Ccna4 1210028403143928 8

CCNA 1 Networking Basics (Version 3.
1)
Module 1 Exam Answers
1. Several computers in the company require new NICs. A technician has located a good price on
the Internet for the purchase of these NICs. Before these NICs are purchased and installed, what
details must be verified? (Choose three.)
the MAC address on
the NICthe size of the RAM on the NIC
the bandwidth supported by the NIC
the type of media supported by the NIC
the type of network architecture supported by the NIC
2. What is the hexadecimal equivalent for the binary number 00100101?

15
20
25
30
37
40
3. Which phrases describe a byte? (Choose two.)

a single binary digit
+5 volts of electricity
the value range 0 to 127
a grouping of eight binary digits
a single addressable data storage location
4. Which specialized equipment is used to make a physical connection from a PC to a network?

router
RAM
CD ROM
network interface card
5. What is the binary equivalent for the decimal number 248?

11100000
11110000
11110100
11111000
6. Convert the binary number 01011011 into its hexadecimal equivalent.

Select the correct answer from the list below.
5A
5b
5c
5d
6b
7a
7. What is the binary equivalent for decimal number 149?

10010111
10010101
10011001
10010111
10101011
10101101
8. In an 8 bit binary number, what is the total number of combinations of the eight bits?
128
254
255
256
512
1024
9. Which device connects a computer with a telephone line by providing modulation and
demodulation of incoming and outgoing data?
NIC
CSU/DSU
router
modem
telco switch
10. What is the binary equivalent for the decimal number 162?
10101010
10100010
10100100
10101101
10110000
10101100
11. Which of the following are popular web browsers? (Choose two.)
Acrobat
Internet Explorer
Macromedia Flash
Netscape Navigator
Quicktime
World Wide Web
12. Convert the Base 10 number 116 into its eight bit binary equivalent. Choose the correct
answer from the following list:
01111010
01110010
01110100
01110110
01110111
01010110
13. What is the hexadecimal equivalent for the binary number 10001110?
22
67
142
AE
8E
14. Represented as a decimal number, what is the result of the logical ANDing of binary numbers
00100011 and 11111100?
3
32
35
220
255
15. Convert the decimal number 231 into its binary equivalent. Select the correct answer from
the list below.
11110010
11011011
11110110
11100111
11100101
11101110
16. What are three conditions that would require a network administrator to install a new NIC?
(Choose three.)
whenever a NIC is damaged
when there is a need to provide a secondary or backup NIC
when there is a change from copper media to wireless
whenever operating system security patches are applied
whenever the PC has been moved to a different location
1. Which layer of the OSI model provides network services to processes in electronic mail and
file transfer programs?
data link
transport
network
application
2. Which of the following are data link layer encapsulation details? (Choose two.)
A header and trailer are added.
Data is converted into packets.
Packets are packaged into frames.
Frames are divided into segments.
Packets are changed into bits for Internet travel.
3. Which three features apply to LAN connections? (Choose three.)

operate using serial interfaces
make network connection using a hub
limited to operation over small geographic areas
provide part-time connectivity to remote services
typically operate under local administrative control
provide lower bandwidth services compared to WANs
4. Which layer of the OSI model provides connectivity and path selection between two end systems
where routing occurs?
physical layer
data link layer
network layer
transport layer
5. Which term describes the process of adding headers to data as it moves down OSI layers?
division
encoding
separation
segmentation
encapsulation
6. Refer to the following list. Choose the correct order of data encapsulation when a device
sends information.
1. segments
2. bits
3. packets
4. data
5. frames
1 - 3 - 5 - 4 - 2
2 - 1 - 3 - 5 - 4
2 - 4 - 3 - 5 - 1
4 - 3 - 1 - 2 - 5
4 - 1 - 3 - 5 - 2
3 - 5 - 1 - 2 - 4
7. The central hub has malfunctioned in the network. As a result, the entire network is down.
Which type of physical network topology is implemented?
bus
star
ring
mesh
8. Which of the following are factors that determine throughput? (Choose two.)
types of passwords used on servers
type of Layer 3 protocol used
network topology
width of the network cable
number of users on the network
9. Which best describes the function of the physical layer?

Defines the electrical and functional specifications for the link between end systems.
Provides reliable transit of data across a physical link.
Provides connectivity and path selection between two end systems.
Concerned with physical addressing, network topology and media access.
10. Which of the following are ways that bandwidth is commonly measured? (Choose three.)
GHzps
kbps
Mbps
Nbps
MHzps
Gbps
11. Which of the following are layers of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)
Application
Physical
Internet
Network Access
Presentation
12. What is the term used to describe the transport layer protocol data unit?
bits
packets
segments
frames
data streams
13. What makes it easier for different networking vendors to design software and hardware that
will interoperate?
OSI model
proprietary designs
IP addressing scheme
standard logical topologies
standard physical topologies
14.
Refer to the exhibit. Which column shows the correct sequence of OSI model layers?
A
B
C
D
15. What is one advantage of defining network communication by the seven layers of the OSI
model?
It increases the bandwidth of a network.
It makes networking easier to learn and understand.
It eliminates many protocol restrictions.
It increases the throughput of a network.
It reduces the need for testing network connectivity.
16. Which two features apply to WAN connections? (Choose two.)

operate using serial interfaces
make network connection using a hub
limited to operation over small geographic areas
typically operate under local administrative control
provide lower bandwidth services compared to LANs
17. A switch has failed in the network. As a result, only one segment of the network is down.
Which type of physical network topology is implemented?
bus
ring
star
extended star
18.
Refer to the exhibit. Identify the devices labeled A, B, C, and D in the network physical
documentation.
A=bridge, B=switch, C=router, D=hub
A=bridge, B=hub, C=router, D=switch
A=bridge, B=router, C=hub, D=switch
A=hub, B=bridge, C=router, D=switch
1. What are two advantages of using UTP cable in a networking environment? (Choose two.)
is stiffer than STP
is less expensive than fiber
is easier to install than coaxial
provides longer distances than coaxial provides
is less susceptible to outside noise sources than fiber is
2. What are two advantages of using fiber-optic cabling instead of UTP? (Choose two.)
lower cost
easer to install
allows longer distances
less effected by external signals
easier to terminate the cable ends
3. What is the difference between a wireless NIC and an Ethernet NIC?

The Ethernet NIC operates at 100 Mbps, whereas a wireless NIC operates at 10 Mbps.
The Ethernet NIC uses a PCI expansion slot, and a wireless NIC cannot use an expansion slot.
The wireless NIC uses CSMA/CA, whereas a Ethernet NIC uses token passing as an access method.
The wireless NIC associates to an access point, and an Ethernet NIC attaches to a hub or
switch using a cable.
The Ethernet NIC attaches to a hub or a switch using only fiber cabling, and a wireless NIC
attaches to a wireless antenna using air as a network medium.
4. Which wireless standard operates in the 5 GHZ transmission range and is capable of 54 Mbps of
data throughput?
802.11
802.11a
802.11b
802.11g
5. A company is converting a cabled LAN to a wireless Ethernet LAN. What must be changed on
every host on the network?
No changes are required.
Each host will require a new IP address.
Each host will require an appropriate NIC or adapter.
Each host will require that the operating system be upgraded.
6.
Refer to the exhibit. Which answer correctly identifies the pinout of the UTP cables labeled
Cable A, Cable B, and Cable C?
A=straight, B=rollover, C=crossover
A=rollover, B=crossover, C=straight
A=crossover, B=straight, C=straight
A=crossover, B=straight, C=rollover
A=straight, B=crossover, C=rollover
A=rollover, B=straight, C=crossover
7. What factors should be considered when selecting the appropriate cable for connecting a PC to
a network? (Choose two.)
type of system bus
motherboard model
distance of cable run
speed of transmission
computer manufacturer
8. Which Ethernet implementation requires the signal on the media to be boosted at a maximum
distance of 100 meters?
10BASE2
10BASE5
100BASE-T
100BASE-FX
1000BASE-CX
9. When is a straight-through cable used in a network?

when configuring a router
when connecting a host to a host
when connecting a switch to a router
when connecting one switch to another switch
10. What type of cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between a host and a LAN switch?
console
rollover
crossover
straight-through
11. Which of the following are used for data communication signals? (Choose three.)
light patterns
electrical voltages
controlled air pulses
mixed media impulses
magnetized fluid wave
modulated electromagnetic waves
12. What does UTP cable rely on to reduce signal degradation caused by EMI and RFI?
shielding
magnetism
cancellation
insulation
properly grounded connections
RJ-45 connectors
13. Select the characteristics specified by 10BaseT. (Choose three.)

twisted pair cable
T style connectors
baseband transmission
10 gigabits per second data rate
10 megabits per second data
decimal encoded data transmission
14.
Refer to the exhibit. What type of cable connects the two routers together without any
intermediary device?
console
rollover
crossover
straight-through
15. Which cable connectors are used to connect a cable from a router's console port to a PC?
(Choose two.)
RJ-11
RJ-12
RJ-45
DB-8
DB-9
DB-10
1. To ensure reliable LAN communications, what should a technician be looking for when attaching
connectors to the ends of UTP cable?
that the white-orange/orange pair is attached first
That the wire pairs remain twisted as much as possible
that one end of the shield is properly ground but not the other
that 50 ohm termination resistors are on both ends
2. Which of the following describes frequency?

length of each wave
height of each wave
number of cycles each second
amount of time between each wave
3. How are binary ones and zeros represented in fiber optic installations? (Choose two.)
+5 volts/-5 volts
0 volts/5 volts
light/no light
high to low electrical transition
low to high electrical transition
increasing/decreasing light intensity
4. What is expected when crosstalk is present in networks with higher transmission frequencies?
(Choose two.)
jitter
increase in crosstalk
higher signal attenuation
increases in cancellation effect
destruction of more of the data signal
5. A small company is experiencing difficulties on its LAN. After performing some tests, a
technician has determined that the copper media supporting the LAN is experiencing abnormal
attenuation. What are two possible causes of the problem? (Choose two.)
defective connectors
excessively long cable lengths
use of higher grade cabling
low frequency signals used in the media
network cable runs isolated from other cables
6. What factors need to be considered to limit the amount of signal attenuation in Ethernet
cable runs? (Choose two.)
type of users
number of users
length of cable
type of electrical equipment
installation of connectors on the cable
7. What conditions are described when transmission signals from one wire pair affects another
wire pair? (Choose two.)
noise
resistance mismatch
jitter
crosstalk
attenuation
8. What is a cause of crosstalk in UTP cable?

cable pairs that are shorted
cable pairs crossed during termination
cabling runs installed in separate conduit
cable pairs that are untwisted because of poor termination of the cable
9. Which of the following are detected by the wire map test? (Choose three.)
near-end crosstalk (NEXT)
opens
propagation delay
return loss
reversed-pair faults
short circuits
10. A company needs to extend the LAN to six separate buildings. To limit the amount of signal
attenuation on the LAN media, what type of media would be the best to use between the buildings?
air (wireless)
coaxial cable
fiber
shielded twisted pair
unshielded twisted pair
1.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the appropriate cable to use at each of the numbered network
connections?
1-crossover; 2-straight-through; 3-crossover; 4-straight-through
1-straight-through; 2-crossover; 3-straight-through; 4-straight-through
1-straight-through; 2-crossover; 3-crossover; 4-straight-through
1-rollover; 2-crossover; 3-straight-through; 4-straight-through
1-rollover; 2-straight-through; 3-straight-through; 4-straight-through
2. Which two devices are considered OSI Layer 1 devices? (Choose two.)
hubs
routers
bridges
switches
repeaters
3. What device is used to connect hosts to an Ethernet LAN and requires a straight-through UTP
cable between the hosts and this device?
NIC
router
switch
server
4. What is the most common type of cabling used in LANs?

STP
UTP
coax
fiber
5. In which situations would a crossover cable be used to connect devices in a network? (Choose
two.)
switch to PC
switch to hub
switch to router
switch to server
switch to switch
6.
Refer to the exhibit. How many collision domains exist in the network?
1
2
4
7
8
7. What type of cable would be used to make the connection between the console port of a router
and a workstation?
crossover
rollover
straight-through
patch
8.
Which function is a unique responsibility of the DCE devices shown in the exhibit?
transmission of data
reception of data
clocking for the synchronous link
noise cancellation in transmitted data
9. Which address does a bridge use to make filtering and switching decisions?
source MAC
source IP
destination MAC
destination IP
network IP address
10. What is characteristic of how a hub operates?

A hub selectively drops packets that represent potential security risks.
A hub forwards data out all interfaces except the inbound interface.
A hub dynamically learns the interfaces to which all devices are attached.
At start up, a hub queries the devices on all interfaces in order to learn the MAC addresses
of the attached devices.
A hub transmits a frame to a specific interface based on the destination MAC address.
11. Users with systems that are attached to a hub are complaining about poor response time. What
device could replace the hub and provide immediate response time improvement?
router
switch
bridge
repeater
12. Which of the following are benefits of peer-to-peer networks? (Choose three.)
centralized security
easy to create
very scalable
no centralized equipment required
centralized administrator not required
centralized control of assets
13. Which statement is accurate about a WAN link?

The link transmits data serially.
The link uses a maximum distance of 100 meters.
The link uses the same transmission rate as all other WAN links use.
The link uses the same standardized connector style that is used for all WAN technologies.
14.
Which items in the exhibit are DTE devices?

A and B
B and C
C and D
A and D
A, B, C, and D
15. At which layer of the OSI model does the MAC address of a NIC reside?
physical
application
network
transport
data link
session
16.
Refer to the exhibit. A technician measured the lengths of the CAT 5e structured cable runs in
the exhibit. How should the technician evaluate the cabling shown in the diagram to the network
administrator?
All cabling to work areas are within specifications.
Station A and B may experience intermittent problems because the length exceeds the
recommended standard.
Station B may experience intermittent problems because the length exceeds the recommended
standard.
Station C may experience intermittent network connectivity because the length is less than the
recommended standard.
Station A and B will have intermittent problems because the length exceeds the recommended
standard.
Station C will not have network connectivity because the length is less than the recommended
standard.
17. Which statement describes a typical use of Gigabit Ethernet?

to provide high-speed desktop connectivity for average users
to provide connectivity to low to medium volume applications
to provide medium volume connectivity to workgroup servers
to provide high-speed connectivity for backbones and cross connects
18.
The ends of a UTP cable are shown in the exhibit. Which cable configuration is shown?
crossover
rollover
reversed-pair
straight-through
split-pair
console
19.
The ends of a UTP cable are shown in the exhibit. Which cable configuration is shown?
console
crossover
rollover
reversed-pair
split-pair
straight-through
20. Which of the following are benefits of a wireless network? (Choose two.)
higher data speeds
better security
mobility
less expensive NIC cards
no need to run cables to hosts
1.
Refer to the exhibit. Host A is communicating with host F. What happens to a frame sent from
host A to host F as it travels over the Ethernet segments?
The frame format is modified as it passes through each switch.
The frame format remains the same across each Ethernet segment.
The frame format is modified as the media speed changed at switch B and switch E.
The frame format is modified as the media material changes between copper and fiber at switch
C and switch D.
2. How many hexadecimal digits are in a MAC address?

2
8
12
16
32
3. What are three functions of a NIC in a PC? (Choose three.)

A NIC connects the PC to the network media.
A NIC detects collisions on the Ethernet segment.
A NIC checks the formatting of data before it is transmitted.
A NIC passes the contents of selected frames to the upper OSI layers.
A NIC acknowledges and retransmits data that was not received properly.
A NIC discards frames when the destination IP address does not match the local host.
4. At what layer of the OSI model does a MAC address reside?

1
2
3
4
7
5. A router has an Ethernet, Token Ring, serial, and ISDN interface. Which interfaces will have
a MAC address?
serial and ISDN interfaces
Ethernet and Token Ring interfaces
Ethernet and ISDN interfaces
Token Ring and serial interfaces
6. In an Ethernet LAN, how does the NIC know when it can transmit data?
An Ethernet NIC transmits data as soon as the frame is received.
An Ethernet NIC transmits data as soon as the NIC receives a token.
An Ethernet NIC transmits data when it senses a collision.
An Ethernet NIC transmits data after listening for the absence of a signal on the media.
7. Which characteristics describe carrier sense multiple access collision detect (CSMA/CD)?
(Choose three.)
reliable
point-to-point
nondeterministic
connection-oriented
collision environment
first-come, first-served approach
8. Which two devices can provide full-duplex Ethernet connections? (Choose two.)
hub
modem
repeater
NIC
Layer 2 switch
9. On a local area network, one workstation can send data on the line while it is receiving
data. What type of data transfer does this describe?
hybrid
half duplex
full duplex
multilink
10.
Refer to the exhibit. The small office network shown in the exhibit consists of four computers
connected through a hub. Which configuration would cause collisions and errors on the network?
autonegotiation
FastEthernet
peer-to-peer shared resources
administratively configured full duplex
11.
Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex
operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?
No collisions will occur on this link.
Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.
The switch will have priority for transmitting data.
The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.
12.
Refer to the exhibit. All hosts are in listen mode. Host 1 and Host 4 both transmit data at the
same time. How do the hosts respond on the network? (Choose two.)
Hosts 1 and 4 may be operating full duplex so no collision will exist.
The hub will block the port connected to Host 4 to prevent a collision.
After the end of the jam signal, Hosts 1, 2, 3, and 4 invoke a backoff algorithm.
Hosts 1 and 4 are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the
media.
If a host has data to transmit after the backoff period of that host, the host checks to
determine if the line is idle, before transmitting.
13. When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit
respond after the backoff period has expired?
The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode.
The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data.
The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames.
The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission.
14. Which statement describes how CSMA/CD on an Ethernet segment manages the retransmission of
frames after a collision occurs?
The first device to detect the collision has the priority for retransmission.
The device with the lowest MAC address determines the retransmission priority.
The devices on the network segment hold an election for priority to retransmit data
The devices transmitting when the collision occurs DO NOT have priority for retransmission.
15.
Refer to the exhibit. A technician wants to increase the available bandwidth for the workstation
by allowing the switch and the NIC on the workstation to transmit and receive simultaneously.
What will permit this?
CSMA/CD
full-duplex
FastEthernet
crossover cable
16. Why do hosts on an Ethernet segment that experience a collision use a random delay before
attempting to transmit a frame?
A random delay is used to ensure a collision-free link.
A random delay value for each device is assigned by the manufacturer.
A standard delay value could not be agreed upon among networking device vendors.
A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision during the
transmission.
17. In which two layers of the OSI model does Ethernet function? (Choose two.)
application
session
transport
network
data link
physical
18. Which of the following are specified by IEEE standards as sublayers of the OSI data link
layer? (Choose two.)
Logical Link Control
Logical Layer Control
Media Access Control
Logical Link Communication
Media Access Communication
Physical Access Communication
19. Where does the MAC address originate?

DHCP server database
configured by the administrator
burned into ROM on the NIC card
network configuration on the computer
included in the creation of the processor chip
1. Which Ethernet standard does the IEEE 802.3 standard recommend for backbone installations?
10BASE-T
100BASE-T
100BASE-FX
1000BASE-LX
2. Which statements describe Gigabit Ethernet technology? (Choose two.)

operates at 100 Mbps
typically used for backbone cabling
requires shielded twisted-pair cabling
can be implemented over copper and fiber
primarily used between workstations option
3. Which of the following are Fast Ethernet technologies? (Choose two.)

100BASE-5
100BASE2
1000BASE-F
100BASE-FX
100BASE-TX
4. To make sure timing limitations are not violated when implementing a 10 Mbps Ethernet network
involving hubs or repeaters, a technician should adhere to which rule?
the 4-5-3 rule
the 6-4-2 rule
the 3-4-5 rule
the 5-4-3 rule
5. At which OSI layer do the differences between standard Ethernet, Fast Ethernet and Gigabit
Ethernet occur?
physical layer
data link layer
network layer
transport layer
6. How does 1000BASE-T use the UTP wire pairs to accomplish transmission?
two pairs are used to transmit and two pairs are used to receive
one pair is used to transmit, one pair is used to receive, one pair is used for clocking, and
one pair is used for error correction
all four pairs are used in parallel by both hosts to transmit and receive simultaneously
two pairs of wires are used as in 10BASE-T and 100BASE-TX
7. What RJ-45 pins are unused when transmitting and receiving data in an Ethernet 100BASE-T
Category 5 UTP cable? (Choose two.)
1 and 2
3 and 6
4 and 5
7 and 8
8. What is the maximum distance that 10BASE-T will transmit data before signal attenuation
affects the data delivery?
100 meters
185 meters
300 meters
500 meters
9. Which media types can be used in an implementation of a 10BASE-T network? (Choose three.)
Category 5 UTP
Category 5e UTP
Category 3 UTP
coaxial cable
multi-mode fiber
single mode fiber
10. Which of the following Ethernet technologies are considered legacy Ethernet? (Choose three.)
10BASE2
10BASE5
10BASE-T
100BASE-T
100BASE-FX
100BASE-TX
1. What is characteristic of the operation of a Layer 2 switch?

forwards data based on logical addressing
duplicates the electrical signal of each frame to every port
learns the port assigned to a host by examining the destination MAC address
uses the destination MAC address to determine the specific interface to forward a frame
2. Two newly hired technicians are discussing the implementation of a new LAN. One technician
proposes installing a hub. The other technician advises installing a switch. Which statements
are true about the differences between a hub and a switch? (Choose two.)
A hub operates at Layer 2 of the OSI model.
A hub reduces the number of collisions on a LAN.
A hub works at a higher OSI model layer than a switch.
A switch provides more throughput to hosts on a LAN
A switch provides a collision-free environment on a LAN.
The number of collisions on a LAN are the same whether a hub or a switch is used.
3.
Refer to the exhibit. Forty-eight workstations are connected to a hub. The users are able to
connect to the network, but access is very slow. An entry-level technician replaces the 10 Mbps
hub with 100 Mbps hub but the problem still exists. What is the most economical way to correct
the problem?
Replace the hub with a switch.
Replace the hub with a router.
Replace the hub with a 1 Gbps hub.
Replace the hub with a 10 Mbps fiber hub.
4.
Exhibited is a portion of ABC Company internetwork. Which of the connections can be full duplex?
segments 1 and 2
segment 2
segments 3 and 4
segments 2, 3, and 4
segments 1, 2, 3, and 4
5.
Refer to the exhibit. The switch and the hub have default configurations, and the switch has
built its CAM table. Which of the hosts will receive the data when workstation A sends a unicast
packet to workstation C?
workstation C
workstations B and C
workstations B, C, and the E0 interface of the router
workstations B, C, D, E, F, and the E0 interface of the router
6. An administrator would like to connect ten workstations on a 192.168.0.0/24 network. The

device selected by the administrator must allow connectivity between hosts without sharing
bandwidth. Which device would be appropriate?
hub
router
switch
repeater
7. Which networking devices use the MAC address to make forwarding decisions? (Choose two.)
NIC
bridge
hub
switch
repeater
8. Which devices are primarily used to extend cable segments within a collision domain by
regenerating the data signals? (Choose two.)
switch
repeater
router
bridge
hub
9. Which devices will create multiple collision domains in an Ethernet network? (Choose two.)
NIC
hub
switch
router
repeater
10.
Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast domains exist in classroom 240?
1
2
5
12
13
15
11. A PC receives a frame. Which situation will cause the NIC on the receiving host to pass the
frame contents up the OSI layers to be processed by the PC?
The frame is a runt frame.
The destination MAC address of the frame is FFFF.FFFF.FFFF.
The transmitting host generated a jam signal during the frame transmission.
The recalculated checksum for the frame does not match the FCS on the frame.
12. A network administrator has a multi-floor LAN to monitor and maintain. Through careful
monitoring, the administrator has noticed a large amount of broadcast traffic slowing the
network. Which device would you use to best solve this problem?
bridge
hub
router
transceiver
13. What will a bridge do if it receives a frame with a MAC address that is not within the
table?
discard frame
ignore frame
send frame to appropriate port
send frame to all ports except source port
14. Which networking device reduces the size of both collision domains and broadcast domains?
hub
Layer 2 switch
router
bridge
repeater
15. What is used to prevent Layer 2 switching loops?

bridging
segmentation
Address Resolution Protocol
Spanning-Tree Protocol
1. What are two facts about how ARP resolves an IP address to a MAC address? (Choose two.)
The originating host dynamically issues an arp a command to obtain the destination MAC
address.
The originating host broadcasts an ARP request packet and each host in a local network
receives this packet.
The originating host dynamically issues an icmp echo request command to obtain the destination
MAC address.
The host with the specified destination IP address sends an ARP reply packet containing its
MAC address back to the originating host.
The host with the specified destination IP address sends an icmp echo reply packet to the
originating host with its MAC address.
2. Which TCP/IP model layer supports both LAN and WAN technologies?
network access layer
internet layer
transport layer
application layer
3. What is the primary responsibility of the transport layer?

allows access to the network media
provides data representation and encoding
selects paths through the network for data to travel
defines end-to-end connectivity between host applications
4. What is the network broadcast address for a Class C address of 192.168.32.0 with the default
subnet mask?
192.168.0.0
192.168.0.255
192.168.32.0
192.168.32.254
192.168.32.255
5. Which two statements correctly describe the IP address 127.0.0.1? (Choose two.)
It belongs to the Class A range of addresses.
It belongs to the Class B range of addresses.
It belongs to the Class C range of addresses.
It is reserved for loopback testing.
It is reserved for multicast group testing.
It is reserved for unicast testing.
6.
Refer to the exhibit. The small office LAN shown in the exhibit may eventually be connected to
the Internet. According to Cisco best practice, which IP network addresses should be used?
12.0.0.0
172.0.0.0
172.168.0.0
192.32.17.0
192.168.67.0
225.1.5.0
7. Why is IP considered a best-effort protocol?

IP detects lost packets.
IP validates the content of the packets.
IP does not provide acknowledgment of the data delivery.
IP reorders the packet as they arrive at the destination host.
8. Which three addresses are considered to be private addresses? (Choose three.)

10.45.09.23
15.87.234.87
172.32.45.90
172.17.78.98
192.169.89.56
192.168.45.23
9.
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the information shown, which two statements are true? (Choose
two.)
An ARP request must be used to obtain an address that is placed in the ARP table.
Frames from other hosts in the network to this host will use a destination address of 00-06-
25-25-6e-5d.
The only remote locations that can be reached from this host are 192.168.1.97 and
192.168.1.254.
If a packet is sent to a network device other than 192.168.1.97 and 192.168.1.254, an ARP
request must be used.
If the computer with the IP address of 192.168.1.94 sends a packet to the device with the IP
address 192.168.1.97, no ARP request is required.
10.
Refer to the exhibit. Which devices are recommended to have the IP addresses manually
configured?
PC1 and PC2
all servers
only PC2 Laptop
all hosts and all servers
11. Why were private IP addresses developed?

to permit dynamic assignment of IP addresses
to permit the duplication of public IP addresses
to minimize the utilization of reserved IP addresses
to permit public IP addresses to be used in private networks
to address the issue of not enough available public IP addresses
12. Which subnet mask would be assigned to the network address of 192.168.32.0 to provide 254
useable host addresses per subnetwork?
255.255.0.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.248.0
13. When a host has an empty ARP cache, what is the next step the host will take to find the
destination MAC address of a remote host?
sends an ARP request as a unicast to the server
sends an ARP request as a unicast to the destination
sends an ARP request as a broadcast to all hosts in the local network
sends an ARP request as a unicast to the default gateway
14.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the Obtain an IP address automatically option shown
in the exhibit?
to configure the computer to use ARP
to configure the computer to use DHCP
to configure the computer to use a routing protocol
to configure the computer with a statically assigned IP address
15. How many usable hosts are available given a Class C IP address with the default subnet mask?
254
255
256
510
511
512
16. Which statement accurately describes public IP addresses?

Public addresses cannot be used within a private network.
Public IP addresses must be unique across the entire Internet.
Public addresses can be duplicated only within a local network.
Public IP addresses are only required to be unique within the local network.
Network administrators are free to select any public addresses to use for network devices that
access the Internet.
17. Which IPv4 class of addresses provides the most networks?

Class A
Class B
Class C
Class D
Class E
18. Which IPv4 class provides the highest number of host addresses per network?
Class A
Class B
Class C
Class D
Class E
19. What is the purpose of a DHCP server on a network?

to resolve MAC addresses to IP addresses
to resolve IP addresses to MAC addresses
to resolve host names to IP addresses
to assign IP addresses dynamically to hosts
to assign a MAC address to a host
20.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct in reference to the output shown? (Choose
two.)
The LAN segment is subnetted to allow 254 subnets.
The DNS server for this host is on the same subnet as the host.
The host automatically obtained the IP addresses 192.168.1.100.
The host received the IP address from the router on the local LAN segment.
The host is assigned an address of 00-50-8D-F1-EA-8D by the administrator.
Module 9/10 Exam Answers
1. What is the primary responsibility of the transport layer?

allows access to the network media
provides data representation and encoding
selects paths through the network for data to travel
defines end-to-end connectivity between host applications
2. Why is IP considered a best-effort protocol?

IP detects lost packets.
IP validates the content of the packets.
IP does not provide acknowledgment of the data delivery.
IP reorders the packet as they arrive at the destination host.
3. Which two statements correctly describe the IP address 127.0.0.1? (Choose two.)
It belongs to the Class A range of addresses.
It belongs to the Class B range of addresses.
It belongs to the Class C range of addresses.
It is reserved for loopback testing.
It is reserved for multicast group testing.
It is reserved for unicast testing.
4.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct in reference to the output shown? (Choose
two.)
The LAN segment is subnetted to allow 254 subnets.
The DNS server for this host is on the same subnet as the host.
The host automatically obtained the IP addresses 192.168.1.100.
The host received the IP address from the router on the local LAN segment.
The host is assigned an address of 00-50-8D-F1-EA-8D by the administrator.
5. Which three addresses are considered to be private addresses? (Choose three.)

10.45.09.23
15.87.234.87
172.32.45.90
172.17.78.98
192.169.89.56
192.168.45.23
6. What is the purpose of a DHCP server on a network?

to resolve MAC addresses to IP addresses
to resolve IP addresses to MAC addresses
to resolve host names to IP addresses
to assign IP addresses dynamically to hosts
to assign a MAC address to a host
7.
Refer to the exhibit. The small office LAN shown in the exhibit may eventually be connected to
the Internet. According to Cisco best practice, which IP network addresses should be used?
12.0.0.0
172.0.0.0
172.168.0.0
192.32.17.0
192.168.67.0
225.1.5.0
8.
Refer to the exhibit. Which devices are recommended to have the IP addresses manually
configured?
PC1 and PC2
all servers
only PC2 Laptop
all hosts and all servers
9.
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the information shown, which two statements are true? (Choose
two.)
An ARP request must be used to obtain an address that is placed in the ARP table.
Frames from other hosts in the network to this host will use a destination address of 00-06-
25-25-6e-5d.
The only remote locations that can be reached from this host are 192.168.1.97 and
192.168.1.254.
If a packet is sent to a network device other than 192.168.1.97 and 192.168.1.254, an ARP
request must be used.
If the computer with the IP address of 192.168.1.94 sends a packet to the device with the IP
address 192.168.1.97, no ARP request is required.
10. Which TCP/IP model layer supports both LAN and WAN technologies?
network access layer
internet layer
transport layer
application layer
11. Which subnet mask would be assigned to the network address of 192.168.32.0 to provide 254
useable host addresses per subnetwork?
255.255.0.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.248.0
12.
Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings host B. When R4 accepts the ping into the Ethernet interface,
what two pieces of header information are included? (Choose two.)
source IP address: 192.168.10.129
source IP address: BBBB.3333.5677
source MAC address: 5555.AAAA.6666
destination IP address: 192.168.10.33
destination MAC address: 9999.DADC.1234
13. What header address information does a router change in the information it receives from an
attached Ethernet interface before information is transmitted out another interface?
only the Layer 2 source address
only the Layer 2 destination address
the Layer 2 source and destination address
14.
Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot connect to the Internet. The host configuration is
shown in the exhibit. What are the two problems with this configuration? (Choose two.)
The host subnet mask is incorrect.
The host is not configured for subnetting.
The default gateway is a network address.
The default gateway is on a different network than the host.
The host IP address is on a different network from the Serial interface of the router.
15. An IP network address has been subnetted so that every subnetwork has 14 usable host IP
addresses. What is the appropriate subnet mask for the newly created subnetworks?
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248
255.255.255.252
16. A company is using a Class B IP addressing scheme and expects to need as many as 100
networks. What is the correct subnet mask to use with the network configuration?
255.255.0.0
255.255.240.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.192
17.
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the internetwork of LBMISS an
address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 mask. In order
to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for
configuring the new network. By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the
first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which
configuration should be entered into the IP server properties to get connectivity to the network
through the router?
IP address: 192.168.10.38 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 Default gateway: 192.168.10.39
18.
Refer to the exhibit. A technician is planning an addressing scheme for a branch office as shown
in the exhibit. What is the status of the intended network?
The configuration will work as planned.
The subnetwork mask of host A is incorrect.
The default gateway of host A is a network address.
The addresses on the router LAN interfaces are on the same subnetwork.
The IP address of host A is on a different subnetwork than the subnetwork that the Ethernet
router interface is on.
19.
Refer to the exhibit. After host 2 is connected to the switch on the LAN, host 2 is unable to
communicate with host 1. What is the cause of this problem?
The subnet mask of host 2 is incorrect.
Host 1 and host 2 are on different networks.
The switch needs an IP address that is not configured.
The router LAN interface and host 1 are on different networks.
The IP address of host 1 is on a different network than is the LAN interface of the router.
20.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is planning the addressing scheme for the LAN
using 172.25.14.0/26. The hosts are to be assigned addresses 172.25.14.1 172.25.14.25. The LAN
interface of the router is to be configured using 172.25.14.63 as the IP address. What would
describe this addressing scheme?
The LAN is being addressed properly.
The subnet that is being assigned is not a usable subnet address.
The router LAN interface is being assigned a broadcast address.
The subnet mask does not allow enough host addresses in a single subnet.
21. Which type of routing allows routers to adapt to network changes?

static routes
dynamic routing
only default routes
No routing is necessary.
22. How does a router decide where the contents of a received frame should be forwarded?
by matching destination IP addresses with networks in the routing table
by matching the destination IP address with IP addresses listed in the ARP table
by matching the destination MAC address with MAC addresses listed in the CAM table
by forwarding the frame to all interfaces except the interface on which the frame was received
23. What do switches and routers use to make forwarding decisions?

Switches and routers both use IP addresses.
Switches and routers use both MAC and IP addresses.
Switches use IP addresses. Routers use MAC addresses.
Switches use MAC addresses. Routers use IP addresses.
Switches use MAC and IP addresses. Routers use IP addresses.
24.
Refer to the exhibit. A newly hired technician is testing the connectivity of all hosts by
issuing a ping command. The technician notices that a default gateway is not configured on all
the hosts, but all hosts have connectivity between hosts, a fact which seems to confuse the
technician. How would you explain the connectivity to the technician?
The hosts are detecting the default gateway configured on the hub.
The hosts are all in one LAN, so default gateway information is not needed.
The hosts in the network only require that one host has a gateway configured.
The hosts in the network would only need a gateway if a switch replaces the hub.
The hosts are using broadcast to reach each other since no gateway is configured.
25. Given a host with the IP address 172.32.65.13 and a default subnet mask, to which network
does the host belong?
172.32.65.0
172.32.65.32
172.32.0.0
172.32.32.0
1. At which layer of the OSI model does the device reside that is functioning as the default
gateway for hosts on a network?
Layer 1
Layer 2
Layer 3
Layer 4
Layer 5
Layer 7
2. A company is planning to subnet its network for a maximum of 27 hosts. Which subnet mask
would provide the needed hosts and leave the fewest unused addresses in each subnet?
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.192
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248
3.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is planning the addressing scheme for the LAN
using 172.25.14.0/26. The hosts are to be assigned addresses 172.25.14.1 172.25.14.25. The LAN
interface of the router is to be configured using 172.25.14.63 as the IP address. What would
describe this addressing scheme?
The LAN is being addressed properly.
The subnet that is being assigned is not a usable subnet address.
The router LAN interface is being assigned a broadcast address.
The subnet mask does not allow enough host addresses in a single subnet.
4.
Refer to the exhibit. A student in the Cisco network class has designed a small office network
to enable hosts to access the Internet. What recommendation should the teacher provide to the
student in regards to the network design?
Replace the Layer 2 switch with a hub.
Replace the Layer 2 switch with a router.
Replace the Layer 2 switch with a bridge.
Replace the Layer 2 switch with a transceiver.
5. Which type of routing allows routers to adapt to network changes?

static routes
dynamic routing
only default routes
No routing is necessary.
6.
Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings host B. When R4 accepts the ping into the Ethernet interface,
what two pieces of header information are included? (Choose two.)
source IP address: 192.168.10.129
source IP address: BBBB.3333.5677
source MAC address: 5555.AAAA.6666
destination MAC address: 9999.DADC.1234
7. Given a host with the IP address 172.32.65.13 and a default subnet mask, to which network
does the host belong?
172.32.65.0
172.32.65.32
172.32.0.0
172.32.32.0
8. What header address information does a router change in the information it receives from an
attached Ethernet interface before information is transmitted out another interface?
9.
Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot connect to the Internet. The host configuration is
shown in the exhibit. What are the two problems with this configuration? (Choose two.)
The host is not configured for subnetting.
The default gateway is on a different network than the host.
The host IP address is on a different network from the Serial interface of the router.
10.
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the internetwork of LBMISS an
address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 mask. In order
to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for
configuring the new network. By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the
first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which
configuration should be entered into the IP server properties to get connectivity to the network
through the router?
11. How does a router decide where the contents of a received frame should be forwarded?
by matching destination IP addresses with networks in the routing table
by matching the destination IP address with IP addresses listed in the ARP table
by matching the destination MAC address with MAC addresses listed in the CAM table
by forwarding the frame to all interfaces except the interface on which the frame was received
12.
Refer to the exhibit. A newly hired technician is testing the connectivity of all hosts by
issuing a ping command. The technician notices that a default gateway is not configured on all
the hosts, but all hosts have connectivity between hosts, a fact which seems to confuse the
technician. How would you explain the connectivity to the technician?
The hosts are detecting the default gateway configured on the hub.
The hosts are all in one LAN, so default gateway information is not needed.
The hosts in the network only require that one host has a gateway configured.
The hosts in the network would only need a gateway if a switch replaces the hub.
The hosts are using broadcast to reach each other since no gateway is configured.
13. What do switches and routers use to make forwarding decisions?

Switches and routers both use IP addresses.
Switches and routers use both MAC and IP addresses.
Switches use IP addresses. Routers use MAC addresses.
Switches use MAC addresses. Routers use IP addresses.
Switches use MAC and IP addresses. Routers use IP addresses.
14.
Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources
on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause
of the problem?
The default gateway is a broadcast address.
The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.
15. How does subnetting provide some level of security in a network?

The number of switches must increase.
The collisions prevent the copying of data.
The broadcasts are contained within a subnet.
The number of host IP addresses is increased.
16.
Refer to the exhibit. After host 2 is connected to the switch on the LAN, host 2 is unable to
communicate with host 1. What is the cause of this problem?
The subnet mask of host 2 is incorrect.
Host 1 and host 2 are on different networks.
The switch needs an IP address that is not configured.
The router LAN interface and host 1 are on different networks.
The IP address of host 1 is on a different network than is the LAN interface of the router.
17. What is the purpose of a subnet mask in a network?

A subnet mask is not necessary when a default gateway is specified.
A subnet mask is required only when bits are borrowed on a network.
A subnet mask is used to determine in which subnet an IP address belongs.
A subnet mask is used to separate the 48-bit address into the OUI and the vendor serial
number.
18. Refer to the exhibit. A technician is planning an addressing scheme for a branch office as
shown in the exhibit. What is the status of the intended network?
The configuration will work as planned.
The subnetwork mask of host A is incorrect.
The default gateway of host A is a network address.
The addresses on the router LAN interfaces are on the same subnetwork.
The IP address of host A is on a different subnetwork than the subnetwork that the Ethernet
router interface is on.
19. What is the primary purpose of a routing protocol?

to propagate broadcast messages
to map IP addresses to MAC addresses
to switch traffic to all available interfaces
sharing network information between routers
20. Which statements describe Layer 2 and Layer 3 packet address changes as the packet traverses
from router to router? (Choose two.)
Layer 3 header is removed and replaced at every Layer 3 device.
Layer 2 and Layer 3 addresses do not change when the packet traverse.
Layer 3 source and destination addresses do not change when the packet traverse.
Layer 2 frame header and trailer are removed and replaced at every Layer 3 device.
Layer 2 source and destination addresses do not change when the packet travels.
21. Which type of routing uses manual entry of information and does not scale well in large
internetworks?
interior
exterior
static
dynamic
22. Company XYZ uses a network address of 192.168.4.0. It uses the mask of 255.255.255.224 to
create subnets. What is the maximum number of usable hosts in each subnet?
6
14
30
62
23. A company is using a Class B IP addressing scheme and expects to need as many as 100
networks. What is the correct subnet mask to use with the network configuration?
255.255.0.0
255.255.240.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.192
24. Which device would add security to a network by not forwarding broadcasts?
hub
router
switch
bridge
repeater
25. An IP network address has been subnetted so that every subnetwork has 14 usable host IP
addresses. What is the appropriate subnet mask for the newly created subnetworks?
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248
255.255.255.252
1 .Which port numbers are commonly assigned for FTP use? (Choose two.)
19
20
21
22
2 Which application layer protocol allows network devices to exchange management information?
SMTP
SNMP
FTP
TFTP
EIGRP
3 FTP provides a reliable, connection-oriented service for transferring of files. Which

transport layer protocol is used for data transfer when this service is being used?
TFTP
TCP
DNS
IP
UDP
4 TCP is referred to as connection-oriented. What does this mean?

TCP uses only LAN connections.
TCP requires devices to be directly connected.
TCP negotiates a session for data transfer between hosts.
TCP reassembles the data steams in the order that it is received.
5 What three pieces of information does the transport layer use to manage the communication of
separate data streams between hosts? (Choose three.)
port numbers
checksum values
authentication keys
sequence numbers
encryption algorithms
acknowledgment numbers
6 What does the http portion of the URL http://www.cisco.com/edu/ communicate to a web browser?
The web browser needs to locate the www server.
The address is located on a site whose name is http.
The web browser is notified as to which protocol to use.
The http portion represents the type of web browser that needs to be used.
7 When the receiving workstation detects an error in the data it has received, it does not
acknowledge receipt of the data. The source workstation retransmits the unacknowledged data.
Which layer of the OSI model supports this process of retransmission?
network
application
session
transport
8 What are the features of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP). (Choose three.)
no guaranteed delivery of datagrams
connection-oriented
provides reliable full-duplex data transmission
reliability provided by the application layer
connectionless
utilizes sliding windowing techniques
9 Which Application layer protocol is widely used to support resolving host names to IP
addresses?
FTP
SMTP
SNMP
DNS
HTTP
WWW
10 What is the purpose of TCP/UDP port numbers?

indicate the beginning of a three-way handshake
reassemble the segments into the correct order
identify the number of data packets that may be sent without acknowledgment
track different conversations crossing the network at the same time
11 If an application uses a protocol that exchanges data without using windowing or flow control
and must rely on higher layer protocols for reliability, which protocol and transfer methods are
being used?
UDP, connection-oriented
UDP, connectionless
TCP, connection-oriented
TCP, connectionless
12 Which protocol is used to transfer files from computer to computer but is considered
connectionless?
FTP
TFTP
SNMP
TCP
DHCP
13 Which layer of the OSI model can provide a connection-oriented, reliable data transfer
between two hosts?
Application
Presentation
Session
Transport
14 Which of the following are primary duties of the OSI transport layer? (Choose two.)
path determination
end-to-end connectivity
flow control
security control
data representation
encryption of data
15 Which protocol is used by e-mail servers to communicate with each other?

FTP
HTTP
TFTP
SMTP
POP
SNMP
CCNA 2 Router and Routing Basics (Version 3.1)
CCNA 2 - Module 1 Exam
1. Which of the following descriptions are true regarding the management connections on a Cisco
router? (Choose three.)
They are non-network connections.
They are used to connect the router to the rest of the production network.
They are synchronous serial ports.
They are used for initial router configuration.
They are asynchronous serial ports.
They are accessed using their assigned IP address.
2. The console port can be used for which of the following? (Choose three.)
debugging
password recovery
routing data between networks
troubleshooting
connecting one router to another
3. Which of the following describes the function of a WAN?

connects peripherals in a single location
connects multiple networks in a single building
provides connectivity on a LAN
provides connectivity over a large geographic area
4. An internetwork must include which of the following? (Choose three.)

switching
static addressing
IETF standardization
dynamic or static routing
consistent end-to-end addressing
5. ABC Company just purchased three new routers to start their company network. Which items are
needed to establish a terminal session between a PC and the router for the initial
configuration? (Choose three.)
straight-through cable
terminal emulation software
rollover cable
RJ-45 to DB-9 connector
V.35 cable
6.
Terminal emulation software, such as HyperTerminal, can be used to configure a router. Which of
the following HyperTerminal options shown in the graphic are correctly set to allow
configuration of a Cisco router? (Choose three.)
bits per second
data bits
parity
stop bits
flow control
7. Which of the following devices are used in the construction of a WAN? (Choose three.)
hubs
routers
communication servers
transceivers
modems
multi-port repeaters
8. Which of the following are functions of RAM? (Choose three.)

contains startup configuration file
stores routing table
holds fast switching cache
retains contents when power is removed
stores running configuration file
9. Why is a console connection to a router or switch preferred when troubleshooting? (Choose

two.)
can be accessed remotely
does not depend on network services
displays startup and error messages by default
does not require special components
10. Which basic components do a router and a standard desktop PC have in common? (Choose three.)
CPU
hard drive
input/output interfaces
keyboard
monitor
system bus
11. During the initial configuration of a 2600 series Cisco router, which cable is required for
connecting a PC to the console port?
twisted
crossover
rollover
straight
12. A router is composed of many internal components. Which of the following components stores a
copy of the router's configuration file?
metal-oxide memory
read only memory
flash memory
non-volatile random access memory
13. What contains the instructions that a router uses to control the flow of traffic through its
interfaces?
packet configuration
configuration files
flash memory
internal components
14. Several Ethernet hosts on a LAN need the gateway services of a Cisco 2500 series router.
Which of the following would be needed to physically connect a router to all of the hosts on the
LAN? (Choose two.)
a crossover cable between the transceiver on a router and a switch
crossover cables between a switch and hosts on a LAN
a straight-through cable between the auxiliary port on a router and a switch
a rollover cable between the console port on a router and a switch
straight-through cables between a switch and hosts on a LAN
a straight-through cable between the transceiver on a router and a switch
15. Which router component holds the configuration file when power is lost?
volatile random access memory
read only memory
non-volatile random access memory
flash memory
16. Which of the following layers of the OSI model are incorporated in WAN standards? (Choose
two.)
physical layer
application layer
transport layer
data link layer
session layer
17. Which of the following are true regarding router interfaces? (Choose three.)
provide temporary memory for the router configuration files
connect the router to the network for packet entry and exit
can be on the motherboard or a separate module
hold the IOS image
connect the router to LANs and WANs
18. Which of the following tasks can be accomplished through a management connection on a
router? (Choose three.)
troubleshooting problems
monitoring the system
capturing LAN data packets
configuring the router
routing data packets
19. What do routers use to select the best path for outgoing data packets?
ARP tables
bridging tables
routing tables
switching tables
20. Which of the following are functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.)

stores the routing table
retains contents when power is removed
stores the startup configuration file
contains the running configuration file
stores the ARP table
21. Select the statements that correctly describe flash memory in a 2600 series router? (Choose
two.)
holds the startup configuration by default
can be upgraded with single in-line memory modules
stores Cisco IOS software images
stores routing table information by default
maintains the only copy of an IOS image after the router is booted
1. Cisco IOS software is separated into two levels as a security feature. What are those two
levels? (Choose two.)
global
privileged
local
user
interface
2. When the router output is being viewed through a terminal program, which statements are true
regarding the --More-- prompt at the bottom of the router display? (Choose two.)
Press the Spacebar to display the next line.
Press the Spacebar to view the next screen.
Press the PgDn key to view the next screen.
Press the Enter key to display the next line.
Press the Enter key to view the next screen.
3. Which command takes precedence if the commands enable password and enable secret are both
configured on a router?
enable password
enable secret
Neither. They are both enabled.
Neither. They cancel each other out.
4. What baud rate needs to be configured on terminal emulation software to allow a connection to
the console port of a router?
2400
4800
9600
14200
38400
5. What information about the router and its startup process can be gathered from the output of
the show version command? (Choose three.)
the last restart method
the command buffer contents
the amount of NVRAM and FLASH used
the configuration register settings
the location from where the IOS loaded
6. Which keystroke is used to move to the beginning of a command line?

Ctrl-A
Ctrl-B
Esc-A
Esc-B
Ctrl-C
Ctrl-Z
7. What does the command sh? return as output if issued at the Router# prompt?
all show commands allowed in privileged mode
all commands beginning with the letters sh
an incomplete command error message
an invalid command error message
8. Which tasks can be accomplished by using the command history feature? (Choose two.)
View a list of commands entered in a previous session.
Recall up to 15 command lines by default.
Set the command history buffer size.
Recall previously entered commands.
Save command lines in a log file for future reference.
9. What information does the name of the IOS file provide to the network administrator? (Choose
three.)
the amount of NVRAM required to run the image
he hardware platform the image runs on
the various software platforms the image can run on
special features and capabilities of the image
the bandwidth supported by the IOS
where the image executes from and if it has been compressed
10. Which of the following is the correct flow of routines for a router startup?
load bootstrap, load IOS, apply configuration
load bootstrap, apply configuration, load IOS
load IOS, load bootstrap, apply configuration, check hardware
check hardware, apply configuration, load bootstrap, load IOS
11. Which tasks can be performed in the ROM monitor mode? (Choose two.)
recover from system failures
create startup configuration files
recover from lost passwords
configure IP addresses on all router interfaces
perform high level diagnostics
12. Which of the following statements concerning router interface modes are correct? (Choose
three.)
User EXEC mode provides commands to monitor router operation.
Privileged EXEC mode only provides commands to change or configure router operation.
Password protected configuration modes can be accessed from either user EXEC or privileged
EXEC modes.
On a router with the name Core1, the prompt indicating privileged EXEC mode is Core1#.
The command to enter privileged EXEC mode is Router# enable.
A username and password may be required to enter privileged EXEC mode.
13. Under what conditions does the router enter setup mode? (Choose three.)
immediately after issuing the command Router#erase start
after issuing the command Router#setup
during the initial configuration of a router
after deleting the backup configuration and reloading the router
after deleting the running configuration
14. A network administrator needs to configure a router. Which of the following connection
methods requires network functionality to be accessible?
console
AUX
Telnet
modem
15. After the active IOS image has been loaded into RAM from flash memory, which commands could
be used to display the file name of the active IOS? (Choose two.
Router# show IOS
Router# show flash
Router# show nvram
Router# show version
Router# show startup-config
Router# show running-config
16. What is the default sequence for loading the configuration file?
NVRAM, FLASH, ROM
FLASH, TFTP,CONSOLE
NVRAM, TFTP, CONSOLE
FLASH, TFTP, ROM
17. Which connection method can be used to perform the initial configuration of a router?
use a serial connection of a computer connected to the console port of a router
telnet to the router through a serial port
use a vty port through the Ethernet interface
use a modem connected to the AUX port of the router
18. Which keystrokes can be used to return to the privileged mode from the interface
configuration mode?
Ctrl-P
Ctrl-Shift-6, then X
Ctrl-Z
Esc
19.
Which of the following identifies the correct items needed to initially configure a router?
1) DB-9-to-RJ-45 on the PC's serial port
2) a straight through cable
3) the router's console port
1) PC's Ethernet port

2) a crossover cable
3) the router's Ethernet port

2) a rollover cable

2) a rollover cable

2) a rollover cable

2) a rollover cable
1. Why is it important to create standards for network consistency? (Choose three.)

reduces network complexity
increases unplanned downtime
limits unplanned downtime
increases bandwidth by regulating networking performance
limits events that may impact network performance
2. Select the recommended locations to save a running-config file. (Choose three.)

all network hosts
network server
floppy disk
TFTP server
server that is not on the network
3. Router names are associated with IP addresses. What is the name of the table that is created
by this association?
IP table
SAP table
ARP table
MAC table
HOST table
RARP table
4. Which commands display information about the IOS or configuration files stored in router
memory? (Choose three.)
Router# show ram
Router# show flash
Router# show hosts
Router# show history
Router# show startup-config
5.
The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands
must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose
three.)
Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0
Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown
Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.1 255.255.255.224
Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000
Sydney(config-if)# ip host Melbourne 201.100.53.2
6. What are the default settings for a serial interface? (Choose three.)
DTE
DCE
shutdown
no IP address
clock rate 56000
encapsulation ARPA
7. A network administrator wants to assure that any password that permits access to the
privileged EXEC mode is not shown in plain text in the configuration files. Which commands will
accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
Router(config)#enable cisco secret
Router(config)#enable cisco
Router(config)#service password-encryption
Router(config)#enable secret cisco
Router(config)#encrypt-all cisco
Router(config)#service encryption-password
8. What will be the response from the router after the command, "router(config)# hostname
portsmouth" is entered?
portsmouth#
portsmouth(config)#
invalid input detected
router(config-host)#
hostname = portsmouth
portsmouth#
? command not recognized

router(config)#
9. Select the correct sequence of commands that will configure "Engineering LAN" as the
interface description on the Ethernet0 interface.
Router# configure terminal
Router(config)# interface e0 description Engineering LAN

Router(config)# interface e0
Router(config-if)# description Engineering LAN

Router(config)# interface e0
Router(config-if)# interface description Engineering LAN

Router(config)# description Engineering LAN
10. Select the commands that will store the current configuration file to a network TFTP server?
(Choose two.)
Router# copy run tftp
Router# copy tftp run
Router# copy running-config tftp
Router# copy tftp running-config
Router(config)# copy running-config tftp
Router(config)# copy tftp running-config
11. Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes
and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)
VTY interface
console interface
Ethernet interface
secret EXEC mode
privileged EXEC mode
router configuration mode
12. What is the default state of the interfaces on a router?

up, line protocol down
down, line protocol down
adminstratively down, line protocol down
up, line protocol up
13. Which command turns on a router interface?

Router(config-if)# enable
Router(config-if)# no down
Router(config-if)# s0 active
Router(config-if)# interface up
Router(config-if)# no shutdown
14. A telnet session can be established when using the IP address of a router but not the name
of the router. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the problem?
an incorrect host table entry
an incorrect ARP table entry
an incorrect routing table entry
an incorrect protocol configured
an incorrect subnet mask
15. Select the interface descriptions that provide the most appropriate information. (Choose
two.)
circuit number
host IP address
telnet password
number of hops between routers
purpose and location of the interface
16. Select the commands necessary to remove any existing configuration on a router. (Choose
two.)
delete flash
erase startup-config
erase running-config
restart
reload
delete NVRAM
17. An IP network is to be added to a router Ethernet interface. What steps must be performed to
configure this interface to allow connectivity to the hosts on this LAN? (Choose two.)
Enter the command no shutdown.
A password must be set on the interface.
The interface DCE clock rate must be set.
The interface must be configured for virtual terminal access.
The interface must be configured with an IP address and subnet mask.
The router must be put in setup mode in order for the interface to be configured.
18. Which command sequence will permit access to all five router virtual terminal lines with a
password of cisco?
Router(config-line)#config telnet
Router(config-line)# line vty 0 5
Router(config-line)# password cisco
Router(config)# line vty 0 4

Router(config)# password cisco

Router(config-line)# login
Router(config-line)# config telnet

Router(config-line)# sessions 0 4
19. Which statements are true regarding the recommended use of login banners? (Choose two.)
They should be used to display information regarding system changes or maintenance.
They should be used to display warnings to unauthorized users.
They should be used to display welcome messages prior to login.
They should be seen only by system administrators.
They should provide confirmation of incoming IP addresses.
20. Which are valid router prompts? (Choose three.)

Router(privileged)#
Router(config)#
Router(command)#
Router(config-router)#
Router(config-if)#
Router(exec)#
21. What is the effect of the command ip host HQ 192.1.1.1?

permits a ping to 192.1.1.1 with the command ping HQ
assigns the description HQ to the interface with the ip address 192.1.1.1
renames the router as HQ
defines a static route to the host 192.1.1.1
configures the remote device HQ with the ip address of 192.1.1.1
22. What must be configured to establish a serial link between two routers that are directly
connected?
a clock rate on the DTE interface
a no clock rate command on the DTE interface
no configuration is required
a clock rate on the DCE interface
1 A network administrator was called away from the terminal while using Telnet to monitor a
remote router. The Telnet session was left connected. If the default Telnet configuration is
used, what will the administrator find upon returning 15 minutes later?
The Telnet session entered a "sleep" state and will resume when the spacebar is pressed.
The Telnet session remained connected and is on the same screen it was left on.
The Telnet session suspended itself and will resume when the Enter key is pressed.
The Telnet session terminated itself after 10 minutes of inactivity.
The Telnet session remained active but now requires the password to be entered again.
2 What is the main use of Telnet?

transfer of data between end users
verification of simple connectivity
routing of data packets
remote connection to network devices
Which of the following is true regarding CDP and the graphic shown?
CDP running on Router D will gather information about routers A, B, C, and E.
By default, Router A will receive CDP advertisements from routers B and C.
If routers D and E are running different routing protocols, they will not exchange CDP
information.
Router E can use CDP to identify the IOS running on Router B.
4 Which of the following are displayed by the Router# show cdp neighbors command? (Choose
three.)
load
platform
reliability
holdtime
local interface
5 To obtain CDP information from a Cisco router that is not directly connected to the
administrator's console, what must happen?
The source router must send TLV blocks to the remote router.
The administrator can Telnet to a Cisco device that is connected to the remote router.
The administrator needs to issue the Router# show cdp all to view the entire network CDP
advertisements.
The administrator must transmit TTL packets to the remote device and wait for a response.
6 What is the purpose of the cdp timer command?

specifies the hold time to be sent in the CDP update packet
resets the traffic counters back to zero
specifies how often the Cisco IOS software sends CDP updates
deletes and resets the CDP table of information about neighbors
7 An administrator is attempting to enable CDP on the interface of a Cisco router. After issuing
the command Router(config-if)# cdp enable, the router responds with an error stating that CDP is
not active. What might be the problem?
The cdp enable command must be issued from the global mode prompt.
The administrator needed to issue the command Router(config-if)# cdp run.
CDP has not been configured globally.
The administrator did not manually enter the CDP neighbors into the CDP table.
The traceroute command was used to trace the path between routers A and D. What would an output
display of three asterisks (***) indicate?
The command was issued from the wrong prompt.
Each datagram was successfully sent.
One of the routers is unreachable.
There are three hops between source and destination.
Pings between Atlanta and Dallas are successful. If a hostname table or DNS connection is not
available, which command will successfully establish a remote connection from Atlanta to Dallas
via Telnet?
Atlanta> connect Dallas
Atlanta> 197.72.3.2
Atlanta# 206.157.85.1
Atlanta# telnet Dallas
10 How many Telnet sessions can take place simultaneously on a router running a standard edition
of the IOS?
4
5
8
10
11 Why would an administrator use the Telnet application when troubleshooting a network? (Choose
three.)
It can be used to verify the operation of application layer software between the source and
destination.
Telnet can use the ICMP protocol to verify a hardware connection and network layer address.
It is the most complete testing mechanism available.
Remote networks may be accessed via a Telnet session for troubleshooting.
Time to Live values are used by Telnet to identify a failure of device between source and
destination.
12 For which three network layer protocols does CDP provide information? (Choose three.)
IP
RIP
SNMP
AppleTalk
IPX
EIGRP
13
If the network administrator establishes a telnet session from Workstation 2 to GAD and then
from GAD to BHM, what occurs if the session with BHM is suspended and the Enter key is pressed?
The GAD session will be resumed.
The BHM session will be resumed.
The GAD session will be terminated.
The BHM session will be terminated.
14 Transmitting type length values (TLVs) inside advertisements is a process used by CDP to
provide information about neighboring devices. What information is displayed by these TLVs?
(Choose three.)
interface information of the connected device
all networks connected to the neighboring device
name of the connected device
routing protocol used on the neighboring device
holdtime for advertisements
15
Which command will produce the output shown in the graphic?

show cdp
show cdp neighbors
show cdp neighbors detail
show cdp detail
show cdp traffic
16 What key sequence is used to suspend a Telnet session on a remote router?

Ctrl-Shift-S
Ctrl-Shift-6
Ctrl-Shift-6, then x
Ctrl-Alt-S
Ctrl-Alt-6
Ctrl-Alt-6, then x
17 What command enables CDP on the interface of a router?

Router(config-if)# cdp enable
Router(config-if)# cdp run
Router(config-if)# cdp start
Router(config-if)# cdp config
18 How can a network administrator logged in to RTA gather information about the Cisco devices
that are directly connected to its neighbor, RTB?
Use the show cdp neighbors detail command on RTA to view information about every device on the
entire internetwork.
Use ping to determine the status of RTB, then issue the show cdp neighbors detail command.
Use Telnet to connect to RTB, then issue the show cdp neighbors command.
Use traceroute to establish the pathway to RTB, then issue the show cdp neighbors command.
1 Which command will display the source of the system boot image?
Router# show config-register
Router# show start-up config
Router# show flash
2 Routers have different types of memory. Choose the answer that describes flash memory.
provides working storage
stores a fully functional IOS image
initializes the code used to boot the router
3 Routers have different types of memory. Choose the answer that describes NVRAM.
provides working storage
stores a fully functional IOS image
initializes the code that is used to boot the router
4 Which command will backup configuration files from RAM to NVRAM or a TFTP server?
backup
copy
telnet
move
5 Which two items below are required by routers in order for them to perform their basic
operations? (Choose two.)
a tftp server
a configuration file
a configuration register file
an operating system file
a DNS table
6 An IOS image can be copied into flash from a TFTP server. Which of the following statements
are true regarding this process? (Choose three.)
A series of "!'s" are displayed as the image is downloaded successfully to flash.
The copy tftp flash:filename ip address command is used to copy the IOS from the server to
flash.
After the new flash image is downloaded, it is verified.
A series of "e's" are displayed as the current IOS image is erased from flash.
Flash must be cleared with the erase command prior to beginning the download process.
7 Which part of the configuration register indicates the location of the IOS?
the bootstrap
the boot field
the IOS locator
the system image loader
8 Which of the following can be configured as a source for the IOS image by using the boot
system command? (Choose two.)
TFTP server
HTTP server
Telnet server
Flash memory
NVRAM memory
9 Which command is used to change the order in which the router looks for system bootstrap
information?
config-image
config-system
config-register
config-bootfield
config system bootstrap
10 Which command will copy an IOS image from a TFTP server to a router?
Router# copy tftp flash
Router# copy flash tftp
Router(config)# copy tftp flash
Router(config)# copy flash tftp
11 What command can be used in ROM monitor mode to run the IOS image in flash?
rommon1> config-register 0x2102
rommon1> boot flash:filename
rommon1> xmodem:filename
rommon1> boot system flash:filename
rommon1> reload system flash:
12 The Cisco IOS image naming convention allows identification of different versions and
capabilities of the IOS. What information can be gained from the filename c2600-d-mz.121-4?
(Choose two.)
The "mz" in the filename represents the special capabilities and features of the IOS.
The file is uncompressed and requires 2.6 MB of RAM to run.
The software is version 12.1, 4th revision.
The file is downloadable and 121.4MB in size.
The IOS is for the Cisco 2600 series hardware platform.
13 Where does a router look for boot system statements?

ROM
RAM
NVRAM
Flash
14 What does a configuration register setting of 0x2102 indicate on a router?
It tells the router to locate and load the IOS from NVRAM.
It tells the router to locate and load the IOS from FLASH.
It tells the router to bypass the configuration in NVRAM.
It tells the router to look in the startup configuration for boot system commands.
15 If a router cannot find a valid configuration file during the startup sequence, what will
occur?
The startup sequence will reset.
The router will prompt the user for a response to enter setup mode.
The startup sequence will halt until a valid configuration file is acquired.
The router will generate a default configuration file based on the last valid configuration.
The router will monitor local traffic to determine routing protocol configuration
requirements.
16 If the configuration register instructs a router to look for configuration information in

NVRAM and no boot system commands exist there, from where will the router next attempt to boot
the IOS?
RAMR
ROM
FLASH
EPROM
ROMMON
17 If boot system commands have been configured, which of the following could happen if a router
fails to obtain an IOS image from the primary sources during bootup?
The router will load a subset of a full IOS version from system ROM.
The router will attempt to reboot two times before failing.
The router will load the last good IOS image from NVRAM.
The administrator will be prompted to load a valid IOS image.
18 The router has been configured with a valid configuration file. Which of the following could
be a cause for a router not booting normally? (Choose two.)
The flash image is corrupt.
A console cable is disconnected.
The flash image is located in NVRAM.
The startup configuration file is incomplete.
The router encountered a hardware error.
19 Which of the following are steps in saving a router configuration file to a TFTP server?
(Choose three.)
Enter configuration mode.
Enter the IP address to the TFTP server.
Use the copy running-config tftp command.
Use the copy tftp running-config command.
Name the configuration file or accept the default name.
1 What can be concluded about the routing process on a router if the commands router rip and
network 192.5.5.0 have been issued? (Choose three.)
A distance vector routing protocol was used.
A link-state routing protocol was used.
Routing updates will broadcast every 30 seconds.
Routing updates will broadcast every 90 seconds.
Hop count is the metric used for route selection.
Bandwidth, load, delay, and reliability are the metrics used for route selection.
2 Which two protocols use an addressing scheme to direct user traffic? (Choose two.)
IP
EIGRP
IPX
OSPF
RIP
3 What are some of the advantages of using a link-state routing protocol instead of a distance
vector routing protocol? (Choose two.)
The topology database eliminates the need for a routing table.
Frequent periodic updates are sent to minimize the number of incorrect routes in the
topological database.
Routers have direct knowledge of all links in the network and how they are connected.
After the inital LSA flooding, they generally require less bandwidth to communicate changes in
a topology.
Link-state protocols require less router processor power than distance vector protocols.
4 If dynamic routing is not configured on a router, how do routing table updates occur?
Link state advertisements are sent from other routers.
Updates are made to the routing table by the administrator.
Best path information is communicated by network hosts.
The routing table is updated by neighboring routers.
5 Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols?
Routers will not allow packets to be forwarded until the network has converged.
Hosts are unable to access their gateway until the network has converged.
Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged.
Routers will not allow configuration changes to be made until the network has converged.
6 What is the purpose of a routing protocol?

It is used to build and maintain ARP tables.
It provides a method for segmenting and reassembling data packets.
It allows an administrator to devise an addressing scheme for the network.
It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.
It provides a procedure for encoding and decoding data into bits for packet forwarding.
7 Which are the primary functions used by a router when forwarding data?(Choose two.)
data encryption
error notification
packet switching
address identification
path determination
packet validation
8 How does a router learn about routes to a network? (Choose three.)

Information is gathered from its own configuration regarding directly connected networks.
Switches forward destination address information to each router.
Hosts communicate destination network information to each router.
Other routers forward information about known networks.
Routes are entered manually by a network administrator.
Routes are learned from information gathered from ARP tables.
9 Which type of address does a router use to make routing decisions?

source IP address
source MAC address
destination IP address
destination MAC address
10 Describe the switching function that occurs in a router.

allows the router to make forwarding decisions based on Layer 2 addressing
uses network addressing to select the best route and interface to forward data
accepts a packet on one interface and forwards it to a second interface
enables the router to select the most appropriate interface for forwarding a packet
11 Select the statements that describe link-state routing processes? (Choose three.)
Each router develops its own map of the entire network.
Routers send triggered updates when changes in the network occur.
Link-state routing protocols place a higher load on router resources during the routing
protocol initialization.
Link-state protocols are more prone to routing loops than distance vector routing protocols.
Networks using link-state routing protocols are slower to reach convergence after changes have
occurred than those using distance vector protocols.
12 Why is it necessary to specify a list of networks when configuring an interior routing

protocol?
to tell the router how to reach those networks
to tell the router which attached networks participate in routing updates
to tell the router which set of metrics to use for the attached networks
to tell the router which routing protocol to use
13
Assuming that the network shown in the graphic is converged and dynamic routing is enabled,
which of the following conditions will cause a modification to the Orlando routing table?
(Choose two.)
The device connecting the S0 interface of the Tampa router to the serial link loses power.
A network administrator shuts down the Orlando router E0 interface.
A DCHP server connected to the Tampa E1 network loses power.
The IP address of a workstation on the Orlando E0 network is reassigned.
A host on the Orlando E1 network transmits data to a server on the Tampa E1 network.
A Telnet connection to the Orlando router fails.
14 All routers at a medium sized company have been upgraded. During the upgrade, the network
administrator determined that a more advanced routing protocol using a combination of both
distance vector and link state features should be implemented. Which protocol should be
selected?
RIP
BGP
OSPF
EIGRP
15 Which category of routing algorithms discovers and maintains a topological map of the entire
internetwork?
static
Bellman-Ford
exterior gateway
Internetwork Packet Exchange
distance vector
link-state
16 Which is an exterior routing protocol commonly used between ISPs?

RIP
BGP
OSPF
EIGRP
17 Which of the following statements are true regarding the command ip route 172.16.1.0
255.255.255.0 172.16.2.1? (Choose three.)
This command is used to set up a static route.
This command is used to set up a default route.
This command is entered from global configuration mode.
All packets intended for network 172.16.1.0 will be sent to gateway 172.16.2.1.
All packets intended for network 172.16.2.1 will be sent to gateway 172.16.1.0.
18
Referring to the diagram, which commands will enable hosts on the Idaho E0 network to reach
hosts on the E0 network of the Montana router? (Choose two.)
Montana(config)# ip route 172.31.5.0 255.255.255.0 172.31.5.1
Montana(config)# ip route 172.31.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.31.4.1
Idaho(config)# ip route 172.31.5.0 255.255.255.0 172.31.4.1
19
Which of the following are valid static IP routes? (Choose three.)

RouterB(config)# ip route 192.168.5.0 255.255.255.0 S1
RouterC(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 S1
RouterA(config)# ip route 192.168.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.2
RouterB(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.2
RouterC(config)# ip route 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.4.1
20 Given the command, RouterC(config)# ip route 197.5.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.10.1.1, what does
the address 192.10.1.1 represent?
the source host
the next hop router
the outbound interface
the destination network
21 Which of the following conditions must be met in order for a network to have converged?
The routers in the network are operating with dynamic routing protocols.
The routers in the network are operating with compatible versions of IOS.
The routers in the network are operating with the same routing tables.
The routers in the network are operating with consistent routing knowledge.
22 Which two statements describe autonomous systems? (Choose two.)

Interior gateway protocols are used between autonomous systems.
Exterior gateway protocols are used between autonomous systems.
An autonomous system may be under the control of multiple organizations.
An autonomous system is identified by a 16 bit number assigned by ARIN.
The autonomous system is identified in the network portion of the IP address.
1 Which command or set of commands will stop the RIP routing process?
RouterB(config)# router rip
RouterB(config-router)# shutdown
RouterB(config-router)# network no 192.168.2.0
RouterB(config)# no router rip
RouterB(config)# router no rip
2 When does a distance vector routing protocol set a hold-down timer on a route?
when the metric value of the route decreases
when the route is marked as inaccessible
when the metric value for the route improves
when a regular update is received from a neighboring router
3 Which of the following functions are performed by a router as routing information travels
through the network? (Choose two.)
advertise supported applications
identify new destinations
calculate packet speed
verify network scalability
identify invalid networks
4 What do distance vector algorithms require each router in the network to send?
a partial routing table to each router in the LAN
a partial routing table to each router in the WAN
the entire routing table to each neighboring router
the entire routing table to each router in the autonomous system
What actions will occur after RouterA loses connectivity to network 114.125.16.0? (Choose two.)
RouterB will include network 123.92.76.0 and 136.125.85.0 in its update to RouterA.
During the next update interval, RouterB will send a RIP update out both ports that includes
the inaccessible network.
During the next update interval, RouterC will send an update to RouterB stating that network
114.125.16.0 is accessible in 2 hops.
Router C will learn of the loss of connectivity to network 114.125.16.0 from RouterB.
RouterB will include network 123.92.76.0 and 136.125.85.0 in its update to RouterC.
Refer to the exhibit. Assuming default settings are configured, which routing protocol has been
configured on the router?
OSPF
RIP
EIGRP
BGP
Static
7 Which command will display RIP activity as it occurs on a router?

debug ip rip
show ip route
show ip interface
show ip protocols
debug ip rip config
show ip rip database
8 Which of the following methods does split horizon use to reduce incorrect routing information?
Routing updates are split in half to reduce the update time.
Information learned from one source is not distributed back to that source.
New route information must be learned from multiple sources to be accepted.
The time between updates is split in half to speed convergence.
New route information is suppressed until the system has converged.
According to the router output from the show ip route command shown above, which of the
following statements are true? (Choose two.)
The metric to network 192.168.8.0 is 24.
The hop count to a device on network 192.168.8.0 is 2.
The total path cost to network 192.168.4.0 is the default value of 16.
The logical address of the next router for network 192.168.1.0 is 192.168.3.1.
The devices on network 192.168.5.0 cannot be reached as indicated by the 'C' label.
10 How would an administrator configure a static route for use if a primary route failed?
configure the route with a metric greater than the default value
configure the route and the router will activate it as needed
configure the route to activate by using the redistribute static command
configure the route with an administrative distance greater than the default value
11 Which statements describe RIP? (Choose three.)

The maximum metric value is 255 hops.
The maximum metric value is 15 hops.
Routing updates occur every 30 seconds.
Routing updates occur every 90 seconds.
It is a distance vector routing protocol.
It is a link state routing protocol.
12 A router has routes to several subnets of a classful network in its routing table. A default
route is defined on the router but the ip classless command is disabled. If the router receives
packets for a subnet that is not in its routing table but is in the same classful network as the
other subnets, what will happen to the packets?
The packets will be forwarded using the default route.
The packets will be forwarded using a route to one of the other subnets of the classful
network.
A nonreachable message will be returned to the source.
The packets will be discarded.
The router will generate a new route to the subnetted network.
13
The administrator of the network depicted in the graphic would like to decrease the network's
convergence time. How can this be accomplished?
disable split horizon on the routers
increase the update interval on the routers
change the RIP holddown timer to 96 seconds
change the RIP holddown timer to 226 seconds
14
If the passive interface command is enabled on the fa0/0 interface of Router E, which statements
are true? (Choose two.)
Router E will send all routing updates via interface fa0/0.
Router E will ignore all routing updates learned via interface fa0/0.
Router E will use routing updates learned via interface fa0/0.
Router E will not send routing updates via interface fa0/0.
15 Which statements describe load balancing when RIP is configured as the routing protocol?
(Choose two.)
A router is allowed to take advantage of multiple best paths to a given destination.
RIP uses the round robin approach in load balancing.
RIP load balancing selects a single path to forward all data to the destination even though
equal parallel paths exist.
RIP load balancing is based on bandwidth first and then the hop count.
Only one path to a destination can be statically assigned or dynamically calculated.
16
The graphic shows a network that is configured to use RIP routing protocol. Router2 detects that
the link to Router1 has gone down. It then advertises the network for this link with a hop count
metric of 16. Which routing loop prevention mechanism is in effect?
split horizon
error condition
hold-down timer
route poisoning
count to infinity
17
Which of the following would be the correct command sequence to enable RIP on Router B for all
connected networks?
RouterB# router rip
RouterB(router)# network 210.36.7.0

RouterB(config-router)# network 198.16.4.0
RouterB(config)# configure router rip



18 When a routing table update is received by a router in a distance vector network, which of
the following occurs?
The hop count metrics for the enclosed routes are incremented.
The update is forwarded to the gateway router for verification.
Path entries are checked for routing loops.
The hop count metrics for the enclosed routes are decremented.
Static routes are updated with the new information.
19 The following line was displayed in the output of the show ip route command:
192.168.3.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:30, Serial0/0
What is the administrative distance of the enabled routing protocol?
2
30
100
120
20 When does RIP send routing table updates? (Choose two.)

periodically, every 30 seconds
if optionally configured, when topology changes occur (triggered-update)
21 Which of the following can exist in a distance vector network that has not converged? (Choose
three.)
routing loops
inconsistent traffic forwarding
no traffic forwarding until system converges
inconsistent routing table entries
routing table updates sent to wrong destinations
22 What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface is not
available?
The route is removed from the table.
The router polls neighbors for a replacement route.
The route remains in the table because it was defined as static.
The router redirects the static route to compensate for the loss of the next hop device.
1 How does a source host use ICMP to confirm that a destination host is reachable?
The source host sends an ICMP echo request to the destination router which responds with an
ICMP echo reply confirming the reachability of the destination host.
The source host sends a data packet and receives an ICMP host unreachable packet from the
destination host if the data packet cannot be delivered.
The source host sends an ICMP packet with a TTL value of 1 and receives an ICMP reply with a
TTL value of 0 from the destination host.
The source host sends an ICMP echo request and receives an ICMP echo reply from the
destination host.
2 Which type of message is generated by a host when the ping command is entered?
ICMP echo request
ICMP echo reply
UDP echo request
UDP error message
3 Which of the following start the test of destination reachability?

echo request issued by source
echo reply issued by source
echo request issued by destination
echo reply issued by destination
4 Which two statements are true regarding ICMP? (Choose two.)
ICMP provides reliability for the TCP/IP protocol stack.
ICMP is a component of the TCP/IP protocol stack.
ICMP notifies the sender that data transmission errors have occurred.
ICMP is connection-oriented.
ICMP messages are propagated to all intermediate devices.
5 How does ICMP improve data transfer reliability in IP networks?

Each router in the path reads ICMP packets and uses the information to update routing tables.
ICMP can correct many network problems as they occur.
ICMP error messages are returned to the sending device when a packet is dropped by a router.
ICMP packets report the intermediary devices that a packet passed through before failure
occurred.
6 Which layer protocols provide reliability for IP when needed?

ICMP and ping
RIP and TTL
upper layer protocols
lower layer protocols
Internet layer protocols
network access layer protocols
7 Which devices along a data transmission path are notified by ICMP when delivery failures
occur?
source devices only
destination devices only
intermediary devices
source and destination devices
source, intermediary, and destination devices
8 When a datagram is processed by a router on the path from source to destination, what happens
to the value in the TTL field?"
It is increased by one.
It is decreased by one.
It stays the same.
It is reset to 0.
Nothing.
9 Which condition could cause a fragmentation needed ICMP destination unreachable message to be
sent?
A low bandwidth WAN link has become congested with IP traffic.
A packet is forwarded from a Token Ring network to an Ethernet network.
A network is not reachable because of faulty routing information.
The address specified by the sending host is nonexistent.
10
Workstation 1 sent a data packet to Workstation 4. It never arrived because Fa0/0 interface went
down on Router C. How will the devices handle this failure?
Workstation 4 will send an error message to Router C and Workstation 1 that it did not receive
the packet.
Router C will use ICMP to send a message back to Workstation 1 indicating that the packet
could not be delivered.
Router C discards the packet without providing notification to any device.
Router C uses ICMP to correct the failure and transmits the data to Workstation 4.
Workstation 1 will use ICMP to correct the problem and then notify Router C to continue the
transmission.
11 Which three conditions must be met in order for host to host communication over an
internetwork to occur on IP networks? (Choose three.)
The routing protocols configured on the source and destination networks must be the same.
A default gateway must be properly configured on the hosts and local networks.
Intermediary devices, such as routers, must be present on the network and have knowledge of
how to reach the destination network.
The source and destination host subnet masks must match.
The IP addresses of the hosts must be in the same network or subnet as their respective
gateway devices.
After issuing the command traceroute 192.168.4.2 from Router A, the following information is
returned
Tracing the route to Router_D (192.168.4.2)

1 Router_B (192.168.2.2) 16 msec 16 msec 16 msec
2 * * *
3 * * *
What can be concluded about the network shown in the graphic based on the output given?
Network 192.168.5.0 is missing from the routing table on Router
There is a problem with the connection between Router B and Router C.
Router C is not running CDP.
Some of the routers are non-Cisco devices.
Router B was not able to return ICMP TEMs to Router A
2 Which of the following would be the default administrative distance of a static IP route that
references the IP address of the next hop?
0
1
5
20
3 After issuing the show interfaces command, a technician notices the line "Serial1 is down,
line protocol is down" in the output. Which of the following are possible reasons for this
message output? (Choose three.)
There is a mismatch in the encapsulation type on both ends of the link.
A Layer 1 issue exists.
An interface problem exists.
The clockrate was not set during configuration.
There is no usable media for the protocol.
Keepalive messages are not being sent.
4 Which three correctly pair a routing metric with its description? (Choose three.)
hop count - the number of routers traversed to reach a destination
bandwidth - the amount of time it takes a packet to travel a link
load - the amount of activity on a link
delay - the link speed
reliability - the error rate on a link
When issuing the show interfaces serial1 command, a network administrator receives the output
shown in the graphic. What are the possible causes of an increase in the number of input errors?
(Choose three.)
There could be Layer 3 addressing problems.
There could be a problem with faulty telephone equipment.
The router hardware could be defective.
There is an incorrectly configured encapsulation on the interface.
There could be a problem with the cabling.
6 Which ICMP message type notifies source hosts that a receiving host or network is not
available?
time exceeded
redirect
destination unreachable
source quench
parameter problem
echo reply
7 The show interfaces command provides line and protocol status information. Which of the
following conditions would never occur in the output of this command?
serial1 is up, line protocol is up
serial1 is up, line protocol is down
serial1 is down, line protocol is down
serial1 is down, line protocol is up
serial1 is administratively down, line protocol is down
8
The network administrator shown in the exhibit can ping the E0 interface of the HAR router, but
the telnet intranet.xyz.com command issued from the administrator's workstation fails to open a
session with the intranet.xyz.com server. What are two possible causes of this problem? (Choose
two.)
upper-layer application problems
domain name system problems
IP addressing problems on the HAR router
clock rate problems on the HAR router serial interface
ICMP connectivity problems
9 The network administrator is using a PC to access a router via the router console port. Both
the PC and the router are powered on and a cable has been connected between them. However, a
session cannot be established. Which steps might fix this problem? (Choose two.)
Verify the cable is properly connected at each end.
Reseat the network card in the PC.
Verify the cable is the correct type.
Verify that a password has been set on the console line.
Check the transceiver for link lights.
Reseat the console card on the router
10 Which command will display routing table information about all known networks and
subnetworks?
Router# show ip interfaces
Router# show ip connections
Router# show ip route
Router# show ip networks
11 A network technician has discovered that a router in the network can no longer be reached.
The technician attempts to verify Layer 1 functionality, but is unable to physically inspect the
cables. Which command can be used to determine the type of cable connected to the router?
Router# show interfaces
Router# show controllers serial
Router# show ip protocol
12 During the lookup process when forwarding a packet, a router checks its routing table for the
best path to the destination. If a route has an administrative distance of 0, what does this
indicate to the router?
The packet should be discarded.
The destination is unreachable.
The destination is a directly connected network.
The source of the update for that route is unreliable.
13 Which command will verify the functionality of all seven layers of the OSI model on a network
host?
ping
debug
telnet
traceroute
14
After issuing the show interfaces serial1 command, an administrator notices an increasing number
of carrier transitions. What are the possible causes for this increase? (Choose two.)
There is an incorrect encapsulation configured on the interface.
There could be an interruption in the line by the service provider.
There is a faulty switch or CSU/DSU.
There is noise on the serial line.
15
Consider the RIP network shown in the diagram. Which entries would be listed in the routing
table of Router A?
R 192.168.5.2[120/1] via 192.168.15.0, 00:00:09, Serial0
R 192.168.15.0[120/1] via 192.168.5.2, 00:00:13, Serial1
R 192.168.15.0[120/1] via 192.168.5.1, 00:00:13, Serial0
R 192.168.5.1 [120/1] via 192.168.5.2 00:00:29, Serial1
R 192.168.15.0 [120/1] via 192.168.5.2, 00:00:29, Serial1
R 192.168.5.1 [120/1] via 192.168.5.2 00:00:18, Serial0
R 192.168.15.2 [120/1] via 192.168.5.2, 00:00:18, Serial
16 Which items would be displayed when the show ip protocols command is executed? (Choose
three.)
sources of routing updates
networks being advertised
routing protocol up or down
configured routed protocols
Layer 2 status of the interface
update timer values
17 Which two are true regarding the debug commands? (Choose two.)
Debug commands may be issued from the user EXEC prompt.
The command undebug all will turn off all debug operations.
By default, the router sends the debug output and messages to the telnet session.
The high processor overhead incurred using debug may disrupt normal router operation.
The debug all command provides a summary view of router activity and can be used frequently
for troubleshooting.
The show debugging command will display current events such as traffic on an interface and
error messages generated by nodes on the network.
18 A network administrator suspects that a network is not being included in the routing updates.
Which command will provide information on when the next update is due and which networks are
advertised in the update?
Router# show interfaces
Router# show controllers serial
Router# show ip protocols
19 Which of the following is a problem at the physical layer of the OSI model?
incorrect file formatting
incorrect encapsulation on a serial interface
incorrect routing protocol
incorrect cable type
20
When the show cdp neighbors command is issued from Router C, which devices will be displayed in
the output?
D, SWH-2
A, B, D
SWH-1, SWH-2
B, D
SWH-1, A, B
A, B, D, SWH-1, SWH-2
21 Which of the following are advantages of using a static route? (Choose three.)
secure operation
highly adaptable
low maintenance configuration
low processor overhead
precise control of path selection
22 Which of the following commands can be used to statically configure default routes? (Choose
two.)
ip static-route
ip route
ip network-route
ip default-network
ip default-static
23 Why does a router build a routing table? (Choose two.)

to list available routes for forwarding data
to map local Layer 2 addresses to the remote Layer 3 destination address
to dynamically send periodic updates regarding the router's status
to prevent routing loops when redundant links are added to the network
to select the best path to a destination
24 Which of the following lines from the show interfaces output would indicate a Layer 2
problem?
Serial1 is up, line protocol is up.
Serial1 is up, line protocol is down.
Serial1 is down, line protocol is down.
Serial1 is administratively down, line protocol is down.
1 Which statements are true regarding the significance of the access control list wildcard mask
0.0.0.7? (Choose two.)
The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be ignored.
The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be ignored.
The first 32 bits of a given IP address will be checked.
The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be checked.
The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be checked.
2 Which of the following parameters can ACLs use to filter traffic? (Choose three.)
packet size
protocol suite
source address
destination address
source router interface
destination router interface
3 Choose the commands that will correctly configure a standard ACL. (Choose two.)
Router(config)# access-list 97 permit host 192.5.5.1
Router(config)# access-list 32 permit 210.93.105.3 0.0.0.0
Router(config)# access-list 148 permit 201.100.11.2 0.0.0.0
Router(config)# access-list 107 permit host 192.5.5.1 213.45.27.0 0.0.0.255 eq 23
Router(config)# access-list 10 permit tcp 192.5.5.1 0.0.0.255 201.100.11.0 0.0.0.255 eq 80
4 Select the statements that describe ACL processing of packets. (Choose three.)
An implicit deny any rejects any packet that does not match any ACL statement.
A packet can either be rejected or forwarded as directed by the statement that is matched.
A packet that has been denied by one statement can be permitted by a subsequent statement.
A packet that does not match the conditions of any ACL statements will be forwarded by
default.
Each statement is checked only until a match is detected or until the end of the ACL statement
list.
Each packet is compared to the conditions of every statement in the ACL before a forwarding
decision is made.
5 Which of the following are reasons to use ACLs? (Choose three.)

to provide a basic level of security for network access
to speed up network performance by filtering priority packets
to preserve bandwidth by providing a mechanism for traffic flow control
to decide which packets are forwarded or blocked at the router console port
to screen certain hosts to either allow or deny access to part of a network
to allow all packets passing through the router access to all parts of the network
Assuming the ACL in the graphic is correctly applied to an interface, what effect will the ACL
have on network traffic?
All traffic to network 172.16.0.0 will be denied.
All TCP traffic will be permitted to and from network 172.16.0.0.
All telnet traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network to any destination will be denied.
All port 23 traffic to the 172.16.0.0 network will be denied.
All traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network will be denied to any other network.
7 Choose the command that will correctly configure a standard ACL.

Router# access-list 10 permit any
Router# access-list 101 permit any
Router(config)# access-list 10 permit any
Router(config)# access-list 10 permit any any
8
Select the commands that will apply the ACL in the diagram to filter traffic going to the
192.168.2.0 network.
Router1# configure terminal

Router1(config)# access-list 10 in E0
outer1(config)# interface ethernet 0

Router1(config-if)# access-list 10 in
Router2(config)# interface s1
Router2(config-if)# ip access-group 10 out
Router2(config)# interface ethernet 0

Router1(config)# interface ethernet 0

Router2# configure terminal

Router2(config)# access-group 10 out
Assuming the ACL in the graphic is correctly applied to an interface, what effect will this ACL
have on network traffic?
Host 192.168.15.4 will be denied ftp access to any destination, but will be permitted all
other access.
All ftp traffic to host 192.168.15.4 will be denied.
All traffic from that interface will be denied.
No traffic will be denied because a "permit" statement does not exist in this ACL.
10
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has connectivity to the routers and networks in
the diagram. An ACL has been created to allow the network administrator FTP access to the
webserver. This ACL must also deny FTP access to the server from the rest of the hosts on the
LAN. Which interface in the exhibit is the recommended location to apply the ACL?
FastEthernet 0/0 on the Carlisle router
Serial 0/0 on the Carlisle router
Serial 0/1 on the Mt. Holly router
FastEthernet 0/0 on the Mt. Holly router
11 Select the correct statements about extended ACLs. (Choose two)

Extended ACLs use a number range from 1-99.
Extended ACLs end with an implicit permit statement.
Extended ACLs evaluate the source and destination addresses.
Port numbers can be used to add greater definition to an ACL.
Multiple ACLs can be placed on the same interface as long as they are in the same direction.
12 The following commands were entered on a router:
Router(config)# access-list 2 deny 172.16.5.24

What can be concluded about this set of commands?

The access list statements are misconfigured.
All nodes on 172.16.0.0 will be denied access when these statements are applied.
The default wildcard mask, 0.0.0.0 is assumed.
The default wildcard mask 255.255.255.255 is assumed.
13 Where should a standard access control list be placed?

close to the source
close to the destination
on an Ethernet port
on a serial port
14 A router that has two Ethernet interfaces and one serial interface is configured to route
both IP and IPX. What is the maximum number of IP ACLs that can be configured to filter packets
on this router?
1
2
3
6
12
15 Which statement is true regarding wildcard masks?

The wildcard mask and subnet mask perform the same function.
The wildcard mask is always the inverse of the subnet mask.
A "0" in the wildcard mask identifies IP address bits that must be checked.
A "1" in the wildcard mask identifies a network or subnet bit.
16 ACL statements operate in sequential, logical order. If a condition match is true, the rest
of the ACL statements are not checked. If all of the ACL statements are unmatched, what happens
to the packet?
The packets will be placed in a buffer and forwarded when the ACL is removed.
The packets will be sent to the source with an error notification message.
The implicit permit any statement placed at the end of the list will allow the packets to flow
through uninhibited.
The implicit deny any statement placed at the end of the list will cause the packets to be
dropped.
17 Which of the following matches an ACL identification number with the correct protocol?(Choose
three.)
0 - standard IP
99 - standard IP
100 - extended IP
210 - extended IP
678 - extended IPX
888 - standard IPX
18 The router IOS tests each condition statement in an ACL in sequence. Once a match is made,
which of the following occurs? (Choose two.)
The entire ACL must be deleted and recreated.
The accept or reject action is performed.
The packet is forwarded to the next hop.
The remaining ACL statements are not checked.
The router goes through the list again to verify that a match has been made.
19
Create a standard ACL that will deny traffic from 192.5.5.25 to the 210.93.105.0 network but
will allow traffic from all other hosts. (Choose two.)
Router(config)# access-list 22 deny 192.5.5.25 0.0.0.0
Router(config)# access-list 22 deny host 192.5.5.25 0.0.0.0

Router(config)# access-list 22 permit any any

Router(config)# access-list 22 deny host 192.5.5.25


CCNA 2 - Final Exam
1 What are some reasons to change the configuration register setting? (Choose two.)
to force the system to ignore the configuration file stored in NVRAM
to monitor password changes
to change the POST sequence
to force the router to boot the IOS from NVRAM
to force the system into ROM monitor mode
2 Given the output shown in the exhibit, in what order and location will the router search for
the IOS if no boot system commands are found in the startup-config file?
ROM, Flash, TFTP server
Flash, NVRAM, RAM
ROM, TFTP server, Flash
RAM, Flash, NVRAM
Flash, TFTP server, ROM
3 Which statements are true regarding setup mode? (Choose three.)

Press Ctrl-z to terminate setup mode.
Enter a question mark (?) for help at any point.
Press Spacebar to accept the default settings.
Use setup mode to enter complex protocol features.
Press Enter to accept the default settings.
Press Ctrl-c to abort configuration dialog.
4 What are two possible reasons for this result? (Choose two.)
The startup-config file was not saved to RAM before reboot.
The IOS has been erased.
The router has not been configured.
The startup-config file cannot be located.
The router will not enter initial configuration dialog.
5 A new technician must add boot system commands to one of the department routers. Which
available commands will the router return as output when the command shown below is entered?
(Choose two.)
Router(config)# boot system ?
RAM
NVRAM
IOS
IP Address
TFTP
FLASH
6 Router A and Router B have been correctly configured to use RIP as a dynamic routing protocol
and all intefaces on Router A and Router B are reporting "interface is up, line protocol is up"
status. RIP is then configured on Router C using the following commands:
RouterC(config)# router rip
RouterC(config-router)# network 192.168.4.0
RouterC(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0
If no additional routing is configured on Router A, Router B, and Router C, what will be the
result?
Networks 192.168.12.0/24, 192.168.4.0/24, and 172.16.0.0/16 will be unreachable from Router A.

Router A will have no knowledge of network 192.168.12.0/24, but will have routes to networks
192.168.4.0/24 and 172.16.0.0/16.
All networks shown in the graphic will be reachable by Router A, Router B, and Router C.
Networks 192.168.4.0/24 and 172.16.0.0/16 will be unreachable from Router A and Router B.
7 The Suffolk router is directly connected to the networks shown in the graphic and has a
default route that points to the Richmond router. All interfaces are active and properly
addressed. However, when the workstation on network 172.29.5.0/24 sends a packet to destination
address 172.29.198.5, it is discarded by the Suffolk router. What can be a reason for this
result?
The ip classless command is not enabled on the Richmond router.
The route was ignored if the Richmond router did not include the 172.29.198.0/24 network in
its routing updates.
The Richmond router is in a different autonomous system than the Suffolk router.
The ip subnet-zero command was not configured on the Suffolk router.
The ip classless command is not enabled on the Suffolk router.
8 A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of
the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A?
A(config)# router rip

A(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
B(config)# router rip

B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.48
B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.64
A(config)# router rip

A(config-router)# no network 192.168.25.32
B(config)# router rip

B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
A(config)# no router rip
9 Which router component stores the information that is displayed by the show running-config
command?
flash
NVRAM
RAM
ROM
10 If a PC does not have network connectivity to a router, which router port can be used to
establish communication?
console
Ethernet
serial
VTY
11 What information can be learned during the initial router bootup? (Choose two.)
the configuration register value
the number and types of interfaces installed
the router model and the amount of memory that is available
the amount of memory required to load the IOS and configuration
the number of interfaces with connected cables
12 Which devices can be used to convert the data from a WAN router at the customer site into a
form acceptable for use by the WAN service provider? (Choose three.)
Ethernet switch
DTE
modem
hub
DCE device
CSU/DSU
13 What are the primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)

determine the best path for packets
prevent collisions on the network LAN
regulate flow control between sender and receiver
provide domain name resolution
forward packets to the appropriate interface
14 Which of the following are correct statements verified by the router output shown in the
graphic? (Choose two.)
Layer 3 connectivity exists between BigCity and the devices in the Device ID column.
Layer 2 connectivity exists between BigCity and the devices in the Device ID column.
All devices shown in the Device ID column use the TCP/IP protocol suite.
All devices shown in the Device ID column can be pinged from BigCity.
All devices listed in the Device ID column are directly connected to BigCity.
15 What are the results of setting the boot field bits in the configuration register to "0000"?
(Choose two.)
The startup-config file will be ignored at bootup.
The router will load the IOS from Flash.
The router will enter ROM monitor mode upon reload.
The router will enter boot ROM mode and have limited capabilities.
The administrator can enter the b command to manually boot the IOS.
16 What can a network administrator do to recover from a lost router password?

perform a reload or reset
telnet from another router and issue the show running-config command to view the password
boot the router to ROM monitor mode and configure the router to ignore NVRAM when it
initializes
boot the router to bootROM mode and enter the b command to load the IOS manually
17 Which router components and operations are correctly described? (Choose two.)
RAM - stores the ARP cache
NVRAM - store the operating system
ROM - stores the backup IOS
POST - verifies the validity of the running-config
Flash - executes diagnostics at bootup
DRAM - loads the bootstrap
18 Which of the following commands will correctly configure an extended ACL? (Choose two).
Router(config)# access-list 18 permit tcp host 192.168.73.3 eq 25
Router(config)# access-list 102 permit tcp 10.43.0.0 0.0.255.255 any eq 80
Router(config)# access-list 187 permit tcp host 192.168.42.34 172.29.0.0 0.0.255.255 eq 23
Router(config)# access-list 99 permit host 10.217.32.3
Router(config)# access-list 128 permit tcp host 192.168.100.31 eq 23
19 The following access list has been created to prevent traffic from the 192.0.2.63 host on the
Sales LAN from accessing servers and hosts on the Payroll LAN.
access-list 26 deny host 192.0.2.63
access-list 26 permit any
Refer to the exhibit. Which group of commands will properly place the access list so that only
the host on the Sales LAN is denied access to the 172.29.7.0 network but all other traffic is
permitted?
Payroll(config)# interface fa0/0

Payroll(config-if)# ip access-group 26 out
Payroll(config)# interface fa0/1

Payroll(config-if)# ip access-group 26 out
Sales(config)# interface fa0/1

Sales(config-if)# ip access-group 26 in
Sales(config)# interface fa0/0
Sales(config-if)# ip access-group 26 out
20 Refer to the graphic. Communication is needed between the LAN connected to the fa0/0
interface of the Kansas router and the fa0/0 interface of the Maine router. All hosts on those
LANs also need connectivity to the Internet. Which commands will allow this communication?
(Choose three).
Kansas(config)# ip route 192.168.6.0 255.255.255.0 172.18.64.2
Kansas(config)# ip route 192.168.6.0 255.255.255.0 s0/1
Kansas(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1
Maine(config)# ip route 192.168.6.0 255.255.255.0 172.18.64.1
Maine(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1
Maine(config)# ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.255.0 172.18.64.2
21 A network administrator must configure a FastEthernet interface with an IP address. The

configuration must also identify the remote site to which the interface is connected. Which set
of commands will meet these requirements?
StPetersburg(config)# banner San Jose T1

StPetersburg(config)# interface fa0/0
StPetersburg(config-if)# ip address 172.26.155.5 255.255.255.252

StPetersburg(config-if)# ip address 172.26.155.5 netmask 255.255.255.252
StPetersburg(config-if)# description San Jose T1

StPetersburg(config-if)# banner remote site San Jose T1

StPetersburg(config-if)# description San Jose T1
22 A network administrator issues the erase startup-config command on a configured router with
the configuration register set to 0x2102 and observes the following output:
Erasing the nvram filesystem will remove all files! Continue? [Confirm]
[OK]
Erase of nvram: complete
If the router unexpectedly loses power after this sequence, what will occur when power is
restored?
The router will enter ROM monitor mode upon completion of the power-on self test (POST).
The router will load the last known valid configuration file.
The router will enter Rx-boot mode.
The router will prompt the user to enter setup mode or to continue without entering setup
mode.
23 The main router of XYZ company has enough flash and RAM to store multiple IOS images. An
administrator wants to upload a second IOS image from a TFTP server to the flash of the router.
Which method will accomplish this task?
Paste the IOS filename to the command line of the router while in global configuration mode.
Press enter. Then issue the copy tftp flash command.
Use the setup utility to load the new image to flash.
Copy the IOS image file from a TFTP server using the command copy filename ip address flash .
Copy the IOS image file from a TFTP server using the command copy tftp flash. When prompted,
provide the IP address or name of the TFTP server and the IOS image filename.
24 What facts can be determined from the highlighted text shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A weak encryption was applied to all unencrypted passwords.
The enable password is now more secure than the enable secret password.
An MD5 hashing algorithm was used on all encrypted passwords.
Any configured user EXEC mode or Telnet passwords will be encrypted in this configuration.
The service password-encryption command was used to encrypt all passwords on the router
including enable secret.
25 What are the features of a serial interface on a router? (Choose two.)

enabled by default
assigned a unique MAC address
must be configured as a DCE in lab and production environments
must be configured with the default clock rate of 56000
may be administratively enabled by using the no shutdown command
must be configured with a valid IP address and subnet mask in order to forward packets
26 What are two recommended uses of login banners? (Choose two.)
to display security warning messages
to welcome any user to the router
to warn people about misusing privileged EXEC mode
to identify circuits and other devices connected to the router
to announce a scheduled system shutdown
27 While planning an IOS upgrade, the administrator issues the show version command. Based on
the output in the graphic, what is the current IOS boot location?
RAM
NVRAM
Flash
ROM
28 Why are interface descriptions used in router configurations? (Choose three).

to enable support personnel to easily identify networks and customers that may be affected by
a possible interface issue
to provide comments on the interface without affecting the router functionality
to display access warning messages before users enter the interface configuration mode
to eliminate the need to use IP addresses when using the ping and telnet commands
to identify the purpose and location of the interface
29 What are two characteristics of the support for Telnet within Cisco IOS software? (Choose
two.)
Up to five separate Telnet lines are supported by default in standard edition IOS files.
For security purposes, Telnet sessions are required to be established from the privileged
mode.
A router can host simultaneous Telnet sessions.
Once established, a Telnet session can remain operational regardless of network status.
Telnet tests wireless connectivity and does not require a physical connection between devices
to gain remote access.
30 Neither router in the exhibit has a host table or DNS available. The interfaces and passwords
have been correctly configured. Which of the following commands will initiate a Telnet session?
(Choose two.)
Tottenham# telnet Oxford
Tottenham> telnet 198.18.139.1
Oxford# connect 198.18.139.0
Oxford> connect Tottenham
Oxford# telnet Tottenham
Oxford# 198.18.139.2
31 From the running-config, the following configuration entries are displayed:

Router(config-line)# password g8k33pr
Router(config-line)# login
What can be interpreted from the exhibited configuration? (Choose two.)
Three Telnet lines are available for remote access.

Two Telnet lines are available for remote access.
Future configuration of the remaining Telnet lines will require the password to be set to
g8k33pr.
To login to the remote device, g8k33pr will be used as the Telnet and secret password.
Remote access to this local router will require a Telnet password of g8k33pr.
32 Assuming the following ACL is correctly applied to a router interface, what can be concluded
about this set of commands? (Choose two.)
Router(config)# access-list 165 deny tcp 192.28.115.0 0.0.0.255 172.20.0.0 0.0.255.255 eq 23
Router(config)# access-list 165 permit ip any any
This is a standard IP access list that denies network 192.28.115.0 Telnet access to the
172.20.0.0 network.
All Telnet traffic destined for 172.20.0.0 from any network will be denied access.
Network 192.28.115.0 is denied Telnet access to the 172.20.0.0 network.
Network 172.20.0.0 is denied Telnet access to the 192.28.115.0 network.
All FTP and HTTP traffic destined for 172.20.0.0 will be permitted access.
33 What can be concluded from the output shown in the exhibit? (Choose three.)
This is a standard IP access list.
This is an extended IP access list.
The keyword host is implied in the command line access-list 99 deny 10.213.177.76.
The wildcard mask must be configured for this access list to function properly.
Host 10.213.177.100 will be allowed access to the Serial0/1 interface.
34 access-list 199 deny tcp 178.15.0.0 0.0.255.255 any eq 23

access-list 199 permit ip any any
Assuming this ACL is correctly applied to a router interface, which statements describe traffic
on the network? (Choose two.)
All FTP traffic from network 178.15.0.0 will be permitted.
All Telnet traffic destined for network 178.15.0.0 will be denied.
Telnet and FTP will be permitted from all hosts on network 178.15.0.0 to any destination.
Telnet will not be permitted from any hosts on network 178.15.0.0 to any destination.
Telnet will not be permitted to any host on network 178.15.0.0 from any destination.
35 Hosts from the Limerick LAN are not allowed access to the Shannon LAN but should be able to
access the Internet. Which set of commands will create a standard ACL that will apply to traffic
on the Shannon router interface Fa0/0 implementing this security?
access-list 42 deny 172.19.123.0 0.0.0.255 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255

access-list 56 deny 172.19.123.0 0.0.0.255

access-list 61 deny 172.19.123.0 0.0.0.0

access-list 87 deny ip any 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255

access-list 87 permit ip any
36 Refer to the exhibit. Router D interface S0 on has gone down. What is the maximum time that
will elapse before Router A learns that network 168.58.14.0 is down?
5 seconds
13 seconds
17 seconds
25 seconds
30 seconds
77 seconds
37 Refer to the graphic. Which series of commands will create static routes that will allow
Router A and Router B to deliver packets destined for LAN A and LAN B, and direct all other
traffic to the Internet?

RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0



38 Refer to the exhibit. The new security policy for the company allows all IP traffic from the
Engineering LAN to the Internet while only web traffic from the Marketing LAN is allowed to the
Internet. Which ACL can be applied in the outbound direction of Serial 0/1 on the Marketing
router to implement the new security policy?
access-list 197 permit ip 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255 any
access-list 197 permit ip 198.18.112.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www

access-list 165 permit tcp 198.18.112.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www
access-list 165 permit ip any any

access-list 89 permit 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255 any

39 What will occur when the following ACL is applied inbound to both FastEthernet interfaces of
Router A in the graphic?
access-list 125 permit tcp 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 10.90.3.0 0.0.0.255 eq 23
access-list 125 permit tcp 10.90.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 eq 23
Workstations A and B will be able to Telnet to each other. Workstation A will be allowed to
access Web servers on the Internet, while Workstation B will be denied Internet Web access.
Workstations A and B will be able to Telnet to each other. All other traffic will be denied.
The ACL will have no effect because it should be applied in the outbound direction on the
FastEthernet interfaces.
The ACL will deny all traffic because of the implied deny ip any any statement at the end of
the ACL.
40 What are two possible reasons a router would not load a valid IOS from flash? (Choose two.)
The configuration register is set to 0x2142.
The first boot system command executed in the startup configuration file is boot system rom.
The configuration register is set to 0x2100.
The boot field is set to the hexadecimal number 2.
The startup configuration file is missing or corrupt.
41 A network administrator has a console connection to the Fremantle router. Pings to Melville
are successful, but pings to Cottesloe and Nedlands fail. What could be a first step in
troubleshooting the problem?
Use an extended ping from Fremantle to each router in the network.
Use the show interfaces command from a Telnet session on Melville to check the connection to
Cottesloe.
Use the traceroute command to discover exactly which link in the network is down.
Use the show cdp neighbors detail command from Fremantle to gather information about all Cisco
routers in the network.
42 What are three features of CDP? (Choose three.)

provides information on directly connected devices that have CDP enabled
tests Layer 2 connectivity
enabled by default on each interface
provides a layer of security
used for debugging Layer 4 connectivity issues
43 Which two steps describe how to create a functional physical connection between a router
console and a terminal? (Choose two.)
Use a crossover cable to connect the terminal serial port to the router console port.
Use a rollover cable to connect the terminal NIC to the router console port.
Use an RJ-45 to DB-9 adapter on the terminal serial port to connect to the cable going to the
router console.
Use a transceiver to connect a straight-through cable to the router console port.
Use a straight-through cable to connect the router console port to the terminal NIC.
Use a rollover cable to connect from a terminal serial port to the router console port.
44 Refer to the exhibit. Assuming default metrics are used and the network is fully converged,
which path will RIP use to send a packet from Router A to Router F?
A, D, E, F
A, B, D, E, F
A, C, D, E, G, F
A, B, D, E, G, F
45 Based on this partial output of the show ip route command, which routing protocol is
configured on the router?
I 172.16.3.0/24 [100/80135] via 172.16.2.2, 00:00:27, Serial0/0
RIP v1
RIP v2
IGRP
EIGRP
OSPF
IGP
46 Why are routed protocols important to networking? (Choose two.)

Routed protocols detect collisions and fragments.
Routers use routed protocols to calculate the best path to a destination.
Routed protocols transport data across the network.
The fields and formats used within a packet are defined by routed protocols.
Routed protocols are used to configure the metrics used by routing protocols.
47 What could a Cisco support technician learn from the IOS filename c2600-d-mz.121-3? (Choose
three.)
the format of the file
the RAM memory requirements of the file
the version number of the file
the size of the file
the device platform of the file
48 What critical information about the status of the router can be found in the outputs of both
the show interfaces and show protocols commands? (Choose two.)
the Layer 3 address of each configured interface
the routing protocol configured to forward updates out of each interface
the operational status of each interface
traffic statistics for each interface
whether the interface is configured as a DTE or DCE
49 Which of the following are true statements regarding IGRP and RIP? (Choose two.)
IGRP uses a combination of different metrics for path selection.
RIP is a proprietary protocol developed by Cisco.
RIP has the ability to scale to large networks.
IGRP has the ability to scale to large networks.
CCNA 3 Switching Basics and Intermediate Routing
CISCO CCNA 3 - Module 1 Exam Answers
1 Which of the following are contained in the routing updates of classless routing protocols?
(Choose two.)
32-bit address
next hop router interface
subnet mask
unicast host address
Layer 2 address
Router1 and Router2 shown in the topology have been configured with the no ip subnet-zero
command. Which of the following valid VLSM network numbers could be used for the serial link
between Router1 and Router2? (Choose two.)
192.168.1.0/30
192.168.1.4/30
192.168.1.8/30
192.168.1.96/30
192.168.1.138/30
192.168.1.190/30
3 What is the purpose of the network command used in the configuration of the RIP routing
protocol?
It specifies RIP v2 as the routing protocol.
It enables the use of VLSM.
It specifies the fastest path to the destination route.
It specifies which interfaces will exchange RIP routing updates.
It activates RIP for all routes that exist within the enterprise network.
4 Which of the following is considered a limitation of RIP v1?

RIP v1 does not send subnet mask information in its updates.
RIP v1 is not widely supported by networking hardware vendors.
RIP v1 consumes excessive bandwidth by multicasting routing updates using a Class D address.
RIP v1 requires enhanced router processors and extra RAM to function effectively.
RIP v1 does not support load balancing across equal-cost paths.
RIP v1 authentication is complicated and time-consuming to configure.
5 Which command would a network administrator use to determine if the routers in an enterprise
have learned about a newly added network?
router# show ip address
router# show ip route
router# show ip networks
router# show ip interface brief
router# debug ip protocol
router# debug rip update
6 How does a router know of paths to destination networks? (Choose two.)

inspection of the destination IP address in data packets
ARP requests from connected routers
manual configuration of routes
updates from other routers
DHCP information broadcasts
updates from the SMTP management information base
7 Which of the following statements are true regarding RIP v1 and v2? (Choose three.)
Both RIP versions use hop count.
Both RIP versions can provide authentication of update sources.
Both RIP versions use 16 hops as a metric for infinite distance.
RIP v1 uses split horizon to prevent routing loops while RIP v2 does not.
RIP v1 uses hold-down times to prevent routing loops while RIP v2 does not.
RIP v1 broadcasts routing table updates, while RIP v2 multicasts its updates.
8 What does VLSM allow a network administrator to do?

utilize one subnet mask throughout an autonomous system
utilize multiple subnet masks in the same IP address space
utilize IGRP as the routing protocol in an entire autonomous system
utilize multiple routing protocols within an autonomous system
The network shown in the diagram is having problems routing traffic. It is suspected that the
problem is with the addressing scheme. What is the problem with the addressing used in the
topology?
The address assigned to the Ethernet0 interface of Router1 is a broadcast address for that
subnetwork.
The subnetwork configured on the serial link between Router1 and Router2 overlaps with the
subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.
The subnetwork assigned to the Serial0 interface of Router1 is on a different subnetwork from
the address for Serial0 of Router2.
The subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to
Ethernet0 of Router3.
10
Refer to the network shown. How will Router1 summarize and advertise the four networks attached
to its Ethernet ports?
172.16.16.0/20
172.16.19.0/20
172.16.16.0/20 and 172.16.19.0/20
172.16.16.0/22
172.16.18.0/24
172.16.0.0/24
11
A Class C address has been assigned for use in the network shown in the graphic. Using VLSM,
which bit mask should be used to provide for the number of host addresses required on Router A,
while wasting the fewest addresses?
/31
/30
/29
/28
/27
/26
12
The routers in the diagram use the subnet assignments shown. What is the most efficient route
summary that can be configured on Router3 to advertise the internal networks to the cloud?
192.1.1.0/26 and 192.1.1.64/27
192.1.1.128/25
192.1.1.0/23 and 192.1.1.64/23
192.1.1.0/24
192.1.1.0/25
192.1.1.0/24 and 192.1.1.64/24
13 A new network is to be configured on a router. Which of the following tasks must be completed
to configure this interface and implement dynamic IP routing for the new network? (Choose
three.)
Select the routing protocol to be configured.
Assign an IP address and subnet mask to the interface.
Update the ip host configuration information with the device name and new interface IP
address.
Configure the routing protocol with the new network IP address.
Configure the routing protocol with the new interface IP address and subnet mask.
Configure the routing protocol in use on all other enterprise routers with the new network
information.
14 What is the default network mask for a Class B address?

255.0.0.0
255.255.0.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.255
15 How often does RIP v1 send routing table updates, by default?

every 30 seconds
every 45 seconds
every 60 seconds
every 90 seconds
16
An additional subnet is required for a new Ethernet link between Router1 and Router2 as shown in
the diagram. Which of the following subnet addresses can be configured in this network to
provide a maximum of 14 useable addresses for this link while wasting the fewest addresses?
192.1.1.16/26
192.1.1.96/28
192.1.1.160/28
192.1.1.196/27
192.1.1.224/28
192.1.1.240/28
17 Which subnet mask is represented by the /21 notation?
255.255.224.0
255.255.248.0
255.255.252.0
255.255.240.0
18 Which of the following problems does VLSM help to alleviate?

the shortage of IP addresses
the difficulty of assigning static IP addresses to hosts in large enterprises
the complexity of implementing advanced routing protocols such as OSPF and EIGRP
the shortage of network administrators qualified in the use of RIP v1 and IGRP
19
In the network shown in the graphic, three bits were borrowed from the host portion of a Class C
address. How many valid host addresses will be unused on the three point-to-point links combined
if VLSM is not used?
3
4
12
36
84
180
20 A Class C network address has been subnetted into eight subnetworks. Using VLSM, the last
subnet will be divided into eight smaller subnetworks. What bit mask must be used to create
eight smaller subnetworks, each having two usable host addresses?
/26
/27
/28
/29
/30
/31
1 What does OSPF use to calculate the cost to a destination network?

bandwidth
bandwidth and hop count
bandwidth and reliability
bandwidth, load, and reliablity
2 Which of the following should be considered when troubleshooting a problem with the
establishment of neighbor relationships between OSPF routers? (Choose three.)
OSPF interval timers mismatch
gateway of last resort not redistributed
interface network type mismatch
no loopback interface configured
administrative distance mismatch
inconsistent authentication configuration
3 Which router is the root of an SPF tree?

border router
nearest neighboring router
local router
trunk router, as determined by the SPF algorithm
4 In which types of networks are OSPF DR elections necessary? (Choose two.)
point-to-point
point-to-multipoint
broadcast multiaccess
nonbroadcast multiaccess
What will be the result of the DR and BDR elections for this single area OSPF network? (Choose
three.)
HQ will be DR for 10.4.0.0/16.
Router A will be DR for 10.4.0.0/16.
HQ will be BDR for 10.4.0.0/16.
Router A will be DR for 10.5.0.0/16.
Remote will be DR for 10.5.0.0/16.
Remote will be BDR for 10.5.0.0/16.
Refer to the network shown in the diagram. Which command sequence on RouterB will redistribute a
Gateway of Last Resort to the other routers in OSPF area 0?
RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
RouterB(config-router)# gateway-of-last-resort 172.16.6.6
RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0
RouterB(config-router)# default-information originate
RouterB(config-router)# default network 172.16.6.6 0.0.0.3 area 0
RouterB(config)# ip default-route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.6.6
RouterB(config-router)# redistribute ip default-route
7 Why is it difficult for routing loops to occur in networks that use link-state routing?
Each router builds a simple view of the network based on hop count.
Routers flood the network with LSAs to discover routing loops.
Each router builds a complete and synchronized view of the network.
Routers use hold-down timers to prevent routing loops.
8 What information can be obtained from the output of the show ip ospf interface command?
(Choose three.)
link-state age intervals
timer intervals
router ID number
link-state update intervals
neighbor adjacencies
9
RouterA, RouterB, and RouterC in the diagram are running OSPF on their Ethernet interfaces.
Loopback interfaces (Lo 0) are configured as shown. What happens when RouterD is added to the
network?
RouterB takes over as DR and RouterD becomes the BDR.
RouterD becomes the BDR and RouterA remains the DR.
RouterD becomes the DR and RouterA becomes the BDR.
RouterC acts as the DR until the election process is complete.
RouterD becomes the DR and RouterB remains the BDR.
There is no change in the DR or BDR until either current DR or BDR goes down.
10 What are the benefits of the hierarchical design approach that is used in large OSPF
networks? (Choose three.)
reduction of routing overhead
increased routing overhead
faster convergence
slower convergence
distribution of network instability to all areas of the network
isolation of network instability to one area of the network
11
Which command sequence will enable OSPF in the backbone area for the two Ethernet links on
RouterA?
RouterA(config)# router ospf 1
RouterA(config-router)# network 172.16.4.0 0.0.1.255 area 1
RouterA(config-router)# area 0 network 172.16.4.0 0.0.1.255
RouterA(config-route)# network 172.16.4.0 0.0.255.255 area 0
RouterA(config-router)# network 172.16.4.0 255.255.255.0
RouterA(config-router)# network 172.16.5.0 255.255.255.0
12 Which of the following are disadvantages of link-state routing? (Choose three.)

Link-state protocols require careful network design.
Link-state protocols are prone to routing loops.
Link-state hello updates can cause broadcast flooding.
Link-state protocols place significant demands on router processors and memory resources.
Link-state protocols require a knowledgeable network administrator.
Link-state protocols do not support Variable Length Subnet Masking.
13 What speeds up convergence in a network using link-state routing?

updates triggered by network changes
updates sent at regular intervals
updates sent only to directly connected neighbors
updates that include complete routing tables
14 Because of security concerns, a network administrator wants to set up authentication between
two routers. Which of the following commands will configure Router_A to trust Router_B with a
clear text password of apollo?
Router_A(config-if)# ospf authentication-key apollo
Router_A(config-if)# ip authentication-key apollo
Router_A(config-if)# ip ospf authentication apollo
Router_A(config-if)# ip ospf authentication-key apollo
15 How can the OSPF cost for a link be established? (Choose two.)
It is set to 1544 by default for all OSPF interfaces.
It can be set with the ip ospf cost command.
The configured loopback addresses map to link costs.
It is calculated proportionally to observed throughput capacity of the router.
It may be calculated using the formula 108/bandwidth.
16 A network administrator has configured a default route on Router_A but it is not being shared
with adjacent Router_B and the other routers in the OSPF area. Which command will save the
administrator the time and trouble of configuring this default route on Router_B and all of the
other routers in the OSPF area?
Router_A(config-router)# ospf redistribute default-route
Router_B(config-router)# ospf redistribute default-route
Router_A(config-router)# default-information originate
Router_B(config-router)# default-information originate
Router_A(config-router)# ip ospf update-default
Router_B(config-router)# ip ospf update-default
17
The routers in the diagram are configured as shown. The loopback interface on router R1 is
labeled as lo0. All OSPF priorities are set to the default except for Ethernet0 of router R2,
which has an OSPF priority of 2. What will be the result of the OSPF DR/BDR elections on the
192.1.1.0 network? (Choose two.)
R1 will be the DR
R1 will be the BDR
R2 will be the DR
R2 will be the BDR
R3 will be the DR
R3 will be the BDR
18 Which router command will display the interface priority value and other key information for
the OSPF configuration of the serial 0 interface?
router# show ospf serial 0
router# show interface serial 0 OSPF
router# show ip interface serial 0
router# show ip ospf interface serial 0
19 Which of the following are required when adding a network to the OSPF routing process
network address
loopback address
autonomous system number
subnet mask
wildcard mask
area ID
20 What does OSPF use to reduce the number of exchanges of routing information in networks where
large numbers of neighbors are present? (Choose two.)
root router
backup root router
domain router
backup domain router
designated router
backup designated router
1 Which Layer 4 protocol does EIGRP use to provide reliability for the transmission of routing
information?
DUAL
IP
PDM
RTP
TCP
UDP
2 Which of the following statements describes the bounded updates used by EIGRP?
Bounded updates are sent to all routers within an autonomous system.
Partial updates are sent only to routers that need the information.
The updates are sent to all routers in the routing table.
Updates are bounded by the routers in the topology table.
3 What is the EIGRP term for a backup route?

backup route
default route
feasible successor route
gateway
secondary route
successor route
4 Why would it be necessary to configure the bandwidth setting on an EIGRP interface rather than
leaving it at the default setting? (Choose two.)
A suboptimal route may be chosen as the best path to a destination if the bandwidth setting is
higher than the actual bandwidth of the link.
The network may be unable to converge if the bandwidth setting does not match the actual
bandwidth of the link.
Routing updates might arrive too fast for the interface to handle and be discarded because of
buffer overflow.
The configured bandwidth must match the actual speed of the link so the link will operate
properly.
Setting the bandwidth to a higher rate will optimize the effective throughput of the link.
5 If an EIGRP route goes down and a feasible successor is not found in the topology table, how
does DUAL flag the route that has failed?
recomputed
passive
active
down
unreachable
successor
6 What tables does EIGRP maintain for each routed protocol it supports? (Choose three.)
adjacency table
topology table
neighbor table
routing table
link state table
ARP table
7 In which of the following tables does the EIGRP DUAL algorithm store the primary route to a
destination? (Choose two.)
routing
topology
neighbor
path
shortest path
8 Which of the following are found in the EIGRP neighbor table? (Choose two.)
routes installed by DUAL
lowest calculated metric to each destination
network layer address of the neighbor routers
number of EIGRP packets waiting to be sent
feasible distance to each neighbor
9 Which of the following router commands is recommended only for troubleshooting specific types
of network problems, not for monitoring normal network operation?
show
list
debug
terminal monitor
10 Which EIGRP command is used to view all routes that are known by the router?
show ip eigrp interfaces detail
show ip eigrp traffic
show ip eigrp neighbors
show ip eigrp topology all-links
11 What is the default administrative distance of EIGRP internal routes?

70
90
100
110
120
255
12 What is the advantage of routers forming adjacencies when using EIGRP? (Choose three.)
Neighbor routers can quickly take over for a router that is in passive mode.
New routers and their routes can quickly be discovered by neighbor routers.
A router can share routing loads with neighbor routers.
A router can quickly discover when a neighbor router is no longer available.
Changes in network topology can quickly be shared with neighbor routers.
Neighbor routers can save overhead by sharing their DUAL databases.
13 Which of the following types of routes will be denoted by EX in EIGRP routing table entries?
(Choose two.)
routes learned from other routing protocols
routes learned from any non-adjacent EIGRP routers
any route with a hop count metric higher than 224
EIGRP routes that originate in different autonomous systems
all passive routes in the routing table
14 Which command will help identify established OSPF neighbor adjacencies?

router# show ospf neighbor
router# debug neighbor events
router# debug ip ospf neighbor
router# show ip ospf neighbor
15 Which command will display only the current EIGRP routing table entries?
Router# show ip route eigrp
Router# show eigrp route
Router# show eigrp protocol
16
Host 192.168.1.66 in the network illustrated is unable to ping host 192.168.1.130. How must
EIGRP be configured to enable connectivity between the two hosts? (Choose two.)
R1(config-router)# network 192.168.1.128
R1(config-router)# auto-summary
R1(config-router)# no auto-summary
R2(config-router)# no auto-summary
R2(config-router)# auto-summary
R2(config-router)# network 192.168.1.64
17 What information is maintained in the EIGRP topology database for a destination route?
(Choose three.)
the routing protocol
the feasible distance of the route
the highest cost of the route
the SRTT value for the route
the route cost as advertised by the neighboring router
the physical address of the gateway interface

1 Which statements are true concerning the shared memory buffering used by an Ethernet switch?
(Choose two.)
Frames are processed through a single queue.
All frames are placed in a common memory buffer.
Frames are placed in a queue for the destination port.
A port with a full memory buffer can cause frames for available ports to be delayed.
Each switch port is statically assigned a buffer of equal size.
2 What are the functions of routers? (Choose three.)

improving network performance by increasing latency by twenty to thirty percent
segmenting broadcast domains
forwarding packets based on destination network layer addresses
segmenting collision domains
forwarding packets as soon as the destination MAC address is read
developing routing table entries based on source IP addresses
3 What are the functions of a Layer 2 Ethernet switch? (Choose three.)

preventing broadcasts
increasing available bandwidth per user
decreasing the size of collision domains
isolating traffic among segments
routing traffic between different networks
decreasing the number of broadcast domains
4 Why does a switch have higher throughput compared to a bridge?

Switching occurs in software.
Switching occurs in hardware.
Switches create multiple broadcast domains.
Switches segment LANs.
5 Why would a network administrator segment a network with a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two.)
to create fewer collision domains
to enhance user bandwidth
to create more broadcast domains
to eliminate virtual circuits
to isolate traffic between segments
to isolate ARP request messages from the rest of the network
Refer to the graphic. Which point must be reached before a frame is forwarded when the switch is
using store-and-forward mode?
A
B
C
D
E
F
7 Hubs are concerned with which PDU?

bits
frames
packets
datagrams
8 Which statements are true regarding hubs? (Choose three.)

Hubs operate at Layer 1 of the OSI model.
They create separate collision domains.
Signals are distributed through all ports.
Layer 2 addresses are used to make decisions.
They calculate the CRC for each frame received prior to forwarding.
Bandwidth is shared among all connected users.
9 Which device provides segmentation within a single network?

hub
server
switch
transceiver
10 Which of the following is a Layer 2 broadcast address?

0.0.0.0
255.255.255.255
11:11:11:11
FF:FF:FF:FF
FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF
11
Refer to the graphic. Which point in the frame must be reached before it is forwarded by a
switch that is using fast-forward mode?
A
B
C
D
E
F
12 Which switching mode changes to store-and-forward mode after it detects a given number of
errors?
cut-through
adaptive fast-forward
fragment-free
adaptive cut-through
13 Which form of buffering is used by bridges?

cut-through
fragment-free
fast-forward
store-and-forward
14 Where are switching tables stored in a Cisco LAN switch?

ROM
CAM
Flash
SIMM
NRAM
15 Which of the following are true regarding the addition of switches to a network? (Choose
two.)
They increase the number of collision domains.
They decrease the number of collision domains.
They increase the number of broadcast domains.
They decrease the number of broadcast domains.
They increase the amount of bandwidth available to users.
They decrease the amount of bandwidth available to users.
16 Which of the following is used to build a switching table?

source IP addresses
destination IP addresses
destination MAC addresses
source MAC addresses
17 Which statements describe asymmetric switching? (Choose three.)

It uses data compression algorithms to manage higher bandwidth interfaces.
It is often used to provide high bandwidth uplinks for a number of lower bandwidth client
interfaces.
It provides connections between network segments that operate at different bandwidths.
It uses cut-through forwarding when going from a lower bandwidth to a higher bandwidth
interface.
It is used to provide more bandwidth to network clients than to backbone or server links.
It may require buffering frames before forwarding to the destination interface.
18 What does switch latency describe?

forwarding method used by a switch
time it takes for a frame to be received by a switch
improvement in network performance from using a switch
time delay between when a frame enters and exits a switch
increase in the size of a collision domain from using a switch
19 How does an Ethernet bridge handle an incoming frame? (Choose three.)

The source MAC address and input interface pair are added to the bridging table.
The destination MAC address and input interface pair are added to the bridging table.
If no match to the destination MAC address is found in the bridging table, the frame is
discarded.
If no match to the destination MAC address is found in the bridging table, the frame is
flooded out all other interfaces.
If a match to the destination MAC address is found in the bridging table, the frame is
forwarded out the associated interface.
If a match to the source MAC address is found in the bridging table, the frame is forwarded to
all ports.
20 Which attribute is used by a bridge to make forwarding decisions?

source IP address
source MAC address
Layer 4-7 protocol address
1 At which layer of the hierarchical design model do users connect to the network?
application
access
distribution
network
core
2 Which layer of the hierarchical network design model is often referred to as the backbone
access
distribution
network
core
workgroup
WAN
3 What will increase the number of broadcast domains in a network? (Choose two.)
replacing hubs with switches
segmenting the network by installing a router
creating VLANs for each workgroup
adding additional hubs to the local area network
replacing routers with LAN switches
adding bridges to connect different workgroups
4 Where should DNS and email servers be located?

IDF
MDF
HCC
VCC
POP
5 VLAN1 and VLAN2 have been configured on a switch. What must be done for hosts on VLAN1 to
communicate with hosts on VLAN2?
VLAN overlapping must be enabled on the switch.
The MAC address must be added to the ARP table in the switch.
A router must be configured to allow routing between the VLANs.
An entry in the switching table must be configured for each VLAN.
Communication between VLANs is automatically enabled on switches.
6 What type of cabling is specified by TIA/EIA standards for interconnection of Intermediate and
Main Distribution Facilities?
patch cables of variable lengths
horizontal cross-connect cabling
vertical cross-connect cabling
parallel cross-connect cabling
7 Which of the following affect network availability? (Choose three.)

throughput
response time
workstation speed
access to resources
desktop applications
8 Which of the following are requirements of LAN design? (Choose three.)

adaptability
manageability
operability
scalability
stability
9 Why is it important that the data carrying capacity of vertical cabling be greater than that
of the horizontal cable?
Vertical cabling is reserved for high bandwith video conferencing.
Vertical cabling carries traffic from the IDF to the user.
Vertical cabling carries traffic from the enterprise out to the Internet.
Vertical cabling carries traffic from multiple areas of the network.
Layer-three packets move faster through vertical cabling.
10 A distribution layer switch operates at which OSI layers? (Choose two.)

access
data link
network
internet
transport
11 To reduce cost on a new network design, administrators select switches that initially will
have 100 Mbps interface modules installed but will also have the ability to support 1000 Mbps
interface modules. Which of the LAN design goals are being utilized? (Choose two.)
sustainability
reliability
manageability
adaptability
functionality
scalability
12 Which of the following are characteristics of the core layer of the hierarchical network
design model? (Choose three.)
redundant paths
high-level policy enforcement
packet manipulation
media transitions
rapid forwarding of traffic
no packet filtering
13 Which of the following are features of the access layer of the hierarchical network design
model? (Choose two.)
inter-VLAN routing
Layer 2 filtering
Layer 3 filtering
microsegmentation
bandwidth security
14 Which LAN standard uses CSMA/CD as its access method?

FDDI
Ethernet
Wireless
Token Ring
15 A network administrator needs to increase bandwidth and reduce traffic on a network. What
should be used in the access layer of the hierarchical network design model to dedicate
bandwidth to users while limiting broadcast domains?
one router with multiple fast Ethernet interfaces
multiple routers with Fast Ethernet interfaces
multi-port gigabit switches
switches running VLANs
managed smart hubs
16 Which devices are considered acceptable for creating more connection points at the end of
horizontal cable runs? (Choose two.)
hubs
bridges
switches
routers
17 A major network upgrade that was designed to improve speed and reliability has recently been
completed. Users in one part of the network are experiencing dramatically decreased throughput
and loss of connectivity. Which of the LAN design goals was not met for these users?
functionality
sustainability
adaptability
manageability
scalability
18 When designing a LAN, at which layer of the OSI model does the process of segmenting
collision domains occur?
Layer 1
Layer 2
Layer 4
Layer 7
19 Which hierarchical design model layer is responsible for containing network problems to the
workgroups in which they occur?
application
access
distribution
network
core
20 What is the primary reason for implementing security and policy routing at the distribution
layer?
filtering of core switching errors
preventing policy and security issues from burdening the core layer
preventing unnecessary security policy decisions from burdening the access layer
maintaining a consistent three-layer security policy
isolating the access layer from traffic destined for other networks
1 A new policy for disaster recovery requires copying all critical network configurations and
operating systems to a backup server that will be stored offsite. Which command will create a
backup of the switch IOS image on the server?
Switch# copy tftp NVRAM
Switch# copy running-config tftp
Switch# copy flash tftp
Switch# copy IOS tftp
Switch# copy tftp flash
Switch# copy NVRAM tftp
2 Which commands can be used to change from Global Configuration mode to Privileged EXEC mode?
(Choose three.)
Ctrl+z
disable
end
exit
logout
3 An administrator is using the switch help facility to find the command elements available to
the configure command. What would the user type at the command prompt to display the next set of
arguments available in the syntax for this command
Switch# c?
Switch# c ?
Switch# configure?
Switch# configure ?
4 Which switch command mode should always be password protected?

User Command
User Config
User EXEC
User Privileged
Privileged EXEC
5 What must be done in order to initiate the password recovery procedure on a Catalyst 2900
series switch?
Rename the Flash file.
Enter the setup program by deleting the switch configuration file and rebooting the switch.
Hold down the MODE button during switch startup.
Wait for the STAT LED to turn green while holding down the Break key.
Hold down the Ctrl-Break keys during switch startup.
6 Which protocol is used to copy a new IOS image to a Catalyst switch during the upgrade
procedure?
HTTP
Telnet
TFTP
TTY
IOS
7 A group of hosts has been connected to a new Fast Ethernet switch. Which of the following
statements describe this newly created LAN, if the new switch has not yet been configured?
(Choose three.)
The hosts will negotiate 10 Mbps or 100 Mbps bandwidth with the switch, as required by their
NICs.
The hosts will be in separate broadcast domains.
All of the hosts will be in the same VLAN.
Hosts with 10 Mbps NICs will be unable to communicate with the network.
All of the hosts should be able to send and receive ARP messages from each other.
All of the hosts connected by Ethernet can manage the switch over Telnet or HTTP.
8 A workstation on a switched Ethernet LAN is to be upgraded with a new Fast Ethernet NIC. What
should be done to ensure that the workstation will be able to gain access to the network?
delete the configuration file from the switch and reload IOS
deactivate port security on the port until the new host has connected to the network
remove the host from the the management VLAN until the new MAC address has been learned by the
switch
delete the VLAN.dat file from flash and reboot the switch
configure the attached switch port for full-duplex mode
9 Although the backup configuration file on a Catalyst 2950 switch has been erased, it is found
that VLANs are still configured in the switch. What must be done to clear the configured VLANs?
The vlan.dat file must be erased and the switch reloaded.
The switch flash memory must be purged and the switch rebooted.
The vlan.cfg file must be renamed and IOS restarted.
Each VLAN needs to be deleted individually and the configuration saved.
The switch needs to be restarted, because the old running configuration is still in memory.
10 Which type of cable is used to connect to the console port on a switch?

a crossover cable
a patch cable
a rollover cable
a straight-thru cable
11 From which switch command mode can the configure command be used?
config
user EXEC
privileged EXEC
command EXEC
flash
12 An old workstation has been replaced with a new one. The workgroup switch, a Catalyst 2950,
is not learning the MAC address of the new workstation. A network technician has verified that a
static MAC address is not configured on the attached switch port. Which two commands can the
technician issue at the switch CLI to further troubleshoot the problem? (Choose two.)
Switch# show port security
Switch# show version
Switch# show startup-config
Switch# clear mac-address-table dynamic
Switch# reload
Switch# delete flash:vlan.dat
13 Which methods can be used to perform the initial configuration of a new switch? (Choose two.)
copy a configuration from a FTP server
type commands manually after entering the Privileged EXEC mode
enter the System Configuration dialog
Telnet to a local server to copy a configuration file
connect to the switch using a web browser
14 How long will a host MAC address remain in the address table of a switch after the host has
been turned off or moved to another device?
30 seconds
180 seconds
300 seconds
30 minutes
15 What is the name of the series of tests that execute every time a switch is powered on?
RPS
bootstrap
power-on self test
system STAT
pre-boot
16 After powering up a switch, the network technician notices that the system LED is amber. What
can the technician assume? (Choose two.)
The switch is negotiating full or half-duplex mode.
The switch has completed negotiating 10 or 100 Mbps speed.
The POST has failed.
The boot sequence is in process.
A fatal error has occurred.
The switch is operating properly and is ready for service.
17 When the copy tftp flash command is used to upgrade the IOS on a switch, which symbol
indicates that the image was copied successfully?
e
*
!
s
#
18 What color is the System LED if the switch fails the POST?
amber
green
red
white
off
19 How can a switch be configured to prevent unauthorized hosts from access to a network?
(Choose three.)
Host MAC addresses can be statically assigned to each switch port.
Layer 2 access control lists can be used to prevent unauthorized network access.
Unused ports can be shutdown.
Passwords and usernames can be set for each Ethernet switch port.
Unused switch ports can be assigned to the management VLAN.
Port security can be activated to allow only the host with the first MAC address learned on a
port to access the network.
20 Which files must be deleted in order to completely remove an existing configuration from a
Cisco 2950 switch? (Choose two.)
flash:c2950-c3h2s-mz.120-5-3.WC.1.bin
running-config
VLAN.bin
startup-config
c2950-c3h2s-mz.120-5-3.WC.1.dat
VLAN.dat
1 Which of the following describe the BIDs used in a spanning tree topology? (Choose two.)
They are sent out by the root bridge only after the inferior BPDUs are sent.
They consist of a bridge priority and MAC address.
Only the root bridge will send out a BID.
They are used by the switches in a spanning tree topology to elect the root bridge.
The switch with the fastest processor will have the lowest BID.
2 Which algorithm is used to create a loop free switched topology?

Spanning Tree
Shortest Path First
Dykstra
Rapid Tree
Bellman-Ford
3 What is meant by "five nines" network uptime?

A network should be available until 9:00 pm five days of the week.
A network should be functioning 99.999% of the time.
There should be five nine-port uplinks for each backbone segment.
Five percent of network expenditures should address 99% of user requirements.
Nothing short of 100% network uptime is acceptable in modern networks.
Switch_A and Switch_B shown in the graphic receive an ARP request from the host and forward it
out their ports. The switches receive the forwarded requests from each other and in turn flood
the requests again. What will be the result if this process continues?
a broadcast storm
multicast errors
ARP table errors
MAC address instability
redundant unicast frame forwarding
5 Which of the following are valid STP port states? (Choose three.)
blocking
learning
converging
listening
switching
6 How often are BPDUs sent by default in a network using the spanning-tree algorithm?
every second
every two seconds
every three seconds
every four seconds
7 What happens when there is a topology change on a network that utilizes STP ? (Choose two.)
User traffic is disrupted until recalculation is complete.
The switch recomputes the Spanning Tree topology after the network converges.
All ports are placed in learning state until convergence has occurred.
A delay of up to 50 seconds is incurred for convergence of the new Spanning Tree topology.
User data is forwarded while BPDUs are exchanged to recompute the topology.
8 How can a network administrator influence which STP switch becomes the root bridge?
Configure the switch as the static root bridge.
Change the BPDU to a higher value than that of the other switches in the network.
Change the BPDU to a lower value than that of the other switches in the network.
Set the switch priority to a smaller value than that of the other switches in the network.
Set the switch priority to a higher value than that of the other switches in the network.
9 What features of the Spanning-Tree Protocol contribute to the time it takes for a switched
network to converge after a topology change occurs? (Choose three.)
the max-age timer
the listening forward delay
the spanning-tree hold down timer
the learning forward delay
the spanning-tree path cost
the blocking delay
10 How does a switch forward a multicast frame through the network?

It floods it to all ports as a broadcast.
It is forwarded only to ports that contain the destination address.
It is sent to the port that contains the first destination address.
It floods it to all ports except the one it was received on.
It is dropped and not sent to any address.
11 Following a link failure, when does Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol allow point-to-point and
edge type links to go to the forwarding state?
in 15 seconds
never
immediately
in 30 seconds
after 90 seconds
12 What is the first step in the process of convergence in a spanning tree topology?
election of the root bridge
determination of the designated port for each segment
blocking of the non-designated ports
selection of the designated trunk port
activation of the root port for each segment
13 What link types have been defined for Rapid Spanning-Tree Protocol? (Choose three.)
shared
end-to-end
edge-type
boundary-type
point-to-many
point-to-point
14 What characteristic of Ethernet makes a redundantly switched network prone to loops?

Routers are only able to prevent loops at Layer 3, while Ethernet exists at Layer 2.
The Ethernet protocol has no TTL mechanism.
Switches lack the sophisticated software required to prevent loops.
Looping of frames is a reliability mechanism built in to the Ethernet protocol.
15 In which STP state does a switch port transmit user data and learn MAC addresses?
blocking
learning
disabling
listening
forwarding
16 In which STP state does a port record MAC addresses but not forward user data?
blocking
learning
disabling
listening
forwarding
17 Which of the following criteria does a switch use to select the root bridge? (Choose two.)
memory size
bridge priority
switching speed
number of ports
base MAC address
switch location
18 What elements will exist in a converged network with one spanning tree? (Choose two.)
one root bridge per network
all non-designated ports forwarding
one root port per non-root bridge
multiple designated ports per segment
one designated port per network
19
Refer to the network shown in the graphic. Host1 needs to transfer data to host2, but host1 has
no MAC address entry in its ARP cache for host2. What will happen on the network as host1
prepares to transmit its data to host2?
Host1 will receive an ICMP destination unknown message from switch3.
All hosts in the network shown will receive an ARP request message from host1.
Multicasting will occur until host2 is located.
Switch3 will send the host2 MAC address from its bridging table to host1.
A broadcast storm will occur.
20 How much time does it take for a switch port to go from the blocking state to the forwarding
state?
2 seconds
15 seconds
20 seconds
50 seconds
21
Refer to the graphic. Server sends an ARP request for the MAC address of its default gateway. If
STP is not enabled, what will be the result of this ARP request?
Router_1 will kill the broadcast and reply with the MAC address of the next hop router.
Switch_A will reply with the MAC address of the Router_1 E0 interface.
Switch_A and Switch_B will continuously flood the message onto the network.
Switch_B will broadcast the request and reply with the Router_1 address.
The message will cycle around the network until its TTL is exceeded.
22 Which of the following are problems that can occur in redundantly switched networks? (Choose
three.)
broadcast storms
corrupted ARP tables
duplicate MAC addresses
inaccurate routing tables
multiple copies of Ethernet frames
MAC address table instability
23 How is the information contained in BPDUs used by switches? (Choose two.)

to prevent loops by sharing bridging tables between connected switches
to set the duplex mode of a redundant link
to determine the shortest path to the root bridge
to determine which ports will forward frames as part of the spanning tree
to activate looped paths throughout the network
1 Which approach to assigning VLAN membership maximizes forwarding performance?

membership by MAC address
membership by logical address
membership by protocol
membership by port
membership by operating system
2 What are the characteristics of VLAN1 in a default switch configuration? (Choose three.)
CDP messages are only sent on VLAN1.
VLAN1 is reserved for links between switches.
All switch ports are members of VLAN1.
VLAN1 must be created before ports can be assigned to it.
Only switch port 0/1 is assigned to VLAN1.
An IP address configured on the switch will only apply to ports on VLAN1.
3 How does a bridge handle the frames that it receives? (Choose three.)
If the source is unknown, the source port is shutdown.
If the source port of a frame is unknown, a bridge will issue an ARP request.
If the destination is on another segment, the bridge forwards the frame only to the correct
interface.
A bridge forwards frames for unknown destinations to the default gateway.
If the destination port is unknown, a bridge will flood the frame to all ports in the
broadcast domain, except for the source port.
If the destination of the frame is on the same segment as the source, a bridge will not
forward the frame.
4 What needs to be done when deleting an entire VLAN? (Choose three.)

Enter database configuration mode.
Reboot the switch in order for the changes to take effect.
Use the negative form of the command that was used to create the VLAN.
Reassign the switch ports from the deleted VLAN to other VLANs if they are to be used.
Use the erase vlan command in global configuration mode.
Delete the vlan.dat file from flash.
5 A network administrator is attempting to configure routing between VLANs over a trunked link.
A trunk link cannot be established between a switch and a router. Which of the following are
possible sources of this problem? (Choose two.)
The router IOS does not support trunking.
The port is connected and is not receiving alignment and FCS errors.
The switch duplex and speed are not set properly.
The router and switch are running different versions of STP.
The switch IP address is incorrectly configured.
6 If two 12-port hubs are connected to a switch that has three VLANs configured, how many
bridging tables will the switch maintain?
1
2
3
12
36
7 A network administrator has configured a switch with VLANs. Hosts will join the VLANs based on
their MAC or IP address. What type of VLANs have been configured on the switch?
dynamic
database
multiple
port-based
8 A network administrator has configured a switch with three VLANs: VLAN1, VLAN2, and VLAN3.
Port 10 is to be assigned to VLAN3. Which of the following commands are needed to assign port 10
to VLAN3? (Choose three.)
Switch_1(config)# switchport interface fastethernet 0/10
Switch_1(config-if)# switchport mode access
Switch_1(config-if)# switchport access
Switch_1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 3
Switch_1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/10
Switch_1# vlan database
9 How does the use of VLANs benefit an organization? (Choose two.)

by centralizing departmental staff and network resources together in a single physical area
by allowing organizational flexibility by grouping users together by function instead of
physical location
by simplifying the task of adding and moving network resources and users in a growing
organization
by reducing the number of broadcast domains in an enterprise network
by eliminating the need for routing traffic in large networks
by reducing network management costs by replacing many Layer 2 devices with a few Layer 3
devices
10 Which of the following states the 80/20 rule of end-to-end VLANs

80% of network resources should be remote and 20% should be on the local VLAN.
80% of VLANs should be static and the remaining 20% should be dynamic.
80% of network traffic should be local and 20% remote.
80% of the network sources should be centralized at the core layer and the remaining 20% at
the distribution layer.
80% of traffic should be routed and 20% should be switched.
11 Which factors influence the number of VLANs that may be required on a switch? (Choose three.)
the physical addressing scheme
traffic patterns in the network
types of applications in use
the adaptability of the network
workgroup functions and commonality
the tagging option used for VLAN identification
12 A network administrator has just finished configuring a switch with multiple VLANs. A
workstation on VLAN2 cannot communicate with a workstation on VLAN3. What needs to be done to
correct this problem?
The traffic needs to be routed between the two VLANs.
The hosts must be reconfigured to be on the same logical network.
The VLANs need to be configured to be on the same broadcast domain.
The switch must be configured to share VLAN traffic.
13 Which of the following describe networks in which the use of static VLANs is appropriate?
(Choose three.)
Workstations, departments, and network resources are seldom moved.
VLAN port membership frequently changes.
Robust VLAN management software is available to the network administrator.
The overhead required to manage VLAN MAC address and custom filtering tables is not desirable.
VLANs are often added, deleted, and modified.
14 VLAN 10 needs to be removed from a switch. Which command must the administrator enter in
order to accomplish this task?
Switch(config-if)# no switchport access vlan 10
Switch(config-if)# erase switchport access vlan 10
Switch(vlan)# no vlan 10
Switch(vlan)# no vlan database 10
15
Refer to the network shown in the graphic. Host A on VLAN1 has sent a message requesting the MAC
address of its default gateway. Which of the following network hosts will process this message?
The message will be seen by the hosts on VLAN1 and VLAN2.
The message will be seen only by the hosts connected to Switch1.
The message will be seen only by the hosts connected to VLAN1 on Switch1.
The message will be seen by the hosts connected to VLAN1 on Switch1 and Switch2.
The message will only be seen by router interface e0.
16 If a switch connects 12 collision domains and is configured with three VLANs, how many
broadcast domains does it have?
1
3
4
12
17 Which of the following commands are used to verify VLAN configuration? (Choose two.)
Switch# show vlan id id_number
Switch# show vlan
Switch# show config vlan id_number
Switch# show vlan config id_number
Switch# show interface vlan id_number
18 Which of the following commands will assign switch port 0/9 to VLAN3?
Switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan 3
Switch(config-if)# switchport vlan 3
Switch(config-if)# switchport access 3
Switch(vlan)# switchport 0/9
Switch(vlan)# access switchport 0/9
19 What does a switch do when it receives a frame and the source address is unknown?
The switch will discard the frame.
The switch will request the sender resend the frame.
The switch will map the source address to the port on which it was received.
The switch will flood the frame to all attached devices.
The switch will issue an ARP request to confirm that the source exists.
20 What is true of the method by which VLAN membership is identified in Ethernet frames? (Choose
two.)
The frame header is in its original format when it reaches the endpoint device.
The VLAN membership of frames does not need to be identified unless ISL is in use.
The Ethernet frame is encapsulated or modified with the VLAN ID information.
The VLAN ID is removed by the endpoint device upon delivery of the frame.
21 Which of the following statements are true regarding a root bridge in a spanning tree
topology? (Choose two.)
The root bridge timers control BPDU traffic on the network.
Only the show commands on the switch can display root bridge information.
It is the central point of a spanning tree topology.
Storm control is enabled by default.
VLANs cannot be trunked between switches until the root bridge has been elected.
22 Which of the following are methods of establishing VLAN membership? (Choose three.)
logical addresses
physical addresses
ISL addresses
switch port attachment
hardware platform
traffic pattern
23 Switch-A and Switch-B are both configured with ports in the Marketing, Sales, Accounting, and
Admin VLANs. Each VLAN contains 12 users. How many different subnetworks will be needed to
enable routed connectivity between the VLANs?
1
4
12
48
24 What happens to the member ports of a VLAN when the VLAN is deleted?
They become inactive.
They default back to the management VLAN.
They automatically become a part of VLAN1.
They must be assigned to another VLAN before the original VLAN can be deleted.
They remain a part of that VLAN until the switch is rebooted. They then become members of the
management VLAN.

1 A router has two serial interfaces and two FastEthernet interfaces. It needs to connect to a
wide area link to the main office and to four VLANs in the local network. How can this be
accomplished in the most efficient manner?
Connect a trunked uplink from the switch to a router FastEthernet interface and create logical
subinterfaces for each VLAN.
Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a FastEthernet interface on the router.
Two additional FastEthernet interfaces are required to interconnect the VLANs.
Use serial to FastEthernet transceivers to connect two of the VLANs to the router. Attach the
other two VLANs directly to the available FastEthernet ports.
Add a second router to handle the inter-VLAN traffic.
The switches in the diagram are connected with trunks within the same VTP management domain.
Each switch is labeled with its VTP mode. A new VLAN is added to Switch3. This VLAN does not
show up on the other switches. What is the reason for this?
VLANs cannot be created on transparent mode switches.
Server mode switches neither listen to nor forward VTP messages from transparent mode
switches.
VLANs created on transparent mode switches are not included in VTP advertisements.
There are no ports assigned to the new VLAN on the other switches.
Transparent mode switches do not forward VTP advertisements.
Refer to the graphic. What are some advantages of replacing the individual VLAN links between
Switch1 and Switch2 with a single trunk line? (Choose three.)
It would free 2 switch ports on each switch.
It would free 3 switch ports on each switch.
It would save 2 cabling runs.
It would save 3 cabling runs.
It would provide three times the bandwidth of the individual links.
It would allow adding more VLANs without requiring more cabling or switch ports.
A switch is configured with the commands shown in the diagram. Host1 is connected to port 0/4
with an IP address of 192.168.1.22/28. Host2 is connected to port 0/5 with an IP address of
192.168.1.33/28. Host3 is connected to port 0/6 with an IP address of 192.168.1.30/28. Select
the statements that describe the success of pinging from one host to another. (Choose three.)
Host1 can ping Host2.
Host1 cannot ping Host2.
A router is configured to connect to a trunked uplink as shown in the graphic. A packet is

received on the FastEthernet 0/1 physical interface from VLAN 10. The packet destination address
is 192.168.1.120. What will the router do with this packet?
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1 tagged for VLAN 10.
The router will not process the packet since the source and destination are on the same
subnet.
The router will drop the packet since no network that includes the source address is attached
to the router.
6 A switch in a VTP domain sends an advertisement request. What will be the response?
A configuration status reply will be issued from the closest client switch.
A three-way handshake will establish a configuration session with the VTP server.
Summary and subset advertisements will be sent by the VTP server.
The configuration version number will be set to zero and all switches in the domain will issue
advertisements regarding the state of their VLANs.
7 Which devices can be connected to a VLAN trunk? (Choose three.)

a switch
a hub
a router
a server with a special NIC
a CSU/DSU
a repeater
8 What should be done before moving a Catalyst switch to a new VTP management domain? (Choose
three.)
Verify that the new switch has a lower configuration revision number than the other switches
in the domain.
Reset the VTP counters to allow the switch to synchronize with the other switches in the
domain.
Download the VTP database from the VTP server in the new domain.
Configure the VTP server in the domain to recognize the BID of the new switch.
Select the correct VTP mode and version.
Configure the switch with the name of the new management domain.
9 Which of the following must be used when configuring a router interface for VLAN trunking?
(Choose three.)
one subinterface per VLAN
one physical interface for each subinterface
one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface
one trunked link per VLAN
a management domain for each subinterface
a compatible trunking protocol encapsulation for each subinterface
10 By default, to which VLAN does a trunked link belong?
the first VLAN defined
the last VLAN defined
all VLANs
the lowest number VLAN
11
If trunking were not used in the network shown in the graphic, how many links would be required
to carry the traffic for all the VLANs between the switches?
1
2
3
4
12
Host A sends a frame to host B over the network shown in the graphic. Each link has been labeled
with a letter. On which links along the path between hosts A and B will a VLAN ID tag be
included with the frame?
C, E
A, C, E
C, E, F
A, C, D, E
A, B, C, D, E
A, B, C, D, E, F, G
13
Which statements describe the network design shown in the graphic? (Choose three.)
This design will not scale easily.
This design exceeds the maximum number of VLANs that can be attached to a switch.
Devices on the different VLANs can communicate through the router.
This design requires the use of the ISL or 802.1q protocol on the links between the switch and
the router.
This design uses more switch and router ports than are necessary.
The router merges the VLANs into a single broadcast domain.
14 What causes a VTP configured switch to issue a summary advertisement?

A new host has been attached to a switch in the management domain.
A port on a switch in the management domain has changed to blocking mode.
A five-minute update timer has elapsed.
The advertisement revision number has reached n+1.
15
The LAN devices are configured as shown in the diagram. Why are Host1 and Host2 unable to
communicate?
No VTP domain has been configured.
A router is needed to forward traffic between the VLANs.
The switch does not have an entry in its CAM table for Host2.
The host IP configurations are on different networks.
The ports on each VLAN must be grouped together on the switch.
16
Switch1 is not participating in the VTP management process with the other switches shown in the
graphic. What are the possible reasons for this? (Choose two.)
Switch2 is in transparent mode.
Switch1 is in client mode.
Switch1 is using VTP version 1 and Switch2 is using VTP version 2.
Switch2 is in server mode.
Switch1 is in a different management domain.
Switch1 has no VLANs.
17 What does a client mode switch in a VTP management domain do when it receives a summary
advertisement with a revision number higher than its current revision number?
It suspends forwarding until a subset advertisement update arrives.
It issues an advertisement request for new VLAN information.
It increments the revision number and forwards it to other switches.
It deletes the VLANs not included in the summary advertisement.
It issues summary advertisements to advise other switches of status changes.
18 What information does frame tagging add to each frame to allow delivery of frames across a
switched trunk?
the destination MAC address
the switch MAC address
the VLAN ID
the BID
19 Which of the following statements describe VTP transparent mode operation? (Choose two.)
Transparent mode switches can create VLAN management information.
Transparent mode switches can add VLANs of local significance only.
Transparent mode switches pass VLAN management information that they receive to other
switches.
Transparent mode switches can adopt VLAN management changes received from other switches.
Transparent mode switches send out updates informing other switches about changes in the
status of their VLANs.
20 Select the items that describe VTP client mode operation. (Choose two.)
can add VLANs of local significance only
can only adopt VLAN management changes
can create and adopt updated VLAN management information
can only pass VLAN management information without adopting changes
can add VLANs to domain
cannot add VLANs
21
A new host needs to be connected to VLAN 1. Router RA is attached to the VTP trunk and
configured as shown in the output contained in the graphic. Which of the following IP addresses
should be assigned to this new host?
192.168.1.1 /26
192.168.1.11 /28
192.168.1.22 /28
192.168.1.33 /28
192.168.1.44 /28
192.168.1.55 /28
22 How do devices on VLANs communicate? (Choose two.)

Devices on different VLANs communicate through VTP.
Devices on different VLANs communicate through routers.
Devices on different VLANs communicate over a trunk link between switches.
Devices on the same VLAN communicate through a router.
Devices on the same VLAN communicate through Layer 2 switches.
CISCO CCNA 3 - Final Exam
Refer to the graphic. What is the most efficient summarization of the routes attached to router
RT-5?
192.168.0.0/16
192.168.52.0/24
192.168.48.0/22
192.168.52.0/22
192.168.51.0/23
192.168.48.0/21
2
Refer to the exhibit. Which sequence of commands is required to configure switch port Fa0/2 for
host A?
SW-1(config)# interface vlan 20
SW-1(config-if)# switchport mode access 20
SW-1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/2
SW-1(config-if)# switchport mode access
SW-1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 20
SW-1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/2
SW-1(config-if)# vlan 20
SW-1(config)# interface vlan 20
SW-1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
3 Which layer of the hierarchical three-layer design model combines traffic from multiple IDFs?
access
backbone
distribution
core
4 A network administrator is removing several VLANs from a switch. When the administrator enters
the no vlan 1 command, an error is received. Why did this command generate an error?
VLANs can only be deleted by the user who created them.
VLAN 1 can not be deleted until another VLAN has been assigned its responsibilities.
The command was not entered properly, which caused a syntax error to occur.
VLAN 1 can not be deleted until all ports have been removed from it.
VLAN 1 is the management VLAN by default and can not be deleted.
Refer to the exhibit. Which group of commands will correctly configure router ABC to use OSPF?
ABC(config)# router ospf 99
ABC(config-router)# network 192.168.43.64 255.255.255.224 area 0
6
Refer to the exhibit. Two Catalyst switches are connected, and both switches have ports
configured for VLANs 40 and 50 as shown. What will allow hosts on the same VLAN to communicate
with one another across the different switches?
trunking
STP
VTP
routing
7 Which characteristics of RIPv1 are different from RIPv2? (Choose three.)

its use of the hop count metric
its use of broadcast updates
its use of split horizon as a stability feature
the authentication of updates
its exclusively classful routing
its hop count maximum of 15
8 Employees of XYZ Company connect their laptop computers to the office LAN using Ethernet
ports. The Cisco switches used in the company network are configured with port security. At
which layer of the three-layer design model do these switches operate?
physical
distribution
data link
access
core
9 Which of the following tasks must be completed to configure a router interface to serve the
newly added network 192.168.10.64/27 and to advertise this network over RIP v2? (Choose three.)
RIP v2 must be configured with the network command and the IP network number for the new
network.
RIP v2 must be configured with the network command and the IP host address and subnet mask for
the newly activated interface.
The router must be configured with the ip subnet-zero command so that this network can be
added and advertised.
A network host address and subnet mask must be applied to the newly activated interface.
The routing protocol must be activated with the router rip and version 2 commands.
RIP v2 must be configured on the other enterprise routers with an entry for the newly added
network.
10 Which two statements describe Spanning Tree Protocol? (Choose two.)

It eliminates Layer 2 loops in network topologies.
It eliminates the need for redundant physical paths in network topologies.
It can only be used in networks in which Layer 2 switching is in use.
It can only be used in networks where both routers and switches are used together.
It can only be used in networks where routers are installed.
11
Refer to the graphic. The host on VLAN 2 cannot communicate with the host on VLAN 3. Which of
the following could be the problem based on the output of the show interface fastethernet 0/1
command from the switch?
The switch port 1 is not set to access mode.
The router interface connected to switch port 1 is shut down.
The router is not configured for trunking.
The switch port is not configured for full duplex or a speed of 100 Mbps.
12 What is added to a bridge CAM table as a frame passes through a switch?

source IP address
source MAC address
13
Refer to the routing table shown in the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value
192?
It is the value assigned by the Dijkstra algorithm that designates the number of hops in the
network.
It is the value used by the DUAL algorithm to determine the bandwidth for the link.
It is the metric, which is cost.
It is the administrative distance.
14
Refer to the exhibit. Routers East and West are configured using RIPv1. Both routers are sending
updates about their directly connected routes. The East router can ping the West router serial
interface and West can ping the serial interface of East. However, neither router has
dynamically learned routes from the other. What is most likely the problem?
A gateway of last resort is required.
Subnetting is not supported by RIPv1.
VLSM is not supported by RIPv1.
One of the routers needs a clock rate on the serial interface.
15
Refer to the exhibit. What is an advantage of this network design?

It maximizes the number of ports available for hosts.
It provides multiple paths for connectivity in the event of link failure.
It provides multiple paths for Layer 2 broadcasts to circulate through the network.
It allows Spanning Tree to forward traffic across redundant paths simultaneously.
16
Refer to the exhibit. What will be the result of DR elections in the OSPF network shown? (Choose
three.)
R1 will be DR of the 192.168.4.0/24 network.
17 What are two advantages provided by OSPF authentication? (Choose two.)

It ensures that routing information comes from a valid source router.
It ensures that OSPF routing information takes priority over RIP or EIGRP updates.
It encrypts routing tables to prevent unauthorized viewing.
It reduces OSPF information exchange overhead.
It prevents routing information from being falsified in transit.
18
Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is shown with its MAC address. Which switch will be elected as
the spanning-tree root bridge if the switches are configured with their default priority values?
switch A
switch B
switch C
switch D
switch E
switch F
19
Refer to the graphic. Switch 2 has computers attached that belong to VLAN 2. Switch 3 has
computers attached that belong to VLAN 3. Switch 1 is a Cisco 2926G Layer 3 switch that has a
route module installed. Switch 1 provides connectivity to the other switches and is used to
route between the VLANs. At which layer of the three-layer switch design model does Switch 1
operate?
physical
data link
core
access
network
distribution
20 A network administrator is having problems with excessive collisions on the corporate

network. If the network currently uses hubs, what is the most cost effective way to reduce
collisions?
add additional hubs
replace hubs with switches
replace hubs with access points
add a router to every hub segment
21 Which statements describe features of full-duplex Ethernet? (Choose three.)

allows packets to be received and sent simultaneously by a host
requires a minimum of two wires
reduces the number of collisions
allocates between 60 and 80 percent of available bandwidth in both directions
allocates 100 percent of the bandwidth in both directions
increases the number of broadcast domains
22 What does a constant green SYSTEM LED indicate on a Catalyst switch?

The switch has passed POST and is working properly
The switch has failed POST.
The switch is in the process of initializing ports.
The switch is going through POST.
The switch is actively sending and receiving frames.
23
Refer to the exhibit. Which command will remove the static address from the MAC address table?
ALSwitch(config)# no mac-address-table entry 00e0.2917.1884 fastethernet interface 0/4 VLAN 1
ALSwitch(config)# no mac-address-table entry 00e0.2917.1884 VLAN 1 fastethernet 04
ALSwitch(config-if)# no mac-address-table entry static 00e0.2917.1884 VLAN 1 fastethernet 04
ALSwitch(config-if)# no mac-address-table static 00e0.2917.1884 VLAN 1 fastethernet 04
ALSwitch(config)# no mac-address-table static 00e0.2917.1884 interface fastethernet 0/4 VLAN 1
24
Refer to the OSPF network in the exhibit. Router REMO_2 has been elected DR, but router REMO_1
is the more powerful router. How can the network administrator configure REMO_1 to force it to
be elected as DR?
REMO_1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
REMO_1(config-if)# ospf priority 0
REMO_1(config-if)# ip ospf priority 0
REMO_1(config-if)# ip ospf priority 255
REMO_1(config)# ospf priority 1
REMO_1(config)# ip ospf priority 255
25 What is the first step in the spanning-tree process?

elect a designated switch
use a router to locate a default gateway
elect a root bridge
determine the path cost of each active port on the switch
26 Which of the following statements is true when VTP is configured on a switched network that
incorporates VLANs?
VTP is only compatible with the 802.1Q standard.
VTP adds to the complexity of managing a switched network.
All VTP hello packets are routed through VLAN 1 interfaces.
Changes made to the network can be communicated to all switches dynamically.
27
Refer to the graphic. The network has converged. Network traffic analysis indicates that switch
A should be the STP root bridge. However, switch F has been elected root bridge of the STP tree.
The switches are all set to the default spanning-tree bridge priority value. How can the network
administrator change the root bridge to switch A?
Configure the bridge priority of switch A to a 1.
Configure the bridge priority of switch A to a 65,565.
Configure the bridge priority of switch F to 255.
Configure the bridge priority of switch F to 32,768.
28 Which of the following statements are true about routers that are running EIGRP? (Choose
three.)
They can support multiple routed protocols.
They can support only link-state protocols.
They send their entire routing tables to neighboring routers.
They send partial routing updates in response to topology changes.
They send routing updates to all other routers in the network.
They use hello packets to inform neighboring routers of their status.
29
Refer to the exhibit. A company always uses the last valid IP address in a subnetwork as the IP
address of the router LAN interface. A network administrator is using a laptop to configure
switch X with a default gateway. Assuming that the switch IP address is 192.168.5.147/24, what
command will the administrator use to assign a default gateway to the switch?
X(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.5.254
X(config)# ip gateway 192.168.5.1
X(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.5.1
X(config)# ip default-route 192.168.5.1
X(config)# ip route 192.168.5.254 255.255.255.0 fastethernet 0/0
30
Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration commands will direct outbound traffic from RT-2 to the
ISP and inbound traffic from the ISP to network 192.0.2.0/27?
RT-2(config)# ip route 172.16.127.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0/1
ISP(config)# ip route 192.0.2.0 255.255.255.224 serial 0/0
31
Refer to the output in the exhibit. What is true about the configuration of this switch?
Three ports have been assigned to the management VLAN.
VTP has been enabled for all ports.
ARP requests issued by the host on port Fa0/12 will be seen by all hosts on the PROD VLAN.
Hosts in the ACCT and ENGR VLANs must have IP addresses in the same subnet in order to
exchange data between VLANs.
32
Refer to the graphic. What is the first parameter used to determine which switch is selected as
the root bridge in the spanning-tree process?
highest Layer 2 address
highest priority number
highest path cost
lowest Layer 2 address
lowest priority number
lowest path cost
33 When should EIGRP automatic summarization be turned off?

when a router has not discovered a neighbor within three minutes
when a router has more than three active interfaces
when a router has discontiguous networks attached
when a router has less than five active interfaces
34
Refer to the exhibit. If the network is running RIP v2, which subnetworks can be assigned to the
serial links between RTR-2 and the two other routers?
198.19.23.192/30 and 198.19.23.196/30
198.19.23.160/30 and 198.19.23.164/30
198.19.23.96/30 and 198.19.23.100/30
198.19.23.32/30 and 198.19.23.160/30
198.19.23.4/30 and 198.19.23.8/30
35 Which switching method increases latency and reliability more than any other method?
cut-through
fast-forward
fragment-free
store-and-forward
36 What are two advantages of adding switches to a network that has no VLANs configured? (Choose
two.)
Switches help eliminate collision domains.
Switches create permanent virtual communication circuits.
Switches allow bandwidth to be fully utilized.
Switches decrease network throughput.
Switches shrink the size of broadcast domains.
37
Refer to the network and command output shown in the exhibit. A network administrator located at
the Branch1 site needs to check the configuration of a switch located at the Central office.
Which command can be used to gain remote access to the Central LAN switch, assuming the switch
is assigned the IP address 192.168.10.238/24?
Branch1# dial Central 192.168.10.238

Branch1(config)# line vty 0 4
Branch1(config-line)# telnet
Branch1# telnet Central
Branch1# telnet 192.168.10.238
38
Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that VLANs are not configured on the switch, how many broadcast
domains are there?
one
two
three
four
five
six
39
Refer to the exhibit. How should an administrator configure the ports on switches ACC-1 and ACC-
2 to allow hosts on the same VLAN to communicate across the two switches?
as trunks
as access ports
as channels
as inter-VLAN ports
as bridge ports
40
Refer to the exhibit. Which set of commands should be used on the router to provide
communication between the two hosts connected to the switch?
R_1(config)# interface vlan 30
R_1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk dot1q
R_1(config-if)# interface vlan 40
R_1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk dot1q
R_1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
R_1(config-if)# mode trunk dot1q 30 40
R_1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
R_1(config)# interface vlan 30
R_1(config-if)# no shutdown
R_1(config-if)# interface vlan 40
R_1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
R_1(config-if)# interface fastethernet 0/0.3
R_1(config-if)# encapsulation dot1q 30
R_1(config-if)# interface fastethernet 0/0.4
R_1(config-if)# encapsulation dot1q 40
41
The network administrator shown in the exhibit is connected to an Ethernet LAN port on SW_1. The
administrator needs to verify the configuration of the newly installed switch SW_2. What must be
done so that the administrator can access SW_2 with a web browser? (Choose three.)
Set the password on the management VLAN.
Establish connectivity of the host to SW_2.
Configure IP addressing parameters on SW_2.
Configure the hostname on SW_2.
Activate the HTTP service on SW_2.
42 How do EIGRP routers establish and maintain neighbor relationships?

by exchanging neighbor tables with directly attached routers
by comparing known routes to information received in updates
by exchanging of hello packets with neighboring routers
by dynamically learning new routes from neighbors
by exchanging routing tables with directly attached routers
43 What are three attributes of distance vector routing protocols? (Choose three.)
Hello packets are used to form neighbor adjacencies.
Each router sends its entire routing table in routing updates.
Periodic updates are sent to neighboring routers.
Distance vector protocols converge more rapidly than link-state protocols do.
Because of their frequent periodic updates, distance vector protocols after convergence use
more bandwidth than link-state protocols do.
Distance vector protocols are less prone to routing loops than are link-state protocols.
44
Refer to the exhibit. Routers RT-1 and RT-3 are completely configured. The administrator needs
to configure the routing protocol on router RTR-2 so that communication occurs throughout the
network. Which group of commands will successfully configure EIGRP on RTR-2?
RTR-2(config)# router eigrp 1
RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.198.76.0
RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.198.76.0 0.0.0.3 no-summary
RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.198.76.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.198.76.0 0.0.0.3
45
Refer to the exhibit. What does "FORWARDING" mean in the command output shown?
The switch is receiving BPDUs, but not sending data frames.
The switch is participating in an election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives.
The switch is sending and receiving data frames.
The switch is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data.
46 The following command was added to a router configuration:
ip route 198.19.150.0 255.255.255.0 192.0.2.249
What two effects will this command have? (Choose two.)
It will create a static route to the 198.19.150.0/24 network.

It will create a default route using the interface with the IP address 192.0.2.249 as the next
hop.
All packets with an unknown destination address will be forwarded to the 198.19.150.0/24
network.
Information about the 198.19.150.0 network learned dynamically will be ignored as long as this
configuration command is in effect.
The route will be marked with an "R" in the routing table.
Which of the following can be done to allow the users on the 10.0.0.0 network to communicate
with the Web Server shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)
Configure the Miami router to use NAT.
Configure the Web Server with a private address.
Configure the Miami router to use PAT.
Change the Internet link IP address of 128.56.0.0 to a private address.
Configure the Tampa router to use PAT.
2 What is the default number of pings issued by a DHCP server to a pool address before sending
the DHCPOFFER to a client?
one
two
three
four
five
3 What is the purpose of the DHCPDECLINE message?

If the DHCP client received multiple DHCPOFFERs, it uses the DHCPDECLINE to refuse the offers
it does not use.
If the DHCP server sends an IP configuration update that the DHCP client does not need, it
uses the DHCPDECLINE to refuse the information.
The DHCP server uses the DHCPDECLINE message to refuse a DHCP client's request for IP
configuration information.
If the DHCP client detects that the address supplied by the DHCP server is in use on the
network, it uses the DHCPDECLINE to refuse the offer.
4 Which configuration parameters are provided by the dynamic allocation process of DHCP? (Choose
three.)
Gateway address
DNS server
DHCP Server
Subnet mask
Key server
ARP server
What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration
output of a Cisco 806 broadband router?
defines which addresses are allowed out of the router
defines which addresses are allowed into the router
defines which addresses can be translated
defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool
Given the accompanying debug output from a Cisco router, what kind of address is 10.10.10.3 with
the IP identification number of 29855?
inside local
inside global
outside local
outside global
7
Given the accompanying graphic, which statement would be applied to the S0 interface when
configuring NAT on the Tampa router?
ip nat inside
ip nat outside
ip pat inside
ip pat outside
Given the accompanying graphic, which addresses could be assigned to traffic leaving S0 as a
result of the statement ip nat pool Tampa 179.9.8.96 179.9.8.111 netmask 255.255.255.240?
(Choose two.)
10.0.0.125
179.9.8.95
179.9.8.98
179.9.8.101
179.9.8.112
Refer to the exhibit. Which command would establish a group of 30 IP addresses that could be
used to hide inside addresses from the Internet?
ip nat pool Raleigh 10.0.0.32 10.0.0.63 netmask 255.255.255.224
10
Given the accompanying diagram, which commands are necessary to implement PAT on the Raleigh
router? (Choose four.)
access-list 10 permit 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 10 permit 171.11.0.0 0.0.255.255
ip nat inside source static 192.168.10.1 171.11.0.0
ip nat inside source list 10 interface S0 overload
ip nat outside
ip nat inside
11 What is true regarding the differences between NAT and PAT?

PAT uses the word "overload" at the end of the access-list statement to share a single
registered address.
Static NAT allows an unregistered address to map to multiple registered addresses.
Dynamic NAT allows hosts to receive the same global address each time external access is
required.
PAT uses unique source port numbers to distinguish between translations.
12 Which of the following are broadcasts sent by a client to a DHCP server? (Choose two.)
DHCPDISCOVER
DHCPRELEASE
DHCPACK
DHCPREQUEST
DHCPOFFER
13 In addition to assigning addresses from predefined pools, which other services can a DHCP
server offer? (Choose three.)
DNS server addresses
domain names
global IP assignments
NAT translations
WINS server addresses
14 Users are complaining that they cannot attach to network resources. A technician has
confirmed that clients are not properly receiving IP configuration information through the DHCP
process. The network administrator wants to watch the DHCP process while the technician tries to
release and renew addresses on the clients. Which command would the network administrator use to
monitor the process of address allocation?
show ip dhcp server statistics
show ip dhcp binding
debug ip dhcp server events
debug ip dhcp binding
15
Refer to the graphic. Which command would allow the router to forward DHCP broadcasts from Host
A to the DHCP server?
ip helper-address
dhcp helper-address
dhcp relay-agent
dhcp-relay
16 What is the default lease time for addresses assigned to clients through Easy IP?
twenty-four hours
forty-eight hours
one week
two weeks
17
The Raleigh router shown in the diagram is configured with PAT. Which of the following must be
changed if the private network is migrated to a 10.0.0.0 network? (Choose two.)
E0 interface address
S0 interface address
the access-list statement
the NAT outside interface
the NAT inside interface
18 A network administrator needs to configure a router to offer DHCP services. Assuming the
router is operating with factory defaults and the IOS supports DHCP, what must be done to start
the DHCP service?
Use the global configuration command service dhcp.
Use the privileged command service dhcp start.
Use the start service dhcp command during the setup processes.
Do nothing. The DHCP service is enabled by default during start up.
19 Which of the following traffic types are supported by Cisco IOS NAT? (Choose two.)
Routing table updates
ICMP
FTP
BOOTP
SNMP
20 Which configuration information might a DHCPOFFER include? (Choose three.)

IP address
DNS server address
DHCP binding
Lease time
DHCP database
21 A company was issued 207.48.12.8/29 as its registered address from its ISP. Which of the
following is a solution that will allow Internet access to 300 employees simultaneously?
VLSM to further subnet the registered address and create more IP addresses
normal subnetting on the Class C network and address the host
RFC 1918 and port address translation
this is an impossible scenario because there are not enough addresses
1 Which of the following is commonly used as Data Terminal Equipment?

ISDN
modem
router
CSU/DSU
2 Which term describes the cabling that connects the customer site to the nearest exchange of
the WAN service provider?
CPE
CO
local loop
DCE
DTE
3 On which of the following are most Layer 2 WAN encapsulations based?

IP
PPP
HDLC
SLIP
HSSI
CSU
4 A U.S. company requires a WAN connection used only to transfer sales data from individual
stores to the home office. All transfers will occur after business hours. The required bandwidth
for this connection is estimated to be less than 38 kbps. Which type of connection requires the
least investment for this company?
ATM
ISDN
analog dialup
T1 Leased Line
5 A company requires a WAN connection that will carry 64 kbps and allow fast call setup time.
The connection does not need to carry video. What is the best choice for this company?
ATM
ISDN BRI
X.25
analog dialup
6 Which of the following describes a packet-switched network using connection-oriented data

transfer? (Choose two.)
Each packet carries an identifier.
Each packet carries full addressing information.
Each switch in the route must evaluate the addressing information to determine where to send
the packet.
Each switch determines where to send the packet by examining tables in memory.
The addressing information is used to set switches along the route of data transfer to create
a continuous copper circuit.
7 Which of the following connections will provide the equivalent of a T1/E1 connection and is
intended for large businesses?
BRI
PRI
DLCI
PSTN
POTS
8 A large company already has a T1 leased line but this connection is inadequate at peak
business hours. Furthermore, they would like a backup WAN connection in case their leased line
temporarily fails. What type of WAN connection is commonly used in this situation?
X.25
DSL
ISDN
cable modem
56 kbps
9 Which of the statements regarding DSL are correct? (Choose three.)

DSL provides a consistent bandwidth of 2.154 Mbps.
DSL connections provide a fast dialup to establish a WAN connection.
DSL connects the local loop to a digital subscriber line access multiplexer.
DSL bandwidth varies and can exceed the bandwidth of a T1/E1 leased line.
For DSL to function properly, the local loop must be less than 5.5 kilometers (3.5 miles).
DSL is a popular choice for enterprises that need to connect home users to the local network
due to strong security.
10 A European company needs a low cost, dialup WAN connection to validate transactions for
point-of-sale card readers. Which connection type is commonly used for this situation?
ATM
X.25
Frame Relay
Leased lines
11 Which statement is true regarding WAN technologies?

Most WANS use only one technology throughout the infrastructure such as ISDN, Frame Relay or
ATM.
Data transfer speeds on the WAN are typically faster than the speeds on a LAN.
WANs operate at the lower three layers of the OSI model.
WANs are unable to support the transfer of voice or video traffic.
12 Depending on the company size and geographical layout, there might be many end points on the
company WAN. Why is it important to identify all the end points of the WAN before choosing a WAN
design?
to determine the routing protocol to be used on the WAN link
to determine the WAN topology
to determine the requirements for latency and jitter
to determine the signaling protocol to be used on the WAN link
13 Which of the following is true of WANs?
Shared network WAN technologies such as Frame Relay and ATM are more expensive but offer less
latency and jitter than dedicated lines.
ISDN is suitable for large enterprises.
The more network devices that data has to pass through across the WAN, the more latency and
less reliability the network will experience.
WANs typically incorporate only one technology such as ISDN, Frame Relay, or ATM.
14 Which statements are correct regarding ATM connections? (Choose two.)

uses only PVCs
is useful for video transfers
has data rates beyond 155 Mbps
cells have 32 byte payload and a 5 byte overhead
mandates single virtual circuits on a single leased line connection
15 Why is it important to identify the type of traffic that will be carried on the WAN links
before choosing a WAN technology?
to determine the routing protocol to be used on the WAN link
to determine the WAN topology
to determine the requirements for latency and jitter
to determine the type of signaling protocol to be used on the WAN link
16 A new international company needs to have a design for WAN connectivity. The company will
have at least five offices in every state in the United States and Mexico. Some states will have
as many as 20 offices. The branch offices will require constant contact with the services of the
main office. Which design model is best for WAN connectivity in this situation?
a mesh network of all branch WANs
a simple star topology connecting all branch LANs to a central router with multiple interfaces
a one layer design using Frame Relay links between LANs
a three layer hierarchical topology interconnecting branch LANs within an area, the area LANs
within a region, and connecting the regions to form the core of the WAN
1 A technician is testing the functionality of a recently installed router. The technician is

unable to ping the serial interface of a remote router. The technician executes the show
interface serial 0/0 command on the local router and receives the following output:
Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is down(disabled)
What are possible causes for this command output? (Choose two.)
interface missing the no shutdown command
clockrate command missing
CSU/DSU failed
interface shutdown due to high error rate
cable missing
2 A technician has used Telnet to gain remote access to a router that has no connectivity on its
serial interface. Which command should be issued to determine if the serial cable is connected
properly?
show controllers
show processes
show run
show status
3 A two router network is running PPP over the serial interfaces that connect them. The enable
password on the Denim router is "gateway". The Denim router also has a locally configured
authentication password for the Plaid router which is "fortress". Which command must be executed
on the Plaid router to allow Denim to authenticate to the Plaid router using CHAP?
Plaid(config)# enable secret gateway
Plaid(config)# enable secret fortress
Plaid(config)# username Plaid password fortress
Plaid(config)# username Denim password fortress
Plaid(config)# hostname Plaid secret password gateway
Plaid(config)# hostname Plaid secret password fortress
4
Refer to the output of the show interface Serial0/0 command in the graphic. How many NCPs have
been established?
1
2
3
4
5 Which command specifies a link quality over a PPP link?

ppp link 50
ppp link quality 60
ppp percentage 80
ppp quality 90
6 When troubleshooting the Serial 0/0 interface of a router, a technician issues the show
controllers command. The following was the output of the command:
Interface is Serial0/0, electrical interface is UNKNOWN.
What can be concluded about the Serial 0/0 interface? (Choose three.)
Serial0z0 is down, line protocol is down

Serial0/0 is down, line protocol is up
Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is down
The interface is neither DCE or DTE.
The interface hardware may be faulty.
The cabling may be improperly connected.
7 Which of the following is a reason for using such protocols as PAP and CHAP?
to establish a PPP session
to provide error checking on a WAN link
to restrict access to networks connected by serial and ISDN links
to provide a backup hostname and privilege mode password on the router
8 Several tasks must occur before a link between two routers can pass data using PPP. Which of
the following are required to establish and maintain a PPP session between two routers?
configure each host with a PPP address
configure authentication between the two routers
send LCP and NCP frames to negotiate configuration parameters
send hostname and password information between the two routers
9 Which of the following describes the High-Level Data Link Control protocol? (Choose three.)
HDLC provides flow and error control.
Standard HDLC supports multiple protocols on a single link.
HDLC uses sequencing and acknowledgements.
HDLC is defined as the default encapsulation on Cisco LAN interfaces.
Cisco implemented a proprietary version of HDLC.
10 Which authentication protocol can be spoofed to allow playback attacks?

MD5
CHAP
PAP
NCP
11 ISDN BRI service uses two B channels to send data, voice, and video. If the first channel
becomes saturated, the second channel can be configured to forward packets. Which command will
allow ISDN to load balance across both links?
Router(config-if)# ppp quality 2
Router(config-if)# ip variance
Router(config-if)# ip maximum-paths 2
Router(config-if)# ppp multilink
12 PPP uses several protocols for communication. Which of the following are options that the LCP
protocol in the PPP architecture can provide? (Choose two.)
testing the quality of the link
routing packets between devices
assigning individual station addresses
configuring network layer protocols
negotiating authentication options
13 How did Cisco alter the HDLC encapsulation to allow a single link to carry multiple
protocols?
split the transmissions into multiple channels each carrying a single protocol
identified the protocol in the FCS field
compressed the datagrams differently for each protocol
added a type field to identify the protocol
14 Which of the following is an advantage of using time-division multiplexing (TDM) for

transmitting data? (Choose two.)
It allows a single source to transmit over multiple data channels.
Multiple sources can transmit over a single channel.
Original data streams must be reconstructed at the destination.
TDM relies on Layer 3 protocols to operate.
15
What can be concluded from the output shown in the graphic? (Choose three.)
A two-way handshake is occuring.
The LCPs were already negotiated.
The router can begin NCP negotiations.
The debug ppp negotiation command was executed.
The debug ppp authentication command was executed.
16
Which command was used to display the partial output shown in the graphic?
show ppp traffic
show lcp traffic
debug ppp negotiation
debug ppp authentication
17 How is the MD5 function valuable in authentication? (Choose two.)

uses a one-way hash function
authentication occurs more rapidly
challenges are unique
the remote router assumes control of frequency of challenge
the remote router assumes control of timing of challenge
18 What are three features of the CHAP protocol? (Choose three.)

exchanges a random challenge number during the session to verify identity
sends authentication password to verify identity
prevents transmission of login information in plain text
disconnects the PPP session if authentication fails
initiates a two-way handshake
19 Which of the following describe functions of the Point-to-Point protocol with regards to the
OSI model? (Choose three.)
PPP uses Layer 3 of the OSI model to establish and maintain a session between devices.
PPP operates at all layers of the OSI model.
PPP uses the data link layer to configure such options as error detection and compression.
PPP provides a mechanism to multiplex several network layer protocols.
PPP uses Network Control Protocols (NCP) to test and maintain connectivity between devices.
PPP can be configured on both synchronous and asynchronous serial interfaces.
20 Which advantage does the multilink option provide when using PPP?
Data transmission has load balancing possibilities.
Interfaces can be configured using both HDLC and PPP.
More than one authentication method can be used.
More than one compression protocol can be configured.
1 Which of the following correctly describes ISDN BRI? (Choose three.)

two 64 kbps B channels and one 16 kbps D channel
B channel is suitable for voice data
uses in-band signaling
uses out-of-band signaling
offers the equivalent of a T1/E1 connection
twenty-three 64 kbps B channels and one 16 kbps D channel
2 Which of the following is considered out-of-band signaling?

using a frequency outside of the rated bandwidth for transmission
transmitting data over a control channel
using a separate channel for control signals
transmitting control signals over a data channel
3 A network administrator is troubleshooting ISDN connectivity. The administrator suspects the

problem lies with the authentication protocol. What command should the administrator use to view
the authentication process between the router and the ISDN switch?
debug pap authentication
debug chap authentication
debug ppp authentication
debug isdn authentication
4 Which router command would be used to enter the mode for configuring a T1 PRI connection?
Router(config)# controller t1 {slot/port}
Router(config)# interface pri t1 {slot/port}
Router(config)# interface pri {slot/port} t1
Router(config)# controller {slot/port} t1
5
The network administrator of XYZ company needs to configure a new ISDN router. After entering
the commands shown in the graphic, the administrator tries to access the Internet but the ISDN
connection does not open. If the service provider verifies that the problem is with XYZ's
configuration, what is a possible cause of the problem?
The dialer map is configured incorrectly.
The encapsulation type is configured incorrectly.
The dialer group is configured incorrectly.
The ACL is configured incorrectly.
The isdn switch-type command needs to be configured globally.
6 Which of the following protocols can be used to encapsulate data traffic sent from a router
BRI interface? (Choose two.)
Link Access Protocol - Data
High-Level Data Link Control
Logical Link Control
Serial Data Link Control
Point to Point protocol
Binary Synchronous Control protocol
A small company uses an ISDN WAN link to transfer e-mail to remote sites. What command would the
administrator use to determine if the ISDN link is up?
show isdn status
show isdn active
show dialer
show interface bri0/0
debug isdn active
8 Which command configures an ISDN interface to use a switch type which is different from that
used on other interfaces on the router?
Router(config)#switch-type switch-type
Router(config-if)#switch-type switch-type
Router(config)#isdn switch-type switch-type
Router(config-if)#isdn switch-type switch-type
9 Which of the following is essential for all ISDN BRI interface configurations?
ISDN switch type
line encoding technique
line framing method
local directory number
service profile identifier
10 You have just taken delivery of a new US standard Cisco 2620 router that includes a BRI "U"
interface? Which of the following describes how this router will be connected in the ISDN
network?
An external terminal adapter (TA) must be attached to the router for connectivity.
An NT1 must be connected to the router for connectivity.
The router is a TE1 device and is ready to connect to the provider's network.
The router is a TE2 device and requires both a TA and NT1 for connectivity.
11 What must be configured for an ISDN PRI connection? (Choose three.)

ISDN switch type
Service Profile Identifier (SPID)
Dial-on-Demand Routing (DDR)
PRI group time slot
T1/E1 controller, framing type and line coding
12
A network administrator is troubleshooting an ISDN connectivity problem. Users are complaining

they cannot connect to the Internet. The network administrator suspects the ISDN connection
attempt is timing out before a connection can be established. What command would the network
administrator use to determine what the "wait for carrier" timeout value is set to?
show isdn status
show isdn active
show dialer
show interfaces bri0/0
debug isdn q931
show ISDN interfaces
13 What is a reason why static routes are preferred over dynamic routes for DDR to operate on an
ISDN interface?
An ISDN interface will not allow dynamic routing updates that use broadcast technology.
A dynamic route will take precedence over a static route because of its lower administrative
distance.
Dynamic routing can never be considered interesting traffic by default.
Dialer-list configuration does not support dynamic routing.
Dynamic routes may cause the ISDN connection to dial constantly to transmit updates.
14 Which of the following describes the use of a SPID? (Choose two.)

selects the ISDN switch type
identifies the line configuration of the BRI service
allows multiple ISDN devices to share the local loop
designates whether a device is a TE1 or TE2
allows ISDN broadcasts
15 Which command is used within an existing ISDN network to display current call information,
including the called number?
show isdn status
show isdn active
show interfaces bri0/0
show ip interfaces
16 Which of the following are true of ISDN routers configured with dialer profiles? (Choose
two.)
They do not use ACL to define interesting traffic.
Their B channels can be configured with different subnets and encapsulation types.
Their BRI interfaces can belong to multiple dialer pools.
They use PPP only.
They can only use the CHAP authentication protocol.
17 A network administrator in Europe has been asked to provide the network with an ISDN WAN
link. The router available to provide the WAN connection is a non-modular Cisco router with an
S/T interface. What further equipment will be provided by the ISDN service provider for the ISDN
connection?
Nothing. The router is already suitable.
BRI WAN interface card to install in the router
an external NT1 to terminate the local loop
a TA/NT1 device to install on the router
18 Why must routers be configured to specify the ISDN switch type?

Switches use various implementations of Q.931.
The IOS of most routers lacks the ability to autosense the switch.
The switch must know what type of router it is communicating with.
The Layer 3 connection between the terminal equipment and the ISDN switch is not standardized.
1 How does Frame Relay technology process frames that contain errors? (Choose two.)
Frame Relay services depend on the upper layer protocols to handle error recovery.
It requires the receiving device to request that the sender retransmit erroneous frames.
FECN, BECN, and DE bits are set in the frames to minimize errors.
The receiving device drops any frames that contain errors without notifying the sender.
The frame relay switch notifies the sender that errors were detected.
2 Which statement identifies a reason for using point-to-point subinterfaces in Frame Relay
networks?
Subinterfaces overcome routing update and split-horizon issues that occur with multipoint
logical interfaces on a single physical interface.
A point-to-point subinterface does not require an IP address and therefore saves address
space.
Point-to-point subinterfaces provide greater reliability and reachability in Frame Relay
networks by requiring a mesh topology for network configurations.
Point-to-point subinterfaces increase the number of DLCIs that can be configured in a Frame
Relay network.
A ping is sent to address 192.168.50.10 from the Peanut router. Which DLCI will be used to send
the ping?
110
115
220
225
4 Which data link layer protocol is used to carry frames across a Frame Relay link?
PPP
LAPD
LAPF
Frame Relay
5 Which bits are set in the data frames to request that a device reduce the flow of data sent to
or from a Frame Relay switch?
EIR bits
ECN bits
CIR bits
DE bits
Window bits
6 Why are full mesh topologies seldom found in large Frame Relay networks?
Additional hardware is required to achieve the mesh.
The additional virtual circuits slow the link access speeds.
The required number of links becomes prohibitive.
Additional interfaces are required since each can only support 10 virtual circuits.
The speed of transmission slows in inverse proportion to the square of the number of links.
7 Which of the following occurs when the command frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 22 is configured on
the router? (Choose two.)
DLCI 22 will replace the MAC address in the ARP table for entry 10.1.1.1
The remote circuit with DLCI 22 can receive a ping.
Inverse-ARP will be used to add an entry for 10.1.1.1 into the frame-relay map table using
DLCI 22.
Pings to 10.1.1.1 will be sent on the circuit labeled DLCI 22.
The router will use DLCI 22 to forward data to 10.1.1.1.
8 Why is the keepalive mechanism added as an extension to the Local Management Interface in a
Frame Relay network?
to identify which routers were experiencing congestion
to verify the status of PVCs in the Frame Relay network
to dynamically map a MAC address to an IP address in a Frame Relay network
to signal to the router the status of the routing protocols configured in the Frame Relay
network
9 Which of the following statements are true about a basic Frame Relay WAN connection between a
customer and the service provider? (Choose two.)
DTE devices such as routers and FRADs transmit user data.
DTE devices such as Frame Relay switches transport the data between DTE devices.
An Ethernet connection between the router and the frame relay switch allow access to the frame
relay network.
Serial connections between the customer and the frame relay network are used to transport
data.
The Frame Relay WAN is a mesh of interconnected routers.
10 What is created between two DTEs in a Frame Relay network?

switched parallel circuit
permanent virtual circuit
limited access circuit
ISDN circuit
Frame Relay circuit
11 Which features make Frame Relay technology a cost-effective alternative to a mesh of

dedicated leased lines? (Choose three.)
allows a single interface to support multiple PVCs
minimizes the equipment required to be purchased by the customer
requires one router interface for each PVC
provides the customer with redundancy if a single interface goes down
allows the customer to pay for the average bandwidth requirement rather than the maximum
bandwidth requirement
12 Which of the following allow the router to map data link layer addresses to network layer
addresses in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)
ARP
RARP
Proxy ARP
Inverse ARP
LMI status messages
ICMP
13
When troubleshooting a Frame Relay connection, an administrator entered the show interfaces s0/0
command and received the output shown in the exhibit. What are two probable reasons for this
problem? (Choose two.)
The cable between the CSU/DSU and the router is disconnected.
The serial 0/0 interface is shutdown.
The router is not configured for the same Frame Relay PVC as the switch.
The LMI type on the Frame Relay switch is NOT ANSI.
The address of the Frame Relay switch is not in the routing table.
14
Which commands were added to the configuration to produce the output shown in the graphic?
(Choose two.)
Router(config)# ip route 192.168.192.4 255.255.255.0 17 broadcast
Router(config-if)# frame-relay lmi-type cisco 17
Router(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 192.168.192.4 17 broadcast
Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.192.4 255.255.255.0 DLCI 17 static
Router(config-if)# interface S0/0.1 point-to-point
Router(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay cisco
15 What does a DLCI of 1023 indicate about a frame?

The LMI type is ANSI.
The LMI type is IETF.
The LMI type is Cisco.
The LMI type is Q933a.
The encapsulation is Cisco.
The encapsulation is IETF.
16 Which methods are used to minimize heavy traffic on a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)
FRADs or routers set ECN bits to request that the Frame Relay switch reduce the flow of frames
on the link.
Windowing is used to reduce the size of the frames sent across the link.
The Frame Relay switch will drop packets that have the DE bit set.
When a switch sees its queue increasing, it notifies DTEs to reduce the flow of traffic.
When congestion occurs, all frames are dropped until the congestion clears.
17
When troubleshooting a frame relay connection, a technician entered the show frame-relay pvc
command shown in the graphic. What can be concluded from the output shown in the graphic?
(Choose three.)
The output in the debug frame-relay lmi command will indicate status 0x2 for DLCI 18.
DLCI 16 was correctly programmed on the switch, but the remote router may be misconfigured.
The frame relay switch is sending LMI status messages about DLCI 16 to the Singapore router.
Congestion has been experienced on DLCI 18.
Some packets have been set to be dropped if congestion is experienced on the PVC.
18 Which of the following DLCIs are reserved?

16
127
255
1023
2048
19 Which of the following statements regarding multipoint subinterfaces are true? (Choose two.)
A single multipoint subinterface is used to establish PVC connections to multiple physical
interfaces on remote routers.
Each multipoint link is in its own subnet.
The physical interface does not have an IP address.
Split-horizon is disabled allowing routing updates to be re-transmitted on every subinterface.
Multipoint subinterfaces require the encapsulation frame-relay command to be issued
individually for each subinterface to operate correctly.
20 How is a permanent virtual circuit identified in a Frame Relay network that is carrying IP
traffic?
It is given a fixed locally significant identification number.
It is identified by the MAC address of the router interface.
Dynamic virtual channel identifiers are assigned to each frame transmitted across the network.
It is identifed by the MAC address of the switch port.
21 What is the purpose of the FCS field in a Frame Relay frame?

It serves to distinguish one frame from the next.
It is used to signal network congestion.
It is used to detect if the frame has been corrupted and should be discarded.
It determines which VC should be used for transmission.
1 For which platform was UNIX first marketed commercially?

workstations and servers
workstations
network servers
large mainframe systems
2 How does RMON gather statistics on a segment?

analyzes traps on the segment
polls packets on the segment
analyzes every frame on the segment
analyzes source and destination addresses
3 Which operating systems support multiuser capability? (Choose three.)

Linux
Windows 98
Windows ME
Windows XP
Windows 2000
4 Which statements are true regarding configuring SNMP? (Choose three.)

It is best to use the default read-only community strings in enterprise networks.
It is not advisable to use the default read-write community string in an enterprise network.
More than one read-only community string is supported.
Authorized management stations can modify MIB objects with read-write access specified.
The maximum number of read-write strings supported is one.
5 Which statements describe the Windows 2000 operating system family? (Choose three.)
.NET Server was designed to run enterprise level web and FTP services.
Active Directory services run on both Windows 2000 Professional and Windows 2000 Server.
The entire family of Windows 2000 operating systems can operate as a file, print, FTP or web
server.
Both Windows 2000 Professional and Server can support up to 256 simultaneous dialup sessions.
.NET server was designed to compete with Linux and Unix.
6 Which of the following is a collection of software which includes a GUI interface to allow the
network administrator to monitor and manage the network?
network management application
network management agent
management information base
network management protocol
7 Which command would enable logging on all supported destinations?

Router(config)# logging 131.152.0.0
Router(config)# logging routerA
Router(config)# logging on
Router(config)# logging enable
8 How does SNMPv3 address the security shortcomings of SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c?
improved SMI features
support for centralized and distributed management
secure access to MIBs
control of heterogeneous networks
9 Which means of communication does an SNMP network agent use to provide a network management
station with important but unsolicited information?
query
broadcast
ICMP ping
trap
poll
10 Which of the following describes the community strings used for SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c? (Choose
two.)
The community strings are sent using UDP.
The read only string on most devices is set to private.
The read/write string on most devices is set to public.
Only the NMA needs to be configured with the community strings.
The community strings are sent across the network in cleartext.
11
In the above illustration, which configuration commands can be used to specify the location of a
managed device and the main system contacts for the device? (Choose two.)
SanJose(config-if)# snmp-server SanJose
Atlanta(config)# snmp-server contact JPSmith
Atlanta(config)# snmp contact JPSmith
SanJose(config)# snmp-server location SanJose
Chicago#(config)# snmp chicago
12 Which features are supported by the Mac OS X system that make it a competitive choice for
operating systems? (Choose four.)
protected memory
sixty-two bit addressing
preemptive multitasking
open source operating system code
symmetric multiprocessing
Appletalk-to-Windows network connectivity
13 An SNMPv1 agent would issue a GetResponse message to reply to which NMS requests? (Choose
three.)
GetRequest
GetBulkRequest
GetNextRequest
SetRequest
GetNextbulkRequest
14 Why are SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c community strings considered a security risk?
SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c encapsulations are not encrypted by default.
SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c community strings are sent as cleartext.
SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c are limited to 32-bit counters.
SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c uses a connectionless protocol.
15 Which of the following does SNMP use to hold information collected about the network?
network management station
network management database
management information base
database information agent
16 Which of the following are examples of network management applications? (Choose two.)
Windows 2000 Professional
Ciscoworks2000
HP Openview
Red Hat Linux
Cisco ConfigMaker
CISCO CCNA 4 - Final Exam
1 An ISDN circuit from a branch office is remaining connected to the regional office. A network
administrator determines a user has initiated a continuous ping from a desktop computer to the
regional office. Which configuration change would allow the ISDN circuit to disconnect during
any attempts to ping, while otherwise functioning properly?
change DDR from legacy to dialer profiles
remove the dialer list statement from the configuration
change the dialer list to exclude ICMP as interesting
disable inverse ARP
2
Refer to the exhibit. The link between the RTR-1 and RTR-2 routers is configured as shown in the
exhibit. Although the show interfaces command shows the interface status as Serial0 is up, line
protocol is up, IP traffic is not crossing this link. What is the problem?
The usernames are misconfigured.
The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.
The IP addresses are not in the same subnet.
Interface serial 0/0 on RTR-1 must connect to interface serial 0/1 on RTR-2.
The passwords must be different for the CHAP authentication.
The clock rate must be 56000.
3 A technician enters the interface serial 0/0.1 multipoint command when configuring a router.
What effect will the multipoint keyword have in this configuration? (Choose two.)
Split-horizon issues will need to be resolved for this network if RIP is the routing protocol.
A subinterface will be defined for each PVC.
All the participating interfaces of remote routers will be configured in the same subnet.
A single DLCI will be used to define all the PVCs to the remote routers.
An IP address will need to be configured on the main interface.
4 A branch office reports excessive connect time charges for an ISDN circuit used to connect to
the regional office. Upon investigation of this issue, it is discovered that when an ISDN
connection is initiated to the regional office it remains connected for an excessive amount of
time. Which of the following configuration changes could be made to DDR on the router to reduce
these connect time charges?
use PPP multilink
lower idle timer setting
use CHAP authentication
change DDR from legacy to dialer profiles
Which router command would be used to associate a Layer 2 address with the corresponding Layer 3
address in the internetwork in the diagram?
RouterA(config-if)#frame-relay pvc 100 192.168.15.2
RouterA(config-if)#dialer-map ip 192.168.15.1 100 broadcast
RouterA(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 192.168.15.2 100 broadcast
RouterA (config-if)#dialer-map 192.168.15.1 101 serial 0 broadcast
RouterA (config-if)#frame-relay dlci 101 192.168.15.1 broadcast
RouterA (config-if)#dialer-map 192.168.15.1 inverse-arp broadcast
6 What does the output of the show frame-relay map command shown below represent? (Choose two.)
Serial 0 (up): ip 172.30.151.4 dlci 122, dynamic, broadcast, status defined, active
172.30.151.4 represents the IP address of the remote router.
172.30.151.4 represents the IP address of the local serial interface.
DLCI 122 represents the interface of the remote router.
broadcast indicates that a dynamic routing protocol such as RIP v1 can send packets across
this PVC.
dynamic indicates that a dynamic routing protocol is enabled for this connection.
active indicates that the ARP process is working.
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator of the Denver router has determined that the
DHCP clients on the network are not working properly. The clients are receiving IP configuration
information from a DHCP server configured on the router but cannot access the Internet. From the
output in the exhibit, what is the most likely problem?
The DHCP server service is not enabled.
The DHCP pool is not bound to the interface.
The inside interface for DCHP is not defined.
The pool does not have a default router defined for the clients.
All the host addresses have been excluded from the DHCP pool.
8 What are two ways to resolve split-horizon issues in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)
create a full-mesh topology
disable Inverse ARP
use point-to-point subinterfaces
use multipoint subinterfaces
remove the broadcast keyword from the frame-relay map command
What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration
output of a Cisco 806 broadband router?
defines which addresses are allowed out of the router
defines which addresses are allowed into the router
defines which addresses can be translated
defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool
10 Which scenarios present possible reasons for using the frame-relay map command when
configuring a Frame Relay connection? (Choose two.)
when dynamic mapping of DLCIs to IP addresses is not supported by the remote router
when the local router is using IOS Release 11.1 or earlier
when the remote router is a non-Cisco router
when globally significant rather than locally significant DLCIs are being used
when broadcast traffic and multicast traffic over the PVC must be controlled
11 While testing a new network design in the lab, a network administrator is configuring a
serial link that connects two routers back-to-back. In order to finish the configuration, the
administrator needs to identify which router is connected to the DCE end of the cable. What
command can be issued to provide this information?
router# show status serial 0/0
router# show controllers serial 0/0
router# show protocols serial 0/0
router# show version
router# show interfaces serial 0/0
12 Which statements are correct about the point in the network where the responsibility of the
service provider ends? (Choose three.)
The International point is on the customer side of the network terminating unit(NTU).
The United States point is at the interface of the customer-provided equipment and the local
loop.
The responsibility for this point is controlled by IANA.
The point is called the demarcation point.
The point is typically located at the service provider's central office.
The point is located between the customer's local area networks.
13
A system administrator is unable to ping the Serial0/0 interface of RouterB from RouterA. During
the troubleshooting process, the following facts are established:
- IP addressing and subnet masks are correct.
- RouterA is a Cisco router and RouterB is a router from another vendor.
- RouterA is configured with the default encapsulation.
- The serial interfaces on both routers are up.
- The protocol is down on the serial interfaces of both routers.
What should the administrator do to solve the problem?
Add a clock rate on RouterA.

Enable the serial interface on RouterB.
Change the encapsulation on both routers to PPP.
Connect the serial cable to the correct interface on RouterB.
Use the correct serial cable to attach the CSU/DSU to RouterB.
14 When a Frame Relay switch detects an excessive buildup of frames in its queue, which of the
following may occur? (Choose two.)
Frames with the DE bit set are dropped from the switch queue.
Frames with the FECN and BECN bits set are dropped from the switch queue.
Frames in excess of the CIR are not accepted by the switch.
The switch sets the FECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link and sets the BECN
bit on all frames it receives on the congested link.
The switch sets the FECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link and sets the BECN
bit on all frames it places on the congested link.
15
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is checking the status of router RTR_2. What is
the most likely reason for the current status of the serial link to RTR_1?
A cable has become disconnected.
The circuit is experiencing excessive RFI.
Authentication is not properly configured on the routers.
The routers are configured for different WAN encapsulations.
The clock rate is not properly configured on one of the routers.
16 What are two of the steps required to configure a router to connect over ISDN BRI? (Choose
two.)
Configure the interface with a DLCI.
Configure the SPIDs, if required by the ISDN switch.
Specify the the LMI type to be compatible with the CO switch.
Set the interface encapsulation to the Cisco or IETF frame type.
Configure a subinterface for each B channel.
Set the switch type to work with the ISDN switch at the CO.
17 What value in the address field of a Frame Relay header identifies the destination of the
frame?
CIR
DE
DLCI
ISDN
FRAD
PVC
18 Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
A modem terminates a digital local loop.
A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
A modem terminates an analog local loop.
A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
A router is commonly considered a DCE device.
19
Refer to the exhibit. Two routers are connected through a Frame Relay point-to-point PVC. The
ILM-5 router is from a vendor other than Cisco. Which interface command is required to configure
the link between the Cisco ILM-3 router and router ILM-5?
ILM-3(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay cisco
ILM-3(config-if)# frame-relay pvc multipoint
ILM-3(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay ietf
ILM-3(config-if)# frame-relay lmi-type ansi
ILM-3(config-if)# frame-relay pvc point-to-point
20 The output of the show interfaces serial 0/0 command for a frame-relay connection indicates
that the serial line is up but the line protocol is down. What are possible causes for this?
(Choose two.)
There is an LMI-type mismatch between the Frame Relay switch and the router.
There is no clock present on the serial interface.
The interface is shut down.
RARP is not functioning on the router.
The cable is disconnected.
21 After configuring a dialup ISDN circuit, a network associate begins testing the dialup
connection. When attempting to ping a host on the remote network, the local router does not
attempt to dial the remote access server. Which of the following are possible errors in this
PPP authentication is not properly configured.
No dialer map is configured.
The ISDN circuit connected to the remote access server is busy.
No interesting traffic is defined.
No route is determined to the remote network.
A wrong number is configured in the dial string.
22 When configuring a Frame Relay network with subinterfaces, which commands are configured on
the subinterface? (Choose three.)
frame-relay interface-dlci
encapsulation frame-relay ietf
ip address
frame-relay map
switch type
23 Below is a list of DDR steps. Which of the following identifies the proper order of DDR?
1 - dial number is looked up

2 - interesting traffic triggers DDR
3 - route to destination is determined
4 - call is made
1,2,3,4
1,3,2,4
2,3,1,4
2,1,3,4
3,2,1,4
3,1,2,4
24 A network administrator issued the command show frame-relay pvc. The response from the router
shows the status of a PVC as deleted. What is the reason for this output?
The DLCI is using the wrong LMI type.
The DLCI is usable but has little activity.
The DLCI is programmed in the switch but the circuit is not usable.
The DLCI was formerly programmed in the switch but is no longer there.
25
The serial PPP link between the Left and Right routers is configured as shown in the diagram.
Which configuration issue explains why the link is unable to establish a PPP session
The IP addresses must be on different subnets.
The usernames are misconfigured.
The passwords must be different for the CHAP authentication.
The clock rate must be 56000.
The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.
Interface serial 0/0 on Left must connect to interface serial 0/1 on Right.
26 Which protocol should be chosen to support WAN connectivity in a multi-vendor system and
provide strong security through authentication?
NAT with DHCP
Frame Relay
HDLC with encryption
HDLC with CHAP
PPP with PAP
PPP with CHAP
27
Refer to the exhibit. Which statements describe why the workstation with the IP address
192.168.89.99 cannot access the Internet? (Choose two.)
The NAT outside interface is not configured properly.
The NAT inside interface is not configured properly.
The access control list does not include the IP address 192.168.1.99/28 to access the
Internet.
The NAT pool is not properly configured to use routable outside addresses.
The NAT pool is not properly configured to use the access control list for NAT.
28 After the ISDN BRI interface is configured, which command can be used to verify that the
router is communicating correctly with the ISDN switch?
show dialer
show isdn status
show interfaces bri0/0:1
show interfaces serial0/0.1
29 How are the settings for ISDN switch type and SPIDs determined for a BRI interface
configuration?
assigned by the network administrator
randomly, so long as they are not duplicated on the network
by trial and error
dynamically via Inverse ARP
assigned by IANA
assigned by the service provider
30 A network administrator is having difficulty in establishing a serial link between a Cisco

router and a router from another vendor. Both routers are configured for HDLC encapsulation.
Which statements are true regarding this configuration? (Choose two.)
The Cisco HDLC frame uses a proprietary "Type" field that may not be compatible with equipment
of other vendors.
HDLC requires a clock rate to be configured on the routers at both ends of the serial link.
PPP encapsulation is recommended for serial links between equipment from multiple vendors.
Usernames must be configured at both ends of the HDLC serial link.
The HDLC vendor type must be enabled on the Cisco router.
There is a mismatch in the HDLC authentication password configurations.
31
A system administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity issue between two routers in a new
installation. The administrator enters the debug ppp authentication command on the WHSE router.
The graphic shows a part of the output received. From this output, what is the most likely cause
of this connectivity issue?
There is not a route to the remote router.
The ISDN circuit on the remote router has failed.
The username/password was not properly configured on the WHSE router.
The remote router has a different authentication protocol configured.
32 A system administrator needs to configure the regional office with ISDN for DDR connections
to three remote sites. Each remote site requires different IP subnets, different encapsulations,
and different authentication methods. The sites will not be connected at the same time. The
company would like to accomplish this in the most cost effective manner. What method can the
system administrator use to accomplish this task using the fewest B channels?
Install and configure a PRI.
Install and configure a BRI interface with separate SPIDs for each remote site.
Install and configure a BRI with multiple switch types in global configuration.
Install and configure a BRI using dialer profiles.
Install and configure a separate BRI for each remote site.
33 Which IP addresses are defined by RFC 1918 as private addresses? (Choose three.)
172.55.16.0.16
172.17.0.0/16
224.200.175.0/24
192.168.168.0/22
10.88.179.0/29
17.250.0.0/16
34 Which of the following statements are correct regarding PAT? (Choose two.)
PAT is the best method to provide consistent global addresses for network servers.
PAT can only be configured to use one IP address, which is usually the IP address of the
serial interface of the router.
PAT uses unique source port numbers on the inside local IP address to distinguish between
translations.
PAT uses unique source port numbers on the inside global IP address to distinguish between
translations.
When PAT is configured to use a pool of IP addresses and exhausts the ports of the first IP
address, the router will move to the next available IP address.
35 Which circuit-switched WAN technology is often used to provide a backup for a leased line and
additional capacity during peak usage times?
X.25
DSL
ISDN
cable modem
36 Which of the following is the order for the three phases of establishing a PPP serial link
with authentication?
authentication, link-establishment, network layer protocols
authentication, network layer protocols, link-establishment
network layer protocols, link-establishment, authentication
network layer protocols, authentication, link-establishment
link-establishment, authentication, network layer protocols
link-establishment, network layer protocols, authentication
37 What causes a DDR call to be placed?
dial string
DLCI
idle time out
interesting traffic
PVC
38 A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for 25 hosts at an insurance

agency. The ISP has assigned two public IP addresses to this company. What can the administrator
do to provide Internet access to all 25 users at the same time?
Configure the router with dynamic NAT with PAT.
Configure the router with dynamic NAT for 25 users.
Configure the router with DHCP and static NAT.
Configure the router with static NAT for all 25 users.
This cannot be done with only two public addresses.
39
A network administrator must provide WAN connectivity between the Central office and three
remote sites: East Branch, West Branch, and Remote. The East Branch and West Branch offices
receive sales orders and transmit shipping confirmations to the Central office consistently
throughout the day. The Remote office is staffed by one salesperson who travels through the
northwestern territory. The salesperson occasionally needs to connect to the Central office for
e-mail access. How should the network administrator connect these sites to the Central office?
(Choose two.)
Connect the East Branch and West Branch remote offices with ISDN connections.
Connect the East Branch and West Branch offices with Frame Relay connections.
Connect the East Branch and West Branch offices with POTS dial-up connections.
Connect the Remote office with a Frame Relay connection.
Connect the Remote office with an ISDN connection.
Connect the Remote office with a POTS dial-up connection.
40 Which of the following ISDN protocols is responsible for call setup and call teardown?
ITU-T Q.921
ITU-T Q.931
ITU-T I.430
ITU-T I.431

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CCNA 1 Networking Basics (Version 3.

Module 1 Exam Answers

2. What is the hexadecimal equivalent for the binary number 00100101?

3. Which phrases describe a byte? (Choose two.)

4. Which specialized equipment is used to make a physical connection from a PC to a network?

5. What is the binary equivalent for the decimal number 248?

6. Convert the binary number 01011011 into its hexadecimal equivalent.

7. What is the binary equivalent for decimal number 149?

Module 2 Exam Answers

3. Which three features apply to LAN connections? (Choose three.)

9. Which best describes the function of the physical layer?

16. Which two features apply to WAN connections? (Choose two.)

Module 3 Exam Answers

3. What is the difference between a wireless NIC and an Ethernet NIC?

9. When is a straight-through cable used in a network?

13. Select the characteristics specified by 10BaseT. (Choose three.)

Module 4 Exam Answers

2. Which of the following describes frequency?

8. What is a cause of crosstalk in UTP cable?

4. What is the most common type of cabling used in LANs?

10. What is characteristic of how a hub operates?

13. Which statement is accurate about a WAN link?

Which items in the exhibit are DTE devices?

17. Which statement describes a typical use of Gigabit Ethernet?

Module 6 Exam Answers

2. How many hexadecimal digits are in a MAC address?

3. What are three functions of a NIC in a PC? (Choose three.)

4. At what layer of the OSI model does a MAC address reside?

19. Where does the MAC address originate?

Module 7 Exam Answers

2. Which statements describe Gigabit Ethernet technology? (Choose two.)

3. Which of the following are Fast Ethernet technologies? (Choose two.)

Module 8 Exam Answers

1. What is characteristic of the operation of a Layer 2 switch?

6. An administrator would like to connect ten workstations on a 192.168.0.0/24 network. The

15. What is used to prevent Layer 2 switching loops?

Module 9 Exam Answers

3. What is the primary responsibility of the transport layer?

7. Why is IP considered a best-effort protocol?

8. Which three addresses are considered to be private addresses? (Choose three.)

11. Why were private IP addresses developed?

16. Which statement accurately describes public IP addresses?

17. Which IPv4 class of addresses provides the most networks?

19. What is the purpose of a DHCP server on a network?

Module 9/10 Exam Answers

1. What is the primary responsibility of the transport layer?

2. Why is IP considered a best-effort protocol?

5. Which three addresses are considered to be private addresses? (Choose three.)

6. What is the purpose of a DHCP server on a network?

to assign a MAC address to a host

21. Which type of routing allows routers to adapt to network changes?

23. What do switches and routers use to make forwarding decisions?

Module 10 Exam Answers

5. Which type of routing allows routers to adapt to network changes?

13. What do switches and routers use to make forwarding decisions?

15. How does subnetting provide some level of security in a network?

17. What is the purpose of a subnet mask in a network?

19. What is the primary purpose of a routing protocol?

Module 11 Exam Answers

3 FTP provides a reliable, connection-oriented service for transferring of files. Which

4 TCP is referred to as connection-oriented. What does this mean?

10 What is the purpose of TCP/UDP port numbers?

15 Which protocol is used by e-mail servers to communicate with each other?