance
imaging of a patient who is suffering from hyperacute stroke: PATIENT MOTION
6. This is the most important role of CT scan in imaging of a patient’s brain who has just
suffered a stroke and is contemplated to undergo thrombolysis: TO RULE OUT THE
PRESENCE OF HEMORRHAGE
7. This is a sign of hyperacute stroke in CT scan: LOSS OF THE OUTLINE OF THE LENTIFORM
NUCLEUS
8. The hypodense apperance of the lentiform nucleus in hyperacute stroke that is seen in
Cranial CT scan is due to: INCREASED WATER CONTENT WITHIN THE INSTERSTITIAL
SPACE
9. The advantage of CT scan in the initial evaluation of stroke: CAN READILY DETECT
PRESENCE OF HEMORRHAGE, WIDELY AVAILABLE EVEN IN SMALL HOSPITALS, CAN
READILY ACCOMMODATE LIFE SUPPORT EQUIPMENT, CAN SHOW BONE STRUCTURES
AND THEIR PATHOLOGIC CHANGES
10. This is an advantage of MRI: ABLE TO IMAGE STRUCTURES ENCASED BY THICK BONES,
ACCURATELY DETERMINE AGE OF HEMORRHAGE, MULTIPLANAR IMAGING WITHOUT
MOVING THE PATIENT DIRECTLY PRODUCED FROM THEM
11. It is difficult to use MRI for patients who are diagnosed with stroke who will need:
MECHANICAL VENTILATORS, MONITORING DEVICES, CARDIAC PACEMAKERS
12. This is a definite contraindication to MRI of any part of the body: THOSE WHO HAVE
CARDIAC PACEMAKERS, VASCULAR CLIPS MADE OF FERROMAGNETIC MATERIAL,
METAL FOREIGN BODY IN THE EYES
13. CT is ideal for patients who are diagnosed with stroke if this is needed: PRESENCE OF
LIFE SUPPORT EQUIPMENT, MONITORING DEVICES, CARDIAC PACEMAKERS
14. The increase water content of the brain cells in early ischemic lesions is due to: FAILURE
OF THE ION PUMPS DUE TO LACK OF ATP IN THE CELLULAR MEMBRANE, HYPEREMIC
STATE DUE TO THE REACTION TO STROKE, WATER SEEPS THROUGH THE CELL
MEMBRANE OF THE CAPILLARIES
15. In patients with completed stroke, in contrast to hyperacute stroke, the hypodense
appearance of the affected area at which the acute phase is due to: INCREASED WATER
WITHIN THE INTERSTITIAL SPACE OR VASOGENIC EDEMA
16. The early dark appearance of lentiform nucleus that is affected by stroke in the
hyperacute phase that can be detected on CT Scan is produced by this mechanism:
INCREASED WATER CONTENT IN THE EXTRACELLULAR INTERSTITIAL SPACE
17. When this is noted in CT scan or MRI, stroke in no longer reversible and the brain cells
are dead: VASOGENIC EDEMA
18. The part of the brain that is being referred to in the cortical ribbon is: INSULAR CORTEX
19. This is the part of the brain that is affected by stroke that must be treated by
thrombolysis as soon as possible within a three hour treatment window: INFARCT CORE
20. Part of the brain that is the target of efforts of physicians to reduce the effects of stroke:
PENUMBRA
21. When metastatic nodules are suspected, this part of the brain should be evaluated for
their presence: GRAY-WHITE MATTER JUNCTION
22. This is an absolute contraindication to thrombolysis in hyperacute stroke: PRESENCE OF
HEMORRHAGE
23. The time between occurrence of stroke is another important consideration for
thrombolysis and the cut-off for this treatment is: 3 HOURS
24. The best diagnostic modality for the diagnosis of hyperacute stroke and is capable of
showing findings a few minutes after it has occurred or at a very early phase: DIFFUSION
WEIGHTED IMAGE (DWI) ON MRI
25. This is the most sensitive method for demonstrating primary intracerebral hemorrhage
when using non-contrast MRI for evaluating the brain of a person who has suffered a
stroke being unable to show blood products at a later time after the hemorrhage in the
subacute phase against cerebrospinal fluid: T2 FLAIR MRI (FLUID ATTENUATED
INVERSION RECOVERY)
26. The most sensitive pulse imaging sequence of detecting subarachnoid hemorrhage in
the brain using MRI: T2 GRE (GRADIENT RECALL ECHO)
27. The only normal structure that will be seen as bright signal in T1 weighted image in MRI
is: FAT
28. When a structure is seen as dark signal in all pulse sequences, this will be the most likely
nature of the structure: WATER
29. This will be bright in T2 weighted images: WATER
30. This degradation product of blood (hematoma) will be seen as a bright signal in MRI
using T1 weighted image: METHEMOGLOBIN
31. Blood product which will be seen as dark signal in both T1 and T2 weighted images in
brain MRI: FERRITIN/HEMOSIDERIN
32. The bright of hyperdense appearance of acute hematoma that is seen in CT Scan is due
to: INCREASED GLOBULIN COMPONENT OF BLOOD DUE TO CLOT RETRACTION
33. The bright or hyperdense appearance of hemorrhage in CT scan is due to: GLOBIN
PARTICLE OF BLOOD WHICH IS HIGHLY PROTEINACEOUS
34. The bright signal in this pulse sequence or MRI protocol is thought to represent the
ischemic core of an infarcted brain: T2 FLAIR IMAGE
35. This abnormal structure is seen as bright signla in T1 Weighted Imaging: ACUTE
HEMATOMA
36. Contrast agent is needed to be able to diagnose: LEPTOMENINGITIS
37. In showing the presence of leptomeningitis, this is an important step in using CT scan:
CONTRAST EXAMINATION USING IODINE CONTRAST
38. This is true of cerebrospinal fluid within the ventricles as demonstrated as long T2 in T2
weighted MRI: BRIGHT LOOKING STRUCTURES
39. This is the limitation of the skull x-ray: UNABLE TO SHOW IMAGES OF THE
INTRACRANIAL SOFT TISSUES (BRAIN PARENCHYMA), MUST BE DONE IN MULTIPLE
VIEWS TO DEMONSTRATE ACCURATE BONE ANATOMY
40. To diagnose an intrasellar tumor, this is the most efficient method: MRI
41. This imaging method can show more metastatic lesions combined with the use of
intravenous contrast agent: MRI
42. MRI of the brain has this attribute: IDEAL FOR DEMONSTRATING WHITE MATTER
LESIONS ACCURATELY
43. This is an important advantage of CT Scan for brain imaging: CAN SHOW ACCURATE
DETAIL OF BONY STRUCTURES
44. CT Scan is the appropriate imaging method for these types of lesion in the brain:
HYDROCEPHALUS, MENINGIOMA, MENINGITIS
45. The most important role of non-contrast CT Scan in early stroke imaging is to: RULE OUT
PRIMARY INTRACEREBRAL HEMORRHAGE
46. When confronted with a patient who has suffered a stroke, this is the most reasonable
imaging process to perform to rule out hemorrhage in a patient with monitoring device:
NON-CONTRAST CT SCAN
47. In this part of the brain, lesions are best detected with MRI: SELLA TURCICA
48. The finding that will indicate an intra-sellar mass like that of a pituitary adenoma in the
skull x-ray: DOUBLE FLOOR APPEARANCE OF THE SELLA
49. The skull x-ray is best in demonstrating: FRACTURES
50. Depressed fracture is suspected when this is noted: TYPICALLY THE MANNER OF
FRACTURE ON THE VERTEX
51. This is an extra-axial tumor: MENINGIOMA
52. True regarding cerebral infarction: IT IS HYPODENSE ON PLAIN CT
53. This extra-axial hematoma is crescentic in shape on CT scan: SUBDURAL
54. This is the vessel usually torn in epidural hematoma: MIDDLE MENINGEAL ARTERY
 55. Chest x-ray shows a peripheral wedged-shaped opacity in a patient with sudden chest
pain. This is a patient with: PULMONARY EMBOLISM
56. This is pathognomonic for pleural effusion: MENISCUS SIGN
57. Contrast agent show enhancement in tumors coming from the body that metastasize to
the brain due to this reason: THESE TYPE OF TUMORS DO NOT HAVE BLOOD BRAIN
BARRIER
58. In meningeal infection, the cause of enhancement is: CAPILLARIES HAVE DAMAGED
ENDOTHELIUM THAT ALLOWS SPILLAGE OF CONTRAST
59. When this is present, a mass is considered to be extra-axial: PRESENCE OF CSF BETWEEN
THE TUMOR OUTLINE AND THE CORTEX
60. Contrast enhancement in stroke is produced by this mechanism: PRODUCTION OF NEW
CAPILLARIES THAT HAS INCOMPLETE STRUCTURAL COMPONENTS

TOPIC: NUCLEAR MEDICINE

1. The Gamma camera used in Nuclear Medicine: DOES NOT GIVE OFF RADIATION
2. Liver imaging with Tc99m sulfur colloid is a test of the function of the: KUPFFER CELLS
3. Rationale for the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism in a lung perfusion imaging:
CAPILLARY BLOCKADE
4. Low probability of pulmonary embolism in ventilation perfusion scan: MATCHED
VENTILATION AND PERFUSION DEFECTS WITH A NORMAL CHEST RADIOGRAPH
5. Ideal radiopharmaceutical for thyroid cancer therapy: I 131
6. The mechanism of uptake of lung perfusion imaging: TRAPPED PARTICLES
7. The mechanism of uptake of Meckel’s diverticulum imaging: BLEEDING IN THE SMALL
INTESTINES
8. Radiotracer used in liver imaging: SULFUR COLLOID
9. Most suitable for imaging a lower gastrointestinal bleed: TC-SULPHUR COLLOID
10. Radiotracer used in hepatobiliary imaging: IMINODIACETIC ACID
11. Radiotracer used in GI bleeding study: LABELED RBC
12. Concentrates in the gastric mucosa of a diverticulum: TC PERTECHNETATE
13. Secreted by the ectopic gastric mucosa present in Meckel’s diverticulum: TC
PERTECHNETATE
14. Radiocolloids in the liver are cleared from the circulation by: KUPFFER CELLS
15. The number of particles injected during a perfusion lung study should be decreased for:
PATIENTS WITH SEVERE PULMONARY HYPERTENSION
16. A perfusion lung scan shows a cold defect in the right base. Chest x-ray is normal. If the
ventilation study in this patient is normal, this is the most probable explanation for the
defect: PULMONARY EMBOLISM
17. During lung perfusion study, activity is seen in the head and the kidneys. This may
represent: RIGHT TO LEFT CARDIAC SHUNT
18. The mechanism of accumulation of radionuclides in bone are related to: LABELING OF
HYDROXYAPPATITE CRYSTALS
19. Defects in the liver scan appear as cold spots. The reason is: THE KUPFFER CELLS ARE
DAMAGED AND ARE UNABLE TO PHAGOCYTISE THE COLLOID PARTICLES
 20. It is important to acquire the study for at least 60 minutes in patients with a suspected
gastrointestinal bleed because: GI BLEED CAN BE INTERMITTENT AND A SMALL
VOLUME
21. Reason why Ventilation and Perfusion studies of the lungs are both required for accurate
interpretation: PULMONARY EMBOLISM CAN BE DIFFERENTIATED FROM AIRWAY
DISEASE
22. Particle size is important with Tc MAA: THE PARTICLES SHOULD BE SMALL TO REACH
THE TERMINAL ARTERIOLES AND CAPILLARIES
23. The optimal position for injecting Tc MAA is the: SUPINE, BECAUSE BLOOD FLOW IS
MORE UNIFORM IN THE SUPINE POSITION
24. The more accurate definition for pulmonary embolism: AN EMBOLUS THAT HAS
BLOCKED ONE OF THE BRANCHES OF THE PULMONARY ARTERY
25. One major advantage of using Tc DTPA aerosol ventilation studies compared with Xe in
the detection of pulmonary embolism: MULTIPLE VIEWS CAN BE ACQUIRED THAT
MATCH THE PERFUSION IMAGES
26. Painful goiters can be caused by: SUBACUTE THYROIDITIS
27. About 90% of the thyroid hormone secreted into the blood is in the form of: THYROXINE
28. The most common cause of hyperparathyroidism: HYPERFUNCTIONING ADENOMAS
29. When considering radiopharamceuticals to image the parathyroid, this is true: TC
SESTAMIBI ACCUMULATES IN THE MITOCHONDRIA OF THE PARATHYROID TISSUE
30. Renal scarring as a result of urinary tract infection or reflux is investigated using: Tc-
DMSA
31. True statement: THYROID NODULES WHICH TRAP OR ORGANIFY RADIOIODINE HAVE
LITTLE CHANCE OF BEING MALIGNANT
32. Most common etiology of Thyroid nodule: ADENOMA
33. If a thyroid tumor does not organify iodine, then first-line treatment to be considered
includes: SURGERY
34. In a liver scan using Tc99m sulfur colloid, the term colloid shift refer to: WHEN COLLOID
UPTAKE HAS MOVED FROM THE LIVER TO OTHER RETICULOENDOTHELIAL CELLS
35. Hepatobiliary imaging with Tcc99m HIDA mechanism of localization is: EXCRETION BY
THE HEPATOCYTES
36. True of ling perfusion imaging: QUALITATIVE AND QUANTITATIVE ASSESSMENT OF
TOTAL AND REGIONAL LUNG PERFUSION, PARTICLES ARE TRAPPED IN THE LUNG
CAPILLARIES, TRACERS ARE INJECTED INTRAVENOUSLY
37. Percentage of trapped 99mTc MAA radiotracers in the pulmonary capillary bed on lung
imaging study of the total cross section of the lung: LESS THAN 0.1%

TOPIC: MUSCULOSKELETAL RADIOLOGY

1. Best imaging modality for big tendons like the Achilles tendon: ULTRASOUND
2. Best imaging modality to diagnose anterior cruciate ligament tear of the knee joint: MRI
3. Menisceal tear is best diagnosed by: MRI
4. This muscle divides the neck into the anterior and posterior triangle: SCM
5. This muscle is the posterior posterior border of the posterior triangle of the neck:
TRAPEZIUS
6. These are important spaces in the oral cavity: SUBLINGUAL AND SUBMANDIBULAR
SPACES
7. These structures divide the parotid gland arbitrarily into the deep and superficial lobe by
CT scan: RETROMANDIBULAR VEIN
8. The sublingual and submandibular spaces are separated from one another by this
structure: MYLOHYOID MUSCLE
9. Masticator space lesions may spreaf intracaudally via this opening: FORAMEN OVALE
10. The most commonly used initial imaging modality to evaluate joints is: RADIOGRAPHY
11. Best imaging modality to diagnose bending fracture: PLAIN RADIOGRAPH
12. Bending fracture and compression fracture are best diagnosed by: PLAIN RADIOGRAPH
13. Best imaging modality to diagnose type IV Salter fracture of the distal tibia: PLAIN
RADIOGRAPH
14. Stress fracture and occult fracture are best diagnosed by: NUCLEAR SCINTIGRAPHY
15. Best imaging modality to diagnose skeletal metastasis: NUCLEAR SCINTIGRAPHY
16. Best imaging modality to diagnose cervical disk herniation: MRI
17. This modality is greatly user dependent in joint evaluation: ULTRASOUND
18. This is a technique where contrast is injected into the joint: ARTHROGRAPHY
19. Arthrography maybe evaluated by: CT SCAN, MRI, RADIOGRAPHY
20. MRI is excellent for joint evaluation because of its: EXCELLENT SOFT TISSUE CONTRAST
21. The contrast injected into the joint in CT Scan is: WATER SOLUBLE IODINE CONTAINING
COMPOUND
22. Appearance of malignant primary bone tumors on plain radiograph: SOFT TISSUE
CALCIFICATIONS
23. Linear calcifications connecting vertebral bodies are called: SYNDESMOPHYTES
24. ‘Sunburst’ type of periosteal reaction: OSTEOSARCOMA
25. Generally a benign bone tumor which is premalignant with tendency to malignant
degeneration: GIANT CELL TUMOR
26. Benign bone tumors: GIANT CELL TUMOR, OSTEOCHONDROMA, BONE CYST
27. Malignant bone tumor: OSTEOSARCOMA
28. A benign tumor of osteoid origin: OSTEOMA
29. Benign cartilaginous bone tumor: ENCHONDROMA
30. Characteristic of bone imaging procedure: MORE SENSITIVE AND LESS SPECIFIC
31. MRI will show calcifications and bones as hypointense due to: SCANTY WATER CONTENT
32. The most common clinical indication for skeletal imaging: TO DETECT AND ASSESS THE
EXTENT OF METASTATIC DISEASE
33. This has a pattern of a fragmented and disorganized joints: DIABETIC
NEUROARTHROPATHY
34. This may also be termed pseudoarthrosis: GOUT
35. A ‘pencil in cup’ deformity is a classic presentation of: PSORIASIS
36. This is characterized by urate deposition in the soft tissues: GOUT
37. Disease entity causing a bamboo spine deformity: ANKYLOSING SPONDYLITIS
38. True of ankylosing spondylitis: ALSO KNOWN AS CENTRAL TYPE OF
SPONDYLOARTHROPATHY
39. A diet high in seafood content may suppress the uptake of: IODINE 131
 40. Bone bruise is usually diagnosed by: MRI
41. Differential diagnosis for bone tumors: DYSPLASTIC LESIONS
42. Characteristics of benign bone tumors: NO SOFT TISSUE INVOLVEMENT, INTACT CORTEX

54 year-old male who came in because of pain of the left knee for about 1 year. PMH: Patient
claims to have an abnormal OGTT since a year ago with no follow-up with his attending
physician. He had history of anti-TB medications with chest x-ray of bilateral upper lobe fibrosis.
PPE showed minimal swelling of the left foot with no movement limitation nor soft tissue
crepitations.
1. The most likely diagnosis in this case: SEPTIC ARTHRITIS
2. Plain radiograph of the knee showed rat bite deformity of the distal femoral epiphysis-
metaphysis complex. The most likely diagnosis is: TB ARTHRITIS
3. Common coexisting finding in chronic septic arthritis like in this case: LYTIC CHANGE
FORM BACTERIAL INFECTION
4. Because of absence of soft tissue calcifications, this may be excluded in the differential
diagnosis: GOUTY ARTHRITIS
5. This can be considered in the differential diagnosis because of abnormal OGTT:
NEUROPATHIC ARTHROPATHY

54-year old male who came in because of pain and swelling of the left foor with occasional
numbness of both lower extremities. PHx – patient claims to have an abnormal OGTT since a
year ago with no follow up with his attending physician. PPE showed swelling of the left foot
with no movement limitation nor soft tissue crepitations.
1. The most likely diagnosis in this case: NEUROPATHIC ARTHROPATHY
2. Plain radiograph of the foot showed calcified interdigital arteries with associated
fragmentation of the metatarsophalangeal joints. Negative for soft tissue calcifications:
GOUTY ARTHRITIS
3. The pathophysiology of bone fragmentation is likely attributed to: VASCULAR
ANGIOGRAPHY AND MICROINFARCTION
4. Because of absence of soft tissue calcifications and presence of narrowed and
fragmented joint spaces, this disease entity can be safely ruled out: GOUTY ARTHRITIS
5. A common complication is the onset of secondary bacterial infection, hence this disease
can be considered in the differential diagnosis: SEPTIC ARTHRITIS

TOPIC: BASIC PRINCIPLES AND CLINICAL APPLICATION OF NUCLEAR CARDIAC IMAGING

1. This is seen in aortic dissection: INTIMAL FLAP

TOPIC: PEDIATRIC RADIOLOGY

1. True of Hyaline membrane disease: THERE IS UNDERAERATION OF THE LUNGS DUE TO
THE PERSISTENT COLLAPSE OF THE ALVEOLAR SACS SECONDARY TO SURFACTANT
DEFICIENCY, A TERTIARY OR PATHOLOGIC AIR BRONCHOGRAM IS SEEN, IF THE CHEST
X-RAY IS TAKEN DURING THE EXPIRATORY PHASE, HOMOGENEOUS OPACIFICATION OF
BOTH LUNGS OR ‘WHOTE OUT’ APPEARANCE WILL BE SEEN
2. True of Transient tachynea of the newborn: BILATERAL PULMONARY HYPERAERATION
WITH LINEAR DENSITIES EXTENDING FROM THE HILUM TO THE PERIPHERY ARE NOTED
3. Meconium aspiration pneumonia is suspected when: THE INFANT IS THICKLY STAINED
AT BIRTH AND IS IN RESPIRATORY DISTRESS, THERE ARE ILL-DEFINED INFILTRATES IN
THE DEPENDENT SEGMENTS OF THE LUNG IN THE SUPINE POSITION, PNEUMOTHORAX
IS COMMONLY SEEN DUE TO THICK TENACIOUS MECONIUM IN THE DISTAL AIRWAYS
WHICH PRODUCE CHECK VALVE OBSTRUCTION AND EVENTUAL RUPTURE OF THE
DISTENDED ALVEOLAR SACS
4. Infants with severe respiratory distress and hypoxia are placed on artificial ventilation.
One of the common complications of artificial ventilation present with an area of
radiolucency devoid of lung markings and visualization of the visceral pleural line. This
condition is called: PNEUMOTHORAX
5. Characteristics of pneumomediastinum: UPWARD DISPLACEMENT OF THE THYMUS
GLAND OR THE ANGEL WING CONFIGURATION, INCREASED RADIOLUCENCY OF THE
MEDIASTINAL CAVITY, UNUSUALLY SHARP AND CRISP OUTLINE OF THE CARDIAC
BORDERS
6. True of alveolar pneumonia: IT PRESENTS AS A HOMOGENEOUS OPACIFICATION OF A
SEGMENT, LOBE, OR THE ENTIRE LUNG
7. True of interstitial pneumonia: IT PRESENTS AS STREAKY, LACELIKE, OR RETICULAR
INFILTRATES
8. The dependent segments of the lung in the supine position: RIGHT UPPER LOBE,
SUPERIOR BASAL SEGMENT OF THE RIGHT LOWER LOBE, SUPERIOR BASAL SEGMENT
OF THE LEFT LOWER LOBE
9. The following roentgen feature is highly characteristic of primary PTB: UNILATERAL
HILAR LYMPHADENOPATHY
10. The neonatal chest has unique features that differentiate it from that of an older child:
GLOBULAR CARDIAC CONFIGURATION
11. The globular configuration of the heart is seen in a neonate in the first few weeks of life
is due to hypertrophy of this chamber of the heart: RIGHT VENTRICLE
12. A relative contraindication to biopsy: PROLONGED PT
13. True of the ‘silhouette sign’: IT IS DEFINED AS OBLITERATION OF THE BORDER OF THE
ANATOMIC STRUCTURE WHICH IS AT THE SAME PLANE AS A SEGMENT OR A LOBE OF
THE LUNG INVOLVED BY PNEUMONIA OR ATELECTASIS
14. The chest x-ray of a neonate with hyaline membrane disease will show: VISUALIZATION
OF THE TERTIARY AIRWAYS
15. The chest x-ray of an asymptomatic one-year old infant showed a homogeneous sail-like
density at the right side of the anterior mediastinum which merged imperceptibly with
the cardiac shadow. There is no displacement or distortion of the esophagus or trachea.
This may represent a: PHYSIOLOGICALLY ENLARGED THYMUS GLAND
16. The following roentgen feature is a classic sign of Primary PTB in children: GHON’S
LESION OR PRIMARY FOCUS
17. A semicircumscribed homogeneous opacity in the superior mediastinum seen in a 1 year
old healthy infant which do not distort or displace the trachea and esophagus represents
the: THYMUS GLAND
 18. The roentgen features which are classic signs of Primary PTB in children: GHON’S LESION
OR PRIMARY FOCUS, PLEURAL EFFUSION OR THICKENING, MULTIPLE PULMONARY
NODULES OF VARYING SIZES OR CANON BALL LESIONS, REGIONAL
LYMPHADENOPATHY
19. A homogeneous opacity in the right upper lobe in a 1 year old febrile and dyspneic
infant with no mediastinal shift, no displacement of the right minor fissure, and with a
peripheral air bronchogram will suggest a: CONSOLIDATION
20. The following chest x-ray findings are seen in neonates which are not present in older
children: THE CARDIAC APEX IS DISPLACED UPWARDS AND LATERALLY DUE TO RIGHT
VENTRICULAR HYPERTROPHY
21. The following statement is true of Wilson Mikity Syndrome: IT IS COMMON AMONG
PREMATURE INFANTS WITH NO HISTORY OF HYALINE MEMBRANE DISEASE, ARTIFICIAL
VENTILATION OR ADMINISTRATION OF HIGH OXYGEN PRESSURES
22. The chest x-ray of a neonate with Hyaline Membrane Disease will show: GROUND GLASS
INFILTRATES
23. The globular configuration of the heart in a neonate seen in the first few weeks of life is
due to: RIGHT VENTRICULAR HYPERTROPHY
24. The most important distinguishing feature of the thymus gland which differentiates it
from a pathologic mediastinal mass is: THE THYMUS GLAND NEVER DISTORTS THE
TRACHEA OR ESOPHAGUS NO MATTER HOW LARGE IT IS

TOPIC: PELVIC ULTRASONOGRAPHY

1. A postmenopausal endometrium should have a normal thickness of: 6 MM
2. AOG parameter for an 8-month old pregnancy:
3. In a 4-chamber view of the heart in congenital screening of the fetus, this chamber is
nearest the fetal spine: LEFT ATRIUM
4. Cardiac pulsations first begin to be appreciated at this age of gestation: 4-5 WEEKS
5. This is true of the fetal spine as seen on intrauterine fetal ultrasound: DISTAL TIP OF THE
FETAL SPINE SHOULD BE TAPERING WITH 2 LATERAL ECHOES MEETING AT ONE POINT
6. A cystic structure in the right adnexa seen during the first trimester of pregnancy:
CORPUS LUTEUM
7. A pelvic ultrasound reveals a hyperechoic rounded to ovoid hyperechogenicity within a
complex or cystic structure in the adnexal region, a likely diagnosis is: DERMOID CYST
8. A transvaginal ultrasound of the uterus shows an empty gestational sac at the
approximate menstrual age of 8 weeks. The most likely diagnossi: BLIGHTED OVUM
9. A nun complaining of hypogastric pain associated with irregular menses cannot drink
water in preparation for a pelvic ultrasound because her electrolyte and water balance is
being strictly monitored. This is the best procedure: TRANSRECTAL PELVIC ULTRASOUND
10. Endometrial echo identifies the uterus while this one identifies the ovaries: FOLLICLES
11. A gestational sac seen in the lower uterine segment has no other recourse but to be
expelled out of the: UTERUS
12. One of the following when seen outside the uterus indicates extrauterine gestation:
TUBAL RING
 13. A woman that presents with missed menses and presumptive signs of pregnancy and
whitish vaginal discharge may mean: HYDATIDIFORM MOLE
14. A markedly thickened endometrium with associated rounded to ovoid hypoechogenities
may mean: ENDOMETRIAL CARCINOMA
15. Basal calcifications are seen in this grade of placental maturity: GRADE 3

TOPIC: EMERGENCY RADIOLOGY 1: CHEST

1. An important finding that will make the diagnosis of pneumothorax by ultrasound:
SHOW REVERBERATIONS
2. Flail chest is defined as fracture of: THREE OF MORE RIBS FRACTURED IN TWO OR
MORE PLACES
3. As the non-radiopaque inhaled foreign body acts as a ball-valve, you see this secondary
sign/s radiographically: HYPERINFLATION
4. The air trapping secondary to a ‘ball-valve’ effect seen in cases of inhaled foreign body is
most apparent in: AP EXPIRATORY RADIOGRAPHS
5. The radiologic feature of a hemothorax in a supine patient: GENERALIZED
OPACIFICATION OF THE HEMITHORAX
6. In majority of cases, the aorta usually ruptures at the aortic isthmus located: DISTAL TO
THE ORIGIN OF THE LEFT SUBCLAVIAN ARTERY
7. The earliest blunting of the costophrenic sulcus in an erect PA view chest radiograph is
seen in this volume of hemothorax: 175 CC
8. Perforation of the lower/mid-esophagus tends to directly enter the: MEDIASTINUM
9. Classic sign in esiphageal perforation or rupture: WIDENED MEDIASTINUM
10. When pneumothorax is associated with a chest wall defect, it is categorized as:
COMMUNICATING PNEUMOTHORAX
11. Lymphadenopathies in primary tuberculosis are most commonly found in: RIGHT HILAR
REGION
12. This location of consolidation pneumonia produces a positive silhouette sign with the
right cardiac border: MEDIAL SEGMENT OF THE RIGHT MIDDLE LOBE
13. Tension pneumothorax is a: CLINICAL DIAGNOSIS
14. Causative factors of Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease: SMOKING, ALPHA-1
ANTITRYPSIN DEFICIENCY, CHRONIC INFECTION
15. Radiographic features of aortic aneurysm: MEDIASTINAL MASS, AREAS OF
CALCIFICATION WITHIN THE MASS, NON-PERIPHERAL IN LOCATION
16. One of the chest x-ray findings in aortic rupture is widened mediastinum. Widened
mediastinum is defined as: >8 CM ON AP SUPINE CHEST RADIOGRAPH
17. Radiologic feature of aortic rupture: DEPRESSED LEFT MAIN STEM BRONCHUS
18. Barrel shaped chest in COPD is associated with: INCREASED RETROCARDIAC SPACE
19. Diaphragmatic hernia results from: DIRECT BLUNT TRAUMA TO THE CHEST, DIRECT
BLUNT TRAUMA TO THE ABDOMEN, PENETRATING TRAUMA TO THE CHEST OR
ABDOMEN
20. Complications of assisted or artificial ventilation: PULMONARY INTERSTITIAL
EMPHYSEMA, PNEUMOTHORAX, MASSIVE AIR EMBOLISM
 21. A right upper lobe consolidation will show the following x-ray finding: A
HOMOGENEOUS OPACIFICATION OF THE RIGHT UPPER LOBE WHICH PRESERVES ITS
NORMAL ANATOMIC CONFIGURATION
22. Among the four types of pneumonia, this will show hazy and patchy densities with
abscess, pneumoatocele and empyema as complications: LOBULAR OR
STAPHYLOCOCCAL PNEUMONIA
23. Homogeneous opacification of the right upper lobe with bulging of the right minor
fissure and contralateral mediastinal shift will suggest: LOCULATED PLEURAL EFFUSION
24. The normal structure at the upper left side of the heart into which the hilar vessels
converge is the: MAIN PULMONARY ARTERY SEGMENT
25. The normal structure just below the aortic knob is the: MAIN PULMONARY ARTERY
SEGMENT
26. Normal structure at the right side of the heart: RIGHT ATRIUM
27. Indirect signs of atelectasis: DISPLACEMENT OF MEDIASTINUM IPSILATERALLY,
APPROXIMATION OF RIBS, OVERINFLATION OF THE ADJACENT LOBE AND/OR
CONTRALATERAL LUNG
28. Chest x-ray position that detects the smallest number amount of pleural fluid: LATERAL
DECUBITUS
29. Chest x-ray of a 40-year old health worker with chronic cough and a non-smoker, shows
consolidation with cavitary formation in the apical segment of the right upper lobe. The
most likely diagnosis: POST PRIMARY TB
30. Loss of the left hemidiaphragm silhouette in pneumonia suggests involvement of: LEFT
LOWER LOBE
31. Most important chest x-ray finding in pneumothorax: VISCERAL PLEURAL LINE
32. This is a type of aneurysm wherein only a part of the wall is involved: SACCULAR
33. Roentgen findings seen in transient tachypnea: HYPERAERATION OF BOTH LUNGS.
DEPRESSION AND FLATTENING OF BOTH HEMIDIAPHRAGM, CLEARING OF THE
ROENTGEN FINDINGS AFTER 48 HOURS

TOPIC: EMERGENCY RADIOLOGY 2: ABDOMEN

1. Ultrasound of the right upper abdomen will demonstrate this particular area when
looking for evidence of traumatic injury: LIVER AGAINST THE RIGHT KIDNEY
2. When evaluating the pelvis for evidence of trauma, this is the area that will show sign of
trauma: BEHIND THE UTERUS IN THE POUCH OF DOUGLAS
3. This is the status of ultrasound in demonstration of solid organ laceration: VERY
SENSITIVE IN DEMONSTRATING FLUID IN THE AREAS AROUND THE AFFECTED ORGANS
4. When fluid is identified during ultrasound examination of the abdomen, the most
practical approach to demonstrate its source is: GO DIRECTLY TO NON-CONTRAST AND
CONTRAST –ENHANCED MULTI-DETECTOY CT OF THE ABDOMEN
5. This is the main condition that can make demonstration of liver or splenic injury
imprecise: SOFT TISSUE INJURY INVOLVING THE UPPER ABDOMEN THAT CAN RESUKT
TO SOFT TISSUE EMPHYSEMA, RIB FRACTURES THEMSELVES, HEMATOMA IN THE SOFT
TISSUES COMING FROM RIB FRACTURES
6. When blood is present in the urinary bladder, this can be expected during ultrasound
examination: ECHOGENIC PARTICLES ADMIXED WITH URINE
7. Doge’s Cap sign in pneumoperitoneum is located at: MORRISON’S POUCH
8. In the upright projection of the scout film of the abdomen, this structure should be
visualized: DIAPHRAGM
9. Ileus will demonstrate this: PROPORTIONATE DISTRIBUTION OF GAS IN BOTH THE
SMALL AND LARGE BOWEL
10. On CT scan, acute pancreatitis will show this feature: PERIPANCREATIC FLUID
11. On plain film, this is seen in cases of intussusception: VAGUE SOFT TISSUE MASS
12. Meniscus sign in barium enema is due to: INTUSSUSCEPTION
13. Coffee bean sign is seen in: SCOUT FILM
14. This is a sign of appendicitis on plain film: CALCIFIC RLQ FOCUS
15. On ultrasound, appendicitis is considered when the appendix measures: 7-8 MM
16. This is characteristic of aortic dissection: INTIMAL FLAP
17. Small intestinal obstruction will show this feature: ROSARY BEAD PATTERN OF AIR FLUID
LEVEL
18. This will not appear as a soft tissue density on plain film: PNEUMOPERITONEUM
19. Mercedez Benz sign is pathognomonic for: CHOLELITHIASIS
20. This can be seen on plain film: NEEDLE
21. Rigler sign is seen in: PNEUMOPERITONEUM
22. In Rigler sign, this structure is emphasized: BOWEL WALL
23. The most commonly injured segment of the liver in blunt abdominal trauma is:
POSTERIOR SEGMENT OF THE RIGHT LOBE
24. Intussusception: COIL SPRING SIGN, BARIUM ENEMA REDUCTION
25. Volvulus: BIRD BEAK SIGN, COFFEE BEAN SIGN
26. Nephrolithiasis: STAGHORN CALCULUS
27. Pancreatitis: PLEURAL EFFUSION, MENISCUS SIGN, ANTERIOR PARARENAL FLUID
COLLECTION
28. Appendicitis: LUMBAR SCOLIOSIS, NON-COMPRESSIBLE, FECALITH/APPENDICOLITH
29. Cholelithiasis: POSTERIOR SHADOWING
30. Retroperitoneal abscess: PSOAS MUSCLE OBLITERATION
31. Splenic laceration: HYPODENSE LINES
32. This is seen in complete small intestinal obstruction: ABSENCE OF COLONIC GAS
33. This is seen in acute appendicitis and pancreatitis: SENTINEL LOOP
34. Pneumoperitoneum is best demonstrated in this position: LEFT LATERAL DECUBITUS
35. In abdominal ultrasound, the Morrison’s pouch is an important location to identify: FREE
PERITONEAL FLUID
36. This is an alternative projection in taking abdominal x-ray, if the patient cannot assume
an upright position: LEFT LATERAL DECUBITUS VIEW
37. The amount of ascites that will produce haziness seen on scout film: 500 ML
38. Intussusception in adults is usually due to: MASS
39. Pressure in barium enema used to reduce intussusception should be: LOW
40. Sonographic appearance of the mesentery in intussusception: HYPOECHOIC
 41. Sings of appendicitis on ultrasound: NON-COMPRESSIBLE APPENDIX, WALL THICKNESS
OF 4 MM, OUTER TO OUTER WALL OF 7 MM
42. This is not seen in scout film of the abdomen: SENTINEL CLOT
43. This is contraindicated for doing barium enema: TOXIC MEGACOLON
44. Not needed for searching organ lacerations: CONTRAST ENHANCED CT

TOPIC: EMERGENCY RADIOLOGY 3: SKELETAL TRAUMA

1. Radiographic signs of open fractures: SUBCUTANEOUS OR INTRA0ARTICULAR GAS,
FOREIGN MATERIAL BENEATH THE SKIN, ABSENT PIECES OF BONE
2. An axial compression forces will result to: IMPACTION FRACTURE
3. An acute subdural hematoma will appear like this in CT Scan: HYPERDENSE CRESCENTIC
FOCUS
4. A biconvex hyperdensity underneath the inner table of the skull: EPIDURAL HEMATOMA
5. This is a common complication of the femoral neck fracture: AVASCULAR NECROSIS OF
THE FEMORAL HEAD
6. Torus Fracture: INCOMPLETE FRACTURE
7. Jefferson’s Fracture: BURSTING FRACTURE OF THE ATLAS
8. Bennett’s Fracture: 1ST METACARPAL BONE FRACTURE
9. Smith’s Fracture: DISTAL RADIAL FRACTURE
10. There is anterior displacement of the distal fragment in Colle’s Fracture: FALSE
11. Garden classification type II of femoral neck fracture is a stable fracture: TRUE
12. Elbow fat pad sign is an indication of intraarticular hemorrhage: TRUE
13. Crush fractures are examples of incomplete fracture: FALSE
14. Monteggla’s fracture is an ulnar fracture with radial head dislocation: TRUE
15. The distal fracture fragment is a point of reference in describing fracture displacement:
FALSE
16. Segmental Fractures produce multiple bony fragments: FALSE
17. True of subdural hematoma: IT PRODUCES CRESCENTIC FLUID COLLECTION IN CRANIAL
CT SCAN, IT TEARS ‘BRIDGING VEINS’ IN THE SUBDURAL SPACE, IT IS NOT RELATED TO
SKULL FRACTURE
18. True of epidural hematoma: IT IS ASSOCIATED WITH SKULL FRACTURE
19. The normal spinolaminar line of the cervical spine intersects the: POSTERIOR BORDER
OF THE FORAMEN MAGNUM
20. Subarachnoid hemorrhage will be seen in the: SUPRASELLAR CISTERN
21. Colles fracture is seen in the: DISTAL RADIUS
22. Type of fracture involving the metaphysis and epiphyseal line: TYPE II SALTER
23. Type of fracture involving the epiphyseal line and epiphysis: TYPE III SALTER
24. Type of fracture involving both the epiphysis and the metaphysis: TYPE IV SALTER
25. Type of Salter-Harris fracture which is clinically significant since it may affect future joint
function: TYPE V
26. Type of fracture producing bone deformity with no cortical break: BENDING FRACTURE
27. Condition which may predispose to pathologic fracture: MULTIPLE MYELOMA
28. Causes of non-union of fractures which may affect healing: VASCULAR INJURY,
IMMOBILIZATION, LACK OF DIETARY CALCIUM
TOPIC: ULTRASOUND: FAST
1. The most important role of FAST ultrasound examination of patients is: FLUID IN THE
PERIONEAL SPACE
2. This area is not included in a FAST scan of trauma patients: EPIGASTRIC REGION
3. The advantage of ultrasound over other imaging modalities in evaluating patients for
trauma over other imaging methods that may even provide more detail are: WIDELY
AVAILABLE, LOW COST, EASY TO PERFORM
4. This is considered a most important positive sign of organ trauma that can be detected
by ultrasound: FLUID COLLECTION IN THE PERITONEUM
5. When fluid is seen in the Morrison’s pouch, this is suspected: LIVER LACERATION
6. When the urinary bladder ruptures, the area that will show fluid collection will be the:
POUCH OF DOUGLAS
7. FAST scan may not be able to provide detail that may indicate lacerations injuries to the:
BOWEL, PANCREAS, MESENTERY
8. Ultrasound will not be able to provide diagnostic detail in this condition as a basis to
treatment: PNEUMOPERITONEUM

TOPIC: INTERVENTIONAL RADIOLOGY

1. When fluid is noted in the abdomen, this is the most logical imaging study to perform:
CONTRAST-ENHANCED CT SCAN
2. The areas that has to be evaluated in FAST ultrasound protocol are: SUBXYPHOID
REGION
3. Major trauma also referred to as multiple trauma or polytrauma death risk is increased
by 1% for delay of intervention or treatment by: 3 MINUTES
4. The best modality to diagnose biliary obstruction: MRCP
5. The best area of puncture in Percutaneous cholecystectomy is at the: BARE AREA OF
THE LIVER
6. This is important to be within normal prior to needle biopsy: PT
7. The common contraindication among the nonvascular interventional procedures is:
PROLONGED PT
8. Irreversible tissue damage happens at: 60 DEGREES
9. Heat sink effect happens when vascular structures are: BIGGER THAN 3 MM
10. This study is initially done for detection of hemoperitoneum: ULTRASOUND
11. Contrast enhanced CT scan appearance of hepatic laceration: HYPODENSITY
12. Procedure for gallbladder hydrops: PERCUTANEOUS CHOLECYSTOSTOMY
13. Can encompass bigger tumor volume: EXTERNAL BEAM RADIATION
14. Teletherapy: EXTERNAL BEAM RADIATION
15. Internal radiation: BRACHYTHERAPY

TOPIC: RADIATION ONCOLOGY

1. Main reason why it is important that the patient undergoing radiation therapy needs to
have a normal hemoglobin level: HEMOGLOBIN BRINGS OXYGEN TO TISSUES AND
OXYGEN FIXES DAMAGE CAUSED BY IONIZING RADIATION
2. Radiation used for treatment differs from those used for diagnostic purposes:
RADIATION ISED FOR TREATMENT USUALLY ARE HIGHER IN ENERGY MEGAVOLTAGE
RANGE
3. These are external beam treatment modalities: THREE DIMENSIONAL CONFORMAL
THERAPY, INTENSITY MODULATED RADIATION THERAPY, CONVENTIONAL THERAPY,
COBALT THERAPY
4. Conventional radiation therapy refers to a regimen: GIVEN ONCE DAILY AT 180 CGY PER
FRACTION FIVE TIMES A WEEK
5. There is strong circumstantial evidence to indicate that this is the main target for the
biological effects of radiation: DNA
6. Most sensitive phases of the cell cycle to radiation: G2/M PHASE
7. These are the reasons why radiation treatments are done in fractions of doses instead of
in one single treatment: REPAIR OF SUBLETHAL DAMAGE, REASSORTMENT,
REOXYGENATION
8. Side effect of patients receiving radiation therapy in the pelvic region: DIARRHEA
9. Brachytherapy use is limited because: IT CAN COVER ONLY SMALL VOLUME OF DISEASE,
IT IS UNABLE TO COVER SITES OF SUBCLINICAL DISEASE
10. Radiation of low linear energy transfer like x-rays and gamma rays attack the DNA mainly
by this mechanism: INDIRECTLY BY HYDROLYSIS OF WATER, FORMING IONS AND
RADICALS
11. Molecular oxygen is important in cell killing by x-rays and gamma rays because: OXYGEN
FIXES THE DAMAGE CAUSED BY RADIATION BY COMBINING WITH THE FREE RADICAL,
THIS IS CONSIDERED A STEP THAT WILL CAUSE PERMANENT FIXATION OF DAMAGE
12. The system international unit used to prescribe radiation treatment: CENTIGRADE
13. Radiation therapy started with the discovery of radium by: MARIE CURIE
14. The most common indication for brachytherapy: CERVICAL CANCER
15. The following describes external beam radiation: IT MAY BE GIVEN USING X-RAY OR
COBALT TELE THERAPY MACHINE
16. The planning session prior to radiation therapy: IS ALSO KNOWN AS A SIMULATION
PROCEDURE
17. Superior vena caval syndrome: AN ONCOLOGIC EMERGENCY, TREATMENT NEEDS TO BE
INSTITUTED AS SOON AS POSSIBLE
18. Superior vena caval obstruction is considered an emergency because: BLOOD
19. These types of rays are mainly directly ionizing: PHOTONS
20. Damage to critical molecules in a mammalian cell may be caused by direct radiation
energy deposited in molecules, but much molecular damage due to photons is caused
indirecly. Indirect effects of x-rays are mostly due to: H AND OH (FREE) RADICALS
PRODUCED BY THE RADIOLYSIS OF WATER
21. Phase most resistant to radiation: S PHASE
22. Brachy in brachytherapy means: SHORT
23. Molecular oxygen: IS IMPORTANT IN TUMOR CELL KILLING WHEN USING RADIATION
OF LOW ENERGY TRANSFER, IT IS CONSIDERED AS A RATE LIMITING STEP IN X-RAY AND
TISSUE INTERACTION
24. Conventional fractionation: ONCE A DAY
25. Side effects of patients undergoing external beam radiation therapy of the pelvis:
BLOATEDNESS, ABDOMINAL DISCOMFORT, DIARRHEA
26. Conventional radiation therapy: FIELD IS BASED ON OSSEOUS LANDMARK AND
CLINICAL JUDGMENT
27. Three dimensional conformal technique of external beam radiation: DOSE VOLUME
HISTOGRAM ANALYSIS
28. Intensity Modulated Radiation therapy technique: EVOLVED FROM THESE
DIMENSIONAL CONFORMAL RADIATION THERAPY, GOOD IMMOBILIZATION AND
REPOSITIONING REQUIRED, HIGHER THAN CONVENTIONAL RADIATION DOSES
INDICATED
29. Permanent iodine 125 implant is used mainly for: PROSTATE
30. Radiation therapy for treatment of malignancy should be: IONIZING
31. Energy of radiation beam defines: THE DEPTH OF PENETRATION OF RADIATION BEAM
32. Curative course of radiation therapy: TAKES LONGER TO COMPLETE
33. Conventional radiation therapy course: INVOLVES A MONDAY TO FRIDAY COURSE OF
RADIATION TREATMENT FOR A PERIOD OF 6-8 WEEKS
34. Radiation Oncology is the scientific discipline devoted to: MANAGEMENT OF PATIENT
WITH CANCER AND SOMETIMES BENIGN CONDITIONS
35. Mechanism of radiation therapy related cell death: PREVENTION OF MITOSIS,
APOPTOSIS
36. These are the basic parameters determining normal tissue effects in radiation therapy:
INCREASE TOTAL DOSE INCREASE NORMAL TISSUE EFFECTS
37. These are the 5 Rs of Radiobiology: REPAIR OF SUBLETHAL DAMAGE, REPOPULATION,
REASSORTMENT, REOXYGENATION, RADIOSENSITIVITY
38. Therapeutic Ratio in radiation therapy: FOR RADIOSENSITIVE TISSUE, THERE IS A WIDER
THERAPEUTIC RATIO COMPARED TO RADIORESISTANT TISSUE WHICH IS ALLOWS
BETTER TUMOR KILLING WHILE CAUSING LESS DAMAGE TO NORMAL TISSUES
39. Regarding tumors: TUMORS HAVE CAPACITY TO REPOPULATE ESPECIALLY DURING A
SHORTENED COURSE OF RADIATION THERAPY, CONTROL RATE WITH RADIATION
DECREASES BY ABOUT 1.5% PER DAY EXTENSION IF THERE IS NO ADJUSTMENT IN
TOTAL DOSE, MALIGNANCY IS CONSIDERED IN TUMORS WHEN THESE LESIONS
ENHANCE
40. Fractionating total radiation dose: INCREASE THE THERAPEUTIC RATIO
41. A diagnostic procedure: PFNB
42. May be used for therapeutic planning: PFNB
43. Can be done under CT, ultrasound or fluoroscopic guidance: PFNB
44. The following maybe used as guidance modality for Percutaneous Fine Needle Biopsy:
ULTRASOUND, CT SCAN, FLUOROSCOPY
45. Good for small lesions: RFA
46. RFA is good for lesions: <5 CM
47. Tissue is destroyed by RFA by: MITOCHONDRIAL LYSIS
48. In RFA, the cellular component which is simulated by the RF waves: MITOCHONDRIA
49. Causes mitochondrial overactivity: RFA
50. RFA destroys the lesion by: HEAT
51. The end result of the procedure is protein coagulation: RFA
52. This is a first step to PTBD: PTC
53. This non-invasive procedure had replaced PTC: MRCP
54. A palliative interventional procedure: PTBD
55. May be used as a conduit of brachytherapy: PTBD
56. Usually done in obstructive jaundice: PTBD
57. Maybe internal or external: PTBD
58. In PTBD, an external drainage is: WHEN THE CATHETER IS UNABLE TO BYPASS THE
OBSTRUCTION
59. May be used to introduce antibiotic therapy which facilitates better effect:
PERCUTANEOUS ABSCESS CATHETER DRAINAGE
60. Late proliferating or non-proliferating tissues: SPINAL CORD
61. Rapidly proliferating tissues: SKIN, ORAL MUCOSA, BONE MARROW
62. Alcohol ablation is through: DIRECT TUMORAL INFUSION
63. Intent is to totally eradicate tumor: CURATIVE
64. Early stage cancer: CURATIVE
65. To improve quality of life only: PALLIATIVE
66. To relieve obstruction: PALLIATIVE
67. To stop bleeding: PALLIATIVE
68. PFNB: DIAGNOSTIC
69. PTBD: PALLIATIVE
70. Percutaneous Cholecystostomy: PALLIATIVE
71. External Beam Radiation: PALLITATIVE AND CURATIVE
72. Brachytherapy: PALLIATIVE AND CURATIVE
73. RFA: THERAPEUTIC
74. Percutaneous abscess/drainage: THERAPEUTIC
75. Percutaenous alcohol ablation: THERAPEUTIC
76. PTC: DIAGNOSTIC AND THERAPEUTIC
77. PTC uses this contrast medium: WATER SOLUBLE CONTRAST MEDIA
78. PTC is the best way to diagnose: CAUSE OF JAUNDICE
79. Part of the post-ablation syndrome: LOW-GRADE FEVER, PAIN, LOSS OF APPETITE
80. This can show the most number of metastatic lesions utilizing contrast enhanced study:
NUCLEAR SCINTIGRAPHY
81. A benign ultrasound feature of thyroid nodule: WELL-MARGINATED
82. This is the main mechanism in contrast enhancement of tumors: NEOVASCULARIZATION
WITH CAPILLARIES DO NOT HAVE THE COMPLETE BBB
83. Cancer cells are known to repopulate rapidly especially during the fourth week of
radiation therapy. Hence, it is important to avoid treatment interruptions during this
time. This phenomenon is known as: ACCELERATED REPOPULATION