General Anatomy, Physiology and Histology, a.

masseter
Oral Anatomy, Physiology and Histology, b. temporalis
General Pathology, Microbiology, Restorative c. medial pterygoid
Dentistry and Community Dentistry (DAY 1) d. buccinators
8. incomplete fusion of 2 lobes of a tooth
1. Vertebral artery passes to the will result to a
transverse foramen of a. groove
a. all cervical vertebra b. fissure
b. c2 to c6 c. fossa
c. c1 to c5 d. sulcus
d. c1 to c6 9. cells responsible for humoral immunity
2. Junction of the parietal, sphenoid, a. T cells
frontal and temporal bone is b. B cells
a. nasion c. neutrophils
b. asterion d. basophils
c. pterion 10. complement proteins bind to
d. gonion a. antigens epitope
3. Movement of superior oblique muscle b. F positive
of the eye c. antibodies epitope
a. Superiorly and laterally d. Fc receptor
b. inferiorly and laterally 11. During histodifferentiation stage of the
c. Superiorly and medially tooth, ameloblast came from what
d. Inferiorly and medially structure of the enamel organ?
4. It is responsible for the generation of a. Inner enamel epithelium
motor signals for the muscles of the b. stellate reticulum
larynx, tongue, cheeks and lips during c. stratum intermedium
speech d. outer enamel epithelium
a. pre-central gyrus 12. It is the organ in the body that needs
b. post-central gyrus iodine to function
c. wernickes area a. thyroid gland
d. brocas area b. pituitary gland
5. These are the cells responsible for the c. adrenal gland
production of intrinsic factor, which is d. parathyroid gland
responsible for the absorption of 13. Normal oral saliva pH
vitamin B12. a. 7.35 7.45
a. Parietal cells b. 6.2 7.0
b. Ileum c. 0.7 1.2
c. Chief cells d. 5.5 to 5.7
d. None of the above 14. premolars are found _______ in
6. One of the most potent vasoactive relation to the roots of the primary
amines that causes vasodilation is molar teeth
a. Gamma amino butyric acid a. facial
b. Serotonin b. lingual
c. epinephrine c. within the furcation
d. Histamine d. outside the furcation
7. Before the stensens duct exit opposite e. none of the above
the maxillary 2nd molar, it penetrates 15. bread and butter disease
what muscle? a. cardiac tuberculosis
 b. acute endocarditis a. carbide
c. rheumatic heart fever b. diamond burs
d. fibrinoid pericarditis c. hand cutting instruments
16. Nerve responsible for the motor activity d. aluminum oxides
during gag reflex 24. temporomandibular joint is innervated
a. CN IX and X by:
b. CN IX a. IAN
c. CN X b. Facial neve
d. no cranial nerves are involve c. Long buccal
17. causative agent of rubeola d. Auriculotemporal nerve
a. coxsackie virus 25. Decalcification of enamel is associated
b. orthomyxovirus in what salivary pH?
c. togavirus a. 5.5
d. paramyxovirus b. 7.0
18. this is also known as sweat rash that c. 6.2
is common during summer d. 7.5
a. Morphea 26. Which of the following is not a function
b. Miliaria of blood platelets?
c. Seborrhea a. Retracting clot
d. Syringioma b. Defending the body against
19. Marie-Strumpell disease affects what bacterial infection
part of the body? c. Forming a patch in the damaged
a. Kidney
blood vessels
b. Liver
d. Transporting chemicals important in
c. Spine
d. Large intestine blood clotting
20. Hypomineralized enamel that extend 27. Which nerve comes out from the
from DEJ towards the surface of the incisive canal?
tooth a. Infraorbital nerve
a. enamel tufts b. Incisive nerve
b. enamel lamellae c. Nasopalatine nerve
c. enamel spindle d. Incisive and nasopalatine nerve
d. bands of hunter-schreger 28. The foramen cecum is ___, except:
21. production of F+ plasmid is seen in a. At the large intestine
a. Binary fission b. At the v-shaped row of
b. Conjugation
circumvallate papillae
c. Transduction
c. Embryonic origin of the thyroid
d. Transformation
gland
22. McConkey Test is used in microbiology
to identify specifically d. Passage of the emissary vein
a. Gram (+) bacillus 29. A permanent change in a cells DNA
b. Gram (-) lactose fermenters that affects the nucleotide sequence of
c. Herpesviridae one or more genes:
d. microorganism with mycolic a. Translation
acid b. Transcription
23. Material used to produce the most c. Oxidation
desirable finish in a composite d. Mutation
restoration is known as
30. A developmental anomaly 38. The surrounding structures of teeth
common to premolars which shows a together with its connective tissue
tubercle at the occlusal surface of a component is derived from what
tooth with pulpal tissue. structure?
a. Turners tooth a. Ectoderm
b. Leongs tooth b. Mesoderm
c. Mulbery tooth c. Endoderm
d. Hutchinsons tooth d. Neural crest cells
31. Which is not a secretion of adrenal 39. Structure where you can find synovial
cortex fluid
a. Cortisol a. Symphysial joints
b. Sex hormones b. Bursae
c. Aldosterone c. Sutural joints
d. Adrenalin d. Synchondrosis
32. Which nerve is not fond in the 40. All of the following are found in chronic
ptergomandibular space infections, except
a. Lingual nerve a. Neutrophils
b. Long buccal nerve b. Lymphocytes
c. Mylohyoid nerve c. Macrophage
d. IAN d. Plasma cells
33. Pterygomandibular raphe is composed 41. The junction of occipital and sphenoid
of buccinator and _____ in the cranial base is a type of what
a. Superior pharyngeal constrictor joint
b. Mylohyoid a. Syndesmosis
c. Masseter b. Synchondrosis
d. Medial pterygoid c. Symphysis
34. We have _____ pairs of true ribs d. Sutures
a. 14 42. Which of the following muscles is
b. 5 responsible for mouth opening
c. 12 a. Posterior belly of digastric
d. 7 b. Suprahyioid
35. Calcitonin is a secretion c. Medial pterygoid
a. Pituitary gland d. Laryngeal muscles
b. Parathyroid gland 43. All diseases are similar to leukoplakia,
c. Thyroid gland exept
d. Adrenal gland a. Thrush
36. These cells are capable of defending the b. Lichen planus
intestines against pathogens c. Psoriasis
a. G cells d. Erythema multiforme
b. Crypts of Lieburkuhn 44. Most common benign tumor of the
c. Chief cells parotid gland
d. Paneth cells a. Squamous cell carcinoma
37. Chemical mediator of nerve impulses b. Benign lymphoepithelial
a. Sodium and phosphate lymphomatosum
b. Vitamin B complex c. Mixed tumor
c. Calcium and phosphorus d. Papillary cystadenoma
d. Iron lymphomatosum
45. Most common tumor of the salivary c. Plasmodium
gland d. Actinomyces
a. Squamous cell carcinoma 53. Before crown cementation, all of the
b. Benign lymphoepithelial following substances can cause pulpal
lymphomatosum irritation when applied to the tooth,
c. Mixed tumor except
d. Warthins tumor a. Alcohol
46. Mole with the highest rate of malignant b. Phenol
transformation c. Eugenol
a. Compound mole d. Varnish
b. Blue nevus 54. This process is used for dairy milk
c. Junctional nevus product preservation
d. Intradermal moles a. Dry heat sterilization
47. Rosenthal syndrome is associated with b. Moist heat sterilization
a. Paralysis of the facial muscles c. Pasteurization
b. Tinnitus of unknown cause d. Refrigeration
c. Mild tic douloureux 55. A deficiency in this hormone secreted
d. None of the above by the islets of Langerhans will result to
48. This is also known as osteitis fibrosa elevation of blood glucose levels
cystica a. Glucagon
a. Von recklinghausens disease of b. Amylase
the bone c. Lipase
b. Hypoparathyroidism d. Insulin
c. Pagets disease of the bone 56. Lining of globullomaxillary cyst
d. Cystic fibrosis a. Pseudostratified columnar
49. Basket cells are found in epithelium with goblet cels
a. Sweat glands b. Columnar ciliated epithelium
b. Sebaceous glands c. Cuboidal epitheium
c. Ceruminous glands d. Stratified squamous
d. Salivary glands 57. 5-Fluorouracil is an example of
50. Bence jones proteins found in the urine a. Antiresoptive
is a characteristic of b. Antimetabolite
a. Stills disease c. Anticariogenic
b. Plasma cell myeloma d. Antifungal
c. Post streptococcal 58. Which of the following is associated
glomerulonephritis with patients with AIDS
d. Pagets disease of the bone a. Squamous cell carcinoma
51. Most common site of mucoepidermoid b. Ewings sarcoma
carcinoma of the oral cavity c. Kaposis sarcoma
a. Upper lip d. Pyogenic granuloma
b. Lower lip 59. This is the accumulation of sebaceous
c. Buccal mucosa glands in the oral mucous membranes
d. Posterolateral corner of the a. Fordyces spots
tongue b. Bohns nodules
52. Microorganism that is classified as c. Koplik spots
bacteria and fungi is known as d. Nevus
a. Histoplasmosis 60. Yellowish-whitish cyst found at the
b. Amoebiasis palatal area of newborns
 a. Bohns nodules 68. Chaiari malformation is a disease of
b. Epulis fissuratum of the what organ
newborn a. Brain
c. Inflammatory papillary b. Liver
hyperplasia c. Heart
d. Epstein pearls d. Kidney
61. A type of malignancy that behaves just 69. Typical size of microorganism is
like a benign tumor a. 3 to 5 microns
a. Melanoma b. 0.5 to 2 microns
b. Squamous cell carcinoma c. 6 to 8 microns
c. Adenocarcinoma of the d. 8 to 10 microns
mammary glands 70. It is the organ that is affected in
d. Basal cell carcinoma patients with Weils disease
62. Benign tumor of glands a. Lungs
a. Adenoma b. Liver
b. Rhabdomyoma c. Brain
c. Glandoma d. Bladder
d. Papilloma 71. Dead tracts are
63. The most radiosensitive among the a. Part of tooth with necrotic pulp
following tumors is b. Sclerotic dentin
a. Adenoma of the large intestine c. Dentin and enamel
b. Bronchogenic carcinoma demineralization
c. Hodgkins Lymphoma d. Degenerated odontoblastic
d. Adenocarcinoma of the thyroid processes
64. Diabetes insipidus affects what organ 72. Pit and fissure sealants are made up
a. Pancreas mainly of
b. Kidney a. Unfilled resins
c. Liver b. Filled resins
d. Pituitary gland c. Silicate cement
65. The process wherein white blood cells d. Zoe
move across the endothelial wall during 73. the most effective way for preventing
injury. dental caries is
a. Anachoreisis a. Daily toothbrushing
b. Emperipolesis b. Controlled diet
c. Diapedesis c. Systemic application of fluoride
d. Chemotaxis d. OP
66. Descemets membrane is found in what 74. In a 3-unit formula the 2nd number is
organ a. Blade length
a. Kidney b. Blade width
b. Eyes c. Blade angle
c. Thyroid d. Cutting edge anle
d. Lungs 75. Most common cause of gingivitis
67. RNA is mainly found in what part of the a. Pregnancy
cell? b. Vitamin C deficiency
a. Only in the nucleus c. Imbalance occlusion
b. Only in the cytoplasm d. Local factors
c. Both cytoplasm and nucleus 76. Retention of filled resins comes
d. Nucleolus and cytoplasm a. Chemical bonding
 b. Frictional retention of walls c. Brittle
c. Micromechanical undercuts d. Tough
d. All of the above 83. Sodium fluoride for topical fluoride
77. In patients with early childhood caries, application has a common
the first tooth affected is concentration of
a. Cervical of permanent maxillary a. 0.2%
central incisors b. 1.25
b. Mandibular permanent central c. 2%
incisors d. 8%
c. Maxillary 1st molars 84. It is the impression material with the
d. Primary maxillary incisors longest shelf life
78. The best way to prevent warpage of a. Polysulfide
patterns is b. A silicones
a. Invest anytime c. ZOE
b. Invest within 12 hrs d. Polyether
c. Before investing, soak in water 85. Which of the following is true about
to prevent dimensional change carbide burs
d. Invest immediately a. More cutting blades will result
79. Best treatment for patients with dental to less efficiency in cutting
phobia is b. Less cutting blades will result to
a. Hypnotize the patient before more cutting efficiency
treatment c. More cutting blades will
b. Psychological treatment produce a smoother surface
c. Prevent dental problems d. All of the above
d. Premedication with sedatives 86. Primary prevention refers to
80. During cavity preparation of a a. Preventive measures before the
permanent teeth with an open apex, onset of disease
you minimally exposed the pulp in a b. Preventive measures following
clean dry field. Treatment of choices is the onset of disease
a. Pulpotomy c. Removal of existing disease
b. Pulpectomy together with repair of
c. Apexification damages
d. Direct pulp capping d. Complete rehabilitation of
81. Between a child and an old adult who is patient
always exposed to radiation, which of 87. Mechanical wear
the following is true? a. Attrition
a. Both of them have equal b. Abrasion
susceptible to damage from the c. Erosion
radiation d. Abfration
b. The child is more susceptible to 88. The point when the scores are divided
damage into 2 equal parts is called
c. The adult is more susceptible a. Median
d. All is true b. Mode
82. The material with high compressive c. Mean
strength and low tensile strength will d. Variable
have be 89. During cavity preparation in enamel,
a. Resilient the patient experience sensitivity. This
b. Malleable is due to
 a. Nerves present in enamel b. Prophylactic odontotomy
b. Enamel lamellae c. Enameloplasty
c. Enamel spindles d. Cutting for immunity
d. Enamel tufts 98. The most common cause of lost
90. Dental epidemiology which measures dentition in adults is
tooth count a. Periodontitis
a. Tooth index b. Genetic problems
b. Gingival index c. Caries
c. Periodontal index d. Trauma
d. DMF index 99. Principal component of amalgam alloy
91. The retention form during class II a. Silver and palladium
amalgam preparation is placed in b. Silver and tin
a. Enamel c. copper and silver
b. Axial wall d. silver and zinc
c. Inside dentin 100. #169 Bur
d. Both enamel and dentin a. Tapered fissure bur
92. Depth of cavity preparation for b. Round bur
amalgam restoration is c. Pear shaped
a. 0.2 to 0.5mm in the enamel d. Wheel shaped
b. 1.0 to 1.5mm depth as long as it
does not cross the DEJ
c. 0.2 to 0.5mm beyond the DEJ of
the tooth
d. None of the above
93. The outline form of the cavity
preparation will depend on the extent
of the caries
a. True
b. False
94. High speed rotary instruments rotate at
speeds of
a. 20k to 50k RPM
b. 50k to 100k RPM
c. 100k to 200k RPM
d. 200k to 400k RPM
95. Gingival enlargement in child patients is
due to
a. Tooth eruption
b. Trauma
c. Drug induced
d. Inflammation
96. Population refers to
a. Living things
b. Samples
c. Galaxy
d. Universe
97. Extension for prevention is the same as
a. Outline form
 48. A
1. D 49. D
2. C 50. B
3. B 51. B
4. D 52. D
5. A 53. D
6. D 54. C
7. D 55. D
8. B 56. D
9. B 57. B
10. D 58. C
11. A 59. A
12. A 60. D
13. B 61. D
14. C 62. A
15. D 63. C
16. C 64. D
17. D 65. C
18. B 66. B
19. C 67. D
20. A 68. A
21. B 69. B
22. B 70. B
23. D 71. D
24. D 72. A
25. A 73. C
26. B 74. A
27. C 75. D
28. A 76. C
29. D 77. D
30. B 78. D
31. D 79. C
32. B 80. D
33. A 81. B
34. D 82. C
35. C 83. C
36. D 84. D
37. A 85. D
38. D 86. A
39. B 87. B
40. A 88. A
41. B 89. C
42. B 90. D
43. D 91. C
44. C 92. C
45. C 93. A
46. C 94. D
47. A 95. D
96. D
97. D
98. A
99. B
100. A